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2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

1. All of the following statements are true regarding positional changes of teeth following posterior
tooth loss except one, which one is the exception?

a. Protrusive interferences are more prevalent when the site of tooth loss is bounded
b. Working side interferences are associated with tipping of teeth mesial to the site of
tooth loss
c. One type of interference is predominant when there are unopposed posterior teeth
d. Unopposed posterior teeth are likely to be involved with retruded contact position
interferences

Occlusion Answer: C
Reference: Craddock HL. Occlusal Changes Following Posterior Tooth Loss in Adults. Part
3. A Study of Clinical Parameters Associated with the Presence of Occlusal Interferences
Following Posterior Tooth Loss. J Prosthodont 2008;17:25-30.

2. A bending overload leading to implant fracture is most prevalent when:

a. implants are shorter than 8mm.


b. implants replace cuspids.
c. they are splinted.
d. there are cantilevered pontics.

Implants Answer: D
Reference: Rangert B, Krogh PH, Langer B, Van Roekel N. Bending overload and implant
fracture: a retrospective clinical analysis. Int J Oral Maxillofac Implants 1995;10:326–34.

3. When comparing the effect of different clasp designs on masticatory performance in Kennedy
CIass I or II removable partial dentures, it has been shown that:

a. bar clasps allow better mastication.


b. circumferential clasps allow better mastication.
c. there are no differences between bar and circumferential clasps.
d. bar clasps are better with hard foods.

PRDP Answer: C
Reference: Kapur KK, Garrett NR, Dent RJ, Hasse AL. A randomized clinical trial of two
basic removable partial denture designs. Part II: Comparisons of masticatory scores. J
Prosthet Dent 1997;78:15-21.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

4. Adaptation of removable partial denture rests to its intended surface occurs __________% of
the time.

a. 0-20
b. 20-30
c. 30-40
d. 40-50
e. 50-60

PRDP Answer: B
Reference: Dunham D, Brudvik JS, Morris WJ, Plummer KD, Cameron SM. A clinical
investigation of the fit of removable partial dental prosthesis clasp assemblies. J Prosthet
Dent 2006;95:323–6.

5. Which ingredient in denture cleansers may cause a severe allergic reaction?

a. Zinc
b. Persulfate
c. Peanut oil
d. Nickel

Other Answer: B
Reference: Felton DA et al. Evidence-based guidelines for the care and maintenance of
complete dentures. JADA 2011;142(2 suppl):1S-20S.

6. In a 5-year cephalometric study of mandibular dentures, it was determined that ridge resorption
was greatest following use of a ____________ posterior occlusal tooth form.

a. Anatomic
b. Semi-anatomic
c. Non-anatomic

CRDP Answer: C
Reference: Woelfel JB, Winter CM, Igarashi T. Five-year cephalometric study of
mandibular ridge resorption with different posterior occlusal forms. Part I. Denture
construction and initial comparison. J Prosthet Dent 1976;36:602-23.

Winter CM, Woelfel JB, Igarashi T. Five year changes in the edentulous mandible as
determined on oblique cephalometric radiographs. J Dent Res 1974;53:1455-64.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

7. All the following statements regarding Denosumab’s (DB) effect on medication related
osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ) are true except for one, which one is the exception?

a. DB demonstrated an equal or greater capacity to suppress bone turnover compared


with bisphosphonates
b. Combined with other risk factors, DB may favor the development of MRONJ
c. Use of removable appliances while taking DB may favor MRONJ
d. DB is associated with a lower risk of MRONJ in comparison with bisphosphonates

Pharm Answer: D

Reference: Boquete-Castro A, Gómez-Moreno G, Calvo-Guirado JL, Aguilar-Salvatierra


A, Delgado-Ruiz RA. Denosumab and osteonecrosis of the jaw. A systematic analysis of
events reported in clinical trials. Clin Oral Implants Res 2016;27:367-75. doi:
10.1111/clr.12556. Epub 2015 Feb 2.

8. All of the following are true regarding molar replacement with an RPD versus no replacement
(shortened dental arch) except one, which one is the exception?

a. No significant difference in tooth loss


b. No significant difference in the risk for TMD
c. Shortened dental arch posed an increased risk for TMD
d. Technical complications are more frequent for the RPD group

Occlusion Answer: C

References: Walter MH, Hannak W, Kern M, Mundt T, Gernet W, Weber A, Wöstmann B,


Stark H, Werner D, Hartmann S, Range U, Jahn F, Passia N, Pospiech P, Mitov G, Brückner
J, Wolfart S, Busche E, Luthardt RG, Heydecke G, Marré B. The randomized shortened
dental arch study: Tooth loss over five years. Clin Oral Investig 2013;17:877-86. doi:
10.1007/s00784-012-0761-x. Epub 2012 Jun 26.

Reissmann DR, Heydecke G, Schierz O, Marré B, Wolfart S, Strub JR, Stark H, Pospiech P,
Mundt T, Hannak W, Hartmann S, Wöstmann B, Luthardt RG, Böning KW, Kern M, Walter
MH. The randomized shortened dental arch study: temporomandibular disorder pain. Clin
Oral Investig 2014;18:2159-69. doi: 10.1007/s00784-014-1188-3. Epub 2014 Jan 23.

Wolfart S, Marré B, Wöstmann B, Kern M, Mundt T, Luthardt RG, Huppertz J, Hannak W,


Reiber T, Passia N, Heydecke G, Reinhardt W, Hartmann S, Busche E, Mitov G, Stark H,
Pospiech P, Weber A, Gernet W, Walter MH. The randomized shortened dental arch study:
5-year maintenance. J Dent Res 2012;91:65S-71S.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

9. Which factor does not influence the fit of direct retainers on removable partial dentures over
time?
a. Type of clasp
b. Type of opposing dentition
c. Type of RPD
d. Type of jaw (maxilla or mandible)

PRDP Answer: D
Reference: Keltjens et al. Fit of direct retainers in removable partial dentures after 8 years
of use. J Oral Rehabil 1997;24:138-42.

10. Which of the following statements is not true when comparing a Shortened Dental Arch (SDA)
with a bilateral distal extension mandibular removable partial denture (D-RPD)?

a. SDA exhibits similar masticatory performance as a D-RPD


b. SDA exhibits lower occlusal force/occlusal contact area compared with a D-RPD
c. SDA is an acceptable alternative if there are four symmetrically located functional
units
d. No correlation exists between functional premolars and masticatory performance

PRDP Answer: D
Reference: Aras K, Hasanreisoğlu U, Shinogaya T. Masticatory performance, maximum
occlusal force, and occlusal contact in patients with bilaterally missing molars and distal
extension removable partial dentures. Int J Prosthodont 2009;22:204-9.

11. Which of the following is true regarding the clinical evaluation of removable partial dentures
with I-bar retainers?

a. Insufficient reduction of the occlusal rest seat results in distortion of the clasp
assembly
b. Retention is compromised when I-bar retainers are not in contact with the teeth
c. Patients are able to maintain adequate to good oral hygiene
d. I-bar retainers frequently do not contact teeth

PRDP Answer: D
Reference: Benson D, Spolsky V. A clinical evaluation of removable partial dentures with I-
bar retainers. Part I. J Prosthet Dent 1979;41:246-54.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

12. All of the following statements regarding components of an RPD clasp assembly are true except
one, which one is the exception?

a. Multiple suprabulge contacts exacerbate misfit of the clasp assembly


b. Most retentive arm tips do not contact the intended surface
c. No significant difference for fit between tooth-tissue supported and tooth-
supported frameworks
d. Most occlusal rests do not contact the intended surfaces

PRDP Answer: B
Reference: Dunham D, Brudvik JS, Morris J, Plummer KD, Cameron SM. A clinical
investigation of the fit of removable partial dental prosthesis clasp assemblies. J
Prosthet Dent 2006;95:323-26.

13. Which of the following statements is true regarding oral health-related quality of life scores in
subjects with shortened dental arches (SDA) restored with removable partial dentures?

a. Showed higher scores than non-restored SDA group


b. Showed lower scores than non-restored SDA group
c. Showed improved scores until 3-year follow-up
d. Scores were not significantly different among the groups

PRDP Answer: D

Reference: Wolfart S1, Müller F, Gerß J, Heyedcke G, Marré B, Böning K, Wöstmann B,


Kern M, Mundt T, Hannak W, Brückner J, Passia N, Jahn F, Hartmann S, Stark H, Richter
EJ, Gernet W, Luthardt RG, Walter MH. The randomized shortened dental arch study:
Oral health-related quality of life. Clin Oral Investig 2014;18:525-33.

14. Which of the following statements is false regarding usage of RPDs?

a. Composition of dental plaque may change


b. Periodontal health of the remaining dentition can be maintained
c. Recalls and prosthetic maintenance are essential to a good long-term prognosis
d. In vitro studies have determined the ideal RPD design

PRDP Answer: D
Reference: Petridis H, Hempton T. Periodontal consideration in removable partial denture
treatment: A review of the literature. Int J Prosthodont 2001;14:164-72.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

15. Implants placed into sites with compromised buccal walls tend to exhibit _________.

a. Greater peri-implant vertical bone resorption


b. Greater peri-implant horizontal bone resorption
c. Less mucosal recession
d. High success rate

Implants Answer: B
Reference: Chen ST, Darby IB, Reynolds EC. A prospective clinical study of non-submerged
immediate implants: Clinical outcomes and esthetic results. Clin Oral Implants Res
2007;18:552–62.

