1- The most common complications of Caldwell-Luc procedure is:

A. Paresthesia of the check

B. Loose teeth
C. Dacrocystitis
D. Orbital hematoma
E. Oroantral fistula

2- A 30-year-old lady underwent FESS, two hours later she started to

have a retrobulberhemorrhage . The first step has to be done:
A. Ophthalmic consultation
B. Packing the nose to prevent further bleeding
C. Lateral canthotomy
D. Re-exploration and control the bleeders
E. Observation and ice application

3- Regarding Lethal Midline Granuloma, all the followings are true

EXCEPT :
A. It is a T-cell Lymphoma
B. It is a type of non-Hodgkin Lymphoma
C. There is an association with EBV
D. Patients tend to be older than patients with conventional
Lymphoma
E .A combination of chemotherapy and radiotherapy appears to be
more effective than either modality alone

4- Regarding Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia (Ösler-Weber-

Rendu disease), all the followings are true EXCEPT;
A. Autosomal recessive.
B. Could be complicated by arteriovenous malformation in the
lungs
C. Characterized by mucocutaneous telangiectasia
D. Characterized by vessel walls without smooth muscles
E. Could be treated by local applications of estrogens or
radiotherapy.
 5- A maxillary sinus lesion (3cm) arising from the floor and bulging
into the buccal area is staged as :
A. T1
B. T2
C. T3
D. T4
E. M1
6. Regarding carcinoma of the esophagus, all the following are true
except :

a. 50% of the lesions involve the middle third

b. about 30% of the patients are women
c. dysphagia is a common symptom
d. spread by the blood stream is exceptional
e. the cells may be oat cells

7. Amyloidosis all true except :

a. appears as extracellular eosinophillic hyaline material

b. is made of calcified protein
c. shows an apple green birefringence in polarized light
d. occur in patient with multiple myeloma
e. is a complication of chronic infection

8. the accuracy of fine needle cytology in head and neck mass is :

a. 80% - 85%
b. 85% - 90%
c. 90% - 93%
d. 95% - 98%
e . 75% - 80%
9. which of the following flaps most commonly used in head and neck
reconstruction

a. pectoralis major and latisimusdorsi

b. pectoralis major and sternomastoid
c. sternomastoid and latisimusdorsi
d. sternomastoid and trapezeius
e. latisimusdorsi and trapezeius

10. Peristomalreccurance in ca- larynx one is incorrect:

a. it has particular reference to the original site (supraglottic/ subglotic)

b. when the trachestomy preceded laryngectomy by 2 days occur in
about 41%
c. when the trachestomy done at the time of surgery occur in about 14%
d. early excision followed by radiotherapy give a good prognosis
e. squamous cell carcinoma is commonly found

11. pemphigoid in comparison wth pemphigus vulgaris one is incorrect:

a. it is not fulminating like pemphigus

b. the skin is not usually affected like pemphigus
c. there is acantholysis unlike pemphigus
d. immunological cause is more evident in pemphigus
e. affect mainly women while in pemphigus both

12. Glottic carcinoma – one is incorrect :

a. anterior midline is the most frequent location for invasion of the

laryngeal frame work
b. frequently invade the unossified parts of the cartilage
c. may escape laterally through the cricothyroid triangle
d. Impaired mobility is often not a contraindication to conservation
surgery
e. Vertical extension seems to occur more frequently than to the
opposite side
13- Damage of the 4th cranial nerve led to:
a-diplopia on looking upward.

B- Diplopia on looking downward.

c- Inability to look in lateral direction.

d- Miosis.

e-inability to close eyes.

14. Corkscrew oesophagus is seen in which of the following condition:

A. carcinoma oesophagus
B. scleroderma
C. Achalasia cardia
D. diffuse oesophagial spasm
E. none of obove

15. Character in lymph node in sarcoidosisis :

a. painfull adherent
b. painfull non adherent
c. painless adherent
d. painless non adherent
e. none

16. one of the following is a manifestation of sarcoidosis :

a. Intrathoracic lymphadenopathy in 80%

b. splenomegaly in less than 50%
c. myopathy in less than 50%
d. testicular involvement in over 5%
e. bilateral parotid gland enlargement in over 20%
17. which of the following statements is false regarding radial fore arm
free flap :

a. it is thin and friable flap

b. versatile
c. limited bulk
d. forearm defect can be closed primarily
e. osteo-cuteneus flap with 10cm of radius is possible

