Q.

No Question and options Answer

1 In Pelton turbine ___________ is defined as ratio between c
power delivered to runner and power supplied at inlet of
turbine

a) Mechanical efficiency
b) Volumetric efficiency
c) Hydraulic efficiency
d) Overall efficiency
2 3. The maximum efficiency of Pelton turbine is _________ C
a) 80%
b) 70%
c) 50%
d) 88%
In Pelton turbine product of mechanical efficiency and D
3. hydraulic efficiency is known as
a) Mechanical efficiency
b) Volumetric efficiency
c) Hydraulic efficiency
d) Overall efficiency
4. Among the following which turbine has least efficiency? A
a) Pelton turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
d) Propeller turbine
5 In Pelton ____________ is ratio of volume of water actually B
striking the runner and volume of water supplied to turbine?
a) Mechanical efficiency
b) Volumetric efficiency
c) Hydraulic efficiency
d) Overall efficiency
6 In Pelton turbine the ratio of volume available at shaft of D
turbine and power supplied at the inlet of the turbine is
_______
a) Mechanical efficiency
b) Volumetric efficiency
c) Hydraulic efficiency
d) Overall efficiency
7 In Pelton turbine hydraulic efficiency is product of B
mechanical efficiency and overall efficiency.
a) True
b) False
8. Pelton wheel is used in those place where A
(A) high head and low discharge are available
 (B) low head and high discharge are available

(C) high head and high discharge are available

(D) none of the above

9. Kaplan turbine is a propeller turbine having vanes on rotor B

are:
(A) non-adjustable

(B) adjustable

(C) fixed

(D) none of the above

10 Hydraulic turbine converts hydro energy into mechanical by C

using ___ of water.
(A) Kinetic energy

(B) Potential energy

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

11 Following is an impulse turbine A

(A) Petlon wheel turbine

(B) Tubular turbine

(C) Propeller turbine

(D) Francis turbine

13 Surge tank is usually utilized in those plants where distance C

between the forebay and the turbine is
(A) small

(B) medium

(C) large

(D) any of the above

14 The Pelton turbine is A

 (A) tangential flow impulse turbine

(B) radial flow impulse turbine

(C) axial flow impulse turbine

(D) mixed flow impulse turbine

15 In Propeller turbine, the water flows ___ through the runner. B

(A) tangentially

(B) axially

(C) radially

(D) none of the above

16 The following converts the dynamic pressure (kinetic energy) D

into static pressure
(A) Conduits

(B) Penstock

(C) Runner

(D) Draft tube

17 hydraulic turbine converts the potential energy of water into A

a. A. Kinetic energy
b. B. Heat energy
c. C. Thermal energy
d. D. Gravitational energy

18 Impulse turbine requires

a. A. High head and low discharge
b. B. High head and high discharge
c. C. Low head and low discharge
d. D.Low head and high discharge

19 Reaction turbine requires D

a. A. High head and low discharge
B High head and high discharge
b. C Low head and low discharge
c. D Low head and high discharge

20 In reaction turbines, the runner utilizes C

 a. A Kinetic energy
b. B Potential energy
c. C Both kinetic energy and potential energy
d. D None of the above

21 The function of draft tube is to A

a. A increase the pressure of the exiting fluid
b. B increase the Kinetic energy of exiting fluid
c. C allow the turbine to be set below tail water level
d. D keep pressure at runner outlet above the
atmospheric pressure

22 What is the head of water available at turbine inlet in D

hydro-electric power plant called?

a. head race
b. tail race
c. gross head
d. net head
23 In which turbine the pressure energy of water is first A
converted into kinetic energy by means of nozzle kept close
to the runner?
a) Impulse turbine
b) Reaction turbine
c) Both Impulse and Reaction turbine
d) None of the mentioned
24 Centrifugal pump is a_________ A
a) Turbomachinery
b) Flow regulating device
c) Drafting device
d) Intercooling device
25 3. The main function of nozzle is to __________ B
a) Varying temperatures
b) Pressure variations
c) Load variations
d) Heat variations
26 4. The main function of centrifugal pumps are to ________ D
a) Transfer speed
b) Transfer pressure
c) Transfer temperature
d) Transfer energy
27 Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from _______ A
a) Rotor to fluid
b) Fluid to rotor
c) Draft to rotor
d) Rotor to draft
28 Which among the following control the flow rate? A
a) Valve
 b) Pump
c) Head
d) Tank pipe
29 Turbines and compressors work with the gas, while A
centrifugal pump transfers energy.
a) True
b) False
30 The inlet passage of water entry is controlled by ________ B
a) Head race
b) Gate
c) Tail race
d) Pump
31  Centrifugal pumps are used to transport ________ D
a) Pressure
b) Speed
c) Power
d) Fluid
32  Centrifugal pumps transport fluids by converting A
_________
a) Kinetic energy to hydrodynamic energy
b) Hydrodynamic energy to kinetic energy
c) Mechanical energy to kinetic energy
d) Mechanical energy to Hydrodynamic energy
33 14. When the balancing of the turbine is disturbed, we use D
________
a) Throttle governing
b) Steam governing
c) Nozzle governing
d) Emergency governing
34 The fluid coming into the centrifugal pump is accelerated by B
________
a) Throttle
b) Impeller
c) Nozzle
d) Governor
35 In a centrifugal pump the liquid enters the C
pump .......

