POWER AND INDUSTRIAL PLANT ENGINEERING

INSTRUCTION: FAMILIARIZE THE FOLLOWING

This is a type of reaction turbine usually with typical spiral casing

where water enters the runner radially at its outer periphery and
changes direction (imparting energy to the runner) while flowing along
the complex-shaped profiles to discharge axially. It is the most widely
used type of hydraulic turbine for modern power generation purposes.

a. Pelton Turbine c. Turgo Turbine

b. Francis Turbine d. Kaplan Turbine

ANSWER: (B)Francis Turbine

It is an expanding tube connecting the outlet passage of a turbine with

the tail water.
a. Draft Tube c. Penstock
b. Forebay d. Surge Chamber

ANSWER: (A)Draft Tube

It is a hydroelectric plant in which excess water is pumped to an

elevated space during off-peak period and the stored water will be used
to drive hydraulic turbines during the peak period to meet the peak
demand.
a. Run-of-River Plant c. Pumped Storage Plant
b. Storage Plant d. None of the above

ANSWER: (c) Pumped Storage Plant

It is a channel that conducts water away from the turbine.

a. Headrace Pipe c. Penstock
b. Forebay d. Tailrace

ANSWER: (D) Tailrace

This is a grid or screen composed of parallel bars to catch floating

debris. It prevents leaves, branches, and other water contaminants from
entering the penstock.
a. Surge tank c. Butterfly valve
b. Trash Rack d. Weir

ANSWER: (B) Trash Rack

It is the term used that refers to water in the reservoir.

a. Headwater c. Tailwater
b. Discharge d. Stored water

ANSWER: (A) Headwater

This is a propeller- type reaction turbine with both adjustable guide
vanes and runner blades.
a. Kaplan Turbine c. Turgo Turbine
b. Pelton Turbine d. Cross-flow

ANSWER: (A) Kaplan Turbine

It is basically hydroelectric power utilizing the difference in

elevation between high and low tide to produce energy.
a. Water power c. Fluid Power
b. Tidal Power d. Wave Power

ANSWER: (B) Tidal Power

The power output of this plant depends on the water flow in the river;
at low river flows the output decreases accordingly.
a. Pumped Storage Plant c. Storage Plant
b. Run-of-River Plant d. All of the above

ANSWER: (B) Run-of-River Plant

The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a dam.

a. Forebay c. Penstock
b. Draft tube d. Tailrace

ANSWER: (C) Penstock

A kind of fluid flow where in the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent
layers and the paths of individual particles do not cross or intersect.
a. Turbulent flow c. Critical flow
b. Laminar flow d. Steady flow

ANSWER: (B) Laminar Flow

It conducts the water around the turbine.

a. Spiral casing ` c. Wicket gate
b. Draft tube d. Governor

ANSWER: (A) Spiral Casing

These are movable vertical vanes that are actuated by the governor to
control the flow of water and therefore the energy supplied to the
runner.
a. Spillway c. Headrace pipe
b. Runner d. Wicket gate

ANSWER: (D) Wicket gate

The speed of a hypothetical model turbine having the same configuration
as the actual turbine, when the model would be of the proper size to
develop 1 hp at a head of 1 ft.

a. Synchronous speed c. Runaway speed

b. Specific speed d. Turbine speed

ANSWER: (B) Specific speed

The difference in elevation between the headwater and the tailwater or

tailrace.
a. Dynamic head c. Gross head
b. Net head d. Effective head

ANSWER: (C) Gross Head

The ratio of the effective head to the gross head.

a. Mechanical efficiency c. Hydraulic efficiency

b. Penstock efficiency d. Volumetric efficiency

ANSWER: (B) Penstock Efficiency

The ratio of the head utilized to the effective head.

a. Mechanical efficiency c. Hydraulic efficiency
b. Penstock efficiency d. Volumetric efficiency

ANSWER: (C) Hydraulic effenciency

Heads between 70 and 800 ft generally indicate this type of turbine.

a. Impulse turbine c. Reaction turbine
b. Propeller turbine d. Pelton turbine

ANSWER: (C) Reaction Turbine

Heads below about 70 ft call for this type of turbine.

a. Impulse turbine c. Reaction turbine
b. Propeller turbine d. Pelton turbine

ANSWER: (B) Propeller turbine

The functions of this hydraulic turbine part are: (1) It enables the
turbine to be set above the tailwater level without losing any head
thereby. and (2) It reduces the head loss at submerged discharge to
increase the net head available to the turbine runner.
a. Spiral casing c. Wicket gate
b. Draft tube d. Butterfly valve

ANSWER: (B) Draft Tube

It is a tank with free surface provided at the transition from the low-
pressure headrace or tunnel to the penstock. It protects the headrace
pipe or tunnel from excessive changes in pressure and supplying or
storing water as required.
a. Surge tank c. Butterfly valve
b. Draft tube d. Spillway

ANSWER: (A)Surge tank

The rotating part of the turbine where the water imparts its energy onto
the turbine shaft.
a. Runner c. Impeller
b. Flywheel d. Lobe

ANSWER: (A) Runner

The formation and collapse of vapor bubbles that occurs when the pump
inlet suction pressure falls to or below the vapor pressure of the
liquid is called
a. Priming c. Foaming
b. Cavitation d. Net positive suction head

ANSWER: (B) Cavitation

A property of lubricating oil that measures the thickness of the oil and
will help determine how long oil will flow at a given temperature is
known as ________________.
a. Pour point c. Relative density
b. Flash Point d. Viscosity

ANSWER: (D) Viscosity

A flow at low Reynold’s number with smooth steam lines and shear and
conduction effects owing entirely to the fluids molecular viscosity and
conductivity.
a. Turbulent c. Critical
b. Laminar d. Non-viscous

ANSWER: (B) Laminar

The fact that the buoyant force on a floating object is equal to the
weight of displaced liquid is known as
a. Bernoulli’s theorem c. Archimedes’ principle
b. Continuity equation d. Law of Conservation of mass

ANSWER: (C) Archimedes’ principle

The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid loop is to

a. add energy to the flow c. add mass to the flow
b. extract energy from the flow d. none of the above

ANSWER: (B) extract energy from the flow

It connects the turbine outlet to the tailwater so that the turbine can
be set above the tailwater level.
a. draft tube c surge chamber
b. penstock d. spillway

ANSWER: (A) draft tube

It provides an efficient and safe means of releasing flow water that

exceeds the design capacity of the dam.
a. draft tube c. surge chamber
b. penstock d. spillway

ANSWER: (d) spillway

The power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid against a given

head with no losses in the pump is called:
a. brake power c. indicated power
b. hydraulic power d. none of the above

ANSWER: (B)hydraulic Power

The velocity of fluid is zero at the wall and maximum at the center
because of the
a. velocity effect c. viscous effect
b. temperature effect d. none of the above

ANSWER: (C) Viscous effect

The work termed for pumps, compressors, fans and blowers is negative
since work
a. done by the fluid c. done on the fluid
b. rejected by the fluid d. none of the above

ANSWER: (C) done ON the fluid (-)

This is a type of water turbine where a jet of water is made to fall on

the blades or buckets and due to the impulse of water the turbine will
start moving.
a. Steam turbine c. Reaction turbine
b. Francis turbine d. Pelton wheel turbine

ANSWER: (D) Pelton wheel turbine

A device used to prevent water hammer in turbine.

