Civil Engineering Detailed Solution Set A PDF

CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
1. When the deposit of efflorescence is more (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
than 10% but less than 50% of the exposed (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
area of the brick, the presence of
efflorescence is Ans. (a)
(a) Moderate (b) Slight Sol. Sulphate resisting cement should to be used
in foundation and basement, where soil is
R
(c) Heavy (d) Serious infected with sulphates. Hence, statement 1
Ans. (a) is incorrect.
Sol.
4. Which one of the following cements is a
TE
Nil Deposit of efflorescence is deliquescent?
imperceptible.
(a) Quick setting portland cement
Slight Deposit of salt < 10 of brick area is
covered with thin. (b) White and coloured cement
Moderate 10-50% of exposed area of the (c) Calcium chloride cement
AS
bricks. But not showing
(d) Water repellent cement
powdering and flaking of
surface. Ans. (c)
Heavy Deposit of Salt > 50% of exposed
area of the bricks. But not Sol. Calcium chloride (CaCl2) is widely considered
showing powdering and flaking to be one of the most versatile and widely
of surface.
used chemicals due to its unique physical
M
Serious Heavy deposits of salts showing and chemical deliquescent (means it can
powdering and/or flaking of
absorb enough moisture to convert to liquid
surface.
brine) and hydroscopic properties which lend
it to perf orm well in many industrial
2. Mohs scale is used for stones to determine application.
S
(a) Flakiness index (b) Durability Extra rapid hardening or calcium chloride
(c) Strength (d) Hardness cement is a deliquescent.
Ans. (d)
IE
5. Consider the following data for concrete with

Sol. Mohs scale is used to determine hardness of mild exposure:
stone.
Water- cement ratio = 0.50
3. W hich of the f ollowing conditions are Water = 191.6 litre
recommended for using sulphate resisting
The required cement content will be
cement?
(a) 561 kg/m3 (b) 472 kg/m3
1. Concrete to be used in foundation and
basement, where soil is not infested with (c) 383 kg/m3 (d) 294 kg/m3
sulphate. Ans. (c)
2. Concrete used for fabrication of pipes Sol. Water content = 191.6 litre
which are likely to be buried in marshy
Water cement ratio = 0.50
region or sulphate bearing soils.
3. Concrete to be used in the construction 191.6
Cement content =  383.2 kg / m3
of sewage treatment works 0.50
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CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
For mild exposure condition, the minimum 0.657C
cement content = 300 kg/m3 Gel space ratio =
0.319C  W0
383.2 kg/m3 > 300 kg/m3
W 0 = 0.55 × 500 = 275 nl
6. The strength of a fully matured concrete
sample is 500 kg/cm2. When cured at an 0.657  500
Gel space ratio =  0.756
average temperature of 20°C in day, 10°C in 0.319  500  275
night, datum temperature T 0 is –11°C. If
Theoretical strength of concrete
Plowman constants A is 32 and B is 54, the
strength of identical concrete at 7 days will be = 240 × (0.756)3 = 103.72 N/mm2
R
nearly
8. The cement and water slurry coming on the
(a) 333 kg/cm2 (b) 312 kg/cm2
top and setting on the surface is called
(c) 272 kg/cm2 (d) 243 cm2
TE
(a) Crazing
Ans. (a)
(b) Efflorescence
Sol. Maturity of concrete at the age of 7 days
(c) Sulphate deterioration
  time  temperature  (d) Laitance
= 7 × 12 × [20 – (–11)]+7 × 12 × [10 – (–11)] Ans. (d)
AS
= 4368°C hr Sol. Laitance is defined as cement and water slurry
coming on top and setting on the surface.
Now, A = 32, B = 54 there by
% of strength of concrete at maturity of 4368°C 9. Polymer concrete is most suitable for
hr
(a) Sewage disposal works
M
4368 (b) Mass concreting works

= A  B log10  66.5%
1000 (c) Insulating exterior walls of an air-
conditioned building
66.5
 Strength at 7 days = 50  100 (d) Road repair works
Ans. (a)
S
= 332.7 kg/cm2
Polymer concrete have high sulphate and acid
7. A sample of concrete is prepared by using resistance properties, therefore it is most
suitable for sewage disposal work.
IE
500 g of cement with water cement ratio of

0.55 and 240 N/mm2 intrinsic strength of gel.
The theoretical strength of concrete of full 10. Which one of the following limes will be used
hydration will be nearly. for finishing coat in plastering and white
washing?
(a) 148 N/mm2 (b) 126 N/mm
(a) Semi hydraulic lime
(c) 104 N/mm2 (d) 82 N/mm2
(b) Kankar lime
Ans. (c)
(c) Magnesium/Dolomitic lime
Sol. Cement (c) = 500 gms
(d) Eminently hydraulic lime
Water cement ratio = 0.55
Ans. (c)
INtrinsic strength of gel = 240 N/mm2
Sol.
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
Class Lime name Work E
Class A Eminently Setting under  G  2 1   
hydraulic lime water
Class B Semi Masonry 110
hydraulic lime construction  42 
2 1   
Class C Fat lime (non Whitewashing and
R
hydraulic final coat for    0.309
lime) plastering
Hence,
Class D Magnesia/ Finishing work of
Dolomite plastering and E
TE
origin whitewashing Bulk modulus (K) = 3 1  
Case E Kankar lime Masonry mortar
110
 k
11. Which one of the following light weight element 3 1  2  0.309 
will be added to enhance the protective
 k = 96.25 GN/m2
properties for x-ray shielding mortars?
AS
(a) Sodium (b) Potassium 14. A punch of 20 mm diameter is used to punch
(c) Lithium (d) Calcium a hole in 8 mm thick plate. If the force required
to create a hole is 110 kN, the average shear
Ans. (c) stress in the place will be nearly
Sol. In x-ray shielding mortar, the protective (a) 41 MPa (b) 320 MPa
property will be enhanced by addition of light
M
weight elements like hydrogen, lithium, (c) 220 MPa (d) 140 MPa
cadmium etc. Ans. (c)
12. Which one of the following stone is produced Sol. Surface area of hole = d  t
by moulding a mixture of iron slag and portland
S
=   20  8
cement?
= 502.65 mm2
(a) Imperial stone (b) Garlic stone
Force = 110 kN
IE
(c) Ransom stone (d) Victoria stone

Ans. (b) 110  1000
Average shear stress ( avg ) =
502.65
13. When a round bar material with diameter of
37.5 mm, length of 2.4 m, Young’s modulus avg = 218.83 MPa
of 110 GN/m 2 and shear modulus of
42 GN/m2 is stretched for 2.5 mm, its bulk 15. A reinforced concrete circular section of
modulus will be nearly 50,000 mm2 cross-sectional area carries 6
reinforcing bars whose total area is 500 mm2.
(a) 104 GN/m2 (b) 96 GN/m2
If the concrete is not to be stressed more
(c) 84 GN/m2 (d) 76 GN/m2 than 3.5 MPa and modular ratio for steel and
concrete is 18, the safe load the column can
Ans. (b) carry will be nearly.
Sol. E = 110 GN/m2 (a) 225 kN (b) 205 kN
G = 42 GN/m2 (c) 180 kN (d) 160 kN
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
Ans. (b) Mx + Wx = 0
Sol. Total area of circular column = 50000 mm2 Mx = – Wx for 0  x  
Total area of reinforcing bars = 500 mm2  2
  Wx  .dx
Modular ratio = 18 U 
0
2EI
Safe load carring capacity = Area of column
× Permissible 
W2
Stress + (M – 1) × Area of steel × Permissible U x 2 dx

2EI
0
stress
R

= 50000 × 3.5 + (18 – 1) × 500 × 3.5 W 2  x3 
U  
= (50000 + 8500) × 3.5 2EI  3  0
= 204750 N
16.
= 204.75 kN  205 kN
The strain energy U stored due to bending of

the cantilever beam due to point load at the
free end will be
TE
17.
U
W 2 3
6EI
A steel bar 2 m long, 20 mm wide and 15 mm

thick is subjected to a tensile load of 30 kN.
If Poisson’s ratio is 0.25 and Young’s modulus
AS
is 200 GPa, an increase in volume will be
W 2l3 W 2l 2
(a) (b) (a) 160 mm3 (b) 150 mm3
6 EI 6 EI
(c) 140 mm3 (d) 130 mm3
W 3l3 W 2l 3 Ans. (b)
(c) (d)
36 EI 36 EI Sol.
M
Ans. (a)
Sol. 30 kN 30 kN
W
x 2m
S
y
l, EI 20 mm
IE
M2x dx 15 mm x
Strain energy “U” due to bending =  2EI
z
Bending moment at x E = 200 GPA = 200 × 103 MPa
W
  0.25
Mx
x P 30  103
x  
A 20  15
M 0  x  100 MPa,  y  0,  z  0
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
/2
 x   y  z 
 v    1  2 
 E 
 
100
 1  2  0.25 
200  103
R
 v  2.5  104 2
 x  y  x  y 
TE
2
max       xy
v   v .  Volume  2  2 
2 2
 2.5  10 4   2000  20  15 
  
max         1.207
2 2 2
v  150 mm3 From (1)
AS
 270 
18. A bolt is under an axial thrust of 9.6 kN
1.207   
 3 
together with a transverse force of 4.8 kN. If
factor of safety is 3, yield strength of bolt 12223.1 270
 1.207  
material is 270 N/mm2 and Poisson’s ratio is d2 3
M
0.3, its diameter as per maximum principal  d  12.8 mm

stress theory will be nearly
(a) 13 mm (b) 15 mm 19. In a material the principal stresses are 60
MN/m2, 48 MN/m2 and –36 MN/m2 when the
(c) 17 mm (d) 19 mm
1
S
Ans. (a) values of E = 200 GN/m2 and  0.3, the

m
P total strain energy per unit volume will be
Sol. Axial stress on bolt    =
IE
A nearly
(a) 43.5 KNm/m3 (b) 35.5 KNm/m3
9.6  103 12223.1 (c) 27.5 KNm/m3 (d) 19.5 KNm/m3
 
 2
d d2 Ans. (d)
4
Sol. Given,
V 6111.54 
  1  60 MN / m2
Average shear stress    =
A d2 2
2  48 MN / m2
A per maximum principal stress theory
fy 3  36 MN / m2
 max   ...(1)
F.O.S   0.3
For given stress condition Strain energy per unit volume (u)
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
1 2 21. The deflection  of the closed coil helical
u 1  22  32  2  12  23  31  
2E   spring is
1 WR2n 64 WR3n
u  60 2   48 2   36 2 (a) (b)
2  200  103  8Cd3 Cd4
2  0.3 60  48  48  ( 36)  ( 36)(60)  128 WR3n 64 WR2n

