Biopharmaceutics 6 Sem MCQ For Gpat & University Exams 1

Biopharmaceutics
“Gastrointestinal Absorption of Drugs”
1. In cell membrane the hydrocarbon chains for hydrophilic phase and the polar heads
form hydrophobic phase.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydrocarbon chains are oriented inwards to form hydrophobic phase and
their polar heads are oriented to form the outer hydrophilic boundaries of the cell
membrane, it surrounds the aqueous environment.
2. Proteins interact with which part of the cell membrane?

a) Hydrophobic tail
b) Polar head
c) Non polar head
d) Hydrophilic tail
Answer: b
Explanation: Proteins are always bonded to the polar head part of the cell membrane,
which is usually hydrophilic in nature. It is known that the heads are always polar and
the tails are nonpolar, i.e hydrophobic in nature.
3. Which part of the membrane is responsible for the relative impermeability of polar
molecules in and out of the cell?
a) Polar head
b) Hydrophobic head
c) Hydrophobic core
d) Non polar head
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydrophobic core don’t bind to any polar compound being hydrophobic,
thus it doesn’t allow polar compounds to pass through the membranes easily. Heads of
2 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

phospholipid bi-layer in cell membrane are always polar and tails are non-polar in
nature.
4. What helps in the passing of inorganic ions?

a) Ion channels
b) Voltage gated channels
c) Aqueous filled pores
d) Diffusion
Answer: c
Explanation: Aqueous filled pores of diameter ranging from 4 to 10 Å helps to pass small
organic water-soluble molecules and inorganic ions. These pores have polar amino acid
on the inner side of the pore which helps the water-soluble molecules to easily pass
through them.
5. The cell membrane is ___________

a) Impermeable
b) Semipermeable
c) Permeable
d) Permeable to only gases
Answer: b
Explanation: A cell membrane is always semi permeable that is it permits rapid and
limited passage of some of the compounds and restricts other compounds.
6. What is the most important characteristic of a drug to be absorbed after oral

administration?
a) Dissolved in HCL
b) Dissolved in alkaline solution
c) Can pass through the cell membrane
d) Form aggregate and settle down
Answer: c
Explanation: A drug should not get destroyed by either of acidic or alkaline medium. It

must first pass through the biological barrier of cell membrane. Formation of
aggregation will decrease its molecular activity.
7. Cell membrane can pass easily Oxygen and Carbon dioxide.

a) False
b) True
Answer: b
Explanation: Oxygen being small and nonpolar can easily pass through the membrane
and carbondioxide is also small enough to easily diffuse in and out of the cell. Small
hydrophobic molecules and small uncharged polar molecules can easily pass through
the cell membrane. Larger uncharged polar molecules and ions find it difficult to cross
the cell membrane.
8. Which one of these is an example of Enteral Route?

a) Skin
b) IV
c) Gastrointestinal
d) Inhalation
Answer: c
Explanation: Enteral routes include oral routes. Thus, the common examples are GI,
sublingual/buccal, rectal. IV comes under the parenteral route. Skin and Inhalation are
examples of the Topical route.
9. Gastrointestinal route is an example of which of the major drug delivery routes?

a) The enteral route
b) The parenteral route
c) The topical route
d) The intravenous route
Answer: a
Explanation: The enteral route includes delivery peroral. The parenteral route involves
routes of administration through skin or under layers of skin. The topical route involves
eyes, skins, nose, or other membranes.

10. The following image is a basic representation of cellular membrane, choose whether
the markings are true or false?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The head is phosphate containing polar or hydrophilic. The tail is non polar
carbon tail or hydrophobic. The phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane is composed of
such lipids with polar head and non-polar tail.
“Mechanisms of Drug Absorption”.
1. Which is the major process of absorption for more than 90% of drugs?
a) Facilitated diffusion
b) Active transport
c) Endocytosis
d) Passive diffusion
Answer: d
Explanation: Passive diffusion is also known as non-ionic diffusion. It is the major process through
which 90% of the drugs get absorbed. The driving force for passive diffusion is the concentration
gradient and electrochemical gradient.
2. What is the driving force for Passive Diffusion?

a) Concentration gradient only
b) Electrochemical gradient only
c) Charge equilibration and concentration gradient

d) Concentration and Electrochemical gradient both
Answer: d
Explanation: Passive diffusion, the driving forces are both concentration gradient and electrochemical
gradient. According to Fick’s first law of diffusion, drug molecules always diffuse from the site of
higher concentration to the site of lower concentration until equilibrium is attained.
3. Which kind of molecules cannot pass through a pore transport?

a) Low Molecular weight molecules
b) Water-soluble drugs
c) Molecules up to 400 Dalton
d) Molecules greater than 400 Dalton
Answer: d
Explanation: Pore transport is important for the absorption of low molecular weight and size
molecules. Water-soluble drugs can also easily pass through the aqueous filled spaces or pores in the
cell membrane. Linear molecules of size up to 400 Dalton can be absorbed.
4. What is the driving force of Pore Transport?

a) Hydrostatic pressure
b) Concertation Gradient
c) Electrochemical gradient
d) Charge equilibration
Answer: a
Explanation: The driving force of pore transport is Hydrostatic pressure and Osmotic pressure across
the cell membrane. Electrochemical gradient and concentration gradient is the driving force of passive
diffusion.
5. What will be the best definition for “carrier”?

a) Nonpolar drugs can be transported through carrier-mediated transport
b) Carrier binds reversibly and no covalently with the molecules
c) It discharges the molecules and gets destroyed itself
d) The carrier is a protein
Answer: b
Explanation: The carrier-solute complex can cross the membrane to reach the other site where the

carrier discharges the solute and returns back to its position. The carriers carry polar charged
molecules and are mostly enzymes.
6. What is the major difference between Facilitated diffusion and Passive diffusion?
a) Carrier-mediated transport
b) Downhill transport
c) Energy is used
d) Inhibition by metabolic poisons
Answer: a
Explanation: Facilitated diffusion is a carrier-mediated transport which operates down the
concentration gradient. It is faster than passive diffusion because of the involvement of Carriers. The
driving force is the concentration gradient.
7. What influences the permeation of drugs in an Ionic or Electrochemical diffusion?

a) Charge on the membrane
b) Charge on the particle
c) Concentration gradient
d) Equilibration of charge
Answer: a
Explanation: The charge on the membrane influences the permeation of drugs. The permeation of
positively charged drugs depends on the potential difference or electrical gradient as the driving force
across the membrane.
8. Which kind of drugs are absorbed through endocytosis?

a) Molecular weight ranging 100-400Dalton
b) Water-soluble drugs
c) Macromolecular drugs or drugs as oily droplets
d) Polar drugs
Answer: c
Explanation: Macromolecular drugs, Drugs as solid particles and drugs as oily particles are absorbed
through endocytosis. Passive diffusion helps in the absorption of drugs with molecular size fro 100-
400 Dalton.

9. Which drugs are absorbed through pore transport?
a) High lipophilicity
b) Water-soluble drugs of molecular weight less than 100 Dalton
c) Oily droplets
d) Affinity for carriers
Answer: b
Explanation: Pore transport helps in the transport of water-soluble drugs which are of molecular
weight less than 100 Dalton. Drugs with high lipophilicity and a molecular weight between 100-400
Dalton are transported by Passive diffusion.
10. Which types of drugs get absorbed by ion-pair transport?

a) High lipophilicity
b) Oily droplets
c) Affinity for carriers
d) Drugs that ionize at all pH conditions
Answer: d
Explanation: Ion-Pair Transport is the mechanism where absorption of drugs like quaternary
ammonium compounds, sulphonic acids get absorbed. These drugs can get ionize at all pH
conditions. These neutral complexes have lipophilicity and aqueous solubility for passive diffusion.
11. Which of these absorption methods involves engulfing of the extracellular drug?
a) Endocytosis
b) Passive diffusion
c) Facilitated diffusion
d) Ion-Pair transport
Answer: a
Explanation: Endocytosis is the absorption method which includes engulfing of extracellular materials
within a segment of the cell membrane to form a saccule or vesicle which will be then pinched off
intracellularly.
12. Which is the other name of “cell eating”?

a) Transcytosis
b) Phagocytosis
c) Pinocytosis

d) Endocytosis
Answer: b
Explanation: Phagocytosis is a type of endocytosis. Phagocytosis is also called cell eating which
includes absorption of solid particulates. Endocytosis is of two types phagocytosis and pinocytosis
later meaning cell drinking.
13. Transfer of an endocytic vesicle from one extracellular compartment to another

is known as _____________
a) Phagocytosis
b) Transcytosis
c) Pinocytosis
d) Endocytosis
Answer: b
Explanation: Transfer of an endocytic vesicle from one extracellular compartment to another is known
as Transcytosis. Phagocytosis is the engulfing of solid particulates. Pinocytosis is the absorption of
fluids.
14. A drug can be absorbed by more than one mechanism.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, a drug can be absorbed by different mechanisms through different sites in the body.
The mechanism depends upon the absorption site of the body. A drug can be absorbed passively and
actively.

15. Which kind of absorption mechanism is showing in the following picture?
a) Endocytosis
b) Passive transport
c) Active transport
d) Facilitated diffusion
Answer: b
Explanation: Passive diffusion is a kind absorption where substances move from higher concentration
to the lower concentration without the use of any carriers or energy. 90% of the drugs are absorbed
through Passive diffusion.
“Drug Absorption – Influencing Factors and Bioavailability”.
1. Which one of these is a physicochemical property of Drug substance?

a) Drug solubility
b) Disintegration time
c) Age of patient
d) Dissolution time
Answer: a
Explanation: Pharmaceutical factors include factors relating to the physicochemical properties of the
drug and dosage. The physicochemical property includes drug solubility, dissolution rate, particle size,
etc.

2. Which one of these does not come under a physicochemical property of drugs?
a) Drug solubility
b) Disintegration time
c) Dissolution rate
d) Drug stability
Answer: b
Explanation: Physicochemical properties of drug substances include drug solubility, dissolution rate,
particle size, effective surface area, polymorphism, etc. Dissolution time comes under Dosage form
characteristics and pharmaceutic ingredients.
3. In the sequence of events in the drug absorption from orally administered solid
dosage, which one comes at first?
a) Disintegration
b) Disaggregation
c) Dissolution
d) Absorption
Answer: a
Explanation: The solid dosage form at first disintegrate into smaller granules or aggregates. Those are
then deaggregated to form fine particles. In dissolution, the drug is in the solution form and then it
gets absorbed.
4. Which one is the correct sequence for drug absorption through the oral route?
a) Absorption – Dissolution – Disintegration – Deaggregation
b) Disintegration – Dissolution – Deaggregation – Absorption
c) Disintegration – Deaggregation – Dissolution – Absorption
d) Disintegration – Deaggregation – Absorption – Dissolution
Answer: c
Explanation: Disintegration of the drug and then Deaggregation and subsequent release of a drug.
Followed by the dissolution of the drug in aqueous fluids at the absorption site and the movement of
the dissolved drug through the gastrointestinal membrane into the systemic circulation.
5. Patient-related factors of drug absorption do not deal with which one of these?
a) Age
b) Gastric Emptying time
c) Intestinal transit time

d) Pharmaceutic ingredients
Answer: d
Explanation: Patient-related factors include factors related to anatomy, physiology, and pathologic
characteristic of a patient. This includes age, Gastric Emptying time, Intestinal transit time,
gastrointestinal pH, Disease states, Blood flow, etc.
6. The rate at which drug reaches the systemic circulation is determined by the
slowest of the various steps involved in the sequence. This is known as ____________
a) Disintegration time
b) Dissolution time
c) Rate limiting step
d) Gastric Emptying time
Answer: c
Explanation: The rate at which drug reaches the systemic circulation is determined by the slowest of
the various steps involved in the sequence. Such a step is known as the rate-limiting. Disintegration
time is the time required for the drug to be broken down into smaller particles or aggregates.
Dissolution time is the time required for all the drug disintegrated particle to dissolve in the fluid.
Gastric emptying time is the emptying time of the stomach.
7. Diffusion coefficient of drug D, Greater the value faster us the dissolution.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Greater the value faster is the dissolution of the drug into solution. Diffusion decreases
as the viscosity of the dissolution medium increase.
8. Greater the surface area lesser is the dissolution.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Greater the surface area greater is the dissolution. Thus micronization of the drug is
preferred. Dissolution can be increased by micronization.

“Physicochemical Factors Affecting Drug Absorption”.
1. Which one of the following is a critical rate-limiting step of drug absorption?

a) Rate of drug disintegration
b) Size of the drug
c) Size of the porous particle
d) Rate of dissolution
Answer: d
Explanation: For orally administered drug, the two critically slower rate determining step is the rate of
dissolution and the rate of drug permeation. Dissolution is the rate determining stem for poorly
aqueous soluble drugs and hydrophobic drugs.
2. Which sentence will define the Dissolution rate?

a) Amount of solid substrate that goes into solution under constant time
b) Amount of solid substrate that goes into solution under constant time under
standard temperature
c) Amount of solid substrate that goes into solution under constant time under
standard temperature, pH, and pressure
d) Amount of solid substrate that goes into solution under constant time under
standard temperature, pH, solvent composition and constant surface area
Answer: d
Explanation: Dissolution rate is defined as the amount of solid substrate that goes into solution under
constant time under standard temperature, pH, solvent composition and constant surface area. It is a
dynamic process. Drugs having poor aqueous solubility have less dissolution rate.
3. What should be the ideal solubility rate of an orally administered drug in the pH
range of 2 to 8?
a) 3-4mg/ml
b) 4-6 mg/ml
c) 7-8 mg/ml
d) 1-2 mg/ml
Answer: d
Explanation: The solubility of any orally administered drug should be between 1-2 mg/ml in the range

of pH 2-8. The solubility becomes a great matter of concern if it is less than that. And if more than that
the dosage must be carefully calculated.
4. Which one of these is not a theory of Drug dissolution?

a) Diffusion layer model
b) Fick’s law of diffusion
c) Penetration or surface renewal theory
d) Interfacial barrier model
Answer: b
Explanation: Fick’s law of diffusion states that drug molecules diffuse from higher concentration to
lower concentration until equilibrium is reached. Theories of drug dissolution are Diffusion layer
model or Fil theory, Danckwert’s model or Penetration or surface renewal theory, Interfacial barrier
model or Double barrier theory.
5. Which theory takes into account that a thin film is created by the solution of the
solid at the solid-liquid interface?
a) Interfacial barrier model
b) Diffusion layer model
d) Danckwert’s model
Answer: b
Explanation: Diffusion layer model states that solution of a solid form a thin film or layer at the solid-
liquid interface which is called as the stagnant film or diffusion layer which gets saturated with the
drug. This step is rapid.
6. In the equation G=Ki (Cs-Cb), what does G stands for______________

a) Dissolution rate per unit area
b) Effective interfacial transport constant
c) Concentration of the solute
d) Concentration of the impurity
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the interfacial barrier model, an intermediate concentration exists at the
interface which is a result of the solvation mechanism and is a function of solubility. Here in the

equation G stands for dissolution rate per unit area, Ki stands for effective interfacial transport
constant.
7. Which model does not approve the existence of the stagnant layer in the solid-
liquid interface?
a) Interfacial barrier model
b) Diffusion layer model
d) Danckwert’s model
Answer: d
Explanation: Danckwert did not approve the existence of the stagnant layer and suggested that
turbulence in the dissolution medium exists at the solid/liquid interface. Due to which the agitated
fluid consists of a macroscopic mass of eddies or packets reach the solid-liquid interface due to the
eddy currents, absorb the solute by diffusion and carry it to the bulk of the solution.
8. What does the interfacial barrier model states?

a) An intermediate concentration exists at the interface
b) Turbulence in the dissolution medium exists at the solid/liquid interface
c) Formation a thin film or layer at the solid-liquid interface
d) Solutes passes easily through the interfaces
Answer: a
Explanation: An intermediate layer exist at the interface of the solid and liquid layers. This
intermediate layer holds and intermediate concentration at the interface which results is solvation
mechanism. The theory does not talk about any turbulence, or presence of solutes.
9. In the equation, Wo1/3-W1/3=Kt, K stands for ____________

a) The original mass of the drug
b) Mass of the drug remaining after time t
c) Dissolution constant
d) Concentration of solute
Answer: c
Explanation: To calculate the particle size decrease and change in the surface area of the dissolution
Hixson and Crowell’s cubit root law of dissolution is followed, Wo1/3-W1/3=Kt, where, Wo stands for
original mass of the drug, W stands for the mass of the drug remaining after time t, K stands for
dissolution constant.