A. At the top
B. At the bottom
C. At the centre
D. From sides

36 For small discharge at high-pressure following E

pump is preferred .........
    A.Centrifugal
   B.Axial flow
   C.Mixed flow
   D.Propeller
   E.Reciprocating

37 C
Which of the following is not a type of positive
displacement pumps?
(A) Reciprocating pump
(B) Rotary displacement pump
(C) Centrifugal pump
(D) None of the above

38 B
Which of the following pump is used for
pumping viscous fluids?
(A) Centrifugal pump
(B) Screw pump
(C) Reciprocating pump
(D) Jet pump

39 Rotary displacement pumps are suitable for handling A

________.

a. oils
b. gritty liquids
c. both oils as well as gritty liquids
d. None of the above
40 Discharge capacity of the reciprocating pump is B
__________ that of the centrifugal pump.

a. higher than
b. lower than
c. same as
d. unpredictable
41 B
Rotary compressor is best suited for
(A) A large quantity of air at high pressure
(B) A small quantity of air at high pressure
(C) A small quantity of air at low pressure
(D) A large quantity of air a low pressure
42 A
A reciprocating air compressor is best suited for
(A) A large quantity of air at high pressure
(B) A small quantity of air at high pressure
(C) Small quantity of air at low pressure
(D) Large quantity of air a low pressure

43 C
A machine which compresses air by means of a
reciprocating piston inside a cylinder is
(A) Rotary compressor
(B) Centrifugal compressor
(C) Reciprocating compressor
(D) None of the above

44 C
The ratio of the actual volume of air taken in the
cylinder to the swept volume of the compressor
is
(A) Clearance ratio
(B) Volume coefficient
(C) Volumetric Efficiency
(D) Compressor ratio

45  If the flow of air through the compressor is B

perpendicular to its axis,then it is a.......

   A.Reciprocating compressor
   B.Centrifugal compressor
   C.Axial flow compressor
   D.Turbo compressor

46 Ans - A
 Reciprocating air compressor is positive displacement compressor 
A.True
B.False

47 C
What is the inherent weakness of all wind machines?
a) Their efficiencies
b) Requires powerful winds to make fan rotate
c) Their dependency on the wind speed
d) Cannot be easily repaired
48 A
A wind turbine designed too to come into operation at a
minimum wind speed is called _________
a) Cut in velocity
b) Windward
c) Cut out velocity
d) Upwind locatio
49 A
 How many of windmills are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
50 A
Name the windmill which has four blades mounted on a
central post.
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
51 Wind energy is harnessed as ______ energy with the help of A
windmill or turbine.
(A) Mechanical

(B) Solar

(C) Electrical

(D) Heat

52 The following factor(s) affects the distribution of wind energy d

(A) Mountain chains

(B) The hills, trees and buildings

(C) Frictional effect of the surface

(D) All of the above

53 Uneven heating occurs on land surface and water bodies are b

due to _____
(A) Air Currents

(B) Solar radiation

 (C) Lunar eclipse

(D) None of the above

54 Winds having following speed are suitable to operate wind a

turbines.
(A) 5 – 25m/s

(B) 10 – 35m/s

(C) 20 – 45m/s

(D) 30 – 55m/s

55 2
A device which is used as device for showing direction wind as well
used as a decorative purpose?
1. Wind socks
2. Weather vane
3. Pin wheels
4. Anemometers
56 4
 Which type of windmill has better performance?
1. Vertical type wind mills
2. Darrieus type machines
3. Magnus effect rotor
4. Horizontal type windmills
57 1
 'During the day, the air above the land heats up more quickly than
the air over water'.
1. True
2. False
3.
4.
58 2
At what type of location vibrations are more in the wind turbine?
1. Downwind location
2. Up wind location
3. Windward
4. Leeward
59 3
Which country created wind mills?
1. Egypt
2. Mongolia
3. Iran
 4. Japan
60 What type of energy is wind energy? a

A Renewable energy
B Non-renewable energy
C Conventional energy
D Commercial energy

61 d
Wind energy can be used to
(A) generate electricity
(B) operate flour mills
(C) draw underground water
(D) all of the above

62 30. In Diesel engines, during suction stroke, ______is drawn in the c

cylinder.
a. Air and fuel
b. Only fuel
c. Only air.
d. None of these
63 29. The natural gas is compressed in a CNG cylinder at a pressure of A
a. 200 bar.
b. 220 bar
c. 250 bar
d. 300 bar
64 28. The self ignition temperature of Diesel as compared to petrol is B
a. Higher
b. Lower.
c. Same
d. Depends on fuel quality
65 27. During suction stroke, the inside pressure of cylinder is B
a. More than the atmospheric pressure
b. Less than the atmospheric pressure.
c. Equal to the atmospheric pressure
d. None of these

66 26. When the piston is at T.D.C., the volume above the piston in the A
combustion chamber is the
a. Clearance volume.
b. Cylinder volume
c. Exhaust volume
 d. None of these
A

67 The indicated power of a four stroke engine (in watts) is equal to

(where P =Mean effective pressure in N/m², L = Length of stroke in
metres, A = Crosssectional area of the piston in m², and N = Speed
of the engine in revolutions
per second (r.p.s)
a. P.L.A.N/2.
b. P.L.A.N
c. 2 × P.L.A.N
d. P.L.A.N/4
A