(c) (d)
Cd2 Cd2
MN.m kN  m
u  0.0195 3
 19.5 Where:
m m3
R
W is the axial load
20. At a point in a two dimensional stress system, R is radius of the coil
the normal stress on two mutually
n is the number of turns of coil
perpendicular planes are  xx and  yy and
shear stress xy . One of the principal stress
will become zero when the value of shear
stress xy is
TE C is the modulus of rigidity
d is the diameter of the wire of the coil
Ans. (b)
T 2L
(a) (xx  yy ) (b)   xx  yy
AS
Sol. Strain energy =
2GJ
(c)   xx   yy (d)  xx  yy T = (W.R)
Ans. (d) L =  2R  n
Sol. d4
J =
M
yy 32
2
xy  WR  . 2R.n  32W 2 .R3 .n
U 
d4 Cd4
2.C 
32
S
xx
U 64WR 3 .n
 
w Cd4
IE
22. A closely-coiled helical spring of round steel

xx   yy   xx   yy 
2 wire 5 mm in diameter having 12 complete
2
major /minor      xy  0 coils of 50 mm mean diameter is subjected to
2  2  an axial load of 100 N. if modulus of rigidity
2 2 is 80 GPa, the deflection of the spring will be
 xx   yy    xx   yy  2
        xy (a) 36 mm (b) 32 mm
 2   2 
(c) 28 mm (d) 24 mm
2xx 2yy xx  yy 2xx 2yy  xx  yy Ans. (d)
       2xy
4 4 2 4 4 2
64WR3 .n
xy    xx  yy Sol. 
 C.d4
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
3 24. A circular beam of 100 mm diameter is
64  100   25   12
 subjected to a shear force of 30 kN. The
4
80  103   5  maximum shear stress will be nearly
  24 mm (a) 5.1 MPa (b) 6.3 MPa

(c) 7.5 MPa (d) 8.7 MPa
R
23. A hollow shaft of external and internal Ans. (a)
diameters as 100 mm and 40 mm respectively
Sol.
is transmitting power at 120 rpm. If the
shearing stress is not to exceed 50 MPa, the
TE
power the shaft can transmit will be 4
max  avg
100 mm 3
(a) 100 kW (b) 120 kW
(c) 140 kW (d) 160 kW
Ans. (b)
4 4 V 
AS
Sol. max = avg  
3 3  2
 d 
4 
4 30  103
100 mm max = 
40 mm = d i 3  1002
= d0
4
M
max = 5.09 MPa

25. A cantilever beam AB as shown in figure is
Maximum torque which can be tranmitted subjected to a point load of 12 kN over a
without exceeding allowable shear stress span of 6 m with E = 2 × 105 N/mm2 and Ixx
= 6 × 107 mm4. The deflection at the free end
S
d  will be
Tmax  0 
allowable   2 W
 4
(d0  di4 )
IE
32
A B
 100  l
Tmax  
 2 
50 =  (a) 80 mm (b) 72 mm
(1004  404 )
32 (c) 64 mm (d) 56 mm
Tmax = 9.566 kN-m Ans. (b)
Maximum power which can be transmitted W
2N Sol. A B
Pmax = Tmax .w = 9.566  l, EI
60 B
2    120
Pmax = 9.566  wl3 (12  103 ) (6  103 )3
60 B = 
3EI 3  2  105  6  107
Pmax = 120.211 kW
B = 72 mm
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
26. A floor has to carry a load of 12 kN/m2. The  C = 0.32 m
floor is supported on rectangular joists each
 C = 320 mm
100 mm wide, 300 mm deep and 5 m long.
If maximum stress in the joist should not
exceed 8 MN/m2, the centre to centre distance 27. A simply supported wooden beam 100 mm
of joists will be wide, 250 mm deep and 3 m long is carrying
a uniformly distributed load of 40 kN/m. The
(a) 430 mm (b) 400 mm
maximum shear stress will be
(c) 360 mm (d) 320 mm
(a) 2.4 MPa (b) 2.8 MPa
Ans. (d)
R
Sol. (c) 3.2 MPa (d) 3.6 MPa
Ans. (d)
C
Floor
TE
Sol.
3m
40 kN/m
B
100 mm
250
mm
AS
C = centre-to-centre distance between two X-section
joists Maximum shear force will occur at supports
Hence, load on each joist will be udl and
W l 40  3
intensity of udl(w) = 12C kN/m Vmax =  = 60 kN
2 2
Maximum bending moment in joist For rectangular beam, maximum shear stress
M
2
(Mmax) =
Wl  max 
8
3
2 3 3  Vmax  3 60  10
12C   5  103  max =  avg    = 
Mmax = 2 2  bd  2 100  250
8
S
100mm max = 3.6 MPa
28. A simply supported of span 8 m carries a

IE
300mm
uniformly distributed load of 24 kN/m run over
the whole span. The beam is propped at the
X-section of joist middle of the span. The v alues of
2 E = 200 × 106 kN/m2 and I = 20 × 10–5 m4.
Mmax 12C   5  103 
max =  2
The amount by which the prop should yield in
z bd
8 order to make all three reactions equal will be
6
nearly
2
12C   5  103  (a) 20 mm (b) 15 mm
 8 MN/m2 = 2
100  300 (c) 10 mm (d) 5 mm
8
6
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
Ans. (b) 5 w 4 RC 
3
  udl  RC  
Sol. 24 EI 6EI
w = 24 kN/m Now, given situation is all reactions becomes
equal when support “C” yield by "  "
A B RA = RC = RB
R
C
3RC  2w
4m 4m
Flexural rigidity
TE
2w 
RC 
kN 3
"EI"  200  106  20  10 5 .m4
m2
= 40000 kN-m2 5 w 4  2w  3
   
The amount by which prop yield in order to 24 EI  3  6EI
AS
make all reactions equal
w 7 w4
  
72 EI
HA l l w = 24 kN/m
RA RC RB 4m
M
By using equilibrium equation

EI = 40000 kN-m2
F x  0 HA  0
7 24  4 4
    0.01493 m
72 40000
F y  0 R A  RC  RB  w   w   2w 
S
Let support “C” yield by "  " amount   14.93 mm

downward
IE
w 29. A cantilever beam ACB has end A fixed and

2l
subjected to a point load P at free end B. The
point C is mid-point of AB and the moment of
udl inertia of AC is twice that of CB. The deflection
at the free end will be
P
R
C
2I C I
A B
RC
4 Pl 3 Pl 3
5 w  2  5 w 4 (a)
3 EI
(b)
48 EI
udl  
384 EI 24 EI
RC  2 
3
R 3 5 Pl 3 9 Pl 3
R   C (c) (d)
C 48EI 6EI 96 EI 48 EI
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CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
Ans. (d) 30. A beam of uniform cross-section, simply
Sol. supported at ends carries a concentrated load
W at mid-span. If the ends of the beam are
P fixed and only load P is applied at the mid-
2I C I span such that the deflection at the centre
B remains the same, the value of the load P will
A
l/2 l/2 be
(a) 6 W (b) 4 W
A l/2 C l/2 B
BMD (c) 2 W (d) W
R
Pl Ans. (b)
2 Sol. From standard results
Pl
W
M/EI diagram
Pl
A A1 C
Pl
4EI
Pl
A2 B
TE l/2

W 3
48EI
l/2
AS
2EI 2EI P
From area moment theorem,

l/2 l/2
tBA =  = A 1x1  A 2 x 2
1  P3 
  
2 l l 4  48EI 
x2 =  
M
3 2 3
For   
2
1 Pl l Pl  P = 4W
A2 =   
2 2EI 2 8EI
2
31. Two wheels loads 200 kN and 80 kN spaced
1  Pl Pl  l 3 Pl
S
A1 =      at 2 m apart move on the span of girder of

2  2EI 4EI  2 16 EI 16 m. If any wheel load can lead the other,
the maximum bending moment that can occur
 Pl Pl 
IE
2  at a section of 6 m from the left end will be

l  2EI 4EI  1 l 
x1 =     (a) 1050 kNm (b) 990 kNm
2  Pl Pl   3 2 
   (c) 870 kNm (d) 750 kNm
 2EI 4EI 
Ans. (b)
7
x1 = l Sol. Maximum bending moment
9
Case I
2
3 Pl 7 Pl l 80 kN 200 kN
Hence,  =  l 
16 EI 9 8EI 3
2m
3 3
3 Pl 9 Pl A C
 =  B
16 EI 48 EI 6m 10 m
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
ILD for moment
W l 2W l
10  6 15 (a) (b)
 3 9
5 16 4
y1 
2
6W l 4W l
(c) (d)
15 27
R
4m Ans. (b)
y1 15 Sol.
=
4 4
TE
6 P
15 5
y1 =  a b
MB
6 2 MA
15 5
Mc = 200   80 
4 2 Pab2
AS
= 950 kN-m MA =
(a  b)2
Case II
200 kN 80 kN Pa2b
MB =
2m
(a  b)2
A C
M
B W W
6m 10 m
A B
15 l/3 l/3 l/3
4
y1 = 3
2 2
 l   2l   2l   l 
S
W    W   
 3  3    3  3 
8m (FEM)A = 
4m 10 m
l2 l2
IE
y1 15 2W l

