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Exam : H31-341

Title : HCIP-Transmission V2.0

Version : V10.02

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1. Which of the following description of the ASON software structure is correct? (Multiple Choice)
A. Intelligent optical network consists of three planes
B. Management plane mainly refers to upper management such as network management
C. Intelligent software main application management plane
D. The transmission plane refers to the traditional transmission network.
Answer: ABD

2. The transmission plane mainly performs functions such as optical signal transmission, multiplexing,
configuration protection switching, and reconnection, and ensures the reliability of the transmitted optical
signal. However, the exchange action of this layer is carried out under the influence of the management
dry surface and the control plane.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

3. Which of the following are limitations of the alarm and performance analysis methods? (Multiple
Choice)
A. Field maintenance personnel cannot understand the current operating condition of the equipment.
B. The network administrator cannot obtain the current notifications of the device, the alarm occurrence
time, and the historical alarm of the device.
C. When some faults occur, there may be no obvious alarms or performance events reported, and
sometimes no alarms or performance events are found.
D. In the case of complex networking, service, and fault information, many alarms and performance
events may occur along with the occurrence of faults. Due to too many reports and performance events,
maintenance personnel are unable to analyze.
Answer: CD

4. Which of the following is the data that needs to be collected and saved in the event of a failure?
(Multiple Choice)
A. Equipment alarms and performance events
B. Running status data of the NE and the board
C. Operation log of the network management
D. Configuration data of the NE and the board
Answer: ABCD

5. After the signal of the standard Ethernet frame length of 64 Bytes is connected to the Ethernet board, if
the QinQ function is enabled, what is the actual frame length of the signal inside the board?
A. 64 Bytes
B. 84 Bytes
C. 68 Bytes
D. 80 Bytes
Answer: C

6. The length range of the DATA field in the Ethernet frame structure is ().

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A. 46-1500 bytes
B. 46-1518 bytes
C. 64-1518 bytes
D. 64-1500 bytes
Answer: A

7. Which of the following is a good way to avoid creating discrete paths? (Multiple Choice)
A. The path with the protected route is to be broken or switched. Ensure that the configuration is complete
and standardized.
B. Try to use the path function to configure.
C. Guide users to learn business configuration specifications.
D. The service of the single-station configuration should perform path search on the network to ensure
that the service configuration is complete and standardized.
Answer: ABCD

8. Which of the following description of discrete services is correct? (Multiple Choice)

A. For the cross-connections, after a path search, either a discrete service or forming a path with other
cross-connections, which is impossible to be a discrete service, and forming a path with other
cross-connections.
B. Perform path search on the U2000 network management. Cross-connections that do not form a path
are called high-bandwidth services.
C. Discrete service management requires the U2000 license to have path management functions.
D. A service is searched for a discrete service, indicating that the service is not working properly on the
NE side.
Answer: AC

9. Which step is more when the the single board replacement operation of main control board single
configuration than main control board double configuration?
A. Download the original configuration data
B. Ensure that the version of the host software is the same before and after the replacement.
C. Consistency check of network management and network element data.
D. Query the alarm of the board and confirm that the original alarm has been cleared.
Answer: A

10. The main application scenarios for board compatible replacement are (). (Multiple Choice)
A. Expanding the board
B. Change the board ID
C. Change the board IP
D. Replacement board
Answer: ABD

11. Which of the following operating modes does the AT8 board support? (Multiple Choice)
A. Reverse 2E2M
B. 2E2M

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C. 1E1M
D. Reverse 1E1M
Answer: ABC

12. Which of the following description of the extended ECC is correct? (Multiple Choice)
A. Extended ECC recommends to use manual basis, which reduces mutual negotiation between network
elements.
B. The scale of the extended ECC network (the sum of the server and the client) must not exceed 8.
C. Extended ECC is divided into automatic extended ECC and manual extended ECC. One network
element can only support one mode at the same time. These two methods cannot be directly docked.
D. In the automatic extended ECC mode, you need to connect the Ethernet ports of the two NEs with a
direct-connected network cable (or a standard network cable through B), extend the ECC, and specify the
server and client.
Answer: ABC

13. Which of the following description of the principle of automatic protection switching of the standard
SSM protocol is correct? (Multiple Choice)
A. The network element broadcasts the clock quality information of the synchronization source to the
downlink site through the s1 byte. And reverse notice the uplink site by the S1 byte in the direction of the
synchronization source that the clock quality from the local network element is "not available for
synchronization".
B. If there are multiple clock sources with the highest quality level, the network element selects the clock
with the highest clock priority as the synchronization source.
C. According to the clock source priority table, the network element first selects the clock with the highest
quality level from the available clock sources as the synchronization source.
D. The network element broadcasts the clock quality information and the clock source ID of the
synchronization source to the downlink site through the S1 byte, and reverse notices the uplink site that
the clock quality from the local network element is "not available for synchronization" by the S1 byte in the
direction of the synchronization source.
Answer: ABCD

14. Which of the following description of the evolutionist in the mainstream SDN model in the industry is
correct? (Multiple Choice)
A. Control flexibility is moderate and open is not complete
B. Make full use of existing equipment and achieve fast
C. Device programmable, open northbound API interface
D. Try to preserve and reuse existing routing protocols and IP network technologies
Answer: ABCD

15. Which of the following statement about the MPLS-TP OAM level is correct?
A. Section is the service layer of the tunnel, Tunnel is the service layer of the PW, and PW is the service
layer of the Service.
B. Section is the service layer of PW, PW is the service layer of Tunnel, and Tunnel is the service layer of
Service.

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C. Service is the service layer of the PW, PW is the service layer of the Tunnel, and Tunnel is the service
layer of the Section.
D. Tunnel is the service layer of PW, PW is the service layer of Service, and Service is the service layer of
Section.
Answer: A

16. Which of the following is the incorrect description of the internal port properties of the Ethernet board?
A. For the ingress port for the Access attribute, if the input data carries the VLAN ID, discard.
B. For the inbound port of the Tag Aware attribute, if the input data carries the VLAN ID, transparently
receive the data.
C. For the ingress port of the Access attribute, if the input data does not carry the VLAN ID, it is directly
transparent.
D. For the ingress port of the Tag Aware attribute, if the input data does not carry the VLAN ID, discard.
Answer: C

17. The steps that must be performed when configuring the Ethernet private line service carried by the
PW are as follows: (Multiple Choice)
A. Configure QoS
B. Configure MPLS tunnel
C. Configure port DCN
D. Configure the UNI port
Answer: BCD

18. MPLS APS is a network protection mechanism that implements service creation through the detection
function of MPLS OAM.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

19. The E-Line service types supported by the MS-OTN packet device are: (Multiple Choice)
A. E-Line service based on VL.AN
B. E-Line service based on QinQ
C. E-Line carried by PW
D. Point-to-point transparent transmission of E-Line services
Answer: ABCD

20. Which of the following are the components of general package format of PWE3? (Multiple Choice)
A. Type
B. CW (Control Word)
C. MPLS label
D. Payload
Answer: BCD

21. In the WDM system, what is the reason for the fiber attenuation and bit error rate? (Multiple Choice)

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A. Fiber bending
B. Fiber damage
C. Fiber break
D. Fiber aging
Answer: ABD

22. Which of the following SOM systems is not monitored?

A. Main light path performance
B. Type of originating FEC
C. Light performance flatness
D. Receive OTU input optical power
Answer: B

23. The following basic principles for fault location in WDM systems are (). (Multiple Choice)
A. First two-way, then one-way first
B. First advanced, then low level
C. First single wave, followed by multiple waves
D. First locate external and then location transmission
Answer: ABD

24. For emergency handling of business interruptions, fault location should be performed as soon as
possible, and then the business should be resumed.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

25. The following description of the ASDN software structure, the correct ones are: (Multiple Choice)
A. Intelligent optical network consists of three planes
B. The management plane mainly refers to upper management such as network management.
C. Intelligent software main application management plane
D. The transmission plane refers to the traditional transmission network.
Answer: ABD

26. The transmission plane mainly performs functions such as optical signal transmission, configuration
protection switching, and reconnection, and ensures the reliability of the transmitted optical signal.
However, the switching action of the transport layer is performed under the influence of the management
dry surface and the control plane.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

27. The following limitations of alarm and performance analysis methods are: (Multiple Choice)
A. Field maintenance personnel cannot understand the current health of the equipment.
B. The network administrator cannot obtain any alarms, time, and historical alarms of the device.

