You are on page 1of 148

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

ĐỀ SỐ 01 NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020


MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. wither B. thesis C. thoughtful D. breath
Question 2. A. traffic B. configuration C. cinema D. camouflage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. report B. conclude C. deter D. sanction
Question 4. A. advertise B. definite C. composite D. communicate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Tim and his friends have founded___________voluntary organisation which helps
disabled people with their transport needs.
A. a B. an C. the D. ∅
Question 6. Dana finally admitted___________by what her father had said the day before.
A. hurt B. hurting C. being hurt D. hurted
Question 7. The man was very brave. He___________, but he chose to stay and fight.
A. must have escaped B. escaped C. had escaped D. could have escaped
Question 8. Air pollution is getting___________serious in big cities such as Hanoi and Beijing.
A. the more and the more B. more and more
C. most and most D. the most and the most
Question 9. The company has made an announcement that any application___________ in after
30 th April shall not be considered.
A. sends B. is sent C. being sent D. sent
Question 10. Only after the teacher had explained the procedure clearly___________to go ahead
with the
experiment.
A. the students were allowed B. were the students allowed
C. the students allowed D. did the students allow
Question 11. Her parents are really strict. They rarely let her stay out late, ___________ ?
A. do they B. don’t they C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 12. Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by___________ rocking chair.
A. an old wooden European beautiful B. a beautiful old European wooden
C. an old beautiful wooden European D. a wooden old beautiful European
Question 13. Many astronomers never get back to the Earth because of___________accidents.
A. tragedy B. tragic C. tragically D. tragedies
Question 14. After years of training hard, the athlete finally could___________ her ambition of
winning
an Olympic gold medal.
A. reject B. exacerbate C. recognise D. realise
Question 15. The commission estimates that at least seven companies took___________ of the
program.
A. advantage B. use C. benefit D. dominance
Question 16. The cinema is no longer as popular as it was in the 1930 s and 1940’s, but it is still
an important___________of entertainment.
A. status B. source C. origin D. prospect
Question 17. After years of derision from the world, the Hindi film industry is achieving its
___________ in the Sun.
A. position B. image C. shade D. place
Question 18. While I was looking through my old albums the other day, I___________this
photograph of my parents’ wedding.
A. took after B. made up C. turned down D. came across
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Of more than 1,300 volcanoes in the world, only about 600 can classify as active.
A. only B. classify C. volcanoes D. active
Question 20. In spite of the Indian lacked animals, they had the ability to cultivate plants suitable
for daily use.
A. suitable B. lacked animals C. in spite of D. had the ability
Question 21. A professor of and history at our university has developed a new theory of the
relationship between historical events and financial crises.
A. financial crises B. relationship C. historical D. economy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. John no longer drinks a lot.
A. John rarely drank a lot. B. John used to drink a lot.
C. John didn’t use to drink a lot. D. John now drinks a lot.
Question 23. “Stop smoking or you’ll be ill,” the doctor told me.
A. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness.
B. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness.
C. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness.
D. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes.
Question 24. People think that increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases
will inevitably lead to global warming.
A. Global warming is thought to result in increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other
greenhouse gases.
B. Increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases is thought to be responsible
for global warming.
C. Increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases is attributed to global
warming.
D. Global warming is blamed for increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. He was very tired. He agreed to help me with my homework.
A. As tired as was he, he agreed to help me with my homework.
B. Despite being very tired, but he agreed to help me with my homework
C. Tired though he was, but he agreed to help me with my homework.
D. Tired as he was, he agreed to help me with my homework.
Question 26. Mary quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday. She didn’t want to answer his phone
call this morning.
A. Mary’s refusal to answer the phone leads to her argument with her boyfriend yesterday.
B. Much as Mary quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday, she answered his phone call this
morning.
C. Having quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday, Mary refused to answer his phone call this
morning.
D. Before Mary quarrelled with her boyfriend yesterday, she answered his phone call.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Sam and David are talking about what to do after work.
- “Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?” - “___________”
A. Not at all. Go ahead. B. I’m sorry. I don’t know that.
C. That would be nice. D. Not so bad. And you?
Question 28. Laura: “What a lovely house you have!”
A. Of course not, it’s not costly. B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. I think so. D. No problem.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. When the Titanic crashed into the iceberg, the crew quickly sent out distress signals
to alert nearby ships of the disaster and request their help.
A. amusing B. strange C. bold D. help
Question 30. I’m all in favour of ambition but I think when he says he’ll be a millionaire by the
time he’s 25, he’s simply crying for the moon.
A. longing for what is beyond the reach B. asking for what is attainable
C. doing something with vigor or intensity D. crying a lot and for a long time
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. I prefer secure j obs because I don’t like keeping on moving and changing all the
time.
A. challenging B. demanding C. stable D. safe
Question 32. When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on air.
A. extremely happy B. extremely light
C. feeling extremely unhappy D. feeling extremely airy
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Most adults struggle to recall events from their first few years of life and now scientists have
identified exactly when these childhood memories are lost forever. A new study into childhood
amnesia has found that it tends to take (33)___________around the age of seven.
The rapid decline of memories persisting while children are five and six is owing to the change
in the way memories are formed.
Before the age of seven, children tend to have an (34) ___________form of recall with no sense
of time and place in their memories. In older children, however, the early recollected events tend
to be more adult like in their content and the way they are formed. Faster rate of forgetting in
children and higher turnover of memories means early memories are less likely to survive. (35)
___________ , memories of younger children tend to lack autobiographical narrative leading to a
process known as “retrieval induced forgetting” (36) ___________the action of remembering
