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Reproductive Health
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
According to World Health Organisation (WHO), reproductive health means a total well-being
in all aspects of reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional, social and behavioural.
Thus, a society with people who have physically and functionally normal reproductive organs
and normal emotional and behavioural interactions among them in all sex-related aspects might
be called reproductively healthy.
(v) Birth control devices and care of mother and child (Prenatal, Natal and Post-natal Care) :
Fertile couples and people of marriageable age group should know about available birth control
devices, care of pregnant mothers, postnatal (after birth) care of the mother and child,
importance of breast feeding, equal importance for the male and female child, etc.
2. Age of marriage :
• Demographers explain that postpone of female marriage age from 18 years to 20 or 22 years
would bring down the birth rate by 20 to 30%.
• Even a year postpone in each age group will decrease total fertility rate much less than the
present 3.5% for the country. But according to an ICMR report, about 49% women in India are
married before the legal age of 18 years.
Population Control
• With an increase in population, the resources of this earth are bound to deplete rapidly as it put
tremendous strain on the available resources.
• The environmental quality will be affected and all this might spell doom for mankind. It is
therefore, extremely important to keep the size of a family small. This means the introduction of
birth control (family planning) methods.
Conceptual Questions
Q.1 Which was the first country in the developing world to initiate 'Family planning programmes'?
Q.2 When were family planning programmes initiated?
Q.3 Which conditions have an explosive impact on the growth of population?
Q.4 What are the suggested reasons for population explosion?
Ans. Q.1. India
Q.2. In 1951
Q.3. Increased health facilities with better living conditions
Q.4. (i) Rapid decline in death rate, (ii) Decline in maternal mortality rate, (iii) Decline in infant
mortality rate
2. Barrier Methods :
These are mechanical devices which prevent the deposition of sperms into vagina and their
passage into the uterus.
Further, they can be self inserted by the user in complete privacy.
The common barrier methods are condoms, diaphragm, fem shield and cervical cap.
(i) Condom:
It is tubular latex sheath which is rolled over the male copulatory
organ during sex.
The common brand provided by family welfare services is
Nirodh.
The device also provides protection against sexually transmitted diseases including AIDS.
(iii) Diaphragm:
It is a tubular rubber sheath with a flexible metal or spring ring at the margin
which is fitted inside the vagina.
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The device prevents the entry of sperms into the uterus.
3. Chemical Methods:
These are contraceptives which contain spermicidal chemicals.
The chemical contraceptives are available in the form of creams (e.g., delfen), jelly (perceptin,
volpar paste), foam tablets (e.g., aerosol foam, chlorimin T or contab).... etc.
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These commonly contain lactic acid, boric acid, citric acid, zinc sulphate and potassium
permanganate.
The contraceptives are introduced in vagina prior to sex.
Sponge (Today) is a foam suppository or tablet containing nonoxynol-9 as spermicide. It kills
the sperm by disrupting the membrane. It is moistened before use to activate the spermicide. The
device also absorbs the male ejaculate.
4. Intrauterine Devices (IUDs) (Intrauterine Contraceptive Devices or IUCDs) :
These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses
in the uterus through vagina. IUDs affect motility of
sperms within the uterus. These IUDs can be –
(a) Non-medicated (e.g., Lippes loop)
(b) Copper releasing (e.g., CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375) –
The copper ions suppress the motility and fertilization
capacity of sperms.
(c) Hormone releasing (e.g., Progestasert, LNG-20)- The hormone releasing IUDs, in addition,
make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms.
IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the females who want to delay pregnancy and / or space
children. It is one of the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
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amount, e.g., Mala D, Mala L.
In multiphasic combined pills, oestrogen is maintained at the same level throughout the 21 day
course (0.03 mg). But the amount of progestin is increased (0.05 mg for first six days, 0.075 for
next 5 days and 0.125 mg for last ten days), e.g., triquilar, orthonovum.
Minipills are progestin pills only (with no estrogen). They are taken daily without break.
Saheli, a nonsteroidal preparation, is taken once a week after an initial intake of twice a week
dose for 3 months.
7. Implants:
They are hormone containing devices which are implanted subdermally for
providing long term contraception.
Norplant is progestin only device having six small permeable capsules (34 mm
× 2.4 mm) each with about 36 mg levonorgestrel.