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C. When some faults occur, there may be no obvious alarms or performance events reported, and
sometimes no alarms or performance events are found.
D. In the case of complex networking, service, and fault information, many alarms and performance
events may occur along with the occurrence of faults. Due to too many reports and performance events,
maintenance personnel are unable to analyze.
Answer: CD

28. Which of the following is the data that needs to be collected and saved in the event of a failure?
(Multiple Choice)
A. Equipment alarms and performance events
B. Running status data of the NE and the board
C. Operation log of the network management
D. Configuration data for network elements and boards
Answer: ABCD

29. The following description of the electrical layer overhead-source function, the correct ones are:
(Multiple Choice)
A. OPUk performs client signal mapping, rate adjustment and rate adaptation in the transmission
direction.
B. ODUkP is responsible for calculating BIP-8, writing PM, GCC1/2 and other overheads.
C. ODUkT calculates BIP-8 and writes to TCHi.
D. OTUk is responsible for calculating BIP-8, writing to SM, GCCO, FAS, MAFS, etc.
Answer: ABCD

30. When the optical cable between the FIU and the FIU fails, the optical layer alarm reported by the
downlink site is (). (Multiple Choice)
A. OSC_RDI
B. R_LOS
C. MUT_LOS
D. OSC_LOS
Answer: BCD

31. In the ROADM, which of the following layer of OTN paths do not need to be manually configured, it
can be obtained directly by path search? (Multiple Choice)
A. OTS
B. OSC
C. OMS
D. OCh
Answer: ABCD

32. The setting of alarm reversal is based on:

A. Veneer
B. Network element
C. Port

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D. Alarm
Answer: C

33. Before querying the error and optical power on the network management, you need to perform the ()
operation. Otherwise, you cannot query the corresponding teaching data.
A. Create a logical fiber
B. Configuration data
C. Synchronizing network metadata
D. Turn on NE performance monitoring time.
Answer: D

34. The ways of synchronize alarms are (). (Multiple Choice)

A. Timing synchronization
B. Automatic synchronization
C. Manual synchronization
Answer: BC

35. ODUk SNCP protection cannot be automatically switched. The possible reasons are: (Multiple
Choice)
A. SNCP type setting error
B. Waiting for the recovery time to be set too long
C. Electrical cross configuration error
D. Set the lock or forced switch command
Answer: ABCD

36. The following description of 1+1 and 1:1 optical line protection, the fault is (). (Multiple Choice)
A. 1:1 optical line protection switching mode can only be double-ended switching
B. The main difference between 1:1 optical line protection and 1+1 optical line protection is whether the
APS protocol is required.
C. 1+1 optical line protection and 1:1 optical line protection use the same protection board
D. According to different placement of OLP boards in the network, 1+1 optical line protection can be
divided into 1+1 OMS path protection and 1+1 OTS path protection.
Answer: BC

37. For ODUk SNCP protection, if the punch-through site is an electrical relay station, the SCP type is
recommended to be configured as SC/I when configuring protection.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

38. Which of the following alarms will trigger the optical line protection switching? (Multiple choice)
A. POWER DIFF_OVER
B. R_LOF
C. MUT_LOS

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D. R_LOS
Answer: AC

39. When 10-minute error-free test is performed on a certain wavelength division channel, the local end
uses the SDH analyzer to interconnect with the client-side interface of the OTU board. The peer OTU
client-side interface needs to perform fiber self-loop. When you are self-looping, you must add solid
decay.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

40. In the sub-(wave) characterization test, what kind of standard does the isolation test require?
A. <20dB
B. <25dB
C. >20dB
D. >25dB
Answer: D

41. Since the CWDM system does not use an optical amplifier, the focus of the commissioning is whether
the light collection of the OTU board is reasonable.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

42. The maximum optical power of light-emitting OBU output is 20dBm, which is used in the C-band 80
system. How much dBm should the single-wave standard output optical power be?
A. +4dBm
B. +7dBm
C. -2dBm
D. +1dBm
Answer: D

43. Which of the following reasons may cause a business error? (Multiple choice)
A. The tail wire connector is seriously polluted
B. Dispersion compensation is unreasonable, such as under- or over-compensation
C. The temperature in the equipment room is too high
D. Transmitting laser performance degradation of the originating OTU board
E. The optical power of the incoming fiber is too high or too low
Answer: ABCDE

44. When the input optical power of the amplifier at the receiving end OAU is lower than the nominal
optical power, which of the following are wrong in the operation?
A. Adjust the dimmable fading before the terminating amplifier to increase the input optical power of the
amplifier

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B. Set the OAU gain so that its output reaches the nominal value
C. Improve the sending optical power of the originator
D. When the input optical power cannot be increased by adjusting the adjustable attenuator, the
adjustable attenuation at the input of the amplifier is removed.
Answer: C

45. Which particles can be cross-scheduled for the cross-board of the OSN 8800 device? (Multiple
choice)
A. OPU2
B. ODU2
C. ODUflex
D. ODUO
Answer: BCD

46. When creating a Client path using the path method, if the RL0S alarm is generated on the line card,
the path cannot be created.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

47. Which of the following service layer paths is required when creating OCh using the path method?
A. ODUk
B. OMS
C. OTS
D. Client
Answer: B

48. The network element automatically backs up the network element database to the FLASH database
every 30 minutes by default.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

49. The following description of the use of synchronous methods to create fiber optics, which is wrong?
A. The fiber exists on the network management side and the network element side, and the fiber with the
same information is not required to be created.
B. If there is a fiber that is not created on the U2000 or a fiber that is not created on the network element,
you need to synchronize or create it.
C. The existence of a conflicting fiber does not affect the configuration of the path, so it can be ignored.
D. Collision fiber refers to the fiber that is configured on the network element side and is inconsistent with
the configuration on the network management side.
Answer: C

50. The following description of the Flexible ROADM, which is wrong?

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A. Improve spectrum utilization and meet flexible scheduling requirements in the future era of over 100
Gbit/= rate.
B. DFlexible ROADM is compatible with existing networks
C. WSMD2 board supports F1exible ROADM configuration
D. Flexible grid technology provides flexible bandwidth settings and flexible bandwidth allocation and
scheduling.
Answer: C

51. When creating single station optical crossover, an error message "The direction of the cable is wrong
selected" appears. The possible reason is?
A. The network element management time is not synchronized.
B. "Create reverse crossover" is not selected during configuration
C. Device physical fiber connection error
D. Lack of logic fiber between boards
Answer: B

52. FOADM includes parallel FOAD and serial FOADM, both supporting 40 waves or 80 waves of
arbitrary wavelengths.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

53. The following is the client-side logical port of the board in the standard mode.
A. n(Nn/OUTn)-OCH: 1-ODUk: m-ODUp:a
B. ClientLP-n
C. RX/TX-n
D. ODUkLP-n
Answer: C

54. Which of the following ROADN nodes are configured correct? (Multiple choice)
A. WSMD9
B. WSD9+RMU9
C. WSM9+RDU9
D. WSIM9+WSD9
Answer: ABCD

55. In the WDM networking design, as long as there are enough EDFA cascades to compensate for the
loss of optical power during transmission. Then the system can transmit a long distance without
restriction.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

56. Generally, in the NG WD system, the full-wave fiber input power is generally less than 20dBm. What is

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the main reason?