causes other information to be forgotten. Consequently, if childhood memories can survive into
the ninth or tenth year of life, they may stay a chance of (37) ___________it into adulthood.
Question 33. A. affect B. effective C. effect D. effectively
Question 34. A. unbalanced B. immature C. insufficient D. irrational
Question 35. A. Besides B. However C. Therefore D. Otherwise
Question 36. A. whom B. which C. when D. where
Question 37. A. turning B. making C. transferring D. getting
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Being repeatedly late may just be accidental - or could it show a deeply rooted psychological
desire to express your own superiority? when I worked in an office, meetings would often start
late, usually because of a certain individual. Then they would overrun and the whole day lost its
shape. But the individual was high-ranking and self-important: nobody challenged. So, what are
the ethics of lateness?
There’s a psychotherapist called Irvin Yalom who argues that all behaviour reflects psychology.
Just as people who like to be on time are motivated by certain deep-seated beliefs, so those who
make others wait are acting out an inner agenda, often based on an acute sense of power. There’s
famous footage in which Silvio Berlusconi kept Angela Merkel waiting while he made a call on
his mobile. It speaks volumes. But that is when all lateness is in one’s control, what about when
your train is cancelled or your flight is delayed or you had to wait longer for the plumber to
arrive? In such cases, there’s not a lot of psychology involved. Or is there? Some people will
genuinely worry about the impact it will have on those left waiting, while others might secretly
enjoy the power of their absence.
The essential fact is that lateness means breaking a convention - you can only be late in respect
of a time agreed with other people. Regardless of psychology, it has a social value. And when we
treat other people’s time as less valuable than our own, we treat them as inferior.
Question 38. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Lateness indicates superiority of important individuals.
B. Social values of individuals are fostered through lateness.
C. Being late can reveal a lot about people’s psychology.
D. People with high sense of power have a tendency to be late.
Question 39. What is the “speaks volumes” in paragraph 2 closest in meaning to?
A. tells a lot B. makes sounds C. holds power D. talks loudly
Question 40. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. The way our minds work is responsible for the way we behave.
B. Some people control a situation for their benefit through lateness.
C. Lateness can have an impact on other people who are made to wait.
D. Most people react the same when lateness is out of their control.
Question 41. It can be inferred from the reading passage that___________.
A. Berlusconi made Merkel wait as he wanted to show his importance.
B. it is fashionable to be late to meetings because nobody challenges.
C. the writer’s daily schedule was unaffected by his colleague’s lateness.
D. nothing can be said about one’s psychology if lateness is out of control.
Question 42. What does the word “it” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. fact B. lateness C. convention D. psychology
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions front 43 to 50.
Homeopathy, the alternative therapy created in 1796 by Samuel Hahnemann, and now widely
used all over the world, is based on the belief that the body can be stimulated to heal itself. A
central principle of the “treatment” is that “like cures like”, meaning a substance that causes
certain symptoms can also help to remove those symptoms. Medicines used in homeopathy are
created by heavily diluting in water the substance in question and subsequently shaking the
liquid vigorously. They can then be made into tablets
and pills. Practitioners believe that the more a substance is diluted in this way, the greater its
power to treat symptoms. However, in a new study, a working committee of medical experts at
Australia’s National Health and Medical Research Council (NHMRC) has claimed that
homeopathic medicines are only as effective as
placebos at treating illness. Their research, involving the analysis of numerous reports from
homeopathy interest groups and the public, concluded that there is no reliable evidence that
homeopathy works.
Moreover, researchers uncovered no fewer than 68 ailments that homeopathic remedies had
failed to treat, including asthma, sleep disturbances, cold and flu, and arthritis.
As a result of the findings, the NHMRC is urging health workers to inform their patients to be
wary of anecdotal evidence that appears to support the effectiveness of homeopathic medicine.
“It isn’t possible to tell whether a health treatment is effective or not simply by considering the
experience of one individual or the beliefs of a health practitioner” says the report. Experts
believe that most illnesses said to have been cured by homeopathy would be cured by the body
on its own without taking the medicine. Apparently, many illnesses are short-lived by their very
nature which often leads to people believing that it is the homeopathy that cures them. A more
serious matter is highlighted by Professor John Dwyer of the University of New South Wales.
As an immunologist, he is concerned about homeopathic vaccinations on offer for diseases such
as HIV, tuberculosis, and malaria, none of which he considers effective. According to Professor
John Dwyer, the concept that homeopathic vaccinations are just as good as traditional
vaccinations is delusion, and those who believe it are failing to protect themselves and their
children.
Question 43. Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. “Homeopathy kills” say scientists B. “Avoid homeopathy” say scientists
C. Homeopathy worth trying once D. Unknown effects of homeopathy
Question 44. According to the reading passage, homeopathic medicines are___________ .
A. prepared similarly for different diseases
B. made up of a variety of ingredients
C. suitable for a wide range of symptoms
D. available only in the liquid form
Question 45. What does the word “their” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. committee B. NHMRC C. medicines D. placebos
Question 46. The Australian study reveals that homeopathy is___________.
A. increasingly popular with the public B. helpful in the case of respiratory infections
C. ineffective in treating many diseases D. of great interest to a certain group of people
Question 47. What is the word “wary” in paragraph 3 closest in meaning to?
A. apprehensive B. reluctant C. cautious D. observant
Question 48. People tend to believe in homeopathy because of___________.
A. advertisements displayed in health center
B. positive feedback from a small number of people
C. reliable proof from recent medical reports
D. results of research into some alternatives therapies
Question 49. What is the word “delusion” in paragraph 4 closest in meaning to?
A. legend B. falsehood C. imagination D. hallucination
Question 50. In Professor John Dwyer’s view, homeopathic vaccinations__________.
A. may bring about bad consequences B. do harm to people’s health
C. might be ridiculously expensive D. are better than nothing at all
Đáp án
1-A 2-C 3-D 4-D 5-A 6-C 7-D 8-B 9-D 10-B
11-A 12-B 13-B 14-D 15-A 16-B 17-D 18-D 19-B 20-C
21-D 22-B 23-B 24-B 25-D 26-C 27-C 28-B 29-D 30-A
31-A 32-C 33-C 34-B 35-A 36-D 37-B 38-C 39-A 40-D
41-A 42-B 43-D 44-A 45-B 46-C 47-C 48-B 49-B 50-A
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

