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BA Mass Communication Sample Paper

Please read the below instructions carefully before proceeding

• This question paper consists of 4 sections, 150 questions and 150 marks

o Q 1-25: Reasoning, 1 mark each

o Q 26-50: English, 1 mark each

o Q 51-75: Quantitative Aptitude, 1 mark each

o Q 76-100: General Awareness, 1 mark each

• You have 120 minutes to complete the test. Each question has a negative marking of 0.25 for each wrong
answer.

• Please note that each section has sectional cut-offs. Hence, you are advised to not spend too much time on
one question or one section.

• The questions may be answered in any order within the given time.

1.
Which one of the following is different from the rest ?
A 19
B 29
C 59
D 69
2.
Select the related letters/word/number from the given alternatives.

Wine : Grape : : Whiskey : ?

A Potato
B Oats
C Apple
D Orange
3.
In a certain code, '467' means 'leaves are green' ; '485' means 'green is good' and '639' means 'they are playing'.
Which digit stands for 'leaves' in that code ?
A6
B7
C8
D4
4.
Anupam said to a lady sitting in a car, "The only daughter of the brother of my wife is the sister-in-law of the
brother of your sister." How the husband of the lady is related to Anupam?
A Maternal uncle
B Uncle
C Father
D Son-in-law

Directions— Read the passage and answer the question –

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A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H are sitting in a circle facing towards the centre. E is between H and D. H is third to the left
of B and second to the right of A. C is between A and G. B and E are not facing each other.
5.
Who is third to the left of D ?
AF
BE
CA
DB
6.
Which of the following is not true ?
A D and E are facing each other
B C is third to the right of D
C E is between H and D
D A is between C and F
7.
Suresh is heavier than Anil but not than Raju. Anil is heavier than Jayesh. Krishnan is heavier than Suresh, but
lighter than Raju. Who is the heaviest ?
A Anil
B Krishnan
C Raju
D Suresh
8.
Of the five houses A, B, C, D and E situated close to each other, A is to the west of B, C is to the south of A, E is
to the north of B and D is to the east of E. Then, D is in which direction with respect to C?
A East
B South-east
C North-east
D South-west
9.
In the given figure, P is 40 m eastward of O and Q is 30 m north of O. R is exactly in the middle of Q and P. The
distance between R and P is
A 25m
B 45 m
C 12.5m
D 50m
10.
If the second half of the english alphabet is written in reverse order then which letter will be 9th of the right of 9th
letter from the left ?
AI
BF
CV
D None of these
11.
If A denotes +, B denotes - and C denotes x, then (10C4)A(4C4)B6 = ?
A 46
B 50
C 55
D 38
12.
In a class Sharmila is 6th from the top and Sunita is 18th from the bottom. Ritu is 14 ranks below Sharmila and
15 ranks above Sunita. How many students are there in the class ?
A 55
B 53
C 52
D Data inadequate
13.
As 'Earthquake' is related to 'Seismograph', in the same way, 'Milk' is related to which ?
A Galvanometer
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B Hydrometer
C Hygrometer
D Lactometer
14.
In the given questions a statement is given followed by two conclusions I and ll. You have to consider the statement
to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given
conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements.

Statement: The most polluting units are those engaged in electroplating of metals. These units generate highly
toxic substances. Such industries are concentrated in the walled city.
Conclusions:
I. Electroplating industries must be shut down.
II. In the walled city there is greater pollution.
A Only I follows
B Only II follows
C Both I and II follow
D Neither l nor II follow
15.
A statement is given followed by four alternative agruments. Select the alternative which is most appropriate.

Statement :
Is it necessary that education should be job oriented?
Arguments:
I. Yes, the aim of education is to prepare person for earning.
II. Yes, educated person should stand on his own feet after completion of education.
III. No, education should be for sake of knowledge only.
IV. No, one may take up agriculture where education is not necessary.
A Only I and II are strong.
B Only III and IV are strong.
C Only I is strong.
D Only I and III are strong.
16.
Select a figure from the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of fig. (x).

AA
BB
CC
DD
17.
The six faces of a dice have been marked with alphabets A, B, C, D, E and F respectively. This dice is rolled
down three times. The three positions are shown as:

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Find the alphabet opposite A.

AC
BD
CE
DF
18.
Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.

A1
B2
C3
D4
19.
In each of the following questions, select the related words/ number from the given alternative.