A. In order to extend the life of the laser of the board
B. In order to protect the cable
C. To avoid nonlinear effects
D. In order to maintain the personal safety of personnel
Answer: C

57. The wave division system complement to chromatic dispersion mainly adopts the DCM compensation
method. The following statements about DCM dispersion compensation, which is wrong?
A. Improper configuration of the DCM will result in degradation of the system signal-to-noise ratio.
B. 10G system with line fiber length less than 400km, G.652 DCI can be used to compensate
G.655LEAF).
C. The DCM module is more likely to cause nonlinearity than the line transmission fiber, so it is necessary
to strictly control its fiber-optic power.
D. Improper configuration of the DCM will result in degradation of the receiving end performance.
Answer: B

58. OLA sites can also use ESC.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

59. Which of the following features does the EX40 add than X40?
A. The number of combined waves is more
B. Support light layer crossing
C. Less occupied slots
D. Support single channel optical power monitoring
Answer: D

60. Which of the following subracks does not support the configuration of packet board?
A. OSN 1800II
B. OSN 9800 P18
C. OSN 8800 T16
D. OSN 1800V
Answer: B

61. Which of the following unified circuit boards can support the intersection of VC, packet and ODUk?
(Multiple choice)
A. U210
B. HUNQ2
C. UNQ2
D. HSNS4
Answer: AB

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62. Which of the following monitoring boards do not support the processing and transparent transmission
of 1588V2 signals? (Multiple choice)
A. ST2
B. SC2
C. SC1
D. AST2
Answer: BC

63. The optical and electronic shelves of the OSN 9800 are connected through the master-slave subrack
cascading mode and connected through the GE 1/2 port on the CTu board.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

64. The optical monitoring channel wavelength used by the ST2 board is: (Multiple choice)
A. 1491nm
B. 1471nm
C. 1510nm
D. 1511nm
Answer: AD

65. In a typical chained NG WDM network (such as A→B→C, A, B, and C are three sites), it is found that
the official telephone number between the stations is not available during the commissioning. What are
the possible reasons? (Multiple choice)
A. B station SC2 board is damaged
B. In the SC2 board configuration of station B, the configuration is incorrectly changed to "the official does
not pass the optical port."
C. C station receiving direction OA board damage
Answer: AB

66. Which of the following is not a function of RSVP-TE?

A. LSP path optimization
B. LSP deletion
C. LSP rerouting
D. Establish neighbor relationship
Answer: D

67. Which of the following application scenarios that belong to the change configuration method? (Multiple
choice)
A. In the upgrade and expansion, if you suspect that the new configuration is faulty, you can re-issue the
original configuration to locate the configuration problem.
B. If you suspect that there is a problem with a slot, you can exclude it by changing the board
configuration.
C. If you suspect that there are problems with certain channels or one of the tributary boards of the

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tributary board, you can change the time barrier configuration to configure the service to another channel
or to another tributary board.
D. If you suspect that there is a problem with one VC-4, you can adjust the time barrier to another VC-4.
Answer: ABCD

68. The basic principles of STP device fault location are? (Multiple choice)
A. First advanced, then low level
B. First low speed, then high speed
C. First external, then transfer
D. First network, then network element
Answer: ACD

69. The reasons for the discrete business are? (Multiple choice)
A. The network element side configuration data is not uploaded to the U2000.
B. The cross-connection configuration on the network element is wrong.
C. The logical fiber connection of the network element is inconsistent with the physical fiber connection.
D. There is an outbound subnet service whose source or sink port is not within the scope of network
management.
Answer: ABCD

70. The following description of discrete services, which are correct? (Multiple choice)
A. For a cross-connection, after the path search, it is either a discrete service or a path with other
cross-connections, it is impossible to belong to both high-spread services and other cross-connections to
form a path.
B. Perform path search on the U2000 network management. Cross-connections that do not form a path
are called discrete services.
C. Discrete service management requires the U2000 license to have path management functions.
D. A service is searched for a discrete service, indicating that the service is not working properly on the
network element side.
Answer: ABC

71. MG-SDH digital single core can be expanded by software upgrade.

A. True
B. False
Answer: A

72. When the cross-board is configured with 1+1 hot backup, in the case of normal switching, the
replacement of the cross-clock board does not affect the packet service.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

73. Which of the following description of the DM12 board are correct? (Multiple choice)
A. One DX1 board can be used with two DM12

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B. Access the NX6bit/s and sub-rate service signals through the DB28 connector on the DM12 board.
C. Electrical signal input and output interfaces for DDN, Unframed E1 and sub-rate services
D. Accessing G.703 64 kbit/s co-directional service signals through the DB44 interface on the DM12
board
Answer: ABD

74. Which of the following description of the AU pointer are correct? (Multiple choice)
A. The root cause of the AU pointer adjustment is that the clocks between the upstream and downstream
stations are not synchronized.
B. Since the value of the AU-PTR pointer is placed in the last 10 bits of the two bytes H1 and H2, the valid
value is 0~1023.
C. AU-PTR refers to the location of the J0 byte.
D. If the receiving end detects that the H1H2 byte is all "1", the local end generates an AU-AIS alarm.
Answer: AD

75. Which of the following description of the principle of automatic protection switching of the standard
SSM protocol are correct? (Multiple choice)
A. The network element broadcasts the clock quality information of the synchronization source to the
downstream site through the S1 byte, and notifies the upstream station that the clock quality from the
local network element is “not available for synchronization” by the S1 byte in the direction of the
synchronization source.
B. According to the clock source priority table, the network element first selects the clock with the highest
quality level from the available clock sources as the homologous source.
C. If there are multiple clock sources with the highest quality level, the network element selects the clock
with the highest clock priority as the synchronization source.
D. The network element broadcasts the clock quality information and the clock source ID of the
synchronization source through the downstream station between the S1 bytes, and notifies the upstream
station that the clock quality from the local network element is "not available for synchronization" by the
S1 byte in the direction of the synchronization source.
Answer: ABC

76. Which of the following are not part of the 400G originating modulation technology?
A. Advanced oDSP algorithm
B. Multi-carrier generation and multiplexing
C. High-order modulation (xQAM)
D. FDDM/Nyquist spectrum compression technology
Answer: A

77. When configuring the Ethernet Layer 2 attribute, set the Default VLAN ID and VLAN Priority of the
untagged frame when the TAG ID is set to Accese or Hybrid. The "VLAN priority" is set according to the
QoS of the unified plan.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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78. When the NNI port attribute is configured on the same subnet, the IP addresses of the ports on
different links can be duplicated.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

