WOUNDS

1. Wound healing is affected by:

A. Age
B. Nutrition
C. Dryness or wetness of wound
D. Drugs
E. Temperature
2. Prevention of wound infection is done by:
A. Pre-op shaving
B. Pre-op antibiotic therapy
C. Monofilament suture
D. Wound apposition
3. True about wound healing:
A. Infected wound heal by primary intention
B. No Deep dermal wound heal by scar formation
C. Wound contraction is found in healing by secondary intention
D. More intense inflammatory response in primary intention
4. True about chronic wound:
A. Not Found in DM
B. Always require surgical treatment
C. May not be associated with vascular compromise
D. Monofilament sutures prevent infection
E. Any wound that does heal within 3 month
5. Cell not involved in healing of clean wound:
A. Macrophages
B. Platelet
C. Fibroblasts
D. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
6. Management of an open wound seen 12 hours after the injury:
A. Suturing
B. Debridement and suture
C. Secondary suturing
D. Heal by granulation
7. The vitamin which has inhibitory effect on wound healing is:
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin B-complex
8. The tensile strength of the wound starts and increases after:
A. Immediate suture of the wound
B. 3–4 days
C. 7–10 days
D. 6 months
9. In a sutured surgical wound, the process of epithelialization is completed within:
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
10. Factors that may adversely affect the healing of woundsinclude all the following except:
A. Exposure to UV light
B. Exposure to radiation
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Advanced neoplasia
11. Primary closure of incised wounds must be done within:
A. 2 hours
 B. 4 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 12 hours
E. 16 hours
12. The tensile strength of wound reaches that of normal tissue by:
A. 6 weeks
B. 2 months
C. 4 months
D. None
13. Following are required for wound healing except:
A. Zinc
B. Copper
C. Vitamin C
D. None
14. Patient has lacerated untidy wound of the leg and attended the casualty after 2 hours. His wound should be:
A. Sutured immediately
B. Debrided and sutured immediately
C. Debrided and sutured secondarily
D. Cleaned and dressed
15. When is the maximum collagen content of wound tissue?
A. Between 3rd to 5th day
B. Between 6th to 17th day
C. Between 17th to 21st day
D. None of the above
16. A patient with grossly contaminated wound presents 12 hours after an accident, his wound should be managed by:
A. Thorough cleaning and primary repair
B. Thorough cleaning with debridement of all dead and devitalized tissue without primary closure
C. Primary closure over a drain
D. Covering the defect with split skin graft after cleaning
17. Delayed wound healing is seen in all except:
A. Malignancy
B. Hypertension
C. Diabetes
D. Infection
18. In the healing of clean wound the maximum immediatestrength of the wound is reached by:
A. 2–3 days
B. 4–7 days
C. 10–12 days
D. 13–18 days
19. A clean incised wound heals by:
A. Primary intention
B. Secondary intention
C. Excessive scaring
D. None of the above
20. Which one of the following surgical procedures is considered to a have a clean-contaminated wound?
A. *Elective open cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis
B. Herniorrhaphy with mesh repair
C. Lumpectomy with axillary node dissection
D. Appendectomy with walled off abscess
21. Fibroblasts in healing wound are derived from:
A. *Local mesenchyme
B. Epithelium
C. Endothelium
D. Vascular fibrosis
22. Tensile strength of wound becomes normal after:
 A. 6 weeks
B. Never
C. 4 months
D. 6 months
23. True statement(s) regarding hypertrophic scar:
A. Grow beyond wound margin
B. More common in female
C. Not familial
D. Rarely subsides
24. All are true about keloid except:
A. Grows beyond would margin
B. Excess collagen deposition
C. More common in female
D. Whites are at high risk
25. Most common site of hypertrophic keloid is:
A. Face
B. Leg
C. Presternal area
D. Arm
26. First line treatment for keloid is:
A. Intralesional injection of keloid
B. Local steroid
C. Radiotherapy
D. Wide excision
27. Drug used for intralesional injection keloid is:
A. Prednisolone
B. Triamcinolone
C. Androgen
D. Hydrocortisone
28. Keloid scar is made up:
A. Dense collagen
B. Loose fibrous tissue
C. Granulamatous tissue
D. Loose areolar tissue
29. What is true about keloids?
A. It appears immediately after surgery
B. It appears a few days after surgery
C. It is limited in its distribution
D. It is common in old people
30. Keloid is best treated:
A. Intralesional injection of trimacinolone
B. Wide excision and grafting
C. Wide excision and suturing
D. Deep X-ray therapy
31. The following statement about keloid is true:
A. They do not extend into normal skin
B. Local recurrence is common after excision
C. They often undergo malignant change
D. They are more common in whites than in blacks
32. The worst position for scars is:
A. Back
B. Shoulder
C. Sternum
D. Abdomen
33. Keloid fornation is not seen over:
 A. Ear
B. Face
C. Eyelids
D. Neck
34. The best scars are seen in:
A. Infants
B. Children
C. Adults
D. Very old people
35. If suture marks are to be avoided, skin sutures should be removed by:
A. 72 hours
B. 1 week
C. 2 weeks
D. 3 weeks
36. Degloving injury is:
A. Surgeon made wound
B. Lacerated wound
C. Blunt injury
D. Avulsion injury
E. Abrasive wound
37. In treatment of hand injuries, the greatest priority is:
A. Repair of tendons
B. Restoration of skin cover
C. Repair of nerves
D. Repair of blood vessels
38. During the surgical procedure:
A. Tendons should be repaired before nerves
B. Nerves should be repaired before tendons
C. Tendons should not be repaired at the same time
D. None is true
39. ‘Lims salvage’ primarily depends on:
A. Vascular injury
B. Skin cover
C. Bone injury
D. Nerve injury
40. In an open injury during toileting and debridement, muscle viability is detected by:
A. Colour of the muscle
B. Muscle size
C. Muscle function
D. Muscle contractility
E. Punctate bleeding spots on cut edge
41. Criteria for viability of muscle are all except:
A. Colour
B. Intact fascia
C. Contractibility
D. Bleeding on cutting
42. If a person falls from a height and lands on feet, the pattern of fracture will be all except:
A. Calcaneus fracture bilaterally
B. Pilon fracture at ankle
C. Vertebral crush fracture
D. Fracture of femur
43. In green stick fracture:
A. Bone strength is abnormal
B. Load is abnormal
C. Both are abnormal
 D. None is abnormal
44. Butterfly fracture is due to:
A. Direct trauma
B. Indirect trauma
C. Twisting force
D. Repeated stress
45. Spiral fracture is due to:
A. Blunt trauma
B. Axial compression
C. Twist
D. Direct impact
46. Most common type of epiphyseal fracture in Salter Harris classification is:
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
47. Epiphyseal injuries causing growth disturbancesin children are due to:
A. Avascular necrosis of the plate
B. Crushing or infection of the plate
C. Hypermia of the plate
D. Formation of a callus bridge between bony epiphysis and metaphysis
E. All of the above
48. Which form of growth plate injury requires open reduction and internal fixation:
A. Separation of epiphysis from metaphysis but without fracture
B. Severe ‘end on’ crush
C. Intra-articular fracture, the line passing through plate and part of metaphysis
D. All of the above
49. Type of epiphyseal fracture most difficult to diagnose is:
A. Type 2
B. Type 3
C. Type 5
D. All of the above
50. 32 B3.2 in AO classification refers to fracture:
A. Simple proximal fracture femur
B. Simple distal fracture femur
C. Distal comminuted fracture femur
D. Distal comminuted fracture tibia
51. All are true of closed reduction except:
A. Relies on soft tissue attachments to reduce the fragments
B. Rarely adequate for intra-articular fractures
C. Difficult to perform in children
D. Damage to blood vessel is likely
52. In fracture open reduction is needed in presence of:
A. Failed closed reduction
B. Intra-articular fracture in children
C. Displaced intra-articular fracture
D. Unstable fracture
E. Each of the above