Brhamputra : Mansarover : : Orange : ?

A Toola
B Lesotho
C Victoria
D Toras Mountain
20.
In the question a number-sereis is given. Which one of the alternatives will replace the question mark (?) ?
2, 11, 47, 191, 767, ?
A 2981
B 3068
C 3081
D 3071
21.
In the given figure, the triangle represents Graduates, Rectangle represents Married Persons and Circle
represents Women. What is the number of those Women who are Graduates but not Married?

A 21
B 14
C 32
D 37
22.

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Select the missing number from the given responses

A3
B4
C7
D1
23.
Among answer figures which figure can be formed from the cut-pieces given below in question figure

D
24.
Find the number of triangle in the given figure.

A 16
B 22
C 28
D 32
25.

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In the following questions, identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the classes given
below.

AA
BB
CC
DD

Direction: Read the following Passage and answer the Questions.

Millions of people in the United States are affected by eating disorders. More than 90% of those afflicted are
adolescents or young adult women. Although all eating disorders share some common manifestations, anorexia
nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge eating each have distinctive symptoms and risks.
People who intentionally starve themselves (even while experiencing severe hunger pains) suffer from anorexia
nervosa. The disorder, which usually begins around the time of puberty, involves extreme weight loss to at least
15% below the individual's normal body weight. Many people with the disorder look emaciated but are convinced
they are overweight. In patients with anorexia nervosa, starvation can damage vital organs such as the heart and
brain. To protect itself, the body shifts into slow gear: Menstrual periods stop, blood pressure rates drop, and
thyroid function slows. Excessive thirst and frequent urination may occur.
Anorexia nervosa sufferers can exhibit sudden angry outbursts or become socially withdrawn. One in ten cases
of anorexia nervosa leads to death from starvation, cardiac arrest, other medical complications, or suicide. Clinical
depression and anxiety place many individuals with eating disorders at risk for suicidal behavior.
People with bulimia nervosa consume large amounts of food and then rid their bodies of the excess calories by
vomiting, abusing laxatives or diuretics, taking enemas, or exercising obsessively. Some use a combination of all
these forms of purging.
Because many individuals with bulimia binge and purge in secret and maintain normal or above normal body
weight, they can often successfully hide their problem for years. But bulimia nervosa patients—even those of
normal weight— can severely damage their bodies by frequent binge eating and purging. In rare instances, binge
eating causes the stomach to rupture; purging may result in heart failure due to loss of vital minerals such as
potassium. Vomiting can cause the esophagus to become inflamed and glands near the cheeks to become
swollen.
Binge-eating disorder is found in about 2% of the general population. As many as one-third of this group are men.
It also affects older women, though with less frequency. Recent research shows that binge-eating disorder occurs
in about 30% of people participating in medically supervised weight-control programs. This disorder differs from
bulimia because its sufferers do not purge. Individuals with binge-eating disorder feel that they lose control of
themselves when eating. They eat large quantities of food and do not stop until they are uncomfortably full. Most
sufferers are overweight or obese and have a history of weight fluctuations. As a result, they are prone to the
serious medical problems associated with obesity, such as high cholesterol, high blood pressure, and diabetes.
26.
Fatalities occur in what percent of people with anorexia nervosa?
A 2%
B 10%
C 15%
D 30%
27.
Which of the following consequences do all the eating disorders mentioned in the passage have in common?
A heart ailments
B stomach rupture
C swollen joints
D diabetes
28.

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According to the passage, people with binge- eating disorder are prone to all of the following EXCEPT
A loss of control.
B depression.
C low blood pressure.
D high cholesterol.
29.
Which of the following is NOT a statement about people with eating disorders?
A People with anorexia nervosa commonly have a blood-related deficiency.
B People with anorexia nervosa perceive themselves as overweight.
C The female population is the primary group affected by eating disorders.
D Fifty percent of people with bulimia have had anorexia nervosa.
30.
People who have an eating disorder but nevertheless appear to be of normal weight are most likely to have
A obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B bulimia nervosa.
C binge-eating disorder.
D anorexia nervosa.
31.
In the question, four alternatives are given for the meaning of the given Idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative
which best expresses the meaning of the Indian/Phrase.

Cock sure
A In doubt
B Very uncertain
C Very sure
D None of above
32.
ln the following questions four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best
expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer.