79. Which of the following description of the PWE3 technology are correct? (Multiple choice)
A. The internal data services carried by PWE3 are visible to the core network.
B. PRE3 technology provides ATM, Ethernet, and TDM services with end-to-end virtual link emulation at
the PS network boundary.
C. PWE3 technology belongs to the second layer VLL solution
D. For PE3 emulation of Ethernet services, PW control words can be manually configured on the PE.
Answer: BCD

80. VPLS (Virtual Private LAN Service) is a Layer 2 VP technology that simulates a local area network.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

81. If the tunnel APS is configured for the tunnel to which the PW belongs, the PW cannot be configured
with the PW APS.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

82. MPLS-TP is a subset of MIPLS that removes connectionless IP-based forwarding and adds
end-to-end OA functionality.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

83. Which of the following description of the performance parameters of line fiber quality monitoring is
wrong?
A. Increasing the pulse width increases the duration of the laser emission, which increases the energy
injected, allowing for a larger dynamic range, but an increase in pulse width results in a larger dead zone.
B. The total loss of the fiber will affect the actual detection distance. The dynamic range of the same
detection mode is fixed. The larger the total loss of the fiber, the smaller the distance that can be detected.
C. Different modes of light pulse width are different in detection, pulse width affects distance accuracy and
monitoring distance. The larger the pulse width, the larger the dynamic range, the longer the test distance
and the higher the range measurement accuracy.
D. Line fiber quality monitoring function increases the monitoring accuracy by adding the averaged results
to the average. The actual time required from the start detection to the software returning the test result
will be greater than the “detection time” is set.

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Answer: C

84. Which of the following description of the process for optimizing the line attenuation compensation
anomaly is correct? (Multiple choice)
A. According to the user adjustment command, adjust the line attenuation of the OCh path to make the
downstream light output reach the normal value.
B. The SCC board at the downstream site of the fault reports the alarm to the power detection unit (OA) of
the first node through DCN communication, and reports the alarm to the SOM on the SC of the first node.
C. After receiving the alarm, the SOM obtains the OCh path corresponding to the alarm and adds it to the
management path to be optimized.
D. The downstream power detection unit (OA) detects that the line attenuation deviation exceeds the
threshold and reports the alarm to its own SCC board.
Answer: ACD

85. Which of the following scenarios does the meter test apply to? (Multiple choice)
A. Exclude external issues with the transport device
B. Equipment docking problem
C. Locate the faulty board
D. Equipment performance indicator problem
Answer: ABD

86. The collection and storage of on-site data includes periodic collection during normal operation of the
equipment and collection of equipment failures. Generally, before the fault is processed, the maintenance
personnel must collect and save the field data.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

87. In the electrical layer overhead processing-sink function, the signal flow is from the OCh to the client
direction, the PM ODUkP is detected first, and then the TCM ODUkT is detected.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

88. In the non-aggregated OTU processing SDH standard signal scenario, both A and B are WDM
stations, and the R_Los alarm is detected on the client side of the OTU of the A station. After the alarm is
processed on the WDM side of the OTU, the client side of the downstream B station detects and reports
the REM_SF alarm, and the B station transmits the signal to the downstream client device and reports the
R_LOS alarm to the client device.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

89. Which of the following description of the PM_BIP8 related alarm is correct?

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A. The PM_BIP8_DEG alarm indicates the PM segment signal degradation alarm in the ODU layer.
B. The PM_BIP8_SD alarm indicates the PM segment signal degradation alarm in the OTU layer.
C. The PM_BIP8_OVER alarm indicates that PM error amount has exceeded in the ODU layer.
Answer: C

90. For the relay type OTU, the alarms of all SM segments are terminated at the local station and are not
transmitted downstream (except for OTUkLOF to insert ODUk_PI_AIS downstream). Other alarms
continue to be transmitted to the downstream station and reported on the WDM side of the OTU (except
for R_LOS to insert ODUK_PM_AIS to the downstream site).
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

91. During the process of maintaining the OSN device, it is often seen that the fan runs at full speed, and
the device reports the TEMP_OVER alarm. What are the common causes and treatment methods?
A. The dust filter is heavily dusty and affects ventilation. The dust filter needs to be cleaned.
B. The dust inside the fan is serious, which affects the speed. You need to remove the fan to remove it.
C. The power module of the board is heavily dusty, affecting heat dissipation, and needs to be removed.
D. The optical module has an abnormal cooling function and needs to be replaced with a light board.
Answer: A

92. When performing fiber synchronization, the network element does not create a fiber. What does it
indicate?
A. Fiber connection only on the NE side.
B. Fiber connection that does not exist on the network management side and the NE side.
C. The fiber connection exists on both the network management side and the network element side.
D. Fiber connection exists only on the local network management side.
Answer: D

93. When configuring 1+1 optical line protection, you can select RI1/TI2/TO2 as the working channel
according to the actual situation.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

94. Which of the following description of ODUk ring protection is wrong?

A. ODUk ring network protection is mainly applied to the ring network configuration of distributed services.
It protects multiple distributed services between all sites by occupying two different ODUk channels.
B. The agreement must be completed after the protection configuration of each site on the ring network is
completed.
C. Enhanced ODUk ring network protection, no need to set up management nodes. If the management
node is set, there is no impact on protection.
D. Ordinary ODUk ring network protection does not require setting a management node.
Answer: C

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95. Which of the following description of 1+1 optical line protection is wrong?
A. The switching method defaults to non-recovery
B. The switching mode defaults to double-ended switching
C. The primary and secondary input lights initial difference defaults to 0.
D. The active and standby input light difference defaults to 5dB.
Answer: C

96. When the working channel of the optical line protection fails, it cannot be automatically switched to the
protection channel. What are the possible reasons? (Multiple choice)
A. The protection channel is faulty
B. Protection group parameter configuration is error
C. Artificially issued a lock command
D. Waiting for the recovery time to be set too long
Answer: ABCD

97. The NS4 board features test includes: (Multiple choice)

A. -20dB spectral width test
B. Center wavelength test
C. Receive sensitivity
D. Side mode suppression ratio
Answer: ABCD

98. For the whole network error test in the commissioning test, which of the following statement is correct?
(Multiple choice)
A. To ensure the smooth passage of all channel services across the entire network, a 10-minute error
prediction is required for each single channel.
B. The duration of the full channel error test is 20 hours. If the error occurs within 20 hours, it needs to be
retested for 20 hours after troubleshooting.
C. When the single channel error test is performed, the remote end needs to perform hardware loopback
on the tributary board client side.
D. The number of OTU boards or tributary boards connected in series for the whole channel error test is
recommended to be no more than 13
Answer: AC

99. For the nonlinear effect FWM, which of the following way is correct?
A. Control the incoming fiber power
B. Control the optical power of a single wavelength
C. Do not use G.653 fiber in DWDM systems
D. Using large effective area fiber
Answer: B

100. Which of the following description of the single station commissioning is wrong?
A. If the input voltage of the equipment is not within the required range, suggestions for rectification

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should be proposed.
B. It is strictly forbidden to plug and unplug the power plug and PIU board.
C. In case of power failure, the contact board can be used without anti-static wrist or anti-static gloves.
D. Single station hardware check is complete, make sure all power switches are in the off position
Answer: C

101. If you want to establish a GE-level path on the NMS, which of the following steps are required?
(Multiple choice)
A. Configure the wavelength
B. Configure logical connection
C. Create an OCh path
D. Create an ODUk path
Answer: ABCD

102. Using the path method to create a Client path fails. What are the possible reasons? (Multiple choice)
A. FEC mode does not match at both ends of the transceiver
B. The channel has been used up
C. Physical connection lacking between boards
D. There is no complete OCh path
Answer: BCD

