Professional Documents
Culture Documents
35. The blood supply for a transverse Rectus 44. Hyperacute graft rejection is caused by :
abdominis myocutaneous flap comes from: 1. B - lymphocytes 2. Macrophages
1. Internal mammary artery 3. Preformed Antibodies 4. T-Iymphocytes
2. Superficial epigastric artery
3. Deep inferior epigastric artery 45. MOA of Sirolimus is :
4. Superficial external pudendal artery 1. Blocks-IL-2 gene transcription
2. Blocks IL-2 receptor signal transduction
36. Ideal graft for leg injury with 10 x 10 cm. exposed 3. Depletion and Blockade of T-cells
bone : 4. Prevents Iymphocyte proliferation
1. Amniotic memb graft 2. Pedicle graft
3. Full thickness graft 4. Split thickness skin graft 46. In renal transplantation in a living donor kidney,
Renal artery is anastomosed to :
37. Following are true of cultured bilayer skin 1. Ext. Iliac Artery 2. Renal artery
equivalent, EXCEPT: 3. Int. Iliac artery 4. Aorta
1. More closely mimics normal anatomy
2. easily handled, can be sutured or meshed 47. NOTES is :
3. Does not need secondary procedure 1. Non obliterative trans esophageal surgery
4. Long shelf life 2. Natural orfice trans esophageal surgery
3. Natural orfice trans luminal endoscopic surgery
38. Regarding Hemangiomas following are true: 4. Neo occlusive trans arterial Endo surgery
1. Salman patch disappears after age one
2. Portwinestain present through life 48. Triangle of doom has following Boundaries,
3. Salman patch seen on forehead or over occiput EXCEPT:
4. All are correct 1. Vas deferens 2. Testicular vessels
3. Iliac vessels 4. Reflected peritoneal fold
39. Criteria for Brainstem death include the
following, EXCEPT: 49. Length of the laparoscopic Hand instruments
1. Absence of corneal reflexes used/regularly in adult surgeries is:
2. Absence of motor response 1. 18cms 2. 28 cms
3. Absence of spontaneous respiration after 3. 25 cms 4. 36 cms
preventilation with 100% O2 for atieast 5 minutes, pt is
connected from ventilator for 10minutes with PO2 > 60 50. Graft-versus-host disease has occurred with the
mm of Hg transplantation of which of the following?
4. Tests performed by two clinicians on two separate 1. Kidney 2. Lung
occasions with atleast one of them a consultant from the 3. Heart 4. Bone marrow
transplant team.
51. The following are true of congenital
40. Optimal storage time in hrs for liver is : lymphoedema, EXCEPT:
1. < 24 hrs 2. < 12 hrs 1. Lower limbs are affected more often
3. < 10 hrs 4. < 3hrs 2. Usually unilateral
3. Onset usually occurs before puberty
41. In creation of peritoneum, gas used in 4. Episodes of lymphangitis worsens the edema
Laparoscopy is:
1. Coz 2. N20 52. In the management of leg ulcers, which of the
3. Helium gas 4. All of the above following is not done?
1. Cleaning the ulcer under tap water
42. The intra abdominal pressure during 2. Treating the skin of leg with emulsifying ointment
laparoscopy should be set between: 3. Use of topical antibiotics during dressing
1. 5-8 mm Hg 2. 10 25 mm Hg 4. Use of topical steroids to treat allergic response
3. 20 25 mm Hg 4. 30 35 Hg
53. Mr. Menon is due for a 10 hr flight to London. He
43. Principal cause of death in renal transplant has undergone knee replacement surgery one month
patients is: ago. How best can he prevent DVT from taking place:
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1. Taking sleeping tablets
2. Avoid alcohol 62. All the following are good prognosis features of
3. Walk in the aisle occasionally Hodgkins disease, EXCEPT:
4. Low-molecular weight heparin administered before 1. Hb>10gm
the flight 2. Abs. lymphocyte count < 600/111
3. WBC < 15000/ cmm
54. The commonest lymphangiographic finding in a 4. Age < 45 years
patient with lymphoedema praecox is:
1. Congenital hyperplasia of lymphatics 63. Most malignant form of NHL is:
2. Proximal obliteration 1. Diffuse large cell 2. Small cell lymphocytic
3. Distal obliteration 3. Follicular lymphoma 4. Large cell follicular
4. Dysfunctional lymphatics
64. Podoconiosis is :
55. All of the following statement regarding filariasis 1. Type of fungal infections of feet
are TRUE, EXCEPT: 2. Endemic elephantiasis
1. Commonest cause of lymphoedema world-wide 3. Type of occupational chest infections
2. Microfilariae enter the blood at night 4. Malignancy of the nail
3. Diethylcarbamazine destroys the parasites and
reverses the Iymphatic changes 65. Odema pitting on pressure and disappearing an
4. Wucheria bancrofti is responsible for 90% cases bed rest and elevations is:
1. Grade II 2. Grade III
56. Most accurate diagnostic technique in 3. Latent or subclinical 4. Grade I
lymphoedema is:
1. Lymphangiography 2. Isotope Iymphoscintigraphy 66. A young child was brought by her mother with
3. CT scan 4. MRI swelling in the lower posterior half of neck which
became prominent on crying. On examination the
57. Decongestive lymphoedema therapy includes all, margins more not well defined and fluctuation was
EXCEPT: positive. Compressibility was possible diagnosis in
1. Skin care this patient is:
2. Manual lymphatic drainage 1. Cystic Hygroma 2. Bronchial cyst
3. Multilayer lymphoedema bandaging 3. Solitary lymph cyst 4. Cold abscess
4. Diuretics
67. Which of the following is not a feature of severe
58. Commonest cause of chyluria is : limb ischaemia?
1. Tuberculosis 2. Filariasis 1. Pain in calf on walking
3. Ascariasis 4. Malignancy 2. Rest pain
3. Coldness, numbness and paraesthesia
59. Meige's disease is : 4. Ulceration and gangrene
1. Congenital lymph oedema
2. Ovarian tumor with pleural effusion and ascitis 68. Salim had a cut throat injury following a brawl.
3. Lymphaedema precox He developed air embolism. Which of the following is
4. Lymphagio sarcoma in chronic Iymphoedematous incorrect regarding treatment of this condition?
limb. 1. Placement of patient in Trendelenburg position
2. Oxygen administration
60. Alemtuzumab is a chemo therapeutic agent with 3. Left side placement of patient
MOA as: 4. Aspiration of left ventricle
1. Antibody against CD20 Ag
2. Antibody against CD 52 Ag 69. False about fat embolism is:
3. Tyrosine kinase receptor inhibitors 1. Fat is metabolic in origin
4. Farnesyl transferase inhibitors 2. Patient becomes comatose with small pupils
3. Retinal changes take place late after onset of disease
61. Severe unilateral lymph edema is: 4. Petechial hemorrhages often occur
1. > 20 % excess limb volume
2. > 40 % excess limb volume 70. In all of the following, sympathectomy is effective,
3. > 30 % excess limb volume EXCEPT one:
4. > 50 % excess limb volume 1. Intermittent claudication 2. Hyperhydrosis
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3. Raynaud's disease 4. Causalgia 2. Within the duct in the floor of mouth
3. At the opening of the submandibular duct
71. An ABI of less than suggests arterial injury even 4. None of the above
in the presence of palpable pulses:
1. 0.7 2. 0.5 80. Organism not found in acute bacterial parotitis is:
3. 0.3 4. 0.9 1. Haemophilus influenza 2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Streptococcus viridans 4. None of the above
72. Gold standard for diagnosis of aortic rupture is:
1. 20 ECHO 2. X-ray chest PA view 81. Which of the following is not used as a method for
3. Aor togram 4. Multi slice CT scan with contrast prevention of Frey's syndrome during
parotidectomy?
73. While doing BK amputation, most important 1. Sternomastoid muscle flap
technical consideration is : 2. Lateral thigh flap
1. Stump should be short 3. Temporalis fascial flap
2. Ant flap longer than post flap 4. Insertion of artificial membranes between skin & the
3. Fipula transected above the tibial parotid bed
4. Nerves ligated at the level of muscles
82. Rajmohan aged 70 years had a lesion in the
74. . Regarding Aortic dissection following is false: region of level II in the neck which was cystic.