16. Which of the following is true regarding diamond rotary cutting tool-adjustments made on the
intaglio surface of IPS e.max Press restorations?

a. Post-adjustment glazing repairs damage and improves mechanical properties


b. Post-adjustment glazing has no effect on mechanical properties
c. Adhesive bonding restores much of the lost strength
d. Diamond adjustment has no effect on mechanical properties

Materials Answer: A
Reference: Ramadhan A, Thompson GA, Maroulakis G, Berzins D. Analysis of flexural
strength and contact pressure after simulated chairside adjustment of pressed lithium
disilicate glass-ceramic. J Prosthet Dent 2018;120:439-46.

17. Which of the following metals may be released as a corrosion product when a patient has
gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD) and wears a cast base metal removable prosthesis?

a. Sodium
b. Silver
c. Chromium
d. Cadmium

Materials Answer: C
Reference: Borg W, Cassar G, Camilleri L, Attard N, Camilleri J. Surface microstructural
changes and release of ions from dental metal alloy removable prostheses in patients
suffering from acid reflux. J Prosthodont 2018;27:115-9.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

18. Oral health-related quality of life with a 1-implant retained mandibular overdenture is
_____________ compared to a 2-implant retained mandibular overdenture.

a. higher
b. the same
c. lower

CRDP Answer: B
Reference: Bryant SR et al. A 5-year randomized trial to compare 1 or 2 implants for
implant overdentures. J Dent Res 2015;94:36-43.

19. Implant survival rate of a 1-implant retained mandibular overdenture is ____________


compared to a 2-implant retained mandibular overdenture.

a. higher
b. the same
c. lower

CRDP Answer: B
Reference: Bryant SR et al. A 5-year randomized trial to compare 1 or 2 implants for
implant overdentures. J Dent Res 2015;94:36-43.

20. Progression of bone loss over time due to peri-implantitis is observed to be:

a. late onset (>5 years).


b. linear.
c. accelerating.
d. static.

Perio Answer: C
Reference: Derks J et al. Peri-implantitis -onset and pattern of progression. J Clin
Periodontol 2016;43:383-8.

21. Select the correct statement about poly(methyl methacrylate) denture base resin.

a. Possess high thermal conductivity


b. Soluble in organic solvents
c. Possess high abrasion resistance
d. Are a thermosetting resin

Materials Answer: B
Reference: Zarb GA, Hobkirk J, Eckert S, and Jacob R. Prosthodontic Treatment for
Edentulous Patients: Complete Dentures and Implant-Supported Prostheses. 13th ed.
Mosby, Inc. 2013. Page 137.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

22. What is observed when comparing the marginal gap of milled lithium-disilicate crowns in the
pre-crystallization to the post-crystallization state?

a. Significantly greater gap following crystallization


b. No difference following crystallization
c. Significantly smaller gap following crystallization
d. Post-crystallization gap is not clinically acceptable

Materials Answer: A
Reference: Gold AS, Ferracane JL, et al. Effects of crystallization firing on marginal gap of
CAD/CAM fabricated lithium disilicate crowns. J Prosthodont 2018;20:63-6.

23. During normal wound healing, a decrease in implant stability is observed after ________ weeks:

a. 2-4
b. 6-8
c. 10-12
d. 48-52

Wound healing Answer: A


Reference: Berglundh T, Abrahamsson I, Lang NP, Lindhe J. De novo alveolar bone
formation adjacent to endosseous implants. Clin Oral Implants Res 2003;14:251-62.

24. When the cantilever length to anterior-posterior spread ratio is _______, negligible technical
complications may be observed with complete arch, fixed-detachable restorations made with
milled titanium and acrylic resin retained denture teeth.

a. <1
b. >1
c. =1

Implants Answer: A
Reference: Drago C. Ratios of cantilever lengths and anterior-posterior spreads of
definitive hybrid full-arch, screw-retained prostheses: Results of a clinical study. J
Prosthodont 2018;27:402-8.

25. Cracks originating from the intaglio surface of a tooth supported monolithic ceramic restoration
are due to which type of stress?

a. Compressive
b. Tensile
c. Hoop
d. Von Mises

Materials Answer: B
Reference: Kelly JR. Ceramics in Dentistry, Principles and Practice., Hanover Park, IL,
Quintessence, 2016, p. 18.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

26. The Average Effective Dose of a large field of view CBCT is approximately________ times greater
than a conventional full mouth radiographic survey using optimum parameters?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Diagnosis Answer: D
References:

1. Ludlow JB, Davies-Ludlow LE, White SC. Patient risk related to common dental
radiographic examinations: the impact of 2007 International Commission on
Radiological Protection recommendations regarding dose calculation. J Am Dent Assoc
2008;139:1237-43.
2. American Dental Association Council on Scientific Affairs. The use of cone-beam
computed tomography in dentistry: an advisory statement from the American Dental
Association Council on Scientific Affairs. J Am Dent Assoc 2012;143:899-902.
3. Pauwels R, et al. Effective dose range for dental cone beam computed tomography
scanners. Eur J Radiol 2012;81:267-71. doi: 10.1016/j.ejrad.2010.11.028. Epub 2010 Dec
31.
4. Ludlow JB, et al. Comparative dosimetry of dental CBCT devices and 64-slice CT for oral
and maxillofacial radiology. Oral Surg Oral Med Oral Pathol Oral Radiol Endod
2008;106:106-14. doi: 10.1016/j.tripleo.2008.03.018. Epub 2008 May 27.

27. To avoid complications from mandibular flexure, a mandibular implant supported restoration
with implants distal to the mental foramina should always be made in sections.

a. The first statement is true, but the second is false


b. The first statement is false, but the second is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

Anatomy Answer: A
References: Bidez MW, Misch CE. The biomechanics of interim-implant spacing.
Proceedings of the 4th International Congress of Implant and Biomaterials in Stomatology,
Charleston, SC, May 24-25, 1990.

Misch, CE, et.al, Dental Implant Prosthetics, St. Louis, Elsevier Mosby, 2015, p. 291.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

28. A patient with a history of non-painful click in the left TMJ now reports limited mouth opening
(< 25 mm). The most likely diagnosis would be:

a. Osteoarthritis
b. Myospasm
c. Myofascial pain
d. Disc dislocation without reduction

Diagnosis Answer: D
Reference: Okeson JP. Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion, St.
Louis, Elsevier Mosby, 2013, p 243.

29. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding evaluation of the OVD during the
trial insertion appointment?

a. Evaluated using sibilant sounds


b. Evaluated by amount of inter-occlusal distance
c. There should be slight separation of the anterior teeth during sibilant sounds
d. There should be contact between opposing teeth during speech

CRDP Answer: D
Reference: Rahn AO, Ivanhoe JR, Plummer KD. Textbook of Complete Dentures. Shelton,
CT, People’s Medical Publishing House, 2009, p 219.

30. An arbitrary hinge axis that is ________ to its actual location produces errors of greater
magnitude at the occlusal level between articulated casts?

a. Superior or inferior
b. Anterior or posterior
c. Medial or lateral

Occlusion Answer: A
Reference: Zuckerman GR. The geometry of the arbitrary hinge axis as it relates to the
occlusion. J Prosthet Dent 1982;48:725-33.

31. All of the following are etiologic factors for dental erosion except one, which one is the
exception?

a. Acidogenic and proteolytic bacteria


b. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
c. Gingival crevicular fluid
d. Using teeth to hold foreign objects

Pathology Answer: D
Reference: Grippo JO, Simring M, Schreiner S. Attrition, abrasion, corrosion and abfraction
revisited: A new perspective on tooth surface lesions. J Am Dent Assoc 2004;135:1109-18.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

32. All the following are true regarding advantages of a segmental or quadrant approach to full
mouth rehabilitation except one, which one is the exception?

a. Control over appointment length


b. Control over vertical dimension of occlusion
c. Anesthesia by quadrant if desired
d. Freedom in creating occlusal scheme

FDP Answer: D
Reference: Binkley TK, Binkley CJ. A practical approach to full mouth rehabilitation. J
Prosthet Dent 1987;57:261-6.

33. All of the following are desirable qualities of a resilient denture liner except one, which one is
the exception?

a. High water solubility


b. Low water sorption
c. High viscoelasticity
d. Color stability

Materials Answer: A
Reference: Zarb GA, Hobkirk J, Eckert S, and Jacob R. Prosthodontic Treatment for
Edentulous Patients: Complete Dentures and Implant-Supported Prostheses. 13th ed.
Mosby, Inc. 2013. Page 147.

34. Which of the following is associated with a decreased risk in implant failure?

a. Surgical complications
b. Alveoloplasty
c. Socket preservation
d. Multiple medical conditions

Implant surgery Answer: B


Reference: Carr AB, Arwani N, Lohse CM, Gonzalez RLV, Muller OM, Salina TJ. Early
implant failure associated with patient factors, surgical manipulations, and systemic
conditions. J Prosthodont 2018 Oct 22. doi: 10.1111/jopr.12978. [Epub ahead of print].

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

35. Which of the following is the most common peri-implant complication?

a. Fenestration / dehiscence
b. Gingival inflammation
c. Fistula
d. Pain

Perio Answer: A
Reference: Goodacre CJ, Bernal G, et al. Clinical complications with implants and implant
prostheses. J Prosthet Dent 2003;90:121-32.

36. Which of the following is NOT one of the four most frequently used criteria for measuring
success of dental implants?

a. Implant fixtures
b. Peri-implant soft-tissue
c. Integration time
d. Patient subjective evaluation

Implants Answer: C
Reference: Papaspyradakos P, Chen C-J, Singh M, Weber HP, Gallucci GO. Success criteria
in implant dentistry: A systematic review. J Dent Res 2012;91:242-8.