103. An OTN network uses WSMD4 to form a ROADM network element. After the logical fiber is created,
the paths that can be directly searched are: (Multiple choice)
A. OTS
B. OCh
C. OMS
D. Client
Answer: ABC

104. When creating an OCh trail by using the board method, the source/sink ports select the
corresponding line board and the IN/OUT port of the FIU board.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

105. Which of the following description of ODUflex are correct? (Multiple choice)
A. The advantage of ODUflex is that users can flexibly configure the capacity of the container according to
the size of the service to achieve the most efficient use of railway bandwidth.
B. Services supported by ODUflex range from 1.25 Gbit/s to 10 Gbit/s
C. ODUflex refers to non-fixed bandwidth ODUk technology
D. ODUflex bandwidth of per TS subslot is 1.25 Gbit/s
Answer: ACD

106. The 40 Gbit/s and 100 Git/s coherent systems do not require dispersion compensation because the

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coherent board has a large dispersion tolerance. NG WDM does not support non-coherent networks and
coherent networks for hybrid transmission.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

107. Which of the following description of the Optix OSN 9800 sub-rack is correct? (Multiple choice)
A. When the OSN 9800 Universal Platform Sub-rack is used as a slave sub-rack, the main control board
must be placed.
B. The OSN 9800 U16 sub-rack has a total of 16 service slots. These slots have the same capacity and
support up to 400 bit/s ODUk crossover in a single slot.
C. In the OSN 980 0U32 sub-rack, IU70 is the primary CTU and IU78 is the standby CTU.
D. The service board can be inserted into the IU18 slot only when the OSN 9800 P18 is used as the slave
sub-rack.
Answer: BD

108. The service types supported by the PND2 board used by the OSN 8800 are: (Multiple choice)
A. VPWS
B. EPL
C. VPLS
D. EPLAN
Answer: AC

109. Which of the following ROADM boards have WSS optical modules? (Multiple Choice)
A. WSMD9
B. WSD9
C. WSM9
D. RDU9
Answer: ABC

110. Which of the following device types support the master-slave sub-architecture mode? (Multiple
Choice)
A. OSN 8800
B. OSN 1800V
C. OSN 9800
Answer: ABC

111. What are the ways that NG WDM devices create fibers? (Multiple Choice)
A. Search method
B. Graphic method
C. Synchronization method
D. Form method
Answer: ABD

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112. Which of the following paths can be configured on the network management? (Multiple Choice)
A. Client
B. ODUk
C. OTS
D. OCh
Answer: ABD

113. Path method creates OCh failure, what are the possible reasons? (Multiple Choice)
A. There are still unremoved alarms in the boards involved in OCh.
B. Inconsistent wavelength setting at both ends of source and sink
C. No service layer path
D. Some pigtails are not connected
Answer: BCD

114. When creating an electric layer path, one RX/TX port can only establish a connection with one optical
channel of the clientLP port.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

115. Which of the following meters/boards can be used to test the OSR metrics for 10G systems?
(Multiple Choice)
A. Spectrum Analyzer
B. MCA8
C. SDH Analyzer
D. Optical power meter
Answer: AB

116. Two PIU/APIU boards use the hot backup mode to supply power to the system on the OSN 1800
device, when a PIU/APIU board fails, the system can still work normally.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

117. Customer Example 1+1 protect when using different routes, the same wavelength cannot be used for
the working wavelength and the guard wavelength.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

118. When the working channel protected by the optical line fails, it cannot be automatically switched to
the protection channel. What are the possible reasons? (Multiple Choice)
A. Protection group parameter configuration error
B. Artificially issued a lock command

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C. Waiting for the recovery time to be set too long

D. The protection channel is faulty
Answer: ABCD

119. In general, which of the following operations will cause a short interruption in monitoring of existing
network devices? (Multiple Choice)
A. Hard reset main control board
B. Software loopback
C. Hardware loopback
D. Soft reset main control board
Answer: AD

120. Which of the following is not included in the OOS overhead?

A. Optical transmission section overhead
B. Optical channel overhead
C. Optical multiplex section overhead
D. Optical channel transmission unit overhead
Answer: D

121. SF is a signal failure event and SD is a signal degradation event. Both the SF and SD events are
conditions for triggering protection switching, but whether the SD time is used as a trigger switching
condition can be set by the user.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

122. The OTN circuit board (such as ND2) of OSN 1800V can respond to the status of the indicator light
on the panel to reflect the optical power of the local end too high or too low.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

123. Since the EALC/ALC function is used in the SOM system, there is a possibility of business
interruption during optical power adjustment.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

124. What are the functions of MPLS-TP OAM? (Multiple Choice)

A. Alarm monitoring
B. Performance monitoring
C. Fault management
D. Fault location
Answer: ABCD

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125. Which of the following plane technologies does the OS-OTN device incorporate? (Multiple Choice)
A. PDH
B. OTN
C. SDH
D. Grouping
Answer: BCD

126. After the PWE3 service is successfully deployed, what is the deployment status of the PWE3 service
displayed?
A. Deployment
B. Activated
C. Deployed
D. Activation
Answer: C

127. The E&M signal defines the type of connection between a relay device and a signaling unit. Which of
the following belongs to the relay device?
A. Telecommunications Exchange
B. PBX
C. E&M voice exchange
D. Softswitch platform
Answer: B

128. Which of the following versions of the GSCC board support CF cards?
A. N1GSCC
B. N4GSCC
C. N6GSCC
D. N3GSCC
Answer: D

129. For an MSTP device, the service layer path is a path existing on the network management side, and
the client layer path is a path existing on the network element side.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

130. When you delete a discrete service, you can first activate it. At this time, you can view the alarm. If
there is no alarm such as PS or TU-AIS, it is a garbage service. If there is an alarm, the analysis is
incorrect. You need to activate it immediately.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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131. What are the common test indicators for Ethernet services? (Multiple Choice)
A. Frame loss rate
B. Delay
C. Throughput
D. Back to back
Answer: ABCD

132. When the board detects that the error rate of the regenerator section signal exceeds 10-³ by
detecting the B1 byte, the B1_SD alarm is reported.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

133. What common methods for MSTP device fault location can be summarized as?
A. One board change, two loopbacks, three analysis.
B. One analysis, two loopbacks, three board change.
C. One analysis, two board change, three loopbacks.
D. One loopbacks, two board change, three analysis.
Answer: B

134. What does the component of the ASON network not include?
A. SC
B. Intelligent network element
C. TE link
D. ASON domain
Answer: A

135. Which of the following statements are wrong about TE links? (Multiple Choice)
A. The intelligent network element sends its own bandwidth and other information to other intelligent
peers in the network through the LSA in the form of a trace. Provide teaching support for routing and
planning.
B. The verification of the TE link occurs before the control channel is established between adjacent
nodes.
C. The TE link path is a resource concept. It can be understood as an optical fiber with bandwidth
information and protection attributes, but it does not correspond to the optical fiber. One fiber may
correspond to multiple TE links.
D. The TE link is flooded to the entire network by the LMP protocol. Each intelligent network element
saves the TE link information of the entire network.
Answer: BD

136. In the Colored&Directioned scenario of the 4D ROADM, if you want to implement local service
scheduling in four directions, how many sets of M40V+D40 are needed?
A. 2
B. 1