Close shave
A Very touching moment
B A narrow escape
C Nice service
D Bad service
33.
In the question, four alternatives are given for the meaning of the given Idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative
which best expresses the meaning of the Indian/Phrase.

Carrot and stick policy

A reward and punishment
B dishonest
C arrogant
D selfish policy
34.
In questions below out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given
words/sentence

Easy to mould—
A Pliable
B Malleable
C Prone
D Tractable
35.
In questions below out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given
words/sentence

One who is breaker of idols—

A Inconoclast
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B Renegade
C Escapist
D Impostor
36.
In questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words / sentence.

A formal written charge against a person for some crime or offence—

A Conviction
B Indictment
C Exculpation
D Inculcation
37.
In the questions given below, choose the word most opposite in meaning to the given word and mark your
answer.

Flaccid
A Upright
B Taut
C Uneven
D Tough
38.
In the questions given below, choose the word most opposite in meaning to the given word and mark your
answer.

Gratuity
A Annuity
B Stipend
C Discount
D Penalty
39.
In the questions given below, choose the word most opposite in meaning to the given word and mark your
answer.

Goblin
A Angel
B Evil
C Traveller
D Pilot
40.
In the following questions some have error and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error
and mark the answer to the appropriate letter (A), (B) and C). If there is no error, mark your answer as (D).

I do not really like such persons / who say something / and practice something totally different from what they say.
A I do not really like such persons
B who say something
C and practise something totally different from what they say
D No error
41.
In the following questions some have error and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error
and mark the answer to the appropriate letter (A), (B) and C). If there is no error, mark your answer as (D).

Both the Vice-Principal and Head of the /Department of Chemistry / are on leave.
A Both the Vice-Principal and Head of the
B Department of Chemistry
C are on leave
D No error
42.
In the following questions some have error and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error
and mark the answer to the appropriate letter (A), (B) and C). If there is no error, mark your answer as (D).
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He used very inacurate(A) / language for(B) / he knew no better(C)./No error(D).

A He used very inacurate
B language for
C he knew no better
D No error
43.
In the question, a sentence or underlined part is given which may need improvement. Alternatives are given at
(A), (B) and (C) below, which may be a better option. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).

He should move on to the next point, and not harp one sting only.
A harp only one string
B No improvement
C harp upon one string only
D harp on string only
44.
In the question, a sentence or underlined part is given which may need improvement. Alternatives are given at
(A), (B) and (C) below, which may be a better option. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).

No sooner he had returned home then his mother felt happy.

A No improvement
B he had returned home than
C had he returned home when
D did he return home than
45.
In the question, a sentence or underlined part is given which may need improvement. Alternatives are given at
(A), (B) and (C) below, which may be a better option. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).

Why the dinosaurs died out is not known.

A that is not known
B it is not known
C the reason is not known
D No improvement
46.
In question sentences are given with blanks to be filled with an appropriate words four alternatives are
suggested for each questions. Choose the correct and answer and mark.

He is being accused …… theft.

A which
B for
C of
D about
47.
In the question, sentence given with blanks to the filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are
suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

She smiled …… my words.

A over
B at
C on
D upon
48.
Sentence is given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Choose the correct alternative out of the
four and mark your answer.

Make haste …… we shall miss the train.

A else
B either
C or
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D on
49.
ln questions below, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives
suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice

Row the boat across the river.

A The boat must be rowed across the river
B Let the boat be rowed across the river
C The boat should be rowed across the river.
D The boat can be rowed across the river.
50.
In questions given below, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect form' Out of the four alternatives
suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct form.

They said to us,” we are not coming to the party”.

A They told us that they are not coming to the party.
B They told us that they were not going to the party.
C They told us that we were not going to the party
D They told us that they were not coming to the party.

51.
If the equation 2x2 - 7x + 12 = 0 has two roots α and β, then the value of
α/β+β/α is
A 72
B 124
C 724
D 9724
52.
What is the value of (P+Q) / (P−Q) if P/Q =7
A 4/3
B 2/3
C 2/6
D 7/8
53.
The average weight of 8 men is increased by 1•5 kg. when one of the men who weights 65 kg is replaced by
a new man. The weight of the new man is—
A 76 kg
B 76•5 kg
C 76•7 kg
D 77 kg
54.
Hariharan goes to a shop to buy an FM radio costing Rs. 1404 including sales tax at 8%. He asks the
shopkeeper to reduce the price of radio so that he can save the amount equal to the sales tax. The reduction
of the price of the radio is :
A Rs.108
B Rs. 104
C Rs. 112.32
D none of these
55.
In how many years Rs. 1000 will produce the same interest at the rate of 6% as Rs. 1200 produce in 5 years
@ 5 ½ %?
A 55 years