They are inserted under the skin in a fan shaped manner inside upper arm or fore
arm through a small incision.
Suturing is not required. Norplant remains effective for about 5 years.
Implanon is a single rod-like device which is implanted through a wide bored needle. It contains
3-keto desogestrel. It remains functional for three years.
8. Emergency Contraception :
It is treatment for unprotected sex, sexual assault, missed pills and other reasons which have risk
of pregnancy.
The drugs used for treating emergency contraceptions are called morning-after pills.
They are also available in India under Family Welfare Programme since 2002-2003.
Two ovral tablets to start and two tablets after 12 hours provide relief.
Other morning-after pills are noral, norgynon and ovidon.
An antiprogesterone pill (mifepristone) is a single pill treatment.
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Insertion of IUD within five days of unprotected sex prevents implantation.
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Conceptual Questions
Q.1 Which hormones are present in brith control pills?
Q.2 Name any one injectable contraceptive.
Q.3 Name the ideal contraceptives for a female who wants to delay pregnancy or space children.
Q.4 Which drug is progesterone antagonist and helpful in inducing abortion?
Q.5 Which method is the terminal method of contraception?
Ans. Q.1. Progesterone and oestrogen, Q.2. Depo-provera, Q.3. IUD (Intra Uterine Devices),
Q.4. Mifepristone, Q.5. Surgical method
Self Assessment
Q.1 Which of the following can't be considered as advantage of amniocentesis ?
(1) Prenatal diagnostics (2) Detection of biochemical abnormalities
(3) Detection of congenital defects (4) Determination of sex to abort female foetus
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Q.2 Population growth rate depends upon
(1) Birth rate (2) Death rate (3) Age-sex ratio (4) All of these
Q.3 Replacement level is the number of children a couple must produce to replace themselves so as
to maintain population at zero growth level. The value of replacement level for developed
countries is
(1) 2.7 (2) 2.1 (3) 1.9 (4) 1.2
Q.4 Which of the following defines the stage of demographic transition?
(1) Birth rate is higher than death rate (2) Death rate is higher than birth rate
(3) Birth rate and death rate are equal (4) Both (1) & (2)
Q.5 The average number of children that would be borne by a female during her lifetime is called
(1) Natality (2) Birth rate
(3) Population growth rate (4) Total fertility rate
Q.6 Which of the following can be included under natural methods of birth control?
(1) Rhythm method (2) Coitus interruptus
(3) Lactational amenorrhoea (4) All of these
Q.7 Which of the following contraceptive devices also protect against sexually transmitted diseases?
(1) Fem shield (2) Sponge (3) IUDs (4) LNG-20
Q.8 Which of the following chemicals can be used under chemical methods for contraception?
(1) Lactic acid (2) Boric acid (3) Citric acid (4) All of these
Q.9 Which of the following is/are hormone releasing IUDs?
(1) Progestasert (2) Levonorgestrel (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Lippe's loop
Q.10 Which of the following can be included under emergency contraception?
(1) An antiprogesterone pill
(2) Insertion of IUD within 72 hours of unprotected sexual contact
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Vasectomy
Ans. Q.1 (4), Q.2 (4), Q.3 (2), Q.4 (3), Q.5 (4), Q.6 (4), Q.7 (1), Q.8 (4), Q.9 (3), Q.10 (3)
INFERTILITY
Infertility (L. in-not, fertilis-fruitful) is failure to conceive even after 1-2 years of regular
unprotected sex.
The term is not synonym of sterility which means complete inability to produce offspring.
Infertility can best be defined as relative sterility.
It is of two types, primary and secondary.
Primary infertility is the infertility found in patients who have never conceived.
Secondary infertility is found in patients who have previously connceived.
Infertility is caused by defects found in males, females as well as both.
Infertility in Males
Semen of a fertile male is 2.5 to 5 ml per ejaculation with a sperm count of over 200-300 million,
mostly motile, having proper fructose content and fluidity which is deposited high in the vagina.
Any defect in sperm count, sperm structure, sperm motility of seminal fluid leads of infertility.
Low sperm count (< 20 - 120 per ml) is called oligospermia while near absence of sperms is
known as azoospermia.
Low sperm motility is called asthenozoospermia while defective sperm morphology is termed
as teratozoospermia.