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C. 4
D. 9
Answer: C

137. Which of the following description are wrong about the path method to create a Client path?
A. Select the "Activate" checkbox. After the path is successfully created, it will be delivered to the NE layer.
Otherwise, the path configuration text will only be saved on the network management side.
B. Create a client service path by using the path method. After the creation, the optical layer OCh path is
automatically generated to reduce the secondary teaching of the path creation.
C. The creation or search of a new path must be possible if its upper service layer path already exists.
D. If the route to be automatically calculated is different from the planned path, you can set the
“constrained node” or “must pass through the node” to perform routing constraints.
Answer: B

138. What are the prerequisites for creating a bidirectional MPLS tunnel? (Multiple Choice)
A. Users have network administrator user rights of “Administrators” and above
B. The LSR ID of each NE is correctly configured.
C. Determine the bandwidth of the MPLS Tunnel
D. Port properties have been configured correctly
Answer: ABCD

139. What should be paid attention to when configuring extended ECC? (Multiple Choice)
A. The ECC extension mode of the remote NE must be modified first, and then the ECC extension mode
of the gateway NE is modified.
B. Avoid communication by extended ECC mode between each subnet gateway network element.
C. When setting the ECC extended mode remotely, you must ensure that the settings are correct in order.
Otherwise, the unmanaged network element will not automatically resume communication with the
network management system and must be reset to the site.
D. It is not recommended to set the gateway NE as the server. It is recommended to set the NE closest to
the gateway NE as the server NE.
Answer: ABCD

140. The NG WDM two-dimensional ROADM site can use the WSMD9 single board, and its signal flow is
an optical signal that is connected to the main optical channel from the "IN" optical port. The RDU
(ROADM Demix Unit) optical module broadcasts nine identical optical signals, which are output from the
"DM1~DM8" and "ECPO" optical ports respectively. One of the signals is localized by the splitter board,
and the other eight signals are dispatched to the other eight directions. Each wave of the main optical
channel is connected from the "EXPI" optical port. The multiplexed or single-wave optical signal that
needs to be inserted locally is input through the "AM1"~"AM8" optical port.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

141. What should I pay attention to when commissioning a 100G and 10G hybrid transmission system?

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(Multiple Choice)
A. Pay attention to the mixed spectrum. The spectrum of the 100G signal is wider and looks lower than
the 100G signal in the spectrum, but the actual optical power is equivalent.
B. For a hybrid transmission system with dispersion compensation, the dispersion compensation
requirements are consistent with the requirements in a 10G non-coherent system.
C. In order to accurately measure the optical power of 100G wavelength, it must be debugged using a
spectrum analyzer or a MAC card.
D. The optical power of the 100G signal is recommended to be higher than the optical power of the 10G
signal, but not higher than the single-wave nominal value of the optical panel.
Answer: ABCD

142. After starting the extended SSM protocol, in addition to determining the clock quality level and priority,
the clock ID is also determined. After receiving the clock signal with the ID, the network element considers
that the source is unavailable if it is judged to be the clock signal sent by the station. In this way, even after
passing through multiple sites, the network element can still recognize the clock signal sent by itself,
preventing the formation of a timing loop.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

143. Which of the following description is wrong about the content of the formula for calculating the
maximum line rate (N=Ratc/((L+7+1+M)x8))?
A. L is in standard Ethernet frame length with a minimum value of 64Bytes
B. M is the frame gap, and the minimum IFG (minimum frame gap) is 8 bytes.
C. Rate indicates the line rate of the physical layer. If the device port is FE, then Rate=100Mbit/s.
D. "8" outside the brackets is 1 Byte containing 8 Bits
Answer: B

144. The NG WDM two-dimensional ROADM site can use the WSMD9 single board, and its signal flow is
an optical signal that is connected to the main optical channel from the "IN" optical port. The RDU
(ROADM Demix Unit) optical module broadcasts 9 identical optical signals, which are output from the
"DM1~DM8" and "ECPO" optical ports respectively. One of the signals is localized by the splitter board,
and the other eight signals are dispatched to the other eight directions. Each wave of the main optical
channel is connected from the "EXPI" optical port. The multiplexed or single-wave optical signal that
needs to be inserted locally is input through the "AM1"~"AM8" optical port.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

145. When using the OSN8800 T32, if you want to set the ID number of the master and slave sub-racks,
which board should be set?
A. EFI
B. EFI1
C. EFI2

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D. SCC
Answer: B

146. Which of the following options can reduce the effects of nonlinear effects in the WDM system?
(Multiple Choice)
A. Using high performance fiber
B. Control optical power
C. Dispersion management
D. Advanced light source technology
Answer: ABCD

147. The following protection methods belonging to NG WDM optical layer protection are: (Multiple
Choice)
A. Customer side 1+1 protection
B. Optical line protection
C. ODUk SNCP protection
D. 1+1 protection inside the board
Answer: AB

148. Which of the following is not a part of the ASON Control Protocol?
A. LMP
B. RSVP-TE
C. IS-IS
D. OSPF-TE
Answer: C

149. TEM28 is the Ethernet convergence tributary board. Which of the following descriptions about the
TEM28 board are correct? (Multiple Choice)
A. TEM28 can simultaneously access FE, GE, 10GE LAN and 10GE WAN services through different
ports.
B. The electrical signal can be output ODU0, ODU1flex, 00U1 or ODU2 signals to the backplane for cross
scheduling through operations such as encapsulation mapping and OTN framing.
C. The TEM28 board supports the L2 switch module and needs to configure the port to VCTRUNK
service.
D. RX1/TX1~RX4/TX4 ports are 10GE optical ports, which can handle 10GE LAN/10GE WAN services.
Other interfaces are GE optical ports, GE electrical interfaces or FE electrical ports which can handle GE
or FE services.
Answer: ABCD

150. When the OSN 8800 needs to access GE signals, the boards that can be used are: (Multiple Choice)
A. TOA
B. TDX
C. TEM28
D. TSC

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Answer: AC

151. The ROADM site using WSMD9 board can support up to 9 dimensions. If it exceeds 9 dimensions, it
can be implemented by cascading WSMD9 boards.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

152. As with the STP device, the NG WDM device can practice the network element configuration on the
network through pre-configured method.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

153. Before creating an optical cross-connection, you need to manually configure the corresponding port
of the corresponding board as a boundary port, for example, the line-side port of the FIU board between
two sites.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

154. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. When the OCh path exists, you can directly create a client path. The NMS automatically creates an
ODUk path.
B. The optical layer path and the electrical layer path are independent. It is not necessary to delete the
electrical layer path when deleting the optical layer path.
C. The optical layer path must be deleted first when the electrical layer path is removed.
D. Deactivation will delete the configuration of the U2000, which has no impact on the device side
services.
Answer: B

155. In the WDM system, after a certain distance of transmission, the optical signal-to-noise ratio of the
receiving signal will be reduced to a certain extent. What is the main reason?
A. Fiber attenuation is too large
B. Use of the splitter combiner
C. Use of EDFA
D. No new fiber is used
Answer: C

156. On the ROADM board, you need to configure the virtual optical layer service before the optical power
is commissioned. Otherwise, the ROADM limit board blocks all wavelengths by default.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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157. Since the nonlinear effect is generated, its influence on the service signal cannot be repaired.
Therefore, the treatment of the nonlinear effect of the existing network is to avoid the occurrence of
nonlinear effects.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

158. For the wavelength division system, configure the 1st-20th wave, use the NS4 single board, and test
the M40 output port with the spectrum analyzer during the commissioning. It is found that the optical
power of the 20th wave is significantly lower than the other 19 waves. The possible reasons are as follows:
(Multiple Choice)
A. The 20th channel corresponding to the M40V has a large insertion loss.
B. The 20th wave OTU's RX port is incorrectly added with 5dB fixed light decay.
C. The 20th wave OTU wave side light is too small
D. The 20th wave OTU center is long drifted
Answer: ACD