10. Which are the two rate-determining step of drug absorption when given orally?
a) Disintegration and deaggregation
b) Disintegration and Dissolution
c) Dissolution and permeation through the membrane
d) Permeation through the membrane and Disintegration
Answer: c
Explanation: The two critical slower rate-determining processes in the absorption of orally
administered drugs are the rate of dissolution and rate of the solute or the drug permeation through
the cell membrane or biomembrane.
11. The maximum amount of solute dissolved in a given solvent under standard
conditions of temperature, pressure, and pH is known as __________
a) Dissolution rate
b) Intrinsic dissolution
c) Rate limiting step
d) Absolute or intrinsic solubility
Answer: d
Explanation: Absolute or intrinsic solubility is defined as the maximum amount of solute dissolved in a
given solvent under standard conditions of temperature, pressure, and pH. It is a static property.
Dissolution rate is the amount of a solid substance that dissolves into solution under given conditions.
12. In the equation, V dC/dt = dm/dt = A(Cs-Cb).√ γ D, what does γ stands for?
a) Mass of the solid dissolved
b) Rate of surface renewal
c) Concentration of solute
d) Concentration of the drug
Answer: b
Explanation: The Danckwert’s model is expressed by the equation, V dC/dt = dm/dt = A (Cs-Cb).√ γ D,
where γ is the rate of surface renewal, m is the mass of solid dissolved. Cs concentration of the solute.
13. Each face of the crystal has a different interfacial barrier.

a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. According to the interfacial barrier model, each face of a crystal
has a different interfacial barrier. This concept is given by G=Ki (Cs-Cb).
“Drugs Absorption – Factors Affecting Rate of Drug Dissolution”.
1. Absorption of drugs can be categorized into 2 classes, physicochemical properties

of drugs and Dosage form of the drug, on the basis of drug dissolution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Factors that are of in vivo importance, those which can affect the drug dissolution and
absorption into the cell membrane can be divided into 2 classes. One is the physicochemical
properties of the drug and the dosage form factors.
2. Which option will be the best example of the physicochemical properties of drugs?
a) Solubility, particle size, polymorphism, salt form, pseudopolymorphism,
complexation, wettability, pH, Pressure of disintegration
b) Pressure of disintegration, polymorphism, salt form, pseudopolymorphism,
complexation, wettability, pH
c) Solubility, particle size, polymorphism, salt form
d) Solubility, particle size, polymorphism, salt form, pseudopolymorphism,
complexation, wettability
Answer: d
Explanation: The various Physicochemical properties of the drug that affect drug dissolution and its
rate are Solubility, particle size, polymorphism, salt form, pseudopolymorphism, complexation,
wettability, etc. Dosage form factors include formulation factors and excipients in the formulation.
3. For oral formulation, what should be the minimum aqueous solubility to avoid
bioavailability problems?
a) 0.9%
b) 1%
c) 2%
d) 0.11%

Answer: b
Explanation: Experiments have shown that a drug should have a minimum aqueous solubility of 1% to
avoid bioavailability problems. Lesser than that it becomes a very serious issue for the drug to
dissolve and give the proper effect.
4. The total solid surface area of any particle is known as ___________

a) Absolute surface area
b) Effective surface area
c) Total surface area
d) Surface area
Answer: a
Explanation: Particle size and surface area of a solid drug are inversely related to each other. Absolute
surface area is the total area of the solid surface of any particle and an effective surface area is the
area of the solid surface exposed to the dissolution medium. Smaller the drug particle greater the
surface area.
5. Particle size and surface area of a drug are directly related to each other.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Particle size and surface area of a solid drug are inversely related to each other. Smaller
the drug particle greater the surface area. Larger the area is higher the dissolution rate.
6. Absolute surface area is proportional to the dissolution rate of a drug.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Absolute surface area is not proportional to the Dissolution rate. Effective surface area is
proportional to the dissolution rate. Absolute surface area is the total area of the solid surface of any
particle and an effective surface area is the area of the solid surface exposed to the dissolution
medium. Effective surface area is the area of the solid surface exposed to the dissolution medium.

7. In the case of hydrophobic drugs, micronization results in a decrease in effective
surface area and thus fall is dissolution rate. Which of the below sentences cannot
be a reason for the given statement?
a) The hydrophobic surface of the drugs adsorbs onto their surface which inhibits
their wettability
b) The particles reaggregate to form larger particles due to their high surface free
energy
c) Extreme reduction in the particle size imparts surface charges that may prevent
wetting
d) Extreme reduction in the size brings the hydrophobic amino acids to the surface
Answer: d
Explanation: In the case of hydrophobic drugs, micronization results in a decrease in effective surface
area and thus fall is dissolution rate. Three reasons are, Hydrophobic surface of the drugs adsorbs
onto their surface which inhibits their wettability, the particles reaggregate to form larger particles
due to their high surface free energy, extreme reduction in the particle size impart surface charges
that may prevent wetting.
8. How the absolute surface area of hydrophobic drugs can be converted to their
effective surface area?
a) Use of surfactant
b) Use of Hydrophobic diluents
c) Use of surfactant and hydrophilic diluents
d) No need of doing micronization
Answer: c
Explanation: Use of surfactant as a wetting agent decreases the interfacial tension and displaces the
adsorbed air with the solvent and using hydrophilic diluents coat the surface and render them
hydrophilic.
9. Which one of these is not an example of hydrophilic diluents?

a) PVC
b) Dextrose
c) PVP
d) PEG

Answer: a
Explanation: PVC is polyvinyl chloride not used as a drug formulation. Hydrophilic diluents such as
PEG < PVP, dextrose coat the surface of a hydrophobic molecule to give hydrophilic surface.
10. The solvate can exist in different crystalline forms called as _________
a) Solvates
b) Pseudopolymorphs
c) Pseudopolymorphism
d) Hydrate
Answer: b
Explanation: Stoichiometric type of adducts of the solid where the solvent molecules are incorporated
into the crystal lattice of any solid are known as solvates. The solvates that can exist in different
crystalline forms are known as pseudopolymorphs. The phenomenon is known as
pseudopolymorphism.
11. Which form of a drug has greater solubility?

a) Anhydrous
b) Hydrate
c) Crystallised
d) Monohydrate
Answer: a
Explanation: Anhydrous form of a drug has a greater aqueous solubility than the hydrates. This is
because the hydrates are already in interaction with the water and therefore have less energy for
crystal breakup.
12. Which one will be the easiest approach to enhance the solubility and dissolution
of any drug?
a) Micronize the drug
b) Convert drug into their anhydrous form
c) Convert drug into their hydrous form
d) Convert drug into their salt form
Answer: d
Explanation: Most drugs are weak acids or weak base3s. Thus, one of the easiest approaches to
enhance the solubility and dissolution of any drug is to convert them into their salt forms.

13. What is pH?
a) –ve log of H+ concentration
b) +ve log of H+ concentration
c) Log of H+ concentration
d) H+ concentration
Answer: a
Explanation: pH is a scale used to measure how much acidic or basic a solution is. PH is logarithmic
and negative of the 10-base logarithm of the molar concentration of the hydrogen ions present.
14. Which one of these is not an advantage of buffered aspirin tablets?

a) Enhanced bioavailability
b) Reduced gastric irritation
c) Increased stability
d) Increased ulcerogenic tendency
Answer: d
Explanation: Including enhanced bioavailability, buffered aspirin tablets have more two advantages
that are, reduction of the gastric irritation and ulcerogenic tendency of the drug. And second is the
stability is increased by in-situ salt formation.
15. Larger the size of the counterion, greater the solubility.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The size of the counterion influences the solubility of the salt forms. Smaller the size of
the counterion greater the solubility of the salt. If the counter ion has a larger size or poor ionic
strength, the solubility decreases to a large extent.
“Drugs Absorption – pH Partition Hypothesis”.
1. According to the pH-partition hypothesis which one of the given options doesn’t
govern the absorption?
a) The molecular size of the drug
b) PH at the absorption site
c) Lipid solubility of unionized drugs
d) Dissociation constant

Answer: a
Explanation: The pH-partition hypothesis tells that for drug compounds with molecular weight more
than 100, that are transported by passive diffusion across the cell membrane, the process is governed
by the capability of lipid solubility of unionized drugs, the dissociation constant of the drug and pH at
the absorption site.
2. If the pH of either side of the membrane is different, then the compartment whose
pH favours greater ionization will have less amount of drug.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: If the pH of either side of the membrane is different, then the compartment whose pH
favours greater ionization will have more amount of drug. And only the ionized or the undissociated
fraction of drug.
3. Which of the following equations correct for Henderson-Hasselbach equation for

weak acids?
a) PH = pKa – log (Unionized drug concentration /Ionized drug concentration)
b) PH = pKa – log (Ionized drug concentration/ Unionized drug concentration)
c) PH = pKa + log (Ionized drug concentration/ Unionized drug concentration)
d) PH = pKa + log (Unionized drug concentration /Ionized drug concentration)
Answer: c
Explanation: For weak acids, the Henderson-Hasselbach equation is pH = pKa + log (Ionized drug
concentration/ Unionized drug concentration). And the % of ionized drug = 10pH-pHKa/1+10PH-pKa *
100.
4. Which of the following equations correct for Henderson-Hasselbach equation for

weak bases?
a) PH = pKa – log (Unionized drug concentration /Ionized drug concentration)
b) PH = pKa – log (Ionized drug concentration/ Unionized drug concentration)
c) PH = pKa + log (Ionized drug concentration/ Unionized drug concentration)
d) PH = pKa + log (Unionized drug concentration /Ionized drug concentration)

Answer: d
Explanation: For weak bases, the Henderson-Hasselbach equation is pH = pKa + log (Unionized drug
concentration /Ionized drug concentration). And the % of ionized drug = 10pKa-pH/1+10 pKa-pH *
100.
5. What is the pH range of the stomach?

a) 1-4
b) 5-8
c) 1-3
d) 1-8
Answer: c
Explanation: PH range of gut is from 1-8. PH range of stomach is from 1-3 making it the most acidic
place in human body. PH range of the intestine (duodenum to the colon) is from 5-8 where most of
the drugs get absorbed.
6. What is the pH range of the intestine?

a) 4-5
b) 1-3
c) 1-8
d) 5-8
Answer: d
Explanation: The pH range of the intestine (duodenum to the colon) is anywhere between 5-8, this
allows the drugs to get easily absorbed and digested. The small intestine specifically has a pH ranging
from 6 to 7.5.
7. Acids in the pKa range 2.5-7.5 are greatly affected by changes in pH making their
absorption pH dependent.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Acids in the pKa range 2.5-7.5 are greatly affected by changes in pH making their
absorption pH dependent. Example, NSAIDs like aspirin, ibuprofen and some penicillin analogues.
Such drugs can be absorbed from acidic conditions of the stomach.

8. Which one of these is an example of a strong acid drug?
a) Diazepam
b) Ibuprofen
c) Cromolyn
d) Aspirin
Answer: c
Explanation: Diazepam is a very weak basic drug. Ibuprofen and aspirin have pH range 2.5-7.5.
Cromolyn pKa is less than 2.5. Thus, making Cromolyn one of the most acidic drug.
9. Which one of these is not an example of a basic drug with pKa range 5-11?
a) Cromolyn
b) Imipramine
c) Amitriptyline
d) Chloroquine
Answer: a
Explanation: Cromolyn pKa is 2.5. Rest all the other drugs are bases of Pka range 5-11. These are
morphine analogues. Such drugs are better absorbed from relatively alkaline conditions of the
intestine where these molecules largely exist in unionized form.
10. Example of a drug which has PKa > 11 is ________

a) Cromolyn
b) Imipramine
c) Amitriptyline
d) Mecamylamine
Answer: d
Explanation: Cromolyn pKa is 2.5. Imipramine and amitriptyline have pKa range from 5 to 11.
Mecamylamine has pKa range greater than 11. These drugs are ionized in the entire pH range of GIT
and thus they are poorly absorbed.
11. What should be the range of oil/water partition coefficient of any drug?
a) 1-2
b) 3-4
c) 2-3
d) 1-3

Answer: a
Explanation: The octanol/pH 7.4 buffer partition coefficient value for a drug should be in the range of
1-2. This is sufficient for passive absorption across lipodial membranes.
12. Ibuprofen a weak acid, in the stomach will be present in which of the given form?
a) Ionized form mostly
b) Non-ionized form mostly
c) Half ionized and half no ionized
d) Will form aggregate
Answer: b
Explanation: The pH of the stomach is 1.5. Ibuprofen being a weak acid will be in a unionized form in
the stomach. At pH 7.4 in plasma, it will be in ionized form and in the same format pH 5 in the
intestine.
13. Nitrazepam a weak base, will be in which form in the stomach?

b) Non-ionized form mostly
Answer: a
Explanation: The pH of the stomach is 1.5. Nitrazepam being a weak base will be in an ionized form in
the stomach. In plasma and small intestine with pH 7.4 and 5 respectively, Nitrazepam will be in
unionized form.
14. All drugs which are weak acids or acidic in nature will be in a unionized form in
the plasma.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Acidic or weak acidic drugs are always present in their ionized form in a basic or neutral
environment. In plasma and small intestine with pH 7.4 and 5 respectively, rendering all acidic drug be
present in their ionized form.
15. Heroin with pKa 7.8 will be in which form in intestinal pH?
b) Unionized form mostly

Answer: b
Explanation: Drugs that are moderately weak bases with pKa 5-11 will get ionized at gastric pH, stay
unionized at intestinal pH and get absorbed through the intestinal wall. Thus, heroin being a weak
base will stay at unionized condition in the intestinal pH. It will not form any aggregate.
“Drugs Absorption – Limitations of pH Partition Hypothesis”.
1. Which one of these options is not one of the limitations of pH-partition theory?
a) Presence if virtual membrane pH
b) Absorption of ionized drugs
c) Influence of GI surface area
d) Dissolution rate
Answer: d
Explanation: Some of the deviations of the pH-partition hypothesis are the presence of virtual
membrane, absorption of the ionized drug, the influence of GI surface area and residence time,
Presence of aqueous unstirred diffusion layer.
2. A microclimate pH, different from the luminal pH exists at the membrane surface.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: As shown in experiments, pH absorption curves are less steep and shift to left for basic
drug and shift to the right for an acidic drug. This led to the hypothesis that a virtual pH also called a
microclimate pH exists at the membrane surface.
3. According to the pH-partition theory which form of the drug gets absorbed
mostly?
a) Hydrated form
b) Aggregated form
c) Ionised
d) Unionised

Answer: d
Explanation: According to the pH-partition theory, a unionized form of a drug gets absorbed mostly.
Ionized drugs have low lipid solubility and poor permeability.
4. What helps the ionized drug molecules to pass through the cell membrane
passively?
a) Different pH
b) Polar group
c) Large lipophilic group
d) Hydration
Answer: c
Explanation: Ionised drugs if attached with a large lipophilic group in their structure. This helps them
in getting absorbed passively e.g. morphine derivatives.
5. Acidic drugs are best absorbed through the stomach and basic drugs are best
absorbed through the intestine.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the pH-partition theory, Acidic drugs are best absorbed through the
stomach where the pH is low and basic drugs are best absorbed through the intestine where the pH is
high. In this condition, the molecules will be unionized and this helps them to get absorbed better.
6. What could be the reason that irrespective of pH any drug gets absorbed mostly
from the intestine?
a) More surface area
b) Long residence time
c) Large surface area and long residence time
d) Large surface area, long residence time, basic pH
Answer: c
Explanation: Experiments showed that irrespective of the GI pH and the degree of ionization, most of
the acidic and basic drugs are more rapidly absorbed from the intestine. The 1st reason because of
large surface area and second reason due to high residence time.

7. What will be in the place of ‘?’ in the given picture?
a) Plasma layer
b) Aqueous unstirred diffusion layer
c) Lipid membrane
d) Blood vessel
Answer: b
Explanation: The luminal fluid is not in direct contact with the membrane. There stands a barrier
called as the aqueous unstirred diffusion layer which is interposed between the bulk fluid and the
lipoidal membrane.
8. Drug having a small partition coefficient can rapidly penetrate the lipid membrane
but diffusion through the unstirred water layer is a rate-limiting step.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Drugs having a large partition coefficient can rapidly penetrate the lipid membrane but
diffusion through the unstirred water layer is a rate-limiting step. This applies particularly to high
molecular weight fatty acids and bile acids.