53. Normal callus formation is prevented by:
A. Rigid fixation
B. Non-rigid fixation
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
54. Ideally to hold two fragments by screw fixation, the screw should have:
A. Thread at the tip
 B. Thread throughout
C. Thread only proximally
D. None of the above
55. The function of plate fixation is to:
A. Neutralise
B. Butress
C. Compress
D. All of the above
56. Butress plates are best for:
A. Oblique fracture
B. Green stick fracture
C. Transverse fracture
D. Comminuted fracture
57. Figure of eight wire construction is commonlydone in fracture:
A. Clavicle
B. Medical femoral condyle
C. Patella
D. Talus
58. Fracture reduction, internal fixation achieves:
A. Accurate reduction
B. Stable fixation
C. Strong fixation
D. All of the above
59. Disadvantages of internal fixation include:
A. Demand strong aseptic technique
B. The alloy can be allergenic, toxic and carcinogenic
C. Local osteoporosis
D. Each of the above
60. Advantage of intramedullary nails are:
A. Early mobilisation
B. Locking screws give better stability
C. Periosteal blood supply is preserved
D. All of the above
61. Removal of internal fixation is due to risk of:
A. Osteoporosis
B. Allergy by transitional metals
C. Stress raiser causing further fracture
D. All of the above
62. Advantages of external fixation include:
A. Rigid fixation
B. Adjustable
C. Allows good wound toilet
D. All of the above
63. Indications for external fixator include all except:
A. Compound fracture tibia
B. Pelvic fracture
C. Fracture surgical neck of humerus
D. Presence of bone loss in limb fractures
64. The basic philosophy of fracture is:
A. Rest
B. Immobilisation
C. Stabilisation
D. None of the above
65. Compartment syndrome is common in:
A. Upper arm
 B. Fore arm
C. Thigh
D. Foot
66. Compartment syndrome be suspected best in presence of:
A. Absent pulse
B. Numb fingers
C. Pain on extension of finger
D. Any of the above
67. Sings and symptoms of vascular impairment in a limb include:
A. Pain
B. Paresthesia
C. Pallor
D. Paralysis
E. All of the above
68. In compartment syndrome which of the following is only a false sign of vascular security:
A. Rest pain
B. Muscle tenderness
C. Normal distal pulse
D. Pain on passive stretching
69. Trauma to spleen in a stable patient is best diagnosed by:
A. X-ray abdomen
B. USG
C. CTscan
D. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
70. Investigation of choice for diagnosing intra-abdominalbleeding in an unstable patient:
A. CT scan
B. MRI scan
C. USG
D. diagnostic peritoneal lavage
71. A man sustained injury and presented with fluidcoming out through nose. What could be the possiblefracture?
A. Fracture base of skull
B. Fracture of mandible
C. Fracture of maxilla
D. None of the above
72. What is not found in head injury?
A. Confusion
B. Loss of consciousness
C. Lucid interval
D. GCS score of 0
73. Minimum score in glasgow coma scale:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
74. True statement regarding fracture base of the skull are all of the following, except:
A. Prophylactic antibiotics are usually not required
B. Associated with 8 cranial nerve palsy
C. Early surgery is indicated for optimal outcome
D. May present with CSF otorrhea
75. Emergency management for tension pneumothorax is:
A. Thoracotomy
B. Insertion of a chest tube
C. Needle decompression
D. Tracheostomy
76. Management of flail chest with respiratory failure is:
A. Chest tube drainage
B. Oxygen administration
C. IPPV
D. Internal operative fixation of the fractures segments
77. True about flail chest are all, except:
 A. Ultimately leads to respiratory failure
B. Paradoxical respiration
C. Fracture of 3–4 ribs at 2 or more places
D. Mediastinal shift
78. Condition which builds within hemithorax resulting in collapsed lung, flattened diaphragm, contralateral mediastinal shift
and compromised venous return to right side of heart is known as:
A. Open pneumothorax
B. Flail chest
C. Massive pulmonary hemorrhage
D. Tension pneumothorax
79. IPPV is useful in:
A. Hemopneumothorax
B. Pneumothorax
C. Flail chest
D. Hemothorax
80. Glasgow coma scale in death is: (Sep 2010)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
81. In an adult patient with pleural effusion, the mostappropriate site for pleurocentesis done by inserting a needle is in:
A. 5th intercostal space in midclavicular line
B. 7th intercostal space in midaxillary line
C. 2nd intercostal space adjacent to the sternum
D. 10th intercostal space adjacent to the vertebral column
82. A 24-year-old man falls on the ground when he isstruck in the right temple by a baseball. While beingdriven to the hospital,
he lapses into coma. Heis unresponsive with the dilated right pupil whenhe reaches the emergency department. The
mostimportant step in initial management is:
A. Craniotomy
B. CT scan of the head
C. X-ray of the skull and cervical spine
D. Doppler ultrasound examination of the neck
83. According to the glassgow coma scale a verbal score of 1 indicates:
A. No response
B. In appropriate words
C. Incomprehensive sounds
D. Disoriented response
84. The most common site of leak in CSF rhinorrhea is:
A. Spenoidal sinus
B. Frontal sinus
C. Cribriform plate
D. Tegmen tympani
85. The earliest manifestation of increased intracranialpressure in head injury is:
A. Ipsilateral pupillary dilatation
B. Contralateral pupillary dilatation
C. Altered mental status
D. Hemiparesis
86. The dangerous complication of flail chest:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Hemothorax
C. Respiratory failure
D. all the above
87. Lucid interval is associated with:
A. Intracerebral hematoma
B. Extradural hematoma
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. All the above
88. Positive pressure ventilation is useful for:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Flail chest
C. Hemothorax
D. Hemopneumothorax
89. Shock in trauma is most likely due to:
 A. Head injury
B. Intra-abdominal organ injury
C. Rib fracture
D. Fracture tibia
90. Source of chronic subdural hematoma is:
A. Arterial
B. Tear of bridging veins
C. Capillaries
D. None of the above
91. Extradural hemorrhage commonly occurs from tearing of:
A. Maxillary artery
B. Middle meningeal artery
C. Bridging veins
D. All of the above
92. What is the site for putting needle in chest in a patient with tension pneumothorax:
A. 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line
B. 7th intercostal space, midaxillary line
C. 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line
D. 5th intercostal space, just lateral to vertebral column
93. Which of the following is the cause of sudden andunexpected onset of dyspnea at rest:
A. Severe anemia
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. COPD
D. Large pleural effusion
94. Glasgow coma scale (GCS) in case of mild head injury:
A. 15 with no loss of consciousness
B. 14-15 with loss of consciousness
C. 9–13
D. 3–8
95. First aid to control external hemorrhage is:
A. Endoscopic control
B. Apply pressure
C. Drugs
D. Operation
96. Seat belt injury causes damage to:
A. Head injury due to wind screen
B. Thorax injury
C. Duodenum
D. All the above
97. The hormone that is not released in trauma (DNB):
A. Thyroxine
B. Glucagon
C. ADH
D. GH
98. Regarding compartmental syndrome of lower limb all are true, except: (Sep 2010)
A. m/c occurs in closed lower limb injuries
B. Early sign is absent distal pulse
C. Fasciotomy done in longitudinal direction of limb
D. Two incisions are used on either side of subcutaneous border of tibia.
99. Regarding compartment syndrome in lower limb:the fasciotomy is done when pressure is above____mm Hg
A. 10 mm Hg
B. 20 mm Hg
C. 30 mm Hg
D. 40 mm Hg
100.According to “rule of nines”, burns involving perineum are:
A. 1%
B. 9%
C. 18%
D. 27%
101.A five years old child presents to the emergency departmentwith burns. The burn area corresponding to the size of his palm
is equal to:
A. 1% BSA
 B. 5% BSA
C. 10% BSA
D. 20%
102.Head and neck involvement in burns in infant is:
A. 9%
B. 18%
C. 27%
D. 32%
103.An adult whose both lower limbs are charred along withgenitalia has……..burns.