1. Presents as tearing intrascapsular pain Incorrect statement regarding this condition is:
2. Diagnosed by echo or CT/MRI with contrast 1. This is cystic degeneration from a small undetected
3. Control of BP is must before any further Imaging or primary squamous carcinoma in tonsil or tongue base
intervention 2. Radiotherapy is required
4. Type A usually are best managed medically 3. Laser excision may be done
4. There is no need for neck dissection
75. Cimino fistula is a fistula created between:
1. Radial A and cephalic vein 83. New man and seabrock's Sx (surgery) is done for:
2. Ulnar A and vein 1. Cleft palate 2. Cleft lip
3. Subclavian A and vein 3. Repair of parotid fistula 4. Chronic Iymphoedema
4. Long Saphenous vein and femoral artery
84. Ca of buccal mucosa commonly drain in to
76. Commonest site for ectopic salivary gland following lymph nodes sites:
tumor is: 1. Submental 2. cervical
1. Tongue 2. Cheek 3. Submandibular 4. Supraclavicular
3. Palate 4. Neck
85. A patient of Ca of Rt lateral border of tongue with
77. One of the following is not a reliable indicator level III lymph nodes on left side of a size 5 cms
of malignant change in submandibular salivary staging is :
gland: 1. No 2. N1
1. Facial nerve weakness 3. N2 4. N3
2. Pain in submandibular region
3. Rapid enlargement of swelling 86. Earliest tumor of appear after birth is :
4. Cervical node enlargement 1. Stemomastoid tumor 2. Ranula
3. Cystic hygroma 4. Thyroglossal cyst
78. Warthin's tumor is :
1. Malignant neoplasm 87. True about carotid body tumour is :
2. Rapidly growing 1. Arises form pharyngeal wall
3. Gives a hot pertechnetate scan 2. FNAC is done for diagnosis
4. Cold pertechnetate scan 3. May metastasize
4. Young adults affected
79. Carol presents with an acute painful swelling
in the region of the submandibular gland, which is 88. Muco epidermoid Ca of parotid arise from:
precipitated by eating & resolves spontaneously 1. Secrertory cells 2. Myoepithelial cells
over a period of 1-2 hours after meals. This would 3. Excretory cells 4. Myofibrils
mean presence of stone in:
1. The hilum of the gland
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89. Which of the following statements regarding 2. Commonly seen in the Cantonese
chronic hyperplastic Candidiasis is not true? 3. Epstein-Barr virus is the infective agent
1. Lesions are common at oral commissures 4. Salted fish consumption is an important cause
2. Nystatin & amphotericin eliminate the infection
3. Re-infection after treatment is a definite 97. True about glomus-jugulae tumor, EXCEPT:
problem 1. M.C. in male
4. Surgery is never required 2. Arise from non-chromaffin cells
3. Fluctuating tinnitus and conductive type
90. Which of the following lesions is associated with deafness is earliest symptoms
an increased incidence of oral malignancy? 4. CT scan salt and pepper appearance of involved bone
1. Oral Lichen planus
2. Oral submucous fibrosis 98. A patient with Ca tongue is found to have lower
3. Dyskeratosis congenital neck positive nodes. The Rx of choice for the lymph
4. Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis nodes is :
1. Radical neck dissection
91. Regarding palatal cancers, all are true, EXCEPT: 2. Tele radiotherapy
1. Commonly seen where reverse smoking is 3. Suprahyoid neck dissection
practiced 4. Lower cervical neck dissection
2. Most of the tumours are of minor salivary gland
origin 99. Which Ca has best prognosis:
3. They present as sessile swellings & 1. Ca. lip 2. Ca check
ulcerate late 3. CA tongue 4. Ca palate
4. Deep infiltration into the underlying bone is
very common 100. Treatment of stage T3 N1 of Ca. maxilla is :
1. Radiation only 2. Chemo + radiation
92. Investigation of choice for diagnosis of 3. Sx with radiation 4. Chemo Rx only
oropharyngeal cancer:
1. Computerized tomography 2. MRI 101. MEN II A includes:
3. Radiography 4. Radionuclide studies 1. Ganglioneuromas 2. Cutaneous Lichen Amyloids
3. Hypocalcemia 4. Mutation in chromosome 10
93. Reconstruction after low-level maxillectomy for
a-hard palate can be carried out by : 102. During bilateral adrenalectomy ,
1. Latissimus dorsi flap intraoperative dose of hydrocortisone should be
2. Vascularised iliac crest graft given after
3. Fibular flap 1. Opening the abdomen
4. All of the above 2. Ligation of left adrenal vein
3. Ligation of right adrenal vein
94. Resection of mandible due to gross tumour 4. Excision of both adrenal glands
invasion is followed by primary reconstruction by
which of the following methods? 103. Commonest cause of Cushing's syndrome is:
1. Using a vascularised bone 1. Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
2. Free corticocancellous graft 2. Adrenal adenoma
3. Alloplastic system supplemented with 3. Adrenal carcinoma
cancellous bone mush 4. Steroids
4. All of the above
104. Most common cause of Addison's disease is :
95. Invasion of the edentulous mandible in 1. Tuberculosis 2. Metastatic carcinoma
carcinoma of the floor of the mouth is : 3. Autoimmune 4. Amyloidosis
1. By deficiencies in the cortical bone of the alveolar crest
2. Via the periodontal ligament 105. Which of following is preoperative preparation
3. Above the insertion of the mylohyoid muscle pheochromocytoma?
4. All of the above 1. Fluids 2. Phenoxybenzarmine
3. Nifedepine 4. propanolol
96. Which statement regarding nasopharyngeal
carcinoma is not true? 106. Regarding Adrenal Incidentalomas following is
1. Commonest variety is adenocarcinoma false:
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1. Detected in 4% patients on Imaging studies and 3. Mucoid 4. Colloid
prevalence increases with age.