a. Governor c. guard
b. Surge tank d. wicket gate

ANSWER: (B) Surge Tank

This is a vent or hole in the earth’s surface usually in volcanic
region, from which steam, gaseous vapors, or hot gases issue.
a. Magma c. Fumarole
b. Geyser d. Fault

ANSWER: (C) Fumarole

The typical depth of a geothermal production well in meters.

a. 1000 c. 1500
b. 3000 d. 4000

ANSWER: (B) 3000

A wind energy system transforms the ______________________ of the wind

into mechanical or electrical energy that can be harnessed for practical
use.
a. Potential Energy c. Internal Energy
b. Heat Energy d. Kinetic Energy

ANSWER: (D) Kinetic Energy

It is the rhythmic rise and fall of the ocean waters.

a. Tide range c. Wave
b. Tide d. Water current

ANSWER: (B) Tide

The power available in the wind is proportional to the ________________

of its speed.
a. Cube c. Square
b. Fourth Power d. All of the above

ANSWER: (A) Cube

It is the maximum tidal range.

a. Neap tides c. Spring tide
b. Ebb tide d. Tidal wave

ANSWER: (C) Spring Tide

Natural gas is considered _______________ when it is almost pure

methane.
a. Dry c. Wet
b. Saturated d. Superheated

ANSWER: (A) Dry

In this type of reactor, the water is heated by the nuclear fuel and
boils to steam directly into the reactor vessel. It is then piped
directly to the turbine. The turbine spins, driving the electrical
generator, producing electricity.
a. Heavy Water Reactor c. Boiling Water Reactor
b. Pressurized Water Reactor d. All of the above

ANSWER: (C) Boiling Water Reactor

It is an air pollution control device that works by electrically

charging the particles of fly ash in the flue gas and collecting them by
attraction to charged metal plates.
a. Wet scrubber c. Electrostatic Precipitator
b. Bag houses d. Cyclone Separator

ANSWER: (C) Electrostatic Precipitator

This nuclear reactor component, which is made up of carbon and

beryllium, slows down the fast neutrons that are born during the fission
process.
a. Control Rods c. Moderator
b. Coolant d. Reflector

ANSWER: (C) Moderator

These boron coated steel rods are used to regulate the rate of fission
chain reaction. They are withdrawn from the core to start the chain
reaction and inserted all the way into the core to stop it.
a. Control Rods c. Moderator
b. Coolant d. Reflector

ANSWER: (A) Control Rods

In general usage, the term “combined cycle power plant” describes the
combination of a gas turbine generator(s) (____________________ cycle)
with turbine exhaust waste boiler(s) and steam turbine generator(s)
(Rankine cycle) for the production of electrical power.
a. Diesel Cycle c. Otto Cycle
b. Reheat Cycle d. Brayton Cycle

ANSWER: (D) Brayton Cycle

Natural gas is a fossil fuel formed when layers of buried plants and
animals are exposed to intense heat and pressure. It has been dubbed as
the “fuel of the future” or “green fuel” and comprises mainly of
_________________.
a. Propane c. Butane
b. Ethane d. Methane

ANSWER: (D) Methane

It is the coal ash that exits a combustion chamber in the flue gas and
is captured by air pollution control equipment such as electrostatic
precipitators, baghouses, and wet scrubbers.
a. Ash c. Bottoming Ash
b. Fly Ash d. Refuse

ANSWER: (B) Fly Ash

Also known as brown coal, it is the lowest-rank solid coal with a

calorific value of less than 8,300 Btu/lb on a moist mineral-matter free
basis.
a. Bituminous coal c. Peat
b. Lignite d. Anthracite

ANSWER: (B) Lignite

It means using the same energy source for more than one purpose, such as
using the waste heat from an engine for space heating.
a. Superposing c. Topping
b. Cogeneration d. Combined Cycle Plant

ANSWER: (B) Cogeneration

The minimum amount of air required for the complete combustion of fuel.
a. Stoichiometric Air c. Excess Air
b. Actual Air d. Percentage excess air

ANSWER: (A) Stoichiometric Air

The device or instrument used for measuring the calorific value of a

unit mass of fuel is called:
a. calorimeter c. salinometer
b. pyrometer d. thermometer

ANSWER: (A) Calorimeter

When water (H2O) in the products of combustion is in the vapor or gaseous

form, the heating value is known as:
a. Higher heating value (HHV) c. Lower heating value (LHV)
b. Heating value (HV) d. Gross calorific value (GCV)

ANSWER: (C) Lower heating Value (LHV)

The percent excess air is the difference between the air actually
supplied and the theoretical air required divided by:
a. the theoretically air supplied
b. the deficiency air supplied
c. total air supplied
d. none of the above

ANSWER: (A) the theoretically air supplied

During a combustion process, the components which exist before the
reaction are called ______
a. reactants c. products
b. flue gases d. none of the above

ANSWER: (A) reactants

The minimum amount of air needed for the complete combustion of fuel is
called ________
a. excess air c. theoretical air
b. combustion air d. none of the above

ANSWER: (C)Theoretical air

A gas which will not be found in the flue gases produced from the
complete combustion of fuel oil is
a. carbon dioxide c. hydrogen
b. oxygen d. nitrogen

ANSWER: (C) hydrogen

The higher heating value is determined when the water in the products of
combustion is in
a. solid form c. vapor form
b liquid form d. gas form

ANSWER: (B) Liquid Form

The amount of heat liberated by the complete combustion of a unit weight

or volume of fuel is known as:
a. heating value c. latent heat
b. sensible heat d. work of compression

ANSWER: (A) Heating Value

An “ attemporator ” is another name for

a. Dry pipe c. Reheater
b. Superheater d. Desuperheater

ANSWER: (D) Desuperheater

What is the fundamental indicator of good combustion?

a. Colorless smoke.
b. Releasing maximum nitrogen content of the combustion with
minimum oxygen, carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide content.
c. Presence of minimum oxygen, maximum carbon dioxide and nil
combustibles in the flue gas.
d. Saturated clean smoke.

ANSWER: (C) Presence of minimum oxygen, maximum carbon dioxide and nil
combustibles in the flue gas.
It is a solidified mass of fused ash.
a. Sludge c. Solidified ash
b. Carbon residues d. Clinker

ANSWER: (D) Clinker

Why does older types of economizers were constructed invariably of cast

iron?
a. Because cast iron resists corrosion better than mild steel and
the pressures were comparatively low.
b. Because it is cheap.
c. Because cast iron is more abundant than any other type of
steel.
d. Because it’s thermal conductivity is very small and it gives
greater efficiency to the system.