18. Criteria to diagnose branchiogenic carcinoma, all the followings are

true except
A. The cervical tumour occurs along the line extending from the
tragus to the clavicle, along the anterior border of
sternocleidomastoid.
B. The histological appearance must be consistent with an origin from
tissue known to be present in branchial vestiges.
C. No primary source of the carcinoma should be discovered after at
least five years of follow-up.
D. There is histologic demonstration of cancer arising in the wall of an
epithelial-lined cyst.
E. Previous history branchial cyst

19. Factors indicating suitability for day surgery, all the followings are
true except:
A. Traveling distance home/day unit <1 hour
B. Duration of surgery <3 hours
C. No wound drain
D. Post-operative pain control with oral agents only
E. Access to a telephone
 20. Clinical features of acute laryngeal infection, all the followings are
true except
A. Change or loss of voice
B. Difficulty in breathing/stridor
C. Vocal cord fixation
D. Difficult or painful swallow
E. Tender larynx with or without lymphadenopathy

21. A newborn child has an abnormally formed mandible, ear, and palate.
He is diagnosed with mandibulofacial dysostosis. This syndrome is due to
abnormal development of which of the following structures?

A. First pharyngeal arch

B. First pharyngeal cleft
C. Second pharyngeal arch
D. Second pharyngeal cleft
E. Third pharyngeal cleft

22. A 24 year old woman presents with a rapidly growing neck lump. On
examination the lump moves up with swallowing but not with tongue
protrusion. The lump is hard in consistency. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Thyroid carcinoma
B. Myxoedema
C. Infected thyroglossal cyst
D. Toxic goiter
E. Enlarged lymph node

23. With regard to Meniere’s disease, the following statements are true
except?
A. It typically presents between the ages of 30 and 50 years.
B. It is characterized by the triad of hyperacusis, vertigo, and
tinnitus.
C. Treatment involves lifestyle changes such as a low-salt diet and the
medical addition of a thiazide diuretic.
D. Audiometry will show a SNHL.
E. It can cause drop attacks.
24. With regard to labyrinthitis, the following statements are true except?
A. It can be a complication of upper respiratory tract infections.
B. It may cause hearing loss.
C. There is nystagmus towards the affected ear.
D. Vestibular suppressants are used in treatment.
E. It may be caused by viruses or bacteria.

25. With regard to vestibular neuronitis, one of the following is true:

A. Like labyrinthitis, vestibular neuronitis follows an upper
respiratory tract infection.
B. It affects women more often than men.
C. If left untreated, it may go on to cause permanent deafness.
D. On examination, nystagmus may be elicited towards the
unaffected ear.
E. Antiviral drugs are are the mainstay of treatment.

26. Regard to sudden hearing loss, all the following are good prognostic
factors except:
A. Young age
B. Minimal hearing loss
C. Low frequency hearing loss
D. Present of vestibular symptoms
E. Early treatment

27. Stridor in children , one is correct

A. Laryngeal 60%
B. Tracheal 30%
C. Bronchial 20%
D. Infection 10%
E. Miscellaneous 15%
28. CSF otorrhea all are correct except:
A. Repair of CSF leak is indicated if persist > 3 days
B. Associated with 6% of basilar skull fractures
C. 90% seal spontaneously
D. Middle fossa leacks heal rapidly due to extensive fibrosis promoted
by rich arachnoid mesh in this area
E. posterior fossa leaks close more slowly.

29. - According to parameters of voice, one of the following is true:

a-Jitter is cycle-to-cycle variation in the amplitude of the glottal pulse.

B- Shimmer is cycle-to-cycle variation in the frequency of the glottal pulse.

c- Donkey breathing is vocalization during expiration.

d- Damping is elevation of pitch by narrowing the glottic aperture.

e-Dysphonia plicae ventricularis is muffled hoarseness secondary to abduction of true vocal

cord during phonation.

30- In Laryngeal cancer one of the following is false:

a. Glottis is the most common site of laryngeal cancer.
b. Embryo logically the supraglottis and glottis are separate entities
c. Broyles tendon is vocalis muscle tendon that insert into thyroid
cartilage serves as a pathway for tumor extension.
d. Anterior part of glottis (epithelium of true vocal cord) has sparse
lymphatic drainage.
e- CT scan of the larynx overestimates the stage of laryngeal cancer
30. Patient selection criteria in cochlear implant all are true except:
A. Severe SNHL
B. Postlingually deaf adult and children over one year
C. No benefit from hearing aids
D. No medical contraindications
E. Psychologically and motivationally suitable.