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B 12•5 years
C 5•5 years
D 16•33 years
56.
80 litres of milk mixture has 75% milk concentration. How much water should be added to make its
concentration 60% ?
A 14 litres
B 20 litres
C 24 litres
D 18 litres
57.
A dealer buys a washing machine, listed at Rs. 10000 and gets 10% and 20% successive discounts. He
spends 10% of his CP on transport. At what price (in rupees) should he sell the washing machine to earn a
profit of 10%?
A 8722
B 7892
C 8712
D 8840
58.
A tower is 50 m high, Its shadow ix 'x' metres shorter when the sun's altitude is 450
than when it is 300. Find the value of 'x'
A 100 √3 m
B 200/ √3 m
C 50 √3m
D none of these
59.
Find the angular elevation of the sun when the shadow of a 10m long pole is 10 √3 m.
A π/6
B π/3
C π/2
D π/4
60.
Solve (Cosθ−sinθ) / (Cosθ+Sinθ) = (√3−1) / (√3+1)
A π/6
B π/3
C π/2
D π/4
61.

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In the given figure, PAQ is the tangent. BC is the diameter of the circle. If â BAQ = 60o, find â ABC.

A 75o
B 60o
C 30o
D 90o
62.
ABCD is a trapezium, such that AB, DC are parallel and BC is perpendicular to them. If angle DAB = 45°,
BC = 2 cm and CD = 3 cm then AB =?
A 5 cm
B 4 cm
C 3 cm
D 2 cm
63.
The line segments AB and CD interest at O. OF is the internal bisector of obtuse angle BOC and OE is the
internal bisector of acute angle AOC. If angleBOC = 1300, what is the measure of angleFOE?
A 900
B 1100
C 1150
D 1200
64.
Which smallest number should be subtracted from 1936 so that on being divided by 9, 10, 15, every time the
remainder is 7?
A 93
B 46
C 76
D 39
65.
The sum of the two numbers is 12 and their product is 35. What is the sum of their reciprocals ?
A 17/35
B 12/35
C 19/35
D 16/35
66.
What would be the cost of building a fence around a square plot with area 462.25 sq. ft. at the rate of
Rupees 34 per foot ?
A Rs. 2,924
B Rs. 2,682
C Rs. 2,846
D Cannot be determine

Directions: Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below

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67.
What was the percentage increase in export of rice from 1991 to 1992?
A30
B20
C15
D25
68.
The total export of rice in 1994 was what percent of the total export in the year 1991 and 1993?
A60
B50
C30
D40
69.
What was the percentage drop in the export of rice in the year 1994 as compared to the year 1993?
A25
B30
C35
D20
70.
In which of the following pair of years the difference in export is maximum?
A 1993 - 1997
B 1994 - 1996
C 1991 - 1993
D 1992 - 1994

The following pie-chart shows the soures of funds to be collected by the National Highways Authority of India
(NHAI) for its Phase II projects. Study the pie-chart and answer the questions that follow.

SOURCE OF FUND TO BE ARRANGED BY NHAI FOR PHASE II PROJECTS (IN CRORES RS.)

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Total funds to be arranged for Projects (Phase II) = Rs.57,600 crors

71.
Near about 20% of the funds are to be arranged through:
A SPVS
B External Assistance
C Annuity
D Market Borrowing
72.
Total funds to be arranged for Projects (Phase II) = Rs.57,600 crors.
The central angle corresponding to Market Borrowing is:
A 520
B 137.8%
C 187.20
D 192.40
73.
The approximate ratio of the funds to be arranged through Toll and that through Market Borrowing is:
A 2:9
B 1:6
C 3:11
D 2:5
74.
If NHAI could receive a total of Rs.9695 crores as External Assistance, by what percent (approximately)
should it increase the Market Borrowings to arrange for the shortage of funds?
A 4.5%
B 7.5%
C 6%
D 8%
75.
If the toll is to be collected through an outsourced agency by allowing a maximum 10% commission, how
much amount should be permitted to be collected by the outsourced agency, so that the project is supported
with Rs.4910 crores?
A Rs.6213 crores
B Rs.5827 crores
C Rs.5401 crores
D Rs.5216 crores

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76. The Dampa Tiger Reserve is located in which state of India?