ANSWER: (A)

It is an accessory often installed on modern boilers to preheat air for

combustion before it enters the boiler furnace.
a. economizer c. air preheater
b. reheater d. forced-draft fan

ANSWER: (C) air preheater

What components are included in the proximate analysis in solid fuel?

a. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and excess oxygen
b. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, ash and moisture
c. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, sulfur, nitrogen and ash
d. Fixed carbon, volatile matter, ash and moisture

ANSWER: (D)

Which element of fuel is not combustible?

a. Carbon c. Hydrogen
b Sulfur d. Oxygen

ANSWER: (D) Oxygen

A device or an instrument used to record the cylinder pressure of an

engine and piston travel in an X-Y graph, where pressure forms the
vertical axis and piston travel forms the horizontal axis.
a. Engine Indicator c. Planimeter
b. Pyrometer d. Dynamometer

ANSWER: (A) Engine Indicator

This diagram is used by the operating engineer to detect or determine
leaky piston packing, sticking piston, incorrect valve timing, loose
bearings, restricted and or outlet piping, etc.
a. Timing diagram c. T-s diagram
b. P-h diagram d. Indicator diagram

ANSWER: (D) Indicator Diagram

The effective weight of the brake arm when the brake band is loose.
a. Tare Weight c. Gross Load
b. Net Load d. Net Tension

ANSWER: (A) Tare Weight

The power output of the generator.

a. Ideal Power c. Indicated Power
b. Brake Power d. Electrical Power

ANSWER: (D) Electrical Power

The amount of fuel needed to perform a unit of power.

a. Specific fuel consumption c. Steam rate
b. Heat Rate d. Mass flow rate

ANSWER: (A) Specific Fuel Consumption

The ratio of heat converted to useful power to the heat supplied.

a. Mechanical efficiency c. Thermal efficiency
b. Generator efficiency d. Engine efficiency

ANSWER: (C) Thermal Efficiency

The ratio of the actual power of the engine to its ideal power.
a. Mechanical efficiency c. Thermal efficiency
b. Generator efficiency d. Engine efficiency

ANSWER: (D) Engine efficiency

The ratio of the cylinder volumes after and before the combustion
process.
a. Compression ratio c. Expansion ratio
b. Cutoff ratio d. All of the above

ANSWER: (B) Cut-off ratio

The position of the piston when it forms the smallest volume in the
cylinder.
a. Crank End Dead Center Position c. Bottom Dead Center Position
b. Head End Dead Center Position d. Clearance Volume

ANSWER: (B) Head End Center Position

The position of the piston when it forms the largest volume in the
cylinder.
a. Crank End Dead Center Position c. Top Dead Center Position
b. Head End Dead Center Position d. Clearance Volume

ANSWER: (A) Crank End Dead Center Position

When four events take place in one revolution of a crankshaft of an

engine, the engine is called:
a. rotary engine c. steam engine
b. 2-stroke cycle engine d. 4-stroke cycle engine

ANSWER: (B) 2-stroke cycle engine

What is the model cycle for spark ignition engine?

a. Diesel cycle c. Brayton cycle
b. Otto cycle d. Carnot cycle

ANSWER: (B) Otto cycle

Diesel engine fuel is rated in terms of:

a. Cetane number c. Octane rating
b. Power output d. Net Calorific Value

ANSWER: (A) Cetane

The distance that the piston can travel in one direction.

a. Bore ` c. Stroke
b. Clearance d. Displacement

ANSWER: (C) Stroke

The minimum volume formed in the cylinder when the piston is at the top
dead center.
a. Displacement volume c. Clearance volume
b. Cylinder Volume d. None of the above

ANSWER: (C) Clearance volume

It is a fictitious pressure which, if it acted on the piston during the

entire power stroke, would produce the same amount of net work as that
produced during the actual cycle.
a. Average pressure c. Maximum pressure
b. Mean effective pressure d. Minimum pressure

ANSWER: (B) Mean effective pressure

The ratio of constant pressure specific heat to the constant volume
specific heat.
a. Compression ratio c. Expansion ratio
b. Cutoff ratio d. Specific heat ratio

ANSWER: (D)Specific heat ratio

The ideal cycle for the compression-ignition reciprocating engines.

a. Diesel cycle c. Otto cycle
b. Dual cycle d. Carnot cycle

ANSWER: (A) Diesel Cycle

The power developed in the engine cylinder as obtained from the pressure
in the cylinder.
a. Ideal power c. Indicated power
b. Brake power d. Electrical power

ANSWER: (C) Indicated Power

The pressure and torque spent in overcoming friction of reciprocating

and revolving parts of the engine and automobile before it reached the
drive shaft.
a. Electrical losses c. Indicated power
b. Brake power d. Friction power

ANSWER: (D) Friction Power

It is an instrument for determining brake power, usually by the

independent measurement of force, time and distance through which the
force is moved.
a. Planimeter c. Dynamometer
b. Anemometer d. Barometer

ANSWER: (C) Dynamometer

It is the indicator used to determine the anti-knock characteristics of

gasoline.
a. Octane Number c. Cetane Number
b. Compression Ratio d. Viscosity

ANSWER: (A) Octane Number

Draws fuel from tank through the primary fuel filter. This provides flow
throughout the low portion of the fuel system.
a. Fuel injection pump c. Fuel transfer pump
b. Valve lifter d. Oil pan

ANSWER: (C) Fuel transfer pump

Acts as a balancer and provide momentum during dead stroke in a cycle.
a. Flywheel c. Crankshaft
b. Oil cooler d. After cooler
ANSWER: (A) flywheel

Are steel tubes with seat at both ends and bridges the motion from
camshaft to rocker arm.
a. Push rod c. Valve lifter
b. Suction bell d. Flywheel
ANSWER: (A) Push rod

Passage of coolant from the engine block to the cylinder head.

a. Water jacket c. Oil cooler
b. Fuel transfer pump d. Turbo charger
ANSWER: (A) Water jacket

Are used to cool incoming air so that the volume of air available is
increased.
a. After cooler c. Radiator
b. Waste gates d. Muffler
ANSWER: (A) After cooler

The difference between the maximum and minimum volume.

a. Displacement Volume c. Clearance Volume
b. Top Dead Center d. Differential Volume

ANSWER: (A) Displacement Volume

These are used to seal the gasses within the cylinder and to keep oil
out.
a. Piston Rings c. Combustion Chamber
b. Cylinder Liner d. Piston Plug

ANSWER: (A) Piston Rings

Process where the heat is added in the Otto cycle.

a. constant temperature c. constant volume
b. constant entropy d. constant pressure

ANSWER: (C) constant volume

Process where the heat is added in the Diesel cycle.

a. constant temperature c. constant volume
b. constant entropy d. constant pressure

ANSWER: (D) constant pressure

It is used to reduce the friction of bearings and sliding surfaces in
machines and thus diminish the wear, heat and possibility of seizure of
the parts
a. Lubricant c. Gasoline
b. Wax d. Benzene

ANSWER: (A) Lubricant

In a heat engine, the ratio of brake power to the indicated power is

called:
a. thermal efficiency c. mechanical efficiency
b. generator efficiency d. engine efficiency

ANSWER: (C) mechanical efficiency

The efficiency of Otto cycle depends upon the

a. pressure ratio c. specific heat ratio
b. compression ratio d. cut-off ratio

ANSWER: (B) compression ratio

The maximum temperature of Diesel cycle will occur

a. after isentropic compression
b. at the end of isobaric heating
c. after isentropic expansion
d. at the beginning of adiabatic compression

ANSWER: (B) at the end of isobaric heating

The ratio of the average load to the peak load over a designated period
of time.
a. Demand Factor c. Capacity Factor
b. Load Factor d. Diversity Factor
ANSWER: (B) Load Factor

The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the system to the
overall maximum demand of the whole system.
a. Demand Factor c. Capacity Factor
b. Load Factor d. Diversity Factor

ANSWER: (D) Diversity Factor

The sum of the continuous ratings of all the equipment and outlets on
the customer’s circuit.
a. Reserve load c. Maximum demand
b. Peak load d. Connected load

ANSWER: (D) Connected load

The ratio of the duration of the actual service of a machine or
equipment to the total duration of the period of time considered.
a. Operation factor c. Utilization factor
b. Demand factor d. Capacity factor