Infertility in Females
A fertile woman is the one who regularly ovulates once every cycle, passes the egg down the
reproductive tract which develops conditions for smooth passage of sperms and implantation of
fertilised egg.
The various causes of infertility in females are as follows :
1. Anovulation (nonovulation) and oligoovulation (deficient ovulation).
2. Inadequate growth and functioning of corpus luteum.
3. The ovum is not liberated but remains trapped inside the follicle due to hyperprolactinaemia.
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4. Fallopian tube may fail to pick up ovum.
5. Noncanalisation of uterus.
6. Defective uterine endometrium.
7. Fibroid uterus.
8. Defects in cervix.
9. Defective vaginal growth.
A. IVF & ET
In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) is the fertilization outside the body, in almost similar conditions as
that in the body, which is followed by embryo transfer (ET). In this method, popularly known as,
Test-Tube baby method, the ova from the wife/donor (female) and sperms from the
husband/donor (male) are collected and are induced to form zygote under simulated conditions
in the laboratory. The zygote or early embryos are then transferred into fallopian tube or uterus to
complete its further development.
1. ZIFT : In ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) the zygote, formed in vitro, or early embryo
up to 8-blastomere, is transferred into fallopian tube.
2. IUT : In IUT (Intra Uterine Transfer) the embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred
into the uterus for further development. The embryos formed by in-vivo fertilization can also be
used for transfer to assist those females who cannot conceive.
3. ICSI : In ICSI (Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection) is another specialized procedure to form an
embryo in the laboratory in which a sperm is directly injected into the ovum.
B. INVIVO FERTILISATION
1. GIFT : The GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer) is the transfer of an ovum collected from a
donor into the fallopian tube of the recipient who can provide suitable environment for
fertilization and further development. In this technique egg is collected by IVF method and then
ova is fertilized and transferred fallopian tube.
2. AI : The AI (Artificial Insemination) is used for the cases of infertility which is either due to
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inability of the male partner to inseminate the female, or due to very low sperm counts in the
ejaculate.
In this technique, the semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially
introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus (IUI -intra-uterine insemination) of the
female.
ART requires extremely high precision handling by specialized professionals and expensive
instrumentation. The infertility facilities are presently available only in very few centres in the
country.
Obviously their benefits are affordable to only a limited number of people. Emotional, religious
and social factors are also involved in the adoption of these methods.
Conceptual Questions
Q.1 Expand IVF.
Ans. Q.1. In vitro fertilization
Concept Builder
Conventional Methods of Contraception: Rhythm method, spermicides, vaginal diaphragms
and condoms.
Gossypol : It is a yellow pigment (C30H30O8) present in cotton seed taken orally (10-20 mg)
daily for 3 months and thereafter twice weekly (20 mg) inhibits spermatogenesis.
Saheli : (Centchroman) is nonsteroidal drug taken orally twice a week for three months and then
once a week is a potent contraceptive which prevents implantation but does not inhibit ovulation.
It is a research product of Central Drug Research Institute, Lucknow.
IVE-ET — In vitro fertilisation and embryo transfer
GIFT — Gamete intra-fallopian transfer
ZIFT — Zygote intra-fallopian transfer
lUI — Intrauterine insemination
POST — Peritoneal oocyte and sperm transfer
SUZI — Subzonal insemination
ICSI — Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection
TESE — Testicular sperm extraction
MESA — Microsurgical epididymal sperm aspiration.
Surrogacy or use of a gestational carrier: Another woman carries embryo or a donor embryo
to term. Child is genetically related to parent only.
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SUMMARY
Q.2 Which of the following is not included under barrier methods of birth control?
(1) Vaginal pouch (2) Diaphragm (3) Cervical cap (4) Implant
Q.3 Sexually transmitted diseases can get transmitted easily during use of
(1) Diaphragm (2) Cervical cap (3) Birth control pills (4) All of these
Q.4 The diaphragm is rubber dome shaped structure and stops the sperms from entering into
(1) Vestibule (2) Vagina (3) Cervix (4) Both (1) & (2)
Q.5 Among the following methods which one has the highest failure rate?
(1) Diaphragm with spermicide (2) Condom
(3) Intrauterine device (4) Rhythm method
Q.6 Which of the following STD and its causative agent is not correctly matched?