32. What structure in the larynx is most affected by radionecrosis after

XRT?

a. Cricoid cartilage
b. Epiglottic cartilage
c. Thyroid cartilage
d. Arytenoid cartilage
e.Corniculate cartilage

33- In Laryngeal cancer one of the following is false:

a. Micro invasive SCCA of the vocal cord is invasion through basement
membrane but not into vocalis muscle.
b. Ackerman’s tumor is less radiosensitive and less likely to metastasize
than SCCA.
c. Carpet carcinoma is laryngeal carcinoma with diffuse mucosal spread
and limited sub -mucosal infiltration.
d. Tumor site and size are the two most important factors predicting
lymph node metastasis in laryngeal cancer.
e. 5-year survival of advanced laryngeal cancer without lymph node
metastasis is 20 %.
34. 10 days out from stapedectomy, a patient experiences fluctuating
hearing loss and dizziness.There is a reddish blush in the posterior TM.
What is the next step?

a. bedrest and steroids

b. bedrest and vestibular suppressants
c. lumbar drain
d. surgical exploration
e.Re-evaluate in one week

35. CT scan is shown of a patient with 5 days of spiking fevers,

pharyngitis and trismus. (CT with parapharyngeal low attenuation area
with extension into the lateral neck spaces). How should this be treated?

a. external neck incision and drainage

b. transoral needle aspiration
c.Re-evaluate in one week
d. IV antibiotics
e. quinsy tonsillectomy

36. What is the most common primary temporal bone malignancy in

adults?

a. adenoid cystic carcinoma

b. malignant glomus tumor
c. sarcoma
d.pleomorphic adenoma
e. squamous cell CA
37. - Radiation in head and neck cancer one of the following is false:
a. Chemo sensitive is usually radiosensitive.
b. Electron beams are used for superficial tumors.
c. Proton beams have poorer skin sparing properties than electron beam.
d. The same amount of radiation is taken to reduce a cell population from
100 to 10 cells as it does to reduce it from 10 billion to one billion cells.
e. The dose of radiation necessary to kill hypoxic cells is 2.5-3.0 times
greater than that required to kill well oxygenated cells

38. In management of a laser-ignited endotracheal tube fire the first step

is:

a. switch to nonvolatile agent

b. pour water down the tube and suction out
c.Tracheostomy
d. Total IV Anaesthesia ( TIVA )
e. turn off agent and extubate patient

39. What developmental abnormality is associated with Choanal Atresia

A. Hearing loss
B. Microtia
C. Cleft Palate
D. Renal Agenesis
E. Mental retardation

40. On exam, a patient has bilateral multiple, rounded nodules in the bony
ear canal. The most accurate statement regarding these is
A. commonly called osteomas
B. female greater than male incidence
C. treat only if symptomatic
D. commonly associated with cholesteatoma
E.undergo malignant changes

41. What is the most common complication of laser resection of a

subglottic hemangioma?

a. Rapid growth
b. pneumothorax
c. airway fire
d.Laryngoeoesophageal fistula
e. subglottic stenosis

42. A 34 year old firefighter is exposed to freezing temperatures. On

exam, both his ears are cold, numb, and pale. Initial treatment should be

a. heat lamp rewarming

b. rubbing to rewarm by friction
c. rapid rewarming with warm saline
d. debridement
e.sterile pressure dressing

43. What is the best age to repair microtia?

A. 2 yrs old
B. 6 yrs old
C. 8 yrs old
D. 10 yrs old
E.17 or later

44. A newborn is noted to have bilateral dull tympanic membranes. What

is the best option?

A. antibiotics only
B. typanostomy
C. re-evaluation in 7-10 days
D. tympanostomy, antibiotics, LP
E.Tympanocentisis

45. 56 year male with hyperacusis and Ramsey-Hunt Syndrome. The

most likely reason for this is:

a) Hypermobility of tympanic membrane

b) Impairment of acoustic reflex

c) Mononeuritis of VIII nerve

d) viral cochleitis

e) Patoulus E.T

46. If the ossicles are disarticulated with an intact tympanic membrane,

what is the change in average hearing threshold decrease?

A. 15 dB
B. 25 dB
C. 45 dB
D. 60 dB
E. 90 dB
47. 13 year old boy presents with severe headaches. He was treated for
acute otitis media 1 month ago with resolution of disease. He has normal
head imaging, physical exam only shows papilledema. What will happen
without treatment?