ANSWER: (A) Operation factor

The ratio of the brake mean effective pressure to the indicated mean
effective pressure.
a. Mechanical efficiency c. Brake engine efficiency
b. Indicated engine efficiency d. Brake thermal efficiency

ANSWER: (A) Mechanical efficiency

The ratio of the combined engine efficiency to the brake engine

efficiency.
a. Combined engine efficiency c. Generator efficiency
b. Combined thermal efficiency d. Brake engine efficiency

ANSWER: (C) Generator efficiency

The ratio of the average load to that of the peak load of a plant is
called:
a. output factor c. demand factor
b. load factor d. capacity factor

ANSWER: (B) load factor

The ratio of the peak load to the connected load is known as:
a. output factor c. demand factor
b. load factor d. capacity factor

ANSWER: (C) demand factor

The difference between the power plant installed capacity and the peak
load is called:
a. average load c. connected load
b. reserve over peak d. none of the above

ANSWER: (B) reserve over peak

A series of processes during which the initial state point and the final
state point are the same.
a. Process c. Change of state
b. Cycle d. All of the above

ANSWER: (B) Cycle

The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is equal to ______________.
a. 1.00 c. 1.40
b. 0.90 d. 1.30

ANSWER: (A) 1.00

The relation pV=C represents a process or change of state, which is

known as _________.
a. Isometric process c. Isobaric process
b. Isothermal process d. Isentropic process

ANSWER: (B) Isothermal process

In the relation pVn= C, if the value of n= 0 the process is said to be

___________.
a. Isometric process c. Isobaric process
b. Isothermal process d. Polytropic process

ANSWER: (C) Isobaric process

In a Carnot cycle, the heat rejection in the ____________________

process.
a. Isentropic expansion c. Isentropic compression
b. Isothermal expansion d. Isothermal compression

ANSWER: (D) Isothermal compression

A system in which the mass inflow and outflow are not equal or vary with
time and in which the mass within the system changes with time.

a. Steady flow system

b. Unsteady state, unsteady flow system
c. Steady state system
d. Steady flow, steady state system

ANSWER: (B) Unsteady state, unsteady flow system

A form of energy that is a sole function of temperature for perfect

gases and a strong function of temperature and weak function of pressure
for non-perfect gases, vapors, and liquids.
a. Internal energy c. Enthalpy
b. Flow work d. Pressure energy

ANSWER: (A) Internal energy

It is that portion of the universe, an atom, a certain quantity of

matter, or a certain volume in space that one wishes to study.
a. Heat c. Work
b. System d. Efficiency

ANSWER: (B) System

It is the force of gravity per unit volume of a substance.
a. Density c. Specific weight
b. Specific volume d. Specific gravity

ANSWER: (C) Specific weight

It is a kind of thermodynamic system whose mass does not cross its

boundaries.
a. Open system c. Steady flow system
b. Closed system d. Transient flow

ANSWER: (B) Closed system

Which law states that “the acceleration of a particular body is directly

proportional to the resultant force acting on it and inversely
proportional to its mass?
a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
b. First Law of Thermodynamics
c. Second law of Thermodynamics
d. Newton’s Second Law of Motion

ANSWER: (D) Newton’s Second Law of Motion

A substance that receives, transports and transfers energy.

a. Reservoir c. Working substance
b. Engine d. Heat sink

ANSWER: (C) Working Substance

A system where energy and mass cross its boundaries.

a. Open system c. Isolated System
b. Closed system d. Transient flow system

ANSWER: (C) Isolated System

The law of thermodynamics that deals with the law of conservation of

energy, which states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
b. First Law of Thermodynamics
c. Second law of Thermodynamics
d. Third Law of Thermodynamics

ANSWER: (B) First Law of Thermodynamics

It states that in any mechanical mixture of gases and vapors (those that
do not combine chemically) the total pressure of the gaseous mixture
such as moist air is equal to the sum of the partial pressure exerted by
the individual gases or vapors.
a. Joule’s Law c. Dalton’s Law
b. Amagat’s Law d. Charles’ Law

ANSWER: (C) Dalton’s Law

It is a substance existing in the gaseous phase but relatively near its
saturation temperature.
a. Gas c. Air
b. Vapor d. Oxygen

ANSWER: (B) Vapor

The point at which the saturated liquid and saturated vapor states are
identical.
a. Critical point c. Triple point
b. Saturated liquid-vapor point d. Saturation Point

ANSWER: (A) Critical point

The point at which heat transfer stops.

a. Steady-flow c. Thermodynamic equilibrium
b. Thermal equilibrium d. Steady-state

ANSWER: (B) Thermal equilibrium

It is an instrument used for determining the specific gravity of a

solution.
a. Barometer c. Hydrometer
b. Calorimeter d. Manometer

ANSWER: (C) Hydrometer

It refers to the temperature at which all molecular motion ceases

according to the kinetic theory of heat.
a. 0 oK c. 0 oR
o
b. -273 C d. All of the above

ANSWER: (D) All of the above

The area under the curve on a pressure-volume diagram represents

_____________.
a. Steady Flow Work c. Nonflow Work
b. Net Work d. Cycle Work

ANSWER: (C) Nonflow work

A boiler steam pressure gage should have a range of at least _______

times the maximum allowable working pressure.
a. 1.0 c. 1.25
b. 1.50 d. 1.75

ANSWER: (B) 1.50

It is a valve designed to allow a fluid to pass through in one direction
only.
a. Gate valve c. Globe valve
b. Quick-return valve d. Check valve

ANSWER: (D) Check valve

An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. The enthalpy change is equal to

_________.
a. Zero c. Positive
b. Negative d. None of the above

ANSWER: (A) Zero

The _________________ is constant in an adiabatic throttling process.

a. Pressure c. Volume
b. Internal energy d. Enthalpy

ANSWER: (D) Enthalpy

It is the ideal cycle for a gas turbine plant.

a. Carnot cycle c. Rankine cycle
b. Diesel cycle d. Brayton cycle

ANSWER: (D)

It is the most thermal efficient cycle consisting of two (2) isentropic

processes and two (2) isothermal processes.
a. Carnot cycle c. Rankine cycle
b. Otto cycle d. Diesel cycle

ANSWER: (A)

How can the average temperature during heat rejection process of a

Rankine cycle be decreased?
a. increase boiler pressure
b. increase inlet turbine pressure
c. increase condenser pressure
d. reduce turbine exit pressure

ANSWER: (D) reduce turbine exit

What is commonly done to a vapor power cycle when the turbine has
excessive moisture?
a. frosting c. diffusing
b. reheating d. dehumidifying

ANSWER: (B) reheating

A form of energy that is transferred between two systems by virtue of
temperature difference.
a. Heat c. Kinetic Energy
b. Potential Energy d. Electrical Energy

ANSWER: (A) Heat

A thermodynamic process with no heat transfer.

a. Isentropic Process c. Adiabatic Process
b. Throttling Process d. All of the above.