(1) Genital warts : Haemophilus ducrei
(2) Syphilis : Treponema pallidum
(3) Genital herpes : Type II Herpes simplex virus (HSV-2)
(4) Trichomoniasis : Trichomonas vaginalis
Q.7 India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a
national level to attain reproductive health. These programmes called as 'family planning' were
initiated in ____ year in India
(1) 1951 (2) 1976 (3) 1901 (4) 1987
Q.8 All the following are uses of amniocentesis, but one is misuse. Which one is misuse?
(1) The centres for genetic counselling offer amniocentesis on request to women for
chromosome analysis
(2) This technique has been developed for detecting foetal abnormalities by analysing
chromosomal defects
(3) It is used to study metabolic defects of foetus like PKU (phenyl ketonuria)
(4) It is done to examine the sex of the foetus leading to increasing female foeticides
Q.9 Which of the following is world's first non-hormonal oral contraceptive pill for females,
developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow, India?
(1) Mala-D (2) Saheli (3) MORNING (4) PoP
Q.11 Contraceptive pills are very effective with lesser side effects and are well accepted by the
female. They work by
(1) Inhibiting ovulation
(2) Inhibiting implantation
(3) They alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent retard the entry of sperms
(4) All of these
Chap-26_ Reproductive Health || 15
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Q.12 Which of the following is a once a week pill with very few side effects and high contraceptive
value?
(1) Mala-D (2) Saheli (3) Depo-provera (4) Norplant
Q.13 A sterlisation technique in females which blocks gamete transport and thereby prevent
conception is
(1) Vasectomy (2) Copper-T (3) Condom (4) Tubectomy
Q.15 The latest technique to produce a child is GIFT. The full form is
(1) Gametic internal fertilization and transfer
(2) Gametic intra fallopian transfer
(3) Gametic inter fallopian transfer
(4) General internal fallopian transfer
Q.19 At what stage of the ovarian cycle are mammalian eggs most likely to become fertilized?
(1) At the beginning of proliferative phase (2) Immediately after ovulation
(3) During the middle of the secretory phase (4) During the menstrual phase
Q.22 Most of the sexually transmitted diseases are completely curable if detected early and treated
properly, except
(1) Hepatitis-B (2) Genital herpes (3) HIV infections (4) All of these
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Q.23 Which of the following causative agents of STDs can cross the placenta?
(1) Hepatitis-B (2) HIV (3) Syphilis (4) All of these
Q.24 Which of the following is one of the safest method of birth control?
(1) The rhythm method (2) Sterilization techniques
(3) Use of physical barriers (4) Termination of unwanted pregnancy
Q.27 Which of the following method of birth control is effective, easy to use and less-expensive?
(1) IUD (2) Condom (3) Implant (4) Diaphragm
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EXERCISE – 2
Q.1 Which of the following statement is not true w.r.t. tubectomy or tubal ligation?
(1) It is more difficult than vasectomy and is even more difficult to reverse
(2) No ovulation occurs, hence no fertilization is possible
(3) It involves ligation of both fallopian tubes
(4) The failure rate of this approach is almost zero percent
Q.2 Which of the following hormone/s is/are maintained at high level during hormonal method of
birth control?
(1) FSH (2) LH (3) Progesterone (4) Both (1) & (2)
Q.3 In the rhythm method of birth control, the couple refrains from intercourse
(1) One day before and after ovulation (2) Two days before and after ovulation
(3) Three days before and after ovulation (4) One week before and after ovulation
Q.5 Action of which of the following hormone is blocked during use of RU 486 (mifepristone)?
(1) FSH (2) LH (3) Progesterone (4) hCG
Q.7 Which of the following can 't be taken as the symptom of a female suffering from gonorrhea?
(1) Inflammation of urethera with painful urination
(2) Discharge of pus from vagina
(3) Inflammation of uterine tubes
(4) Peritonitis or inflammation of the peritoneum
Q.8 Which of the following stage of syphilis is characterised by a skin rash, fever and aches in the
joints and muscles?
(1) Primary stage (2) Secondary stage (3) Tertiary stage (4) Neurosyphilis stage
Q.9 Use of which of the following contraceptive device has increased in recent years due to its
additional benefit of protecting the user from contracting STDs and AIDS?