37. All of the following are true regarding metal and fiber post and cores except one, which one is
the exception?

a. Incidence of root fractures observed among metal and fiber posts is similar
b. Metal and fiber posts have similar survival rates
c. Cast metal posts have an increased rate of root fracture compared with prefab metal
posts
d. Fiber posts mainly fail due to loss of post retention

FDP Answer: C
Reference: Figueiredo FE, Martins-Filho PR, Faria-E-Silva AL. Do metal post-retained
restorations result in more root fractures than fiber post-retained restorations? A
systematic review and meta-analysis. J Endod 2015;41:309-16.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

38. What is the most common biologic complication associated with fixed partial dentures on
natural teeth?

a. Caries
b. Irreversible pulpitis
c. Periodontal disease
d. Tooth fracture

FDP Answer: A
Reference: Goodacre CJ, Bernal G, Rungcharassaeng K, Kan JY. Clinical complications in
fixed prosthodontics. J Prosthet Dent 2003;90:31-41.

39. What is the most common complication associated with resin-bonded Maryland Bridges?

a. Tooth discoloration
b. Caries
c. Prosthesis debonding
d. Porcelain fracture

FDP Answer: C
Reference: Goodacre CJ, Bernal G, Rungcharassaeng K, Kan JY. Clinical complications in
fixed prosthodontics. J Prosthet Dent 2003;90:31-41.

40. Where does an endocrown restoration obtain its retention and resistance form from?

a. Pulp chamber
b. Intra-radicular post
c. Occlusal reduction
d. Marginal design

FDP Answer: A
Reference: Sedrez-Porto JA, da Rosa WL, da Silva AF, et al. Endocrown restorations: A
systematic review and meta-analysis. J Dent 2016;52:8-14.

41. All of the following are correct regarding autotransplantation of a tooth except one, which one
is the exception?

a. Suitable option for adult patients


b. Can be moved orthodontically
c. Allows normal proprioception
d. Preserves alveolar bone volume

Other Answer: A
Reference: Ong D, Itskovich Y, Dance G. Autotransplantation: A viable treatment option
for adolescent patients with significantly compromised teeth. Austral Dent J 2016;61:396-
407.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

42. Which of the following statements best describes lingualized occlusion for complete dentures?

a. Most time consuming and complex posterior tooth occlusion to set


b. Hardest occlusal concept for patients with uncoordinated closure to adapt to
c. Occludes on only the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth
d. Poorest scores in chewing tests when comparing different occlusal set ups

CRDP Answer: C

Reference: Zarb G, Hobkirk J, Eckert S, Jacob R. Prosthodontic treatment for edentulous


patients. 13th edition, Chapter 10, Table 10.2. Page 216.

43. What is the minimum labial bone thickness required for maintaining the height of the alveolar
crest following atraumatic tooth extraction?

a. 1mm
b. 2mm
c. 3mm
d. 4mm

Anatomy Answer: B
Reference: AlTarawneh S, et al. Assessment of bone dimensions in the anterior maxilla: A
cone beam computed tomography study. J Prosthodont 2018;27:321-8.

44. All of the following are advantages of a CBCT except one, which one is the exception?

a. High resolution
b. Accurate
c. Multiplanar
d. Low radiation dosage

Diagnosis Answer: D
Reference: AlTarawneh S, et al. Assessment of bone dimensions in the anterior maxilla: A
cone beam computed tomography study. J Prosthodont 2018;27:321-8.

45. Patients who experience modifications in their sense of taste while wearing dentures tend to
prefer which basic taste?

a. Bitter
b. Salty
c. Sour
d. Sweet

Other Answer: D
Reference: Tango et al. The role of new removable complete dentures in stimulated
salivary flow and taste perceptions. J Prosthodont 2018;27:335-9.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

46. All of the following are true regarding cementation of dental restorations on implants except
one, which one is the exception?

a. The composition of the peri-implant bacterial profile is affected by type of cement


b. Type of cement influences development of suppuration
c. Type of cement influences accumulation of oral pathogens
d. Careful removal of cement prevents accumulation of oral pathogens

Implants Answer: D
Reference: Korsch M, Marten SM, Dotsch A, Jauregui R, Pieper DH, Obst U. Effect of
dental cements on peri-implant microbial community: comparison of the microbial
communities inhabiting the peri-implant tissue when using different luting cements. Clin
Oral Implants Res 2016;27:e161-6.

47. All of the following are true regarding obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) and mandibular
advancement devices (MAD) except one, which one is the exception?

a. Improvement in the apnea-hypopnea index is proportional to mandibular advancement


b. Mandibular advancement devices are an important alternative to those unable to wear
CPAP
c. A well-known morbidity of MAD is tooth movement
d. Short-term control of OSA is predictive of adherence to long-term treatment

Other Answer: A
References: Attali V, Chaumereuil C, Arnulf I, Golmard J-L, Tordjman F, Morin L, et al.
Predictors of long-term effectiveness to mandibular repositioning device treatment in
obstructive sleep apnea patients after 1000 days. Sleep Med 2016;27-28:107-14.

Bartolucci ML, Bortolotti F, Raffaelli, D’Anto V, et al. The effectiveness of different


mandibular advancement amounts in OSA patients: a systematic review and meta-
regression analysis. Sleep Breath 2016; Sleep Breath 2016;20:911-9.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

48. All of the following are true regarding sleep bruxism except one, which one is the exception?

a. Has a positive association with caffeine, tobacco and alcohol use


b. Has a definitive association with obstructive sleep apnea
c. May be heritable
d. Poor sleep quality and pain are observed in a significant number of patients

Other Answer B
References: Saito M, Yamaguchi T, Mikami S, Watanabe K, Gotouda A, Okada K, et al.
Weak association between sleep bruxism and obstructive sleep apnea. A sleep laboratory
study. Sleep Breath 2016;20:703-9.

Bertazzo-Silveira E, Kruger CM, De Toledo IP, Dick B, Flores-Mir C, et al. Association


between sleep bruxism and alcohol, caffeine, tobacco, and drug abuse. A systematic
review. J Am Dent Assoc 2016;147:859-66.

Khoury S, Carra MC, Huynh N, Montplaisir J, Lavigne GJ. Sleep bruxism tooth grinding
prevalence, characteristics and familial aggregation: a large cross-sectional survey and
polysomnographic validation. Sleep 2016;39:2049-56.

49. All of the following are true regarding juvenile idiopathic arthritis involving one or both TMJs
except one, which one is the exception?

a. Affected children have a prognathic mandible


b. Facial characteristics of the disease are lessened with unilateral involvement
c. Affected children have severe growth disturbances
d. Early intervention is recommended

Pathology Answer: A
Reference: Hsieh Y-J, Darvann TA, Hermann NV, Larsen P, Liao Y-F, Bjoern-Joergensen J, et
al. Facial morphology in children and adolescents with juvenile idiopathic arthritis and
moderate to severe temporomandibular joint involvement. Am J Orthod Dentofacial
Orthop 2016;149:182-91.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

50. Which of the following factors is not associated with denture stomatitis in patients with stable,
retentive, well-maintained dentures that are in good occlusion?

a. Low salivary pH
b. Frequent carbohydrate consumption
c. Presence of oral yeasts
d. Alcohol consumption

Pathology Answer: D
References: Martori E, Ayuso-Montero R, Willaert E, Vinas M, Peraire M, Martinez-Gomis
J. Status of removable dentures and relationship with oral Candida associated factors in a
geriatric population in Catalonia. J Prosthodont 2017;26:370-5.

Yitschaky O, Katorza A, Zini A, Yitschaky M, Zadik Y. Acrylic orthodontic retainer is not a


risk factor for focal Candida colonization in young healthy patients: a pilot study. Oral Surg
Oral Med Oral Pathol Oral Radiol 2016;121:39-42.

51. All of the following are observed in patients with an implant-supported fixed complete
prostheses in both jaws compared with individuals with an intact natural dentition, except one,
which one is the exception?

a. Diminished vertical and lateral jaw movement


b. Less accurate control of mandibular movement
c. More irregular pattern of mandibular motion during function
d. Slippage of food off the occlusal table

Occlusion Answer: A
Reference: Grigoriadis J, Trulsson M, Svensson KG. Motor behavior during the first
chewing cycle in subjects with fixed tooth- or implant-supported prostheses. Clin Oral Impl
Res 2016;27:473-80.

52. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of surface detoxification/decontamination of


titanium dental implants with topically applied antimicrobial chemotherapeutic agents?

a. Release of titanium particles


b. Surface corrosion and pitting
c. Optimization of physicochemical surface properties
d. Affects osteoblastic response

Perio Answer: C
References: Kotsakis GA, Lan C, Barbosa J, Lill K, Chen R, Rudney J, et al. Antimicrobial
agents used in the treatment of peri-implantitis alter the physicochemistry and
cytocompatibility of titanium surfaces. J Periodontol 2016;87:809-19.

Wheelis SE, Gindri IM, Valderrama P, Wilson TG Jr, Huang J, Rodrigues DC. Effects of
decontamination solutions on the surface of titanium: investigation of surface
morphology, composition, and roughness. Clin Oral Implants Res 2016;27:329-40.

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2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

53. Absence of keratinized soft tissue adjacent to mandibular posterior implants, in healthy or
moderately periodontally compromised patients may result in all of the following except one,
which one is the exception?

a. More plaque accumulation


b. Greater soft tissue recession
c. No consequence when hygiene is adequate
d. Additional surgeries

Perio Answer: C
Reference: Roccuzzo M, Grasso G, Dalmasso P. Keratinized mucosa around implants in
partially edentulous posterior mandible: 10-year results of a prospective comparative
study. Clin Oral Implants Res 2016;27:491-6.