ĐỀ SỐ 02 NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. general B. generous C. generation D. guillotine
Question 2. A. changes B. increases C. suffocates D. compromises
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. deploy B. maintain C. border D. attain
Question 4. A. referee B. kangaroo C. cigarette D. technique
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. After so___________consideration, we have finally arrived at a decision.
A. a lot of B. lots of C. many D. much
Question 6. The author did not intend anybody___________his paintings until they were
finished.
A. seeing B. to seeing C. to see D. to be seen
Question 7. Every day, Peters mother drives him to school. However, today, he ___________to
school
by his father.
A. was taken B. is being taken C. is taking D. took
Question 8. Linda, along with hundreds of others, ___________unemployed when the factory
closes next month.
A. becomes B. become C. is becoming D. are becoming
Question 9. The customs officers stopped the suspected man and ordered him to
show___________.
A. what was he carrying in his bag. B. what he was carrying in his bag
C. what he carries in his bag D. what does he carry in his bag
Question 10. It was an English student, not a French one, ___________was the captain of our
school team.
A. which B. what C. whom D. who
Question 11. The man standing next to our father is a persuasive speaker with a natural
talent___________leadership.
A. for B. at C. in D. of
Question 12. The report form is available on the two___________discs in my drawer.
A. small green round B. round small green
C. green small round D. small round green
Question 13. The drug under examination has shown some___________results when given to
volunteers in some countries.
A. impressed B. impresses C. impressive D. impression
Question 14. During rush hours, the traffic is usually___________and cars are closing up behind
each other.
A. light B. heavy C. substantial D. enormous
Question 15. After suffering severe wounds in the attack, the secret agent decided to
his resignation to the commander.
A. give B. apply C. propose D. offer
Question 16. Her father was really a___________of strength to her when her marriage broke up.
A. source B. sculpture C. figure D. tower
Question 17. When travelling in Europe, we tried to ___________at least an hour in a medieval
town to explore it.
A. stop off B. stop out C. stop up D. stop in
Question 18. Last week, an earthquake which___________6.1 on the Richter scale struck
southern California.
A. read B. measured C. calculated D. estimated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Just pulling out of the station the train was that we were supposed to catch.
A. the B. the train was C. were supposed D. pulling out
Question 20. Alice Thornton’s autobiography provides a fascinate account of family life in
seventeenth- century England.
A. a fascinate account B. life C. seventeenth-century D. autobiography
Question 21. The meeting would have finished earlier if there had not been for their
interruptions.
A. interruptions B. would have finished
C. had not been for D. earlier
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. ‘T have never been to Russia. I think I shall go there next year.” said Bill.
A. Bill said that he had never been to Russia and he thought he would go there the next year.
B. Bill said that he would have never been to Russia and he thinks he would go there the next
year.
C. Bill said that he had never been to Russia and he thinks he will go there the next year.
D. Bill said that he has never been to Russia and he thinks he would go there the next year.
Question 23. People believed that Jane retired because of her poor health.
A. Jane is believed to have retired because of her poor health.
B. Jane was believed to retire because of her poor health.
C. It is believed that Jane retired because of her poor health.
D. Jane retired because of her poor health was believed.
Question 24. Charles would have won the essay contest if he had typed his paper.
A. Charles won the essay contest in spite of not typing his paper.
B. Charles did not win the essay contest because he did not type his paper
C. Typing his paper made Charles win the essay contest.
D. Charles did not win the essay contest even though he typed his paper.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. The government knows the extent of the problem. The government needs to take
action soon.
A. The government knows the extent of the problem whereas it needs to take action soon.
B. The government knows the extent of the problem so that it needs to take action soon.
C. Knowing the extent of the problem, the government needs to take action soon.
D. The government knows the extent of the problem, or else it needs to take action soon.
Question 26. The substance is very toxic. Protective clothing must be worn at all times.
A. Since the substance is very toxic, so protective clothing must be worn at all times.
B. So toxic is the substance that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
C. The substance is such toxic that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
D. The substance is too toxic to wear protective clothing at all times.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Dick is thanking Michelle for giving him the gift on his birthday.
Dick: “Thanks for the nice gift you brought to me!”
Michelle: “___________”
A. Welcome! I’m glad you like it
B. Not at all
C. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it
D. All right! Do you know how much it costs?
Question 28. Ben: “___________.”
Jane: “Never mind.”
A. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned.
B. Would you mind going to dinner next Sunday?
C. Thank you for being honest with me.
D. Congratulations! How wonderful!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. The first time I met my friend’s parents, I was walking on eggshells because I
knew their political views were very different from mine.
A. was talking nervously B. had a lot of pressure
C. was given many eggs D. had to be very cautious
Question 30. Albert Einstein is lauded as one of the greatest theoretical physicists of all time.
A. acclaimed B. dictated C. described D. ordained
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. His lawyer thought Jack had a good chance of being acquitted at the trial, if no
further evidence was found.
A. found guilty B. declared innocent
C. charged of being faulty D. advised of appealing
Question 32. Recycling and disposal of wastes require sizable expenditure, in such situations,
industries preferred to export their wastes to other countries.
A. minimum B. considerable C. plentiful D. trivial
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), originally known (33) ___________the United
Nations’ International Children’s Emergency Fund, was created by the United Nations General
Assembly on 11 December 1946, to provide emergency food and healthcare to children and
mothers in countries that had been devastated by World War II. The Polish physician Ludwik
Rajchman is widely regarded as the (34) ___________of UNICEF and served as its first
chairman from 1946 to 1950, when he had to flee the United States in the wake of McCarthyism.
Rajchman is to this day the only person that served as UNICEF’s Chairman for longer than 2
years. On Rajchman’s suggestion, the American Maurice Pate was
appointed its first executive director, serving from 1947 until his death in 1965. In 1950,
UNICEF’s mandate was extended to address the long-term needs of children and women in
developing countries everywhere. In 1953 it (35) ___________a permanent part of the United