2. Majority of them are phaechromocytomas 116. All are TRUE about CA breast, EXCEPT:
3. Hormonal evaluation is required 1. Affected sibling is a risk factor
4. Smaller masses usually are followed up 2. Paget's disease of nipple is Intraductal type of CA
3. Common in aged nulliparous
107. Malignant phaeochromocytoma differ from 4. Increased incidence with prolonged breast feeding
benign by ai, EXCEPT:
1. Breached capsule 117. Peau d'orange is due to :
2. Vascular Invasions and mets 1. Arterial obstruction
3. Ki-67 positive cells in high numbers 2. Blockage of subdermal lymphatics
4. Increased adrenaline levels 3. Invasion of skin with malignant cells
4. Secondary infection
108. Following statements about
craniopharyionmias is true: 118. Malti, a 45 years female patient with a family hlo
1. Tumors are uniforming solid breast carcinomas, showed diffuse microcalcification
2. Usually malignant on mammography. Intraductal carcinoma is situ was
3. May cause compressingof optic tracts and visual seen on biopsy. Most appropriate management is :
symptoms 1. Quadrantectomy 2. Radical mastectomy
4. Children with these lesion develop acromegaly 3. Simple mastectomy 4. Chemotherapy
109. Opsomyoclonus is encountered as elf of 119. Breast conservation surgery is indicated is one
1. Memingioma 2. Neuroblastoma of the following conditions:
3. Von tripped lindou disease 4. Neurofibromato 1. T1 breast tumor 2. multicentric tumor
3. Extensive in situ cancer 4. T4b breast tumor
110. Which of the following is the mc type of pituitary
yadenome? 120. Cystosarcoma phylloides is treated by :
1. Thyrotropinoma 2. Gonadotropinoma 1. Simple mastectomy
3. Prolactinoma 4. Corticotropinoma 2. Radical mastectomy
3. Modified radical mastectomy
111. A blood stained discharge from the nipple 4. Antibiotic with conservative treatment
indicates:
1. Breast abscess 2. Fibroadenoma 121. All of the following are used for reconstruction
3. Duct papilloma 4. Fat necrosis of breast of breast, EXCEPT :
1. Transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous flap
112. A Female Patient present with a hard , mobile 2. Latissimus dorsi myocutaneous flap
lump in her rt. Breast . Which investigation would be 3. Pectoralis major myocutaneous flap
most helpful in making the diagnosis ? 4. Transverses rectus abdominis free flap
1. FNAC 2. Needle biopsy
3. Excision Biopsy 4. Mammography 122. A 14 year old healthy girl of normal height and
weight for age, complains that her right breast has
113. On mammogram all of the following are the developed twice the size of her left breast since the
features of a malignant tumor, EXCEPT: onset of puberty at the age of 12. Both breasts have a
1. Spiculation 2. Microcalcification similar consistency on palpation with normal nipples
3. Macrocalcification 4. Irregular mass areolae. The most likely cause for these findings is :
1. Cystosarcoma phyllodes 2. Virginal hypertrophy
114. Which of the following stage of Breast Ca 3. Fibrocystic disease 4. Early state of carcinoma
corresponds with following feature ~ Breast mass of
6 x 3 cm. size with hard mobile ipsilateral axillary 123. Large breast is not seen in :
lymph node and ipsilateral supraclavicular lymph? 1. Filariasis 2. Giant fibroadenoma
1. T4 N2 Mo 2. T3N1 M1 3. Cystosarcoma phylloides 4. Schirrhous carcinoma
3. T4N1 M1 4. T3 N3 Mo
124. For pregnant women who are found to have
115. Increased incidence with prolonged breast breast cancer :
feeding Breast a which is multicentric and bilateral: 1. Carcinoma of the breastbehaves more aggressively in
1. Ductal 2. Lobular pregnant women owing to hormones stimulation
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2. Breast conservation is inappropriate for third
trimester pregnancies 131. 58 years old male presented with symptoms &
3. Most will have hormonally sensitive tumors Signs of progressive neurological deficits altered
4. Administration of adjuvant chemotherapy is safe for sensorium and irritability. On inquiry there was a
the fetus during the second and third trimesters h/o trauma 3 weeks back. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Acute subdural haematoma
125. True statements regarding Pagets disease of 2. Chronic subdural haematoma
the breast include that is : 3. Extradural Haematoma
1. Usually precedes development of pagets disease of 4. Brain tumor
bone
2. Presents with nipple areolar eczematous changes 132. In multiple metastatic tumors of the brain ,
3. Does not involves axillary lymph nodes because it is a which of the following techniques is the most
manifestation of intraductual carcinoma only plausible option for treatment ?
4. Accounts for 10to 15 percent of all newely diagnosed 1. Surgery 2. Stereotic radiosurgery
breast cancers 3. Radio therapy 4. Steriods
126. Which of the following electrolyte disturbances 133. After a recent office visit for evaluation of
are most common in the head injured patient? headaches accompanied by nausea and vomiting and
1. Sodium 2. Potassium progressive truncal ataxia , a 4 year old boy is
3. Chloride 4. Bicarbonate diagnosed with medulloblastoma. Which of the
following statements regarding these tumors is true?
127. After a vehicular accident, Mohan went for a CT 1. Medulloblastoma is one of the rarer primary brain
scan. He was diagnosed to have a burst temporal tumors in children
lobe. This would mean: 2. First line treatment should include surgical debulking
1. Chronic subdural haematoma with radiation therapy
2. Contusional intracerebral haematoma 3. Chemotherapy with carmustine is effective at inducing
3. Extradural haematoma remission of medulloblastomas
4. None of the above 4. Most of these tumors arise from the floor of the fourth
ventricle
128. An 18 year old man is admitted to the
emergency room following a motorcycle accident. He 134. A 45 year old woman with a long history of
is alert and fully oriented but witnesses to the headaches has a large olfactory groove mass on
accident report an interval of unresponsiveness computed tomography (CT) scan. (SELECT 1 TUMOR)
following the injury. Skull films disclose a fracture of 1. Ependymoma 2. Oligodendroglioma
the left temporal bone. Following x-ray the patient 3. Meningioma 4. Glioblastoma multiforme
suddenly loses consciousness and dilatation of the
left pupil is noted. This patient should be considered 135. A middle aged man presents with a long history
to have: of seizures and a calcified frontal lobe lesion.
1. A ruptured berry aneurysm (SELECT 1 TUMOR) :
2. Acute subdural hematoma 1. Ependymoma 2. Oligodendroglioma
3. Epidural hematoma 3. Meningioma 4. Glioblastoma multiforme
4. Intraabdominal hemorrhage
136. A 25 year old woman presents with worsening
129. The term post traumatic epilepsy refers to hearing loss and tinnitus. A computed tomography
seizures occurring: (CT) scan reveals tumor involvement of cranial nerve
1. Within moments of head injury VIII bilaterally. What is it likely to be ?
2. Within 7 days of head injury 1. Von Hippel-Landau disease
3. Within several weeks to months after head injury 2. Prolactin-secreting adenoma
4. Many years after head injury 3. Neurofibromatosis type II
4. Growth hormone-secreting adenoma
130. Which of the following is commonest source of
Extradural hemorrhage? 137. In raised ICP with disrupted blood-brain barrier
1. Middle meningeal artery , which of the following drugs should be used with
2. Subdural venous sinus caution?
3. Charcot's artery 1. Steroids 2. Mannitol
4. Middle cerebral artery 3. Barbiturates 4. Frusemide
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4. Urine / serum creatinine
138. A 6 Year old boy is found to have pigmented
hamartomatous lesions of the iris and an optic 146. Regarding Hypothermia, following is true,
glioma upon fundoscopic examination. Your EXCEPT:
diagnosis is : 1. Risk of ventricular fibrillation increases at
1. Von Hippel-Landau disease temp < 28 C.
2. Prolactin-secreting adenoma 2. Cardiac arrest occurs at 20C
3. Neurofibromatosis type I 3. Diagnosis confirmed by Rectal temp of 35 C
4. Growth hormone-secreting adenoma 4. At temp < 30C, heart is responsive to
139. A 25 year old woman presents with complaints 147. defibrillation and inotropes
of significant weight gain, amenorrhea, and "purple Half life of platelets is :
lines" on her skin. Select one of the following: 1. 24 hrs 2. 48 hrs
1. Von Hippel-Landau disease 3. 5 days 4. 9 days
2. Prolactin-secreting adenoma
3. Neurofibromatosis type II 148. Mc symptom of hemolytic transfusion a
4. Growth hormone-secreting adenoma conscious patient is :
1. Pyrexia and rigors
140. Suprasellar calcification with polyuria seen in: 2. Hemoglobinuria and oliguria 3. Burning sensation and
1. Langerhan cell histocytosis pain in
2. Medulloblastoma 3. the limb
3. Pinealoma 4. Urticaria and pruritis
4. Craniopharyngioma
149. Following is the best parameter in the
141. Not true regarding Dandy Walker cyst: management of shock:
1. Cerebellar vermis Hypoplasia 1. Blood Pressure
2. Posterior fossa cyst 2. Pulse oximetry
3. Long tract signs (+) 3. Deficiency of effective of circulation
4. Arachnoid cyst 4. CVP
142. True about Berry Aneurysm through is 150. Manohar admitted for leiomyoma of the
following, EXCEPT: stomach was to undergo elective surgery. However,
1. Mc site of rupture is apex which cause SAH he was diagnosed with Christmas disease. He will
2. Wall contains smooth muscle fibroblasts require which of the following blood fractions?
3. 90% occurs in Ant port of circulation at branching 1. Platelet concentrate 2. Fresh frozen plasma
points 3. Cryoprecipitate 4. None of t
4. Occasionally associated with NF1, coarctation of aorta.
151. Ormond's disease is caused by all, EXCEPT:
143. Witzelschult syndrome is seen in : 1. Hodgkin's disease
1. Temporal lobe tumor 2. Parietal lobe tumor 2. Inflammatory bowel disease
3. Frontal lobe tumor 4. Head injury 3. Ca breast
4. Focal glomerulosclerosis
144. Secondary haemorrhage differs from reac-
tionary haemorrhage in that: 152. Which of the following is not an anatomical site