8 4 (FEM)A = 
9
10
15 –ve sign means anticlockwise.
y1 = 8  3
4  10
15 33. The natural frequency of a mass m at the end
Mc = 200   3  80 of the cantilever beam of negligible mass with
4
usual notations will be
= 990 kN-m
1/2 1/2
1  3EI  1  6EI 
32. A beam of length l is fixed at its both ends (a) (b)
2  mL3    mL3 
and carries two concentrated loads of W each
l 1/2 1/2
at a distance of from both ends. The fixed 1  6EI  1  3EI 
3 (c) (d)
end moment at A will be 2  mL3    mL3 
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
Ans. (a) (a) 1.05 (b) 1.35
Sol. (c) 1.65 (d) 1.95
Mass = m Ans. (a)
Sol.
10 kN/m
Natural circular frequency
k VA 100 m VB
n 
m
R
HA HB
3EI 8m
Stiffness =
L3
C
 n 
3EI
mL3
Natural cycle frequency fn 

n
2
=
1 3EI
2 mL3
1.
TE Reaction
MA  0
100
VB  100  10  100   0
AS
2
34. The simple oscillator under idealized
conditions of no-damping, once excited will VB  500 kN
oscillate indefinitely with constant amplitude
at its natural frequency f will be F y  0 VA + VB – 10 × 100 = 0
1 m 1 k VA + 500 – 1000 = 0
(a) (b)
M
2 k  m VA  500 kN
1 k 1 m 2. Horizontal thurst
(c) (d)
2 m  k In cable equation of condition is bending
Ans. (c) moment at every point on cable is zero
S
n
Sol. Natural frequency f 
2 MC  0
IE
k
n  VB
m
10 kN/m
 f 1 k 50 m
HB
2 m 8m
35. A cable carrying a load of 10 kN/m run of

horizontal span is stretched between supports 50
HB  8  VB  50  10  50  0
of 100 m apart. If the supports are at same 2
level and central dip of 8 m, the ratio of
502
greatest and least tensions in the cable will HB  8  500  50  10  0
be
2
HB = 1562.5 kN
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
3. Maximum and minimum tension in the cable Bending moment at every point on cable
is zero.
Tmax  VA2  H2A VB
12.5 kN/m
HB
Tmax   5002  1562.5 2  1640.55 kN 75
yc
R
2
Tmin = H = Tc = 1562.5 kN
ratio of max and min tension in cable
 MC  0
TE
Tmax 1640.55
=   1.049  1.05
Tmin 1562.5
2
12.5  75  75
36. A cable is suspended between two points HB  y c      VB  0
2  2  2
75 m apart at the same level. It carries a
uniformly distributed load of 12.5 kN per
AS
2
horizontal meter. If the maximum tension in 12.5  75  75
HB yc     468.75  0
the cable is limited to 1000 kN, the minimum 2  2  2
central dip will be nearly
HByc = 8789.062 kN
(a) 14 m (b) 12 m
Given maximum tension = 1000 kN
(c) 10 m (d) 8 m
VA2  H2A
M
Ans. (c) Tmax =

Sol.
2
 8789.062 
1000 = (468.75)2   
12.5 kN/m yc
VA VB  
S
HA
HB
2
75 m  8789.062 
yc = central drip 780273.4375 =  
yc
IE
 
C
8789.062
yc =
1. Reaction 883.33
 Fy   0 y c  9.949 m
VA + VB = 12.5 kN …(i)
37. A tie bar 50 mm × 8 mm is to carry a load of
 MA  0 80 kN. A specimen of the same quality steel
of cross-sectional area is 250 mm2. For a
(75)2 maximum load of 125 kN carried by the
VB  75  12.5  0
2 specimen, the factor of safety in the design
VB = 468.75 kN will be
(a) 3.0 (b) 2.5
VA = 468.75 kN
2. Horizontal thrust (c) 2.0 (d) 1.5
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
Ans. (b) Ans. (a)
Sol. For cross-sectional area 250 mm2, Sol. Column sections can be splices in the
Maximum load = 125 kN following cases:
(i) When the length of column is more than
12  103 the length of column section available.
allowable   500 MPa
250
(ii) In case of multistory buildings, the section
For tie bar of column required for the various storeys
P 80  1000 may be different.
   200 MPa
A 50  8
R
40. A tie bar 50 mm × 8 mm is to carry a load of
 500 80 kN. A specimen of same quality steel of
F.OS  allowable   2.5
 200 cross-sectional area is 250 mm 2. If the
38. Hanger connections are made when

(a) Beam as well as girder is meeting at
different level. A plate or hanger is
interposed between the beam and the
girder and finally inter-connected by
TE maximum load carried by the specimen is
125 kN, the gauge length will be
(a) 133 mm
(c) 113 mm
Ans. (c)
(b) 126 mm
(d) 106 mm
AS
means of angle cleats or bolts and rods.
(b) Beam as well as girder is meeting at same
Sol. Gauge length  g   = 5.65 Area
level. A plate is interposed between the
= 5.65 50  8
beam and the girder.
(c) The beams are meeting at different levels. = 113 mm
A hanger is interposed between the
M
beams and finally inter-connected by 41. The strength of a column depends on which
means of angle cleats or bolts and rods. of the following imperfections?
(d) The girders are meeting at same level. A 1. The material being isotropic and
plate is interposed between the girders homogeneous.
and finally inter-connected by means of
S
2. Geometric variations of columns

bolts and rods.
Ans. (c) 3. Eccentricity of load
IE
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only

39. The splicing of a column becomes necessary,
where (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
(a) The available length of structural steel Ans. (b)

section is less than the required length of Sol. As per Euler’s theory.
the column.
(b) Section remains same throughout at all 2EI
Pcr 
floors. 2
(c) Only riveted columns are to be designed. Actual critical load will deviate from this load
if assumptions made by Euler are not met in
(d) Splices should be designed to carry axial practical condition
loads only.
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
Assumptions: 43. In a design of beam columns, the values of
(a) It is valid for long columns plastic section ratio b  1 , the plastic
(b) EI is uniform and material is isotropic sectional modulus Zpz = 3948812 mm3, the
yield stress f y = 250 N/mm 2 and critical
(c) Load is purely axial
moment of Mcr = 16866 × 106 N.mm. The
R
(d) Axis of the shaft is perfectly straight when non-dimensional lateral torsional slenderness
unloaded ratio will be nearly
Hence 2 & 3 are not meeting the criteria (a) 0.141 (b) 0.242
TE
Option (b) is correct (c) 0.323 (d) 0.424
Ans. (b)
42. Which of the following types of failures occur
in the beam-column connections? Sol. Non dimensional lateral torsional slenderness
ratio
1. Failure by lateral-torsional buckling
AS
2. Failure by combined instability in both the b  ZPZ  fy
principal directions =
Mcr
3. Failure by combined twisting and bending
on the torsionally weak sections 1 3948812  250
=  0.2419  0.242
16866  106
M
4. Failure by combined twisting and bending

when plane of bending does not contain
the shear centre 44. As per Indian Railway Board, the impact factor
i (also known as coefficient of dynamic
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only augment, CDA) in steel girders for single track
span is
S
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (b)  8 
(a) 0.15   1.0
Sol. Types of failure occur in the beam column  6  L 
IE
connection are:
 6 
(b) 0.75   1.0
1. Failure by instability in plane of bending  8  L 
without twisting.
2. Failure by instability in one of the principal  6 
(c) 0.15   1.0
direction.  8  L 
3. Failure by lateral torsional buckling.  8 

(d) 0.75   1.0
4. Failure by combined twisting and bending  6  L 
on these torsionally weak sections. where, L is span
5. Failure by combined twisting and bending Ans. (a)
when plane of bending does not contain
shear centre.  8 
Sol. Impact factor =  0.15   1.0
 6  L 
Hence, statement-2 is wrong.
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
45. An ISHB 300 with plastic section modulus of 46. In beam-columns or eccentric loaded columns,
921.68 × 103 mm3, flange width of 250 mm, an elastic critical stress in compression f cc is
the yield stress of 250 N/mm2 is embedded in E
2
E
a pocket base to develop its strength with (a) (b)
 2
M25 concrete in design of beam-column. The
required depth will be nearly E 2E
(c) (d)
2 
(a) 475 mm (b) 425 mm
Where, E = Modulus of elasticity of steel
(c) 375 mm (d) 325 mm
R
 = Slenderness ratio in the plane of bending
Ans. (a)
Ans. (b)
Sol. The compressiv e f orce in concrete =
Sol. For columns
0.45 fck d
2
 b
2
= 0.112 f ckbd
The moment of resistance of concrete (M)
TE
47.
Elastic critical sresss =
2E
2
A square of side a is placed such that its
diagonal is horizontal. The shape factor of
the square will be
AS
2
= 2C d
3
a
2
= 2  0.112 fck bd  d
3
= 0.149 f ckbd2
M
fy zpz
0.149 f ckbd2 = m0 = moment of resistance (a) 3.2 (b) 2.0
(c) 1.5 (d) 1.0
of the steel section
Ans. (b)
S
1/2
  fy zpz  Sol.
d=  
 1.1 0.149 fck b  fy
IE
For plastic and compact section   1 a a

45° 2
1/2 x x
 fy zpz  a
d=   a
 0.164 fck b  2
2
1/2 fy
 250  921.68  103 
d=  
 0.164  25  250   Mp    y .S  S
S.F.    
 My    y .z  z
= 474.13  475 mm    
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
 a a  5. Effect of axial load and shear on fully
A 1 a   plastic moment capacity is neglected.
S   y1  y 2     2a  2  2 
2 2 2  3 3  6. The deformations are small and equations
a 3 of statical equilibrium are same as those
S
3 2 for undeformed structure.
R
a4 49. As per IS-456 : 2000, cracking of concrete in
I a3
z  xx  12  tension zone cannot be avoided but can be
a
TE
y max 6 2
limited by
2
1. Adhering to the codal requirements of
a3
minimum steel area
S.F.  3 32  2 2. Proper and prolonged curing of concrete
a
AS
6 2 3. Increasing water cement ratio to increase
workability
48. Which one of the following is the correct
assumption made in evaluation of fully plastic (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
moment? (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) The upper and lower yield stresses and
Ans. (a)
M
the modulus of elasticity have different

values in compression and tension. Sol. Minimum steel area will limit the crack width.
(b) The material is homogeneous and Proper and prolonged curing will increase the
isotropic in both the elastic and plastic tensile stress and delay the loading.
states.
Increase in water cement ratio will increase
S
(c) There will be resultant axial force on the crack width due to higher shrinkage and creep.
beam.
(d) Some layers of the material are not free 50. Which of the following assumptions are made
IE
to expand and contract longitudinally and with respect to Euler’s theory applied to
laterally under stress. columns?
Ans. (b)
1. The section of the column is uniform
Sol. 1. The stress-strain curve is idealised to two
straight line. 2. The length of the column is very large
compared to the lateral dimensions
2. Plane section before bending remains
plane after bending. 3. The direct stress is large when compared
3. Material is homogenous, isotropic and with the bending stress
stress-strain curve is same both in tension (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
and compression.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
4. Rotation of any magnitude can take place
at plastic hinge, but the bending moment Ans. (d)
remains constant at fully plastic value MP.
Sol. Assumptions of Euler’s theory:
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
(a) It is valid for long columns
w w  2 w w  2
(b) EI is uniform and material is isotropic (a)  l  d  L (b)  l  d  L
 10 12   9 10 
(c) Load is purely axial
(d) Axis of the shaft is perfectly straight when  wl w d  2 w w  2
(c)   L (d)  l  d  L
unloaded  12 16   9 12 
Hence, 1 & 2 are assumptions Where, wl = Live load ; wd = Dead load
Option (d) is correct Ans. (a)
Sol. As per Table 12 of IS-456:2000, bending
R
51. A rectangular beam with b = 200 mm and
effective depth d = 300 mm is subjected to 1
limit state shear of 80 kN and torsional moment coefficients for dead load is 
12
moment of 6 kNm. The equivalent value of
shear will be
(a) 128 kN
(c) 104 kN
Ans. (a)
(b) 116 kN
(d) 92 kN
TE and for live load is 
span.
So, bending moment =