A. 18%
B. 19%
C. 36%
D. 37%
104.In a 6 years old child with burns involving the whole of headand trunk, estimated body surface area of burns is:
A. 44%
B. 52%
C. 55%
D. 58%
105.Rule of nine of estimate surface area of a burnt patient was introduced by:
A. Mortix Kaposi
B. Alexander Wallace
C. Joseph Lister
D. Thomas Barclay
106.Best method to assess burns in 5 years old child caused by boiling water:
A. Palm method
B. Rule of 9
C. Lund and Browder chart
D. Rule of one
107.A child has circumferential burn of both of thighs andbuttocks, face and scalp with singeing of hairs. Calculate the
percentage of burns:
A. 24
B. 27
C. 37
D. 45
108.Head and face burn in infant is:
A. 15%
B. 18%
C. 12%
D. 32%
109.Percentage of burn in children is best assessed by?
A. Rule of 9
B. Rule of palm = 1%
C. Lund and Browder chart
D. Wallace rule
110.A burn patient is referred when:
A. 10% superficial burn in child
B. Scald in face
C. 25% superficial burn in adult
D. 25% deep burn in adult
E. Burn in palm
111.In burns heat loss is by/due to:
A. Dilatation of veins
B. Shock
C. Exposed area by evaporation
D. None of the above
112.Metabolic derangements in severe burns are all except:
A. ↑corticosteroid secretion
B. Hyperglycemia
C. ↑secretion of HCl
D. Neutrophil dysfunction
113.Pus in burns form in:
A. 2-3 days
B. 3-5 days
C. 2-3 weeks
D. 4 weeks
114.Fever in burnt patient is caused by:
A. Septicemia
B. Decreased sweating
C. Release of pyrogens from dead product
D. Dehydration
115.Undue restlessness in a patient during the immediate post
burn period is often a manifestation of: (Karnataka 95)
A. Hypoxia
B. Hypovolemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Anxiety
116.All require hospitalization except:
A. 5% burns in children
B. 10% scalds in children
C. Electrocution
D. 15% deep burns in adults
117.True about burns:
A. Hyperglycemia is seen in early burns
B. Child with burns should have damp dressing
C. Chemical powder burns should be kept dry
D. 3rd degree burns are painfull
118.In a patient with the burn wound extending into thesuperficial epidermis without involving the dermis wouldpresent all of
the following except:
A. Healing of the wound spontaneously without scarformation
B. Anesthesia at the site of burn
C. No Blister formation
D. Painful
119.A third degree circumferential burn in the arm and forearmregion, which of the following is most important formonitoring?
A. Blood gases
B. Carboxy-oxygen level
C. Macroglobinuria cryoglobinuria
D. Peripheral pulse and circulation
120.In 3rd degree burns, all are seen except:
A. Vesicles are absent
B. Painful
C. Leathery skin
D. Reddish due to Hb infiltration
121.Degree of burns in a patient with prominent vessels with decreased needle prick sensation and dryness:
A. Superficial partial thickness burns
B. Deep partial thickness burns
C. Electric burns
D. Full thickness burns
122.Burn involving epidermis and full thickness of dermis:
A. First degree burns
B. Partial-thickness second degree burns
 C. Full-thickness second degree burns
D. Third degree burns
123.True about burn is:
A. Full thickness burn feels, leathery, painless
B. Electric burn are superficial
C. IV fluid formula used Curreri and Brooke
D. Skin grafting done after 48 hours
124.Which of the following is not seen in 3rd degree burns?
A. Loss of skin appendages
B. No vesicles
C. Red color
D. Extremely painful
125.In second degree burns, re-epithelialisation occurs around:
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 3 weeks
D. 4 weeks
126.Which of the following is false regarding deep 2nd degree burns?
A. Heal by scar deposition
B. Painless
C. Damage to deeper dermis
D. Less blanching
127.Superficial burns; true is/
A. Always requires skin grafting
B. Dry and inelastic
C. Blister formation
D. Painless
128.Not a feature of deep burn is:
A. Black charred skin
B. White leathery skin
C. Loss of pain sensation
D. Blisters
129.Burns with vesiculation, destruction of the epidermis and upper dermis is:
A. 1st degree
B. 2nd degree
C. 3rd degree
D. 4th degree
130.Blisters are seen in which type of burns?
A. Superficial first degree
B. Superficial second degree
C. Third degree
D. Deep first degree
131.All may be seen in deep burns except:
A. Hyperthermia
B. Increase vascular permeability
C. Fluid loss by evaporation
D. Vasodilation
132.2nd degree burns indicate involvement of:
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Subcutaneous tissue
D. Deep fascia
133.Parkland formula is:
A. Percentage of burns × weight (kg) × 4 = volume in ml
B. Percentage of burns × weight (kg)/2 = 1 volume in ml
 C. Percentage of burns × weight (kg) × 9 = volume in ml
D. 500 ml/m2 BSA + 1500 ml/m2 = volume in ml
134.IV formula for burn is:
A. Total % body surface area x weight x 4 = volume in ml
B. Total % body surface area x weight x 5 = volume in ml
C. Total % body surface area x weight x 6 = volume in ml
D. Total % body surface area x weight x 7 = volume in ml
135.Which of the following formula for fluid administration in apatient with burns is not correct?
A. Parkland: 4 ml Kg/%TBSA burn of RL
B. Brooks: 1.5 ml Kg/%TBSA burn of RL + 0.5ml kg %burn+2000 ml D5W
C. *Shrine: 5000 ml m2 TBSA burn + 2000 ml m2 TBSA
D. Evans: 8ml Kg/% TBSA burn of RL
136.The ideal temperature of water to cool the burnt surface is:
A. 15°C
B. 10°C
C. 8°C
D. 6°C
137.What should be the ideal temperature of the cool water to beapplied over burns?
A. Ice cold
B. 3-4ºC
C. 8-10ºC
D. 14-15ºC
138.Safest strategy of treatment for a patient of inhalational burninjury who has presented within 4-5 hours:
A. Binasal catheter O2 inhalation
B. O2 therapy with well-fitting face mask
C. Elective cricothyroidotomy
D. Elective endotracheal intubation
139.In burns management, which of the following is the fluid ofchoice?
A. Dextrose 5%
B. Normal saline
C. Ringer lactate
D. Isolyte-M
140.All of the following are true regarding fluid resuscitation inburn patients except:
A. Consider intravenous resuscitation in children with burnsgreater than 15% TBSA
B. Oral fluids must contain salts
C. Most preferred fluid is Ringer’s lactate
D. Half of the calculated volume of fluid should be given infirst 8 hours
141.What is the most important aspect of management of burninjury in the first 24 hours?
A. Fluid resuscitation
B. Dressing
C. Escharotomy
D. Antibiotics
142.In excessive burns, least useful is:
A. Blood
B. Dextran
C. Ringer lactate
D. Nasogastric intubation
143.True statement about burn resuscitation:
A. Colloid preferred in initial 24 hours
B. Colloid preferred if burnt area is >15% of total BSA
C. Half of the calculated fluid given in initial 8 hours
D. Diuretics should be given to all patients of electric burn
144.Which of the following is true about burns?
A. 3rd generation cephalosporin is drug of choice
B. S. aureus is most common infection of burn
 C. Toxic shock syndrome is most common in burns patients
D. Pseudomonas is most common infection in dry wound
145.Which of the following is true about burn management?
A. Intravenous access fluid is done and antibiotics is not given in children
B. Escharotomy should be done for peripheral circumscribedlesion
C. Moist dressing is done
D. Parkland formula is used with 8ml/kg body weight
146.Exposure treatment is done for burns of the:
A. Upper limb
B. Lower limbs
C. Thorax d. Abdomen
D. Head and neck
147.Deep skin burn is treated with:
A. Split thickness graft
B. Full thickness graft
C. Amniotic membrane
D. Synthetic skin derivatives
148.The cold water treatment of burns has the disadvantage thatit increase the chances of:
A. Pain
B. Exudation
C. Infection
D. None of the above
149.The best guide to adequate tissue perfusion in the fluidmanagement of a patient with burns, is to ensure a minimumhourly
urine output of:
A. 10-30 ml
B. 30-50 ml
C. 50-70 ml
D. 70-100 ml
150.Burns in which part of body are nursed without occlusive dressing?