ANSWER: (D) All of the above

An energy interaction that is not caused by a temperature difference

between a system and its surrounding.
a. Work ` c. Conduction
b. Convection d. Heat

ANSWER: (A) Work

Changing of solid directly to vapor, without passing through the liquid

state, is called
a. Sublimation c. Condensation
b. Evaporation d. Vaporization

ANSWER: (A) Sublimation

A rigid container is heated by the sun. There is no shaft work

associated with the container. From the first law of thermodynamics,
the resulting work is:
a. equal to the heat transfer
b. equal to the change in internal energy
c. equal to the volume times the change in pressure
d. equal to zero

ANSWER: (D) equal to zero

The net work output of a heat engine is always

__________________________.
a. less than the amount of heat input
b. more than the amount of heat input
c. less than the amount of heat output
d. none of the above

ANSWER: (A) less the amount of hear input

The sum of all the energies of all the molecules in a system, energies
that appear in several complex forms.
a. Enthalpy c. Internal Energy
b. Kinetic Energy d. Potential Energy

ANSWER: (C) Internal Energy

It is a liquid whose temperature is below the saturation temperature
corresponding to its pressure.
a. Saturated liquid c. Superheated liquid
b. Subcooled liquid d. none of the above

ANSWER: (B) Subcooled liquid

A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a

a. Perpetual motion machine of the second kind
b. Perpetual motion machine of the third kind
c. Perpetual motion machine of the first kind
d. None of the above

ANSWER: (C) Perpetual motion machince of the first kind

The efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the

same two reservoirs ________.
a. differ c. are the same
b. are unequal d. none of the above

ANSWER: (C) are the same

A process with no heat transfer is known as

a. isobaric process c. isothermal process
b. adiabatic process d. isometric process

ANSWER: (B) adiabatic process

The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density to the

density of:
a. mercury c. oil
b. gas d. water

ANSWER: (D) water

This type of heat exchanger allows fluids to flow at right angles to

each other
a. Series flow c. Parallel flow
b. Cross flow d. Counter flow

ANSWER: (B) Cross flow

The fact the total energy in any one energy system remains constant is
called the principle of _______.
a. Conservation of Energy
b. Conservation of Mass
c. Second Law of Thermodynamics
d. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

ANSWER: (A) Conservation of Energy

A process for which the inlet and outlet enthalpies are the same
a. Isentropic c. Enthalpy Conservation
b. Throttling d. Steady State

ANSWER: (B) Throttling

The sum of energies of all the molecules in system, energies that appear
in several complex forms.
a. Kinetic Energy c. Internal Energy
b. External Energy d. Flow Work

ANSWER: (C) Internal Energy

A system that is completely impervious to its surrounding. Neither mass

nor energy cross its boundaries.
a. Open system c. Closed system
b. Adiabatic system d. Isolated system

ANSWER: (C) Isolated System

A device used to measure small and moderate pressure difference.

a. Manometer c. Bourdon gage
b. Barometer d. Piezometer

ANSWER: (A) Manometer

A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation temperature

corresponding to its pressure.
a. Superheated vapor c. Super saturated vapor
b. Saturated vapor d. Subcooled vapor

ANSWER: (A) Superheated Vapor

The energy or stored capacity for performing work possessed by a moving

body, by virtue of its momentum.
a. Internal energy c. Gravitational potential energy
b. Work d. Kinetic energy

ANSWER: (D) Kinetic Energy

The thermodynamic process wherein temperature is constant and the change

in internal energy is zero.
a. Isobaric process c. Isothermal process
b. Isometric process d. Polytropic process

ANSWER: (C) Isothermal process

The function of a pump or compressor is to
a. transfer heat from one fluid to another
b. increase the total energy content of the flow
c. extract energy from the flow
d. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
ANSWER: (B)

This law states that “all energy received as heat by a heat-engine

cannot be converted into mechanical work”.
a. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
b. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
c. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
d. All of the above.

ANSWER: (B) 2nd Law of Thermodynamics

The intensity of pressure that is measured above absolute zero is

called:
a. Gage pressure c. Absolute pressure
b. Vacuum pressure d. Saturation pressure

ANSWER: (C) Absolute pressure

This is the ratio of the heat equivalent of the brake or useful

horsepower developed by an engine and available on its crankshaft to the
heat during the same time.
a. Brake engine efficiency
b. Indicated thermal efficiency
c. Combined thermal efficiency
d. Brake thermal efficiency

ANSWER: (D) Brake thermal efficiency

Flow work is equal to pressure times ____________.

a. temperature c. entropy
b. internal energy d. specific volume

ANSWER: (D) specific volume

This form of energy is due to the position or elevation of the body.

a. internal energy c. kinetic energy
b. potential energy d. work

ANSWER: (B) potential energy

Another term for constant volume process.

a. isometric c. isochoric
b. isovolumic d. all of the above

ANSWER: (D) all of the above

Work done by the steam during a reversible adiabatic expansion process
in the turbine.
a. Brake Work c. Actual Fluid Work
b. Ideal Work d. Combined Work

ANSWER: (B) Ideal Work

The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon the

a. pressure c. entropy
b. volume d. temperature

ANSWER: (D) Temperature

It is the heat required in a constant-pressure process to completely

vaporize a unit-mass of liquid at a given temperature.
a. latent heat vaporization c. hfg
b. enthalpy of vaporization d. all of the above

ANSWER: (D) all of the above

It is a commonly used device for measuring temperature differences or

high temperatures.
a. Thermistor c. Thermocouple
b. Bimetallic Strip d. Mercury in glass

ANSWER: (C) Thermocouple

The science and technology concerned with precisely measuring energy and
enthalpy.
a. Thermodynamics c. Calorimetry
b. Chemistry d. None of the above

ANSWER: (C) Calorimetry

The rate of doing work per unit of time

a. Torque c. Power
b. Force d. Moment

ANSWER: (C) Power

In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressure. What
is the effect of superheating the steam to a higher temperature to the
cycle thermal efficiency?
a. the cycle thermal efficiency will increase
b. the cycle thermal efficiency will decrease
c. the cycle thermal efficiency will remain constant
d. none of the above

ANSWER: (A) the cycle thermal efficiency will increase

A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation temperature
corresponding to the existing pressure.
a. Superheated Vapor c. Wet vapor
b. Saturated Vapor d. None of the above

ANSWER: (A) Superheated Vapor

It is the work done in pushing a fluid across a boundary, usually into

or out of a system.
a. Mechanical work c. Nonflow Work
b. Flow Work d. Electrical work

ANSWER: (B) Flow Work

A liquid that has a temperature lower than the saturation temperature

corresponding to the existing pressure.
a. Subcooled liquid c. Saturated liquid
b. Unsaturated liquid d. Water

ANSWER: (A) Subcooled liquid

In this type of boiler, the water passes through the tubes while the
flue gases burn outside the tubes.
a. Water-tube boiler c. Fire-tube Boiler
b. Steam generator d. Electric Boiler

ANSWER: (A) Water-tube boiler

It shows the water level in the boiler drum.

a. Water column c. Try cocks
b. Gauge glass d. All of the above

ANSWER: (B) Gauge glass

It prevents damage to the boiler by giving warning of low water.

a. Safety valve c. Fusible plug
b. Relief valve d. Try cocks

ANSWER: (C) Fusible plug

It has several functions. When necessary it empties the boiler for

cleaning, inspection, or repair. It blows out mud, scale, or sediment
when the boiler is in operation and prevents excessive concentration of
soluble impurities in the boiler.
a. Blow-down line c. Boiler feedwater pump
b. Steam valve d. None of the above

ANSWER: (A) Blow-down line

It is a heat exchanger which utilizes the heat of the flue gases to
preheat the air needed for combustion.
a. Economizer c. Feedwater heater
b. Reheater d. Air preheater

ANSWER: (D) Air preheater

It is a feedwater preheating and waste heat recovery device which

utilizes the heat of the flue gases.
a. Economizer c. Open heater
b. Closed heater d. Waterwalls