1
10
near middle of end
1
12
w dl 2 
1
10
w ll 2
AS
Sol. b = 200 mm
 wl wd  2
d = 300 mm =   l
 10 12 
Vu = 80 kN
Tu = 6 kNm 54. Which one of the following are the general
design requirements of retaining wall?
{Already factored shear as given as limit state
M
is mentioned} 1. The factor of safety against sliding should

be atleast 1.5
Equivalent shear,
2. The factor of safety against overturning
1.6 Tu 1.6  6 should be atleast 2.0
Ve = Vu  = 80   128 kN
b 0.2 3. The bearing pressure at toe should be
S
less than the bearing capacity of the soil

52. As per IS-456 : 2000, the value of maximum
4. The length of retaining wall to be cast in
compression strain in concrete in axial
one go should not exceed 10 m otherwise
IE
compression for limit state of collapse is

cracks may develop
(a) 0.001 (b) 0.002
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 0.003 (d) 0.004
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (b)
Ans. (a)
Sol. As per IS-456:2000, clause 39.1 (a), the
Sol. As per IS 14458 (Part-2): 1997, retaining wall
maximum compressive strain in concrete in
for hill area.
axial compression is taken as 0.002.
Guidelines: Design of retaining/breast walls,
53. The positive bending moment coefficient at clause no. 5.2.
the middle of the end-span of a continuous
Option 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
one way slab is
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
55. Which of the following are the desirable OR
properties for efficient functioning in design w
for movement joint of water tank?
1. The joint should accommodate repeated
movement of the structure without loss of
water-tightness l
R
2. The design should provide for exclusion 200 mm
of grit and debris which would prevent
the closing of the joint
TE
3. The material used in the construction of 450 mm
movement joints should not slump unduly
in hot weather or become brittle in cold
weather w 200000
Vmax    100000N
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only 2 2
AS
Nominal shear stress
Vmax 100000
Ans. (a)  avg .  bd

200  450
Sol. As per IS 3370 (Part 1): 2009 concrete
structures for storage of liquids, clause number
10.2, 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
 avg.  1.1N / mm2
M
56. A simply supported beam having 200 mm 57. Which of the following are correct for cover to
width and 450 mm effective depth supports a reinforcement?
total uniformly distributed load of 2,00,000 N.
1. The reinforcement shall have a minimum
The nominal shear stress will be nearly
clear cover of 20 mm or diameter of such
S
(a) 0.8 N/mm2 (b) 1.1 N/mm2 bar whichever is more.

(c) 1.8 N/mm2 (d) 2.2 N/mm2 2. At each end of reinforcing bar not less
Ans. (b) than 25 mm nor less than twice the
IE
Sol. Width, b = 200 mm diameter of such bar.

Effective depth, d = 450 mm 3. Increased cov er thickness may be
provided when surface of concrete is
Total uniformly distributed load = 200000 N
exposed to the action of harmf ul
200000 chemicals.
Maximum shear force (Vu) =
2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
= 100000 N (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Vu Ans. (a)
Nominal shear stress, v =
bd Sol. In case of mild exposure cover = 20 mm
Also, in any case cover shall not be less than
100000
=  1.11N/mm2 maximum bar diameter, here statement (1) is
200  450
correct.
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
Statement (2) is correct as per SP-34-1987 1. The beam is initially distorted
Increased cover thickness is provided when 2. Its behaviour is elastic
concrete is exposed to the action of harmful 3. It is loaded by equal and opposite end
chemicals. moments in the plane of the web
Statement (3) is correct. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
58. A beam of size 250 mm width and 460 mm (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
effective depth is subjected to limit state Ans. (b)
moment of 146 kNm. If M20 grade concrete
R
Sol. The lateral torsional buckling of an I-section
and Fe415 steel are used, the area of steel
is considered with the following assumptions:
required will be
1. The beam is initially undistorted.
(a) 435 mm2 (b) 935 mm2
(c) 1100 mm2
Ans. (c)
Sol. Width, b = 250 mm
(d) 1235 mm2
TE 2. Its behaviour is elastic (no yielding).
3. It is loaded by equal and opposite end
moments in the plane of the web.
4. The loads act in the plane of the web
Effective depth, d = 460 mm only (there are no externally applied lateral
AS
Mu = 146 kNm or torsional loads).
Mu,lim = 0.138f ckbd2 5. The beam does not hav e residual
stresses.
= 0.138 × 20 × 250 × 4602 × 10–6 = 146 kNm
6. Its ends are simply supported vertically
Section has to be designed as a balanced
and laterally.
M
section,
fck  4.6M  61. In an excavation of 3,000 cub.mtr of common

 Ast = 1  1  2  bd earth for a canal project, 6 men can be
2fy  fck bd 
 effectively employed on the job. If an output
= 1096.43 mm2  1100 mm2 of a man is taken as 100 cub.mtr per day, the
S
duration of excavation activity will be

59. Air permeability method is used to determine
(a) 5 days (b) 6 days
(a) Soundness of cement
IE
(c) 7 days (d) 8 days

(b) Setting time
Ans. (a)
(c) Fineness of cement
Sol. Duration of excavation activity
(d) Resistance of cement
Ans. (c) 3000
= = 5 days.
6  100
Sol. Fineness of cement is measured by air
permeability method. 62. The project plan for construction
60. Which of the following assumptions are correct 1. Clearly defines project’s scope of work. It
for the lateral torsional buckling of an I-section breaks down project objectives into clear,
beam? identifiable, attainable and verifiable goals.
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
2. Identifies critical activities, thus enabling 64. Which of the following statements are correct
management of projects by exceptions. for Network Critical Path?
3. Provides the basis for coordinating the 1. The path of critical activities, which links
efforts of clients, consultants, architects, the start and end events is critical path.
designers, quality surveyors, specialists,
suppliers, contractors and project staff. 2. It is the path of activities having zero float.
R
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 3. It is the path of events having zero slack.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only 4. The sum of the duration of the critical
TE
Ans. (b) activities along a critical path gives the
duration of the project.
Sol.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Planning/Design
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Project kick off meeting
Project cost Ans. (c)
AS
Defining scope of work
Estimate cost Sol. Critical path has activities having minimum
Prepare work break down structure Determine budget floats.
Role assignment Support plans It is not necessary that path of events having
Project scheduling Quality plan
zero slack becomes critical.
M
Define activities Risk management plan 65. Independent float is an amount of time by
Sequence activities Procurement plan which the start of an activity may be delayed
Estimate resource required Communication plan
without affecting
Estimate activity duration Human resource plan 1. the preceding or the following activity
S
Develope schedule Stakeholder management plan 2. the start of a following activity

Project management plan 3. the completion of the project
IE
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

63. Which one of the following techniques is not (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
covered in Project Network Analysis?
Ans. (d)
(a) Critical Path Method
Sol. Independent float is the minimum amount of
(b) Program Ev aluation and Rev iew time by which an activity can be delayed.
Techniques
It does not effect start of succeeding activity
(c) Procedure Network Analysis i.e. following activity.
(d) Measurement Book It does not eff ect latest completion of
Ans. (d) preceding activity.
Sol. Measurement Book (M.B.): Measurement of It only affects concerned activity.

all works and supplies are recorded in a Since, it does not effect EST of succeeding
special type of note book. activity it does not effect completion of project.
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
66. Consider the following activity for the total Ans. (d)
project : Sol. The construction manager can play the most
Immediate Duration vital lead role in achieving the project goals
Activity by perf orming the f ollowing f unctions
Pr edecessors (Days)
effectively and efficiently, these functions are
A  10 detailed in the following sub-sections:
B  9
 Envisioning the task ahead.
C A 9
 Enabling the individuals to perform the
D A 8 task systematically and efficiently.
R
E B 7  Setting targets and monitoring
F B 11 performance.
G D, E 5 Providing resources support.
The total project duration for the critical path
will be
(a) 25 days
(c) 21 days
(b) 23 days
(d) 19 days
TE 




Implementing a sound incentive scheme.
Communicating feedback.
Motivating the work force.
Building the line supervisors team.
AS
Ans. (b)  Creating safe working environments.
Sol.  Abiding by professional ethics.
C  Leadership makes all the difference.
10,10 9
2 D 68. The cost of the machine is Rs 20,00,000 and
A 18,18
0,0 if it is purchased under instalment basis; the
M
10 8 G 23,23
1 4 5 company has to pay 25% of the cost at the
B E 5
9 7 time of purchase and the remaining amount
3
9,12 F in 10 annual equal instalments of Rs 2,50,000
11 each. If rate of interest is 18%, compounded
Project completion time = 23 days annually the present worth of the machine
S
will be
67. By performing which of the following functions (a) Rs 17,01,000 (b) Rs 16,22,500
IE
the construction manager can achieve the (c) Rs 15,43,000 (d) Rs 14,64,500
project goals?
Ans. (b)
1. Envisioning the task ahead
Sol.
2. Setting targets and monitoring 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
performance
3. Motivating the work force 2.5L 2.5L 2.5L 2.5L 2.5L 2.5L 2.5L 2.5L 2.5L 2.5L
5L
4. Building the line supervisors team
1.1810  1
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only P = 5,00,000  2,50,000 
1.18 10 0.18
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 P = 16,23,521.
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
69. Which of the following relations are correct (a) Binomial distribution
for determining different components of a bid (b) Normal distribution
price?
(c) Poisson distribution
1. Bid price = Direct cost + Indirect cost +
Mark up amount. (d)  -distribution
R
2. Direct cost = Project overheads + Ans. (d)
Common plant and equipment cost + Sol. In PERT analysis time estimates of activities
Common work men cost. and probability of their occurrence follow 
TE
3. Mark up amount = Profit + Contingency + distribution.
Allowances for risks + General overheads.
72. Indirect cost due to accidents includes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Legal charges
(b) Medical expenses for the injured
AS
Ans. (c)
(c) Compensation amount to the injured
Sol. Bid price = Base cost + Mark up amount
(d) Over time payment to make up the loss
Base cost = Direct cost + Indirect cost of time
Direct cost = Labour cost + Plant and Ans. (d)
Equipment cost + materials cost + Sol. Cost of an accident = Direct cost + Indirect
M
Subcontractor cost cost

Mark up cost = Profit + Contingency + General Direct cost include worker’s compensation
overheads + Allowance for risks payment, medical expenses and legal
services.
70. Resource smoothing is
Indirect cost includes:
S
(a) An optimization and economical utilization