9. What are the major stability problems which result in poor bioavailability of any
orally administered drugs?
a) Acidic degradation
b) Degradation by salivary amylase
c) Degradation of the drug in inactive form
d) Interaction with the excipients and degradation in an inactive form
Answer: d
Explanation: A drug for oral use may destabilize either during its shelf life or in the GIT. Thus giving up
to two major destabilizing problems that give rise to bioavailability problems are degradation of the
drug in inactive form and interaction with one or more different components of the formulation.
“Dosage Form Factors Affecting Drug Absorption – 1”.
1. Which form of drug formulation has disintegration time?

a) Injections
b) Syrups
c) Capsules and Tablets
d) Only tablets
Answer: c
Explanation: Disintegration time is of importance in the case of solid dosage forms like tablets and
capsules. Disintegration time is the time taken by the capsule to disintegrate into smaller particles.
2. Which tablets have longer Disintegration time?

a) Single coated tablets
b) Uncoated tablets
c) Sugar-coated tablets
d) Capsules
Answer: c
Explanation: Disintegration time is the time taken by the capsule to disintegrate into smaller particles.
Enteric coated tablets are coated to protect the drug from the acidic environment of the stomach.
Sugar coated ones have long DT.

3. Disintegration time is directly proportional to the amount of binder present in the
tablet.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Disintegration of a tablet is directly proportional to the amount of binder present and the
compression force i.e. the hardness of the tablet. A hard tablet with a large amount of binder has a
long DT.
4. Which of the following is not a form of excipients?

a) Paracetamol
b) Disintegrants
c) Lubricants
d) Binders
Answer: a
Explanation: Paracetamol is a drug name. It is the active ingredient. Excipients are all the other
additional materials that help in drug formulation e.g. binders, lubricants, disintegrants, buffer, etc.
5. Which of the following is not a limitation granulation?

a) Formation of crystal bridge by the presence of liquid
b) The liquid may act as a medium for affecting chemical reactions such as hydrolysis
c) Increase the cost due to more additional processing
d) The drying step may harm the thermolabile drugs
Answer: c
Explanation: limitation of wet granulation method is Formation of Crystal Bridge by the presence of
liquid, the liquid may act as a medium for affecting chemical reactions such as hydrolysis, and the
drying step may harm the thermolabile drugs.
6. The agglomerative phase of the communication method grinds the drug in a ball
mill for a long time to affect spontaneous agglomeration. But results showed tablets
produced are softer.
a) True

b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Agglomerative phase of communication is a recent process which involves grinding the
drug in a ball mill for a long time to affect spontaneous agglomeration. The tablets so produced were
stronger and showed rapid dissolution in comparison to tablets made by other methods.
7. Which of these is not a characteristic of tablet formulation by Agglomerative phase

of the communication process?
a) Tablets are stronger
b) Usage of more binding agent
c) Rapid dissolution
d) Increase in internal surface area of the granules
Answer: b
Explanation: Agglomerative phase of communication is a recent process which involves grinding the
drug in a ball mill for a long time to affect spontaneous agglomeration. The tablets so produced were
stronger and showed rapid dissolution in comparison to tablets made by another method. It gave an
increased internal surface area of the granules prepared by APOC method.
8. What does the graph of Rate of Drug dissolution v/s Compression force with this
type of curve interpret?
a) Tight binding of the molecules in drug

b) Deformation of the drug particles into smaller particles
c) The influence of compression force on the dissolution rate is difficult
d) Both tight bonding and deformation of the drug molecules
Answer: a
Explanation: Tight bonding due to high compression force. This increases the density if the drug
molecules per area increasing the hardness, decreasing porosity and also decreases the permeability
of the solvent into the drug. This results in the given graph.
9. What does the graph of Rate of Drug dissolution v/s Compression force with this
type of curve interpret?
a) Tight binding of the molecules in drug

b) Deformation of the drug particles into smaller particles
c) The influence of compression force on the dissolution rate is difficult
d) Both tight bonding and deformation of the drug molecules
Answer: d
Explanation: This type of curve is seen when both tight bondings of the drug occur along with high
compression forces which causes deformation. Deformation can be crushing or fracture of the drug
particles into smaller particles.
10. Capsules with bigger particles and intense packing have poor drug release and
dissolution rate due to an increase in the pore size.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Compression force while the making of tablet and packing density (capsule packing) can
inhibit or promote dissolution. Capsules with fine particles and intense packing have poor drug
release and dissolution due to a decrease in the pore size between the molecules. Thus giving them
poor penetrability into the GI fluids.
11. Which one of them is not a common form of excipients of drug manufacturing?
a) Diluents
b) Binders
c) Sweeteners
d) Essential oils
Answer: d
Explanation: Excipients are added to ensure stability, shelf life, functionalibility, uniform composition,
etc. Some of the common excipients are diluents, granulating agents, binders, buffers, sweeteners,
lubricants, disintegrants, coatings, emulsifier, colorants, complexing agents, surfactants, etc.
12. Vehicles are the solvent system for the liquefied drug. Which one of them is not
an example of a kind of vehicle?
a) Aqueous vehicle
b) Non-aqueous water-miscible vehicles
c) Non-aqueous water immiscible vehicles
d) A salt solution of the drug
Answer: d
Explanation: Vehicle is the solvent system for a liquid oral drug. There are 3 types of solvent drug,
aqueous vehicle consisting of water, syrup, etc. Non-aqueous water-miscible vehicles consisting of
propylene glycol, glycerol, sorbitol, etc. Nonaqueous water immiscible vehicles consisting of vegetable
oils.
13. Which one of the following will be an example of organic diluents?

a) Starch
b) Dicalcium phosphate
c) Tetracycline
d) Tween 80

Answer: a
Explanation: Tween 80 is a solubilizer. Dicalcium phosphate and tetracycline are inorganic diluents.
Starch is organic diluents. Diluents are added to tablets if the required dosage is inadequate to
produce necessary bulk.
14. What is the function of a granulating agent in drug formulation?

a) Promote cohesive compacts
b) Added if the required dosage is inadequate so that necessary bulk can be
produced
c) Tablets can disintegrate easily
d) Used as solubilizer
Answer: a
Explanation: Binders and granulating agents are used to hold powders together to form compact
tablets. They help in the formation of granules and promote cohesive compacts for compressible
materials. It ensures that the tablet remains intact after compression.
15. What is the full form of PVP and what is its function in drug formation?
a) Polyvinyl propylene, diluent
b) Polyvinyl pyrrolidine, solubilizing agent
c) Polyvinyl propylene, buffering agent
d) Polyvinyl pyrrolidine, Binding agent
Answer: d
Explanation: Binding agents are used to holding the powders together to form bigger granules. This
helps to ensure the tablet remains intact. PVP is polyvinyl pyrrolidine used as a binding agent in
pharmaceutical industries.
“Dosage Form Factors Affecting Drug Absorption – 2”.
1. Which one of the following sentences depicts the function of Disintegrants

correctly?
a) These agents help in holding the powders together to form granules
b) These agents overcome the cohesive strength of the tablets and help in
dissolution
c) These agents help in the flow of granules and reduce friction between particles
d) Added when the required dosage is inadequate

Answer: b
Explanation: Disintegrants are the agents which overcome the cohesive strength and break them
when they come in contact with the water. Binders are the agents that help in holding the powders
together to form granules. Lubricants help in the flow of granules and reduce friction between
particles. Binders are added when required dosage is inadequate.
2. A large amount of binders tends to increase the hardness of tablets.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The proportion of binders in any tablet formulation is very critical. Increase in the
amount of binders tends to increase the hardness and decrease the disintegration and dissolution
rates of the tablet.
3. An example of lubricants will be __________

a) PVP
b) Carbowaxes
c) CMC
d) Tetracycline
Answer: b
Explanation: PVP is a binding agent. Carbowaxes is a soluble lubricant. CMC is an example of
semisynthetic gums. And Tetracycline is diluent.
4. The deleterious effect of various coatings on drug dissolution is shown in orders

below. Which one of them is the correct order?
a) Enteric coat > sugar coat > nonenteric film coat
b) Enteric coat > nonenteric film coat > sugar coat
c) Nonenteric film coat > sugar coat > enteric coat
d) Sugar coat > enteric coat > nonenteric film coat
Answer: a
Explanation: The deleterious effect of various coatings on drug dissolution rate is in the following
order enteric coat > sugar coat > nonenteric film coat. The dissolution rate of some coatings changes
while they age e.g. shellac coated tablets.

5. Which of the following will be an example of an organic suspending agent?
a) CMC
b) MC
c) Acacia
d) Carbowaxes
Answer: c
Explanation: CMC and MC are examples of semisynthetic gums. Acacia is an example of a vegetable
drug that is organic. Carbowaxes is an example of a soluble lubricants.
6. Which one of these is not a mechanism of the working of surfactants?

a) Promote wetting by increasing the effective surface area
b) Helps in the dissolution of drug
c) Better membrane contact of the drug
d) Decrease membrane permeability
Answer: d
Explanation: Mechanism involved in the increased absorption of the drug is, promotion of wetting
through the increased surface area. These also help in better membrane contact and enhanced
membrane permeability.
7. PABA complex is used for the enhancement of ______________

a) Enhanced chelation
b) Enhanced dissolution
c) Enhanced membrane permeability
d) Enhanced lipophilicity
Answer: d
Explanation: Complexing agents are used to altering the physiochemical and biopharmaceutical
properties of drugs. PABA complex is used to enhance lipophilicity for better membrane permeability.
8. The concentration of colorant does not affect the drug solubility.

a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Low concentration water soluble dye have inhibitory effect on the dissolution Rte OF
SEVERAL crystalline drugs. The dye molecules get adsorbed on the crystal faces and inhibit drug
dissolution.
9. Suspending agents and some sugars can be used as viscosity imparters.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Suspending agents and some of the sugars can be used to increase the viscosity of the
drug. This affects the palatability and the pourability of the solution dosage form. This influence drug
absorption ways.
“Drugs Absorption – Dosage Forms Nature and Type”.
1. Which of the following will be the slowest step in tablet drug absorption?
a) Tablet disintegration to granules
b) Granules disintegration to fine particles
c) Fine particles dissolution
d) Dissolution absorbed into the blood
Answer: a
Explanation: The rate at which drug will be getting absorbed from the drug from the blood depends
upon the drug formulation. In the case of a tablet, the disintegration of the tablet into smaller
particles will be the slowest step.
2. Aging of dosage form affects drug release.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Aging of drugs affects drug release. It happens mostly with shellac coated drugs.
Experiments showed that shellac coated tablets stored for 2 years have a 60% decrease in their
plasma level.
3. Which form of the drug has the highest bioavailability?

a) Coated tablets

b) Solutions
c) Tablets
d) Emulsions
Answer: b
Explanation: Solutions are readily available. Thus having the highest bioavailability. Tablets take time
to disintegrate. The order of decreasing bioavailability will be, solutions > emulsions > suspensions >
capsules > tablets > coated tablets > enteric coated tablets>sustained released products.
4. Why emulsion dosage form for lipophilic drugs proved better?

a) Easy manufacturing
b) The higher stability of the drug in emulsion form
c) Presented a large surface area of oil to the GIT for the absorption of the drug
d) Fast clearance from the plasma
Answer: c
Explanation: Emulsion dosage form is superior to suspensions in administering the lipophilic drug into
the body. This is because the emulsion dosage form provides a large surface area of oil to the GIT for
the absorption of the drug.
5. Which is the major rate-limiting step in the absorption of a drug from suspension
dosage?
a) Tablet disintegration to granules
b) Granules disintegration to fine particles
c) Fine particles dissolution
d) Dissolution absorbed into the blood
Answer: c
Explanation: The step of drug dissolution is generally rapid due to the large surface area of the
particles. Factors which are essential in drug dissolution from the suspension are particle size,
polymorphism, wettability, etc.
6. Which coating is thin and dissolve rapidly?

a) Sugar coating
b) Film coating
c) Enteric coating

d) Sealing coating
Answer: b
Explanation: Film coating is thin and dissolves rapidly and thus don’t affect drug absorption. Sugar
coat is tough and takes a longer time than film coating to dissolve.
7. Which option describes the function of the enteric coated drug?

a) Tough dissolves slowly
b) Thin dissolves completely
c) Dissolves only in alkaline pH of the intestine
d) Shellac coating
Answer: c
Explanation: The enteric coated tablet only dissolves in the alkaline environment of the intestine. It
may take 2-4hrs for the enteric coated tablet to empty form the stomach to the intestine.
8. Hydrophobic drug with fine particle size in capsule results in a decreasing porosity
of powder bed.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrophobic drug with fine particle size in capsule results in a decreasing porosity of the
powder to the fluids outside. Thus it decreases the penetrability of the solvent into the powder. This
results in clumping of the particles.
9. Viscous fluids and oils are administered in hard gelatin capsules.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Powders and granules are administered in hard gelatin capsules. And viscous fluids and
oils are administered in soft elastic shells.
10. From the below options which will be the most widely used form of dosage?
a) Emulsion
b) Solutions

c) Tablets
d) Powders
Answer: c
Explanation: Tablets are the most widely used dosage form. Because of their convenience of usage,
cost-effective. Powders are less used because of a quantity of dosage is the major problem. Solutions
and suspension, storage and shelf life is a major problem.
“Drug Distribution – Physiological Barriers”.
1. Which one of the following sentences will be the actual definition of distribution?
a) Transfer of drug from the administration dosage to surrounding fluid
b) Transfer of drug from the surrounding the fluid to the blood
c) Transfer of the drug from the oral cavity to the intestine
d) Reversible transfer of drug between blood and extravascular fluids and tissues
Answer: d
Explanation: Distribution is the reversible transfer of a drug between the blood and the extravascular
fluids and tissues. The driving force for absorption is the concentration gradient.
2. What should be the molecular weight of the drug molecules so that they can easily
pass through the membrane?
a) 600-800 Dalton
b) 500-600 Dalton
c) 300-500 Dalton
d) 200-400 Dalton
Answer: b
Explanation: Drugs with molecular weight less than 500-600 Daltons can easily cross the capillary
membrane and diffuse into the extracellular interstitial fluids. Molecular size, ionization constant, and
lipophilicity control the penetration of drugs from the extracellular fluid to the cells.
3. Which type of drug cannot enter the cell membrane in the below picture?
a) Ionized drug
b) Unionized drug
c) Hydrolyzed drug
d) Unhydrated drug

Answer: a
Explanation: Most drugs are weak acids or weak bases. And their degree of ionization at plasma pH
depends upon their pKa. Here the drug has shown which cannot enter the cell membrane is the
ionized drug.
4. Which drugs cannot pass the Capillary endothelial Barrier?

a) Molecular size less than 600 Dalton
b) Drugs bound to blood components
c) Drugs bound to a chemical moiety
d) All drugs can pass
Answer: b
Explanation: All drugs ionized, unionized but with a molecular size less than 600 Dalton can pass
through the capillary endothelial into the interstitial fluid. Only drugs bound to the blood components
are restricted because the molecular size becomes large.
5. Which of the following drug cannot pass through the plasma membrane barrier?
a) Drug size less than 50 Dalton
b) Lipophilic drugs 50-600 Dalton
c) Polar or ionized drugs of size greater than 50 Dalton
d) Drug size more than 600 Dalton
Answer: d
Explanation: Drugs size of fewer than 50 Daltons can only pass the plasma membrane barrier.
Lipophilic drugs of molecular weight 50-600 Dalton, polarised drugs of size greater than 50deltons can
also pass the given membrane.
6. Which cell make up the blood-brain barrier?

a) Squamous epithelium cells
b) Fat cells
c) Red blood cell
d) Endothelial cells
Answer: d
Explanation: The brain capillaries are made up of epithelial cells joined to one another by continuous

tight intercellular junctions thereby making the blood-brain barrier. These are highly specialized
capillaries which are much less permeable to water-soluble drugs.
7. What is the name of the specialized cells that support the blood-brain barrier
tissue?
a) Astrocytes
b) Dendrites
c) Fat cells
d) Endothelial cells
Answer: a
Explanation: Specialised cells such as astrocytes, are the supporting tissue. These are found at the
base of the endothelial membrane forming a solid envelope around the brain capillaries.
8. Why dopamine cannot be administered for the disease Parkinsonism?

a) Don’t have a medicine
b) It is not the medicine
c) Cannot cross the blood-brain barrier
d) Forms aggregate and thus cannot cross the BBB
Answer: c
Explanation: The selective permeability of the lipid soluble moieties through the BBB does not allow
several drugs to just pass the barrier. Parkinsonism cannot be treated by the administration of
dopamine since dopamine cannot cross the BBB.
9. Which one of these is not an approach to make the drug cross the blood-brain
barrier?
a) Using permeation enhancers
b) Osmotic disruption of the blood-brain barrier
c) Use of highly lipophilic drug only
d) Use of drug carriers to cross the BBB
Answer: c
Explanation: Three different approaches that have been used to promote crossing the BBB is the use
of permeation enhancers such as DMSO, osmotic disruption of the BBB by infusing internal carotid
artery with mannitol, Use of dihydropyridine redox system as drug carriers to the brain.