Nations System, and the words “international” and “emergency” were dropped from the
organization’s name, though it retained the original acronym, “UNICEF”. UNICEF (36)
___________on contributions from governments and private donors. UNICEF’s total income for
2015 was US$5,009,557,471. Governments contribute two-thirds of the organization’s resources.
Private groups and individuals contribute the rest through national committees. It is estimated
that 92 per cent of UNICEF revenue is distributed to program services. UNICEF’s programs
emphasize developing community-level services to (37)___________the health and well-being
of children. UNICEF was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1965 and the Prince of Asturias
Award of Concord in 2006.
Question 33. A. for B. as C. such as D. like
Question 34. A. ancestor B. descendant C. pioneer D. founder
Question 35. A. became B. becomes C. becoming D. had become
Question 36. A. focuses B. stands C. concentrates D. relies
Question 37. A. promote B. provide C. widen D. increase
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42. Birds have evolved many physical
attributes that contribute to their flying ability. Wings are important, but adjustable tails, large
hearts and light bones play critical roles To fly, birds, like airplanes, move air across their wings.
Wings are designed so that air above the wings is forced to move faster than air below the wing.
This creates higher pressure under the wings, called lift, which pushes the bird up. Different
wing types evolved for different ways of flying. Prolonged flight requires long wings and an
ability to soar. Other birds need superior maneuverability. Finches and sparrows have short,
broad wings. Faster birds, like hawks have built - in spoilers that reduce turbulence while flying.
This allows a steeper angle of attack without stalling. Tails have evolved for specialized use. The
tail acts like a rudder helping birds steer. Birds brake by spreading out their tails as they land.
This adaptation allows them to make sudden, controlled stops in essential skill, since most birds
need to land on individual branches or on prey.
Flight takes muscle strength. If body builders had wings, they still could not flap hard enough to
leave the ground. Birds have large, specialized hearts that beat much faster than the human heart
and provide the necessary oxygen to the muscles. The breast muscle accounts for 15 percent of
the bird’s body weight. On pigeons, it accounts for a third of their total body weight. Birds carry
no excess baggage, they have hollow feathers and hollow bones with struts inside to maintain
strength, like cross beams in a bridge. Birds fly to find a prey, escape predators, and attract
mates-in other words, to survive.
Question 38. what is the main idea of the passage?
A. Wings are the most important physical attribute of birds.
B. Different wing styles evolved for different types of flight.
C. Birds have many specialized features that aid in their survival.
D. Birds fly for many reasons.
Question 39. According to the passage, what causes birds to rise when they start flying?
A. Long wings with hollow feathers B. Higher air pressure below than above the wings
C. Spreading out their tails D. Superior muscle strength
Question 40. The phrase “finches and sparrows” refers to___________.
A. wings B. maneuvers C. ways of flying D. birds
Question 41. According to the passage, what benefit comes from having built-in spoilers?
A. an ability to fly faster B. a steeper angle of diving for prey
C. prolonged flight D. superior maneuverability when climbing
Question 42. What does the author imply about the body builders having wings?
A. If they flapped their wings, they could fly a little.
B. If they had wings, their muscles would be strong enough for flight.
C. If they had wings, their hearts would still not be large for flight.
D. Their wings would total 15 percent of their body weight.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was signed into law in 1990. This law extends civil
rights protection to persons with disabilities in private sector employment, all public services,
and in public accommodations, transportation, and telecommunications. A person with disability
is defined as someone with a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits him or her
in a major life activity, such as walking, talking, working, or self-care. A person with a
disability may also be someone with a past record of such an impairment, for example, someone
who no longer has heart disease but discriminated against because of that history.
The ADA states that employers with fifteen or more employees may not refuse to hire or
promote a person because of a disability if that person is qualified to perform the job. Also, the
employer must make reasonable accommodations that will allow a person with a disability to
perform essential functions of the job. All new vehicles purchased by public transit authorities
must be accessible to people with disabilities. All rail stations must be made accessible, and at
least one car per train in existing rail systems must be made accessible. It is illegal for public
accommodations to exclude or refuse persons with disabilities. Public accommodations are
businesses and services such as restaurants, hotels, grocery stores, and parks. All new buildings
must be made accessible, and existing facilities must remove barriers if the removal can be
accomplished without much difficulty or expense. The ADA also stipulates that companies
offering telephone service to the general public must offer relay services to individuals who use
telecommunications devices for the deaf, twenty- four hours a day, seven days a week.
Question 43. what is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To describe discrimination against persons with disabilities.
B. To explain the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act.
C. To make suggestions for hiring persons with disabilities.
D. To discuss telecommunications devices for the deaf.
Question 44. According to the passage, all of the followings are affected by the Americans with
Disabilities Act EXCEPT___________.
A. someone who has difficulty walking
B. a public transit authority
C. an employer with fewer than fifteen employees
D. a person with a past record of an impairment
Question 45. The word “impairment” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning
to___________.
A. disability B. violation C. aptitude D. danger
Question 46. The author mentions grocery stores as an example of___________.
A. public transit B. barriers
C. private sector employment D. public accommodation
Question 47. The word “facilities” in bold in paragraph 3 refers to___________ .
A. barriers B. buildings C. rail stations D. disabilities
Question 48. The author implies all of the followings EXCEPT___________.
A. the ADA requires people with disabilities to pay for special accommodations
B. the ADA is designed to protect the civil rights of many people
C. public transportation must accommodate the needs of people with disabilities
D. the ADA protects the rights of people with mental impairments
Question 49. The word “stipulates” in bold in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. supposes B. admits C. states D. requests
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that___________ .
A. restaurants can refuse service to people with disabilities
B. every car of a train must be accessible to persons with disabilities
C. the ADA is not well-liked by employers
D. large companies may not discriminate against workers with disabilities
Đáp án