54. All of the following are true regarding survival and complication rate of three-unit tooth
supported fixed partial dentures compared with implant supported single crowns except one,
which one is the exception?

a. The economic burden of tooth supported FDPs are less


b. There is no significant difference in survival rate of single posterior implants and
posterior 3-unit bridges
c. Survival rate of single anterior implants is greater than anterior 3-unit bridges
d. Complication rates are similar

FDP Answer: A
Reference: Walton TR. An up-to-15 year comparison of the survival and complication
burden of three-unit tooth-supported dental prostheses and implant-supported single
crowns. Int J Oral Max Implants 2015;30:851-61.

55. All of the following are true regarding a comparison of amalgam and composite restorations in
posterior teeth except one, which one is the exception?

a. Failure rate of amalgam is twice as great


b. Secondary caries rate of composite is twice as great
c. No difference in fracture rates
d. No difference in adverse effects

Materials Answer: A
Source: Alcaraz MGR, Veitz-Keenan A, Sahrmann P, Schmidlin PR, Davis D, Iheozor-Ejiofor
Z. Direct composite resin fillings versus amalgam fillings for permanent or adult posterior
teeth. The Cochrane Collaboration. John Wiley & Sons, 2014.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

56. Which porcelain veneering technique for zirconia based restorations shows superior shade
reproducibility?

a. Digital
b. Layering
c. Overpressing
d. Spraying

Esthetics Answer: B
Reference: Al-Wahadni A, et al. An in vitro investigation of veneered zirconia-based
restorations shade reproducibility. J Prosthodont 2018;27:347-54.
https://doi.org/10.1111/jopr.12489

57. What is the mean height of the papillae between two adjacent implants that forms over the
interimplant crest of bone?

a. 1-2 mm
b. 2-3 mm
c. 3-4 mm
d. 4-5 mm

Esthetics Answer: C
Reference: Tarnow D, Elian N, Fletcher P, Froum S, Magner A, Cho S-C, Salama M, Salama
H, Garber D. Vertical distance from the crest of bone to the height of the interproximal
papilla between adjacent implants. J Periodont 2003;74;1785-8.

58. Which of the following components must be present in bonding agents to improve bonding of
zirconia restorations?

a. Activator
b. Monomer
c. Primer
d. Silane

Materials Answer: C
Reference: Michaud PL, Brown M. Effect of universal adhesive etching modes on bond
strength to dual-polymerizing composite resins. J Prosthet Dent 2018; 119:657-62.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

59. All of the following belong to the House classification of complete denture patients except one,
which one is the exception?

a. Philosophical
b. Critical
c. Indifferent
d. Hysterical

Other Answer: B
Reference: Gamer S, Tuch R, Garcia LT. MM House mental classification revisited:
Intersection of particular patient types and particular dentist's needs. J Prosthet Dent
2003;89:297-302.

60. Which of the following does not describe the statistical term “power”?

a. Equals the probability of rejecting a false null hypothesis


b. Procedure for determining study’s sample size
c. Necessary for controlling type I and type II errors
d. Calculated as (1 – α type I error)

EBD Answer: D
References: Daniel W, Biostatistics: A Foundation for Analysis in the Health Sciences, John
Wiley & Sons, 6th ed., 1995, pp. 253-259.

Melnyk BM, Fineout-Overholt E: Evidence-based Practice in Nursing & Healthcare,


Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2005, p. 275.

61. All of the following are true regarding placement of implants in irradiated jaws except one,
which one is the exception?

a. Hyperbaric oxygen reduces risk of implant failure


b. Radiotherapy is associated with higher rates of implant loss in the maxilla
c. Radiation dosages > 65 Gy will have detrimental effects on osseointegration
d. Osseointegration of previously installed implants do not appear to be affected by
radiotherapy

Maxillofacial Answer: A
Reference: Chambrone L, Mandia J, Shibli JA, Romito GA, Abrahao M. Dental implants
installed in irradiated jaws: A systematic review. J Dent Res 2013;92:119S–130S.
http://doi.org/10.1177/0022034513504947

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

62. Which of the following factors does not significantly influence the likelihood of fatigue failure of
dental implants?

a. Size
b. Force magnitude
c. Number of cycles
d. Surface characteristics

Materials Answer: D
Reference: Misch C. Contemporary Implant Dentistry, 3rd ed., Mosby Elsevier, 2008, pp.
110, 113-115, 223-225, 554-555.

63. Which of the following is true regarding guided bone regeneration (GBR) of horizontal ridge
deficiencies with particulate graft material and a resorbable collagen membrane?

a. GBR with simultaneous implant placement should be done whenever possible


b. Bovine bone is not a suitable grafting material
c. Non cross-linked membranes show a 30% higher membrane exposure rate
d. Fixation of collagen membrane is not necessary to gain maximal bone width

Perio Answer: A
Reference: Wessing et al. Guided bone regeneration with collagen membranes and
particulate graft materials: a systematic review and meta-analysis. Int J Oral Maxillofac
Impl 2018;33:87-100.

64. Which of the following may aid the clinician in achieving predictable esthetics on dental
implants?

a. Choosing implants with diameters >5mm


b. Restoring superficially placed implants
c. Platform switching restorations
d. Placing definitive restoration as soon as possible

Esthetics Answer: C
Reference: Rodriguez AM, Rosenstiel SF. Esthetic considerations related to bone and soft
tissue maintenance and development around dental implants: Report of the Committee
on Research in Fixed Prosthodontics of the American Academy of Fixed Prosthodontics. J
Prosthet Dent 2012;108:259-67.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

65. All of the following statements are true regarding short dental implants except one, which one is
the exception?

a. May be a better alternative to mandibular vertical bone grafting


b. May be a better alternative to sinus augmentation
c. Are preferably wider to increase bone implant contact
d. Should use a self-tapping protocol

Implants Answer: B
Reference: Sadowsky SJ, Bedrossian E. Evidenced-based criteria for differential treatment
planning of implant restorations for the partially edentulous patient. J Prosthodont
2013;22:319–29.

66. All of the following statements regarding bisphosphonates are true except one, which one is the
exception?

a. Intravenous bisphosphonates accumulate in bone at a far greater rate than oral


bisphosphonates
b. c-terminal telopeptide (CTX) is a reliable test used as the primary biochemical marker
of bone turnover in all patients
c. Potency of bisphosphonates is determined by the nitrogen-containing side chain
d. Bisphosphonates inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption and renewal

Pharm Answer: B
Reference: Marx R. A decade of bisphosphonate bone complications: What it has taught
us about bone physiology. Int J Oral Maxillofac Implants 2014;29:247-58.

67. All of the following regarding oral appliances (OAs) for the treatment of obstructive sleep apnea
are true except one, which one is the exception?

a. OAs should not be used in the treatment of primary snoring


b. Customized appliances are preferred over stock OAs
c. OA therapy should be considered in patients who are intolerant of CPAP
d. OA therapy should include follow up/titration after delivery

Other Answer: A
Reference: Ramar K, Dort LC, Katz SG, Lettieri CJ, Harrod CG, Thomas SM, Chervin RD.
Clinical practice guideline for the treatment of obstructive sleep apnea and snoring with
oral appliance therapy: An update for 2015. J Dent Sleep Med 2015, 1–55.
http://doi.org/10.15331/jdsm.4868.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

68. The most important anatomical feature of the residual ridge for achieving masticatory efficiency
in a complete denture wearer is:

a. Volume
b. Height
c. Basal area
d. Location of mucogingival junction

CRDP Answer: C
Reference: Koshino H, Hirai T, Ishijima T, and Ohtomo K. Influence of mandibular residual
ridge shape on masticatory efficiency in complete denture wearers. Int J Prosthodont
2002;15:295-8.

69. Which systemic medical condition is significantly related to reduction in salivary vascular
endothelial growth factor levels resulting in a higher prevalence of denture stomatitis in
complete denture patients?

a. Fibromyalgia
b. Graves Disease
c. Diabetes Mellitus Type II
d. Hypertension

Pathology Answer: C
Reference: Radovic K, Jugoslav I, et al. Denture stomatitis and salivary vascular endothelial
growth factor in immediate complete denture wearers with diabetes mellitus Type 2. J
Prosthet Dent 2014;111:373-9.

70. Which of the following denture base materials exhibits the highest bond strength with denture
adhesives?

a. SR Ivocap
b. Shade-stable Eclipse
c. Lucitone 199
d. SR IvoBase

Materials Answer: C
Reference: Kore D, Kattadiyil M, Hall D, Bajri K. In vitro comparison of the tensile bond
strength of denture adhesives on denture bases. J Prosthet Dent 2013;110:488-93.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

71. What is the most important feature of a posterior zirconia FDP for decreasing the incidence of
fracture?

a. Connector size
b. Occlusal design
c. Marginal design
d. Translucency

FDP Answer: A
Reference: Salimi H, Mosharraf R, Savabi O. Effect of framework design on fracture
resistance of zirconium oxide posterior fixed partial dentures. Dent Res J 2012;9:764–9.

72. TMD is most associated with which of the following occlusal interferences?

a. Laterotrusive
b. Mediotrusive
c. Protrusive
d. None of the above

TMD Answer: B
Reference: Manfredini D , Lombardo L, Siciliani G. Temporomandibular disorders and
dental occlusion. A systematic review of association studies: End of an era?. J Oral Rehabil
2017;44:908-23.