10. Which drugs can easily pass the Placental barrier?
a) Drugs having a molecular weight less than 1000 Dalton
b) Moderate to high lipid solubility
c) Drugs having a molecular weight less than 1000 Dalton and moderate to high lipid
solubility, analgesics, and antibiotics
d) Analgesics, antibiotics, etc
Answer: c
Explanation: Drugs having a molecular weight less than 1000deltons and drugs which are moderate to
high lipophilic in nature can easily pass the placental barrier. For e.g. drugs such as ethanol,
anesthetics, steroids, narcotic analgesics, and antibiotics, etc. can pass the placental barrier.
11. What is the function of the blood-testis barrier?

a) Restricts the passage of drug to the testis
b) Restricts the passage of drug to sperms
c) Restricts the passage of drugs to spermatocytes
d) Restricts the passage of drugs to spermatocytes and spermatids
Answer: d
Explanation: Blood-testis barrier is a tight junction between Sertoli cells located at the capillary
endothelial level of the testis. It acts as the blood-testes barrier restricting drugs to spermatocytes and
spermatids.
12. What is the perfusion rate?

a) The total volume of blood
b) The volume of blood that flows through the heart per unit time
c) The volume of blood that flows per unit time per unit volume of tissue
d) The volume of tissue that flows per unit time per unit area of a blood vessel
Answer: c
Explanation: Perfusion rate is defined as the volume of blood that flows through the tissue per unit
time per unit volume of the tissue. It is expressed in ml/min/ml of the tissue.
13. Placental barrier is more effective than the Blood-Brain Barrier.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Drugs having a molecular weight less than 1000 Dalton and moderate to high lipid

solubility can pass through the placental barrier. Thus, this makes the placental barrier less effective
the blood-brain barrier.
14. Blood-brain barrier is a lipoidal barrier.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Since the blood-brain barrier has a high oil-water partition coefficient. Thus, the blood-
brain barrier is a lipoidal barrier. A highly lipid soluble drug can easily pass the barrier.
15. Lipophilic drugs of molecular weight range 50-600 Dalton can pass the cell
membrane to reach intracellular fluid.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Drugs of size less than 50 Dalton can pass the cell membrane to reach intracellular fluid.
Lipophilic drugs 50-600 Dalton and polar or ionized drugs of size less than 50 Dalton can pass the
plasma membrane barrier.
“Drug Distribution – Affecting Factors”.
1. Who has more intracellular and extracellular water more in their body?
a) Aged
b) Adults Of age more than 20
c) Infants
d) Children at puberty
Answer: c
Explanation: The total body water is the net content of water present in intracellular and extracellular
of an animal body. The total body water in the case of a human being is more in an infant’s body.
2. Who has higher fat content?

a) Adults of age above 70
b) Adults of age more than 20
c) Infants and elders

Answer: c
Explanation: Total fat content is the amount of fat in a person’s body. The total fat content is higher in
infants and as well as elders.
3. Who has poorly developed BBB?

a) Infants
b) Adults Of age more than 20
c) Aged
Answer: a
Explanation: Infants are newly born. Their BBB is poorly developed. The myelin content is low but the
cerebral blood flow is very high. Thus leading to the high penetrating ability of the drugs into the brain
of infants.
4. During pregnancy, drug distribution is more. Which of the following sentences

describe the given fact better?
a) The baby needs more drug
b) The mother needs more drug due to high metabolism
c) The surface area increases in the mother’s body due to the presence of uterus,
placenta, and foetus. Thus more area for distribution of drugs
d) The growth of the uterus, placenta, and foetus increases the volume thus
increasing distribution. And even the baby forms a separate compartment for a drug
to get distributed
Answer: d
Explanation: Pregnancy leads to the growth of uterus, placenta, and foetus increases the volume thus
increasing distribution. And even the baby forms a separate compartment for the drug to get
distributed. The plasma and the ECF volume also increase.
5. What happens when an obese person is given with a lipophilic drug?

a) Drug aggregation will begin
b) He cannot absorb lipophilic drugs
c) High adipose tissue take up most of the lipophilic drug
d) A large amount of drug is needed as the person’s weight is more

Answer: c
Explanation: The high adipose tissue in the obese person take up a large fraction of the lipophilic
drugs. Though the perfusion through it is low. The high fatty acid levels in obese person alter the
binding characteristics of acidic drugs.
6. What is the consequence of diet high in fats?

a) The patient can’t be given with acidic drugs
b) The patient can’t be given with basic drugs
c) The basic drugs will aggregate and become poisonous for him
d) The high fatty acid level affect the binding of acidic drugs
Answer: d
Explanation: High fatty diet leads to an increase in fatty acids in the patients’ blood. This affects the
binding of acidic drugs to the plasma. Example drugs such as NSAIDs to albumin.
7. The extent to which a drug is distributed is a tissue depends upon ___________ and
_____________
a) The concentration of a drug, tissue/blood partition coefficient of drug
b) Tissue volume, tissue/blood partition coefficient of drug
c) Tissue surface area, tissue/blood partition coefficient of drug
d) Blood density upon the tissue, tissue/blood partition coefficient of drug
Answer: b
Explanation: The distribution of the drug in a tissue or organ depends upon the size of the tissue i.e.
the volume of the tissue. And also depends upon the tissue/blood partition coefficient of a drug.
8. Which one of the following has a high perfusion rate?

a) Fat
b) Muscle and skin
c) Lungs and kidney
d) Bone
Answer: c
Explanation: High perfusion rate is seen in the organs such as lungs, kidneys, adrenals, liver, heart,
brain. Moderate perfusion rate is in muscles and skin. Least perfusion rate is in fat and bones.

9. Which one of the following has very low perfusion rate?
a) Fat and bone
b) Muscle and skin
c) Lungs and kidney
d) Liver and Heart
Answer: a
Explanation: High perfusion rate is seen in the organs such as lungs, kidneys, adrenals, liver, heart,
brain. The moderate perfusion rate is in muscles and skin. Least perfusion rate is in fat and bones.
10. Infants have high albumin content.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Infants and elders have low albumin content in their body. Infants have high body water,
high-fat content but less skeletal muscles.
11. Disease state of a patient can influence drug distribution across the body.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes the statement is true since disease states can alter drug-protein binding, alter
perfusion of the drug into any organ, and alter the pH of some tissue. In meningitis and encephalitis
polar antibiotics gain access to BBB which don’t happen to a healthy person.
12. In meningitis and encephalitis polar antibiotics gain access to BBB which don’t
happen to a healthy person.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In meningitis and encephalitis the Blood-brain barrier becomes more permeable. Thus
polar antibiotics which couldn’t gain access to the brain of a healthy human being can easily pass the
blood-brain barrier and gain access to the brain.
“Drugs Distribution – Volume”.

1. In equation X=Vd C, what does Vd denotes?
a) Density
b) Volume of blood
c) Volume of body
d) The volume of the body fluid in which the drug is getting dissolved
Answer: d
Explanation: Concentration of drug in plasma C is directly proportional to the amount of drug in body
X. The proportionality constant Vd has the unit of volume and is also called the apparent volume of
distribution. It is the volume of the body fluid into which a drug is dissolved.
2. The amount of drug in the body is directly proportional to the concentration of the
drug in plasma.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Concentration of drug in plasma C is directly proportional to the amount of drug in body
X. The proportionality constant Vd has the unit of volume and is also called the apparent volume of
distribution. It is the volume of the body fluid into which a drug is dissolved.
3. The body water has 3 distinct compartments. Which one of these is not one of the
compartments?
a) Vascular fluid
b) Intracellular fluid
c) Extracellular fluid
d) Between the tissue layers
Answer: d
Explanation: The body water has 3 distinct compartments. The name of the compartments is vascular
fluid/ blood, extracellular fluid (excluding plasma), intracellular fluid (excluding blood cells).
4. How can you determine the extracellular fluid volume?

a) Evans blue
b) Na+
c) D20

d) Tritiated water
Answer: b
Explanation: ECF volume can be determined by substances which can easily penetrate the capillary
membrane and distribute to the whole ECF but will not cross the membrane for e.g. Na+, Cl –, Br–,
SCN–, SO42-.
5. How a patient’s plasma volume can be determined?

a) Evans blue
b) Na+
c) D20
d) Tritiated water
Answer: a
Explanation: The plasma volume can be determined by the use of high molecular weight dyes or
substances which can easily get bind to plasma albumin. E.g. dyes like Evans blue, indocyanine green,
I-131 albumin.
6. The total body water volume can be determined by using high molecular weight
dyes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The plasma volume can be determined by the use of high molecular weight dyes or
substances which can easily get bind to plasma albumin. Total body water can be determined by
heavy water or tritiated water and lipid soluble substances like antipyrine.
7. How will you determine the intracellular fluid volume?

a) Evans blue
b) Na+
c) Difference between total body water and ECF volume
d) Tritiated water
Answer: c
Explanation: The intracellular fluid volume can be determined by finding out the difference between
the TBW and the ECF volume. The intracellular fluid volume is approximately 27 litres.

8. What will be the apparent volume of distribution of warfarin?
a) The apparent volume of distribution is less than the true volume of distribution
b) The apparent volume of distribution is more than the true volume of distribution
c) The apparent volume of distribution is equal to the true volume of distribution
d) Warfarin is not a medicine
Answer: a
Explanation: Drugs which bind to plasma protein or other blood components such as that of warfarin,
their apparent volume of distribution is less than the true volume of distribution. The volume of
distribution of these drugs lies between blood volume and total body water volume.
9. What will bet the apparent volume of distribution of drugs which binds selectively
to extravascular tissues?
a) The apparent volume of distribution is less than the true volume of distribution
b) The apparent volume of distribution is more than the true volume of distribution
c) The apparent volume of distribution is equal to the true volume of distribution
d) The apparent volume of distribution is equal to the volume of extravascular
tissues
Answer: b
Explanation: Drugs which binds selectively to extravascular tissues have an apparent volume of
distribution is more than the true volume of distribution. The volume of distribution of these drugs is
always greater than 42 litres or total body water volume. For example, chloroquine has volume
distribution of approximately 15,000 litres.
10. Factors altering the binding of the drug to the blood increases the volume of
distribution of the drug and the factors that influence drug binding to the
extravascular component decreases the volume of distribution.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Factors altering the binding of the drug to the blood increases the volume of distribution
of the drug and the factors that influence drug binding to the extravascular component decreases the
volume of distribution. Other factors that influence the volume of distribution are changes in tissue
perfusion, permeability, changes in physicochemical characteristics of the drug.

“Plasma Protein Drug Binding”.
1. Which one of the following bonds is not generally a bond through which a drug
will bind in our body?
a) Hydrogen bond
b) Hydrophobic bond
c) Ionic bond
d) Covalent bond
Answer: d
Explanation: Covalent bonds are strong bonds. Drugs always bind through weak chemical bonds such
as that of the hydrogen bond, hydrophobic bond, ionic bond, and van der Waal’s forces. These are
reversible processes. Irreversible bonding i.e. covalent bonding arises the issue of toxicity or
carcinogenicity.
2. Binding of drugs falls into 2 components those are _______________

a) Binding of drugs to blood components and to extravascular tissue
b) Binding of drugs to blood components and to other cells
c) Binding of drugs to cells and blood cells
d) Binding of drugs to blood components to bones and cells
Answer: a
Explanation: Binding of a drug is being categorized into 2 classes, 1st is the binding of a drug to blood
components such as those of plasma protein and blood cells. 2nd is the binding of a drug to
extravascular tissue, fats, bones.
3. Which one of the following is the correct order of the drugs binding to various
plasma protein?
a) Albumin > alpha-1 acid glycoprotein > globulins > lipoproteins
b) Albumin > globulins > lipoproteins > alpha-1 acid glycoprotein
c) Albumin > alpha-1 acid glycoprotein > lipoproteins > globulins
d) Albumin > lipoproteins > globulins > alpha-1 acid glycoprotein
Answer: c
Explanation: The binding of the drug to the plasma protein is reversible. The extent of the binding is in
the following order albumin > alpha-1 acid glycoprotein > lipoproteins > globulins. Drugs of all types,
varieties can easily bind to the Human serum albumin.

4. Which vitamin molecules will bind to alpha 2 globulin?
a) Vitamin b complexes
b) Vitamin a and vitamin b
c) Vitamin A, D, E, K
d) Steroids bind to alpha 2 globulin, not vitamin
Answer: c
Explanation: Vitamin A, D, E, K are the vitamins that are fat soluble proteins. Thus these are the
vitamins and also cupric ions which bind to alpha 2 globulin.
5. What is the molecular weight of human serum albumin?

a) 5000 Dalton
b) 65,000 Dalton
c) 60,000 Dalton
d) 75,000 Dalton
Answer: b
Explanation: The human serum albumin is the most abundant protein in the human body. The
molecular weight of HSA id 65,000Dalton. It has a large drug binding capacity. It can bind to several
compounds with a variety of structure.
6. HSA comes under which protein family?

a) Globulin
b) Receptor
c) Enzymes
d) Catalyst
Answer: a
Explanation: The human serum albumin is the most abundant protein in the human body. It has a
large drug binding capacity. It can bind to several compounds with a variety of structure. There are 4
different drugs binding site in HSA. It is of globulin family.
7. What is the name of the drug binding site I of HSA?

a) Tamoxifen binding site
b) Digitoxin binding site
c) Diazepam binding site

d) Warfarin and azapropazone binding site
Answer: d
Explanation: In the structure of HSA there 4 main binding sites for drugs. The site I am called as the
warfarin and azapropazone binding site. In this region, a large number of drugs can bind. For example
several NSAIDs, phenytoin, sodium valproate, bilirubin.
8. Which one of the below does not belong to the 4 classes of lipoprotein?
a) Chylomicrons
b) Very low-density lipoproteins
c) High-density lipoprotein
d) Fatty acids
Answer: d
Explanation: Lipoproteins are classified into 4 classes. The classes are chylomicrons, very low-density
lipoproteins (VLDL), low-density lipoproteins (LDL), high-density lipoproteins (HDL).
9. Which of the given drugs bind to Α1 globulin?

a) Steroidal drugs
b) Vitamins A, D, E, K
c) Ferrous ions
d) Carotenoids
Answer: a
Explanation: Several plasma globulins were identified and named as Α1, Α2, Β1, Β2, γ globulins. Α1
globulin bind to steroidal drugs. For example cortisone, prednisone, thyroxine, cyanocobalamin. It is
also known as transcortin.
10. What is the name of the drug binding site IV of HSA?


Answer: a
Explanation: In the structure of HSA there 4 main binding sites for drugs. The 4th drug binding site
name is Tamoxifen binding site.
11. Acidic drugs like imipramine, lidocaine bind to alpha 1 Acid Glycoprotein.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Alpha 1 Acid Glycoprotein is also called as orsomucoid. It has a molecular weight of
44,000 and a plasma concentration of range 0.04-0.1%. It binds basic drugs like imipramine, lidocaine,
quinidine, etc.
12. Which of the given drugs bind to Β2 globulin?

a) Steroidal drugs
b) Vitamins A, D, E, K
c) Ferrous ions
d) Carotenoids
Answer: d
Explanation: Several plasma globulins were identified and named as Α1, Α2, Β1, Β2, γ globulins. Β2
globulin binds to carotenoids.
13. What is the name of the drug binding site III of HSA?
Answer: b
Explanation: In the structure of HSA there 4 main binding sites for drugs. The 3rd drug binding site
name is Digitoxin binding site.
14. Which drugs bind to RBC membrane?

a) Pentobarbital
b) Acetazolamide
c) Imipramine
d) Phenytoin

Answer: c
Explanation: The red blood cell comprises of 3 components each can bind to different kind of drugs.
Haemoglobin, Carbonic anhydrase, and cell membrane. The cell membrane is reported to bind with
chlorpromazine and imipramine.
15. What is the name of the drug binding site II of HSA?