 Training replacement employees
of resources.
 Accident investigations
IE
(b) An adjustment of resources without

affecting project duration.  Implementation of corrective measure
(c) A gradual increase in resources.  Lost productivity

 Repairs of damaged equipment and
(d) A gradual decrease in resources.
property
Ans. (b)
 Cost of absenteecism
Sol. Resources smoothing: In this total project
duration is not changed but some of the 73. An oil of specific gravity 0.9 contained in a
activity start times are shifted by their available vessel. At a point the height of oil is 40 m and
float so that more or less uniform demand is for the density of water = 1000 kg/m3, the
generated. corresponding height of water at the point will
be
71. In PERT technique, the time estimate of (a) 28 m (b) 32 m
activities and probability of their occurrence (c) 36 m (d) 40 m
follow
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
Ans. (c) 75. Which one of the following is the use of flow
Sol. Given: Gs = 0.9; h = 40 m net analysis in fluid mechanics?
(a) To determine the streamlines and
Pressure at that point = oil gh
equipotential lines
= 0.9 × 1000 × 9.81 × 40 = 353160 N/m 2
(b) To determine downward lift pressure
Corresponding height of water at that point above hydraulic structure
will be
(c) To determine the viscosity for given
Pressure at heat point boundaries of flow
hwater = w (d) to design the hydraulic structure
R
353160 Ans. (a)
hwater = m
9.81 1000 Sol. The flow net provides a simple graphical
74.
hwater  36 m
When speed changes in case of centrifugal

pump, which of the following points are
correct?
TE techniques for studying two dimensional
irrotational flows especially in the cases where
mathematical relations for steam function and
potential function are either not available or
are rather difficult to solve.
AS
1. The shape of the velocity triangle will 76. A jet propelled aircraft is flying at a speed of
remain same 1100 km/hour at t = 20°C, k = 1.4 and R =
2. Various angles will remain same 287 J/kg K. The Mach number at a point on
the jet will be nearly
3. Magnitude of v elocity will change
proportionately (a) 0.3 (b) 0.5
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 0.7 (d) 0.9
M
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (d)

Sol.
Ans. (b)
Sol. Upon change in speed of centrifugal pump 1100  1000 m
Velocity of aircraft = = 305.55 m/s
Shape of velocity triangle will remain same 3600 s
S
Angles 1 and  2 will change. Velocity of sound = kRT

Magnitude of v elocity will change 1.4  287   20  273 
IE
=
proportionately
u2 = 343.114 m/s
2
Velocity of aircraft
Vr V2 Mach number =
2 Velocity of sound
305.55
=  0.89
343.114
77. When the drag force becomes equal to the

Vr1 weight of the body, the acceleration ceases
V1
and the net external force acting in the body
u1 becomes
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
(a) Zero and the body will move at constant (c) The Froude number is greater than two
speed (d) The discharge is a minimum for a given
(b) Light and the body will move forward specific force
(c) Zero and the body will move fast Ans. (a)
(d) High and the body will move at constant Sol. Expression of specific energy
R
speed
2
Ans. (a) v
E = y
2g
Sol. When drag force becomes equal to the weight
TE
of the body, the acceleration ceases and the Q
net external force acting in the body becomes As, v =
A
zero and the body will move at constant
2
speed. Q
E = y 2
2gA
78. Which of the following statements is correct
AS
regarding flow in open channel?  For E to be minimum at constant Q,
(a) The curve for kinetic energy is a parabola T
dy
(b) The curve for potential energy is a
parabola dA
(c) Specific energy is asymptotic to the y

M
vertical axis
(d) At critical depth the specific energy is
maximum
Ans. (a) dE
= 0
dy
S
Sol. Statement (b)  wrong, as potential energy

will vary linearly w.r.t. depth (y). 2
dE Q d
Statement (c)  wrong, as specific energy  dy
= 1
2g dy
A
–2
 
IE
is asymptotic to horizontal axis.

dE Q2  –2  dA
Statement (d)  wrong, at critical depth the = 1
dy 2g  A 3  dy
specific energy is minimum.
Statement (a)  Correct, as kinetic energy dA
will vary parabolically w.r.t. velocity. dA can be written as Tdy. Therefore dy  T,
Hence, most appropriate answer is (a). 2
dE Q T
 = 1– 3
79. Which one of the following statement is correct dy gA
regarding critical state of flow through a 2
channel section? Q T
1– 3 = 0
(a) Specific energy is a minimum for a given gA
discharge 2
Q T
1
(b) Specific energy is a maximum for a given gA
3
discharge
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
 Q2  Sol. By Pascal law
 2   T
A  F
= 1
gA
a
v 2T
= 1 W
gA Ram
A
v P P
= 1
A
g
R
T
 For a rectangular channel, we know that F W
Pressure intensity = 
A a A
y
T
v
gy
= 1



Fr 
v
gy
 1
Thus, when the specific energy is minimum




TE Weight lifted (W) = F 
= F

4
(D)2
 2
d
 300 
= 50 
 45 
2
A
a
 = 2223 N
for a given discharge, flow will be critical flow
AS
4
and depth of flow will be called as critical
depth yc and velocity of flow is called as critical 82. Hydraulic efficiency of Francis turbine is
velocity v c. (a) Directly proportional to velocity of whirl at
inlet and inversely proportional to net head
80. Which one of the following statement is correct on turbine
regarding centrifugal pumps?
(b) Directly proportional to velocity of whirl at
M
(a) The discharge is fluctuating and pulsating inlet and net head on turbine
(b) It is used for large discharge through (c) Inversely proportional to velocity of whirl
smaller heads at inlet and net head on turbine
(c) The efficiency is low (d) Inversely proportional to velocity of whirl
S
at inlet and directly proportional to net

(d) It runs at low speed
head on turbine
Ans. (b)
Ans. (a)
IE
Sol. Centrifugal pumps are used for pumping large Sol. Hydraulic efficiency of a Francis turbine
discharge through smaller heads.
Vw1u1
( h ) =
81. A hydraulic press has a ram of 300 mm gH
diameter and a plunger of 45 mm diameter. 1
When the force applied at the plunger is 50 n  Vw1 and n 
H
N, the weight lifted by the hydraulic press will
be nearly 83. A turbine develops 7225 kW power under a
head of 25 m at 135 rpm. The specific speed
(a) 2133 N (b) 2223 N
of the turbine will be nearly
(c) 2316 N (d) 2406 N
(a) 245 rpm (b) 225 rpm
Ans. (b)
(c) 205 rpm (d) 185 rpm
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
Ans. (c) (a) Deforestation mainly due to population
Sol. P = 7225 kW, H = 25 ; N = 135 rpm pressure in the catchments of tank
systems
N P 135 7225
Specific speed (Ns) = = (b) Siltation
(H)5/4 (25)5/4
(c) Lack of maintenance and repairs and
R
= 205 breaches of tank embankments
84. Which one of the following is an example of (d) Shallow depth of water tanks
bodies where both drag and lift forces are Ans. (a)
TE
produced? Sol. Major deterrent in water harvesting through
(a) Hydrofiles water tank.
(b) A tall chimney exposed to wind 1. Siltation.
(c) Flow of water past a bridge pier 2. Lack of maintenance and repair and
AS
(d) Motion of aeroplanes, submarines, breaches of tank embankment.
torpedoes 3. Shallow depth of water tank.
Ans. (d)
87. Which one of the following is not a basic
85. The relative humidity h is a measure of air’s requirement for any well screen?
capacity, at its existing temperature, to absorb (a) Resistance to corrosion, incrustation and
M
further moisture, and is defined by the relation

deterioration
e es
(a) e  100 (b)  100 (b) Enough structural strength to prevent
s e collapse
2es 2e (c) Suitability for excessive movement of sand
(c)  100 (d) e  100
S
e s into the well

where; e = vapour pressure (d) Minimum resistance to flow of water into
es = saturation vapour pressure the well
IE
Ans. (a) Ans. (c)

Sol. Relative humidity Sol. Basic requirements for any well screen
Water vapour pressure 1. Resistance to corrosion, incrustation and
= 100  deterioration.
Saturation vapour pressure
2. Enough structural strength to prevent
e
= 100  collapse.
es
3. Minimum resistance to flow of water into
The relative humidity is the ratio of water the well.
vapour pressure (e) and saturation vapour
pressure (es) of present temperature. 4. Control sand pumping.
86. Which one of the following is not a major 88. Which one of the following methods is not the
deterrent in water harvesting through water category of Geophysical methods of sub-
tanks? surface investigation?
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
(a) Electrical resistivity method Sol. Emitters are small micro-irrigation dispensing
devices designed to dissipate pressure and
(b) Electric logging
discharge of small uniform or trickle of water
(c) Gamma-ray logging at a constant rate (as per ASAE definition).
(d) Electrical response surveying In pulsating emitter, discharge will not be
Ans. (d) constant.
Sol. Earth exploration method are: 91. A Persian wheel with an average discharge
1. Gamma ray logging of 230 litre/minute irrigates 1 hectare wheat
crop in 50 hours. The average depth of
R
2. Electric logging/well logging irrigation will be nearly
3. Electrical resistivity method (a) 4 cm (b) 5 cm
89.
4. Seismic refraction method
In which one of the following industries, the

water requirement in kilo litres per unit of
production is very high?
TE
Sol.
(c) 6 cm
Ans. (d)
(d) 7 cm
Q × time = Area × Avg. Depth of irrigation

Avg. Depth of irrigation
(a) Paper industry 230  103  50  60
AS
= 4
 102
(b) Steel industry 10
(c) Sugar industry = 6.9 cm
(d) Fertilizer industry 92. Which one of the following is not the main
Ans. (a) cause for soil salinity and sodicity?
M
Sol. According to GOI manual (a) Irrigation mismanagement

(b) Poor land levelling
Industry Unit of Water requirement
production in kilolitres per unit (c) Use of heavy machinery, resulting in no
Paper Tonne 200 – 400 soil compaction
S
Steel Tonne 200 – 250 (d) Leaching without adequate drainage

Sugar Tonne (cane crushed) 1–2
Ans. (c)
Fertilizer Tonne 80 – 200
IE
Sol. Main causes of soil salinity and sodility:

90. In drip irrigation system, which one of the 1. Irrigation mismanagement
following emitters is not based on definitions
2. Leaching without adequate drainage
by American Society of Agricultural Engineers
(ASAE)? 3. Poor land levelling
(a) Emitter 4. Deforestation
(b) Pulsating emitter 5. Accumulation of air borne or water borne
(c) Long path emitter salts in soil.
(d) Multi-outlet emitter 93. Which one of the following is not the major
Ans. (b) factor influencing seepage from a canal?
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
(a) Characteristics of the soil traversed by the Ans. (c)
canal system
Sol. Factors influencing choice of a method of
(b) Area wetted by the canal lining:
(c) Location of the canal 1. Availability and cost of material.
(d) Frequencies of canal usage 2. Velocity of flow.
R
Ans. (c)
3. Cost of maintenance.
94. Which of the following are the causes of failure 4. Climatic condition.
TE
of weirs?
5. Size of canal.
1. Rupture of floor due to uplift
6. Position of water table.
2. Rupture of floor due to suction caused by
standing wave 7. Imperviousness.
3. Scour on the upstream and downstream 96. Which of the following are the objectives for
AS
of the weir river training?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 1. High flood discharge may pass safely and
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only quickly through the reach
Ans. (c) 2. To make the river course stable and
Sol. A weir may fail due to following reasons. reduce bank erosion to minimum
M
1. Piping 3. To check flow through canal

2. Rupture of floor due to uplift 4. To provide a sufficient draft for navigation
3. Rupture of floor due to section caused by as well as good course for it
standing wave. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
S
4. Scour at the upstream and downstream (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
side of the weir floor.
Ans. (c)
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5. Erosion of apron protection.