73. Which properties of base metal alloys alloy them to be used in thinner sections for metal-
ceramic prostheses compared with noble and high noble alloys?

a. High hardness and elastic modulus


b. High hardness and ductility
c. High coefficient of thermal expansion and tarnish resistance
d. High melting temperature and ductility

Materials Answer: A
Reference: Anusavice KJ, Shen C, Rawls HR. Phillips' science of dental materials. Elsevier
Health Sciences, 12th ed., 2013, p 382.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

74. You are considering switching to a new porcelain fused to metal alloy for long span fixed partial
dentures. Which physical property should influence your decision the most?

a. Elastic modulus
b. Hardness
c. Yield strength
d. Fatigue resistance

Materials Answer: C
Reference: Anusavice KJ, Shen C, Rawls HR. Phillips' science of dental materials. Elsevier
Health Sciences, 12th ed., 2013, p 372.

75. What is the most reliable method for assessing passive fit of an implant prosthesis?

a. Disclosing media
b. Sheffield one screw test
c. Radiographs
d. Screw resistance test
e. Combination of methods

Implants Answer: E
Reference: Kan JY, Rungcharassaeng K, Bohsali K, Goodacre CJ, Lang BR. Clinical methods
for evaluating implant framework fit. J Prosthet Dent 1999;81:7-13.

76. All of the following may be risk factors for future carious lesions except one, which one is the
exception?

a. No dental visits for past 6 months


b. Brushing once or less a day
c. Limited snacking
d. Limited exposure to water fluoridation
e. Low socioeconomic status

Other Answer: C
Reference: Featherstone J, Singh S, Curtis D. Caries risk assessment and management for
the prosthodontic patient. J Prosthodont 2011;20:2–9.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

77. All of the following statements are true regarding occlusal rests except one. Which one is FALSE?

a. The floor of the rest seat must be inclined slightly downward from the guide plane
b. It should occupy 1/4 the width of the mesiodistal diameter of the abutment tooth
c. It should occupy 1/2 of the buccolingual width of the tooth measured from cusp tip to
cusp tip
d. Outline form should be triangular

PRDP Answer: B
Reference: Stewart’s Clinical Removable Partial Prosthodontics 3rd ed. Quintessence
Chicago, IL, 2003, pg 47.

78. Which of the following denture cleaning materials has been shown to be the greatest detriment
to the retention of LOCATOR attachments?

a. Efferdent
b. Polident Overnight
c. Sodium hypochlorite
d. Listerine

Other Answer: C
Reference: You, W; Masri, RM; Romberg, E; Driscoll, CF; You, T: The Effect of Denture
Cleansing Solutions on the Retention of Pink Locator Attachments after Multiple Pulls: An
In Vitro Study. J Prosthodont 2011; 20:464-69.

Nguyen, C, Masri, RM, Driscoll, CF, Romberg, E: The Effect of Denture Cleansing Solutions
on the Retention of Pink Locator Attachments: An In vitro Study. J Prosthodont 2010;
19:226-30.

79. All of the following are appropriate clinical application and cement combinations EXCEPT one.
Which one is the exception?

a. Metal ceramic restoration and glass ionomer cement


b. Long term provisionalization and zinc polycarboxylate
c. All ceramic crown and resin modified glass ionomer
d. Complete gold crown and zinc phosphate

Materials Answer: C
Reference: Rosenstiel, S. F., Land, M. F., & Crispin, B. J. Dental luting agents: A review of
the current literature. J Prosthet Dent 1998;80:280-301.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

80. Shimstock occlusal foil is _____ microns in thickness.

a. 1-4
b. 5-7
c. 8-13
d. 20-30

Occlusion Answer: C
Reference: Harper KA, Setchell DJ. The use of shimstock to assess occlusal contacts: a
laboratory study. Inter J Prosthodont 2002;15:347-52.

81. The primary areas of complete denture support of the maxilla are the ____. The primary areas
of complete denture support in the mandible are the ____.

a. Hard palate / buccal shelf and retromolar pad


b. Hard palate / anterior and posterior ridges
c. Residual ridges / buccal shelf and retromolar pad
d. Residual ridges / anterior and posterior ridges

CRDP Answer: A
Reference: Jacobson TE, Krol AJ. A contemporary review of the factors involved in
complete dentures. Part III: support. J Prosthet Dent 1983;49:306-13.

82. Which of the following is TRUE regarding definitive full-arch, screw-retained metal-acrylic hybrid
prostheses and the cantilever length (CL) and anterior/posterior spread (AP) ratio?

a. CL/AP is unrelated to prosthesis complications


b. CL/AP ratio >1 reduces prosthesis complication
c. CL/AP ratio <1 reduces prosthesis complication
d. Distally tilted implants help increase CL/AP ratio

Implants Answer: C

Reference: Drago C. Ratios of cantilever lengths and anterior-


posterior spreads of definitive hybrid full- arch, screw-retained prostheses: Results of
a clinical study. J Prosthodont 2018;27:402-8.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

83. The most common biologic complication related to implant restorations is:

a. Peri-implant mucositis
b. Peri-implantitis
c. Screw fracture
d. Implant fracture

Implants Answer: B
Reference: Papaspyridakos, P, Chun-Jung, C., Sung-Kiang C., Weber, H; Gallucci, GO. A
systematic review of biologic and technical complications with fixed implant
rehabilitations for edentulous patients. Int J Oral Maxillofac Implants 2012;27: 102-10.

84. Insertion instructions for complete dentures should include all of the following except one.
Which one is the exception?

a. Eat soft food and chew bilaterally.


b. 6-8 weeks may be needed for adapting.
c. Excess saliva production is normal.
d. Refrain from denture adhesive use in the first week

CRDP Answer: D
Reference: Goiato M.C,,Filho H.G, Dos Santos, D.M, Barão, V.A, Júnior A.C. Insertion and
follow-up of complete dentures: a literature review. Gerodontology 2011;28:197-204.

85. Which of the following is the most precise technique for recording centric relation:

a. Swallowing or Free closure


b. Chin-point guidance
c. Chin -point guidance with anterior jig
d. Bilateral Manipulation

Other Answer: D
References: Kantor, M.E., Silverman, S.I, Garfinkel, L. ”Centric relation recording
techniques: a comparative investigation. J Prosthet Dent 1973:30:604-6.

Keshvad, A, Winstanley R.B. Comparison of the replicability of routinely used centric


relation registration techniques. J Prosthodont. 2003;12:90-101.

Wilson, P.H, Banerjee, A. Recording the retruded contact position: a review of clinical
techniques. Br Dent J 2004;196:395-402.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

86. The most accurate and reproducible technique for denture base construction is:

a. Compression molding
b. Pour
c. Injection molding
d. Milled

CRDP Answer: D
Reference: Goodacre, B.J, et. al. Comparison of denture base adaptation between CAD-
CAM and conventional fabrication techniques. J Prosthet Dent 2016;116: 249-56.

87. The 5-year survival rates of customized zirconia abutments supporting single-implant crowns in
the canine and posterior region is _____ compared to customized titanium abutments.

a. Higher
b. Similar
c. Lower

Materials Answer: B
Reference: Zembic A, Bösch A, Jung RE, Hämmerle CH, Sailer I. Five-year results of a
randomized controlled clinical trial comparing zirconia and titanium abutments supporting
single-implant crowns in canine and posterior regions. Clin Oral Implants Res 2013;24:384-
90.

88. Which of the following is true regarding masticatory performance and different implant
locations (premolar vs. molar) for an implant-retained removable dental prosthesis?

a. Masticatory performance is improved when implants are placed in the premolar


region.
b. Masticatory performance is improved when implants are placed in the molar region.
c. Implant position has no significant effect on masticatory performance.

PRDP Answer: C
Reference: Jensen C, Speksnijder CM, Raghoebar GM, Kerdijk W, Meijer HJA, Cune MS.
Implant-supported mandibular removable partial dentures: Functional, clinical and
radiographical parameters in relation to implant position. Clin Implant Dent Relat Res
2017;19:432-9.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

89. What class of local anesthetics undergoes enzymatic degradation in the liver?

a. ester
b. amide
c. benzocaine

Pharm Answer: C
Reference: Pharmacology and Physiology for Anesthesia. Hugh C. Hemmings. 2013, 291-
308.

90. All of the following are true regarding crown preparations EXCEPT:

a. Total occlusal convergence should range between 10 and 20 degrees


b. The ratio of occlusocervical/incisovervical dimension should be at least 0.4
c. Esthetics permitting, the finish line should be located supragingivally
d. Facioproximal and linguoproximal corners should be removed

FDP Answer: D
Reference: Goodacre C, Campagni W, Aquilino S. Tooth preparations for complete
crowns: An art form based on scientific principles. J Prosthet Dent 2001;85:363-76.

91. Which of the following is observed in a patient’s smile following an increase in occlusal vertical
dimension?

a. Increase in smile width


b. Decrease in maxillary gingiva display
c. Increase in the interlabial distance
d. Decrease in maxillary lip length

Esthetics Answer: C
Reference: Chou JC, Thompson GA, Aggarwal HA, Bosio JA, Irelan JP. Effect of occlusal
vertical dimension on lip positions at smile. J Prosthodont 2014;112:533-39.