68 The advantage of the fuel injection system over the carburettor

system is
a. Improved fuel efficiency
b. Improved emission
c. Improved power output
d. All of these.
D

69 The function of a connecting rod is

a. To turn the flywheel
b. To drive the drive plate
c. To drive the fuel pump
d. To transmit motion of the piston to the crankshaft.
D

70 The sequence order of events in a four stroke engine is

a. Suction - exhaust - power - compression
b. Suction - power – compression - exhaust
c. Suction – compression – power - exhaust.
d. Exhaust - compression – power – suction
C

71 In a Diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

a. An electric spark
b. The heat of compression.
c. The hot exhaust
d. None of these
B

72 Petrol engine is
(a) Compression ignition engine
(b) Spark ignition engine
 (c) mixed ignition engine
(d) all of the above
B

73 Which engine produces more power for same compression ratio

(a) 4- stroke diesel engine
(b) 4- stroke petrol engine
(c) 2- stroke diesel engine
(d) 2- stroke petrol engine
D
74 Following is an S.I. engine,
(a) petrol engine
(b) diesel engine
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) none of the above
A
75 In a C.I. engine working on diesel cycle, during thesuction stroke,
(a) only air is sucked
(b) mixture of fuel and air is sucked
(c) only fuel is sucked
(d) none of the above
A
76 Choose the correct answer
In a four-stroke petrol engine during the suctionstroke,
(a) only air is sucked
(b) mixture of fuel and air is sucked
(c) only fuel is sucked
(d) none of the above
B
77 Choose the correct answer
The ratio of speed of camshaft to crankshaft of an LC. combustion
engine is
(a)1/4
(b) ½
(c) 1
(d) 2
B
78 Choose the correct answer
An internal combustion engine is one in which:
(a) combustion of fuel takes place inside the cylinder
(b) chemical energy is converted into mechanical energy
(c) a part of chemical energy released during combustion has to be
released to atmosphere
(d) all the above
D
79 Choose the correct answer
(i) The suction, compression, expansion and exhaust strokes of a
 four stroke engine are completed in x number of revolutions of
crankshaft where the value of x is,
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
B
80 Babcock-Wilcox boiler is a
(a) fire tube boiler with natural circulation
(b) water tube boiler with natural circulation
(c) fire tube boiler with forced circulation
(d) water tube boiler with forced circulation
B
81 The function of steam stop valve is
(a) to regulate flow of steam from boiler to steampipe
(b) to separate steam from water
(c) to collect steam from steam drum
(d) to provide safety of boiler
A
82 A blow off cock in the boiler is located
(a) at the top of shell
(b) at lower part of water space
(c) in water space of boiler below its water level
(d) none of these.
B
83 Which of the following are boiler mountings?
(a) economiser
(b) fusible plug
(c) superheater
(d) air preheater
B
84 Water after being pumped into a boiler cannot come out because
of:
(a) steam stop valve
(b) feed check valve
(c) safety valve
(d) blow off valve
B
85 The maximum pressure generated in a fire tube boiler is
approximately:
(a) 5 bar
(b) 10 bar
(c) 20 bar
(d) 80 bar
C
86 A Babcok-Wilcox is a boiler of the type
(a) internally fired, fire tube boiler
 (b) externally fired, fire tube boiler
(c) externally fired, water tube boiler
(d) Internally fired, water tube boiler
C
87 A Lancashire boiler is a
(a) internally fired, water tube boiler
(b) externally fired, fire tube boiler
(c) internally fired, fire tube boiler
(d) none of the above
C
88 . A Cochran boiler is a
(a) water tube boiler
(b) fire tube boiler
(c) Lancashire boiler
(d) none of the above
B
89 The function of steam drum in a boiler is to
(a) store steam
(b) store water
(c) separate impurities
(d) separate steam from water
D

90 . In a fire tube boiler

(a) hot gases pass through the tubes surroundedby water
(b) water passes through the tubes surrounded byhot gases
(c) fire surrounds the water tubes
(d) none of the above.
A
91 Which one is not a fire tube boiler:
(a) Lancashire
(b) Cochran
(c) Babcock-Wilcox
(d) none of these
C