Answer: c
Explanation: In the structure of HSA there 4 main binding sites for drugs. The 2nd drug binding site is
Diazepam binding site. Drugs that binds to this site includes benzodiazepines, medium chain fatty
acids, cloxacillin, probenecid, tryptophan, ketoprofen, ibuprofen, etc.
“Tissue Binding of Drugs”.
1. What reasons make tissue-drug binding important for drug distribution?

a) Increases the volume of distribution of drugs and results in localization of drug at
a specific site
b) Increases the volume of distribution of drugs
c) Results in localization of drugs at a tissue specific site
d) Increases in absorption from the tissue due to concentration increasing
Answer: a
Explanation: Tissue-drug binding is important in the distribution of drugs. This is because it increases
the apparent volume of distribution of drugs in contrast to plasma protein which decreases it. Tissue-
drug binding results in localization of the drug at a specific site in the body.
2. Following is the order in decreasing order of drug binding to the extravascular

tissue. Which one is the correct order?
a) Liver > kidney > muscle > lung
b) Liver > muscle > lung > kidney
c) Liver > muscle > kidney > lung
d) Liver > kidney > lung > muscle

Answer: d
Explanation: Factors influencing localization of drugs are tissues lipophilicity, structure of drug,
perfusion rate, pH differences etc. Drugs binding to the extracellular site has the order of binding in
decreasing order liver > kidney > lung > muscle.
3. What is the relation between halogenated hydrocarbon and liver?

a) Halogenated hydrocarbon is a drug for liver problems
b) Halogenated hydrocarbon is nutrition for liver
c) Halogenated hydrocarbon causes hepatotoxicity
d) Halogenated hydrocarbon forms the bile juices in liver
Answer: c
Explanation: Epoxides of number of Halogenated hydrocarbon and paracetamol bind irreversibly to
the liver tissues resulting in hepatotoxicity. Thus we are told that taking more paracetamol can
damage our liver.
4. Which drugs accumulate in liver?

a) Acidic drugs like imipramine
b) Basic drugs like imipramine
c) Halogenated hydrocarbons
d) Chloroquinine
Answer: b
Explanation: Imipramine is a basic drug. Basic drug like imipramine, chlorpromazine and anti-
histamines accumulate in lungs.
5. Which metals get accumulated in the kidney?

a) Mercury, cadmium, lead
b) Mercury, cadmium, iron
c) Mercury, lanthanum, lead
d) Mercury, cadmium, fluoride ions
Answer: a
Explanation: Metallothionin, is a protein present in kidneys. This protein tends to bind to heavy metals
such as mercury, cadmium, lead. Resulting in their accumulation in kidney and toxicity.

6. Which of the following drugs accumulate in skin?
d) Chloroquine
Answer: d
Explanation: Skin as melanin which protects us from the harmful UV rays of the sun. Chloroquine and
phenothiazines accumulate in skin by interacting with melanin.
7. Which of the following drugs are responsible for retinopathy?

d) Chloroquinine
Answer: d
Explanation: Chloroquine and phenothiazines accumulate in skin by interacting with melanin. Since
our retinal pigment of eye also has melanin, binding of chloroquine and phenothiazines to it is
responsible for retinopathy.
8. Which drugs deposit in hair shafts?

a) Arsenicals
b) Tetracycline
d) Lipophilic drug
Answer: a
Explanation: Arsenicals, chloroquine, phenothiazines are reported to deposit in hair shaft.
Tetracycline binds to bones and teeths. Lipophilic drugs accumulate in adipose tissues. Epoxides of
number of Halogenated hydrocarbon and paracetamol bind irreversibly to the liver tissues resulting
in hepatotoxicity.
9. Which drug causes brown yellow discoloration of infant’s teeth?

a) Arsenicals
b) Tetracycline

d) Lipophilic drug
Answer: b
Explanation: Tetracycline, this drug tends to bind to bones and teeth. Administration of this antibiotic
to infants or children during odontogenesis results in permanent brown yellow colour discoloration of
teeth.
10. Which drug accumulate in adipose tissue?

a) Arsenicals
b) Tetracycline
d) Lipophilic drug
Answer: d
Explanation: Lipophilic drugs such as that of thiopental and pesticides such as DDT accumulate in
adipose tissue. Halogenated hydrocarbon and paracetamol bind irreversibly to the liver tissues
resulting in hepatotoxicity. Tetracycline tends to bind to bones and teeth.
11. Which drugs results in distortion of double stranded DNA structure?

a) Arsenicals
b) Quinacrine
d) Lipophilic drug
Answer: b
Explanation: DNA interacts with drugs like Chloroquine and Quinacrine. These drugs result in
distortion of the double stranded helical structure of the DNA.
“Factors Affecting Protein Drug Binding”.
1. Which one of the following factors related to protein-drug binding is not related to
drugs?
a) Physicochemical characteristics of a drug
b) The concentration of the drug in the body
c) The affinity of the drug for binding
d) Number of binding sites on the binding agent

Answer: d
Explanation: There are many factors affecting protein-drug binding. The factors related to the drug,
are physicochemical characteristics of a drug, concentration of the drug in the body, affinity of the
drug for binding. A number of binding sites on the binding agent are related to the protein and other
binding components.
2. Which one of the following factor related to protein-drug binding is not related to
drug interactions with the binding site?
a) Competition between the drug and the binding site
b) Competition between drugs and normal body constituents
c) Allosteric changes in a protein molecule
d) Inter subject variation
Answer: d
Explanation: Competition between the drug and the binding site, competition between drugs and
normal body constituents, allosteric changes in protein molecule these factors are related to drug
interactions. Inter subject variation is a patient-related factor.
3. Which of the following factors for protein drug binding is a drug interaction factor?
a) Competition between drugs for the binding site
b) Age
c) Physicochemical characteristics of a drug
d) Physicochemical characteristics of the protein or binding agent
Answer: a
Explanation: Physicochemical interaction is not a drug interaction factor. Competition between the
drug and the binding site and competition between drug and other normal body constituents,
allosteric changes in protein molecule all these factors are related to drug interaction with the protein.
Age is a patient-related factor.
4. Which drugs bind to HSA easily?

a) Cationic drug
b) Anionic drug
c) Lipophilic drug
d) Neutral drug

Answer: b
Explanation: Anionic or acidic drugs bind to HSA easily, for example, penicillin and sulphonamides.
Cationic or basic drugs bind easily to alpha 1 acid glycoprotein, for example, imipramine and
alprenolol. Neutral and unionized drugs bind to lipoproteins. Lipophilic drugs localize more into
adipose tissue.
5. Which drugs easily bind to adipose tissue?

a) Cationic drug
b) Anionic drug
c) Lipophilic drug
d) Neutral drug
Answer: c
Explanation: Anionic or acidic drugs bind to HSA easily. Cationic or basic drugs bind easily to alpha 1
acid glycoprotein. Neutral and unionized drugs bind to lipoproteins. Lipophilic drugs localize more
into adipose tissue. Since lipophilic drugs are lipid loving they can easily get deposited on the adipose
tissue.
6. Which drug easily bind to AAG?

a) Cationic drug
b) Anionic drug
c) Lipophilic drug
d) Neutral drug
Answer: a
Explanation: Anionic or acidic drugs bind to HSA easily. Cationic or basic drugs having negative charge
can bind easily to alpha 1 acid glycoprotein, for example, imipramine and alprenolol. Neutral and
unionized drugs bind to lipoproteins. Lipophilic drugs localize more into adipose tissue.
7. The extent of drug-protein binding can change with both changes in protein and
drug concentration.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The concentration of drug that binds to HSA do not have much influence on HA, since
any concentration of drug in less than the concentration of HSA. The therapeutic concentration of

lidocaine can saturate AAG with which it binds as the concentration of AAG is much less in
comparison to that of HSA in blood.
8. In the equation X= Vd C, what does X stands for?

a) Amount of drug in the blood
b) Amount of drug in plasma
c) Amount of drug in the tablet
d) Amount of drug in the body
Answer: d
Explanation: The relationship between tissue-drug binding and apparent volume of distribution can
be established as Vd = amount of drug in the body (X)/ Plasma drug concentration (C).
9. Only unbound or free drug is capable of being eliminated.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Unbound or free drug is capable of being eliminated. Because the drug-protein complex
cannot penetrate into the metabolizing organ. The large molecular size of the complex also prevents
it from getting filtered through the glomerulus.
10. Penicillin has short plasma half-life although it can bind to plasma protein rigidly.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Penicillin has a short plasma half-life. Though it can rigidly bind to the plasma still it has
short elimination half live. This is because equilibration occurs between the free and the bound
protein and the free drug is equally rapidly excreted by active secretion in renal tubules.
11. –

12. What kind of graph is shown in the picture?
a) Direct plot
b) Scatchard plot
c) Double reciprocal plot
d) Michele’s menten plot
Answer: b
Explanation: The plot between r/d v/s r is known as Scatchard plot. This plot is a straight line. The
slope of the line –Ka, Y intercept is NKa and X intercept is N.
13. What kind of graph is shown in the picture?
a) Direct plot

b) Scatchard plot
c) Double reciprocal plot
d) Michele’s menten plot
Answer: c
Explanation: Double reciprocal plot is also known as Lineweaver Burk plot. This plot of 1/r versus 1/D
yields a straight line with slope 1/NKa and Y-intercept 1/N.
14. Displacement interactions are significant in the case of drugs which are more
than 95% bound.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A displacement of 1% and 99% bound drug results in doubling of the free drug
concentration i.e. a 100% rise. For a drug which is bound to 99% and a displacement of 1% results in
only a 10% rise in freed rug concentration which may be insignificant clinically.
15. Which of the following is a correct method to find the fraction of unbound drug in
plasma? Given where Cu is the concentration of unbound drug and C is total plasma
drug concentration.
a) CuC
b) C / Cu
c) Cu/C
d) 1/C Cu
Answer: c
Explanation: The fraction of unbound drug can be calculated with the formula fu = Cu/C, where Cu is
the concentration of unbound drug and C is total plasma drug concentration and fu is the unbound
drug.
“Drugs Biotransformation – Phase 1 Reactions -1”.
1. Biotransformation of drugs is defined as the conversion from one physical form to

another.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Biotransformation of drugs is the conversion of drugs from one chemical form to
another. The term is used with metabolism. The chemical changes are usually affected by
enzymatically in the body. For example conversion of penicillin to penicilloic acid by bacterial
penicillinase.
2. What are xenobiotics?

a) Another form of antibiotics
b) A form of nutrient
c) Nutrients which kill the gut harmful microbes
d) Anything that is not nutrients and enters the body through different routes
Answer: d
Explanation: All chemical substances that are not nutrients for the body and enter the body through
different routes like inhalation, ingestion, absorption, etc. are known as xenobiotics. Drugs are also
known as xenobiotics.
3. The drug biotransformation is a detoxification process.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The body’s metabolic system does not allow any drug to accumulate or aggregate inside
the body. Water soluble agents are excreted via urination. The metabolic system transforms the
water-insoluble drugs to polar and so that it can easily be urinated.
4. What is the active form of salicylic acid?

a) Sialic acid
b) Salic acid
c) Salicylic acid
d) Salicycle acid
Answer: c
Explanation: The salicylic acid is given to a patient on in its inactive form. Through metabolism, this
inactive salicylic acid is converted into its active form of Salicylic acid.

5. What is the inactive form of Codeine?
a) Codene
b) Codane
c) Morphine
d) Poppy
Answer: c
Explanation: The codeine is given to a patient on in its inactive form. Through metabolism, this
inactive codeine is converted into its active form morphine.
6. What are soft drugs?

a) Drugs given to babies
b) Chemical drugs which are already found in the body
c) Nutrients which kill the gut harmful microbes
d) Anything that is not nutrients and enters the body through different routes
Answer: b
Explanation: Soft drugs are natural endogenous substances which are already present in the body.
Such as neurotransmitters (dopamine, GABA, epinephrine, norepinephrine), steroids (oxytocin,
oestrogen, progesterone), insulin. The body is already programmed to metabolize them and excrete
out. Thus these drugs when used are rapidly inactivated.
7. Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of drug metabolism?

a) Liver > lungs > kidneys > intestine > placenta > skin > adrenals
b) Liver > lungs > kidneys > intestine > adrenals > placenta > skin
c) Liver > kidneys > lungs > intestine > placenta > adrenals > skin
d) Liver > lungs > intestine > kidneys > placenta > adrenals > skin
Answer: a
Explanation: Liver is the primary site for metabolism. Of most of the drugs. It is because it has most of
the enzymes in it that are in large numbers. Metabolism by other organs is very less because they
have a very low quantity of enzymes present in them. Thus the order is liver > lungs > kidneys >
intestine > placenta > skin > adrenals.
8. The enzymes are divided into two categories, these are _______ and ____________
a) Acidic drug metabolizing and basic drug metabolizing

b) Present in the liver and not present in the liver
c) Microsomal and non-microsomal
d) There is no such division
Answer: c
Explanation: The enzymes are divided into 2 categories namely microsomal and non-microsomal.
Microsomal enzymes catalyse the majority of the drug biotransformation reactions. The large variety
of microsomal enzymes catalyse a number of oxidative, reductive and hydrolytic reactions.
9. Microsome are selective to ____________

a) Water-soluble drugs
b) Lipid soluble drugs
c) Acidic drugs
d) Basic drugs
Answer: b
Explanation: The intact Lipoidal membrane of the microsome is essential for its selectivity towards
lipid soluble substrates. The lipid soluble substrate is bio transformed into water-soluble metabolite
by the microsomal enzymes and thus can easily excrete out.
10. Where are non-microsomal enzymes present?

a) In the Golgi apparatus
b) Inside lysosomes
c) In the cytoplasm in soluble form
d) In oxysomes
Answer: c
Explanation: Non-microsomal enzymes include those that are present in soluble form in the
cytoplasm and those attached to the mitochondria but not to the endoplasmic reticulum. These
enzymes are non-specifically catalysing few oxidative reactions, the number of reductive reactions
and hydrolytic reactions.
11. Phase 1 reactions are also known as a synthetic reaction.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Phase I reactions include introducing or removing of –OH, -COOH, -NH2 and –SH. This

phase I reactions are also known as functionalization reactions. These transformations are also
known as a synthetic reaction.
12. Following are the Phase I reactions except ____________

a) Oxidative reactions
b) Hydrolytic reactions
c) Reductive reactions
d) Sulphide reactions
Answer: d
Explanation: Phase I reactions precedes phase II reactions. These reactions are an oxidative reaction,
hydrolytic reactions, and reductive reactions. Phase I reactions include introducing or removing of –
OH, -COOH, -NH2 and –SH. This phase I reactions are also known as functionalization reactions.
13. What are the names of the 3 protein involve in multienzyme mixed-function
oxidase system, located in the endoplasmic reticulum?
a) Heme protein, flavoprotein, phosphatidylcholine
b) Heme protein, flavoprotein, retinal protein
c) Heme protein, retinal protein, phosphatidylcholine
d) Retinal protein, flavoprotein, phosphatidylcholine
Answer: a
Explanation: Heme protein helps in oxidizing the substrate, flavoprotein functions as an electron
carrier and catalyses the reduction of cytochrome 450 to ferrous form, phosphatidylcholine functions
to facilitate electron transfer from NADPH to cytochrome 450.
14. What is the function of Phosphatidylcholine in multienzyme mixed-function

oxidase system, located in the endoplasmic reticulum?
a) Oxidising the substrate
b) Reducing the substrate
c) Facilitate electron transfer from NADPH to cytochrome 450
d) Facilitate electron transfer from cytochrome 450 to NADPH
Answer: c
Explanation: Phosphatidylcholine has choline as a head group. These are major components of the
cell membrane. Phosphatidylcholine is a heat stable lipid component which functions to facilitate
electron transfer from NADPH to cytochrome 450.
15. What is the function of a flavoprotein, located in the endoplasmic reticulum?