A. Hands
B. Legs
C. Head and Neck
D. Chest
151.Which of the following is effected against Pseudomonas andis used in burns patients?
A. Silver sulphadiazine
B. Silver sulphazine
C. Sulphamethoxazole
D. Sulphadoxine
152.In children with burns, maintenance IV fluid normally givenis ?
A. Ringer lactate
B. 5% dextrose
C. Normal saline
D. Dextrose saline
153.Late deaths in burns is due to:
A. Sepsis
B. Hypovolemia
C. Contractures
D. Neurogenic
154.Most common cause of death due to burns in early period is:
A. Sepsis
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Both
D. None
155.Most common carcinoma after burns is:
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
 B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Mucoid carcinoma
156.Most common cause of death in burns is:
A. Primary shock
B. Secondary shock
C. Hemorrhagic shock
D. Septicemic shock
157.Burns shock is:
A. Hypovolemic
B. Neurogenic
C. Endotoxic
D. Cardiogenic
158.Death from burns in first 10 days is due to all except:
A. Shock
B. Infection
C. Renal failure
D. Respiratory distress
159. What is not true of osteomyelitis in neonates:
a. Only clue to diagnosis is failure to move the limb
b. Prematures are more susceptible
c. Staph. aureus is always the pathogen
d. Treatment should not await blood culture
160. Prevention of osteomyelitis in open fractures is by:
a. Remove all dead tissue
b. Leave wound open
c. Stabilise fragments by external fixators
d. All of the above
161. Acute osteomyelitis is commonly caused by:
a. Staph. aureus
b. S. pyogenes
c. H. influenzae
d. Salmonella
162. In osteomyelitis short tau inversion recovery
MRI is good to diagnose all except:
a. Bone edema
b. Soft tissue collections
c. Sinus tracts
d. Post-surgery infection
163. Regarding investigations in osteomyelitis all are true except:
a. MRI is the investigation of choice
b. CT may show bone erosion and collection
c. Isotope scans are sensitive but less specific
d. X-ray change is present at outset
164. In osteomyelitis, pus culture will only yield organism, if antibiotic is stopped before:
a. 3 days
b. 7 days
c. 10 days
d. 15 days
165. Management of acute septic arthritis - all are true except:
a. Joints be aspirated before starting antibiotic
b. Antibiotic be started empirically and initially IV
c. If infection recurs, joint most be opened
 d. None of the above
166. In management of chronic septic arthritis all are true except:
a. All dead and foreign tissue must be excised
b. Antibiotics be continued for 6-8 weeks
c. Antibiotic, impregnated spacer/beads may be placed in the joint
d. Arthrodesis may be the only option
e. None of the above
167. Improper treatment of osteomyelitis in children leads to:
a. Septic arthritis
b. Growth arrest
c. Joint deformity
d. Each of the above
168. In acute long bone osteomyelitis, surgery is indicated if:
a. Sever symptoms
b. Delayed presentation
c. Poor response to antibiotic
d. A + C
e. B + C
169. Acute osteomyelitis usually begins at:
a. Epiphysis
b. Metaphysis
c. Diaphysis
d. Any of the above
170. The treatment of a child with suspected osteomyelitis seen 48 hours after onset of symptoms is:
a. IV cloxacillin + Ampicillin
b. Incision
c. A + B
d. None of the above
171. In Cierny and Madar classification of chronic osteomyelitis involvement of both cortical and
cancellous bone conforms to:
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
172. What is true of surgical intervention in chronic osteomyelitis:
a. Removal of sequestrum
b. Wound packing with gentamicin beads
c. Obliteration of dead space by muscle flap/ cancellous bone chips
d. All of the above
173. Antibiotic treatment of acute nontubercular discitis be for:
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 3 months
d. 12 months
174. The definite way of establishing malignancy in bone tumour is:
a. X-ray
b. Bone scan
c. Biopsy
d. CT scan
175. The radiological features of benign bone lesion are all except:
a. Smooth distinct sclerotic borders
b. Geographic bone destruction
 c. Codman’s triangle
d. Uninterrupted periosteal reaction
176. Constant bone pain not affected by activity and awakening patient at night is most likely to be
due to:
a. Osteomyelitis
b. Malignant bone tumour
c. Bone tuberculosis
d. Brodie’s abscess
177. All benign bone tumours cease to grow after skeletal maturation except:
a. Chondromyxoid fibroma
b. Osteochondroma
c. Osteoid osteoma
d. Condroblastoma
178. Which of the following is not malignant:
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Adamantinoma
c. Ewing’s tumour
d. Giant cell tumour
179. In osteogenesis imperfecta, collagen defect manifests with:
a. Fragile capillaries
b. Lax ligaments
c. Dental problems
d. All of the above
180. The articular tissue first affected in rheumatoid arthritis is:
a. Articular cartilage
b. Subchondral bone
c. Synovial membrane
d. Periarticular tissue
181. The bone infarct in acute osteomyelitis is known as:
a. Involucrum
b. Sequestrum
c. Cloacs
d. All of the above
182. Heberden’s nodes of osteoarthritis are seen in:
a. Carpometacarpal joint
b. Proximal interphalangeal joint
c. Distal interphalangeal joint
d. Metacarpophalangeal joint
183. The joint rarely affected by osteoarthritis is:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Shoulder
d. Elbow
184. Primary osteoarthritis first affects:
a. Articular bone
b. Articular cartilage
c. Synovial lining
d. Joint capsule
185. The first X-ray abnormality in osteoarthritis is:
a. Marginal lipping
b. Narrow joint space
c. Sclerosis of periarticular bone
 d. Subchondral cysts
186. Surgical options for advanced osteoarthritis include:
a. Osteotomy
b. Arthrodesis
c. Joint replacement
d. All of the above
187. Senile osteoporosis should be suspected in presence of:
a. Vertebral collapse
b. Femoral neck fracture without trauma
c. Spontaneous Colle’s fracture in elderly
d. All of the above
188. Paget’s disease is primarily due to excess proliferation of:
a. Osteoblasts
b. Chondrocytes
c. Osteoclasts
d. Fibroblasts
189. The first live related donor kidney transplant was done in Boston in:
a. 1950
b. 1954
c. 1960
d. 1963
190. HLA class II antigens are present on all except:
a. B lymphocytes
b. T lymphocytes
c. Macrophage
d. Dendritic cells
191. HLA was demonstrated in Dausset in:
a. 1958
b. 1968
c. 1972
d. 1978
192. For organ transplantation HLA matching is for all except:
a. HLA-A
b. HLA-B
c. HLA-C
d. HLA-D
193. The MHC affinity of CD4 cells is to:
a. Class I MHC
b. Class II MHC
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
194. The second messenger for cell activation in transplant reactions is:
A. CD4
B. CD20
C. CD28
D. All of the above
195. Modern therapy cannot prevent:
A. Hyperacute rejection
B. Acute rejection
C. Chronic rejection
D. Each of the above
196. Hyperacute rejection in kidney transplant may arise from:
 A. Blood transfusion
B. Failed previous transplant
C. Previous pregnancy
D. Any of the above
197. Hyperacute rejection is due to antibodies against:
A. HLA class I
B. HLA class II
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
198. Hyperacute rejection is most common to transplant of:
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lung
D. Heart
199. Acute rejection occurs:
A. Immediately
B. Within a month
C. Within 6 months
D. Within a year
200. Spot the wrong statement
A. Liver transplant rarely undergoes hyperacute rejection
B. Kidney transplant is particularly vulnerable for hyperacute rejection
C. All types of organ allografts are liable for acute rejection
D. All are true
201. Histological features of chronic rejection are all except:
A. Lungs - obstructive bronchiolitis
B. Liver - vanishing bile duct syndrome
C. Heart - degeneration of SA and AV nodes
D. Kidney - glomerular sclerosis and tubular atrophy
202. Major histocompatibility complex is present in:
A. Chromosome 6
B. Chromosome 10
C. X chromosome
D. Chromosome 17
203. HLA gene codes for how many proteins:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
204. Chronic rejection in transplant organ manifests histologically with predominant:
A. Tissue loss
B. Ischaemic fibrosis
C. Acute inflammatory cell infiltration
D. All of the above
205. Chronic graft rejection of liver is characterized in US by:
A. Hepatic vein thrombosis
B. Vanishing bile duct
C. Dilated portal vein
D. Shrinking liver
206. Class I HLA proteins include all except:
A. HLA-A
B. HLA-B
 C. HLA-C
D. HLA-D
207. Graft survival is mostly dependent upon all except:
A. HLA
B. HLA B
C. HLA C
D. HLA DR
208. Blood group mismatching can be accepted for which transplant:
a. Kidney
b. Liver
c. Heart
d. None of the above
209. In renal allograft survival, the most important matching is for:
a. HLA A
b. HLA B
c. HLA DR
d. All of the above
210. Size compatibility is not a problem in transplant of:
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Intestine
d. Heart
211. In transplant matching AB blood group donor can donate organ to which blood group recipient:
a. AB
b. A
c. B
d. Any of the above
212. Cyclosporine induced immunosuppression is through action on:
a. IL2
b. Gamma interferon
c. Tumour necrosis factor
d. Prostaglandin synthesis
213. Avascular bone necrosis is a complication of:
a. Cyclosporin
b. Prednisolone
c. Azalhioprine
d. None of the above
214. Side effects of cyclosporine therapy include all except:
a. Hepatotoxicity
b. Nephrotoxicity
c. Osteoporosis
d. Hirsutism
215. Azathioprine is metabolised in body into:
a. Thioguanine
b. 6-mercapto purine
c. Methotrexate
d. Deoxycytidine
216. Which of the following agents has maximum immunosuppressant action:
a. Steroid
b. Cyclosporine
c. ATG
d. OKT3
217. Pulmonary edema is a complication of therapy with:
a. Azathioprine
b. Mycophenolate mofetil
c. OKT3
d. Sirolimus
218. Which of the following is immune suppressant:
a. Rifabutin
b. Rifapentin
c. Rapamycin
d. Rifampicin
219.Debridement is
A. a collection of pus that forms as a result of infection.
B. the surgical removal of debris or dead tissue from a wound
C. a deep wound caused by a sharp object
D. the use of extreme cold to destroy unwanted tissue
220.The proliferation phase of healing is characterized by
A. a constriction of blood vessels
B. the formation of scar tissue
C. a release of white blood cells
D. the development of new tissue
221.Which of the following occurs during the lag phase of healing
A. new tissue forms
B. bleeding is reduced as blood vessels in the affected area constrict
C. formation of scar tissue
D. skin cells at the edge of the wound begin to move together to close off the wound
222.The tissue surfaces of an incision that are close together are
A. necrotic
B. infected
C. approximated
D. abscessed.
223.Which of the following are characteristics of absorbable sutures?
A. they are made of catgut and do not require removal after the wound has healed
B. they are used for the outside layer
C. they must be removed after wound healing is well under way
D. they are made of silk, nylon, or Dacron
224.Which type of wound would staples be used on?
A. a small, superficial cut on the finger
B. the area where a mole was removed on the upper arm
C. a long and deep wound across the leg
D. an area inside the mouth where the dentist accidentally scraped the tissue
225.An advantage of laser surgery is that
A. it promotes quick healing and prevents infection
B. a local anesthetic is never necessary, because the cold itself reduces sensation
C. a local anesthetic is never necessary, because the cold itself reduces sensation
D. no dressing is applied after the procedure
226.How does the laser cut away tissue?
A. it vaporizes unwanted tissue
B. extreme cold destroys unwanted tissue
C. a needle heated by electric current destroys the target tissue
D. it removes all unwanted tissue with a sharp blade
227.most common site of hypertrophic keloid ?
A. face
B. leg
C. pre sternal area
D. arm
228.first line treatment for keloid is ?
A. intralesional injection of keloid
B. local steroid
C. radiotherapy
D. wide excision
229.drug used for intralesional injection of keloid ?
A. prednisolone
B. triamcinolone
C. androgen
D. hydrocortisone
230.an open injury during toileting and debridement , muscle viability is not detected by ?
A. colour of muscle
B. punctuate bleeding spots on cut edge
C. muscle function
D. muscle contractility
231.prevention of wound infection is not done by ?
A. preoperative investigation
B. preoperative antibiotic therapy
C. monofilament suture
D. wound opposition
232. the best skin graft for an open wound is ?
A. isograft
B. homograft
C. allograft
D. autograft
233.regarding antibiotics true is ?
A. no prophylaxis for clean contaminated surgery
B. no prophylaxis for gastric ulcer surgery
C. prophylaxis for colorectal surgery
D. local irrigation with antibiotics contraindicated when systemic antibiotics are given
234.keloid scar is made up of ?
A. dense collagen
B. loose fibrous tissue
C. granulomatous tissue
D. loose areolar tissue
235.primary closure of incised wound must be done with in ?
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 16 hours
236.the tensile strength of wound reaches that of normal tissue by ?
A. 6 weeks
B. 2 months
C. 6 months
D. never
237.patient has a lacerated untidy wound of the leg and attended the casualty after 2 hours .his wound should be ?
A. sutured immediately
B. debrided and sutured immediately
C. debrided and sutured secondarily
D. cleaned and dressed
238.what is true about keloids ?
A. it appears immediately after surgery
 B. it appears a few days after surgery
C. it is limited in its distribution
D. it is common in old people
239.a patient with grossly contaminated wound presents 12 hours after an accident. wound should be managed by ?
A. through cleaning and primary repair
B. through cleaning with debridement of all dead and devitalized tissue without primary closure
C. primary closure over a drain
D. covering the defect with split skin graft after cleaning
240.delayed wound healing is seen in all except ?
A. malignancy
B. hypertension
C. diabetes
D. infection
241.the following statement about keloid is true ?
A. they do not extend into normal skin
B. local recurrence is common after excision
C. they often undergo malignant change
D. they are more common in whites than in blacks
242.fibroblast in healing wound is derived from ?
A. local mesenchyme
B. epithelium
C. endothelium
D. vascular fibrosis
243.in the healing of a clean wound the maximum immediate strength of the wound is reached by ?
A. 2-3 days
B. 4-7 days
C. 10-12 days
D. 13-18 days
244.degloving injury is ?
A. surgeon made wound
B. lacerated wound
C. avulsion injury
D. blunt injury
245.a clean incised wound heals by ?
A. primary intention
B. secondary intention
C. excessive scarring
D. none
246.Name the 4 phases of tissue repair
A. Inflammatory, coagulation, fibroplasia, remodeling
B. Coagulation, inflammatory, fibroplasia, remodeling
C. Coagulation, inflammatory, remodeling, fibroplasias
D. Inflammatory, coagulation, remodeling, fibroplasias
247.The role of collagen is
A. Cell adhesion
B. Locomotion
C. Expansion and contraction
 D. Strength and support
248.which is not primary intention of wound healing
A. wound edges opposed
B. normal healing
C. minimal scar
D. wound left open
249.A 40-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because she has pain in the right arm two hours after she fell in
her home. Physical examination shows swelling and deformity of the right arm. The patient is unable to dorsiflex the wrist.
X-ray studies show a spiral midshaft fracture of the humerus. Which of the following nerves is most likely affected by this
fracture?