Q.No Question and options Answer

92 1. the energy conversion process in Hydroelectric power plant c
is
a. KE-PE-Mechanical- Electrical
b. PE-KE-Electrical-Mechanical
c. PE-KE-Mechanical- Electrical
d. Tubine-condensor-mechanical- Cooling
93 Main components involved in Thermal power plant are F
a. Boiler
b. funace.
c. Tubine,
 d. generator
e. condensor
f. all the above
94 Identify one convenstional and non convensional source of D
energy among following.
a. fossil fuel& Coal
b. Solar & wind
c. tidal & geothermal
d.Petrol& Biomass energy
95 Product of Hydrogen Fuel cell after conversion of electricity C
is
a. CO2
b. NO2
c. H2o
d. So2
96 Advantages of Non-convectional source of energy is E
a. Easily available
b. Abundantly available
c. pollution free
d. only A & B are Correct
E. All A,B &C are correct
97 Main drawbacks of H2 energy is D
a. Handling
b. has high energy density
C. Storage
d. A& C are Correct ,
d. B, is correct
98 Science behind generation of High tide and low tide is A
a. Gravitational pull of SUN & MOON
b. Variation in flow of water in Sea
c. variation in air causes the High and low tide
d. sea contains More water as compared to river
99 Sources of Biomass energy are F
a. Wood and wood processing wastes
b. Agricultural crops and waste materials
c. Food, yard, and wood waste in garbage
d. Animal manure and human sewage
e. Solar , water & wind
f . All A,B,C,D
100 Steam is generated in F
a. Turbine
b. Photovoltaic cell
c. Fuel cell
d. Nuclear reactor
e. Furnace
f. Boiler
101 Fusion and Fission reactions occure inside the C
a. Steam genarator
b. Condensor
c. nuclear reactor
d. heat exchanger
102 Geo thermal energy source is example of e
a. Renewable
b. Non Renewable
c. Conventional
d. Non-conventional
e. Both renewable and non-conventional
103 Nuclear energy source is example of e
a. Renewable
b. Non Renewable
c. Conventional
d. Non-conventional
e. Both renewable and non-conventional
104 Source of energy that are commonly in use since long time is c
a. Renewable
b. Non Renewable
c. Conventional
d. Non-conventional
e. Both renewable and non-conventional

105 The energy that comes from the temperature of the heated a
substance is called as
a. thermal energy
b. Solar energy
c. Wind energy
d. Tidal energy
106 In thermal power plant Steam produced in boiler is passed over b
_________ to convert it into mechanical energy
a. Condenser
b. Turbine blade
c. Generator
d. Pump
107 Correct sequence of energy conversion in thermal a
Power plant is
a. Chemical energy of fuel ->Pressure energy of steam->
Mechanical energy of turbine -> Electrical Energy
b. Chemical energy of fuel-> Mechanical energy of
turbine ->Pressure energy of steam-> Electrical
Energy
c. Pressure energy of steam ->Chemical energy of fuel->
Mechanical energy of turbine -> Electrical Energy
d. Electrical Energy ->Chemical energy of fuel ->Pressure
 energy of steam-> Mechanical energy of turbine ->
Electrical Energy

108 In thermal power plant Heat recovery system like air pre heater a
, economizer are used for
a. To Increase efficiency of plant
b. To decrease efficiency of plant
c. efficiency will not depend on air pre heater ,
economizer
d. To decrease Temperature of thermal plant
109 In Thermal Power Plant following component is not used d
a. Boiler
b. Turbine
c. Feed pump
d. Penstock
e. Cooling tower
110 In Thermal Power Plant Steam from the turbine is thrown out c
to the _________
a. Boiler
b. Generator
c. Condenser
d. Economizer
111 The thermal power plant has work done of 800 KJ/kg. if the a
heat supplied by the boiler to the stem is 3000 KJ/kg, what will
be efficiency of plant
a. 26.67 %
b. 37.55 %
c. 25.55 %
d. 40 %
112 The thermal power plant has work done of 800 J/kg. The pump d
consumes power of 50 J/kg and the heat supplied by the
boiler to the system is 3000 J/kg, what will be efficiency of
plant
a. 26.67 %
b. 37.55 %
c. 25.55 %
d. 25 %

113 The thermal power plant has work done of 800 J/kg. The pump b
consumes power of 50 J/kg and the heat supplied by the
boiler to the system is 3000 J/kg, what will be Net work done
a. 800 kj/kg
b. 750kj/kg
c. 2950 kj/kg
d. 850kj/kg
114 Hydro-electrical Power plant uses ______energy of water to c
 rotate hydraulic turbine
a. Thermal energy
b. Tidal energy
c. Potential energy
d. Mechanical energy
e. Chemical energy
115 In Hydro-electrical Power plant ____________ is used to carry C
water from reservoir to turbine
a. Nozzle
b. Gate
c. Penstock
d. Tail Race
116 In Hydro-electrical Power plant Trash racks are built for b
___________
a) discharging the water freely from the turbine exit to tailrace
b) preventing the turbine from ingress of floating and other
materials
c) creating artificial head to store sufficient potential energy of
water
d) controlling the opening of valves
117 In Hydro-electrical Power plant ____ Direct water from d
turbine into the river
a. Nozzle
b. Gate
c. Penstock
d. Tail Race
118 Capital Cost of Hydro-electrical Power plant is b
a. Low
b. High
c. Moderate
d. Very less
119 In Hydro-electrical Power plant Which statement about surge C
tank is wrong?
a) Ideal location of surge tank is at the turbine inlet
b) A decrease in load demands cause a rise in water level in
surge tank
c) Surge tanks are totally closed to avoid entry of unwanted
objects to penstock
d) Surge tanks are installed to reduce harm effects of water
hammer phenomeno
120 In Hydro-electrical Power plant Trash racks are located d
_____________
a) near tailrace
b) at the entrance of turbine
c) inside penstock
d) intake
121 Which element of hydroelectric power plant prevents the d
penstock from water hammer phenomenon?
a) Valves and Gates
b) Draft tubes
c) Spillway
d) Surge Tank
122 How much coal is required to generate energy equivalent to d
the energy generated by 1 kg of uranium?
a) 30000 tonnes of high grade coal
b) 300 tonnes of high grade coal
c) 10000 tonnes of high grade coal
d) 3000 tonnes of high grade coal