a) Oxidising the substrate

b) Reducing the cytochrome-450 to the ferrous form
c) Facilitate electron transfer from NADPH to cytochrome 450
d) Facilitate electron transfer from cytochrome 450 to NADPH
Answer: b
Explanation: Flavoprotein functions as an electron carrier and catalyses the reduction of cytochrome
450 to ferrous form by transferring an electron from NADPH. Flavoprotein in multienzyme mixed-
function oxidase system.
“Drugs Biotransformation – Phase 1 Reactions – 2”.
1. Which one is the rate-limiting step in the oxidation of xenobiotics?

a) Binding of the substrate to Fe3+
b) Electron transfer from NADPH to the above complex
c) The enzyme-substrate complex combines with a molecule of oxygen forming a
ternary complex
d) Ternary complex gains an electron from the NADPH
Answer: b
Explanation: The rate-limiting step is the transfer of an electron from NADPH to the complex of
substrate and cytochrome 450. The gaining of an electron by cytochrome 450 reduces the Fe 3+ to
Fe2+. This step is considered the rate-limiting step of the oxidation of xenobiotics.
2. What provides the atom of oxygen for the making of water?

a) From the cytochrome 450
b) From the environment
c) From the activated oxygen P-450 substrate complex
d) From cytochrome reductase
Answer: c
Explanation: One atom of oxygen from the activated oxygen P450 complex is transferred to the
substrate to yield the oxidized product and the other atom forms water. The free oxidized form of
cytochrome P-450 is ready to attach to another molecule of substrate.
3. What is the major end product of oxidation of aromatic carbon atoms?

a) Arenols
b) Catechol

c) Glutathione
d) Arene oxide
Answer: a
Explanation: The oxidation of aromatic carbon atoms proceeds via formation of a reactive
intermediate arene oxide. This arene oxide in most cases is converted into arenols and in some cases
produces minor products such as catechols and glutathione conjugates.
4. Which one of the following is reactive and a known carcinogenic?

a) Cytochrome P-450
b) Catechol
c) Glutathione
d) Arene oxide
Answer: d
Explanation: The oxidation of aromatic carbon atoms proceeds via formation of a reactive
intermediate arene oxide. This arene oxide is a known carcinogenic or even cytotoxic in some
instances.
5. Which of the following is not a common N containing functional groups which

undergo reduction reactions?
a) Nitro compounds
b) Azo compounds
c) N-oxide compounds
d) Nitrite compounds
Answer: d
Explanation: The N-containing functional groups that commonly undergo bioreduction are nitro, azo,
N-oxide compounds. Reduction of the nitro group proceeds via formation of nitroso and
hydroxylamine intermediates to yield amines.
6. Esters on hydrolysis yields alcohol and carboxylic acid.

a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Esters on hydrolysis yield alcohol and carboxylic acids with the release of a water
molecule. The reaction is catalysed by esterase.
7. Which enzymes catalyses the hydrolysis of amides?

a) Esterase
b) Amydases
c) Amidases
d) Aminodases
Answer: c
Explanation: The reaction of hydrolysis of amides is catalysed by amidases. The reaction involves C-N
bond cleavage thus yielding carboxylic acid and amine. Amides are hydrolysed slowly in comparison
to esters.
8. What is the end product of hydrolysis of Lidocaine?

a) 2, 6-Xylidine, N, N-Dimethylglycine
b) 2, 5- Xylidine, Dimethylglycine
c) Xylidine, glycine
d) 1, 6-Xylidine
Answer: a
Explanation: The reaction of hydrolysis of amides is catalysed by amidases. Lidocaine is a secondary
amide with an organic substituent on N-atom. Thus providing us with 2, 6-Xylidine, N, N-
Dimethylglycine as the end product.
9. What is the end product of hydrolytic dehalogenation of DDT?

a) Dichloro diphenyl ethylene
b) 1- chloro diphenyl dichloroethylene
c) Trichloro triphenyl trichloroethylene
d) Dichloro diphenyl dichloroethylene
Answer: d
Explanation: In the hydrolytic dehalogenation a molecule of HCL is removed from the substrate. Thus
in the case of Dichloro diphenyl trichloroethane when a molecule of HCL is removed we get Dichloro
diphenyl dichloroethylene as the product.

10. What does the hydrolysis of Aspirin yield us with?
a) Salicylic acid only
b) Salicylic acid and CH3COOH
c) CH3COOH
d) Succinic acid
Answer: b
Explanation: Esters like aspirin with large alcoholic and small acidic group when hydrolysed in the
presence of esterase yields us with salicylic acid and CH 3COOH as the end product.
“Drugs Biotransformation – Phase 2 Reactions”.
1. Which enzyme is important in the Phase II reactions?

a) Esterase
b) Amidases
c) Transferase
d) Aldo-keto-reductases
Answer: c
Explanation: Phase II reactions involve the transfer of a suitable moiety such as glucuronic acid
sulfate, glycine, etc. to the phase I reaction. This transfer is mediated by the presence of the enzyme
Transferase.
2. The phase II reactions are detoxification pathways.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In the phase, II reactions tissue reactive and carcinogenic metabolites are rendered
harmless by conjugation with glutathione. The Phase II reactions terminate the pharmacologic activity
of xenobiotics.
3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the moieties that are transferred to
the substrate in phase II reactions?
a) Simple endogenous molecules are transferred
b) Large molecular sized groups are attached
c) Strong polar groups are attached

d) Strong nonpolar groups are attached
Answer: d
Explanation: The moieties transferred to the substrates in a phase II reactions possess characteristics
that are, simple endogenous molecules, large groups, and strong polar or ionic groups are attached to
make the substrate water soluble.
4. Which of the following statement is false?

a) D-glucuronic acid is easily available
b) Several functional groups can be easily linked with the D-glucuronic acid
c) Conjugation with D-glucuronic acid occurs to a high degree
d) Whole animal kingdom have the common ability to produce D-glucuronic acid
Answer: d
Explanation: The statement d is false since all the mammals have the ability to produce glucuronides.
D-glucuronic acid is readily available and can be easily conjugated with other functional groups.
5. Which coenzyme is synthesized in the 1st step of the formation of Glucuronide?

a) Uridine triphosphate
b) Uridine-5’-diphosphate-alpha-D-glucuronic acid
c) UDP-glucose
d) Glucuronide
Answer: b
Explanation: Glucuronide formation takes place in 2 steps. The 1st step activated coenzyme uridine-5’-
diphosphate-alpha-D-glucuronic acid is formed from UDP-glucose. The coenzyme acts as a donor of
glucuronic acid.
6. Which enzyme is of the utmost importance for the 2nd step in the formation of
Glucuronide?
a) Esterase
b) Amidases
c) Transferase
d) UDP-glucuronyl transferase

Answer: d
Explanation: The moieties transferred to the substrates in a phase II reactions possess characteristics
that are, simple endogenous molecules, large groups, and strong nonpolar or ionic groups are
attached to make the substrate water soluble.
7. Which one of the following is an example of Carboxyl compounds?

a) Meprobamate
b) Sulfadimethoxine
c) Sulphonamides
d) Salicylic acids
Answer: d
Explanation: These compounds form ester glucuronides. For example aryl acids, arylalkyl acids,
salicylic acids, fenoprofen. Amides, Sulfonamides, Meprobamate, Sulfadimethoxine are amines or
amides which form N-glucuronides.
8. In the sulfation process, what is the name of the coenzyme formed in the 1st step?
a) 3’-phosphoadenosine-5’-phosphosulfate
b) Adenosine triphosphate
c) Adenosine-5’-phosphosulfate
d) Uridine-5’-diphosphate-alpha-D-glucuronic acid
Answer: a
Explanation: In the 1st step of sulphation, synthesis of an active coenzyme takes place. The coenzyme
name is 3’-phosphoadenosine-5’-phosphosulfate. This coenzyme acts as a donor of sulfate to the
substrate.
9. Which enzyme’s presence is of utmost importance for the 2nd step of sulphation?
a) Sulfotransferase
b) Amidases
c) Transferase
d) UDP-glucuronyl transferase
Answer: a
Explanation: Sulfotransferase catalyses the transfer of sulphate group from 3’-phosphoadenosine-5’-
phosphosulfate to the substrate. It also helps in the liberation of 3’-phosphoadenosine-5’-phosphate.

10. Which of the following is not an example of a drug undergoing acetylation
reaction?
a) Hydrazine
b) Salicylic acids
c) Sulphonamides
d) Histamines
Answer: b
Explanation: Acetylation is an important metabolic pathway for drugs containing primary amino
groups. Drugs which undergo acetylation reaction are histamine, sulphanilamide, and hydralazine.
Acetylation may sometime lead to the production of toxic compounds.
“Drugs Biotransformation – Affecting Factors”.
1. What is enzyme induction?

a) The phenomenon of increased drug metabolizing ability of enzymes by drugs and
chemicals
b) The phenomenon of increasing drug bioavailability drugs and chemicals
c) The phenomenon of increasing drug distribution drugs and chemicals
d) The phenomenon of increasing drug concentration for a particular tissue by drugs
and chemicals
Answer: a
Explanation: The phenomenon of increased drug metabolizing ability of enzymes by drugs and
chemicals is called as enzyme induction and the agents which helps to bring such changes are known
as inducers.
2. Which of the following drugs has self -induction to stimulate their own
metabolism?
a) Cortisol
b) Pentobarbital
c) Meprobamate
d) Contraceptives
Answer: c
Explanation: Drugs such as carbamazepine, Meprobamate, cyclophosphamide, rifampicin, etc.
stimulate their own metabolism. This phenomenon is known as auto-induction or self -induction.

3. Alcohol is the inducer for which drug?
a) Cortisol
b) Pentobarbital
c) Meprobamate
d) Oral contraceptives
Answer: b
Explanation: Alcohol act as an inducer for pentobarbital, coumarins, and phenytoin. Meprobamate is
self-inducing. Oral contraceptives are induced by barbiturates.
4. What is the name of the process where structurally same compounds compete for
the same site on an enzyme to inhibit that?
a) Altered physiology
b) Repression
c) Non-competitive inhibition
d) Competitive inhibition
Answer: d
Explanation: Competitive inhibition results when structurally similar compounds compete for the
same site on an enzyme. Such an inhibition due to substrate competition is reversible and can be
overcome by a high concentration of one substrate. Methacholine inhibits the metabolism of
acetylcholine by competing with it for cholinesterase.
5. What is the name of the process where structurally different compounds interact
with the enzyme and prevent the metabolism of the drug?
b) Repression
Answer: c
Explanation: Non-competitive inhibition happens when structurally different compounds interact with
the enzyme and prevent the metabolism of the drug. This interaction is not structured specifically. So
lead, mercury, arsenic, organophosphorus insecticides inhibit enzymes noncompetitively.

6. What is the name of the process where the enzyme amount is decreased due to a
decrease in enzyme synthesis?
b) Repression
Answer: b
Explanation: Repression is the process where the enzyme amount is decreased due to a decrease in
enzyme synthesis. The synthesis of the enzyme can be affected by puromycin and actinomycin D. It
can also happen by raising the rate of enzyme degradation such as carbon tetrachloride, carbon
disulphide, disulfiram, etc.
7. What is the name of the process where due to nutritional deficiency an enzyme
content is decreased?
b) Repression
Answer: a
Explanation: Altered physiology is the process where due to nutritional deficiency an enzyme content
is decreased. Thus decreasing the enzyme content, and decreasing the drug metabolizing time.
8. Which one of the following is not an environmental agent to decrease drug

metabolizing ability?
a) DDT
b) Cigarette smoke
c) Organophosphate insecticides
d) Methacholine
Answer: d
Explanation: Methacholine inhibits the metabolism of acetylcholine by competing with it for
cholinesterase. It is not an environmental factor. Halogenated pesticides e.g. DDT, polycyclic aromatic
hydrocarbon e.g. cigarette smoke, organophosphate insecticides, heavy metals inhibit drug
metabolizing of enzymes.

9. What is polygenic control of drugs?
a) Drug controlling seen in an individual
b) Drug controlling seen in twins
c) Drug controlling seen in between different species
d) Drug controlling seen in a particular population
Answer: b
Explanation: Polygenic control has been observed in twins. In identical twins that are monozygotic
twins, there is very little or no difference in drug metabolism. It was detected that there was no
difference in the metabolism of phenylbutazone, dicoumarol, and antipyrine. Although large
variations were detected in dizygotic twins.
10. Differences observed in metabolism of drug among different races is known as

______________
a) Pharmacogenetics
b) Ethnic variations
c) Discontinues variation
d) Polygenic control
Answer: b
Explanation: Differences observed in the metabolism of the drug among different races is known as
ethnic variation. Polygenic control is the control of drug metabolizing in the twins. Pharmacogenetics
is the study of inter-subject variability in drug response.
11. Which age group is known as the neonates?

a) Up to 2 months
b) Up to 2 years
c) Up to 6 months
d) Up to 1 year
Answer: a
Explanation: Babies below the age of 2 months are called as neonates. Their microsomal enzymes are
not fully developed. Thus takes much longer time to metabolize drugs.
12. Which age group metabolizes drugs faster than the adults?
a) Between 1-12 year
b) Between 1-15 year
c) Between 6-12 year

d) Between 12-18 year
Answer: a
Explanation: Children and older infant of the age group 1-12 year metabolize several drugs much
more rapidly than adults. The rate of metabolism reaches a maximum somewhere between 6 months
to 12 years of age. As a result, they require large mg/kg doses in comparison to adults.
13. Fat-free diet depresses cytochrome P-450 level.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A fat-free diet decreases the phospholipid content. Phospholipids are important
components of microsomes. When these become deficient, the cytochrome p-450 levels decrease.
14. Maternal drug metabolizing ability increases in the later stage of pregnancy.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Maternal drug metabolizing ability decreases in the later stage of pregnancy. Due to high
levels of steroid hormones in circulation during pregnancy, in women, the metabolism of promazine
and pethidine decreases. Thus, maternal drug metabolizing ability decreases.
15. Enzyme activity is maximum during the early morning.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: By research, it has been observed that the enzyme activity is maximum during the early
morning and minimum during the late afternoon. This also corresponds to high and low serum levels
of corticosterone.
“Drugs Excretion – Different Routes of Excretion”.
1. Which one of the following is the principal organ for drug excretion?
a) Lungs
b) Liver
c) Kidneys

d) Sweat glands
Answer: c
Explanation: Kidney is the principal organ for drug excretion. Lungs are more helpful in the excretion
of volatile compounds. Sweat glands excrete a very minute amount of drugs. Drugs are made to be
water soluble to get excreted from the kidneys easily.
2. Compounds excreted in bile is classified into 3 categories. Which one of the

following does not come under the categories?
a) Drugs with bile/plasma concentration ratio approximately 1
b) Drugs with bile/plasma concentration ratio between 10-1000
c) Drugs with bile/plasma concentration ratio of less than 1
d) Drugs with bile/plasma concentration ratio above 1000
Answer: d
Explanation: The categories are divided into Group A, Group B, Group C. Group A has drugs with
bile/plasma concentration ratio approximately 1 e.g. sodium. Group B has drugs with bile/plasma
concentration ratio between 10 -1000 e.g. creatinine. Group C has drugs with bile/plasma
concentration ratio less than 1 e.g. sucrose.
3. What is the molecular weight cut off for biliary excretion?

a) Less than 300 Dalton
b) More than 300 Dalton
c) Less than 200 Dalton
d) More than 200 Dalton
Answer: b
Explanation: The threshold is 300 Dalton for biliary excretion. The threshold if 300V or greater than
300 Dalton is necessary for the excretion of organic cations and anions respectively. Non-ionic
compounds must be highly polar for excretion.
4. What is the equation for biliary clearance?

a) No such equation is there
b) Biliary excretion rate/ plasma drug concentration
c) Plasma drug concentration / biliary excretion rate

d) Plasma drug concentration / Bile flow * biliary drug concentration
Answer: b
Explanation: The ability of the liver to excrete drug into the bile is expressed as bile clearance. The
equation for bile clearance is biliary excretion rate/ plasma drug concentration. Since biliary excretion
can also be written as bile flow * biliary drug concentration. The other equation for bile clearance is
bile flow * biliary drug concentration/ plasma drug concentration.
5. For a certain drug, the bile flow rate is 0.7 ml/mm, the biliary drug concentration is
2g/ml and the plasma drug concentration is 0.8g/ml. What will be the bile clearance?
a) 1.50 ml/mm
b) 1.75 ml/mm
c) 2.75 ml/mm
d) 3 ml/mm
Answer: b
Explanation: The equation for bile clearance is biliary excretion rate/ plasma drug concentration. Since
biliary excretion can also be written as bile flow * biliary drug concentration. The other equation for
bile clearance is bile flow * biliary drug concentration/ plasma drug concentration. Thus the answer is
0.7*2*0.8=1.75 ml/mm.
6. –
7. Which compounds are excreted through the lungs?

a) Lipophilic
b) Gaseous
c) Liquid and hydrophilic
d) Solid less than 100 Dalton
Answer: b
Explanation: Gaseous substances and volatile substances find their excretion way through the lungs
into the expired air. These substances easily get absorbed through the tissue of the lungs by simple
diffusion. Such as general anesthetics are absorbed through the lungs. Intact gaseous drugs are
excreted but not the metabolites.