92. Which of the following is a true statement regarding 5-year survival rates of veneered zirconia
FDPs compared with metal-ceramic FDPs?

a. They both exhibit similar survival rates


b. Zirconia FDPs have decreased survival rates compared with metal ceramic FDPs
c. Metal-ceramic FDPs have decreased survival rates compared with zirconia FDPs
d. Metal-ceramic FDPs have higher rates of minor chipping than zirconia FDPs

FDP Answer: A
Reference: Sailer I, Balmer M, Jürg H, Hämmerle CHF, Känel S, Thoma DS. Comparison of
Fixed Dental Prostheses with Zirconia and Metal Frameworks: Five-Year Results of a
Randomized Controlled Clinical Trial. Int J Prosthodont 2017;30:426–28.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

93. When compared to augmentation procedures and conventionally loaded dental implants,
treatment with zygomatic implants is associated with:

a. Higher prosthetic failure rates


b. Higher implant failure rates
c. Less time required for functional loading
d. Lower patient satisfaction rates

Implants Answer: C
Reference: Esposito M, Davó R, Marti-Pages C, Ferrer-Fuertes A, Barausse C, Pistilli R,
Ippolito DR, Felice P. Immediately loaded zygomatic implants vs conventional dental
implants in augmented atrophic maxillae: 4 months post-loading results from a
multicentre randomised controlled trial. Eur J Oral Implantol 2018;11:11–28.

94. All of the following statements are true except one. Which one is the exception?

a. There is no increased risk for implant loss in immediately loaded full arch fixed
restorations.
b. The insertion of two implants for a removable overdenture in the mandible shows
better outcome than four implants.
c. Four or more implants for complete arch mandibular fixed restoration reveals
satisfying results
d. Implants with fixed prostheses show slightly but significantly better results than
removable prostheses regarding both jaws.

Implants Answer: B
Reference: Schwarz F, Sanz-Martın I, Kern J-S, Taylor T, Schaer A, Wolfart S, Sanz M.
Loading protocols and implant supported restorations proposed for the rehabilitation of
partially and fully edentulous jaws. Camlog Foundation Consensus Report. Clin Oral Impl
Res 2016;27:988–92.

95. Protective co-contraction is a CNS induced muscle response to injury or threat of injury. Local
muscle soreness is a myogenous pain disorder that results from continued protective co-
contraction.

a. Both statements are true


b. Both statements are false
c. First statement is true; second statement is false
d. Second statement is true; first statement is false

TMD Answer: A
Reference: Okeson JP. Introduction to Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion. 7th
edition Chapter 10, pg.301-4.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

96. What is your diagnosis for a patient who has the following symptoms:
• Decreased range of motion
• Minimal pain at rest
• Increased pain to function or parafunction
• Patient says muscles feel “tired”

a. centrally mediated myalgia


b. local muscle soreness
c. protective co-contraction
d. myofacial pain
e. myospasm

Diagnosis Answer: C
Reference: Okeson JP. Introduction to Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion. 7th
edition Chapter 10, pg. 303-4.

97. What is your diagnosis for a patient who has the following symptoms:
• Marked decrease in the range of motion
• Minimal pain at rest – increased pain with function
• Muscle weakness present
• Tenderness to palpation of muscles

a. centrally mediated myalgia


b. local muscle soreness
c. protective co-contraction
d. myofacial pain
e. myospasm

TMD Answer: B
Reference: Okeson JP. Introduction to Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion. 7th
edition Chapter 10, pg. 305.

98. What is your diagnosis for a patient who has:


• A decrease in the range of motion
• Referred pain is present – even at rest
• Decreased velocity of jaw movement
• Trigger points – provocation increases the referred pain

a. centrally mediated myalgia


b. local muscle soreness
c. protective co-contraction
d. myofacial pain
e. myospasm

Diagnosis Answer: D
Reference: Okeson JP. Introduction to Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion. 7th
edition Chapter 10, p. 308.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

99. If a patient has been diagnosed with local muscle soreness and has not improved after 3-4
weeks of supportive and conservative therapy, you should:

a. Consider irreversible treatment such as occlusal adjustment


b. Consider a mis-diagnosis
c. Increase dosage of NSAIDs
d. Give it more time to resolve

TMD Answer: B
Reference: Okeson JP. Introduction to Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion. 7th
edition Chapter 12, p. 382.

100. If a patient with TMD has local muscle soreness and awakes with significant pain and has
minimal or no pain by the afternoon or evening, which treatments would be the most
appropriate initially?

a. Self-management therapy and biofeedback with relaxation therapy


b. Self-management therapy and an occlusal device worn at night
c. Self-management therapy, relaxation and cognitive therapy
d. Biofeedback with relaxation and hypnotherapy
e. Self-management therapy and muscle relaxants taken at bedtime

TMD Answer: B
Reference: Okeson JP. Introduction to Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion. 7th
edition Chapter 12, p. 380-1.

101. Where is the maximum intercuspal position located when viewing a diagram of Posselt’s
envelope of motion in the sagittal plane?

a. The most inferior position


b. The most superior position
c. The most anterior position
d. The most posterior position

Occlusion Answer: B
Reference: Solnit A, Curnutte DC. Occlusal Correction Principles and Practice. Quint
Publishing Co., Inc Chicago 1988, pp. 49-50.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

102. What is the primary fungal species found in patients with denture stomatitis?

a. C. glabrata
b. C. tropicalis
c. C. multiformis
d. C. albicans

Pathology Answer: D
References: Campos MS, Marchini L, Bernardes LA, et al. Biofilm microbial
communities of denture stomatitis. Oral Microbiolo Immunol 2008;23:419-24.

Felton D, et al. Evidence-based guidelines for the care and maintenance of complete
dentures: A publication of the American College of Prosthodontists. J Prosthodont
2011;20:S1-S12.

103. When used to decrease caries risk, chlorhexidine use should be limited to how many
consecutive days?

a. 7
b. 10
c. 14
d. 21

Pharm Answer: A
Reference: Featherstone JDB, Singh S, Curtis DA. Caries risk assessment and management
for the prosthodontic patient. J Prosthodont 2011;20:2-9.

104. In the CIE 3-coordinate value system the b* coordinate represents:

a. Yellow and blue chroma


b. Red and green chroma
c. Red and blue chroma
d. Yellow and green chroma

Other Answer: A
Reference: Cho SJ et al. Color in Dentistry A Clinical Guide to Predictable Esthetics.
Quintessence Publishing: Chicago 2017, Pages 22-23.

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2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

105. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the anterior loop of the inferior alveolar
nerve?

a. Observed in >90% of certain ethnic populations


b. A “safe zone” can be recommended based upon average length
c. Statistically significant differences may be observed between the right and left side
d. Statistically significant differences may be observed between men and women

Implant Surgery Answer: A


References: Juan DVL, Grageda E, Crespo SG. Anterior loop of the inferior alveolar nerve:
Averages and prevalence based on CT scans. J Prosthet Dent 2016;115:156-60.

Wong SK, Patil PG. Measuring anterior loop length of the inferior alveolar nerve to estimate
safe zone in implant planning: A CBCT study in a Malaysian population. J Prosthet Dent
2018;120:210-3.

Kheir MK, Sheikhi M. Assessment of the anterior loop of mental nerve in Iranian population
using cone beam computed tomography scan. Dent Res J 2017;14:418-22.

106. All of the following describe favorable characteristics when evaluating a future implant site in
the esthetic zone except one. Which one is the exception?

a. High scalloped phenotype


b. Thick gingival tissue phenotype
c. Gingival margin more coronal than the contralateral tooth
d. Square shaped teeth

Implant surgery Answer: A


Reference: Kois JC. Predictable single-tooth peri-implant esthetics: five diagnostic keys.
Compend Contin Educ Dent 2004;25:895-6, 898, 900 passim; quiz 906-7.

107. Which of the following describes differences in biologic width observed in narrow versus wide
emergence of healing abutments?

a. Remodelled more apically on narrow emergence


b. Remodelled more apically on wide emergence
c. No difference between wide or narrow emergence

Anatomy Answer: B

Reference: Souza, A. B., Alshihri, A., Kämmerer, P. W., Araújo, M. G., & Gallucci, G. O.
(2018). Histological and micro-CT analysis of peri-implant soft and hard tissue healing on
implants with different healing abutments configurations. Clinical Oral Implants Research,
29(10), 1007–1015. http://doi.org/10.1111/clr.13367

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2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

108. From the perspective of restoring oral function, what is the first priority during reconstructive
surgery following tumor ablation in the mandible?

a. Restoring the bulk and function of the tongue


b. Establishing mandibular continuity
c. Delivering a mandibular prosthesis
d. Placing implant on reconstructed mandible

Maxillofacial Answer: A
Reference: Maxillofacial Rehabilitation, third edition, John Beumer III, Chp 2 P-92,
Quintessence publishing 2011.

109. Which of the following two reconstruction surgeries are critical to prevent the patient from
complete disability secondary to surgical resection of the mandibular tumor?

a. Tongue reconstruction and chin augmentation


b. Mandibular reconstruction with continuity and chin augmentation
c. Free flap reconstruction of mandible and implant placement surgery
d. Mandibular reconstruction with continuity and tongue reconstruction

Maxillofacial Answer: D
Reference: Maxillofacial Rehabilitation, third edition, John Beumer III, Chp 2, P-87,
Quintessence publishing 2011.

110. Which of the following flaps should be utilized for reconstruction of a radical neck
dissection?

a. Alar Myocutaneous Flap


b. Lower Trapezius Myocutaneous Island Flap
c. Posterauricular Myocutaneous Flap
d. Pectoralis Major Myocutaneous Flap

Maxillofacial Answer: D
Reference: Tripathi M, Parshad S, Karwasra RK, Singh V. Pectoralis major myocutaneous flap
in head and neck reconstruction: An experience in 100 consecutive cases. Natl J Maxillofac
Surg 2015;6:37-41.