123 Moderator in nuclear plants is used to d

(a) reduce temperature

(b) extract heat from nuclear reaction
(c) control the reaction
(d) cause collision with the fast moving neutrons to reduce
their speed
(e) moderate the radioactive pollution
124 Reflector in nuclear plants is used to a

(a) return the neutrons back into the core

(b) shield the radioactivity completely
(c) check polllution
(d) conserve energy
(e) is not used
125 The nuclear energy is measured as a

(a) MeV
(b) curie
(c) farads
(d) MW
(e) kWhr
126 Heavy nucleus is spited into two nuclei is ___ b
a. Fusion
b. Fission
c. Electron
d. Photon
127 Two lighter nuclei combine together is ____ a
a. Fusion
b. Fission
c. Electron
d. Photon
128 In nuclear power plant Which of the following is more a
 appropriate for a moderator. One which

(a) does not absorb neutrons

(b) absorbs neutrons
(c) accelerates neutrons
(d) eats up neutrons
(e) regenerates neutrons

129 Control rods function in nuclear power plant is b

a) does not absorb neutrons
(b) absorbs neutrons
(c) accelerates neutrons
(d) regenerates neutrons

130 Efficiency of flat plate collector is more than parabolic solar b

collector
a. True
b. False
140 1. The process of producing energy by utilizing heat trapped b
inside the earth surface is called _________
a) Hydrothermal energy
b) Geo-Thermal energy
c) Solar energy
d) Wave energy
141 How much is the average temperature at depth of 10 km of a
earth surface?
a) 200oC
b) 900oC
c) 650oC
d) 20oC
142 A geothermal solution containing appreciable amounts of b
sodium chloride or other salts is called as __________
a) Fluids
b) Brine
c) Solvent
d) Magma
143 Which kind geothermal plant is most common type? b
a) Dry steam
b) Flash
c) Binary
d) Wet steam
144 How much is the efficiency of geothermal plant? b
a) 28%
b) 15%
c) 42%
d) 30%
145 In Ocean thermal energy conversionHow is water trapped from b
coastal waters?
a) By building canals
b) By building dams
c) By digging wells
d) By storing in tanks
146 In Tidal Energy Plant Water to the turbine is allowed through b
the __________
a) Pipes
b) Sluice gates
c) Canals
d) Pumps
147 The wind speed is measured using an instrument called C
(A) hydrometer
(B) Manometer
(C) anemometer
(D) wind vane
148 A Solar cell is an electrical device that converts the energy of a
light directly into electricity by the ____________
a) Photovoltaic effect
b) Chemical effect
c) Atmospheric effect
d) Physical effect
149 In hydroelectric power, what is necessary for the production of a
power throughout the year?
a) Dams filled with water
b) High amount of air
c) High intense sunlight
d) Nuclear powe
150 The main composition of biogas is _______________ a
a) Methane
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
151 Nuclear Energy is a Renewable Energy. b
a) True
b) False
152 Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the a
renewable energy sources?
(A) Unreliable supply
(B) Highly polluting
(C) High waste disposal cost
(D) High running cost
153 Which among the following is not a renewable source of a
energy?
(A) Biomass energy
 (B) Solar energy
(C) Hydro-power
(D) Geothermal energy
154 Following is true for biomass and biofuels D

(A) their contribution in reduction in CO2 emissions is limited

(B) both emit large amount of air pollution when burned

(C) they consume large amounts of water

(D) all of the above

155 Biomass can be converted to d

(A) methane gas

(B) ethanol

(C) biodiesel

(D) all of the above

Q.No Question and options Answer
156 A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant D
volume and two isentropic processes is known as
A
Carnot cycle
.
B. Stirling cycle
C. Otto cycle
D
Diesel cycle
.
157 The processes occuring in open system which permit the A
transfer of mass to and from the system, are known as
A
flow processes
.
B. non-flow processes
C. adiabatic processes
D
none of these
.
158 The entropy __________ in an irreversible cyclic process. C
A
remains constant
.
 B. decreases
C. increases
159 Which of the following is correct? A
A Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric
. pressure
Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric
B.
pressure
Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge
C.
pressure
D Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure - Atmospheric
. pressure
158 In the first law of thermodynamics, the total energy of the A
system remains constant.
A
True
.
B. False
159 The absolute zero temperature is taken as A
A
-273°C
.
B. 273°C
C. 237°F
D
-237°F
.
160 The sum of internal energy (U) and the product of pressure and C
volume (p.v) is known as
A
workdone
.
B. entropy
C. enthalpy
D
none of these
.
161 A
When two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body,
they are also in thermal equilibrium with each other. This
statement is called
A Zeroth law of thermodynamics
 .
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D
Kelvin Planck's law
.
162 Which of the following represents a heat pump? B

[A]
.

[B].

[C].

[D]
.

163 The heat pump D

 A. receives heat from high temperature region and discharge it
to low temperature region with production of useful work

B. receives heat from low temperature region and discharge it to

high temperature region with production of useful work

C. receives heat from high temperature region and discharge it

to low temperature region with utilization of external work

D. receives heat from low temperature region and discharge it to

high temperature region with utilization of external work
164 What is correct formula for calculating COP of heat pump A

A. [COP]H. P. = Q1 / W
B. [COP]H. P. = Q2 / W
C. [COP]H. P. = W / Q1
D. [COP]H. P. = W / Q2
165 How is the COP of a refrigerator calculated? B
 A. [COP]Ref. = Q1 / W
B. [COP]Ref. = Q2 / W
C. [COP]Ref. = W / Q1
D. [COP]Ref. = W / Q2
166 What is the relation between [COP]H. P. and [COP]Ref.? C

a. [COP]H. P. = [COP]Ref.

b. [COP]H. P. + [COP]Ref. = 1
c. [COP]H. P. – [COP]Ref. = 1
d. [COP]H. P. × [COP]Ref. = 1
167 In which phase of a substance does conduction mode of heat D
transfer take place?