A. Axillary
B. Median
C. Musculocutaneous
D. Radial
250.Dislocation of shoulder is most commonly: 
A. Anterior in location
B. Posterior in location
C. Inferior in location
D. Superior in location
251.Which is the strongest ligament:
A. Ilio-femoral ligament
B. Ischio-femoral ligament
C. Pubo-femoral ligament
D. Transverse acetabular ligament
252.Most often open reduction of fracture is required in:
A. Closed fracture with nerve injury
B. Compound fracture
C. Fracture in children
D. Unsatisfactory closed reduction
253.Commonest complication while using external fixator is:
A. Pin tract infection
B. Compartment syndrome
C. Loosening of pins
D. Fixation of muscles
254.A patient who has sustained open wound on leg is bleeding profusely. Before patient arrives in hospital the safest
method to stop bleeding is:
A. Elevation of leg
B. Local pressure on wound and elevation of leg
C. Ligation of bleeding vessel
D. Use tourniquet
255.Which of the following is an absolute contraindication of open reduction:
A. Active infection
B. Small sized fragment
C. Very soft bone
D. General medical complications
256.Commonest cause of failure of internal fixation of fracture is:
A. Infection
B. Fatigue fracture of implant
C. Corrosion in implant
D. Loosening of implant
257.In a healing fracture amount of cartilage formation increased by:
A. Rigid immobilization
B. Movement at fracture site
C. Necrosis of bone ends
D. Compression plating
258.What is the most serious complication of internal fixation of fracture of both bones of forearm:
 A. Infection
B. Cross union
C. Limitation of forearm rotation
D. Refracture
259.What is most important aspect of the treatment of crush syndrome involving an extremity:
A. Amputation
B. Fluid and electrolyte balance
C. Dialysis
D. Antibiotics
260.A patient develops compartment syndrome (swelling, pain and numbness) following manipulation and plaster for
fracture of both bones of leg. What is the best treatment:
A. Split the plaster
B. Elevate leg
C. Infuse dextran
D. operative decompression of facial compartment
261.A green stick fracture ?
A. occurs in elderly
B. fatigue fractures
C. spiral fracture of long bone
D. part of cortex is intact and part is crumpled
262.Which one of the following nerves is injured in anterior dislocation of shoulder?
A. radial nerve
B. axillary nerve
C. median nerve
D. ulnar nerve
263.Most common cause of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome(ARDS) in a patient suffering from fracture of shaft of femur
is ?
A. haemorrhage
B. infection
C. fat embolism
D. pulmonary embolism
264.Avulsion fractures do not include fracture of
A. acromion,
B. scapular tuberosity,
C. greater humeral tubercle
D. maxilla
265.which is late complication of fracture
A. ARDS
B. Fat embolism syndrome
C. DVT and Pulmonary embolism
D. Mal-union
266.which absorbs old and damaged bone
A. Osteoclasts
B. osteoblasts
C. Callus
D. Osteoporosis
267.Which create new bone
A. Osteoclasts
B. osteoblasts
C. Callus
D. Osteoporosis
268.Which is new among the given below is formed around a fracture
A. Osteoclasts
B. osteoblasts
 C. Callus
D. Osteoporosis
269.Neoplasia, bone cysts, osteoporotic bone caused by secondary NHPO, nutritional hyperparathyroidism is related to
A. greenstick fracture
B. fissure
C. Depression fractures
D. Pathologic fractures
270.Which among these is intrinsic cause of fractures
A. fracture due to bending force
B. due to torsional force
C. due to shearing force
D. due to muscular action
271.Depression fractures is not seen in
A. calvarium,
B. maxilla
C. frontal bone areas of the head.
D. femure
272.Is not characteristics of fissure fracture
A. occur when direct trauma is applied to any long or flat bone
B. formed in one cortex of the bone
C. covered by an intact periosteum
D. resemblesgreen branch of a tree which bent and breaks incompletely
273.Complete fractures are not related to
A. complete loss of bony continuity
B. Tranverse fracture
C. Oblique fracture
D. as that of green stick
274.Which is true about compression fractures
A. fracture in which cancellous bone collapses and compresses upon itself
B. fracture line that spirals along the long axis of the bone
C. occurs in the calvarium, the maxilla, or the frontal bone areas of the head.
D. resembles the break that results when a supple green branch of a tree
275.Which is not true about greenstick fracture
A. side opposite the bending force fractures completely
B. while the side under the force remains intact.
C. breaks incompletely
D. cortex of the bone and are covered by an intact periosteum
276.Which is pathological dislocation
A. Acute traumatic dislocation
B. Old untreated dislocation
C. Recurrent dislocation
D. hip dislocation in septic arthritis
277.Fracture reduction may not be done by
A. closed reduction (pulling the bone fragments)
B. surgery
C. amputation
D. use of external fixators
278.Which is not cause of bone fracture
A. more physically active lifestyles
B. osteoporosis,
C. callus formation
D. infection
279.Which is burn complication?
A. amputatuion
B. b) Skin graft
C. c) sensitivity to drugs
 D. d) Infection
280.The first step in treating a burn is to cool it with
A. Water
B. b)Ice
C. c) soap water
D. d) hot water
281.What does skin do not do?
A. holds in heat
B. blocks infection
C. holds in fluid
D. prevents from complication after burn
282.Blistering means the.
A. top layer of skin is completely damaged and complications are likely
B. b) complete layers of skin is involved
C. skin is not involved
D. d) skin graft may be the cause of blisters
283.An adult male is brought to the ED after having suffered 3rd degree burns in a house fire. He has full thickness
circumferential burns to his lower legs, the neck and chest. He is intubated in the ED and sent to the ICU. Within 12 hours of
admission, he develops difficulty breathing. The next step in his management is:
A. Tracheostomy
B. Needle cricothyroidotomy
C. Escharatomy
D. Chest tube insertion
284.Open treatment is useful in burns of :
A. Hands
B. Chest
C. Face and neck
D. Legs
285.Which is not true about superficial burns:
A. Red without blisters
B. Painless
C. Dry and heals well
D. Repeated sun burn increases the rirsk of skin cancer later in life
286.Which is not true about second degree burn ?
A. Extends into superficial (papillary) dermis
B. Extends into deep (reticular) dermis
C. Local infection in partial thickness (2nd-degree) and scarring Deep partial thickness (2nd-degree)
D. Amputation required
287.Which is not true about third degree burn ?
A. Extends through entire dermis
B. Painless
C. Scarring, contractures
D. Heals in 5–10 days
288.Which is not true about fourth degree burn ?
A. Extends through entire skin, and into underlying fat, muscle and bone
B. Black; charred
C. Healing time 3-8 weaks
D. Amputation, significant functional impairment, and, in some cases, death
289.Which is not true about first degree burn ?