(1) Coitus interrupts (2) IUDs (Intra-Uterine-Devices)
(3) Condoms (4) Vasectomy
Q.10 Which of the following have been found to be very effective as emergency contraceptives as
they could be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape if given within 72 hours?
A. Administration of progestogens B. Progestogen-estrogen combination
C. IUDs D. Condoms
(1) D only (2) A and B (3) A, B and C (4) A, B, C and D
Q.11 All the following statements about ZIFT are correct, but one is wrong. Which one is wrong?
(1) It is zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(2) Zygote is transferred into the fallopian tube after IVF
(3) Early embryos upto 8 blastomeres can also be transferred into the fallopian tubes
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(4) Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are also transferred into the fallopian tubes
Q.12 If a person is suffering with severe male infertility, in which the ejaculate contains very few
sperm (oligozoospermia) or even no live sperm (azoospermia), can be overcome by_______.
This should offer couples an alternative to using donor sperm
(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT (3) ICSI (4) IVF
Q.14 Which of the following contraceptive is an injectible form of the 'birth control pill hormones' that
prevent ovulation?
(1) Norplant (2) Depo-Provera (3) Saheli (4) Mala-D
Q.15 Which of the following STDs is caused by the human papilloma virus (HPV) and are transmitted
through intimate contact with infected person?
(1) Genital herpes (2) Genital warts (3) AIDS (4) Chlamydia
Q.16 Norplant is
(1) A kind of plant (2) A fertilizer factory
(3) A contraceptive (4) A power generation plant
Q.18 Which of the following drug is progesterone antagonist and acts as an abortion drug?
(1) Saheli (2) Mifepristone (3) Mala-N (4) Depo-provera
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EXERCISE – 3 AIIMS Speical Questions
INSTRUCTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion,
then mark (1).
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion,
then mark (2).
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (3).
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (4).
Q.2 Assertion : Intrauterine devices (IUDs) are very effective contraceptive method.
Reason : IUDs don't allow sperms to enter uterus.
Q.3 Assertion : Surgical method blocks gamete transport & thereby prevents conception.
Reason : Surgical method used in the male for this purpose is called vasectomy.
Q.4 Assertion : Saheli -the new oral contraceptive for the female contains a non-steroidal
preparation.
Reason : It is 'once a week' pill with very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
Q.5 Assertion : In test-tube baby programme, ova from wife/donor (female) and sperms from the
husband/ donor (male) are collected and are induced to form zygote under
simulated conditions in laboratory.
Reason : Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are then transferred to fallopian tube
(ZIFT) to complete its further development.
Q.6 Assertion : Surgical methods of contraception are practiced to space the successive two
conceptions.
Reason : During surgical methods ovaries from females or testes from males are removed.
Q.7 Assertion : Natural methods are based on menstrual cycle and the life of sperms.
Reason : Natural methods often fail to contracept.
Q.8 Assertion : Sexually transmitted diseases get transmitted from the infected to the normal
person, only during sexual contact.
Reason : All sexually transmitted diseases can be cured by antibiotics.
Q.10 Assertion : Marriageable age of Indian female and male is 18 and 21 years respectively.
Reason : Under normal condition a girl-child will release around 450 ova in her life time.
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Reason : HIV is a dangerous bacterium.
Q.14 Assertion : In India, IUDs like placement of copper-T is one of the most widely accepted
methods of contraception.
Reason : Sterilisation procedure in the male is called vasectomy.
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EXERCISE – 4 Previous Years Questions
Q.1 Which of the following statements is correct with reference to a test tube baby? [AIPMT 1994]
(1) fertilization of the egg is completed outside the body; the fertilized egg is then placed in the
womb of the mother where the gestation is completed
(2) fertilization of the egg is completed in the female genital tract. It is then taken out and
grown in a large test tube
(3) a prematurely born baby is reared in an incubator
(4) fertilization of the egg and growth of the embryo is completed in a large test tube.
Q.4 What is the work of progesterone which is present in oral contraceptive pills? [AIPMT 2000]
(1) to inhibit ovulation
(2) to check oogenesis
(3) to check entry of sperms into cervix and to make them inactive
(4) to check sexual behaviour.