Sol. Objectives of river training are
6. Deterioration of cutof and subsequent loss
of containment. (1) High flood discharge may pass safely and
quickly through the reach.
95. Which of the following are the principal factors
(2) Sediment load including bed and
influencing the choice of a particular method
of lining? suspended load may be transported
efficiently.
1. Availability and cost of the material at the
site or within easy reach (3) To make the river course stable and
reduce bank erosion to minimum.
2. Velocity of flow in the channel
(4) To provide a sufficient draft for navigation
3. Cost of maintenance
as well as good course for it.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(5) To fire direction of flow through certain
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only defined reach.
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
97. The transition region between unsaturated Ans. (a)
zone and saturated zone is called pH  5
Sol. 
Cl2  H2O  HOCl  HCl
(a) Capillary fringe
At pH < 5, chlorine does not react with water
(b) Water table
and remains in elemental or molecular chlorine
(c) Yadose water zone form.
(d) Confining bed 100. Reactive substances are

Ans. (a) (a) Unstable under normal conditions. They
R
can cause explosions and/or liberate toxic
Sol. Capillary fringe treated as a boundary fumes, gases, and vapors when mixed
condition separating the water table (saturated with water
98.
zone) from unsaturated zone.
Which of the following chemical parameters

are associated with the organic content of
water?
TE (b) Eeasily ignited and burn vigorously and
persistently
(c) Liquids with pH less than 2 or greater
than 12.5, and those that are capable of
corroding metal containers
1. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
AS
(d) Harmf ul or f atal when ingested or
2. Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) absorbed
Ans. (a)
3. Total Organic Carbon (TOC) and Total
Oxygen Demand (TOD) Sol. Reactive substances are unstable under
normal conditions and react violently with air
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only and water. They cause explosions or form
M
toxic vapors.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d) 101. The noise value of sound wave depends upon:
Sol. BOD, COD, TOC and TOD all are associated 1. The frequency of sound waves
S
with organic content of water. 2. The intensity of sound waves

COD is related to both inorganic and organic 3. The time of exposure of sound waves
content of water. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
IE
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

99. When chlorine is dissolved in water, it reacts
Ans. (a)
to form hypochlorous acid and hypochlorite
ions. At pH < 5, chlorine exists in water as Sol. The noise levels of sound waves depends
upon
(a) Elemental or molecular chlorine
 Intensity of sound
(b) Remains in the form of hypochlorous acid
 Frequency of sound wave
(c) Remains in the form of hypochlorite ions Time period of sound wave

(d) Remains in the form of both hypochlorous Time of exposure of sound will not affect noise
acid and hypochlorite ions level rather it will effect on human ears.
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
102. Which of the following type of treatments will (a) Recover, reclamation and reproduce
be used for neutralization of alkaline effluent?
(b) Reuse, reclamation and recycling
(a) Lime stone treatment
(c) Recover, recycling and reproduce
(b) Caustic lime treatment
(d) Reuse, reproduce and recycling
(c) Carbon dioxide treatment
Ans. (c)
R
(d) Hydrochloric acid treatment
Sol. Conceptual.
Ans. (d)
105. The frequency range for hearing the sound
TE
Sol. Lime stone (CaCO3), caustic lime (CaO) both
will produce alkalinity in medium. by a human ear is in the range of
Whereas carbon dioxide will form carbonic (a) 20 Hz – 200 kHz
acid. (b) 10 Hz – 20kHz
(c) 20 Hz – 20 kHz


CO2  H2O 
 H2CO3
AS
(d) 10 Hz – 20 Hz


H2 CO3    Ans. (c)
 H  HCO 3
Sol. The human ear can detect a wide range of
It will give H+ for neutralization but will also frequencies. Frequencies from 20 Hz to 20
produce alkalinity in medium. kHz are audible to human ear.
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) on the other hand will
M
Any sound with a frequency below 20 Hz is

be best option for neutralization of alkaline known as an infrasound and any sound with
effluent. a frequency above 20 kHz is known as
ultrasound.
103. Flocculation is the process of
106. Physiological responses accompanying
S
(a) Gently mixing the water and coagulant

allowing the formation of large particles response and other noise exposures include:
of floc 1. A vascular response characteristic by
IE
(b) Removing relatively large floating and peripheral vasoconstriction, changes in

suspended debris heart beat rate and blood pressure
(c) Flow, which is slowed enough so that 2. Various glandular charges such as
gravity will cause the floc to settle increased output of adrenaline evidenced
by chemical changes in blood
(d) Mixture of solids and liquids collected from
the settling tank are dewatered and 3. Slow, deep breathing
disposed of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a) (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Sol. Flocculation is the process of gently mixing Ans. (d)
the water and coagulant allowing the formation
Sol. Physiological responses accompanying a
of large particles of floc.
response and other noise exposures includes:
104. In solid waste management, waste utilization 1. A vascular response characteristic by
is achieved by peripheral vasoconstriction, changes in
heart rate and blood pressure.
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
2. Various glandular changes such as 109. A soil sample has a porosity of 40%, and the
increased output of adrenaline evidenced specific gravity of solid is 2.70. if the soil is
as chemical changes in blood during 50% saturated, the unit weight will be nearly
circulation. (a) 22 kN/m3 (b) 20 kN/m3
3. Slow, deep breathing. (c) 18 kN/m3 (d) 16 kN/m3
4. A change in the electrical resistance of Ans. (c)
skin with changes in activity of the sweat
glands. Sol. n = 40% = 0.4, Gs = 2.7, S = 50% = 0.5
5. Brief changes in skeletal muscle tension. n 0.4 0.4 2
R
e   
1  n 1  0.4 0.6 3
107. Electrostatic precipitators are used for removal
 Gs  w 
of Unit weight  t    1  w 
1. Gaseous contaminants
2. Liquid contaminants
3. Particulate contaminants
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
TE es  wG  w 
t 
2.7  9.81
1 2 / 3
 1 e 
es 2 / 3  0.5
G

2.7
 0.213
 1.123  17.84 kN / m3
AS
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3  18 kN/m3
Ans. (c) 110. Oven dry mass of a pat of clay is 10.8 gm
Sol. Electrostatic precipitators are used for removal and mass of mercury displaced on immersion
of particulate contaminants only. is 84.2 gm. If the specific gravity of solids is
2.72 and the density of the mercury is 13.6 g/
M
108. Which one of the following type of ecology is cm3, the shrinkage limit of the soil will be
dealt with autecology? nearly
(a) Synecology (a) 12% (b) 15%

(c) 18% (d) 21%
(b) Community ecology
S
Ans. (d)
(c) Ecosystem ecology
Sol. Mass of mercury displaced = 84.2 gm
(d) Individual species ecology
IE
Density of mercury = 13.6 g/cm3

Ans. (d)
Dry mass of a pat of clay = 10.8 gm
Sol. Ecology is often broadly div ided into
Specific gravity of solids = 2.72
autecology and synecology. Autecology deals
with the ecological study of one species of 84.2
Volume of displaced mercury =
organism. Thus, an autecologist may study to 13.6
the lif e history, population dynamics, = 6.19 cm3
behaviour, home range and so on, of a single
species, such as the Indian bull frog, or maize Volume of clay = 6.19 cm3
borer. Synecology deals with the ecological 10.8
Dry density of clay =  1.745 g / cm3
studies of communities or entire ecosystems. 6.19
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
Gs  w where: e = Void ratio
d 
1 e Ans. (a)
2.72  1 e
1.745  n
1 e Sol.
1 e
e = 0.56
R
113. A coarse-grained soil has a void ratio of 0.78
At shrinkage limit clay will be 100% saturated
and specific gravity as 2.67. The critical
(s = 1)
gradient at which a quick sand condition
es = wG
TE
occurs will be
e 0.56 (a) 0.62 (b) 0.74
w   0.206  20.6%
G 2.72
(c) 0.82 (d) 0.94
111. The suitability number of a backfill for D50 = Ans. (d)
1 mm, D20 = 0.5 mm and D10 = 0.08 mm will Sol. Gs = 2.67, e = 0.78
AS
be nearly
G 1
(a) 16 (b) 18 Critical gradient ic =
1 e
(c) 20 (d) 22 2.67  1 1.67
=   0.94
Ans. (d) 1  0.78 1.78
M
Sol. D50 = 1 mm, D20 = 0.5 mm, D10 = 0.08 mm 114. Which of the following assumptions of the
The grain size distribution of the backfill Rankine theory of lateral earth pressure are
correct?
material is an important factor that controls
the rate of densification 1. The soil mass is semi-infinite,
homogeneous, dry and cohesionless.
S
Brown (1997) has defined a quantity called

2. The ground surface is a plane which may
the suitability number for rating backfill as be horizontal or inclined.
IE
3 1 1 3. The wall yields about the base and thus