A Nagaland
B Assam
C Mizoram
D Manipur
77.
Which of the following state government has launched a dedicated helpline for journalists to help and assist
the media persons ?
A Himachal Pradesh
B Uttar Pradesh
C Madhya Pradesh
D Andhra Pradesh
78.
6th Heart of Asia conference was hosted by which country ?
A Israel
B Afganistan
C Turkey
D India
79.
Recently, the Pentagon has notified the US congress about its decision to sell anti-ship Harpoon missile to
India at an estimated cost of $200 million. On which of the following submarines the Harpoon missile
system will be employed?
A Shishumar class submarines
B Sindhughosh class submarines
C Chakra class submarines
D Scorpene class submarines
80.
Identify India’s unique Biosphere Reserve in the Western Ghats that is among 20 new sites added by the
UNESCO to its World Network of Biosphere Reserves
A Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve
B Great Nicobar
C Simlipal Biosphere Reserve
D Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
81.
Which was the first bank of India?
A S.B.I.
B R.B.I.
C Bank of Hindustan
D SEBI
82.
International Cricket Council (ICC) has removed some nations from the permanent members of its decision-
making executive committee. Which of the following is not included in those nations ?
A Australia
B England
C New Zealand
D India
83.
Which of the following has been appointed as the new chief of Army's 9 Corps (Rising Star Corps) ?
A Deepak Kapoor
B Bikram Singh
C Rajeev Tewari

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D Ashok Ambre
84.
Which Country has decided to launch its probe on Mars in 2021?
A Russia
B Japan
C China
D India
85.
Who is the author of the book “Flying in High Winds: A Memoir"?
A Shirish Chindhade
B S.K. Mishra
C Bilal Siddiqi
D Ruskin Bond
86.
In which of the following fields is the Nobel Prize not awarded ?
A Literature
B Journalism
C Peace
D Economics
87.
Whose birthday is celebrated as 'Sadhbhavna Divas'?
A Indira Gandhi
B Rajiv Gandhi
C Mahatma Gandhi
D Sanjay Gandhi
88.
Who was presented with the Life Time Achievement Award at the 5th National Photography Awards
ceremony?
A Javed Ahmed Dar
B Bhawan Singh
C Himanshu Thakur
D Manob Chowdhury
89.
What is the full form of "NITI" Aayog?
A National Institute for Transforming India
B National Institution for Transforming India
C National Investment Transfomation in Inda
D Non Indian Technical Institutiion
90.
Consider the following statements and identify the right ones.
i. The share of agriculture to the GDP today is less than 5% today
ii. The tertiary sector contributes about 55%of the occupational structure.
A I only
B ii only
C both
D none
91.
Alpha particles are Helium nucleus with a charge of ___________ ?
Ae
B 2e
C 3e

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D 4e
92.
Bile juice is secreted by ______________ ?
A Pancreas
B Liver
C Spleen
D Gall bladder
93.
Which of the following is not dealt under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act. 1986?
A The Biodiversity Authority
B The coastal Zone Management Authority
C Authority set-up to monitor the State of Notified Ecologically Sensitive Areas
D Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Right Authority
94.
The glass used for making laboratory apparatus is ________ ?
A Soft glas
B Safety glass
C Pyrex glass
D Hard glass
95.
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of TV display technologies?
A CRT, Plasma, LED
B CRT, LED, Plasma
C LED, CRT, Plasma
D Plasma, LED, CRT
96.
The Fundamental Rights can be suspended by whom ?
A Governor
B President
C Law Minister
D Prime Minister
97.
Who said, "The States exists because crime exists in society, otherwise there would be no need of a State"?
A Herbert Spencer
B J.S. Mill
C John Locke
D Tocqueville
98.
The following have held office of the president of India, the chronological order in which they held office is-
1. V.V. giri
2. N. Sanjiva Reddy
3. Dr. Jakir hussain
4. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
A 4,3,1,2
B 3,1,4,2
C 2,3,4,1
D 1,3,2,4
99.
Which one of the following newspaper was launched by Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya in 1918?
A Fee India
B Nav Bharat

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C Independent
D Leader
100.
With which musical instrument is Shiv Kumar Sharma associated?
A Tabala
B Santoor
C Sitar
D Shehnai

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