159. The following description of the 1+1 protection in the board, the correct ones are: (Multiple Choice)
A. The 1+1 protection on the board can protect the OTU board.
B. Set the OTU as the detection unit, and the electrical layer alarms such as OTUk_LOF and OTUK_LOM
will also trigger the switching.
C. For OSN 1800 devices, you can use the OTU with dual-selection to protect your business.
D. In-board 1+1 protection can be applied to chain networking and ring networking.
Answer: ABCD

160. Which of the following protections need to use the APS protocol? (Multiple Choice)
A. ODUk ring network protection
B. SW SNCP protection
C. 1:1 optical line protection
D. ODUk SNCP protection
Answer: AC

161. The following description of the operation of the device, the error is:
A. Wear an ESD-preventive wrist strap or gloves to prevent static electricity from damaging the board.
B. CLASS 1M means low optical power, no damage to eyes or skin
C. Regularly clean the air filter to facilitate heat dissipation
D. Equipment needs safety grounding
Answer: B

162. Which of the following is a part of the optical layer in the OTN frame structure? (Multiple Choice)
A. OMS
B. OCh
C. ODUk

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D. OPUk
Answer: AB

163. The OTS path refers to the physical fiber connection between two adjacent OM/OD/OA on the main
optical path.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

164. Which of the following boards can be inserted on the OSN 9800 U64 subrack?
A. TNV1N401
B. TN54GS4
C. TNF 5UNQ2
D. TN18LSC
Answer: B

165. The following description of the cross-board of the OSN 8800 T64 subrack. Which is correct?
(Multiple choice)
A. XCT+SXM can support ODU0, 1, 2, and 3 levels of crossover.
B. XCT+SXM can be used together to provide an ODUK crossover with a total capacity of 2.56 Tbit/s.
C. XCT+SXM can be regarded as a whole when working. If any faulty, the two boards will be switched
together.
D. Enhanced subrack can only be configured with UXCT+USXM or UXCT+USXH
Answer: ABCD

166. Which of the following paths are not related to the business?
A. OCh
B. OSC
C. Client
D. ODUk
Answer: B

167. The following description of the signal flow of the OTM site (OSN 8800 device), which is wrong?
A. Service transmission direction: SDH signals-> LSX-> M40V-> OBU1-> Line
B. OSC receiving direction: Line-> FIU-> Sc2
C. Service receiving direction: Line->FIU-> OAU-> M40V-> LSX-> SDH signals
D. Service transmission direction: SDH signals-> LSX->M40V-> OBU1-> FIU-> Line
Answer: C

168. Which of the following methods does the networking and application of NG WDM include? (Multiple
choice)
A. Point to point
B. Ring
C. Mesh

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D. Chain type
Answer: BCD

169. NS4 as 100G line service processing board. In the following description of the NS4 board, which is
wrong?
A. The wavelength of the wavelength division side optical signal is adjustable within 80 waves of the
C-band 50 GHz interval.
B. The MS4 board does not support the intersection of ODUI services with the ND2 board through the
centralized crossover bus.
C. Support 80-way ODU0/ODUflex or 40-way ODU1 or 10-way ODU2/ODU2e or 2-way ODU3 or 1-way
ODU4 signal and cross-board to realize service cross-scheduling.
D. It can be used in electrical relay stations to realize the electrical relay function of the corresponding
optical signals.
Answer: D

170. The following description of the Directioned scenario, which is correct? (Multiple choice)
A. The wavelength carrying the local service can be transmitted to fixed direction.
B. If the current path needs to be adjusted, you must inbound to adjust the fiber connection of the
network.
C. Directioned scenes are applied to networks that are not ASON.
D. When the service needs to be adjusted, or the working path is faulty, the optical crossover can be
manually configured to implement flexible scheduling of services.
Answer: ABC

171. The following description of the connection of the NG WDM device to the network management
computer, which is wrong?
A. The connection network management computer can be connected either directly or through a local
area network, as the case may be.
B. If the subrack connection mode is master-slave mode, the network management computer must be
connected to the main subrack.
C. All network element IP addresses must be in the same address segment as the network management
computer IP address.
D. Only the gateway network element needs to be connected to the network management computer.
Answer: C

172. The OCh path is created using the single station method. After the creation is completed, the 0ch
path is not searched. Which are the possible reasons? (Multiple choice)
A. Line attenuation is too large
B. Missing logical fiber between sites
C. Inconsistent wavelengths of the line boards at both ends of the source and sink
D. errors in source and sink ports in the site
Answer: BC

173. In WDM transmission systems, the main factors affecting the unevenness of power balance of each

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channel which are not included? (Multiple choice)

A. Non-uniformity of insertion loss of each channel of the multiplexer/demultiplexer
B. The main channel dimming fader setting is unreasonable
C. Cable aging is high
D. EDFA gain unevenness
Answer: ABCD

174. When you configure the Layer 2 attribute of the Ethernet, you need to set the Default VLAN ID and
VLAN Priority of the untagged frame when the TAC ID is set to Access or Hybrid.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

175. The lower the noise figure of the amplifier, the less noise is introduced by this amplifier.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

176. For a 10G OTU board, the receiving end optical module uses PIN module. Which of the following
receiving powers is in the normal receiving range of the board?
A. -9dBm
B. -19dBm
C. 9dBm
D. 19dBm
Answer: A

177. The OSN 8800 device is protected by fan redundancy. When any fan in the fan box is broken, the
system can still operate normally for a long time.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

178. Daily equipment maintenance items, excluding:

A. Check the cabinet and board indicators
B. Check the room temperature, humidity and cleanliness
C. Check device sound alarms
D. Check the fan box and clean the air filter
Answer: D

179. The following description of the PM_BIP8 related alarm, which is correct?
A. The PM_BIP8_DEG alarm indicates the PM segment signal degradation alarm in the ODU layer.
B. The PM_BIP8_SD alarm indicates the PM segment signal degradation alarm in the ODU layer.
C. The PM_BIP8_OVER alarm indicates the PM segment error amount of the ODU layer is over-limit
alarm.

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Answer: C

180. The following description of the alarm, which is correct? (Multiple choice)
A. OTUk-LOM: Multi-frame alignment signal abnormal alarm, multi-frame positioning processing
continues the multi-frame out-of-synchronization (o0M) state for 3ms, generating OTUelom alarm.
B. OTUKBDI: OTUk backwards indication alarm. When the signal detected by the SM segment fails, the
value of the BDI byte is 1, and the alarm is reported.
C. OTUKAIS: OTUK alarm indication signal, the AIS signal is transmitted downstream, indicating that the
upstream detected signal is invalid.
D. OTUK-TIM: The OTUK trace identifier is the TTI (Trail Trace Identifier) mismatch. This alarm is
generated if the trace identifiers of the peer end and the local end do not match and the TIM detection is
enabled during the control process. Compare the API (Access Point Identifiers) in the input signal with the
desired API.
Answer: ABCD

181. Which of the following reasons does not cause optical power anomalies?
A. Enable FEC function
B. Pigtail connection error
C. Equipment temperature is too high
D. The pigtail is too large
Answer: A