1-D 2-C 3-C 4-D 5-D 6-C 7-B 8-C 9-B 10-D

11-A 12-D 13-C 14-B 15-D 16-D 17-A 18-B 19-B 20-A

21-C 22-A 23-B 24-B 25-C 26-B 27-A 28-A 29-D 30-A

31-A 32-D 33-B 34-D 35-A 36-D 37-A 38-C 39-B 40-D

41-B 42-C 43-B 44-C 45-A 46-D 47-B 48-A 49-C 50-D
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

ĐỀ SỐ 03 NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. detachable B. denounce C. education D. admittance
Question 2. A. enunciate B. pronounce C. uncle D. nocturnal
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. preserve B. bubble C. safeguard D. tabloid
Question 4. A. uneducated B. insignificant
C. irrelevance D. unquestionable
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 5. Before the man could say anything more, Peter___________off towards the station.
A. rushed B. was rushing C. had rushed D. had been rushing
Question 6. For the engine to work properly, the green lever___________be in the up position.
A. can B. may C. will D. must
Question 7. ___________the Nobel Prize, he retired from politics.
A. Received B. Having received C. Being received D. Receive
Question 8. The divorce rate in Vietnam is now higher___________half a century ago.
A. than it is B. than it does C. than it was D. than it did
Question 9. Would that the council___________in detail the issue of mercury pollution in the
city during the conference last week.
A. discussed B. were discussing C. had discussed D. was discussing
Question 10. The waiter enquired whether___________near the window.
A. we would like to sit B. we like to sit
C. do we like to sit D. would we like to sit
Question 11. ___________, those students really prefer cold weather.
A. Strange though does it seem B. Strange though it may seem
C. Strange though may it seem D. Strange though it seem
Question 12. Brain’s attitude___________his work has always been very positive.
A. with B. into C. at D. towards
Question 13. There might be a___________to cheat if students sit too close together in exam
rooms.
A. tempting B. temptation C. tempted D. tempt
Question 14. If something electricity and heat, it allows electricity or heat to___________travel
along and through it.
A. carries B. transfers C. conducts D. exchanges
Question 15. We really regret to___________you that the course you are interested in is now
full.
A. advise B. consult C. pledge D. explain
Question 16. The newspaper article which includes a gruesome description of the murder
has___________a lot of attention from the public.
A. paid B. confined C. drawn D. attracted
Question 17. Last year, the company went___________up after the one of its senior executives
offered his resignation.
A. straight B. belly C. stomach D. cloud
Question 18. Our mother was not happy with our work and made us___________.
A. start back B. start over C. start on D. start on at
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. She grew more and more fascinated by the subject as times went by.
A. fascinated B. grew C. times D. the subject
Question 20. I pretended not seeing her and carried on walking down the main street leading to
the downtown.
A. not seeing B. the main street C. carried on walking D. downtown
Question 21. Like many rich kids, Georgie was raised by a successor of underpaid nannies.
A. raised B. like C. underpaid nannies D. a successor
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. A drug may affect several functions, even though it’s targeted at only one.
A. A drug is taken for a specific purpose, but it may have a range of other effects.
B. However effective a drug may be, its functions have to be several.
C. Despite various other uses, a drug usually has a function for a special effect.
D. The functions expected of a drug are various even if it is used for a specific disease.
Question 23. Most of the river ferries have been cancelled today due to the lack of visibility
caused by the fog.
A. A few of the ferries need to be rescheduled because of the fog that is causing poor visibility
on the river.
B. Since todays fog is obstructing visibility, the majority of the river ferries will not be running.
C. Because of the fog, it will be difficult for most of the ferries to cross the river safely today.
D. Whenever visibility is poor owing to the fog, nearly all of the river ferries are cancelled
during the day.
Question 24. Wouldn’t it better to let them know about the alterations to the plan?
A. Don’t you think they should be informed about the changes in the plan?
B. Shouldn’t they have been consulted before the scheme was changed?
C. Why haven’t they been informed about the new development?
D. We’d better ask them to change the plan, hadn’t we?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. The burglar might come back. You’d better change all the locks.
A. If you don t change all the locks, the burglar could come back.
B. The burglar will come back unless you change all the locks.
C. Youd better change all the locks or the burglar will come back.
D. You’d better change all the locks in case the burglar will come back.
Question 26. My personal opinion doesn’t really matter. You need to decide for the good of
everyone.
A. Though my personal opinion really matters, we need to decide for the good for everyone.
B. Deciding for the good of everyone makes our personal opinion not really matter at all.
C. We need to decide for the good of everyone, so my personal opinion doesn’t really matter.
D. If my personal opinion doesn’t really matter, we need to decide for the good of everyone.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. “Would you bother if I had a look at your paper?” - “____________.”
A. Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t B. oh, I didn’t realize it
C. You’re welcome D. That’s a good idea
Question 28. Sarah: “Oh my God, I’ve missed my bus.”
Christ: “____________. Another will come here in ten minutes.”
A. I hope so B. Don’t mention it C. Don’t worry D. Thank you
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Being a single mother no longer carries the social stigma that it used to.
A. difficulty B. holiness C. stain D. trial
Question 30. The members of the orchestra have arrived an hour prior to the performance for a
short rehearsal.
A. when B. before C. after D. while
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. Earthworms help to aerate the soil.
A. suffocate B. destroy C. argue D. adjust
Question 32. He was imprisoned because he revealed secrets to the enemies.
A. disowned B. declared C. betrayed D. concealed
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Culture has a strong influence on non-verbal communication. Even the simple act of looking
someone in the eye is not at all that simple. In the USA, Americans are (33) ____________to
look directly at people when speaking to them. It shows interest in what they are saying
and is thought to carry a (34) ____________of honesty. Meanwhile, in Japan and Korea, people
avoid long periods of eye contact. It is considered more polite to look to the side during a
conversation. The Lebanese, (35) ____________, stand close together and look intensely into
each other’s eyes. The
action shows sincerity and gives people a better sense of what their counterparts want. Given
such differences with even the most common expressions, people (36) ____________ travel or
work abroad have a real need to learn the other culture’s body language. People tend to be
unaware of the messages they are sending to others. So, it is (37) ____________to consider your
own body language before dealing with people from other cultures. Knowing about the body
language of friends, clients, and colleagues can be very helpful in improving understanding and
avoiding miscommunication.
Question 33. A. encouraged B. assisted C. forbidden D. opposed
Question 34. A. sense B. taste C. sound D. touch
Question 35. A. therefore B. in addition C. in contrast D. moreover
Question 36. A. who B. where C. which D. whose
Question 37. A. usefulness B. useful C. useless D. used
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
The growth of cities, the construction of hundreds of new factories, and the spread of railroads in
the United States before 1850 had increased the need for better illumination. But the lighting in
American homes had improved very little over that of ancient times. Through the colonial
period, homes were lit with tallow candles or with a lamp of the kind used in ancient Rome - a