A.Cavernous sinus thrombosis

B. intracranial abscess
C. lateral sinus thrombosis
D. optic atrophy
E. meningitis

48. A 50 y/o man with facial paralysis has a lifelong history of drainage
of purulent otorrhea. Exam demonstrates chronic TM perforation with
grossly infected mucosa and granulation tissue visible within the middle
ear. There is no evidence of cholesteatoma. What is the most likely
reason for this patient’s facial paralysis?

A. Bell’s palsy
B. Cholesteatomatous invasion of facial nerve
C. Gross contact of infected middle ear tissue with the facial nerve in
a dehiscent fallopian canal
D. Posterior fossa abscess affecting the facial nerve
E.Extradural abscess

49. A woman comes for revision mastoidectomy for right sided recurrent
cholesteatoma. Intraop, surgeons are unable to visualize the anatomy. In
recovery room, pt has complete right sided facial paralysis. What is the
best next step in management?

A) 24 hrs of high dose steroids

B) nerve stimulation studies
C) re-exploration
D) observe for 2-3 hrs as anesthesia wears off
E) high dose antibiotics and observation

50. A man has recurrent right sided ear and head pain that occurs mostly
at night and is associated with rhinorrhea. The most likely cause is?
a. temporal arteritis
b. migraines
c. cluster headaches
d. sinusitis
e.unilateral secretory otitis media

51. A patient underwent exploratory tympanotomy and stapedectomy.

The prosthesis was placed over soft tissue (vein) graft. On the 3rd post-
operative day, he developed sudden onset of vertigo.Examination
revealed severe SNHL. The most likely cause of his symptoms is:

A. Acute otitis media

B. Attachment of the strut to the annulus
C. Prosthesis medialization
D. Perilymph fistula
E. Postop.granuloma

52.All of the followings are true about uncinate process except :-

a- it is nearly sagittally oriented paralleling the ethmoid bulla.

b- Its posterior margin is free as it has no bony attachments.
c- Most commonly inserts on the lamina papyracea of the orbit.
d- The hiatus semilunaris lies directly behind its posterior matgin.
e- It has bony attachment anterior and posterior to its attachment
to the inferior turbinate.

53.Which is false regarding ethmoid bulla :-

a- it is one of the most constant and largest of the anterior ethmoid air
cells.
b- It is located within the middle meatus directly anterior to the
uncinate process.
c- It is based on lamina papyracea .
d- The anterior wall can extend to the skull base.
e- Anatomic variations can occur in it.

54.Which is true about the frontal recess :-

 a- it is the most anterosuperior aspect of the anterior ethmoid
sinus that forms the connection with the frontal sinus.
b- bounded laterally by the middle turbinate.
c- bounded medially by lamina papyracea.
d- bounded anteriorly by the ethmoid bulla.
e- never communicate with the suprabulbar recess.

55.which of the following audiometric tests is not characteristic for

conductive hearing loss:

a- Air –bone gap in PTA.

b- Tympanometry.
c- Delayed wave III in auditory brain stem response.
d- Poor speech discrimination test.
e- Absence of stapedial reflex.

56.Which of the following is false about otoacoustic emission:

a- They are acoustic signals produced in the cochlea.

b- Both spontaneous and evoked otoacoustic emissions are thought to
emanate from the outer hair cells.
c- It is used for screening of newborn infants.
d- Quick, non-invasive objective test.
e- It gives good indication of the hearing threshold.

57. Causes of facial palsy include all the following except:

A. Parotid neoplasm
B. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
C. Tick bites
D. Stapedotomy
E. Otitis media

58. Indications for tonsillectomy include all the following except:

A. Recurrent quinsy
 B. Debulking of Ann Arbor stage 3 lymphoma
C. Adult obstructive sleep apnoea
D. Acute tonsillitis
E. For diagnostic purposes

59. Craniofacial malformations that can affect the paediatric airway

include all the following except:

A. Crouzon syndrome
B. Maxillary hyperostosis
C. Pfeiffer syndrome
D. Bilateral choanal atresia
E. Pierre Robin sequence

60. Regarding Orbital cellulitis all the following are correct except:

A. Often arises from maxillary sinusitis in children

B. Is a cause of proptosis
C. May be caused by Haemophilus influenzae
D. Can cause meningitis
E. May require endoscopic decompression

61. Regarding Cleft palate, all the following are correct except:

A. Is a heritable disorder
B. May be diagnosed in utero
C. Is associated with Stickler syndrome
D. Is associated with bifid uvula
E. Has a higher incidence in the African population