1. It is due to rolling of a ligature of narrowing where a ureteric stone is arrested?
2. It follows restlessness, coughing & vomiting which 1. Crossing the vas deferens
raise the venous pressure 2. Uretero pelvic junction
3. It occurs due to infection & sloughing of part of the wail 3. Crossing the iliac artery
of an artery 4. Before entering the bladder wall
4. It takes place within 24 hours
153. Strangury is due to :
145. Characteristic finding of perenal azotemia in a 1. Mid ureter 2. Urethra
post operative patient is : 3. Inflammed bladder 4. Stretching of renal capsule
1. Urine sodium of 28 meq/L
2. Urine chloride of 15 meq/L 154. True regarding ureteric stones is all,
3. Fractional excretion of sodium less than1 EXCEPT?
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1. Urine is always infected 3. Chronic cystitis
2. Pain is referred to tip of penis in 4. Malignancy
intramural stones
3. Source is always the kidneys 163. To differentiate between stress
4. Expectant treatment may be useful incontinence and Detrusor instability
investigation done is :
155. The following statements about the YAG laser is 1. Cystourethroscopy
correct, EXCEPT? 2. Urodynamic study
1. It can even cut the wire of stone baskets 3. MCU
2. Its use for uric acid stones has caused deaths due to 4. Retrograde urethroscopy
generation of cyanide
3. It has a wavelength of 2100 nm 164. For treatment of the ectopia vesicae,
4. It is effective against the hardest urinary stones which of the following bone is divided to
reach the site :
156. Tumor staging and grading in early bladder 1. Pubic ramic 2. IIiac bone
cancer is usually done with following 3. Ischium bone 4. Symphysis
1. USG 2. CT Scan
3. Cystography 4. Transurethral resection 165. A patient Kailash presents with haematuria for
many days. On investigations he is found to have
157. A 10-mm calculus in the right lower ureter renal calculi, calcifications in the wall of urinary
associated with proximal hydroureteronephrosis in bladder and small contracted bladder. Most probable
45 year old best treated with : cause is :
1. Open ureterolithotmy 1. Schistosomiasis 2. Amyloidosis
2. Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy 3. Tuberculosis 4. Ca urinary bladder
3. Antegrade percutaneous access
4. Ureteroscopic retrieval 166. About ectopic vesicae, following is true, EXCEPT:
1. Ca bladder may occur
158. Squamous cell tumor of urinary bladder is most 2. Ventral curvature of penis
consistently associated with: 3. Incontinence of urine
1. Stone 2. Schistosomiasis 4. Visible uretero - vesicle efflux
3. Chr. Cystitis 4. Diabetes mellitus
167. Rahul developed a neuropathic bladder after
159. True about bladder stones is all, EXCEPT: an accident. The lesion is found above T10. He has
1. Rare in Indian children incomplete bladder emptying but a good capacity
2. Primary stones are rare bladder. He can be managed by :
3. Small stones can be removed per urethra 1. Condom drainage
4. Maximum stones are radioopaque 2. Clean intermittent
3. catheterisation
160. False about Balkan nephropathy is : 4. Endoscopic sphincterotomy
1. Squamous cell carcinoma 5. Bladder reconstruction with fitment of artificial
2. Involves upper urinary tract urinary sphincters
3. Associated with consumption of grains stored in damp
environment 168. Most common complication of ileal conduit as
4. Nephron sparing surgery is done over nephrectomy a method of permanent urinary diversion is:
1. Ureteroileal stricture
161. Tear-drop bladder is a feature of : 2. Stenosis at the percutaneous site
1. Tuberculosis 3. Urine infection
2. Hunner's ulcer 4. Reabsorption of urine
3. Perivescial hemorrhage with rupture
4. Perivesical hemorrhage without rupture 169. Komal complained of urine loss during
laughing & sneezing. Which of the following is
162. One of the following disease will show urinary FALSE regarding her condition?
bladder calcification radiologically which resemble 1. It is usually seen in those with H/O caesarian
fetal head in pelvis: section
1. Tuberculosis 2. History of difficult labour with use of forceps
2. Schistosomiasis 3. Seen with epispadias
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4. Symptoms may change with menstrual cycle 3. Erythroplasia of Queyrat
4. Bowen disease
170. Which of the following drugs is used for non--
adjuvant chemotherapy for bladder causes? 179. Rehman 33 year male presented with carcinoma
1. BCG 2. Gemcitabine of penis. At presentation there were no nodes
3. Doxorubicin 4. Vinblastine palpable in the groin. However he developed nodes
in the right. side of groin 2 months after surgery.
171. Diagnosis of bladder diverticulum is best Further treatment should include:
made on : 1. Observation
1. Cystoscopy with partially distended Bladder 2. Antibiotics
2. Intravenous urography 3. Chemotherapy & radiation
3. Retrograde cystography 4. Unilateral ilioinguinal node dissection
4. Cystoscopy with fully distended Bladder
180. Malignant transformation occurs in ulcer after
172. Following are the most common sites of many years of which of the following STI in the penis?
Ca bladder: 1. Lymphogranuloma venereum
1. Lateral walls 2. Trigone 2. Granuloma inguinale
3. Both of the above 4. None of the above 3. Condylomata acuminata
4. None of the above
173. The following are known causes of UTI in
females, EXCEPT: 181. Androgen production from a cryptorchid testis
1. Urethral stricture at 16 years of age is :
2. Colonization of perineal skin by E.Coli 1. Reduced to half of normal output
3. Neurogenic bladder dysfunction 2. Not reduced at all
4. Pre menopausal status 3. Reduced by 30%
4. Reduced by 75%
174. Carcinoma in schistosomiasis of the
bladder commences from which of the 182. Typical of Buschke-Lowenstein tumor is all,
following bilharzial lesion ? EXCEPT:
1. Papilloma 2. Nodule 1. Treatment is surgical
3. Ulcer 4. Pseudo-tubercle 2. Locally destructive;
3. Spreads to lymph nodes>
175. characteristics of the urethral syndrome 4. It is a verrucous carcinoma
does not include:
1. Symptoms of UTI 183. The most common cause of priapsm in of the in
2. Negative urine culture recent years is :
3. Absent pus cells in urine 1. Leukemic infiltration of pains
4. Interstitial cystitis 2. Spinal cord trauma
3. Sickle cell disease
176. True phimosis consist of following, EXCEPT: 4. Intracavernous injectiontheraphy
1. Fissuring of the preputial skin
2. Balanitis xerotica obliterans 184. Balanoposthitis is associated with all of the
3. Scarring of the prepuce following, EXCEPT:
4. Physiological adhesions 1. Penile cancer 2. Psoriasis
3. Gonorrhoea 4. Lichen planus
177. Excision of fibrous plaque in Peyronie's disease
cannot be replaced by: 185. Chemotherapeutic drug used against penile
1. Dermal graft calJper are all, EXCEPT:
2. Vein graft 1. Etoposide 2. Cisplatin
3. Tunica vaginalis graft 3. Methotrexate 4. Bleomycin
4. Non absorbable sutures
186. Non-filarial elephantiasis of the scrotum is due
178. The condition which is a carcinoma-in-situ is all, to infection with:
EXCEPT: 1. HIV 2. Lymphogranuloma venereum
1. Pagets disease of the penis 3. Chancroid 4. Syphillis
2. Giant condylomata accuminata
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187. The following statement is false about 195. Patients should be advised to continue their