dish of fish oil or other animal or vegetable oil in which a twisted rag served as a wick. Some
people used lard, but they had to heat charcoal underneath to keep it soft and burnable. The
sperm whale provided superior burning oil, but this was expensive. In 1830 a new substance
called “camphene” was patented, and it proved to be an excellent illuminant. But while
camphene gave a bright light it too remained expensive, had an unpleasant odor, and also was
dangerously explosive.
Between 1830 and 1850, it seemed that the only hope for cheaper illumination in the United
States was the wider use of gas. In the 1840s, American gas manufacturers adopted improved
British techniques for producing illuminating gas from coal. But the expense of piping gas to the
consumer remained so high that until the mid-nineteenth century gas lighting was feasible only
in urban areas, and only for public buildings for the wealthy. In 1854, a Canadian doctor,
Abraham Gesner, patented a process for distilling a pitch like mineral found in New Brunswick
and Nova Scotia that produced illuminating gas and an oil that he called “kerosene” (from
“keros”, the Greek word for wax, and “ene” because it resembled camphene). Kerosene, though
cheaper than camphene, had an unpleasant odor, and Gesner never made his fortune from it. But
Gesner had aroused a new hope for making illuminating oil from a product coming out of North
American mines.
Question 38. which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason why better lighting had
become necessary by the mid-nineteenth century?
A. increases in the number of new factories B. growth of cities
C. development of railroads D. demand for better medical facilities
Question 39. The word “this” in paragraph 1 refers to___________.
A. oil B. charcoal C. lard D. wick
Question 40. What can be inferred about the illuminating gas described in the passage?
A. It had an unpleasant smell.
B. It was not allowed in public buildings.
C. It was not widely available until mid-nineteenth century.
D. It was first developed in the United States.
Question 41. The word “resembled” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. cost the same as B. was made from C. sounded like D. was similar to
Question 42. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. a description of events in chronological order
B. a comparison of two years
C. an analysis of scientific findings
D. the statement of a theory and possible explanations
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Dark matter in the universe is believed
by some scientists to be a substance that is not readily observable because it does not directly
refract light or energy. Its existence can only be deduced because of the effect that it has on
surrounding matter. In fact, some members of the scientific community have argued that dark
matter does not actually exist. Others, however, believe in its existence, in part because the
scientific community does not have a complete understanding of gravity science. On the other
hand, some would argue that it is the understanding of gravitational science that leads most
scientists to believe in the existence of dark matter, because without dark matter, there are many
cosmological phenomena that are difficult to explain.
For example, dark matter in the universe may have a peculiar effect on the Milky Way galaxy.
Some scientists believe that the interaction between dark matter and other smaller, nearby
galaxies is causing the Milky Way galaxy to take on a warped profile. It has been asserted that
not only does dark matter exist, it may also be responsible for the Milky Way’s unusual shape.
The interaction referenced involves two smaller galaxies near the Milky Way, called Magellanic
clouds, moving through an enormous amount of dark matter, which, in effect, enhances the
gravitational pull that the two Magellanic clouds could have on the Milky Way and other
surrounding bodies. Without the existence of the dark matter, the Magellanic clouds would not
have sufficient mass to have such a strong effect on the bend of the Milky Way galaxy.
The strongest evidence for the validity of this hypothesis rests in Newtonian physics, and the
hypothesis that anything with mass will exert a gravitational pull. The Milky Way and other
galaxies with peculiar warped shapes are being molded by a gravitational force. However, there
is nothing readily observable with sufficient mass that could cause such a high level of distortion
via gravitational pull in the vicinity of the Milky Way. Therefore, something that is not easily
observed must be exerting the necessary force to create the warped shape of the galaxy.
Aaron Romanowsky and several colleagues have questioned the effect that dark matter might
have on galaxies. They point to the existence of several elliptical galaxies surrounded by very
little dark matter as evidence that dark matter is not, in fact, the cause of the warped galaxies.
While they do not claim that their findings should be interpreted to conclude that dark matter
does not exist, they apparently believe that the results of their studies cast doubt on some of the
conventional theories of galaxy formation and manipulation.
Several models constructed by researchers from the University of California at Berkeley,
however, point to the idea that dark matter is the most likely explanation for the distorted shape
of the Milky Way and other galaxies. Using computer models, they have mapped the likely
interactions between certain galaxies and the surrounding dark matter, and those models have
shown not only the possibility that dark matter is responsible for the warped shape of the Milky
Way, but that the relationship between the dark matter and the Magellanic clouds is dynamic; the
movement of the clouds through the dark matter seems to create a wake that enhances their
gravitational influence on the Milky Way.
Question 43. The passage states that some members of the scientific community are reluctant to
believe in the existence of dark matter because___________.
A. no one understands how to apply gravitational science.
B. dark matter has little effect on surrounding matter.
C. dark matter cannot be directly observed.
D. there is absolutely no evidence for the existence of dark matter.
Question 44. As it is used in paragraph 1, the term “phenomena” most nearly
means___________.
A. surprises B. problems C. occurrences D. attitudes
Question 45. What does the passage offer as evidence for the existence of dark matter?
A. A photograph taken with the aid of a refracting telescope.
B. The enormous mass of Magellanic clouds.
C. The shape of the Milky Way galaxy.
D. A complete understanding of gravitational science.
Question 46. According to the passage, what is Aaron Romanowsky’s theory regarding dark
matter?
A. Dark matter has no effect at all on the shape of a galaxy.
B. It cannot be conclusively proven that dark matter affects the shape and formation of galaxies.
C. Computer models suggest that dark matter is responsible for warped galaxies.
D. The discovery of certain galaxies disproves the theory that dark matter exists in the universe.
Question 47. The last paragraph supports the general hypothesis provided earlier in the passage
that___________.
A. computer models are necessary for an understanding of gravitational science.
B. dark matter has little to no effect on the formation of certain cosmological phenomena
C. the effect of Magellanic clouds on galaxies is enhanced by dark matter.
D. the shape of the Milky Way galaxy can be deduced by observing the matter surrounding it
Question 48. The word “conventional” in paragraph 4 most nearly means___________.
A. formally disputed B. strictly interpreted
C. easily understood D. generally accepted
Question 49. The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to___________.
A. models B. researchers C. interactions D. galaxies
Question 50. The passage supports which of the following statements about dark matter?
A. Its presence is readily observable to researchers who completely understand how to apply
gravitational science.
B. If it does not exist, the universe is largely empty.
C. Its existence is inferred by some researchers based on observations of cosmological bodies
composed of ordinary matter.
D. Its existence has been conclusively proven by computer models.
Đáp án
1-C 2-C 3-A 4-B 5-C 6-D 7-B 8-C 9-C 10-A