ANSWER: (A) Economizer

It is a system of furnace cooling tubes which can extend the evaporative

capacity of the water-tube boiler and at the same time protect the
furnace walls from high temperature.
a. Reheater c. Waterwalls
b. Superheater d. Feedwater heater

ANSWER: (C) Waterwalls

It is based on the generation of 34.5 lbm/hr of steam from water at 212

o
F to steam at 212 oF and equivalent to 33, 500 Btu/hr.
a. One horsepower c. One kilowatt
b. One boiler horsepower d. None of the above

ANSWER: (B) One boiler horsepower/BHP

It prevents boiler pressure from rising above a certain predetermined

pressure by opening to allow excess steam to escape into the atmosphere
when that point is reached, thus guarding against a possible explosion
through excessive pressure.
a. Relief valve c. Safety valve
b. Fusible plug d. Pressure switches

ANSWER: (C) Safety valve

In a water-tube boiler, the water will pass through _______________.

a. inside the tubes c. outside the tubes
b. inside the shell d. outside the shell

ANSWER: (A) inside the tubes

It is the temperature to which the air becomes saturated at constant

pressure.
a. dry-bulb temperature c. wet-bulb temperature
b. dewpoint temperature d. saturation temperature

ANSWER: (B) dewpoint temperature

In a _________________ cooling tower, the air moves horizontally through
the fills as the water moves downward.
a. Crossflow c. Counterflow
b. Parallel flow d. Double-flow

ANSWER: (A) Crossflow

It is the subject that deals with the behavior of moist air.

a. Psychrometer c. Psychrometry
b. Refrigeration d. Pneumatics

ANSWER: (C) Psychrometry

It is the ratio of the mass of water vapor in a certain volume of moist

air at a given temperature to the mass of water vapor in the same volume
of saturated air at the same temperature.
a. Humidity ratio c. Specific humidity
b. Humidity d. Relative Humidity

ANSWER: (D) relative humidity

Air whose condition is such that any decrease in temperature will result
in condensation of water vapor into liquid.
a. Saturated air c. Unsaturated air
b. Saturated vapor d. Moist air

ANSWER: (A) Saturated air

It is the warm water temperature minus the cold-water temperature

leaving the cooling tower.
a. Approach c. Terminal difference
b. Cooling Range d. LMTD

ANSWER: (B) Cooling Range

The temperature where the relative humidity becomes 100% and where the
water vapor starts to condense is known as ___________________.
a. dry-bulb temperature c. wet-bulb temperature
b. dewpoint temperature d. saturation temperature

ANSWER: (B) dewpoint temperature

The surrounding air ____________ temperature is the lowest temperature

to which water could possibly be cooled in a cooling tower.
a. Dry-bulb c. Wet-bulb
b. Dew-point d. Saturation temperature

ANSWER: (C) Wet-bulb

Which is not a major part of the vapor compression system?
a. compressor c. condenser
b. evaporator d. refrigerant

ANSWER: (D) refrigerant

This refers to the rate of heat transfer attributable only to a change

in dry-bulb temperature.
a. sensible heating or cooling
b. dehumidification
c. humidification
d. cooling and dehumidifying

ANSWER: (A) sensible heating or cooling

It is a binary mixture of dry-air and water- vapor.

a. Dry air c. Moist air
b. Saturated vapor d. Wet mixture

ANSWER: (C) Moist air

The temperature measured by an ordinary thermometer.

a. Wet-bulb temp. c. Dew-point temp.
b. Dry-bulb temp. d. Wet-bulb depression

ANSWER: (B) Dry-bulb temp.

The mass of water interspersed in each kilogram of dry air.

a. enthalpy c. humidity ratio
b. specific volume d. relative humidity

ANSWER: (C) humidity ratio

This system combines two vapor-compression units, with the condenser of

the low-temperature system discharging its heat to the evaporator of the
high-temperature system.
a. Cascade systems c. Binary system
b. Multi-stage system d. Multi-pressure system

ANSWER: (A) Cascade systems

A process of increasing the humidity ratio at constant dry-bulb

temperature.
a. Dehumidifying process c. Heating process
b. Cooling process d. Humidifying process

ANSWER: (D) Humidifying process

The ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor in the air to the
saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature of the air.
a. Humidity Ratio c. Specific humidity
b. Relative Humidity d. Moisture content

ANSWER: (B)

It is an air conditioning process that involves heating without changing

the moisture content of air. The process is represented by a horizontal
line in the psychrometric chart, from left to right.
a. Sensible cooling process
b. Humidifying process
c. Sensible heating process
d. Heating and dehumidifying process

ANSWER: (C)

It is an air conditioning process of increasing the humidity ratio

without changing the dry-bulb temperature of air. The process is
represented in the psycrometric chart by a vertical line, from up to
down.
a. Sensible cooling process
b. Humidifying process
c. Sensible heating process
d. Heating and dehumidifying process

ANSWER: (B)

The temperature at which the water vapor content of moist air begins to
condense when air is cooled at constant pressure
a. Dew Point Temperature c. Dry Bulb Temperature
b. Wet Bulb Temperature d. Condensing temperature

ANSWER: (A)

It is the index of performance of a refrigeration system which is a

dimensionless quantity.
a. Coefficient of Performance c. Energy Efficiency Ratio
b. Energy Ratio d. Performance Ratio

ANSWER: (A)

It is simply the compression of the gas in two or more cylinders in

place of a single cylinder compressor.
a. Intercooled Compression c. Efficient Compression
b. Multistage Compression d. High Power Compression

ANSWER: (B)
The transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of a substance
to the adjacent less energetic ones as a result of interactions between
the particles.
a. Heat transfer c. Conduction
b. Radiation d. Convection

ANSWER: (C) Conduction

What is the simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, air movement,

and quantity of air in space?
a. Refrigeration c. Psychrometry
b. Air-conditioning d. Humidification

ANSWER: (B) Psychrometry

The non-condensing component of the moist air.

a. Hydrogen c. Water vapor
b. Nitrogen d. Dry air

ANSWER: (D) Dry air

The substance used for heat transfer in a vapor compression

refrigerating system. It picks up heat by evaporating at a low
temperature and pressure and gives up this heat by condensing at a
higher temperature and pressure.
a. Water c. Ammonia
b. Air d. Gas

ANSWER: (C) Ammonia

What is the pressure of the refrigerant between the expansion valve and
the intake of the compressor in a multi pressure refrigeration system?
a. High-side pressure c. Condensing pressure
b. Discharge pressure d. Low-side pressure

ANSWER: (D) Low-side pressure

A refrigerating machine that is classified as a one-ton machine has the

capacity to produce a cooling effect of:
a. 3.517 kW c. 211 kJ/min
b. 12,000 Btu/hr d. All of the above

ANSWER: (D) All of the above

Axial fans are best suitable for application.

A. Large flow, low head
C. Low flow, high head
B. High head, large flow
D. Low flow, low head

ANSWER: (A) Large flow, low head

 Which of the following axial fan types is most efficient?