A. solid
B. liquid
C. gaseous
D. all of the above
168 Mass transfer does not take place in C

A. conduction heat transfer

B. convection heat transfer
C. radiation heat transfer
D. none of the above
169 What is the condition for conduction mode of heat transfer C
between two bodies?
 A. the two bodies must be in physical contact
B. there must be temperature gradient between the bodies
C. both a. and b.
D. none of the above
170 In which mode, does the heat energy transfer between two C
bodies when they are separated by some distance and there is no
any medium between them?

A. conduction mode of heat transfer

B. convection mode of heat transfer
C. radiation mode of heat transfer
D. heat transfer cannot takes place with above condition
171 According to the Fourier's law of heat conduction, the rate of C
heat transfer by conduction depends upon

A. area of cross section normal to the heat flow

B. temperature gradient
C. both a. and b.
D. none of the above
172 Why is the negative sign introduced in the equation of Fourier's C
law of heat conduction?

q = – kA (dT / dx)

A. because heat transfer rate is inversely proportional to

temperature gradient
B. because value of thermal conductivity k is negative
C. because heat is transferred from higher temperature to lower
temperature
D. none of the above
173 The value of thermal conductivity k depends upon A

A. the material through which the heat is transferred

B. the intensity of heat energy which is being transferred
C. the area which is parallel to the heat transfer
D. all of the above
174 How does the radiation heat transfer occur through perfect C
vacuum?

A. by light waves
B. by electromagnetic waves
C. both a. and b.
D. none of the above
175 The Stefan-Boltzmann law of thermal radiation is applicable for C
 A. white body
B. gray body
C. black body
D. all the bodies
176 In the equation for the rate radiant heat energy from a perfect C
radiator

q = σ A T4

the constant σ is called as

A. Black body constant

B. Radiation constant
C. Stefan-Boltzmann constant
D. none of the above
177 What is the mode of heat transfer from the hot surface to the A
adjacent layer of fluid which surrounds the surface?

A. conduction mode of heat transfer

B. radiation mode of heat transfer
C. convection mode of heat transfer
D. none of the above
178 In a 2 stroke engine, the operation cycle are completed in how C
many strokes and revolution?
A. 4 strokes and 2 revolutions
B. 2 stroke and 2 revolutions
C. 2 strokes and 1 revolution
D. 4 stroke and 4 revolutions

179 Which of the following is an extensive property? A

A. Volume
B. Pressure
C. Viscosity
D. All of the above
180 Which of the following energy conversion devices convert heat B
into work?

A. Electrical generators
B. I. C engines
C. Condensers
D. All of the above
181 In four stroke cycle engine, cycle is completed in ______ B

A. two strokes of the piston

B. two revolutions of the crankshaft
 C. three strokes of the piston
D. four revolutions of the crankshaft
182 Which is the major constituent of CNG? B
A) ethane
B) methane
C) butane
D) propane
183 How can we classify steam generators on the basis of D
application?
A) utility steam generators
B) industrial steam generator
C) marine steam generator
D) all of the mentioned
184 Water tube boilers are internally fired? B
A) True
B) False
185 Fire-tube boilers are used in? A
A) industrial steam generators
B) utility steam generators
C) marine steam generators
D) none of the mentioned
186 Which of the following is not an advantage of a fire-tube boiler? C
A) low first cost
B) reliability in operation
C) more draught required
D) quick response to load changes
187 Which of these is a type of fire-tube boiler? C
A) Externally fired
B) Internally fired
C) Internally & Externally fired
D) None of the mentioned
188 Which of these is an externally fired boiler? C
A) Package boiler
B) Scotch-marine boiler
C) Lancashire boiler
D) None of the mentioned
189 Which of the following is a type of internally fired boiler? A
A) Package boiler
B) HRT boiler
C) Lancashire boiler
D) Locomotive type boiler
190 The natural draught is produced by ___________ A
A) chimney
B) centrifugal fan
C) steam jet
D) none of the mentioned
191 Which of the following statement is wrong? D
A) Water tube boilers are internally fired
B) Locomotive boiler is a water tube boiler
C) La-mont boiler is a low pressure water tube boiler
D) All of the mentioned
192 What is the length of shell of a Locomotive boiler? C
A) 2m
B) 3m
C) 4m
D) 6m
193 The shell diameter of a Locomotive boiler is? A
A) 1.5m
B) 1m
C) 2m
D) 2.5m
194 According to Stefan-Boltzmann law of thermal radiation B
A) q = α A T
B) q = α A T4
C) q = α A T3
D) q = α A T5
195 The Stefan-Boltzmann constant has units of A
A) kcal/m2 hr K4
B) kcal/m hr K4
C) kcal/hr K4
D) kcal/m2 K4
196 The famous Fourier series is named after B
A) Diller and Ryan
B) J.B. Joseph Fourier
C) Stefan- Boltzmann
D) Wein’s
197 Fourier law of heat conduction is best represented by A
A) Q = -k A d t /d x
B) Q = k A d x/d t
C) Q = -k A
D) Q = k d t/d x
198 Negative sign in Fourier heat conduction equation indicates B
A) Heat always flow is in the direction of positive temperature
gradient
B) Heat always flow in the direction of negative temperature
gradient
C) No heat flow is there
D) Data is insufficient
199 Transmission of heat i.e. molecular is smallest in case of A
A) Gases
B) Liquids
C) Alloys
 D) Solids
200 Consider the following statements: D
The Fourier heat conduction equation
Q = -k A d t /d x
Presumes
i) Steady state conditions
ii) Constant value of thermal conductivity
iii) Uniform temperature at the wall surface
iv) One dimensional heat flow
Which of these statements are correct?
A) i, ii and iii
B) i, ii and iv
C) i, iii and iv
D) i, iii and iv
201 Which one is not the unit of thermal conductivity? C
A) kcal/m hr K
B) KJ/m hr K
C) W/m s K
D) Cal/cm s K
202 “Thermal conductivity represents the amount of heat conducted B
across the unit area when a temperature difference of one
kelvin”.
A) True
B) False
50 How many types of convection are there? B
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1