peyronie's disease: normal contraceptive precautions after vasectomy
1. Patients present with complaints of painful erection for a period of :
2. The condition affects adolescent males 1. 4-8 weeks 2. 8-10 weeks
3. The condition can be associated with Dupuytren's 3. 12-16 weeks 4. 16-20 weeks
contracture of the tendons of the hand
4. Spontaneous regression occurs in 50% of the cases 196. A 32 year male was having tender pain in his
right scrotum ; He has been on AKT for pulmonary
188. A patient comes with stage III non- Kochs since 1 month . All are false regarding his
serninomatous testicular tumor treatment of choice clinical picture , EXCEPT :
is: 1. There is a lax secondary hydrocele in
1. Radiotherapy 2. Chemotherapy 80% of cases
3. Hormonal therapy 4. Surgery 3. Beading of vas is a characteristic feature
4. Seminal Vesicle is normal
189. A 12 year old boy Naman presents with acute 5. A cold abscess could form in early cases
onset right scrotal pain. The pain is not relieved on
elevation of the scrotum. The testis is enlarged and 197. Treatment of carcinoma-in-situ of testicular
tender. There is no history of trauma. Which of the cancer in 40/M diagnosed by biopsy is :
following is the most appropriate management? 1. Surgery 2. External beam radiation
1. Immediate exploration 3. Chemotherapy 4. Interstitial radiation
2. Antibiotics
3. Psychiatric evaluation 198. Vithal 301M was diagnosed as a clo high stage
4. Antibiotics and scrotal elevation seminoma after investigations & high inguinal
orchiectomy. One of the following drugs is not useful
190. A patient .presented with a hard swelling in his for chemotherapy post surgery :
right testis. All are true statements, EXCEPT: 1. Vinblastine 2. Cisplatin
1. Trans scrotal biopsy is needed 3. Dactinomycin 4. Taxol
2. Inguinal exploration is done
3. High inguinal exploration should be done 199. Most common site of primary malignancy to
4. Scrotal U/S is done metastasise to the testis is :
1. Melanoma 2. Prostate
191. Not true about carcinoma penis is : 3. Kidney 4. Lung
1. Erythroplasia of Queret is a precancerous condition
2. 40% of patients are under 40 years of age 200. Vishals semen analysis report showed an
3. Circumcision if done anytime before puberty provides ejaculate volume of 1.5ml & sperm Concentration of
100% protection against carcinoma penis 21 million / ml. He had Suffered from mumps in
4. More than 50% patient have inguinal enlargement childhood :
when they present 1. Oligospermia 2. Normospermia
3. Azoospermia 4. None of the above
192. The most common non-germ cell tumor of the
testis is : 201. Rajnikant, 60 year old male is a case of Ca-
1. Leydig cell tumor 2. Gonadoblastoma stomach. CECT Abdomen showed a mass measuring 4
3. Sertoli cell tumor 4. None of the above cm x 4 cm in antrum with involvement of celiac
nodes. The management would be:
193. Besides LDH which of the following tumor 1. Palliative radiotherapy
marks are elevated in seminoma? 2. Palliative chemotherapy
1. AFP 2. hCG 3. Radical subtotal gastrectomy
3. Both of the above 4. None of the above 4. Total gastrectomy
194. The most common bilateral tumor of the testis 202. A 17 year old boy underwent splenectomy and
is: cholecystectomy for hemolytic anemia. On third
1. Teratoma differentiated 2. Seminoma post of day he developed sudden onset vomiting
3. Yolk sac tumor 4. Malignant lymphoma and abdominal distension. The management
includes all of the following, EXCEPT :
1. Ryles tube insertion
2. Normal saline intravenously
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3. Nil per oral 2. Cauterization of ulcers
4. Surgery to relieve the distention 3. Truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty
4. Ligation of gastroduodenal artery
203. The true statement about gastric volvulus is :
1. Mesentero axial is commonest variety 211. Commonest cause of duodenal fistula is :
2. Associated with Bochdaleck hernia 1. As a complication of gastrectomy
3. Endoscopy is investigation of choice for diagnosis 2. An abscess connected with perforated duodenal ulcer
4. Transverse colon hemiates into thoracic cavity 3. Traumatic rupture of duodenum
4. As a complication of Right colectomy
204. Nilima, 50 year old female had an epigastric
lump and gastric outlet obstruction. Investigation 212. Which of the following should be avoided in
revealed lump arising from stomach and infiltrating acute upper gastrointestinal bleed ?
liver and pancreas with paraaortic lymph node 1. Intravenous vasopressin
enlargement. UGIE Biopsy revealed poorly 2. Intravenous blockers
differentiated. Adenocarcinoma. The best 3. Endoscopic Sclerotheraphy
management would be : 4. Ballon Tamponade
1. Palliative RT
2. Palliative CT 213. In post gastrectomy nutritional syndrome
3. Radical total gastrectomy following occur , EXCEPT :
4. Palliative gastrojejunostomy 1. Calcium deficiency 2. Steatorrhoea
3. Constipation 4. vit. B12 defficiency
205. Most common benign tumour of stomach is :
1. Leiomyoma 2. Adenomatous polyp 214. Most likely cause of loss of periodicity of
3. Epithelial polyp 4. Lymphoma symptoms and sense of epigastric bloating in a case
of duodenal ulcer is :
206. All of the following are indications for surgery in 1. Gastric outlet obstruction 2. Perforation
gastric lymphoma, EXCEPT: 3. Carcinoma 4. Pancreatitis
1. Bleeding
2. Perforation 215. In a case of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, the
3. Residual disease following chemotherapy metabolic disturbance is :
4. Intractable pain 1. Respiratory alkalosis
2. Metabolic acidosis
207. Most common site for carcinoma stomach is : 3. Metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria
1. Fundus 2. Body 4. Metabolic alkalosis with alkaline urine
3. Antrum 4. Lesser curvature
216. A 25 year old office executive presents with
208. All the following are incorrect about CHPS, recurrent duodenal ulcer of 2.5 cm size. The
EXCEPT? procedure of choice would be :
1. Heller's myotomy is the required surgery 1. Truncal vagotomy
2. Bilious vomiting 2. Truncal vagotomy with antrectomy
3. Commoner in first female child 3. Highly selective vagotomy
4. Hypochloremic alkalosis 4. Laparoscopic vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy
209. Early dumping syndrome is characterized by 217. Treatment of choice for Duodenal atresia is :
all of the following, EXCEPT: 1. Gastroduodenostomy 2. Duodenoduodenostomy
1. Occurs in second hour after meal 3. Duodenojejunostomy 4. Gastrojejunostomy
2. Is aggravated by more food
3. Patient has raised hematocrit 218. Correct statement about operation for morbid
4. Seen more commonly with Bilroth II obesity is:
1. Bacterial overgrowth in the By passed segment is a
210. Mr. Sujit a 45 year old office executive, a known complication of jejunoileal bypass
case of Acid peptic disease presents with massive 2. Following gastric bypass the patient may be
upper G.I bleed. Endoscopy revealed a bleeding permitted to resume normal eating habits
duodenal ulcer. The best line of management would 3. Long term weight loss is not sustained after a
be : jejunoileal bypass
1. Embolisation
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4. Ulceration in bypassed antrum has been a problem 3. Selective angiography is diagnostic
after Roux-en-y gastric bypass operation. 4. Associated with aortic regurgitation