A. Propeller C. Tube axial

B. Vane axial D. Radial

ANSWER: (B)

Constant rotative speed of the hydraulic turbine runner under varying

load is achieved by a ___________ that actuates a mechanism that adjust
the gate openings.
A. Governor C. Wicket gates
B. Runner D. Draft tube

ANSWER: (A) Governor

A pipe or conduit used to carry water from reservoir intake to a

reaction turbine is known as:
A. Guide Vane C. Draft Tube
B. Wicket Gate D. Penstock

ANSWER: ( )

The efficiency of forward curved centrifugal fans compared to backward

curved fans is_________
A. Higher C. Lower
B. Same D. None

ANSWER: (C) Lower

When selecting a pump for a given application, it is usually desirable

to use a pump that will operate near its BEP which stands for _________.
A. Brake Effective Horsepower C. Best Effective Point
B. Best Efficiency Point D. Break Even Point

ANSWER: (B) Best Efficiency Point

In order to prevent shock or water hammering in the penstock when the

governor quickly closes the gates, many turbines are provided with a
_______________.

A. Surge Tank C. Draft Tube

B. Intake Valve D. Flywheel

ANSWER: (A) Surge Tank

Name the fan which is more suitable for high pressure application?
A. Propeller type fan
B. Backward curved centrifugal fan
C. Tube-axial fans
D. All of the above

ANSWER: (B) Backward curved centrifugal fan

A type of centrifugal pump impeller characterized by wide passages for
water and the ratio of outside impeller to impeller eye diameter is
about 1.5.
A. Francis type C. Radial type
B. Mixed Flow type D. Axial type

ANSWER: (A) Francis type

The seal that allows the impeller shaft of centrifugal pump to pass from
outside of the pump to inside, while maintaining an air tight seal.
A. Sleeve C. Wearing Ring
B. Mechanical Seal D. Packing

ANSWER: (D) Packing

Stationary guide vanes of a centrifugal pump surround the impeller

converts velocity energy to pressure head.
A. Diffuser C. Volute Casing
B. Impeller D. Impeller vanes

ANSWER: (A) Diffuser

If two identical centrifugal pumps are installed in parallel the

_______________ is doubled.
A. Flow rate C. Power
B. Head D. Efficiency

ANSWER: (A) Flow rate

____________ are used isolate as well as regulates the flow. They have
a high pressure drop even wide open.
A. Check Valve C. Ball Valve
B. Gate Valve D. Globe Valve

ANSWER: (D) Globe valve

Which pipe accessories do not belong to the group?

A. Elbows C. Tees
B. Unions D. Strainers

ANSWER: (D) Strainers

________________ pump are known as vortex and periphery pumps.

A. Turbine (Regenerative) Pumps
B. Vertical Turbine Pumps
C. Diaphragm Pumps
D. Sliding Vane Pumps

ANSWER: (A) Turbine (regenerative) Pumps

Which types of pump does not belong to the group:
A. Screw Rotary Pump
B. Diaphragm Pump
C. Direct Acting Steam Pump
D. Centrifugal Pump

ANSWER: (D) Centrifugal Pump

_____________ impellers are generally preferred when handling average

waters, because it does no rust and machining it, making its surface
smooth are easy.
A. Stainless Steel C. Cast-Steel
B. Bronze D. Cast-iron

ANSWER: (B) Bronze

A valve used to prevent backflow in the fluid pipe is called:

A. Check Valve C. Angle Valve
B. Globe Valve D. Gate Valve

ANSWER: (A) Check valve

______________ is a single-stage or multistage centrifugal pump with

pumping element suspended from discharge piping also known as deep well
or bore hole pumps.
A. Turbine (Regenerative) Pump
B. Vertical Turbine Pump
C. Screw Pump
D. Sliding Vane Pump

ANSWER: (B) Vertical Turbine Pump

___________________ pumps are intended for handling thick pulps, sewage

sludge, acid, or alkaline solutions, mixture of water and gritty
solids that wear out metal pumps.
A. Direct acting steam pumps
B. Vertical Turbine Pumps
C. Lobe pumps
D. Diaphragm pumps

ANSWER: (D) Diaphragm pumps

___________________ is that part of a rotary pump mounted on the drive

shaft; it is the principal pumping member.
A. Idle Rotors C. Rotor
B. Stator D. Driver

ANSWER: ()
What is the relationship of the capacity of centrifugal pump, Q to
impeller diameter, D, when there are two impeller diameters (one is
original the other cut down diameter) in the same pump?

A. Q is directly proportional to the square of D.

B. Q is directly proportional to D.
C. Q is inversely proportional to D.
D. Q is inversely proportional to the square of D.

ANSWER: (B)

What is the relationship of the horsepower of a centrifugal pump, P, to

the impeller speed, N, is pump is at two different rotative speeds?

A. P is inversely proportional to the cube of N.

B. P is inversely proportional to N.
C. P is directly proportional to N.
D. P is directly proportional to the cube of N.

ANSWER: (D)

Hydraulic turbine suitable for low head:

A. Pelton wheel C. Kaplan turbine
B. Francis turbine D. Turgo turbine

ANSWER: (C) Kaplan turbine

If two identical centrifugal pump are installed in series, the system

flow rate ____________________.

A. is doubled C. remains the same

B. is halved D. zero

ANSWER: (C) remains the same

The formation ad collapse of vapor bubbles that occurs when pump inlet
suction pressure falls to or below the vapor pressure of the liquid is
called:
A. sublimation C. water hammering
B. oxidation D. cavitation

ANSWER: (D) cavitation

The process done in centrifugal pump by filling-up the suction line and
pump casing with liquid to remove air or vapors from the waterways of
the pump is called:
A. priming C. water hammering
B. charging D. pumping

ANSWER: (A) priming

Which term does not belong to the group:
A. gear pump C. vane pump
B. screw pump D. diaphragm pump

ANSWER: (D) diaphragm pump

A type of condenser combines the functions of a condenser and cooling

tower is called:
A. air-cooled condenser C. ground-cooling condenser
B. water-cooled condenser D. evaporative condenser

ANSWER: (D) Evaporative condenser

An expansion valve with a fluid-charged remote bulb that maintains a

constant degree of superheat in the evaporator is called:
A. thermostatic expansion valve C. automatic expansion valve
B. capillary tube D. float valve

ANSWER: (A) Thermostatic expansion valve

A refrigeration system ideally suited for use in air-craft because it is

light in weight and requires less space is called:
A. mechanical vapor-compression C. air cycle
B. steam-jet D. vapor absorption

ANSWER: (C) air cycle

Refrigerant with chemical formula CHClF2 is designated by:

A. R134a C. R11
B. R12 D. R22

ANSWER: (D) R-22

Refrigerant with chemical formula CF3CH2F is designated by:

A. R134a C. R11
B. R12 D. R22

ANSWER: (A) R134a

Which refrigerant does not belong to the group?

A. ammonia C. methane
B. propane D. Isobutane

ANSWER: (A) ammonia

Carbon dioxide refrigerant is designated by:

A. R717 C. R600
B. R744 D. R 718

ANSWER: (B) R744

Piping, fittings and valves materials found suitable for use in ammonia
refrigerant are manufactured from:
A. Copper C. Iron and Steel
B. Aluminum D. Brass

ANSWER: (C) Iron and Steel

Which statement is correct with water-cooled shell and tube type of

condenser?

A. Refrigerant condensing inside tubes and water flowing in the shell.

B.Water flowing through passes inside tubes and the refrigerant
condensing in the shell.
C. Both refrigerant and water flowing through passes inside tubes and
refrigerant condensing.
D. A, B, and C are correct

ANSWER: (B)

In a vapour-absorption refrigeration system utilizing ammonia as

refrigerant and the absorbent is:
A. Water C. Lithium Bromide
B. Carbon dioxide D. Air

ANSWER: (A) Water

The most common secondary refrigerant medium used in indirect

refrigeration system such as in industrial ice plants and cold storages.