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2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

111. Which Aramany classification describes anterior resection with remaining posterior
abutment teeth?
a. II
b. III
c. IV
d. V
e. VI

Maxillofacial Answer: E
Reference: Aramany MA. Basic principles of obturator design for partially edentulous
patients. Part 1: classification. J Prosthet Dent 1978;40:554-7

112. Which of the following surfaces in contact with an RDP clasp demonstrates the greatest
rate of abrasion over time?

a. Enamel
b. Demineralized enamel
c. Composite resin
d. Ceramic

PRDP Answer: C
Reference: Hebel KS, Graser GN, Featherstone JD. Abrasion of enamel and composite resin
by removable partial denture clasps. J Prosthet Dent 1984;52:389-97.

113. The most common form of hereditarily derived amelogenesis imperfecta is a result of:

a. Autosomal recessive inheritance


b. Autosomal dominant inheritance
c. X-linked inheritance
d. There is no hereditary inheritance

Pathology Answer: B
Reference: Bailleul-Forestier I et. al. The genetic basis of inherited anomalies of the teeth:
Part 1: Clinical and molecular aspects of non-syndromic dental disorders. Eur J Med Genet
2009;51:273-91.

114. The most common observation regarding the dentition of Down Syndrome patients is:

a. Congenitally missing teeth affect men and women equally


b. Congenitally missing teeth affects women more than men
c. Congenitally missing teeth affects men more than women
d. Down Syndrome is usually marked by hyperdontia

Other Answer: C
Reference: Bailleul-Forestier I et. al. The genetic basis of inherited anomalies of the teeth:
Part 2: Syndromes with significant dental involvement. Eur J Med Genet 2008;51:383-408.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

115. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the fracture of monolithic glass-ceramic
materials?

a. Radial cracks occur on the occlusal surface.


b. Radial cracks are the result of differences in the elastic moduli of the restorative
complex.
c. Radial cracks are the predominant mode of failure.
d. Cone cracks occur on the occlusal surface.

Materials Answer: A
References: Zhang Y, Kim JW, Bhowmick S, Thompson VP, Rekow ED. Competition of
fracture mechanisms in monolithic dental ceramics: flat model systems. J Biomed Mater Res
B Appl Biomater 2009;88:402–11.

Guess PC, Schultheis S, Wolkewitz M, Zhang Y, Srub, JR. Influence of preparation design and
ceramic thicknesses on fracture resistance and failure modes of premolar partial coverage
restorations. J Prosthet Dent 2013:110: 264-73.

116. All of the following statements are true regarding the surface of titanium implants except one.
Which one is the exception?

a. Biocompatibility is largely due to the stable titanium dioxide layer.


b. The mechanical relationship between the bone and the implant surface is responsible
for osseointegration.
c. Commercially pure titanium has an oxide layer thickness between 20-60 nm.
d. Moderately roughened implants are associated with greater interfacial strength.

Implants Answer: C
Reference: Puleo DA, Thomas MV. Implant Surfaces. Dent Clin N Am 2006;50: 323–38.

117. Which statement is true regarding patients with a Class II Jaw relationship?

a. Most exhibit overeruption of anterior teeth


b. The lateral movement is the most used and dominant movement
c. Disclusion is relatively simple because cusps are short
d. Teeth contacts from centric occlusion to protrusion must be unimpeded

Occlusion Answer: D
Reference: Jensen WO. Occlusion for the class II jaw relation patient. J Prosthet Dent
1990;64:432-4.

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2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

118. Which of the following statements regarding cuspid guidance is correct?

a. Cuspids generally are not in contact in maximum intercuspation


b. Unilateral disclusion is more common than bilateral disclusion
c. Angle Class II individuals exhibit a higher incidence of cuspid disclusion than Class I
individuals
d. Cuspids are generally in contact during a protrusive movement

Occlusion Answer: C
Reference: Scaife RR, Holt JE. Natural Occurrence of Cuspid Guidance. J Prosthet Dent
1969;22:225-29.

119. Which of the following treatments resulted in the highest bond strength between fiber-
reinforced posts and a resin-based luting material?
a. Silanization of the post
b. Air-borne particle abrasion of the post
c. Air-borne particle abrasion of the post then silanization
d. No surface treatment

Materials Answer: B
Reference: Choi Y, Pae A, Wright RF. The effect of surface treatment of fiber-reinforced
posts on adhesion of a resin-based luting agent. J Prosthet Dent 2010;103:262-68.

120. The threshold level for heat-induced cortical bone necrosis is :

a. 37°C for 1 minute


b. 37°C for 2 minutes
c. 47°C for 1 minute
d. 47°C for 2 minutes

Implant surgery Answer: C


Reference: Eriksson RA, Adell RJ. Temperatures during drilling for the placement of implants
using the osseointegration technique. J Oral Maxillofac Surg 1986;44:4-7.

121. What is the most effective way for combatting moderate to severe postoperative dental pain?

a. Opioids
b. Acetaminophen
c. Amoxicillin and ibuprofen
d. Ibuprofen
e. Combination of ibuprofen and acetaminophen

Pharm Answer: E
Reference: Reference: Daniels SE, Atkinson HC, Stanescu I, Frampton C. Analgesic efficacy of
an acetaminophen/ibuprofen fixed-dose combination in moderate to severe postoperative
dental pain: A randomized, double-blind, parallel-group, placebo-controlled trial. Clin Ther
2018;40:1765-76.e5. doi: 10.1016/j.clinthera.2018.08.019. Epub 2018 Sep 21.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

122. All of the following is the result of implant platform switching except one. Which one is the
exception?

a. Increased exposed surface area of an implant seat


b. Repositioned implant abutment junction away from the adjacent bone
c. Increased inflammatory effect within the surrounding soft tissue and bone
d. Reduced crestal bone resorption

Implants Answer: C
Reference: Lazzara RJ, Porter SS. Platform switching: a new concept in implant dentistry for
controlling postrestorative crestal bone levels. Int J Periodont Rest Dent 2006;26:9-17.

123. In the anterior maxilla, to conceal the prosthesis-tissue junction (PTJ) for a fixed complete
denture prosthesis, the bony platform needs to be reduced how many millimeters (minimum)
below the highest smile line.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Implant surgery Answer: D


Reference: Bidra AS. Technique for systematic bone reduction for fixed implant-supported
prosthesis in the edentulous maxilla. J Prosthet Dent 2015;113:520-3.

124. In a retrospective clinical study of four immediately loaded implants with fixed prostheses in
completely edentulous mandibles, a complication found in all study sub-groups was which of
the following?

a. Provisional prostheses fracture


b. Implant failure
c. Patient dissatisfaction
d. Biologic bone breakdown

Implants Answer: A
Reference: Maló P, Rangert B, Nobre M. “All-on-Four" immediate-function concept with
Brånemark System implants for completely edentulous mandibles: a retrospective clinical
study. Clin Implant Dent Relat Res 2003;5:Suppl 1:2-9.

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2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

125. To stimulate the body to form a sufficient amount of gingival tissue to cover a reduced
tooth/root prior to implant placement, the margin of the amputated root should optimally be
placed at which of the following levels?

a. Even with the free gingival margin


b. One millimeter below the free gingival margin.
c. Significantly sub-gingival, approaching the osseous crest
d. At or one millimeter below the osseous crest

Implant surgery Answer: C


Reference: Langer B. Spontaneous in situ gingival augmentation. Int J Perio Restor Dent
1994;14:524-35.

126. What is the most prevalent position of maxillary incisors relative to the lower lip?

a. Not touching the lower lip


b. Touching or slightly covered by lower lip
c. Incisors completely covered by lower lip
d. Incisal plane in a straight line relative to lower lip

Esthetics Answer: B
Reference: Tjan AHL, Miller GD, Josephine GP. Some esthetic factors in a smile. J Prosthet
Dent 1984:51;24-8.

127. When compared, the highest vertical misfit of screw-retained implant-supported fixed
prostheses frameworks was observed in _____________.
a. CAD/CAM cobalt-chromium
b. Copy-milling zirconia
c. CAD/CAM zirconia
d. Casting metal alloys

Materials Answer: D
Reference: de França DG, Morais MH, das Neves FD, Carreiro AF, Barbosa GA. Precision Fit
of Screw-Retained Implant-Supported Fixed Dental Prostheses Fabricated by CAD/CAM,
Copy-Milling, and Conventional Methods. Int J Oral Maxillofac Implants. 2017;32:507–13.

128. The most frequent location of implant loss occurs in the ________________________.

a. maxillary anterior area


b. maxillary posterior area
c. mandibular anterior area
d. mandibular posterior area

Implants Answer: A
Reference: Choi Y, Eckert SE, Kang KL, Shin S, Kim Y, Epidemiology of Implant Mortality
Disparity Among Intraoral Positions and Prosthesis Types Int J Oral Maxillofac Implants
2017;32:525–532.

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2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

129. Once a tooth is extracted, approximately ______ % of the bone volume is lost after the first
year.

a. 10
b. 15
c. 25
d. 50

Wound healing Answer: C


Reference: Schropp L, Wenzel A, Kostopoulos L, Karring T. Bone healing and soft tissue
contour changes following single-tooth extraction: a clinical and radiographic 12-month
prospective study. Int J Perio Rest Dent 2003;23:313–23.

130. Implants with facial marginal bone thickness ≤_____ are frequently associated with bone loss
and dehiscence.

a. 0.2 mm
b. 1.5 mm
c. 3.0 mm
d. 4.0 mm

Implant Surgery Answer: B


Reference: Spray JR, Black CG, Morris HF, Ochi S. The influence of bone thickness on facial
marginal bone response: stage 1 placement through stage 2 uncovering. Ann Periodontol
2000;5:119–28.