8. What is the pH of the milk secreted by human mothers?
a) 6.4-7.6
b) 5.4-6.6
c) 7-8
d) 6-7
Answer: a
Explanation: The pH of the milk varies 6.4 – 7.6. The mean pH is 7. Unionized and lipid soluble drugs
can easily diffuse into the mammary alveolar cells passively.
9. What is the mechanism of drug excretion for skin excretion?

a) Active secretion
b) Glomerular secretion
c) Passive diffusion
d) Passive reabsorption
Answer: c
Explanation: Passive excretion of drugs occurs through the skin. In the case of excretion through the
skin, drugs follow pH partition hypothesis. Free, unionized, lipophilic drugs can passively be diffused
into the sweat.
10. What is the mechanism of drug excretion for biliary excretion?

a) Active secretion
b) Glomerular secretion
c) Passive diffusion
d) Passive reabsorption
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrophilic, uncharged drugs, metabolites and conjugates get actively secreted out
through bile excretion. The metabolic weight must be greater than or equal to 500 Dalton. Glomerular
secretion occurs only through the kidneys.
11. Which of the following is not a factor influencing pulmonary excretion?

a) Pulmonary blood flow
b) The solubility of volatile substance
c) Rate of respiration
d) Heart rate

Answer: d
Explanation: Heart rate does not directly influence the pulmonary excretion. Though it might be a
factor influence is very less. The other three factors are directly related to the lungs and the rate of
absorption of the drug from the lungs and out of the lungs back to alveoli.
12. How is renal clearance expressed mathematically?

a) Rate of urinary excretion/plasma drug concentration
b) Plasma drug concentration/rate of urinary excretion
c) 1/ Plasma drug concentration
d) 1/rate of urinary excretion
Answer: a
Explanation: Renal clearance is defined as the volume of plasma or blood which is completely cleared
of the unchanged drug by the kidney per unit time. It is expressed as an equation that is the Rate of
urinary excretion/plasma drug concentration. It is the sum of the rate of glomerular filtration and rate
of secretion minus the rate of absorption to the plasma drug concentration.
13. What is the driving force for glomerular filtration?

a) Concentration gradient
b) Hydrostatic pressure of plasma
c) High amount of aqueous pores
d) Hydrostatic pressure of blood flow
Answer: d
Explanation: Glomerular filtration is the 1st filtration in the urinary excretion. The driving force for
filtration is the hydrostatic pressure of the blood flowing in the capillaries. 1.2 l/min of blood flows
through the renal artery. The filtration rate is 120-130 ml/min through the glomeruli.
14. Which of the following compounds are used as agents to determine Glomerular
Filtration Rate?
a) Calcium ion
b) Albumin
c) Creatinine
d) Calcium carbonate
Answer: c
Explanation: GFR is determined by agent which is excreted exclusively by glomerular filtration and is
neither secreted nor reabsorbed in the tubules. The excretion rate of such compounds is 120-130
ml/min. The compounds used are creatinine, insulin, mannitol, sodium thiosulfate.

15. The rate of urine flow influences the extent of reabsorption.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A higher amount of urine flow leads to less reabsorption. A lower amount of urine flow
leads to more reabsorption. Polar drugs whose excretion is independent of urine pH and are not
reabsorbed are unaffected by urine flow rate. Those drugs whose reabsorption is pH sensitive is
dependent on the flow rate of urine.
Question) How do you calculate the rate of excretion by kidneys?

a) Rate of filtration – the rate of secretion – Rate of absorption
b) Rate of filtration + rate of secretion – Rate of absorption
c) Rate of filtration + rate of secretion + Rate of absorption
d) Rate of filtration – the rate of secretion + Rate of absorption
Answer: b
Explanation: The rate of excretion through the kidneys is given by Rate of filtration + rate of secretion
– Rate of absorption. Absorption is the reabsorption of the drug particles back to the system thus it
gets minus from the filtrated amount and secreted amount.
“Pharmacokinetic – Mechanism of Drug Interactions”.
1. The renal clearance of a drug bound to plasma protein is increased after

displacement with another drug.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: When another drug displaces one drug which was previously bound to plasma protein,
the renal clearance of the later increases. Gentamicin induced nephrotoxicity by furosemide is an
example of this. Furosemide does not precipitate by its diuretic effect but by displacing gentamicin
from binding sites.
2. Which of the following promotes excretion of acidic drugs?

a) Citrates
b) Ammonium chloride
c) Methionine

d) Ascorbic acid
Answer: a
Explanation: Acidification of urine using certain compounds such as NH4CL, methionine or ascorbic
acids enhances the excretion of basic drugs. Alkalinisation of urine using citrates, tartarates,
bicarbonates promote the excretion of acidic drugs.
3. Which of the following promotes the excretion of basic drugs?

a) Tartarates
b) Citrates
c) Bicarbonates
d) Ammonium chloride
Answer: d
Explanation: Acidification of urine using certain compounds such as NH 4CL, methionine or ascorbic
acids enhances the excretion of basic drugs. Alkalinisation of urine using citrates, tartarates,
bicarbonates promote the excretion of acidic drugs.
4. This is the equation for the calculation of creatinine clearance. Which age group
does the Clcr = 0.48 H / Scr *[W/70]0.7 formula belong to?
a) 1-6 years
b) 1-20 years
c) Males above 20 years
d) Females above 20 years
Answer: b
Explanation: Calculation of creatinine clearance involves the determination of serum creatinine levels.
Creatinine production varies with age, height and gender. The given formulae is used to measure the
creatinine level in children 1-20 years of age. Clcr is creatinine clearance in ml/min, Scr is serum
creatinine in mg%, H is height in cms, W is weight in kg.
does the Clcr = (140 – Age) W / 72 * Scr formula belong to?
a) 1-6 years
b) 1-20 years

Answer: c
Creatinine production varies with age, height and gender. The given equation is for males whose age
is above 20 years. Clcr is creatinine clearance in ml/min, Scr is serum creatinine in mg%, H is height in
cms, W is weight in kg, age is in years.
does the Clcr = (140 – Age) W / 85 * Scr formula belong to?
a) 1-6 years
b) 1-20 years
Answer: d
Creatinine production varies with age, height and gender. The given equation is for females whose
age is above 20 years. Clcr is creatinine clearance in ml/min, Scr is serum creatinine in mg%, H is height
in cms, W is weight in kg, age is in years.
7. A girl with age 21 has height 240cm, weight 55kg, serum creatinine of 0.8mg will
have ______________ creatinine clearance.
a) 80 ml/min
b) 90 ml/min
c) 96.25 ml/min
d) 85 ml/min
Answer: c
Explanation: For females of age above 20 years the equation for creatinine clearance is (140-
age)*W/85*Scr where, Clcr is creatinine clearance in ml/min, Scr is serum creatinine in mg%, H is height
in cms, W is weight in kg, age is in years.
8. An adult male with age 22 has height 240cm, weight 85kg, serum creatinine of
0.8mg will have ______________ creatinine clearance.

a) 150 ml/min
b) 160 ml/min
c) 170.13 ml/min
d) 174.131 ml/min
Answer: d
Explanation: For males of age above 20 years the equation for creatinine clearance is (140-age)*W /
72*Scr where, Clcr is creatinine clearance in ml/min, Scr is serum creatinine in mg%, H is height in cms,
W is weight in kg, age is in years.
9. Which creatinine clearance value shows moderate renal failure?

a) 120-130 ml/min
b) 20-50 ml/min
c) Below 10 ml/min
d) 70-80 ml/min
Answer: b
Explanation: The normal creatinine clearance value is 120-130 ml/min. A value between 20-50 ml/min
of creatinine clearance shows moderate renal failure. Values below 10 ml/min indicates a severe renal
failure.
10. Which creatinine clearance value shows severe renal failure?

a) 120-130 ml/min
b) 20-50 ml/min
c) Below 10 ml/min
d) 70-80 ml/min
Answer: c
Explanation: The normal creatinine clearance value is 120-130 ml/min. A value between 20-50 ml/min
of creatinine clearance shows moderate renal failure. Values below 10 ml/min indicates a severe renal
failure.
11. Drugs in patients with renal impairment have same pharmacokinetic profile as in
a person without renal failure.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Drugs in patient with renal impairment has changed pharmacokinetic. The drugs’ renal
clearance, elimination rate are reduce, whereas the elimination half-life is increases a lot, even
apparent volume of distribution is altered. Thus dose must be altered depending upon the renal
function of the patient.
12. Which kind of membrane is used in haemodialysis?

a) Artificial Semipermeable membrane
b) Permeable membrane
c) Natural semipermeable membrane of the peritoneal cavity
d) Artificial permeable membrane
Answer: a
Explanation: In haemodialysis, the semipermeable membrane is artificial membrane. The whole
system of dialysis is outside the body, also called extracorporeal dialysis. In peritoneal dialysis, the
membrane used is natural membrane of the peritoneal cavity.
13. Which kind of membrane is used in haemodialysis?

a) Artificial Semipermeable membrane
b) Permeable membrane
c) Natural semipermeable membrane of peritoneal cavity
d) Artificial permeable membrane
Answer: c
Explanation: In peritoneal dialysis, the natural membrane of the peritoneal cavity of human body is
used. In haemodialysis, the semipermeable membrane is artificial membrane. In peritoneal dialysis, a
dialysate fluid is inserted into the abdomen using a catheter and drain the discarded fluid after some
amount of time.
14. Which of the following will not be a factor governing the removal of substances
through dialysis?
a) Molecular weight
b) Water solubility
c) Disintegration time
d) Protein binding
Answer: c
Explanation: Disintegration time of a drug will be a factor for drug absorption, it will not directly affect
the dialysis rate. Molecules with size less than 500 Dalton can be dialysed easily. Only water soluble

drugs are able to be dialysed. Drugs binding to the plasma protein or the blood cells cannot be
dialysed since dialysis is passive diffusion. Drug with large volume of distribution distributed
throughout the body thus less readily removed through dialysis.
15. Haemodialysis is also known as extracorporeal dialysis.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Haemodialysis is the process of removal of unwanted solutes from the blood to a
dialysate. This whole process is done outside the body in a series of tubes covered with artificial
semipermeable membrane. Thus this process is known as extracorporeal dialysis. The equipment is
referred to as artificial kidney or haemodialyzer.
“Pharmacokinetic – Plasma Drug Concentration Time Profile”.
1. In plasma drug concentration versus time graph as shown in the picture, what
should be the correct option for the marked place?
a) Maximum safe concentration

b) Minimum effective concentration
c) Therapeutic range
d) Onset of action

Answer: a
Explanation: This graph is plasma drug concentration versus time curve obtained after single oral
dosage of a drug. Maximum safe concentration or the minimum toxic concentration is the
concentration of drug in plasma above which adverse or unwanted effects are most probably to be
occurred. Any concentration of drug above maximum safe concentration will be in the toxic level.

d) Onset of action
Answer: b
Explanation: This graph is plasma drug concentration versus time curve obtained after single oral
dosage of a drug. Minimum effective concentration is the minimum concentration of the drug in
plasma which is necessary to produce a therapeutic effect. It also says about the minimum
concentration of drug at the receptor site to elicit the desired pharmacological response.

a) Elimination phase
b) Post absorption phase
c) Absorption phase
d) Duration of action
Answer: b
Explanation: Post absorption phase is the phase when the distribution of the drugs happens. This
phase comes before the elimination phase. Post absorption phase comes after the absorption phase
that is when all the drug molecules are absorbed into the plasma.

c) Absorption phase
Answer: c
Explanation: Absorption phase is when the rate of absorption is greater than the rate of elimination. It
is the left side of the curve. The peak represents the time when the absorption rate is equal to the
elimination rate of drug.

c) Absorption phase
Answer: a
Explanation: The section of the curve to the right of peak represents the elimination phase. It is the
part when the rate of elimination exceeds rate of absorption.

d) Onset of action
Answer: d
Explanation: Onset of action is the beginning of the pharmacological response for a drug. The
pharmacological action just occurs when the plasma drug concentration exceeds the minimum
effective concentration.

d) Onset of action
Answer: c
Explanation: The therapeutic range is between the minimum effective concentration and maximum
safe concentration. This is the concentration where the drug continues to give therapeutic effect.
Above this level, it will be toxic to the patient. And below this it won’t give a therapeutic effect.

d) Onset time
Answer: d
Explanation: Onset time is the time required for the drug to start producing pharmacologic response.
It is the time for the plasma concentration of the drug to reach the minimum effective dose after
administration.

c) Tmax
d) Onset of action
Answer: d
Explanation: It is the time needed for the curve to reach the peak. At the peak absorption rate is equal
to the elimination rate. Thus, Tmax is the maximum required for the rate of absorption to be equal to
the elimination rate.
10. The time period for which the plasma concentration of drug remains above
minimum effective concentration is known as ______________
a) Onset of time
b) Onset of action
c) Duration of drug of action
d) Therapeutic range
Answer: c
Explanation: The time period for which the plasma concentration of drug remains above minimum
effective concentration is known as the duration of drug action. Onset of action is the time needed for
the curve to reach the peak. Onset time is the time required for the drug to start producing

pharmacologic response. The therapeutic range is between the minimum effective concentration and
maximum safe concentration.
“Pharmacokinetic Models”.
1. Which of the following is not a mechanism for pharmacokinetic analysis?

a) Compartment analysis
b) Non compartment analysis
c) Physiologic modeling
d) Human model
Answer: d
Explanation: There are three different approaches to the pharmacokinetic analysis of experimental
data. These are compartment modeling, Noncompartment modeling, physiological modeling. There
no such thing called a human model.
2. In which of the following models the body is considered to be composed of several

compartments?
a) Compartment model
b) Noncompartment model
c) Physiologic model
d) Human model
Answer: a
Explanation: In the compartmental model, the body is considered to be composed of several
compartments. Tissues which are approximately similar in drug distribution characteristics form a
single compartment. These compartments are imaginary and not physiologic or anatomic region.
3. In which of the model peripheral compartments are connected to a central

compartment?
b) Caternary model
d) Mammillary model

Answer: d
Explanation: Mammillary model is the most common compartment model used in pharmacokinetics.
This method has one or more peripheral compartments connected to the central compartment. The
central compartment comprises of plasma and highly perfused tissue such as lungs, livers, kidneys,
etc.
4. Which organs will make up the peripheral compartment?

a) Lungs
b) Liver
c) Kidneys
d) Pancreas
Answer: d
Explanation: The central compartment consists of highly perfused tissues such as that of lungs,
kidneys, liver, etc. The peripheral compartment or tissue compartment consists of organs which are of
low vascularity and poor perfusion.
5. What type of drug administration will have the shown compartment model?
a) Intravenous administration
b) Oral administration
c) Rectal administration
d) Sublingual administration
Answer: a
Explanation: There is no arrow entering the 1st compartment itself, this means whatever the
administration is it directly goes into the blood. In intravenous administration, the blood is considered
to be the 1st compartment. Since one single compartment is shown it will be intravenous
administration. K10 is the first order elimination rate constant.