SN  1.7 2
 2
 2 satisfies the deformation condition for
D50  D20  D10  plastic equilibrium.
Where, D50, D20 and D10 are the diameters (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(in mm) through which respectively 50, 20, (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
10% of the material passes. Ans. (b)
3 1 1 Sol. Assumptions in Rankines theory
SN  1.7 2
 2
 2
 21.7  22
1 0.5 0.08 1. Soil is semi-inf inite, homogenous,
isotropic, dry and cohesionless.
112. The porosity of a soil n is
2. The ground surface (backfill soil) is
e e horizontal.
(a) (b)
1 e 1 e
3. The wall yields about the base and thus
e 1 e 1 satisfies the deformation condition for
(c) (d)
e e plastic equilibrium.
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
115. The ratio of the horizontal stress to the vertical 117. A 30 cm square bearing plate settles by 8
stress is called coefficient of mm in the plate load test on cohesionless soil
when the intensity of loading is 180 kN/m2.
(a) Active earth pressure The settlement of a shallow foundation of 1.5
(b) Passive earth pressure m square under the same intensity of loading
will be nearly
(c) Earth pressure
(a) 30 mm (b) 26 mm
(d) Plastic earth pressure (c) 22 mm (d) 18 mm
Ans. (c) Ans. (c)
R
Horizontal stress Sol. BP = 30 cm = 0.3 m, SP = 8 mm
Sol. Earth pressure =
Vertical stres Bf = 1.5 m
Settlement of foundation
116. A bed consists of compressible clay of 4 m
thickness with pervious sand on top and
imperv ious rock at the bottom. In a
consolidation test on an undisturbed specimen
of clay from this deposit 90% settlement was
TE S f  B f (BP  0.3) 
Sf

SP  BP (BP  0.3) 
2
 1.5  (0.3  0.3) 

=  
2
reached in 4 hours. The specimen was 20 8  0.3 (1.5  0.3) 

AS
mm thick. The time for the building founded Sf = 22.22 mm
over this deposit to reach 90% of its final
settlement will be 118. When the observed value of N exceeds 15,
(a) 91 years (b) 82 years the corrected penetration number Nc as per
Terzaghi and Peck recommendation in the silty
(c) 73 years (d) 64 years
fine sands will be
M
Ans. (c)
1
Sol. For deposit H1 = 4 m (a) 15  (NR  15)
2
20 mm 1
For clay specimen H2 =  10 mm (b) 15  (NR  15)
2
S
2
= 0.01 m 1
(c) 15  (NR  15)
Time t2 = 4 hour 2
IE
Since settlement is same in both cases. 1

(d) 15  (NR  15)
2
t1 t2
= where, N = Penetration number, and NR =
H12 H22 Recorded value
t1 4 Ans. (c)
=
4 2 (0.01)2 Sol. As per Terzaghi and peck, 1948
t1 = 64 × 104 hours Corrected penetration number
64  104 1
= years = 73 years Nc = 15  (NR  15)
365  24 2
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
119. A canal of 4 m deep has side slopes of 1 : 1. 121. The combined correction for curvature and
The properties of the soil are c = 15 kN/m2, refraction for a distance of 3400 m will be
 = 15°, e = 0.76 and G = 2.7. Taylor’s stability nearly
number for that sudden drawdown = 0.136. (a) 0.2 m (b) 0.4 m
The factor of safety with respect to cohesion (c) 0.6 m (d) 0.8
R
in the case of sudden drawdown will be
Ans. (d)
(a) 0.64 (b) 1.43
Sol. Combined correction = –0.0673 × d2
(c) 2.22 (d) 3.01
TE
= –0.778 m
Ans. (b)
122. A 100 m tape is suspended between the ends
Sol. H = 4m , c = 15 kN/m 2, e = 0.76. G = 2.7
under a pull of 200 N. If the weight of the
Sn = 0.136 tape is 30 N, the correct distance between
In case of sudden drawndown, soil will be the tape ends will be nearly
AS
saturated. (a) 100.5 m (b) 100.3 m
(G  e) 2.7  0.76  (c) 100.1 m (d) 99.9 m

 sat =  w =    9.81
(1  e)  1  0.76  Ans. (d)
= 19.28 kN/m3 w 2l
Sol. Correction for sag, Cs =
24 P2
M
Taylor’s stability number

302  100
C Cs = 
Sn = F H 24  2002
c
Cs = –0.094 m
C
S
15 Correct length = M.L + Cs

Fc = S H =  1.43
n 0.136  19.28  4
= 100 – 0.094 = 99.906 m
120. The stability or shear strength of finegrained
IE
soils can be increased by draining them with 123. In horizontal distance measurement, the basic
the passage of direct current through them. formula for distance in stadia tacheometry has
This process is known as an additive constant. An anallatic lens is
inserted in the tacheometer to make this
(a) Electro-osmosis
additive constant zero. This lens is
(b) Zeta potential (a) Convex lens inserted between object
(c) Electro-chemical hardening glass and diaphragm
(b) Plano-convex lens between object glass
(d) Consolidation
and diaphragm
Ans. (a)
(c) Plano-convex lens between diaphragm
Sol. The stability or shear strength of fine-grained and eye piece
soils can be increased by draining them with
(d) Convex lens inserted between diaphragm
the passage of direct current through them.
and eye piece
This process is known as electro-osmosis.
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
Ans. (b) ab f
Sol. Sphoto = 
Sol. Anallatic lens is plano-convex lens between AB H  h
objective and diaphragm.
1 2.54  10 2
Smap = 
50,000 AB
124. If the LMT is 8h 12m 16s AM at 38° 45  W
longitude, the GMT will be AB = 2.54 × 10–2 50,000 = 1270 m
(a) 11h 12m 16s AM 10.16 16

Sphoto = 
1270 H  200
R
(b) 10 h 47m 16s AM H = 2200 m
(c) 9 h 29m 46s AM 126. If backsight and foresight distances are

balanced
(d) 5 h 29m 46s AM
Ans. (b)
Sol. LMT at 38° 45 w = 8 hr min 16 sec

TE 1. The difference in elevation between two
points can be directly calculated by taking
difference of the two readings.
2. No correction for the inclination of the line
AS
We know that when we travel towards east of sight is necessary
time is added and in west vice-versa. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
For 15 0 change in longitude time changes (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1 hr. Ans. (c)
38 45 Sol. If back sight and foresight distances are
GMT = 8hr 12 min 15 sec 
M
15 balanced then no correction is required for

= 8 hr 12 min 16 sec + 2.5833 hr collimation, curvature and refraction.
= 8 hr 12 min 16 sec + 2 hr 35 min Staff readings will be correct and height

difference can be determined as difference of
= 10 hr 47 min 16 sec
S
staff readings.
125. A section line AB appears to be 10.16 cm on 127. A railway curve of 1350 m radius is to be set
a photograph for which the focal length is 16 out to connect two tangents. If the design
IE
cm. The corresponding line measures 2.54 speed is 110 kmph and the rate of change of
1 acceleration is 0.3 m/s3, the shift of the circular
cm on a map, which is to a scale .
50,000 curve will be nearly
The terrain has an average elevation of 200
m above mean sea level. The flying altitude (a) 0.18 m (b) 0.16 m
of the aircraft above mean sea level during (c) 0.14 m (d) 0.12 m
photograph will be Ans. (b)
(a) 1800 m (b) 200 m
(c) 2200 m (d) 2400 m v3
Sol. Length of transition curve =
CR
Ans. (c)
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
3 deposits, such as stalactites (which hangs
 5 
 110   from ceiling) and stalagmites (which rise up
 18 
=  70.44 m from the ground).
0.3  1350
L2s 70.442 130. W hich of the following statements with
 Shift =  reference to isogonic line are correct in
24 R 24  1350
R
magnetic declination?
= 0.153 m  = 0.16 m
1. It is drawn through the points of same
128. A theodolite is called a transit theodolite, when declination
TE
its telescope can be revolved through a 2. It does not form complete great circle
complete revolution about its
3. It radiates from north and south magnetic
(a) Vertical axis in an inclined plane regions and follows irregular paths
(b) Horizontal axis in an inclined plane (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
AS
(c) Vertical axis in a horizontal plane (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Horizontal axis in a vertical plane Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) Sol. Isogonic are the lines joining points of equal
Sol. Transiting is the process of turning the declination at a time of observation.
telescope over the horizontal axis through They do not form complete great circles.
M
180° in a vertical plane, making it upside down The radiate from south and north magnetic
and pointing in the opposite direction. It is region and they are quite irregular near
also called reversing or plunging. geographic poles.
129. Stalactites and stalagmites are features of 131. Mountains resulting from the depression or
S
(a) Stream erorsion developed in limestone elevation of blocks of the earth crust on a
region by specific chemical reaction large scale due to faulting and these elevated
structures are commonly called
IE
(b) Ground water deposition in caves formed

by precipitation from dripping water rich (a) Fault block mountains
in calcium carbonate (b) Volcanic mountains
(c) Marine erorsion and deposition formed (c) Relict mountains
along coastal regions by selective erorsion (d) Residual mountains
followed by deposition by waves
Ans. (a)
(d) A centripetal drainage in which streams
from different directions flow towards a 132. A little gap is left between the head of the
common central basin glaciated valley and the mass of the glacier
Ans. (b) ice. This gap is known as
Sol. Cave features are usually formed by slow (a) Bergs-chrund (b) Arete
moving ground water that has a high calcium (c) Horn (d) Cirque
carbonate content. Chemical changes inside
Ans. (a)
the cave make the minerals harden and form
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
Sol. Bergs-chrund or Rimaye is a Clevasse that Ans. (a)
forms where moving glacier ice separates from Sol. Design speed = 96 kmph
stagnant ice.
Speed of overtaken vehicle = 80 kmph
It is often a serious obstacle for mountaineers.
Reaction time for overtaking = 2 sec
Arete is narrow ridge of rock that separates
two valleys. Acceleration = 2.5 kmph/sec
A horn results when glacier erode three or OSD = 0.278V × t + 0.278 × V × T + 2S
more aretes, usually forming a sharp edged + Vd × T × 0.278
peak.
R
where, V = Speed of overtaken vehicle in
Cirque are concave, circular basin carved by
kmph
the base of glacier as it erodes the landscape.
Vd = design speed or speed of vehicle in
133. The sight distance available on a road to a
driver at any instance depends on
1. Features of the road ahead
2. Height of the driver’s eye above the road
surface
TE opposite direction (kmph)
T = Time taken in operation of overtaken
S = space headway
S = 0.2 × V + 6.1 = 0.2 × 0.80 + 6.1 = 22.1m
AS
3. Height of the object above the road 4S 22.1 4
T= 
surface a 5 = 11.28 sec
2.5 
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 18
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
OSD = 0.278 × 80 × 2 + 0.278 × 80 × 11.28
Ans. (d)
+ 2 × 22.1 + 0.278 × 96 × 11.28
M
Sol. Sight distance on road depends on :

= 44.48 + 250.87 + 44.2 + 301.04
(i) The characteristics/f eatures of road
OSD = 640.59 m
aheads.
Nearest answer is (a)
(ii) Height of object above the road surface.
S
(iii) Height of driver’s eye above the road 135. Which one of the following statements is
surface. correct?
IE
(a) The ratio of load on wheel to contact area