Q. Question and options Answer

No.
1  Heat is transferred in soild by A
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. None of these
2 In steady state C
A. Temperature increase with time
B. Temperature decrease with time
C. Temperature remain constant with time
D. None of these
3 Heat transfer is a deals about rate of C
A. Temperature transfer 
B. Work transfer 
C. Energy transfer 
D. Mass transfer 
4  In which of following has higher thermal conductivity. C
A. Water
B. Steam
C. Solid ice
D. Melting ice
5  Bad conductor is also known as ........ B
A. Conduction
B. Insulator
C. Radiant
D. Termaids
6 Overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in problem of......... D
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction and convection
7  Fourier's law related to ........ A
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Fusion
8  Fourier's law is used for........... conduction heat transfer  A
A. One dimestion cases 
B. Two dimestion cases
C. Irregular surface
D. Any surface
9 What is unit of overall heat transfer coefficient? A
A. w/m²k
B. w/m
C. w/mk
D. w/m³
10 Amount of heat flow through a substance by conduction is......... D
A. Depend upon on the material of substance 
B. Directly proportional to temperature difference of substance 
C. Directly proportional to surface area of substance 
D. All of these 

11 Heat transfer in liquid generally by.......... B

A. Conduction
B. Convection 
C. Radiation 
D. None of these 
12  Convection heat transfer generally take place between  A
A. Solid surface and fluid system in motion 
B. Two solid surface which connecting physically. 
C. Both A and B
D. None of these 

13 Convection heat transfer coefficient depends upon........... D

A. Geometry of surface 
B. Characteristics of fluid 
C. Thermal properties of fluid 
 D. All of above 
14 Warm air rises because it is...... A
A. Less dense than cool air
B. Same dense than cool air 
C. More dense than cool air 
D. None of these 
15 Weather is a example of .......... B
A. Conduction current
B. Convection current
C. Radiation current 
D. None of these 
16 Heat energy of sun is received by earth, by using the......... C
A. Conduction 
B. Convection 
C. Radiation 
D. None of these 
17 What emissivity/absorptivity of perfect black body? B
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
18  A body at high temperature T °K radiates heat at rate proportion to........ D
A. T
B. T²
C. T³
D. T⁴
19  Which of the process is rapid process? C
A. Conduction 
B. Convection 
C. Radiation 
D. None of these 
20 What is the relation between absorptivity (à), transmissivity (T) A
and reflectivity (r) , 
A. r + à + T = 1
B. r + à - T = 1
C. r - à + T = 1
D. None of these 

The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the

order of
(a) 500- 1000°C
(b) 1000- 1500°C
(c) 1500-2000°C
(d) 2000-2500°C
(e) 2500-3000°C
Ans: d

. Scavenging air in diesel engine means

(a) air used for combustion sent under pres-sure
(b) forced air for cooling cylinder
(c) burnt air containing products of combustion
(d) air used for forcing burnt gases out of engine’s cylinder during
the exhaust period
(e) air fuel mixture.
Ans: d

A carburettor is used to supply........

a.Petrol,air and lubricating oil

   b.Air and diesel
c.Petrol and lubricating oil
   d.Petrol and air

.. A diesel engine has compression ratio from-

a) 16 to 20
b) 05 to 10
c) 20 to 50
d) none of the mentioned

Diesel cycle is also known as _____________

a) constant volume cycle
b) constant pressure cycle
c) constant temperature cycle
d) none of the mentioned

What is the compression ratio in SI engine?

a) 6 – 10
b) 3 – 5
c) 1 – 2
d) 11 – 15

In four stroke engine which of the following is also known as power

stroke
a)Suction stroke
b)Compression stroke
c)Expansion stroke
d)Exhaust stroke
(Ans:c)
The ascending order of strokes in four stroke engine is
a)Suction stroke – Expansion stroke – Compression stroke – Exhaust
stroke
b)Suction stroke – Compression stroke – Expansion stroke –Exhaust
stroke
c)Suction stroke – Expansion stroke – Exhaust stroke – Compression
stroke
d)Suction stroke – Compression stroke – Exhaust stroke – Expansion
stroke
(Ans:b)
In Two stroke engine there is one power stroke in _____ of
crankshaft rotation.
a)180°
b)360°
c)540°
d)720°
(Ans:b)