A. Hydrocarbon C. Air
B. Carbon dioxide D. Brine

ANSWER: (D) Brine

A constant restriction expansion device in refrigeration system which is

merely a long tube with narrow bore is called.
A. Thermostatic expansion valve
B. Automatic expansion valve
C. Capillary tube
D. Float valve
.
ANSWER: (C) Capillary tube

Mixtures of refrigerants but which behave like pure substance are

called:

A. isomers C. azeotropes
B. hydrocarbons D. CFC

ANSWER: (C) azeotropes

In refrigeration compressor that has an electric motor and a compressor
built into an integral housing is commonly called:

A. hermetic compressor C. Open type compressor

B. combined compressor D. packaged compressor

ANSWER: (A) hermetic compressor

Compounds with same chemical formula but different molecular structure

(such R134 & R134a) are called:
A. brominated C. azeotropes
B. hydrocarbons D. isomers

ANSWER: (D) Isomers

Which of the following refrigerants does not belong to the group?

A. Carbon dioxide C. Water
B. Ammonia D. Isobutane

ANSWER: (D) Isobutane

An expansion valve used for a flooded type of evaporator in a

refrigeration system is called:

A. thermostatic expansion valve C. automatic expansion valve

B. capillary tube D. float valve

ANSWER: (D) Float Valve

An atom in the refrigerant molecule considered responsible for the

depletion ozone layer in upper atmosphere (stratosphere)
A. Cl atom C. F-atom
B. H atom/s D. C atom

ANSWER: (A) CL atom

A vapour compression system used for production of low temperatures in

which a series of refrigerants, with progressively lower boiling points,
are used in series of single-stage units is called:

A. multipressure system C. cascade system

B. single-stage system D. series system

ANSWER: (C) Cascade system

Which statement is correct on the effect of liquid subcooling in a vapor
compression system?

A. subcooling both increases flashing of the liquid during expansion

and the refrigerating effect.
B. subcooling increases flashing of the liquid during expansion and
increases the refrigerating effect.
C. subcooling both decreases flashing of the liquid during expansion
and the refrigerating effect.
D. subcooling decreases flashing of the liquid during expansion and
increases the refrigerating effect.

ANSWER: (D)

Which statement is correct on the effect of suction vapor superheating

in a vapor compression system?

A. superheating both increases specific compressor work and the

refrigerating effect.
B. superheating both decrease specific compressor work and the
refrigerating effect.
C. superheating increases specific compressor work and decreases the
refrigerating effect.
B. superheating decrease specific compressor work and increases the
refrigerating effect.

ANSWER: (A)

Which statement is correct on the effect of increasing condensing

pressure in a vapor compression system?

A. increasing condensing pressure both increases specific compressor

work and the refrigerating effect.
B. increasing condensing pressure both decrease specific compressor
work and the refrigerating effect.
C. increasing condensing pressure increases specific compressor work
and decreases the refrigerating effect.
D. increasing condensing pressure decrease specific compressor work
and increases the refrigerating effect.

ANSWER: (C)

Freezing method utilizes the combined effects of low temperature and

high air velocity to produce a high rate of heat transfer from product
is called:
A. indirect contact freezing
B.immersion freezing
C. blast freezing
D. spray freezing

ANSWER: (C) blast freezing

A component installed a refrigeration system to ensure that no liquid
enters the compressor and subcooled the liquid from condenser to prevent
bubbles of vapor from impending the flow of refrigerant through
expansion valve is called:
A. liquid-to-suction heat exchanger C. subcooler
B. flash chamber D. drier

ANSWER: (A)

Refrigerant used in steam-jet refrigeration is:

A. ammonia C. water
B. carbon dioxide D. air

ANSWER: (C) water

Which refrigerant is completely miscible with oil:

A. ammonia C. R12
B. carbon dioxide D. R134a

ANSWER: (C) R-12

Ammonia is not used in domestic refrigeration and comfort air-

conditioning because:

A. ammonia is highly soluble in water.

B. ammonia is the cheapest refrigerant.
C. ammonia is flammable and toxic.
D. ammonia is non ozone depletion potential

ANSWER: (C) ammonia is flammable and toxic

Refrigerants 22 (R22) which is an HCFC, has 1/20th the ozone depletion

potential (ODP) of R11 and R12. Hence, it can be continue to be used
for quite sometime. However, all these have global warming-potential
(GWP). Because of this, R22 will have to be phased out by year:

A. 2010 AD C. 2020
B. 2030 AD D. 2040

ANSWER: (B) 2030 AD

Which of the statements is incorrect regarding the functions of the

liquid receiver?

A. stores unused refrigerant returning from condenser

B. stores refrigerant to be evaporated by the expansion valve
C. provides a place to store refrigerant when pumping out the
evaporator during maintenance operations.
D. stores oil that is carried along with refrigerant.

ANSWER: (D)
A shutoff valve that is actuated by an electromagnetic coil is called:
A. solenoid valve C. float switch
B. float valves D. holdback valve

ANSWER: (A)Solenoid valve

Which of the following statement is not false?

A. One ton of refrigeration is also known as one ton of
refrigerant.
B. The low pressure part of the refrigeration system is composed
of the discharge line of the expansion valve to the suction of
compressor.
C. A system operating in a cycle and producing a net quantity of
work from a supply system is known as refrigerator.
D. Multi staging of the compressor will increase the work.

ANSWER: (B)

Refrigeration system of 2 tons capacity. Which of the following

statements is correct?
A. The system has a COP of 2.
B. The system has a refrigeration load of 400 Btu/min.
C. The system uses 2 tons of refrigerants.
D. None of these is correct.

ANSWER: (B) The system has a refrigeration load of 400 Btu/min.

It states that when two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third
body. They are in thermal equilibrium with each other and hence are at
the same temperature.
A. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
B. 2nd law of Thermodynamics
C. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
D. Boyle’s Law

ANSWER: (C) Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

It states that the change of internal energy of an ideal gas is a

function of only the temperature change
A. Charles’ Law c. Joule’s Law
B. Boyle’s Law d. Zeroth Law

ANSWER: ()

The energy or stored capacity for performing work possessed by a moving

body, by virtue of its momentum.
A. Potential Energy C. Internal Energy
B. Kinetic Energy D. Flow Work

ANSWER: (B) Kinetic Energy

The volume between the engine head and the piston when the piston is at
the top dead center
A. Clearance volume C. Volume of gas drawn in
B. Displacement volume D. Volume of exhaust gas

ANSWER: (A) Clearance volume

The process in which both the intake and exhaust valves are closed, and
the air-fuel mixture is processed by the upward piston movement.
A. Intake Stroke C. Power Stroke
B. Compression Stroke D. Exhaust Stroke

ANSWER: (B) Compression Stroke

Is a term expressing the combination of internal molecular energy,

expansion work and flow work.
A. Entropy C. Internal Energy
B. Enthalpy D. Mechanical Work

ANSWER: (B) Enthalpy

The combination of two refrigerants which cannot be separated by

distillation process.
A. Hydrocarbon C. Azeotropes
B. Isotopes D. Zeotropes

ANSWER: (C) Azeotropes

R-600 is what refrigerant?

A. Methane C. Butane
B. Nonane D. None of these

ANSWER: (C) Butane

-------------------End-------------------

Note: Please keep this file CONFIDENTIAL