134. Consider the following data: or area of imprint is called as contact
Design speed = 96 kmph pressure
Speed of overtaken vehicle = 80 kmph (b) The ratio of load on wheel to contact
pressure is called as rigidity factor
Reaction time for overtaking = 2 sec
(c) The value of rigidity factor is more than
Acceleration = 2.5 kmph/sec
three for an average tyre pressure of 7
The safe overtaking sight distance on a two- kg/cm2
way traffic road will be nearly
(d) Rigidity factor does not depend upon the
(a) 646 m (b) 556 m degree of tension developed in walls of
(c) 466 m (d) 376 m tyres
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
Ans. (a) 138. Which of the following advantages are correct
regarding Poly-centric shape tunnel?
Load on wheel
Sol.  Contact pressure = Contact area of imprint 1. It can be conveniently used for road and
railway traffic
Constant pressure
 Rigidity factor =
Tyre pressure
2. The number of centres and lengths
R
3. It can resist external and internal pressure
 The value of rigidity factor is unit (1.0) for
due to its arch action
an average tyre pressure of 7 kg/cm2
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
 Rigidity factor depends upon the degree
TE
of tension developed in the walls of tyres. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
136. Which one of the following is not the correct
type of critical load position in pavement slab Sol.  Polycentric tunnels are those tunnel which
design for the load on the pavement surface? has more than one centre and flat base.
It can be used for road and railway traffic.
AS
(a) Interior loading 
(b) Edge loading  It can resist external and internal pressure
with their arch shape.
(c) Eccentric loading
(d) Corner loading 139. Which one of the following statement is correct
Ans. (c) regarding Journal friction?
M
Sol. Westergaard considered three load positions (a) Caused due to the wave action of rails
as critical i.e. interior, edge and corner. (b) The amount does not depend upon the
type of bearing
137. Which of the following statements are correct
regarding W estergaard’s concept f or (c) For roller bearings, it varies from 0.5 to
temperature stresses? 1.0 kg per tonne
S
(d) For coupled boxes, it lubricates by hard

1. During the day, the top of the pavement
grease from 0.5 kg to 1.0 kg per tonne
slab gets heated under the sun light when
IE
the bottom of the slab becomes hot. Ans. (c)

2. During summer season as the mean Sol. Journal friction : It is the resistance
temperature of the slab increases, the considered which are independent of speed.
concrete pavement expands towards the It depends on the type of bearing, the lubricant
expansion joints used, the temperature and condition of
3. Due to frictional force at the interface, bearing. In the case of roll bearing, it varies
compressive stress is developed at the from 0.5 kg to 1.0 kg per tonne.
bottom of the slab as it tends to expand 140. For the construction of a 640 m long B.G.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only railway track by using a sleeper density of M
+ 5, and the length of each rail is 12.8 m, the
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
number of sleepers required will be
Ans. (b)
(a) 1000 (b) 900
Sol. During the day the top of the pavement slab
(c) 800 (d) 700
gets heated under the sunlight when the
bottom of slab still remains relatively colder. Ans. (b)
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
Sol. Sleeper density = M + 5 (c) The radius of transition curve is constant
for entire length
No. of sleeper in 12.8 m length of rail
(d) The horizontal curv es are provided
= 12.8 + 5 = 17.8  18 whenever there is a change in gradient
 No. of sleeper in 640 m, Ans. (b)
18
 640 = 900
Sol.  Transition curve is provided to decrease
Long BG rail = the radius infinity at the straight road to
12.8
desirable radius at the starting of circular
141. Which one of the following statement is correct curve, in order to attain full super-elevation
R
regarding ballast used for railway tracks? and curvature gradually.
(a) The minimum depth of ballast for B.G.  Vertical curves are provided whenever
section is 20 cm - 25 cm there is a change in gradient.
(b) The quantity of stone ballast required for

one metre length of track is 0.53 m 3 for
B.G. section
(c) For M.G. section the width of ballast is
1.83 m
TE
143. A cross-over occur between two Metre Gauge
parallel tracks of same crossing number 1 in
12 with straight intermediate portion between
the reverse curves and the distance between
the centres of tracks is 3.5 m. If the value of
G is 1 m, the intermediate straight distance
AS
(d) The minimum depth of ballast for N.G. will be nearly
section is 10 cm (a) 12 m (b) 15 m
Ans. (a) (c) 18 m (d) 21 m
Sol. Minimum depth of ballast for SWR and LWR Ans. (c)
is 200 mm and 250 mm respectively. Sol.
M
Quantity of stone ballast for BG per meter

varies from 0.964 m3 to 2.616 m3.
B
Width of ballast for MG is 
D = 3.5m

2.29 A C
S
1.83  E
F
IE
CL CL
Ballast for MG track
Crossing number = 12
142. Which one of the following statement is
correct? cot  = 12
(a) The radius of transition raises from infinity
to a selected minimum in order to attain From ABC ,
f ull super-elev ation and curv ature G
gradually cos =
BC
(b) The compound curve is an arc of circle
 CF = BF – BC = (D – G) – G sec 
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
From CEF , Directions:
Each of the next Six (06) items consists of two
CF
tan  = statements, one labelled as the ‘Statement (I)’ and
FE the other as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine
 FE = CF cot  these two statements carefully and select the
answers to these items using the codes given
R
=  D  G   G sec   cot  below:
Codes:
 2 
TE
=  D  G   G 1  tan   N (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and statement (II) is the
2 correct explanation of Statement (I).
= D  G N  G 1  N
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT
 DE =  3.5  112  1 1  12 2  18 m
the correct explanation of Statement (I).
AS
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
144. Which one of the following is the correct
false.
standard for provision of curves on railway
track? (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
true.
(a) Cant excess on B.G. shall not be allowed
to exceed 105 mm 145. Statement (I): Finer grinding of cement results
M
in early development of strength.

(b) Minimum radius of vertical curves for
Statement(II): The finer the cement, the higher
group A, Broad Gauge track is 4000 m
is the rate of hydration.
(c) The minimum value of superelevation
Ans. (a)
1
S
according to Railway Board is th of 146. Statement (I): Pozzolana is added to cement

10
gauge to increase early strength.
Statement (II): It reduces the heat of
(d) The speed potential of curve is given by
IE
hydration.
V2
f ormula E = where E is Ans. (d)
127 R
Sol. Pozzolana lower the rate of development of
superelevation in mm.
strength but ultimate strength is comparable
Ans. (b) with ordinary portland cement.
Sol. 147. Statement (I): Coarser the particles, less is
 Cant excess  75 mm optimum moisture contant.
Statement (II): The specific surface area of
1 1
 th to th is the range of maximum coarser particle is less.
10 12
superelevation. Ans. (a)
Sol. Coarser particles have less optimum moisture
GV 2
 Correct equation is E = . content because specific surface area of
127 R
coarser particles are less.
CIVIL ENGINEERING
SET - A
Detailed Solution
148. Statement (I): A reverse curve consists of two the contours will come too close for plotting
arcs with their centres of curvature on opposite due to the steep slope.
sides of the curve. Ans. (c)
Statement (II): Superelevation can be Sol. Contour interval depends on following factors:
provided conveniently at the intersection point 1. Scale of map
of the two arcs. 2. Purpose of map
Ans. (c) 3. nature of ground
Sol. There will be no super-elevation at the 4. Time
R
intersection of two reverse curve. 5. Fund
A O2 For flat ground, countour interval is small, but
O1
E
B
F
TE
150.
for steep slope contour interval is large.
Statement (I): Geodetic survey cannot be

done for works requiring high precision.
Statement (II): The curvature of earth is
accounted for measurements in Geodetic
AS
The outertrack AB will be higher than DE for survey.
one curve whereas in another curve the track
Ans. (d)
EF will be higher than BC.
Sol. Geodetic survey accounts for curvature of
149. Statement (I): The counter interval depends
earth whereas plane surveying considers earth
upon the nature of the ground whether it is
as flat.
undulating or flat.
M
For survey works requiring high precision has

Statement (II): In a hilly terrain or undulating
to be done by Geodetic survey.
ground a smaller interval is adopted, otherwise
S
IE

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CIVIL ENGINEERING

5. Consider the following data for concrete with

4368 (b) Mass concreting works

500 g of cement with water cement ratio of

(c) Ransom stone (d) Victoria stone

The strain energy U stored due to bending of

A steel bar 2 m long, 20 mm wide and 15 mm

0.3, its diameter as per maximum principal  d  12.8 mm

Ans. (a) values of E = 200 GN/m2 and  0.3, the

2  0.3 60  48  48  ( 36)  ( 36)(60)  128 WR3n 64 WR2n

(c)   xx   yy (d)  xx  yy T = (W.R)

Ans. (d) L =  2R  n

22. A closely-coiled helical spring of round steel

  24 mm (a) 5.1 MPa (b) 6.3 MPa

max = 5.09 MPa

100mm max = 3.6 MPa

28. A simply supported of span 8 m carries a

By using equilibrium equation

Let support “C” yield by "  " amount   14.93 mm

w 29. A cantilever beam ACB has end A fixed and

From area moment theorem,

A1 =      at 2 m apart move on the span of girder of

2  at a section of 6 m from the left end will be

Natural cycle frequency fn 

35. A cable carrying a load of 10 kN/m run of

Ans. (c) Tmax =

38. Hanger connections are made when

2. Geometric variations of columns

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only

(a) The available length of structural steel Ans. (b)

4. Failure by combined twisting and bending

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

3. Failure by lateral torsional buckling.  8 

For plastic and compact section   1 a a

the modulus of elasticity have different

So, bending moment =

is mentioned} 1. The factor of safety against sliding should

less than the bearing capacity of the soil

compression for limit state of collapse is

(a) 0.8 N/mm2 (b) 1.1 N/mm2 bar whichever is more.

Sol. Width, b = 200 mm diameter of such bar.

fck  4.6M  61. In an excavation of 3,000 cub.mtr of common

duration of excavation activity will be

(c) 7 days (d) 8 days

Develope schedule Stakeholder management plan 2. the start of a following activity

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Sol. Measurement Book (M.B.): Measurement of It only affects concerned activity.

Subcontractor cost cost

(a) An optimization and economical utilization

(b) An adjustment of resources without

(c) A gradual increase in resources.  Lost productivity

When speed changes in case of centrifugal

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (d)

Angles 1 and  2 will change. Velocity of sound = kRT

77. When the drag force becomes equal to the

(c) Specific energy is asymptotic to the y

Sol. Statement (b)  wrong, as potential energy

is asymptotic to horizontal axis.

Thus, when the specific energy is minimum

at inlet and directly proportional to net

further moisture, and is defined by the relation

e s into the well

Ans. (a) Ans. (c)