62. A 5-year-old child presents with a midline cystic swelling 1 cm below

the hyoid bone, one is true:
 A. Movement with tongue protrusion is suggestive of a
thyroglossal cyst
B. Ultrasound is not a useful investigation
C. This is best treated by incision and drainage
D. This often resolves spontaneously
E. The cyst is usually associated with a lingual thyroid

63. Regarding Lymphatic malformation (cystic hygroma), all the

following are correct except one:

A. Most commonly affects the anterior triangle of the neck

B. The sex distribution is equal
C. May present with a failure to thrive
D. Can cause upper airway obstruction
E. May be treated with surgery or laser

64. Regarding Parotid pleomorphic adenoma, one is true:

A. Is more common in men

B. Is usually fixed on palpation
C. Commonly results in a facial nerve palsy
D. Can often be diagnosed by fine-needle aspiration cytology
E. Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice

65. Early signs of perforation following oesophagoscopy include all the

following except:

A. Tachycardia
B. Chest pain
C. Tachypnoea post-operatively
D. Hypotension
E. Low urine output

66. Regarding Warthin’s tumour (salivary gland adenolymphoma), one is

true:
 A. Is more common in young women
B. Is associated with cigarette smoking
C. Recurrence is common
D. May be adequately treated with radiotherapy
E. Is composed largely of squamous epithelium

67. In regards to complications of facial palsy, one is true:

A. Bell’s palsy results in permanent facial weakness in 50% of cases

B. Ramsay Hunt syndrome results in complete recovery of facial
function in 90% of cases
C. Gustatory sweating is a recognised complication
D. Corneal abrasion is not a recognised complication
E. Prednisolone reduces the risk of permanent facial weakness in
Bell’s palsy

68. Regarding hypopharyngeal carcinoma, one is false:

A. Has a poor prognosis

B. Is uncommon and usually affects younger patients
C. Is usually squamous cell carcinomas
D. The piriform fossa is the most commonly involved site
E. Post-cricoid carcinorma is associated with Paterson-Brown-Kelly
syndrome

69. Regarding oral cavity carcinoma, one is false:

A. Most commonly affects the lateral border of the tongue and the
floor of the mouth
B. Is associated with smoking and alcohol
C. C-T scan is useful for assessing bony invasion
D. A T3 tumour is greater than 4cm in its greatest dimension
E. Following tumour excision, patients should be followed up
yearly

70. All the following regarding papillary adenocarcinoma of the thyroidis

correct except:

A. Is the most common malignant thyroid tumour

 B. Usually presents as a single thyroid nodule
C. Lymph node spread is very rare
D. Tumours greater than 1 cm are treated with total thyroidectomy
E. TSH suppression below normal levels is a component of treatment
following surgery

71. Regarding follicular adenocarcinoma of the thyroid, one is true:

A. Is more common in young women

B. Accounts for around 60% of all thyroid malignancies
C. Diagnosis can be confirmed by fine-needle aspiration cytology
D. May spread via the bloodstream
E. Can often be treated with levothyroxine alone

72. Regarding parotid surgery, one is true:

A. Pleomorphic adenomas are best treated by enucleation of the

tumour
B. Pleomorphic adenomas is the most common malignant salivary
neoplasm
C. Numbness of the ear lobe is a recognised complication
D. Facial nerve weakness following surgery is permanent in the
majority of cases
E. Use of a drain is contraindicated

73. regarding anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid, one is false:

A. Most commonly occurs in elderly women

B. Shows rapid invasion of local structures
C. Commonly occurs in the setting of a pre-existing goiter
D. Tracheostomy may be required to relieve distressing airway
obstruction
E. Surgery is curative in most cases

74. Complications of tracheostomy include all the following except:

A. Pneumothorax
B. Erosion of the external carotid artery
 C. Permanent fistula
D. Pneumonia
E. Tube obstruction

75. The following are indications for tracheostomy except one:

A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
B. Obstructive sleep apnoea
C. Bilateral vocal cord palsy
D. Facial trauma
E. Epiglottitis

76. The following are risk factors for thyroid cancer except one:

A. Female sex
B. Family history
C. Previous radiotherapy to the neck
D. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2
E. Branchical cyst

77. In Regards to post-operative chylous fistula, one is false:

A. Occurs more commonly on the left side

B. Is a complication of supraomohyoid neck dissection
C. May require total parenteral nutrition as part of treatment
D. Can lead to hypoproteinaemia
E. Occurs in 2% of neck dissections

78. In regards facial haemangiomas, one is false:

A. Are more common in females

B. Can be treated conservatively in the majority of cases
C. Are associated with neurofibromatosis type 1
D. Are responsive to oral corticosteroids
E. Are associated with subglottic haemangiomas