11-B 12-D 13-B 14-C 15-A 16-D 17-B 18-B 19-C 20-A

21-D 22-A 23-B 24-A 25-D 26-C 27-A 28-C 29-C 30-B

31-A 32-D 33-A 34-A 35-C 36-A 37-B 38-D 39-A 40-C

41-D 42-A 43-C 44-C 45-C 46-B 47-C 48-D 49-B 50-C
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020


ĐỀ SỐ 04
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. divisible B. design C. disease D. excursion
Question 2. A. borrowed B. conserved C. approached D. complained
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. garbage B. dissolve C. bottle D. fishing
Question 4. A. beautiful B. happiness C. unhealthy D. neigh borhood
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. She looked active in___________.
A. a jean B. a jeans C. jean D. jeans
Question 6. We___________by a loud noise during the night.
A. woke up B. are woken up C. were woken up D. were waking up
Question 7. why___________she___________to be studying abroad?
A. does/ consider B. is/ considered C. is/ considering D. has/ considered
Question 8. Tom has the___________stamps in the collectors club.
A. most B. less C. more D. least
Question 9. Our boss would rather___________during the working hours.
A. us not chatting B. we didn’t chat C. us not chat D. we don’t chat
Question 10. ___________my car broke down, I came home late yesterday.
A. Since B. while C. For D. With
Question 11. ___________I first met my girlfriend.
A. It was in London that B. It was in London where
C. It was London that D. It was London which
Question 12. Last weekend, my family went to the cinema together. We chose a(an)
___________to see.
A. new interesting film B. film interesting new
C. interesting film new D. interesting new film
Question 13. He has been very interested in doing research on___________since he was at high
school.
A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically
Question 14. The match will be televised___________ on VTV 3 tonight.
A. live B. lived C. lively D. living
Question 15. The students are conducting a major___________.
A. exam B. experiment C. test D. experience
Question 16. “The suitcase isn’t too heavy, is it?” “No, it’s as light as___________.”
A. dust B. lightning C. a feather D. a fish
Question 17. “Have you heard about the Welshman, the Irishman and a pig?” “Yes, we have.
That joke’s as old as___________.”
A. Solomon B. the hills C. a dinosaur D. Jupiter
Question 18. I applied for the job but was___________.
A. taken away B. got over C. turned down D. turned off
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. If anyone drops by while I am away, please take a message from him
A. drops B. while C. take D. him
Question 20. The fire began in the tenth floor of the block of flat, but it soon spread to other
floors.
A. in B. tenth C. of D. soon spread
Question 21. The strong progress in poverty reduction and sharing prosperity that took place
over the first decade of the 2000s is at risk because of the global slowdown in growth.
A. reduction B. sharing C. the first D. at risk
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. “Shall I make you a cup of milk?” the mother said to the son.
A. The mother wanted to make a cup of milk for the son.
B. The mother was asked to make a cup of milk for the son.
C. The mother promised to make a cup of milk for the son.
D. The mother offered to make a cup of milk for the son.
Question 23. The only student who failed the exam was Finet.
A. Together with other students, Finet failed the exam.
B. Everyone passed the exam.
C. Everyone, apart from Finet, failed the exam.
D. With the exception of Finet, everyone passed the exam.
Question 24. She had only just put the phone down when her boss rang back.
A. Hardly she puts the phone down when her boss rang back.
B. Hardly had she put the phone down when her boss rang back.
C. Hardly did she put the phone down than her boss rang back.
D. Hardly she had put the phone down when her boss rang back.
Mark the letter A, B, Cor D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. Her explanation was clear. I didn’t understand it.
A. Despite of her clear explanation, I didn’t understand it.
B. Despite her clear explanation, I didn’t understand it.
C. Despite the fact that I didn’t understand it, her explanation was clear.
D. In spite of the fact that I didn’t understand it, her explanation was clear
Question 26. Dan is able to make English instruction videos for Vietnamese people. It is because
his Vietnamese wife helps him.
A. If only Dan were able to make English instruction videos for Vietnamese people.
B. If it weren’t for his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t make English instruction videos for
Vietnamese people.
C. Without his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t have made English instruction videos for
Vietnamese people.
D. But for his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t have made English instruction videos for
Vietnamese people.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Two students are discussing their previous English class.
- Student 1. “I think the teacher should give us more exercises.”
- Student 2. “___________”
A. Yes, let’s B. Ok
C. That’s rubbish D. That’s what I was thinking
Question 28. Eden and Edward are chatting after work. Eden suggests eating out.
- Eden. “Shall we eat out tonight?”
- Edward. ___________!”
A. That’s all right B. That’s a great idea
C. It is very kind of you. D. You are very welcome.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. People are not aware of the problem of overpopulation.
A. incident B. issue C. trouble D. case
Question 30. He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking.
A. frightens me B. cheers me C. irritates me D. surprises me
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. In this world, emotion has become suspect- the accepted style is smooth, antiseptic
and passionless.
A. soft B. agitated C. silky D. easy
Question 32. Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. busy with B. free from C. relaxed about D. interested in
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Is it worth reading books, (33) ___________ nowadays there are so many other forms of
entertainment? Some people say that even paperback books are expensive, and not everyone can
borrow books from a library. They might add that television is more exciting and that viewers
can relax as they watch their favourite (34) ___________. All that may be true, but books are
still very popular. They encourage the reader to use his or her imagination for a start. You can
read a chapter of a book, or just a few pages, and then stop. Of course, it may be so
(35)___________that you can’t stop! There are many different kinds of books, so you can
choose a crime novel or an autobiography, or a book (36) ___________gives you interesting
information. If you find it hard to choose, you can read reviews, or ask friends for ideas.
Personally, I can’t do without books, but I can (37) ___________up television easily enough.
You can’t watch television at bus stops!
Question 33. A. in B. or C. why D. since
Question 34. A. ones B. programmes C. episodes D. cereals
Question 35. A. current B. imagined C. interest D. gripping
Question 36. A. whose B. which C. what D. when
Question 37. A. pick B. look C. give D. turn
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the worlds universities, came
from very inauspicious and humble beginning.
This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the Pilgrims
landed at Plymouth. Included in the Puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony during this
period were more than 100 graduates of England’s prestigious Oxford and Cambridge
universities, and these universities graduates in the New World were determined that their sons
would have the same educational opportunities that they themselves had had. Because of this
support in the colony for an institution of higher learning, the General Court of Massachusetts
appropriated 400 pounds for a college in October of 1636 and early the following year decided
on a parcel of land for the school; this land was in an area called Newetowne, which was later
renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and is the site of the present-day university.
When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of
Charlestown, died from tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds to the
fledgling college. In spite of the fact that only half of the bequest was actually paid, the General
Court named the college after the minister in appreciation for what he had done. The amount of
the bequest may not have been large, particularly by today’s standard, but it was more than the
General Court had found it necessary to appropriate in order to open the college.
Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be noted that
in addition to serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering freshmen class
of four students. Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence
the entire teaching staff consisted of the president and three or four tutors.
Question 38. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Harvard is one of the world’s most prestigious universities
B. What is today a great university started out small
C. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university
D. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of Massachusetts
Question 39. The pronoun “they” in the second paragraph refers to___________
A. Oxford and Cambridge universities B. university graduates
C. the Puritan sons D. educational opportunities
Question 40. The word “somewhat” in the last paragraph could best be replaced by___________
A. to and fro B. back and forth C. side by side D. more or less
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard?
A. What he died of B. where he came from
C. Where he was buried D. How much he bequeathed to Harvard
Question 42. The passage implies that___________
A. Henry Dunster was an ineffective president
B. someone else really served as president of Harvard before Henry Dunster
C. Henry Dunster spent much of his time as president managing the Harvard faculty
D. the position of president of Harvard was not merely an administrative position in the early
years Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Psychologists who study information processing have identified and described several memory
structures that clarify how our memory works. They include the sensory register, short-term
memory, and long-term memory. Each structure varies as to how much information it can hold
and for how long. A description of how human process information typically begins with
environmental stimuli. Our sense receptors are constantly stimulated by visual, auditory, tactile,
olfactory, and gustatory stimuli. These experiences are initially recorded in the sensory register,
so named because information is thought to be encoded there in the same form in which it was
perceived. The purpose of the sensory register is to hold information one to three seconds.
Information not recognized or otherwise selected by us disappears from the system. The sensory
register can hold about twelve items of information at a time. Typists make extensive use of the
sensory register in order to remember words just long enough to get them typed. If no further
processing takes place, a typist’s ability to recall that information later is minimal. Similarly,
most of us have had the experience of reading an entire page of text, only to discover when we
got to the bottom of the page, we couldn’t say anything about it except that we had indeed “read”
every word. Once information has been recognized as meaningful, it is sent to short-term
memory. In this case, short-term is approximately 20 seconds, while this may seem surprising, it
can be easily demonstrated. If you were asked to dial an unfamiliar phone number, received a
busy signal, and were then distracted by something or someone else for 15 to 20 seconds,
chances are you would have forgotten the number at that point. Short-term memory is often
referred to as “working” memory.
Most cognitive psychologists believe that the storage capacity of long-term memory is unlimited
and contains a permanent record of everything an individual has learned and experienced.
Information is encoded there to enhance its meaningfulness and organization so that it can be
easily retrieved when necessary.
Question 43. what is the purpose of the passage?
A. to explain how our memory processes information.
B. to describe the sensory register.
C. to explain why we sometimes forget information.
D. to compare short-term and long-term memory.
Question 44. The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to___________.
A. psychologists B. information C. memory structures D. environmental stimuli
Question 45. The word “stimuli” in lines 4 and 5 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. objects or events that activate our memory
B. objects we consider attractive
C. things that help us to later recall what happened
D. situations in which we experience emotions
Question 46. According to the passage, typists are unable to recall information they type
if___________.
A. they are tired
B. they are distracted by something or someone
C. they have too much work to be able to process it all
D. they do not recognize it as meaningful enough to remember
Question 47. The word “minimal” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to___________.
A. very big B. very good C. very pretty D. very small
Question 48. According to the passage, which type of information is sent to short-term memory?
A. Information we need for three seconds or less.
B. Information that surprises us.
C. Information that is relevant to us.
D. Environmental stimuli we do not perceive.
Question 49. It can be inferred that short-term memory is called “working” memory
because___________.
A. we use it extensively when we are working
B. it holds information we are working on at a given moment
C. it is very difficult to use effectively
D. we must work hard to retrieve information from it.
Question 50. which of the following would we most easily retrieve from long-term memory?
A. A wrong telephone number we dialed.
B. The face of a stranger on the street.
C. The birth date of our children
D. Voices from the television in the background
Đáp án
1-D 2-C 3-B 4-C 5-D 6-C 7-B 8-A 9-B 10-A