219. Incorrect about primary duodenal diverticuli is : 227. Abdominal actinomycosis usually manifests
1. Occur on concave border after which surgery?
2. Occur in 1st part of duodenum 1. Hernia 2. Nephrectomy
3. Are usually single 3. Cholecystectomy 4. Appendicectomy
4. Are accidental finding
228. Most common complication of hyphoid is
220. Incorrect regarding mesentericoarterial 1. Bleeding 2. Perforation
syndrome is: 3. Obstruction 4. Paralytic ileus
1. Caused by compression of distended duodenum
2. Common in young females 229. The Waldeyer's fascia separates the rectum
3. Does not occur in obese patients from the:
4. Most common in 5th - 7th decades 1. Uterus 2. Lateral pelvic wall
3. Prostate 4. Sacrum
221. A post operative patient presents with duodenal
leak along with signs and symptoms of peritonitis. 230. The chemotherapeutic agent of choice for
The most appropriate management is : adjuvant treatment in rectal cancer in 60 year male
1. Laparotomy with tube duodenostomy is :
and feeding jejunostomy 1. 5 fluorouracil 2. Adriamycin
2. Peritoneal lavage with drains 3. Paclitaxel 4. Epirubicin
3. Laparotomy and reanastomosis
4. Jejunostomy tube, duodenostomy tube and parenteral 231. Treatment of choice in colonic pseudo-
nutrition. obstruction since 2 days in 40/m patient is :
1. Masterly inactivity
222. Ladd's Band courses from: 2. Colonoscopic decompression
1. Splenic flexure to ileocecal junction 3. Emergency colostomy
2. 2nd part duodenum to right paracolic gutter 4. Emergency colectomy
3. Caecum to sigmoid colon
4. OJ flexure to right sacroiliac joint 232. Incidence of synchronous case of Ca colon is
malignancy in :
223. Following blunt abdominal trauma, a 12 year 1. 5% 2. 15%
old girl presents with upper abdominal pain, nausea 3. 25% 4. 50%
and vomiting, An upper gastro intestinal series
reveals a total obstruction of the duodenum with 233. All are true regarding a caecal Volvulus, EXCEPT
coiled spring appearance in D2 - D3. The final 1. Barium enema is usually diagnostic
definitive management is : 2. Usually anticlock wise twist
1. Gastrojejunostomy 3. Caecostomy may be required
2. NGT suction and observation 4. May occur as part of volvulus Eonatorum
3. Feeding jejunostomy
4. Evacuation of hematoma 234. In acute diverticulitis of the colon, the
sigmoidoscopic finding is :
224. Wind sock deformity is characteristic of : 1. Mucosa is inflammed
1. Duodenal atresia 2. Rectal atresia 2. Minute diverticuli seen
3. Biliary atresia 4. Oesophageal atresia 3. Saw toothed appearance
4. Sigmoidoscope cannot be passed beyond 15 cm
225. Most common type of Oesophageal perforation
is : 235. The organism which is commonly isolated from
1. Traumatic perforation 2. Latrogenic perforation the urine in high imperforate anus which is
3. Boerhaves syndrome 4. Corrosive injury indlcatlve ' of fistula is :
1. E.coli 2. Streptococcus
226. All are false regarding angiodysplasia of 3. Proteus 4. Staphylococcus
colon, EXCEPT:
1. Usually found is 30-40 age group 236. Most common cause of lower GI bleed in India is:
2. Rectum is the commonest site 1. Cancer rectosigmoid 2. Benign tumour
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3. Non specific ulcer 4. Hemorrhoids 246. The maximum length of the rectum which can be
examined by a finger proctoscopy is :
237. Painless lower GI bleed is seen in child with: 1. 5 cm 2. 10 cm
1. Meckel's diverticulum 2. Rectal polyp 3. 15 cm 4. 20 cm
3. Anal fissure 4. Acute Appendicitis
247. Strawberry lesion of the rectosigmoid is caused
238. In case of 60/M with Ca colon true is : by:
1. Lesion on Lt. Side of the colon presents with features of 1. Spirochaeta vincenti
anemia 2. Streptococcus
2. Mucinous carcinoma' has a good prognosis 3. Gonococcus
3. Duke's A stage should receive adjuvant chemotherapy 4. Lymphogranuloma inguinale
4. Solitary liver metastasis is not a contraindication for
surgery 248. All are parts of the anorectal ring, EXCEPT:
1. Puborectalis muscle
239. Massive colonic bleeding in a patient of 2. Superficial external sphincter
Diverticulosis is from : 3. Deep external sphincter
1. Coeliac artery 4. Highest part of internal sphincter
2. Superior mesentric artery
3. Gastro duodenal artey 249. The commonest location of an anal fissure is :
4. Interior mesenteric artery 1. Midline posterior 2. Midline anterior
3. Left lateral 4. Right lateral
240. Non true regarding solitary rectal ulcer :
1. 20% are multiple 250. All are true regarding anal canal cancers
2. Recurrent rectal prolapse is a Cause EXCEPT:
3. Involves Posterior wall 1. Usually squamous cancer
4. Manage by digital reposition 2. Lymphatic spread is to inguinal nodes
3. More prevalent in
241. A 3 year old child comes with a partial rectal
prolapse. Your treatment 251. Which is false about Insulinoma?
1. Masterly inactivity 1. Mostly benign tumour 2. Weight loss
2. Digital reposition 3. Hypoglycemic attacks 4. Usually solitary tumour
3. Submucous phenol injection
4. Surgical excision of prolapsed mucosa. 252. A patient with chronic pancreatitis gives "chain
of lakes" appearance in ERCP examination. Rx of
242. The minimum safe distal margin for a Ca rectum choice is :
is : 1. Total pancreatectomy
1. 1.5cm 2. 2 cm 2. Sphincteroplasty
3. 2.5 cm 4. 5 cm 3. Side to side pancreaticojejunostomy
4. Resecting tail of pancreas and performing
243. True regarding the internal sphincter of pancreaticojejunostomy
canal canal is:
1. Circular muscles 2. Striated muscles 253. Regarding pancreatic trauma, false statement is:
3. Voluntary muscle 4. Supplied by autonomic nerves 1. Hyperamylasemia may occur without pancreatic
injury
244. Ove ideal time after birth to do an 2. Abdominal X-Rays are often not helpful in diagnosis
'Invertogram' test is : 3. Commonest mode is penetrating trauma
1. Immediately at birth 2. 1 hour 4. ERCP is mandatory in all cases of abdominal trauma
3. 3 hours 4. 6 hours
254. Treatment of choice for symptomatic annular
245. Commonest cause of tubular inflammatory pancreas is :
stricture of the rectum is : 1. Resection of pancreas 2. Duodenoduodenostomy
1. Iatrogenic 3. Observation only 4. Gastrojejunostomy
2. Endometriosis
3. Lymphogranuloma inguinale 255. One week after splenectomy for blunt
4. Schistosomiasis abdominal trauma a 36 year old female complains of
upper abdominal pain and lower chest pain which is
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exacerbated by deep breath. She is ambulatory, 4. Hepaticojejunostomy
anorectic and making satisfactory progress. On
examination temp is 38.2C, decreased breath sounds 264. Which of the following is not an indication for
at left base. Abdominal wound is healing well and has cholecystectomy?
no signs of peritonitis . Rectal examination is 1. 40 year old male with symptomatic cholelithiasis
negative TLC is 12500/mm3 with left shift . 2. 15 year old male with sickle cell anemia and gall stones
Abdominal X-Ray Shows non specific gas pattern . 3. 30 year old male with large gall bladder polyp
Serum Amylase is 150 somogyi units. Most likely 4. 25 year old with asymptomatic gallstones
diagnosis is :
1. Pulmonary embolism 2. Pancreatitis 265. Which of the following is not associated with
3. Subphrenic abcess 3. Subfascial wound cholangio carcinoma:
infection 1. Gall stones 2. Ulcerative colitis
3. Sclerosing cholangitis 4. Clonorchis sinensis
256. Most common tumor of pancreas is :
1. Insulinoma 2. Lipoma 266. A patient presents with CBD stone of 2.5 cm 1
3. Gastrinoma 4. Glucagonoma year after cholecystectomy. The treatment of choice
would be :
257. Preferred management of Pancreatic abcess in 1. Supraduodenal choledochotomy
young male is : 2. Transduodenal sphincterotomy
1. Cystojejunostomy 2. Needle aspiration 3. Endoscopic sphincterotomy with stone extraction
3. External drainage 4. Cystogastrostomy 4. Transduodenal Choledochojejunostomy
258. The treatment of choice for a mucocele of gall 267. Treatment of type I choledochal cyst in 2 year
bladder in young female is: old infant:
1. Antibiotics and observation 2. Cholecystectomy 1. Cholecystectomy
3. Aspiration of mucous 4. Cholecystostomy 2. Cholecystojejunostomy
3. Cystectomy
259. Which of the following types of pancreatitis has 4. Excision and reconstruction with Roux loop .
the best prognosis:
1. Alcoholic pancreatitis 268. Treatment for symptomatic retained CBD stones
2. Gall stone pancreatitis in 40 year old female with cholecystectomy done 6
3. Post operative pancreatitis months ago:
4. Idiopathic pancreatitis 1. Medical dissolution of stones
2. Conservative treatment with antibiotics
260. Incidence of gall stone is high in : 3. Immediate surgery
1. Partial hepatectomy 2. Ileal resection 4. Endoscopic sphincterotomy
3. Jejunal resection 4. Subtotal gastrectomy
269. Contraindications for laparoscopic
261. Which one of the following is not a premalignant cholecystectomy are all, EXCEPT:
condition for Ca gall bladder? 1. Cirrhosis
1. Typhoid carriers 2. Cholecystoenteric fistula 2. Prior upper abdominal surgery
3. Rbrcelain gall bladder 4. Acalculous cholecystitis 3. Suspected carcinoma gall bladder
4. Mucocle of gall bladder
262. Clinical features of choledochal cyst in child is :
1. Pain, Fever,Progressive Jaundice 270. After exploration of common bile duct, the T-
2. Pain , Lump, Intermittent Jaundice Tube is removed on which of the following days :
3. Pain , Lump,Progressive jaundice 1. 6 Postop day 2. 4 Postop day
4. Pain , Fever ,Intermittent Jaundice 3. 12 Postop day 4. 3 Postop Day
263. Chhaya a 28 year old lady developed bile 271. Which of the following is false about splenic
leakage on 51 post cholecystectomy day due to artery aneurysms, EXCEPT:
lateral CBD tear. No T tube was inserted at the time of 1. Always have to be operated as mortality is high after
surgery. The ideal treatment is : rupture
1. ERCP and stenting 2. Occasionally cause bruit in left hypochondrium
2. Primary repair after reopening abdomen 3. Commoner in males
3. Ultrasound guided insertion of drain 4. Calcified ring on left side of LV-1 on plain X-ray
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healthy and takes feeds regularly. You would
272. Splenectomy is most useful in : advise the mother to wait till the child grows upto :
1. Thalassemia 1. 6 months 2. 1 year
2. Sickle cell anemia 3. 18 months 4. 2 years
3. Hereditary spherocytosis
4. Acquired autoimmune hemolytic anemia 281. Desmoid tumour occurs in :
1. Breast 2. Brain
273. A patient of hereditary spherocytosis 3. Abdominal 4. Bone
underwent splenectomy for the same. She was
asymptomatic for 2 years. After which she started 282. Divarication of recti above the level of
having recurrence of symptoms. USG does not show umbilicus is seen in :
any abnormal lesion in abdomen. You schedule her 1. Babies 2. Elderly women
for relaparotoglY. You expect to find the possible 3. Multiparae 4. Malnourished men
cause of her problem at all the following sites ,
EXCEPT : 283. Sister Joseph module at umbilicus is from:
1. Porta hepatic 2. Splenic Ligaments 1. Stomach 2. Ovary
3. Mesocolon 4. Tail of pancreas 3. Breast 4. All of the above
274. Insullinoma is most commonly located in which 284. A 35 year old lady presents to surgery OPD
part of the pancreas: with pain and bleeding at the umbilicus. She gives
1. Head 2. Body history of such episodes during her periods. The
3. Tail 4. Equally distributed most likely diagnosis would be :
1. Secondary carcinoma 2. Omphalitis
275. The ideal treatment of stenosis of sphincter of 3. Endometrioma 4. Raspberry tumour
Oddi is:
1. Transduodenal sphincteroplasty 285. True statement about femoral hernia are all,
2. Endoscopic sphincterotomy EXCEPT:
3. Choledochojejunostomy 1. Occurs exclusively in females
4. Choledochoduodenostomy 2. Pregnancy is common cause
3. Strangulates
276. All the following can be used for treating 4. In males it is associated with cryptorchidism
femoral hernia, EXCEPT:
1. Lockwood operation 2. Lotheisen operation 286. Rasberry tumor is :
3. Moloney's operation 4. Stopas operation 1. Neoplastic 2. Inflammatory
3. Traumatic 4. Congential
277. All contribute to spread of peritonitis, EXCEPT:
1. Adulthood 2. Ingestion of food 287. Regarding to familial Mediterranean fever the
3. Steroid therapy 4. Use of enema true statement is , all , EXCEPT:
1. It manifest as a periodic disease with complete
278. Most common age of presentation of patent remissions in between
urachus is : 2. Commoner in females
1. Birth 2. Infancy 3. Peritoneum around gall bladder and spleen is inflamed
3. Adolescence 4. Old age 4. Colchicine is the causative agent
279. About Bochdaleks hernia all of the following are 288. Prevescial hernia is :
true, EXCEPT: 1. A type of direct hernia 2. A type of indirect hernia
1. In early presentation, the prognosis is better 3. A type of femoral hernia 4. Same as Spigelian hernia
2. Ultrasound gives early antenatal diagnosis
3. Commonly contains colon and stomach 289. Progressive bacterial synergistic gangrene is
4. Left sided is commoner than the right usually seen after:
1. Colostomy for perforated colon
280. A 2 month old male child is brought to your 2. Cholecystectomy
OPD. His mother has noticed a swelling near his 3. Colonic surgery
umbilicus which appears on crying and disappears 4. Laparotomy for a perforated viscus
when the child is quiet. The child otherwise is
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290. The most common presentation of chronic
tuberculous peritonitis is: 300. Incorrect about obturator hernia is :
1. Loss of weight 2. Fever 1. Commoner in males
3. Pain abdomen 4. Ascites 2. Commoner in people > 60 year of age
3. PV/PR examination may
291. Exomphalos minor is a disease involving: reveal a tender swelling
1. Diaphragm 2. Cervix 4. Is usually Richter's type of hernia
3. Abdominal wall 4. Urinary bladder
202. (4)
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The description in question is a classic presentation of emptying of hyperosmolar contents into the small bowel
Acute Gastric Distension. It is commonly seen after which then evokes a sympathetic response. It will be
splenectomy and surgeries in region of fundus of aggravated by more food. Patient has got raised
stomach. The management is usually conservative and hematocrit due to fluid shift.
includes option 1, 2, & 3 surgery is not required. Due to
vomiting patient may have electrolyte disturbance which 210. (4)
need to be corrected accordingly. Best treatment for bleeding is to stop the bleeding which
in case of duodenal ulcer is by ligation of the bleeding
203. (4) vessel, which is most commonly the gastroduodenal
Commoner variety of gastric volvulus is organoaxial. It is artery. Truncal vagotomy and andpyloroplasty is
usually associated with hiatus hernia, not Bochdalek treatment for recurrent ulcers.
hernia. Investigation of choice is Barium swallow.
Endoscopy is infact dangerous, it may lead to perforation. 211. (1)
Transverse colon commonly herniates into the thoracic Commonest cause of duodenal blow out leading to
cavity along with the stomach. duodenal fistula is post gastrectomy (Bilroth II). Other
causes are post operative after surgeries on biliary tract,
204. (4) duodenum; pancreas, right colon, aorta and kidney. Only
In this case we have involvement of liver and pancreas 15% are as a result of trauma, perforated ulcers and
along with Para aortic lymph node involvement all of cancers.
which indicate inoperability. The best palliation for
carcinoma stomach is again surgery. Radiotherapy has 212. (2)
poor role in carcinoma stomach. Palliative CT would be Upper GI bleed is due to either bleedipg peptic ulcer or
the option if patient is not fit to undergo any surgery. oesophageal varices. In an acute episode due to
esophageal varies endoscopic sclerotherapy ligation is
205. (3) effective. If this fails then one tries balloon tamponade.
Most common benign tumour of stomach is epithelial Vasopressin causes splanchnic vasoconstriction and
polyp. Adenomatous polyp is a premalignant condition reduces bleeding in an acute episode. Blockers are used
and is just one of the five types of gastric polyps for preventing the recurrence of bleeding. They are not
(Hyperplastic, Adenomatous. Hamartomatous, used in acute setting.