131. A d-PTFE membrane pore size smaller than_________ µm prevents bacterial infiltration into
augmented bone sites.

a. 0.2
b. 2.0
c. 20
d. 200

Wound Healing Answer: A


Reference: Rakhmatia YD, Ayukawa Y, Furuhashi A, Koyano K. Current barrier
membranes: Titanium mesh and other membranes for guided bone regeneration in dental
applications. J Prosthodont Res 2013;57:3-14.

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2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

132. Which of the following is not a guideline to determine key implant abutment positioning?

a. The arch is divided into four segments. When more than one arch segment is involved,
an implant should be in each segment
b. There should be no cantilevers on the prosthesis
c. Three adjacent pontics should not be designed into the prosthesis
d. The canine and first molar sites are key abutment positions, especially when the
adjacent teeth are missing

Implant Surgery Answer: A


Reference: Misch C: Contemporary Implant Dentistry. 2008 3rd edition Elsevier, Inc. St. Louis,
MO.

133. Which of the following statements is not true relative to beryllium in crown and bridge alloys?

a. Alloys may contain up to 2% beryllium


b. Improves castability
c. Increases the melting range
d. Increases the oxide layer of the alloy

Materials Answer: C
Reference: Rosenstiel S, Land M, Fujimoto J: Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics. Mosby, St.
Louis MO. 2006 pg 608.

134. All of the following muscles of the soft palate are innervated by the pharyngeal plexus of
Cranial Nerve X except one. Which one is the exception?

a. Uvulus
b. Palatopharyngeus
c. Palatoglossus
d. Tensor veli palatini
e. Levator veli palatini

Anatomy Answer: d
Reference: Norton N. Netter’s Head and Neck Anatomy for Dentistry, Elsevier, 2011: p. 352-
353.

135. What two structures comprise the pterygomandibular raphe?

a. Tensor veli palatini and the soft palate


b. Superior constrictor and the buccinator
c. Lateral pterygoid muscle and the temporalis tendon
d. Masseter and buccinator

Anatomy Answer: b
Reference: Standring, S. Gray’s Anatomy. 39th ed. Elsevier; 2005. pp. 628-29.

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2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

136. All the following statements are true for the restoration of endodontically treated teeth
EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?

a. The remaining coronal tooth structure determines whether a tooth requires a post
b. A non-uniform ferrule height is as effective as a uniform ferrule height
c. 4 to 5 mm of gutta-percha is necessary to provide a reliable apical seal
d. Posts do NOT reinforce remaining tooth structure
e. Crown lengthening or orthodontic extrusion are indicated for short clinical crowns

FDP Answer: b
Reference: Juloski J, Radovic I, Goracci C, Vulicevic ZR, Ferrari M. Ferrule effect: a
literature review. J Endod 2012;38:11-9.

137. The risk of dental implant failure has been shown to be:

a. Increased with Type I diabetes, but is unchanged with Type II diabetes


b. Unchanged with Type I diabetes, but is increased with Type II diabetes
c. Increased with both Type I and Type II diabetes
d. Unchanged with both Type I and Type II diabetes

Implants Answer: d
Reference: Chrcanovic BR, Albrektsson T, Wennerberg A. Diabetes and oral implant failure:
a systematic review. J Dent Res 2014;93:859-67.

138. Which type of study has the weakest level of evidence?

a. cohort study
b. randomized clinical trial
c. case report/case series
d. case control study

EBD Answer: c
Reference: Bidra AS. Evidence-based prosthodontics; fundamental considerations,
limitations and guidelines. Dent Clin N Am 2014:58;1-17.

139. Following excision of excess hypermobile tissue, when is it appropriate to make initial
impressions for complete dentures?

a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 9 months

Prepros Surgery Answer: a


Reference: Hupp JR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. Mosby 2008 pg 219.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

140. How does high serum cholesterol affect implant survival and bone grafting procedures?

a. increases implant failure and bone graft procedures


b. no effect on either graft or implant survival
c. increases graft failure with no effect on implant survival
d. increases implant failure with no effect on graft survival

Implants Answer: c
Reference: Tirone S, Salzano S, D’orsi L, Paola P, Rodi D. Is a high level of total cholesterol a
risk factor for dental implants or bone grafting failure? A retrospective cohort study on 227
patients. Eur J Oral Implantol 2016;9:77-84.

141. Intraoral preparation of a zirconia/alumina implant abutment can cause an increase in


temperature within the implant that:

a. Causes bone necrosis


b. Has no significant effect on the surrounding bone
c. Can affect the flexural strength of the abutment
d. Can cause thermal trauma to the gingiva

Implants Answer: b
Reference: Huh JB, Eckert SE, Choi YG, Heat transfer to the implant-bone interface during
preparation of a zirconia/alumina abutment. Int J Oral Maxillofac Implants 2009;24:679-83.

142. On a non-Arcon articulator, changing the third point of reference between facebow transfers
on the same patient affects the accuracy of the:

a. Intercondylar distance
b. Bennett angle
c. Condylar inclination
d. Anterior guidance
e. Immediate mandibular lateral translation

Occlusion Answer: c
Reference: Weinberg LA. An Evaluation of Basic Articulators and Their Concepts. J Prosthet
Dent 1963;13:622.

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2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

143. The 3/2 rule is a guideline for placement of a dental implant using soft and hard tissue
landmarks. All of the following are components of the 3/2 rule except one. Which one is the
exception?

a. depth of the implant placement is suggested to be 3mm apical to the planned gingival
zenith
b. implant/abutment interface should reside 2mm palatal to the gingival zenith
c. suggests when bone grafting or soft tissue augmentation should be performed
d. suggests when the crown/implant ratio is exceeded

Implants Answer: d
Reference: Cooper LF. Objective criteria guiding and evaluating dental implant esthetics. J
Esthet Restor Dent 2008; 20: 195-205.

144. Which of the following is not a concept described by Devan, for developing a neutrocentric
occlusion scheme?

a. increasing the width of the posterior teeth by 40% to better distribute the load
b. positioning the posterior teeth in a central position as tongue function will allow
c. a reduction in the number of posterior teeth to six teeth per arch
d. neutralizing the compensating curve

Occlusion Answer: a
Reference: Devan MM. The concept on Neutrocentric Occlusion. JADA 1954;48:165-9.

145. All of the following statements are true regarding implant-supported fixed dental prostheses in
edentulous jaws except one. Which one is the exception?

a. Simultaneous bone augmentation or sinus floor elevation is not a contraindication for


immediate loading.
b. Primary implant stability is critical for predictable osseointegration regardless of the
loading protocol.
c. The number, size and distribution of implants for a full arch fixed prosthesis is based on
the treatment plan, arch form and bone volume.
d. Immediate loading of one piece full arch fixed interim implant prostheses can be reliably
recommended for both the maxilla and the mandible.

Implants Answer: a
Reference: Galluci GO, et.al. Proceedings of the fifth ITI consensus conference: Consensus
Statements and Clinical Recommendations for Implant Loading Protocols. Int J Oral
Maxillofac Implants 2014;29:287.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

146. How do feldspathic porcelain veneers bonded to dentin compare to those bonded to enamel?

a. the survival is the same at 10 years


b. veneers bonded to dentin are less successful at 5 and 10 years
c. at 5 years they are less successful; at 10 years the success rates are the same
d. at 5 years they are more successful; at 10 years the success rates are the same

FDP Answer: b
Reference: Layton DM, Clarke M, Walton TR. A systematic review and meta-analysis of the
survival of feldspathic porcelain veneers over 5 and 10 years. Int J Prosthodont. 2012
Nov;25(6):590–603.

147. A fixed dental prosthesis (FDP) with 3 pontics (combined M-D width 21 mm) would be expected
to exhibit _____________ more deflection under load compared to an FDP with a single pontic
(M-D width 7 mm)?

a. 3 times
b. 9 times
c. 27 times
d. 81 times

FDP Answer: c
Reference: Fundaments of Fixed Prosthodontics, 3rd Ed., page 94. Shillingburg HT, et al.
Quintessence Books, Carol Stream, IL, 1997. ISBN 0-86715-201-X.

148. All of the following are phases of wound healing leading to osseointegration of a dental implant
except one, which one is the exception?

a. hemostasis phase
b. inflammatory phase
c. proliferative phase
d. integration phase

Wound healing Answer: d


Reference: Terheyden H, et al. Osseointegration – communication of cells. Clin Oral
Implants Res 2012;23:1127-35.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.


2019 National Prosthodontic Resident Exam

149. All of the following are true regarding bovine-derived mineralized bone graft material EXCEPT
one. Which one is the Exception?

a. Anorganic, deproteinized
b. Calcium/phosphate ratio similar to human bone
c. Supports osteoblastic cell attachment and proliferation
d. Resorbs quickly

Prepros surg Answer: d


Reference: Block MS, Jackson WC. Techniques for grafting the extraction site in preparation
for dental implant placement. Atlas Oral Maxillofacial Surg Clin N Am 2006;14:1-25.

150. All of the following are important for performing a ridge expansion osteotomy technique
except one. Which one is the exception?

a. saline moistened osteotomes


b. time for expansion of the bone
c. undercuts in the maxilla prior to expansion
d. prevention of torsional forces

Prepros surgery Answer: c


Reference: The osteotome technique: Part 2--The ridge expansion osteotomy (REO)
procedure. Summers RB. Compendium. 1994 Apr;15(4):422, 424, 426, passim.

© 2019 American College of Prosthodontists. All rights reserved.

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