In four stroke engine there is one power stroke in _____ of

crankshaft rotation.
a)180°
b)360°
c)540°
d)720°
(Ans:d)

Which of the following is not used in four stroke compression-

ignition (CI) engines?
a)Fuel pump
b)Spark plug
c)Fuel injector
d)Inlet and outlet Valves
(Ans:b)
The energy of expanding gas is transferred by piston to connecting
rod through
a)Crank pin
b)Gudgeon pin
c)Bearing
d)Crankcase
(Ans:b)

Which of the following is not an internal Combustion (IC) engine?

a)Gas engine
b)Wankel engine
c)Jet engine
d)Stirling engine
(Ans:d)

Heat engine uses ______ energy to produce mechanical work.

a)Thermal
b)Fluid
c)Kinetic
d)Electric
(Ans:a)

In a two stroke engine, the working cycle is completed in two

revolutions of the crankshaft.
a)True
b)False
Answer: b
Explanation: In a two stroke engine, the working cycle is
completed in one revolution of the crankshaft
The power actually developed by the engine cylinder of an I.C. engine is
known as

(A) Theoretical power

(B) Actual power

(C) Indicated power

(D) None of these

. The process of breaking up or a liquid into fine droplets by spraying is called

(A) Vaporisation

(B) Carburetion

(C) Ionization

(D) Atomization

The purpose of testing an internal combustion engine is

(A) To determine the information, which cannot be obtained by calculations

(B) To conform the data used in design, the validity of which may be doubtful

(C) To satisfy the customer regarding the performance of the engine

(D) All of the above

The compression ignition engines are governed by

(A) Hit and miss governing

(B) Qualitative governing

(C) Quantitative governing

(D) Combination of (B) and (C)

Thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle engine is _________ a four stroke
cycle engine.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(C) Greater than

(D) None of these

The spark ignition engines are governed by

(A) Hit and miss governing

(B) Qualitative governing

(C) Quantitative governing

(D) Combination of (B) and (C)

Which of the following is not an intern’s combustion engine?

(A) 2-stroke petrol engine

(B) 4-stroke petrol engine

(C) Diesel engine

(D) Steam turbine

Number of working strokes per min. for a two stroke cycle engine is
_________ the speed of the engine in r.p.m.

(A) Equal to

(B) One-half

(C) Twice

(D) Four-times
The minimum cranking speed in case of petrol engine is about

(A) Half the operating speed

(B) One fourth of operating speed

(C) 250 - 300 rpm

(D) 60 - 80 rpm

A stoichiometric air-fuel ratio is

(A) Chemically correct mixture

(B) Lean mixture
 (C) Rich mixture for idling

(D) Rich mixture for over loads

Which of the following medium is compressed in a Diesel engine cylinder?

(A) Air alone

(B) Air and fuel

(C) Air and lub oil

(D) Fuel alone

. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the compression

(A) Starts at 40° after bottom dead center and ends at 10° before top

dead center

(B) Starts at 40° before top dead center and ends at 40° after top dead center

(C) Starts at top dead center and ends at 40° before bottom dead center

(D) May start and end anywhere

The voltage required to produce a spark across the gap, between the sparking
points is

(A) 2000 to 4000 volts

(B) 4000 to 6000 volts

(C) 6000 to 10,000 volts

(D) 10,000 to 12,000 volts

The injection pressure in a diesel engine is about

(A) 10 bar

(B) 100 bar

(C) 150 bar

(D) 500 bar

The object of supercharging the engine is

(A) To reduce mass of the engine per brake power

(B) To reduce space occupied by the engine

(C) To increase the power output of an engine when greater power is

required
 (D) All of the above
The octane number of petrol, generally available, is

(A) 20 to 40

(B) 40 to 60

(C) 60 to 80

(D) 80 to 100

If the compression ratio in I.C. engine increases, then its thermal efficiency
will

(A) Decrease

(B) Increase

(C) Remain same

(D) None of these

The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by

(A) Carburettor

(B) Injector

(C) Governor

(D) None of these

The brake power is the power available

(A) In the engine cylinder

(B) At the crank shaft

(C) At the crank pin

(D) None of these

. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the compression

(A) Starts at 40° after bottom dead centre and ends at 30°
before top dead centre

(B) Starts at 40° before bottom dead centre and ends at 30° after bottom dead
centre

(C) Starts at bottom dead centre and ends at top dead centre

(D) May start and end anywhere

The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by

 (A) High self ignition temperature

(B) Low volatility

(C) Higher viscosity

(D) All of these

The mean effective pressure obtained from engine indicator indicates the

(A) Maximum pressure developed

(B) Minimum pressure

(C) Instantaneous pressure at any instant

(D) Average pressure

The ignition quality of petrol is expressed by

(A) Cetane number

(B) Octane number

(C) Calorific value

(D) All of these

The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder is
known as

(A) Scavenging

(B) Turbulence

(C) Supercharging

(D) Pre-ignition

If the temperature of intake air in internal combustion engine increases, then

its efficiency will

(A) Remain same

(B) Decrease
(C) Increase
(D) None of these