Inflammatory and Heterotopic)
213. (3)
206. (4) Diarrhea occurs in postgastrectomy patients. Calcium
Treatment of primary gastric lymphoma is controversial. deficiency, vitamin B12 deficiency and steatorrhoea occur
Bailey says surgery should be the most appropriate due to malabsorption.
option and chemo reserved only for those with systemic
disease. The indication for surgery is bleeding, 214. (1)
perforation, obstruction, fistula formation and failure of Malignant change does not occur in duodenal ulcer. In
chemotherapy. case of perforation patient will present with acute
abdomen. The symptomatology in question is typical of
207. (3) gastric outlet obstruction which is most commonly
There has been a proximal migration in the site of associated with long standing peptic ulcer disease and
stomach cancer, but still all over the world about 40% gastric cancer. Endoscopic dilatation may be tried, but
tumors occur in antrum, 30% in fundus and 25% at the operative surgery is usually required.
cardia. Tumours are more common on lesser curvature
than the greater curvature; Also Ca stomach is commoner 215. (3)
in lower socioeconomic group and in black males. The vomiting of hydrochloric acid results in
hypochloremic alkalosis. Initially urine has a low chloride
208. (4) and high bicarbonate content reflecting primary
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis causes metabolic alkalosis metabolic abnormality. This bicarbonate is excreted
with paradoxical aciduria. It is commoner in first born along with sodium and so with time the patient becomes
male child. Ramsted's pyloromyotomy is the surgical progressively hyponatremic and more profoundly
procedure. Vomiting is non-bilious. dehydrated. Because of dehydration a phase of sodium
retention follows and potassium and hydrogen ions are
209. (1) excreted in preference. This results in urine being
Early postcibal (dumping) syndrome occurs within an paradoxically acidic and hypokalemia ensues.
hour (usually 30min) of meals. It is due to rapid gastric
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216. (2) Diagnosis is by Barium meal and hypotonic
The patient has presented with a recurrent disease. So duodenography.
the main aim of surgery now should be to have least Treatment initially conservative and is usually successful.
recurrence. Amongst the given options, option (2) has Operative treatment is Duodenojejunostomy
the least recurrence rate (only 1%), highly selective
vagotomy has least mortality and morbidity but maximal 221. (1)
recurrence rate (2-10%). Truncal vagotomy is not done Laparotomy and tube duodenostomy makes it a
in isolation, it is always accompanied by a drainage controlled fisula and feeding jejunostomy allows enteral
procedure. feeding. So option (1) is the best. Reanastomosis in this
scenario would lead to leak hence should not be
217. (2) attempted. Enteral
Duodenoduodenostomy is the best option. Duodenal feeding should always be preferred over parenteral
atresia occurs at the point of fusion between foregut and feeding.
midgut and therefore lies in neighbourhood of ampul!a of
Vater. It occurs due to failure of complete recanalisation 222. (4)
of duodenum in utero. Treatment is The band extends from 2nd part of duodenum of the right
duodenoduodenostomy which is constructed using most Paracolic gutter. This anatomical location of band would
dependant portion of proximal atretic segment to most commonly obstruct duodenum.
minimize stasis.
223. (2)
218. (1) Coil spring or stacked coin is seen on Barium Swallow in
Jejunoileal bypass was the first surgical approach to case of duodenal hematoma. Although characteristic of
morbid obesity and was effective in reducing weight. intramural duodenal hematoma. This finding is present
However the procedure is widely practiced because of only in 25% of patients with duodenal hematoma.
multitude of complications. Most serious of which is liver Operative exploration and evacuation othematoma may
disease. This was secondary to protein calorie be considered after 2 weeks of conservative therapy.
malnutrition and bacterial overgrowth in bypassed Most of duodenal hematomas resolve by conservative
segment. None of the patients operated for morbid management consisting of nasogastric aspiration and
obesity can maintain weight reduction unless he follows total parenteral nutrition.
a strict dietary regimen. Ulceration after roux-en-y
gastric bypass does not occur in antrum, it occurs in the 224. (1)
small intestinal part anastomosed to stomach. Duodenal atresia can be classified into
Type I (most common) - mucosal web with normal
219.(2) muscular wall (windsock deformity) Type II short fibrous
Secondary diverticuli are the ones which occur in 1st cord connecting two atretic ends
part of duodenum and they are usually the results of Type III (least common) - complete separation of atretic
scarring following duodenal ulcer. They are false ends
diverticula. 90% of primarily diverticula are solitary and An intrinsic obstructive web is known as windsock
80% are in second part of duodenum commonly on its deformity
concavity, in region of Ampulla of Vater. Most of them are
asymptomatic and found incidentally. 225. (2)
The most dangerous type of esophageal perforation
220. (4) amongst given options is Boerhaave's syndrome, because
Mesenteric arterial syndrome also known as superior here the esophagus perforates under pressure leading to
mesenteric artery syndrome results from compression of massive mediastinal spillage of contents. Iatrogenic
third part of duodenum between superior mesenteric perforation is the commonest type of esophageal
artery and aorta. This condition occurs most commonly perforation.
in young asthenic individuals, with females more
commonly involved than males. 226. (3)
Predisposing factors include Angiodysplasia is seen above 60 years of age. Ascending
Weight loss colon is the commonest site.
Supine immobilization Selective angiography is the best of investigaion and
scoliosis cannstigation and can also be used to embolize the
placement of body cast (cast syndrome) bleeder.
Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, abdominal Angiodysplasia is associated with arotic stenoses
distension, weight loss, postPrandial epigastric pain.
2014 NBE ONELINER
227. (4)
Abdominal actinomycosis usually presents as a right iliac 236. (4)
fossa mass 3 - 4 weeks after an appendicectomy. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding is defined as a bleeding
Penicillin is the drug of choice from a site distal to the ligament of Treitz.
"Hemorrhoids and anal fissure are the most common
228. (4) cause of lower G. I. bleeding however the bleeding is
Paralytic ileus is the commonest complication in typhoid, rarely massive",
which presents as a non-obstructive intestinal Angiodysplasia and diverticulitis are the other two
obstruction. Haemorrage is the leading symptom. common causes of bleeding and they usually present
A perforation usually occurs in the third week. with massive bleeding:
Here are the causes of acute lower GI bleeding :-
229. (4) Common
The fascial condensation which separates the rectum - Angiodysplasia
from the prostate is the Denonvillier's fascia. The - Diverticulosis
Waldeyer's fascia separates the rectum from the sacrum - Anorectal disease
and coccyx. Less common
- Neoplasia Carcinoma, polyps
230. (1) - Colitis Radiation, ischaemic, ulcerative
5 Fluorouracil in combination with leucovorin in the - Infective Enteric fever, amoebic ulcer, T.B.
chemotherapy of choice in rectal cancer. Newer drugs HIV related (gonorrhoea, CMV.)
like irinotecan and oxaliplatin have shown good promise. Rare
- Meckel's diverticulum
- Intussusception
231. (2)
It is important to confirm the absence of a mechanical 237. (2)
cause of the obstruction by colonoscopy or single Rectal polyps are most commonly seen in juvenile
contrast water soluble bariums enema. Colonoscopy is patient. The most common presentation of rectal polyp is
also the treatment of choice for decompression. It may painless bleeding per rectum. Meckel's diverticulum is
recur in 25% of cases. If colonoscopy fails, a cecostomy most commonly present as diverticulitis and this causes
may be required. pain in abdomen with bleeding P/r
296. (2)
Colpotomy is drainage of pelvic abcess via vaginal
fornices.
297. (4)
Infection leads to poor wound healing and subsequent
weakness of the incision site obesity is also a leading
cause, but not the most common. Persistent post
operative cough and post operative abdominal distension
are risk factors.
298. (3)
Abdominal dehiscence after an abdominal surgery is
most likely to occur between 6th and 8th post operative
days.
299. (1)
Lytle's method involves narrowing of the deep inguinal
ring so that the peritoneum does not enter thru it into the
inguinal canal. Sac enters through deep inguinal ring in
indirect hernia.
300. (1)
Obturator hernia through the obturator foramen is six
times commoner in females. Most patients are over 60
years. It is usually a Ritcher type (containing a part of
circumference of bowel within the sac). It usually
presents as a swelling in femoral triangle but a PV/PR
examination may reveal a tender lump in relation to
obturator foramen.