79. Complications of endotracheal intubation include all the following

except:

A. Subglottic stenosis
 B. Anterior glottis web
C. Vocal process granuloma
D. Vocal cord paralysis
E. Arytenoid dislocation

80. Complications of radiotherapy to the head and neck include all the
following except:

A. Xerostomia
B. Necrosis of bone
C. Hepatic dysfunction
D. Cataract formation
E. Thyroid cancer

81. Regarding tracheomalacia, all are true except:

A. Can be caused by prolonged endotracheal intubation

B. May be associated with maldevelopment of branchial arch arteries
C. Is graded by the Cotton classification
D. May be diagnosed by endoscopic visualisation
E. Can be treated with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

82. Complications of bilateral radical neck dissection include all the

following except:

A. Shoulder pain
B. Raised intracranial pressure
C. Carotid artery rupture
D. Hypothyroidism
E. Dysphonia

83. Regarding pharyngeal pouch (Zenker’s diverticulum), one is correct:

A. Is more common in men

B. Arises between the middle and inferior constrictor muscles
 C. Usually presents as a palpable mass in the anterior triangle of the
neck
D. May initially be treated with oral antibiotics
E. Is best imaged with MRI

84. Regarding Sjogren syndrome, one is true:

A. Primary Sjogren syndrome may be caused by rheumatoid arthritis

B. It affects the salivary glands in around 10% of cases
C. Schirmer test may be performed in the outpatient setting
D. Tru-cut biopsy is the diagnostic test of choice
E. Serum ANCA is useful for diagnosis

85. Regarding oral leukoplakia, all the following are true except:

A. Is associated with tobacco use

B. Is frequently painful
C. May become malignant
D. Usually requires biopsy for definitive diagnosis
E. Is more common in men

86 The human sense of smell can be tested with all of the following
methods except

A. detection threshold
B. discrimination threshold
C. identification
D. rapid repetitive naming
E. brain evoked potentials

87 In patients presenting with large, dry septal perforations without

evidence of ulceration and in whom histopathology is nonspecific and
c-antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody testing is negative, the most
likely cause of the nasal changes is
 A. Wegener's granulomatosis
B. T-cell lymphoma
C. sarcoidosis
D. tuberculosis
E. substance abuse

88 A 20-year-old patient presents with progressive unilateral nasal

destruction with involvement of the adjacent maxillary sinus and early
involvement of the oral cavity. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody
testing is negative. Biopsy shows cells with angiocentric and
angioinvasive features. The most likely diagnosis is

A. Wegener's granulomatosis
B. sarcoidosis
C. T-cell lymphoma
D. atypical mycobacterial infection
E. histiocytosis X.

89 Which characteristic is not associated with juvenile

angiofibromas?

A. benign
B. noninvasive
C. adolescent male predominance
D. nasal obstruction and epistaxis present
E. 0.5% of head and neck neoplasms

90 The risk of sinonasal cancer is increased with exposure to all of

the following except

A. hydrocarbons
B. wood particles.
C. thorium dioxide
D. salted fish

91 What is the commonly accepted point of origin of juvenile

nasopharyngeal angiofibroma?

A. superior/posterolateral nasal cavity

B. nasopharynx
 C. posterior nasal septum
D. superoposterior base of the skull

92 Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is classically associated

with all of the following except

A. epistaxis
B. nasal obstruction
C. retrobulbar pain
D. adolescent boys

93 Which of the following statements regarding nasal cavity

malignant melanoma is true?

A. The probability of death does not decrease with time as it does

with other tumors.
B. Cure rates are high
C. Incidence of local recurrence is low

D. It originates more commonly in the sinuses than in the nasal

cavity

94 The best and most desirable treatment for allergy is

A. RAST-based immunotherapy.
B. skin test–based immunotherapy
C. nonsedating antihistamines.
D. nasal corticosteroids.
E. allergen avoidance.

95. In which situation is immunotherapy least appropriate?

A. allergy only to ragweed, producing severe symptoms for 6

weeks each year
B. allergy only to ragweed, producing mild symptoms for 6 weeks
each year that are controllable with pharmacotherapy
C. allergy to mountain cedar, oak, and elm, producing moderate
symptoms from January to May that are partially controllable with
pharmacotherapy
D. allergy only to horse dander in a patient who is a world-class
jockey
E. allergy only to cat dander in a patient with no cats but whose
mother-in-law owns a cat