A. Epidermis involved
B. 5–10 days is the healing time
C. Red without blisters
D. Redness with clear blister.
290.Local infection/cellulitisbut no scarring typically in
A. Superficial (1st-degree)
B. Superficial partial thickness (2nd-degree)
 C. Full thickness (3rd-degree)
D. 4th-degree
291.Scarring, contractures (may require excision and skin grafting)
A. Superficial (1st-degree)
B. Deep partial thickness (2nd-degree)
C. Full thickness (3rd-degree)
D. 4th-degree
292.Amputation, significant functional impairment, and, in some cases, death is seen in
A. Superficial (1st-degree)
B. Deep partial thickness (2nd-degree)
C. Full thickness (3rd-degree)
D. 4th-degree
293.Which is not true about burn
A. leakage of fluid from thecapillaries
B. overall blood volume loss
C. significant plasma loss
D. blood is more diluted
294.Total body surface area (TBSA) affected by burn is not measured by
A. Wallace rule of nines
B. Lund and Browder chart
C. based on a person's palm size
D. measured by Browne chart
295.Chemaical burn is not related to
A. sulfuric acid
B. hot cooking oil
C. sodium hypochlorite
D. Formic acid
296.Causes of burn do not include
A. heat, 
B. electricity,
C. Starch powder
D. chemicals, friction
297.While electrical injuries primarily result in burns, they may also not cause
A. fractures 
B. dislocations secondary to blunt force trauma
C. tanning
D. muscle contractions
298. Skin effects depend on the amount of exposure to the area, with hair loss seen after 3 Gy, redness seen after
10 Gy, wet skin peeling after 20 Gy, and necrosis after 30 Gy is seen in
A. heat burn
B. electricity burn
C. chemicals burn
D. radiation burn
299.Preventive measures do not include:
A. Use of hot water,
B. smoke alarms,
C. sprinkler systems,
D. fire-resistant clothing
300.Moderate burn includes
A. Adult <10% TBSA
B. Young or old < 5% TBSA
C. <2% full thickness burn
D. 2–5% full thickness burn
301.Major burn excludes
A. Adult >20% TBSA
B. Young or old >10% TBSA
C. 2–5% full thickness burn
D. >5% full thickness burn
302.Pre-hospital care of burn patients do not include
A. Airway and breathing support
B. Fluid resuscitation
C. Cooling of burned tissue
D. Ice(cold) compression
303.Signs of inhalation injury excludes
A. nasal hairs, facial burns
B. oropharyngeal edema
C. vocal changes, or altered mental status
D. non of above
304.Management of elevated carboxyhemoglobin
A. Carbon monoxide
B. O3
C. All of above
D. 100% oxygen until their COHb level is lower than 10%
305.The Parkland formula for calculating fluid needs for burn victims in the first 24 hours is as follows:
A. Fluid requirement (mL) = (4 mL of crystalloid) × (% TBSA burned) × body weight (kg)

B. Fluid requirement (mL) = (5 mL of crystalloid) × (% TBSA burned) × body weight (kg)

C. Fluid requirement (mL) = (6 mL of crystalloid) × (% TBSA burned) × body weight (kg)
D. Fluid requirement (mL) = (7 mL of crystalloid) × (% TBSA burned) × body weight (kg)
306.Complications of burn excludes
A. pneumonia
B. cellulitis
C. Diabetic syndrome
D. Respiratory failure
307.True about intravenous fluid excludes
A. Parkland formula is used to calculate fluid in burn
B. Boluses of isotonic crystalloid solution should be given
C. In children with more than 10-20% TBSA burns
D. Is calculated by Fluid requirement (mL) = (5 mL of crystalloid) × (% TBSA burned) × body weight (kg)
308.For cooling of burned tissue we should not
A. Local cooling of burns of less than 9% of TBSA can be continued longer than 30 min to relieve pain
B. apply ice directly to the burn wound
C. Remove charred clothing
D. Immerse the burn wound in cold (1-5°C) water for about 30 minutes if transport cannot be undertaken immediately
309.Begins as a painful infection of a single hair follicle
A. carbuncle
B. furuncle
310.Deeper skin infection that involves a group of infected hair follicles
A. furuncle
B. carbuncle
311. False regarding carbuncle is
A. infective gangreen of subcutaneous tissue
B. caused by staphylococcus
C. diabetics are more prone
D. caused by streptococcus
312.Not true about carbuncle is
A. red, swollen
B. b) painful cluster of boils
C. c)occurs usually single
 D. caused byStaphylococcus aureus 
313.In carbuncles bacteria can cause infection by
A. entering the skin through a hair follicle, small scrape, or puncture
B. blood vessels
C. entering through cut injury
D. after post surgery
314. Not Risk Factors for Carbuncles
A. a)Older age, 
B. b)obesity,
C. c)poor hygiene
D. d) high fat diets
315.Not true about carbuncles
A. There is surrounding soft-tissue infection (cellulitis
B. A person has a weakened immune system
C. An infection has spread to other parts of the body
D. bacteria from a carbuncle can not escape into the bloodstream and will not cause serious complications
316.Not true about furuncle is
A. red, swollen
B. painful cluster of boils
C. occurs usually single
D. caused byStaphylococcus aureus 
317.Furuncle is not pus-filled nodules
A. true
B. false
318.Is not sign of furuncle
A. Boils are bumpy,
B. red, pus-filled lumps around a hair follicle that are tender,
C. warm
D. not painful.
319. Hidradenitis is an inflammation of sweat glands
A. true
B. false
320.Paraproctitis is a purulent inflammation of the cellular tissues surrounding the rectum
A. true
B. false
321.In Paraproctitis symptoms do not include
A. acute pain in the rectal region,
B. tenderness during defecation,
C. decreased body temperature,
D. appearance of an infiltrate in the anal region
322.Treatment of Paraproctitis includes administration of 
A. antibiotics
B. anti-inflammatory 
C. surgical lancing of the abscess in the suppurative stage
D. all of above
323.Cause of paraproctitis is penetration of bacterial flora from the rectum into the surrounding cellular tissues, which
may occur through an anal fissure
A. true
B. false
324.Lymph nodes are filled with ------------ blood cells that help your body fight off infections
A. RBC
B. WBC
C. Platelets
D. none
325.Infections that spread to lymph nodes are usually not caused by
A. bacteria,
B. viruses,
C. fungi
D. none
326.Lymphadenitis occurs when one or more lymph nodes are infected .When lymph nodes become infected, it's usually
because an infection started somewhere else in your body
A. ture
B. b) false
327.Symptom of lymphadenitis excludes
A. Nodes that increase in size suddenly ,
B. Nodes that are filled with pus (an abscess)
C. Both a and b
D. None
328.Lymphadenitis may also cause symptoms related to sore throat, fever, night sweats, fatigue, or weight loss
A. True
B. b) false
329.lymphadenitis is diagnosed by following test
A. Blood tests to look for infection
B. Taking a piece of the lymph node or fluid from inside the lymph node to study under a microscope
C. Placing fluid from the lymph node into a culture to see what type of germs grow
D. All of above
330.Treatment for lymphadenitis may include
A. Antibiotics
B. Medication to control pain and fever , reduce swelling
C. Surgery to drain a lymph node that has filled with pus
D. all of above
331.Mastitis is an infection and inflammation
A. Breast
B. lymph nodes
C. hair follicle
D. none
332.Mastitis is usually caused by an infection with the bacteria Staphylococcus aureus
A. True
B. b) false
333.Bacteria causing mastitis enter through
A. crack in the skin of the breast
B. lymph node
C. hair folices
D. all
334.Symptoms of mastitis excludes
A. redness,
B. pain
C. swelling
D. clogged milk duct
335.In mastitis, the treatment includes
A. by taking antibiotics
B. to practice prevention
C. fever-reducing agents
D. all
336.If you are breastfeeding, following is true in case of mastitis
A. you will most likely be encouraged to continue breastfeeding
B. this often actually helps relieve pressure
C. the infection will not enter the breast milk
 D. all of above
337.The most common type of lymphadenitis is
A. Localized lymphadenitis
B. b) Generalized lymphadenitis
338.Generalized lymphadenitis is related to
A. This type of lymph node infection occurs in two or more lymph node groups
B. may be caused by an infection that spreads through the bloodstream
C. may be caused by an infection that spreads through another illness that affects the whole body
D. all of above
339.Microbe causing tetanus is
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium difficile 
D. Clostridium perfringens
340.C. tetani bacteria produce spores that are very difficult to kill as they are resistant to heat and many chemical agents.
A. true
B. false
341.C. tetani spores can be found in
A. soil
B. intestines and feces of many household and farm animals and humans
C. both
D. none
342.False about C. tetani
A. spores can be found in the soil and in the intestines and feces of many household and farm animals and humans.
B. The bacteria usually enter the human body through a puncture (in the presence of anaerobic [low oxygen] conditions,
the spores will germinate).