182. The main light path monitoring is based on the OMS segment and it mainly monitors which of the
following items? (Multiple choice)
A. Line attenuation exceeds the design EOL value.
B. The main light path is broken?
C. Line attenuation compensation is abnormal
D. The origin of the optical discharge power is abnormal
Answer: ABCD

183. The shortcomings of traditional OTDR meters in measuring optical fibers are: (Multiple choice)
A. Manual interpretation is required, which requires high operator requirements
B. Need inbound measurement
C. Cannot be used for routine maintenance testing
D. Business will be interrupted during measurement
Answer: ABCD

184. Which of the following IP addresses are not part of the private IP address?
A. 172.128.0.1
B. 10.255. 0.1
C. 10.0.0.1
D. 192.168.0.1
Answer: A

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185. During the configuration of the E-LAN, the "MAC Address Learning Mode" can be set to SVL and IVL.
SVL is a stand-alone VLAN learning, and IVL is a shared VLAN learning.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

186. The user-oriented interface and the interface for the transport network of the E-Line service are
____ and _____.
A. UNI, UNI
B. UNI, NII
C. NI, UNI
D. NN, NNI
Answer: B

187. The overhead ratio is a factor that affects the error correction capability of FEC technology. Generally,
under the same FEC encoding/decoding algorithm, the higher the overhead ratio, the greater the net
coding benefit.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

188. For the SSM protocol, which of the following statements are correct? (Multiple choice)
A. When the SSM protocol is not enabled, the clock network can only be configured as one-way and
cannot be looped.
B. When the extended SSM protocol is started, the clock network can be configured in both directions and
can be looped.
C. When the standard SSM protocol is started, the clock network can be configured in both directions but
cannot be looped.
D. Whether to start the SSM protocol has little effect on the clock network.
Answer: ABC

189. The main function of the transport layer in the Huawei ECC protocol stack is _____.
A. Establish and maintain a MAC connection between neighboring network elements.
B. Establish and maintain an ECC routing table.
C. Provide end-to-end communication services to the upper layer
D. Provide data communication services.
Answer: C

190. Which of the following tools may Board replacement use? (Multiple choice)
A. Shielding bag
B. Anti-static gloves
C. Fiber extractor
D. U2000
Answer: ABCD

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191. What are the classification of Ethernet performance tests? (Multiple choice)
A. Network equipment performance verification test
B. Network performance test
C. Custom test
Answer: ABC

192. What are the basic principles of MSTP device fault location? (Multiple choice)
A. Network first, then network element
B. Advanced first, then low level
C. Low speed first, then high speed
D. External first, then transfer
Answer: ABD

193. The working mode provided by the line fiber quality monitoring function does not include _____.
A. Intra-office mode
B. Near-end mode
C. Automatic mode
D. Manual mode
Answer: C

194. A, C are the WDM OTM stations, and B is the relay station. When the transmission direction of the A
to B stations is interrupted, the Wavelength side of the B-stack OTU relay board reports the R_LOS
emergency alarm and runs the processing to the upstream A. The station side OTU2_BDI secondary
alarm. At the same time, the alarm continues to be transmitted to the downstream station of the B station.
After the alarm is processed at the C site, the ODU2_PM_AIS minor alarm is reported on the WDM side of
the C-site OTU, and the ODU2_PM_BDI secondary alarm is transmitted back to the upstream station A.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

195. Which layer of the TCP/IP protocol is the TCP/UDP protocol located?
A. Application layer
B. Network layer
C. Data link layer
D. Transport layer
Answer: D

196. The rigid pipes that MS-OTN equipment can provide are ________. (Multiple choice)
A. LSP
B. Wavelength
C. 0DUk
D. PW
Answer: BC

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197. The packet protection features supported by the OSN 1800V include _______. (Multiple choice)
A. Tunnel APS
B. TPS
C. LAG
D. PW APS
Answer: ABCD

198. When configuring the layer 2 attribute of the large network, when the "TAC ID" is set to "Access" or
"Hybrid", you need to set the "default VLAN ID" and "VLAN priority" of the untagged frame.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

199. Which of the following are the business board types of MSTP equipment? (Multiple choices)
A. Interface board
B. Service processing board
C. Service processing board with interface
D. Auxiliary board
Answer: ABC

200. In 2.5G MSP ring composed of four MSTP sites, when protection switch occurs, which of the
following statements about the alarm report are correct?
A. PS alarm is reported on the tributary board.
B. APS-INDI alarm is reported on the XCS board.
C. Report the APS-INDI alarm on the system control board.
D. Report the APS-INDI alarm on the circuit board.
Answer: B

201. Which of the following local maintenance terminals can be used to manage MSTP equipment?
A. U2000 LCT
B. U2000 Web LCT
C. U2000 IP LCT
D. All of the above
Answer: A

202. In WDM systems, when using less than () wavelength, it is ideal to use dielectric thin film filter (TFF).
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 20
Answer: C

203. WDM multiplexes optical signals at multiple rates (wavelengths) through a single fiber for

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transmission. The digital signals carried by these optical signals must have the same rate and data
format.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

204. Which of the following is not an advantage of WDM?

A. Large capacity and transparent data transmission
B. Easy to upgrade and maximize protection of existing investments
C. Completely replace SDH equipment
D. Compatible with all optical switching networks in the future
Answer: C

205. Optical monitoring channel is used for monitoring of WDM optical transmission system. In the UU-T
proposal, it is preferable to use a wavelength of 1510 nm at how much rate?
A. 64 kbit/s
B. 192 kbit/s
C. 2 Mbit/s
D. 576 kbit/s
Answer: C

206. The transmission windows of 1310 nm and 1550 nm are low loss windows. In DWDM systems, only
the 1550nm transmission window is used. Which of the following is the main reason?
A. The operating wavelength flatness area of EDFA is contained in this window.
B. The nonlinear effect in the 1550nm wavelength region is very small.
C. The 1550 nm wavelength region is suitable for long-distance transmission.
D. None of the above
Answer: A

207. Which of the following technologies is the main difference between an open DWDM system and an
integrated DWDM system?
A. Wavelength conversion technology
B. Optical amplification technology
C. Multiplexing / demultiplexing technology
D. Optical supervision technology
Answer: A

208. Which of the following statements about the advantages of OTN are wrong?
A. WDM function is used to meet the requirement of Tbit/s bandwidth per fiber.
B. OTN provides up to five levels of nested or overlapping TCM connection monitoring.
C. OTN provides powerful out-of-band FEC function to effectively ensure line transmission performance.
D. OTN provides high-speed interfaces of 2.7 Gbit/s, 10.7 Gbit/s, 43 Gbit/s and even 111.8 Gbit/s.
Answer: B

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209. Which of the following factors determine the optical signal-to-noise ratio (OSNR) of the receiving end
to a certain extent? After a certain distance of signal transmission in the WDM system, the optical
signal-to-noise ratio (OSNR) of the receiving end decreases to a certain extent. Which of the following is
the main reason?
A. Use EDFA.
B. Use multiplexers and demultiplexers.
C. No new optical fiber is used.
D. Fiber attenuation is too high.
Answer: A

210. The single-fiber bidirectional WDM system uses only one fiber to transmit optical signals in both
directions simultaneously. The optical signals in both directions should be arranged at different
wavelengths.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

211. In WDM systems, when using less than () wavelength, it is ideal to use a dielectric thin film filter
(TFF).
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 20
Answer: C

212. Which of the following are components that reuse N wavelengths in WDM system? (Multiple
choices)
A. Optical repeater unit
B. WDM unit
C. Optical amplifier unit
D. Supervision unit
Answer: ABCD

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