Q.6 Test tube baby means a baby born when [AIPMT 2003]
(1) it is developed in a test tube
(2) it is developed through tissue culture method
(3) the ovum is fertilized externally and thereafter implanted in the uterus
(4) it develops from a nonfertilized uterus
Q.7 Given below are four methods (A-D) and their modes of action (a-d) in achieving contraception.
Select their correct matching from the four options that follow [AIPMT 2008]
Method Mode of Action
A. The pill (i) Prevents sperms reaching cervix
B. Condom (ii) Prevents implantation
C. Vasectomy (iii) Prevents ovulation
D. Copper-T (iv) Semen contains no sperms
(1) A -(iii), B -(iv), C -(i), D -(ii) (2) A -(ii), B -(iii), C -(i), D -(iv)
(3) A -(iii), B -(i), C -(iv), D -(ii) (4) A -(iv), B -(i), C -(ii), D -(iii)
Q.8 Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed there after
A. medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe
B. generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years
C. intrauterine devices like copper-Tare effective contraceptives
D. contraception pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception.
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Which two of the above statements are correct? [AIPMT 2008]
(1) A, C (2) A, B (3) B, C (4) C, D
Q.9 Amniocentesis is [AIIMS 2000]
(1) digestion of amino acid (2) conversion of glucose to amino acids
(3) taking out of cells near the foetus (4) killing of child before birth.
Q.13 Progesterone pill helps in preventing pregnancy by not allowing [DPMT 2003]
(1) ova formation (2) fertilization (3) implantation (4) none of these
Q.15 The most important component of oral contraceptive pills is [UPCPMT 1999]
(1) progesterone-estrogen (2) growth hormone
(3) thyroxine (4) luteinizing hormone
Q.17 Which of the following is a technique of direct introduction of gametes into the oviduct?
[Manipal 2004]
(1) MTS (2) ET (3) IVF (4) POST
Q.20 Which one of the following organisms, cause syphilis? [AMU 1999]
(1) Neisseria gonorrhoae (2) Treponema pallidum
(3) Pasteurella pestis (4) Clostridium botulinum.
Q.27 The first case of IVF-ET technique success, was reported by [Karnataka 2003]
(1) Louis Joy Brown and Banting Best (2) Patrick Steptoe and Robert Edwards
(3) Robert Steptoe and Gilbert Brown (4) Baylis and Starling Taylor.
Q.28 Which of the following is a mechanical barrier used in birth control? [Karnataka 2004]
(1) loop (2) dalcon shield (3) copper-T (4) diaphragm
Q.29 Which of the following birth control measure can be considered as the safest?
[Karnataka 2006]
(1) The rhythm method (2) The use of physical barriers
(3) Termination of unwanted pregnancy (4) Sterilization techniques.
Q.30 A sexually transmitted disease symptomised by the development of chancre on the genitals is
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caused by the infection of [Karnataka 2008]
(1) Treponema pallidum (2) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(3) human immuno deficiency virus (4) hepatitis B virus.
Q.34 Which one of following diseases is a sexually transmitted disease? [J & K 2004]
(1) cancer (2) syphilis (3) diphtheria (4) myocarditis
Q.35 The status of the foetus for genetic counseling can be determined by [J & K 2006]
(1) aminocentesis (2) amniocentesis (3) aminoacidopathy (4) foetocentesis.
Q.36 The tests, which is misused for identification for an unborn baby is [J & K 2007]
(1) clotting test (2) amniocentesis (3) erythroblastosis (4) angiogram
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MBBS, MAMC
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Q.42 Copper-T acts by [Kerala 2001]
(1) Suppression of fertilization by fanning a membrane
(2) Disturbing the site of implantation of blastocyst
(3) Acting as a barrier
(4) None of these
Q.43 Each couple should produce only two children which will help in [AMU 1998]
(1) Checking pollution (2) Stablising the ecosystem
(3) Fertility of soil (4) Improving food-Web
Q.45 The technique which makes use of amniotic fluid for the detection of prenatal disorder is called
as: [MP 1993]
(1) Laparoscopy (2) Amniocentesis (3) Endoscopy (4) Ultrasound
Q.47 Cu ions released from copper- releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs); [CBSE 2010]
(1) prevent ovulation (2) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(3) increase phagocytosis of sperms (4) suppress sperm motility
Q.49 What is the figure given below showing in particular ? [AIPMT PRE 2012]
(1) Uterine cancer (2) Tubectomy (3) Vasectomy (4) Ovarian cancer
Q.50 The Test-tube Baby Programmes employs which one of the following techniques?