C. Tetanus is not spread from person to person.
D. tetani bacteria can very well grow in the presence of oxygen
343.The incubation period varies from
A. 3–21 days, with an average of 8 days
B. 23–41 days, with an average of 18 days
C. 30–121 days, with an average of 60 days
D. 19–21 days, with an average of 20 days
344.The symptoms of tetanus excludes
A. spasm of the jaw muscles,
B. stiffness of the neck,
C. difficulty in swallowing,
D. none
345.First appearing symptoms of tetanus
A. spasm of the jaw muscles,
B. stiffness of the neck,
C. difficulty in swallowing,
D. stiffness of the abdominal muscles
346.If it occurs , complete recovery of patients suffering from tetanus
A. within few minutes
B. as soon as medication
C. with in few hours
D. may take months
347.Diagnosis of tetanus is based on
A. the clinical signs and symptoms only
B. blood reports
C. CT scan
D. history alone
348.Tetanus bacilli live in the
 A. soil,
B. animal feces,
C. manure
D. all
349.People can also get tetanus from splinters, self-piercing, and self-tattooing. Injecting drug users are also at risk for tetanus
A. a)true
B. b)false
350.Not true about treatment for tetanus
A. There is no complete "cure" for tetanus once a person develops symptoms,
B. just supportive treatment and management of complications.
C. The best "treatment" is prevention through immunization
D. spontaneous treatment soon after medication
351.Can you get tetanus more than once?
A. yes
B. never
352.Vaccines preparations are all given as
A. injection
B. tablets
C. capsules
D. oral drops
353.Vaccines preparations are all given as injection in
A. the anterolateral thigh muscle
B. the deltoid muscle
C. gluteal muscles
D. a and b
354.The usual schedule of vaccine for infants is a series of
A. 4 doses of DTaP
B. 5 doses of DtaP
C. 6 doses of DTaP
D. 3 doses of DtaP
355.The usual schedule for infants is a series of doses of DTaP given at
A. 2, 4, 6, and 15–18 months of age
B. 2, 4, 6, and 15–18 weaks of age
C. 2,4,8, and 25–28 months of age
D. 2, 4, 8, and 25–28 weaks of age
356.A fifth shot, or booster dose, is recommended between-------------, unless the fourth dose was given late (after the fourth
birthday)
A. age 4 and 6 years
B. age 14 and 16 years
C. age 24 and 26 years
D. not required
357.True about doses of tetanus vaccine is
A. For people who were never vaccinated or who may have started but not completed a series of shots, a 3-dose series of
Td should be given with 1 to 2 months between dose #1 and #2, and 6 to 12 months between dose #2 and #3.
B. One of the doses, preferably the first, should also contain the pertussis component in the form of Tdap.
C. Because immunity to diphtheria and tetanus wanes with time, boosters of Td are needed every ten years.
D. All above are true
358.Can a pregnant woman receive Tdap vaccine?
A. yes
B. never
359.Pregnant women should receive Tdap
A. during each pregnancy, preferably between 27 and 36 weeks’ gestation
B. only in first pregnency
C. never
D. in first trimester as soon as pregnency is confirmed
360.Reduced opening of the jaws caused by spasmof the muscles of mastication
A. Trismus
B. risus sardonicus
C. ophisthotonus
D. non
361.Rigid spine is
A. Trismus
B. risus sardonicus
C. ophisthotonus
D. non
362.The rigidity of facial muscles that can lead to grimace is referred to
A. Trismus
B. risus sardonicus
C. ophisthotonus
D. non
363.C. tetani bacteria can be isolated from the skin of an individual who does not have tetanus
a) True
b) false
364. Tetanus can spread from person to person by contact
A. true
B. false
365.Spores C. tetani will germinate in the presence of
A. anaerobic [low oxygen] condition
B. aerobic condition
366.The symptoms of tetanus are caused by the tetanus toxin acting on the
A. central nervous system
B. major arteries
C. heart and circulatory system
D. ligaments,tendons
367.The further the injury site is from the central nervous system, the longer the incubation period. The shorter the incubation
period, the higher the risk of death.
A. True
B. False
368.Tetanus has a -----------fatality rate
A. high
B. low
C. 100% death rate
D. 100% survival rate
369.Necrosis it is death:
A. of cells due to metabolic disorders;
B. of parenchymatous cells only;
C. of cells and tissues in a living organism;
D. programmed, genetically determined death of cells;
E. of cells and tissue in dead organism.
370.Causes of necrosis are following:
A. infectious agents;
B. allergic factors;
C. chemical substances;
D. blood circulation disturbances;
E. all the enumerated.
371.Call morphological type of necrosis:
A. vascular;
B. allergic;
C. coagulative;
D. traumatic;
 E. all the enumerated.
372.Dry necrosis has following colour:
A. whitish-yellowish;
B. black;
C. dark-red;
D. cyanotic;
E. rusty.
373.Show wrong characteristic of wet necrosis:
A. it has black colour;
B. it contains a lot of fluid;
C. it disturbs function of organ;
D. it develops in the brain only;
E. cyst formation – it is its often local result.
374.What colour does gangrene have?
A. yellow;
B. whitish-grayish;
C. black;
D. dark-red;
E. cyanotic.
375.Show wrong characteristic of gangrene:
A. it has black colour;
B. it has contact with the environmental surrounding;
C. it develops in bowel often;
D. it disturbs function of organ;
E. cyst formation – it is its local result.
376.Show wrong characteristic of dry necrosis:
A. it has whitish-yellowish colour;
B. it can develop in the spleen, kidney;
C. its often outcome is organization;
D. it can be vascular;
E. it is direct always.
377.What morphological type of necrosis in the myocardium does develop?
A. wet gangrene;
B. dry gangrene;
C. wet necrosis;
D. dry necrosis;
E. bedsore.
378.What is the most often localization of colliquative necrosis?
A. spleen;
B. kidney;
C. liver;
D. brain;
E. myocardium.
379.Wet gangrene usually develops in:
A. bowel;
B. kidney;
C. liver;
D. brain;
E. myocardium.
380.The cause of the indirect necrosis is:
A. infectious agents;
B. toxins;
C. chemical substances;
D. traumatic factors;
E. stopping of blood flow.
381.Show the example of wet necrosis:
A. caseous necrosis;
B. fibrinoid necrosis;
C. ischemic infarction of the spleen;
D. ischemic infarction of the brain;
E. waxy necrosis.
382.Bedsore it is the type of:
A. infarction;
B. gangrene;
C. dry necrosis;
D. wet necrosis;
E. ulceration.
383.In necrosis there is:
A. cytoplasm vacuolization;
B. nuclei vacuolization;
C. plasmolysis;
D. disappearance of glycogen;
E. all the enumerated.
384.In necrosis there is:
A. cytoplasm vacuolization;
B. nuclei vacuolization;
C. disappearance of glycogen;
D. kariolysis;
E. all the enumerated.
385.Caseous necrosis develops in:
A. rheumatic fever;
B. gas gangrene;
C. brain infarctions;
D. myocardial infarctions;
E. tuberculosis.
386.Show wrong characteristic of bedsore:
a. it is the type of gangrene;
b. develops in tissues due to prolonged compression;
c. has local metabolic disturbances in its development;
d. petrifaction it is its typical outcome;
e. develops in recumbent patients.
387.Fallowing change forms around the necrotic focus through few days:
a. calcium salts sedimentation;
b. osseous tissue;
c. demarcation inflammation;
d. fibrous capsule;
e. fibrous connective tissue.
388.Unpleasant outcome of necrosis is:
a. encapsulation;
b. organization;
c. petrifaction;
d. suppuration;
e. ossification.
389.Piece of dead tissue without any changes is calling:
A. petrifacate;
B. bedsore;
C. infarction;
D. sequester;
E. scar.
390.Complication of necrosis is:
 A. resorption;
B. organization;
C. encapsulation;
D. rupture of cavitary organ wall;
E. petrifaction.
391.Black colour of dead tissues in gangrene is brought about:
A. melanin;
B. hemosiderin;
C. bilirubin;
D. hydrochloride acid hematin;
E. iron sulfide.
392.Gangrene is possible into:
A. kidney;
B. myocardium;
C. brain;
D. soft tissues of low extremities;
E. in all enumerated localizations.