Answer: a
Explanation: There is no arrow entering the 1st compartment itself, this means whatever the
administration is it directly goes into the blood. In intravenous administration, the blood is considered
to be the 1st compartment, this blood will be moving to organs like lungs, kidneys, liver, etc. Since one
single compartment is shown it will be intravenous administration. Ko1 is the rate constant, i.e. the
first order absorption rate constant and K10 is the first order elimination rate constant. The 2nd
compartment is for the organs with poor perfusion.
d) Extravascular administration
Answer: d
Explanation: There is an arrow entering the 1st compartment, thus this one compartment model will
be for extravascular administration such as oral, rectal, vaginal, etc. The 1 st compartment is shown for
the blood which will be passing through the liver, lungs, kidneys, etc. Ko1 is the rate constant, i.e. the
first order absorption rate constant and K10 is the first order elimination rate constant.

Answer: d
Explanation: There is an arrow entering the 1st compartment. Thus this two-compartment model is for
extravascular administration. The 2nd compartment is for the organs with poor perfusion. Ko1 is the
rate constant, i.e. the first order absorption rate constant and K10 is the first order elimination rate
constant. K12 and K21 is the rate constant for the absorption into the organs of the 2nd compartment
and elimination from the 2nd compartment organs.
9. In which model compartments are joined in series?

b) Caternary model
d) Mammillary model
Answer: b
Explanation: In Caternary model, the compartments are joined to one another in a series like
compartments. This is not observable anatomically since various organs are directly linked to the
blood compartment. Mammillary model is the most common compartment model used in
pharmacokinetics. This method has one or more peripheral compartments connected to the central
compartment.
100 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram

channel
10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the caternary compartment
model?
a) It gives a visual representation of various rate processes in drug disposition
b) It shows how many rate constants are necessary
c) Compartments and parameters bear a relationship with physiologic functions
d) Useful in predicting drug
Answer: c
Explanation: In the caternary model, compartments and parameters are not in a relationship with the
physiological functions of the species. This is a disadvantage of the caternary model. Caternary model
gives a visual representation of various rate processes, it shows how many rate constants are
necessary, etc.
11. In noncompartmental analysis, Mean residence time is equal to _____________

a) The area under the first moment curve/area under the zero moment curve
b) The area under the zero moment’s curve/area under the first moment curve
c) 1 / Area under the first-moment curve
d) 1/ Area under the zero moment curve
Answer: a
Explanation: For noncompartmental analysis, the mean residence time is equal to the area under the
first moment curve (AUMC) / area under the zero moment curve (AUC). AUMC is obtained from a plot
of plasma drug concentration and time versus time t.
12. Which pharmacokinetic model is drawn on the basis of anatomic and physiologic
data?
b) Caternary model
d) Mammillary model
Answer: c
Explanation: The physiologic model is drawn on the basis of anatomic and physiologic data. Thus, it
represents a more realistic picture of drug disposition in various organs and tissues. The number of
compartments to be added depends on the drug that how many organs the drug will get distributed
to.

channel
13. Which kind of pharmacokinetic model is shown in the picture?
a) Physiologic model
b) Compartment model
c) Noncompartment model
d) Mammillary model
Answer: a
Explanation: In this model we can see compartments depending on each organ. The physiologic
model is made on the basis of known anatomic and physiologic data, it presents a more realistic idea
of drug disposition in various organs. Organs which have no drug disposition are excluded and
organs, where drug disposition occurs, are taken into account.
14. Which of the following will be a disadvantage for the physiologic model?
a) Prediction of drug concentration in various body regions
b) Correlation of data in several animal species

channel
c) Obtaining experimental data for each of the organs
d) The model gives an exact description of the drug concentration-time profile for
any organ
Answer: c
Explanation: The advantages of physiologic model are, concentration of the drug in various body parts
can be predicted on the basis of organ or tissue volume, the model gives an exact description of the
drug concentration-time profile for any organ, correlation of data in several animal species is possible
and the disadvantage is that obtaining experimental data for each an every organ is difficult.
15. Which model is also known as membrane permeation rate limited?

a) Physiologic model
b) Compartment model
c) Noncompartment model
d) Mammillary model
Answer: a
Explanation: Physiologic models are made with the assumption that the drug movement within a
body region is much more rapid than its rate of delivery to that region, this assumption will be
applicable to highly membrane permeable drugs i.e. drugs with low molecular weight, nonionized and
lipophilic drugs. For highly polar, ionized and charged drugs, the model is referred to as membrane
permeation rate-limited.
“One & Two Compartment Open Model”.
1. What does the word “open” mean in the one compartment open model?
a) The drug easily enters
b) The drug readily mixes with the blood
c) Unidirectional input and output
d) Easy absorption
Answer: c
Explanation: The term open indicates that the input and the output are unidirectional and the drug
can be eliminated from the body. One compartment open model does not assume that drug
concentration in plasma is equal to that in other body tissue.

channel
2. How much time does an intravenously administered drug take to complete a
complete circulation?
a) 5-8 min
b) 7-10 min
c) 1-3 min
d) 1 min
Answer: c
Explanation: When any drug is administered intravenously, it takes 1-3min for a complete circulation
of the whole body. Thus the rate of absorption is not taken into account when any drug is
administered intravenously.
3. In the equation log C = log Co – KEt/2.303, what does Co stand for _______
a) Plasma drug concentration after 60 min of i.v. injection
b) Plasma drug concentration after 15 min of i.v. injection
c) Plasma drug concentration after 30 min of i.v. injection
d) Plasma drug concentration immediately after i.v. injection
Answer: d
Explanation: In the equation log C = log Co – KEt/2.303, C is the drug concentration in plasma, Co is
the plasma drug concentration immediately after i.v. injection, KE is the overall elimination rate
constant, t is time.
4. What is meant by elimination half-life?

a) Time take for half of the amount of drug to get completely eliminated from only
the organs
b) Time take for half of the amount of drug to get completely eliminated from only
blood
c) Time take for half of the amount of drug to get completely eliminated from only
plasma
d) Time take for half of the amount of drug to get completely eliminated from the
body as well as plasma
Answer: d
Explanation: Also known as the biological half-life. It is defined as the time taken for half amount of
drug in the body and plasma concentration to decline by one-half of its initial value. It is expressed in
hours or minutes. T-half = 0.693/KE.

channel
5. What is the equation to find out the apparent volume of distribution?
a) Amount of drug in the body/plasma drug concentration
b) Plasma drug concentration/amount of drug in the body
c) 1 / plasma drug concentration
d) 1 / Amount of drug in the body
Answer: a
Explanation: The apparent volume of distribution Vd is given by Amount of drug in the body (X) /
plasma drug concentration (C). Vd is expressed in liters.
6. The i.v. bolus dosage is 500mg and the plasma drug concentration is 0.8 mg/ml.
What should be the volume of distribution?
a) 625 mg/ml
b) 625 l
c) 625 ml
d) 0.0016 mg/ml
Answer: c
plasma drug concentration (C). Vd is expressed in liters or milliliters. Thus 500/0.8=625.
7. To have a plasma distribution value of 900 ml and plasma drug concentration to

be 1.2 mg/ml what should be the amount of drug that should be given to the
patient?
a) 1080 ml
b) 1080 g
c) 1080 mg
d) 1g/ml
Answer: c
plasma drug concentration (C). Vd is expressed in liters or ml. to find out the amount of drug, the
equation is the apparent volume of distribution (Vd)*plasma drug concentration (C).

channel
8. What is the equation to find out hepatic clearance?
a) Plasma drug concentration/rate of elimination by the kidney
b) Rate of elimination by kidney/plasma drug concentration
c) 1 / rate of elimination by the kidney
d) 1 / plasma drug concentration
Answer: b
Explanation: The hepatic clearance is given by the equation Rate of elimination by kidney/plasma drug
concentration. The renal clearance is given by the equation Rate of elimination by liver/ plasma drug
concentration.
9. At which of the four marked points of the plasma drug concentration versus time
graph, absorption rate = elimination rate?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
Answer: a
Explanation: At Cmax, where the plasma concentration rate is at the maximum that is absorption rate
is at the maximum at that point for that short interval of time the elimination rate is equal to the
absorption rate.

channel
10. Which organs comprise the central compartment in a two compartment model?
a) Muscles
b) Skin
c) Adipose
d) Liver
Answer: d
Explanation: The central compartment or the compartment 1 in a two compartment model comprises
of the blood and the highly perfused tissues like liver, lungs, and kidneys, etc. which equilibrate blood
rapidly. These compartments will have the elimination from them.
11. Which organ comprises the peripheral compartment in a two compartment

model?
a) Liver
b) Lungs
c) Kidneys
d) Muscles
Answer: d
Explanation: The peripheral compartment or compartment 2 in a two compartment model comprises
of poorly perfused and slowly equilibrating tissues such as muscles, skin, adipose tissue, etc. These
are considered as a hybrid of several functional physiologic units.
12. Which of the following is not a category of 2 compartment model?

a) Two compartment model with elimination from the central compartment
b) Two compartment model with elimination from the peripheral compartment
c) Two compartment model with elimination from only plasma and blood
d) Two compartment model with elimination from both the compartments
Answer: d
Explanation: Depending upon the compartment from which the drug is eliminated, the two
compartment model can be categorized into 3 types, these are, two compartment model with
elimination from the central compartment, peripheral compartment, and both the compartments.
13. In the given picture, the marking “a” represents the drug concentration of which
compartment?

channel
a) The central compartment in a two compartment model
b) A peripheral compartment in a two compartment model
c) The central compartment in a one compartment model
d) Drug concentration of the plasma
Answer: a
Explanation: In the graph, the marked curve is showing the drug concentration of the central
compartment. Initially, the drug concentration of the central compartment in a two compartment
model declines rapidly because of the rapid distribution of the drug from the central compartment to
the peripheral compartment. This phase is known as the distributive phase.
14. In the given picture, the marking “b” represents the drug concentration of which
compartment?

channel
a) The central compartment in a two compartment model
b) The peripheral compartment in a two compartment model
c) The central compartment in a one compartment model
d) Drug concentration of the plasma
Answer: b
Explanation: In the graph, the marked curve is showing the drug concentration of the peripheral
compartment of a two compartment model. The drug concentration in the peripheral compartment
first increases and reaches the maximum. Then due to loss of drug starts due to elimination. This is
the post distributive or elimination phase.
“Non Linearity of Drugs”.
1. Any changes in fraction bioavailable, elimination half-life indicates nonlinearity of

that particular drug.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Some of the pharmacokinetic factors such as fraction bioavailable, elimination half-life or
total systemic clearance at different doses of drug normally remains constant. If any changes occur in
these constants, this indicates nonlinearity.

channel
2. Which of the following creates nonlinearity in drug distribution and not in drug
absorption?
a) When absorption is solubility or dissolution rate-limited
b) When absorption involves carrier-mediated transport systems
c) When a presystemic gut wall or hepatic metabolism attains saturation
d) Saturation of binding sites on plasma proteins
Answer: d
Explanation: Nonlinearity in drug absorption can arise from 3 important sources these are when
absorption is solubility or dissolution rate-limited, when absorption involves carrier-mediated
transport systems and when presystemic gut wall or hepatic metabolism attains saturation.
Nonlinearity in drug distribution occurs when saturation of binding sites on plasma proteins or
saturation of tissue binding sites.
3. Which one of these are correct Michaelis-Menten equation?

a) –dC/dt = Vmax C/Km+C
b) dC/dt = Vmax C/Km+C
c) –dC/dt = Vmax C/Km
d) –dC/dt = Km+C/Vmax C
Answer: a
Explanation: The kinetics of capacity-limited or saturation process is described by Michaelis-Menten
equation, the equation is –dC/dt = Vmax C/Km+C, where –dC/dt = rate of decline of drug
concentration with time, Vmax is the theoretical maximum rate of the process and Km is Michaelis
constant.

channel
4. Which equation plot is being shown in the picture?
a) Michaelis-Menten plot
b) One compartment characteristics graph
c) Two compartment characteristics graph
d) Two compartment administered extravascularly characteristics plot
Answer: a
Explanation: The plot is of Michaelis-Menten equation –dC/dt = Vmax C/Km+C, Initially the rate
increases linearly with concentration thus showing first order kinetics. It becomes mixed order at
higher concentration and then reaches maximum Vmax. Beyond this, it proceeds at a constant rate.
5. In the given picture, which kinetic order the graph is following at the marked
place?

channel
a) 1st order kinetics
b) 2nd order kinetics
c) Mixed order kinetics
d) 1st order at higher doses
Answer: a
increases linearly with concentration thus showing first order kinetics. At lower doses, it follows 1st
order kinetics. It becomes mixed order at higher concentration and then reaches maximum Vmax.
Beyond this, it proceeds at a constant rate thus following zero order kinetics.
place?

channel
d) 1st order at higher doses
Answer: c
increases linearly with concentration thus showing first order kinetics. It becomes mixed order at
intermediate doses and then reaches maximum Vmax. Beyond this, it proceeds at a constant rate.
place?

channel
d) Zero-order rate
Answer: d
increases linearly with concentration thus showing first order kinetics. At lower doses, it follows 1st
order kinetics. It becomes mixed order at intermediate doses and then reaches maximum Vmax.
Beyond this, it proceeds at a constant rate thus following zero order kinetics.
OUR WEBSITE: PHARMA QUIZ PORTAL.tk

FOR MORE JOIN US ON
INSTAGRAM: PHARMA QUIZ POINT

channel
YOU TUBE: PHARMA QUIZ POINT
WHATSAPP GROUPS : PHARMA QUIZ
POINT
TELEGRAM: PHARMA QUIZ POINT
Our other telegram channel

channel
https://t.me/pharmaquizpointgroup
https://t.me/quiz_database
https://t.me/quiz_resource
https://t.me/pqp_library
SEARCH ANY MCQ ON

PQP MCQ SEARCH

channel

Biopharmaceutics 6 Sem MCQ For Gpat & University Exams 1

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Biopharmaceutics 6 Sem MCQ For Gpat & University Exams 1

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Biopharmaceutics

“Gastrointestinal Absorption of Drugs”

2. Proteins interact with which part of the cell membrane?

2 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

4. What helps in the passing of inorganic ions?

5. The cell membrane is ___________

6. What is the most important characteristic of a drug to be absorbed after oral

3 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

7. Cell membrane can pass easily Oxygen and Carbon dioxide.

8. Which one of these is an example of Enteral Route?

9. Gastrointestinal route is an example of which of the major drug delivery routes?

4 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

“Mechanisms of Drug Absorption”.

2. What is the driving force for Passive Diffusion?

5 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

3. Which kind of molecules cannot pass through a pore transport?

4. What is the driving force of Pore Transport?

5. What will be the best definition for “carrier”?

6 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

7. What influences the permeation of drugs in an Ionic or Electrochemical diffusion?

8. Which kind of drugs are absorbed through endocytosis?

7 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

10. Which types of drugs get absorbed by ion-pair transport?

12. Which is the other name of “cell eating”?

8 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

13. Transfer of an endocytic vesicle from one extracellular compartment to another

14. A drug can be absorbed by more than one mechanism.

9 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

“Drug Absorption – Influencing Factors and Bioavailability”.

1. Which one of these is a physicochemical property of Drug substance?

10 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

11 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

7. Diffusion coefficient of drug D, Greater the value faster us the dissolution.

8. Greater the surface area lesser is the dissolution.

12 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

1. Which one of the following is a critical rate-limiting step of drug absorption?

2. Which sentence will define the Dissolution rate?

13 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

4. Which one of these is not a theory of Drug dissolution?

6. In the equation G=Ki (Cs-Cb), what does G stands for______________

14 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

8. What does the interfacial barrier model states?

9. In the equation, Wo1/3-W1/3=Kt, K stands for ____________

15 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

13. Each face of the crystal has a different interfacial barrier.

16 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

“Drugs Absorption – Factors Affecting Rate of Drug Dissolution”.

1. Absorption of drugs can be categorized into 2 classes, physicochemical properties

17 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

4. The total solid surface area of any particle is known as ___________

6. Absolute surface area is proportional to the dissolution rate of a drug.

18 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

9. Which one of these is not an example of hydrophilic diluents?

19 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

11. Which form of a drug has greater solubility?

20 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

14. Which one of these is not an advantage of buffered aspirin tablets?

15. Larger the size of the counterion, greater the solubility.

“Drugs Absorption – pH Partition Hypothesis”.

21 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel

3. Which of the following equations correct for Henderson-Hasselbach equation for

4. Which of the following equations correct for Henderson-Hasselbach equation for

22 www.pharmaquizportal.tk SEARCH MCQ WHATSAPP GROUPS Telegram channel