[AIPMT PRE 2012]
(1) Intra uterine insemination (IUI) (2) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
(3) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT) (4) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
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MBBS, MAMC
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Q.51 Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of: [AIPMT 2014]
(1) Zygote into the uterus.
(2) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube.
(3) Ovum into the fallopian tube.
(4) Zygote into the fallopian tube.
Q.52 Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which: [AIPMT 2014]
(1) small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up.
(2) uterus is removed surgically
(3) small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up.
(4) ovaries are removed surgically.
Q.53 Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra Uterine Device (IUD)? [AIPMT 2014]
(1) Cervical cap (2) Vault (3) Multiload 375 (4) LNG-20
Q.54 Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease? [AIPMT 2015]
(1) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
(2) Trichomoniasis
(3) Encephalitis
(4) Syphilis
Q.56 In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect? [AIPMT 2016]
(1) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate.
(2) It is usually done when a woman is between 14 -16 weeks pregnant.
(3) It is used for prenatal sex determination.
(4) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome.
Q.57 Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
[AIPMT 2016]
(1) Vasectomy — prevents spermatogenesis
(2) Barrier methods — prevent fertilization
(3) Intra uterine devices — increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and
fertilizing capacity of sperms
(4) Hormonal Contraceptives — Prevent/retard entry of sperms, prevent ovulation
Q.59 In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be
suitable for fertilisation? [AIPMT 2017]
(1) Intrauterine transfer (2) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
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(3) Artificial Insemination (4) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
Q.60 The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD's is [AIPMT 2017]
(1) They suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms
(2) They inhibit gametogenesis
(3) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(4) They inhibit ovulation
Q.61 Select the correct match of the techniques given in column I with its feature given in column II.
[AIIMS 2017]
Column I Column II
A. ICSI I. Artificially introduction of semen into the
vagina or uterus.
B. IUI II. Transfer of ovum collected from a donor into
the fallopian tube where fertilization occur
C. IUT III. Formation of embryo by directly injecting
sperm into the
D. GIFT IV. Transfer of the zygote or early embryo (with
upto 8 blastomeres) into a fallopian tube.
E. ZIFT V. Transfer of embryo with more than 8
blastomeres into the uterus
(1) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – III; E – IV (2) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(3) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – IV; E – I (4) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – IV
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EXERCISE – 5 Previous Years Questions
Q.1 Which of the following is a nonsteroidal pill?
(1) Mala-D (2) Mala-N (3) Saheli (4) Quinesterol
Q.2 Which of the following contraceptive method make uterus unsuitable for implantation?
(1) Diaphram (2) Condom (3) IUD (4) Natural method
Q.7 Which of the following method of contraception has least side effect?
(1) IUD (2) Pills (3) Coitus intermptes (4) Cervical cap
Q.10 In which of the following methods zygote upto 32 blastomere is transferred into the uterus?
(1) IUT (2) ZIFT (3) GIFT (4) ICSI
Q.13 If male is impotent and female is normal then which of the following technique can be used?
(1) ICSI (2) ZIFT (3) GIFT (4) A.I.
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Answer Key
Exercise–1
Q.1 3 Q.2 4 Q.3 3 Q.4 3 Q.5 4 Q.6 1 Q.7 1
Q.8 4 Q.9 2 Q.10 2 Q.11 4 Q.12 2 Q.13 4 Q.14 2
Q.15 2 Q.16 3 Q.17 1 Q.18 1 Q.19 2 Q.20 1 Q.21 1
Q.22 4 Q.23 4 Q.24 2 Q.25 2 Q.26 3 Q.27 2 Q.28 3
Q.29 4
Exercise–2
Q.1 2 Q.2 3 Q.3 3 Q.4 4 Q.5 3 Q.6 4 Q.7 1
Q.8 2 Q.9 3 Q.10 3 Q.11 4 Q.12 3 Q.13 2 Q.14 2
Q.15 2 Q.16 3 Q.17 3 Q.18 2 Q.19 4
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