11-A 12-D 13-A 14-A 15-B 16-C 17-B 18-C 19-D 20-A

21-B 22-D 23-D 24-B 25-B 26-B 27-D 28-B 29-B 30-C

31-B 32-B 33-D 34-B 35-D 36-B 37-C 38-B 39-B 40-D

41-C 42-D 43-A 44-C 45-A 46-D 47-D 48-C 49-B 50-C
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ SỐ 05
NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. grows B. tends C. roars D. sweeps
Question 2. A. performed B. finished C. interviewed D. delivered
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. justice B. struggle C. neglect D. wildlife
Question 4. A. eradicate B. unexpected C. accompany D. commitment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. We___________in silence when he suddenly___________me to help him.
A. walked - was asking B. were walking - asked
C. were walking - was asking D. walked - asked
Question 6. I don’t know why John always refuses___________me in person.
A. to meet B. meeting C. met D. to meeting
Question 7. It___________Sue that you saw last night. She’s abroad with her family.
A. should have been B. must have been C. can’t have been D. needn’t have been
Question 8. At one time the entire world___________by dinosaurs.
A. has ruled B. was ruled C. will be ruled D. was ruling
Question 9. I asked Martha___________to enter law school.
A. are you planning B. is she planning C. was she planning D. if she was
planning
Question 10. Extinction means a situation___________a plan, an animal or a way of life etc
...stops existing.
A. to which B. in which C. on which D. for which
Question 11. ___________he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Hardly had B. No sooner had C. No longer has D. Not until had
Question 12. Let’s begin our discussion now, ___________?
A. shall we B. will we C. don’t we D. won’t we
Question 13. The more___________and positive you look, the better you will feel.
A. confidence B. confident C. confide D. confidently
Question 14. Mr. Pike is certainly a___________writer; he has written quite a few books this
year.
A. prolific B. fruitful C. fertile D. successful
Question 15. The 1st week of classes at university is a little___________because so many
students get lost, change classes or go to the wrong place.
A. uncontrolled B. arranged C. chaotic D. notorious
Question 16. Due to the computer malfunction, all our data was lost. So unhappily, we had to
begin all the calculations from___________.
A. onset B. source C. original D. scratch
Question 17. The players’ protests___________no difference to the referees decision at all.
A. did B. made C. caused D. created
Question 18. Although he is my friend, I___________find it hard to his selfishness.
A. put up with B. catch up with C. keep up with D. come down with
Mark A, B, C, orD on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 19. A number of wild horses on Assateague is increasing, resulting in overgrazed
marsh and dune grasses.
A. A B. is C. resulting D. grasses
Question 20. Upon reaching the destination, a number of personnel are expected changing their
reservations and proceed to Hawaii.
A. reaching B. are C. changing D. proceed
Question 21. Although the Red cross accepts blood from most donors, the nurse will not let you
to give blood if you have just had cold.
A. accepts B. let C. to give D. have just had cold.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. “I’ll drop you from the team if you don’t train harder,” said the captain to John.
A. John was reminded to train harder so as not to be dropped from the team.
B. The captain threatened to drop John from the team unless he trained harder.
C. The captain urged that John should train harder in order not to be dropped from the team.
D. The captain promised to drop John from the team in case he trained harder.
Question 23. It’s possible that Joanna didn’t receive my message.
A. Joanna shouldn’t have received my message.
B. Joanna needn’t have received my message.
C. Joanna mightn’t have received my message.
D. Joanna can’t have received my message.
Question 24. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
A. The noise next door stopped at midnight.
B. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.
C. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
D. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. Julian dropped out of college after his first year. Now he regrets it.
A. Julian regretted having dropped out of college after his first year.
B. Julian wishes he didn’t drop out of college after his first year.
C. Julian regrets having dropped out of college after his first year.
D. Only if Julian had dropped out of college after his first year.
Question 26. Seth informed us of his retirement from the company. He did it when arriving at the
meeting.
A. Only after his retiring from the company did Seth tell us about his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Seth said to us that he would leave the company did he turn up at the meeting
C. Hardly had Seth notified us of his retiring from the company when he arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Seth arrived at the meeting than we were told about his leaving the company.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. A mother is complaining to her son that his room gets dusty.
- Mother: “Haven’t you tidied up your room yet?”
- Son: “___________”
A. I will, after I do all the exercises in my textbook.
B. I am tired with my tidying.
C. The more I tidy, the worse it gets.
D. Why don’t you give me a hand with cleaning?
Question 28. Linda and Janet are talking about family living under one roof.
Linda: “I think it’s a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof. They can
help one another.” Janet: “___________. Many old-aged parents like to lead independent life in a
nursing home.”
A. It’s nice to hear that B. Me, too.
C. I agree with you completely D. That’s not true
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaaningto the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment.
A. all long day B. day after day C. all day long D. the long day
Question 30.1 just want to stay at home and watch TV and take it easy.
A. relax B. sit down C. sleep D. eat
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31. In a study, more Asian students than American students hold a belief that a husband
is obliged to tell his wife his whereabouts if he comes home late.
A. urged B. free C. required D. suggested
Question 32. Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new
management system, he just made light of it.
A. completely ignored B. treated as important
C. disagreed with D. discovered by chance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
CYBERFASHION Most of us own modern gadgets such as mobile phones, or digital cameras.
We may carry them round in our pockets, or attach them to our bodies. But not for much longer!
So far designers have succeeded in (33) ___________tiny bits of technology directly into our
clothing. In actual fact “cyberfashion” is the latest trend! One example, the Musical Jacket, is
already in the shops and stores. This jacket is silk. It is (34) ___________by a keyboard, also
manufactured from fabric, which is connected to a tiny device (35) ___________plays music.
At present, you have to touch a shoulder pad to hear the music. But in the future, you will be able
to operate the device just by turning your wrist or walking! For many athletes, scientists have
invented a smart shirt which measures your heart rate, body temperature and respiration rate!
(36) ___________, the most romantic piece of cyberfashion must be the Heartthrob Brooch.
This item of jewellery, made from diamonds and rubies, has two miniature transmitters. They
make the brooch glow in time to the beating of its wearers heart. If you meet someone (37)
___________, your heart will beat faster - and your brooch will let everyone know how you feel!
Question 33. A. dividing B. associate C. combining D. integrating
Question 34. A. monitored B. examined C. controlled D. managed
Question 35. A. that B. what C. who D. when
Question 36. A. Although B. However C. Moreover D. While
Question 37. A. gorge B. gorgeously C. gorgeousness D. gorgeous
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
Imagine the busy streets of New York City, an enormous place with millions of people.
Everyday, the streets are congested with people going about their daily lives. Now imagine a
small robot in the middle of all of those people rolling down a busy sidewalk. Most people would
not even notice the ten- inch smiling robot, called a Tweenbot, rolling along the street. This
strange machine may interest some people, while others would ignore it completely. A
researcher interested in studying how helpful people really are uses such robots in her
experiments that take place on the streets of New York.
The Tweenbots experiment is the idea and creation of Kacie Kinzer. Kinzer s idea was to make a
robot that could navigate the city and reach its destination only if it was aided by pedestrians.
Tweenbots rely on the kindnessof warm-hearted strangers. Made simply of cardboard, wheels,
and a device to turn the wheels, the Tweenbots face many dangers on the city streets. They could
be run over by cars or smashed by careless kids. Kinzer thought her little robots might even be
seen as some kind of terrorist device. The only real protection a Tweenbot has is its friendly
smile. In addition to that, each of Kinzer’s robots is fitted with a flag that displays instructions
for the robot’s destination. The only way
these robots will reach their final point is if someone lends them a hand. Tweenbots are
essentially a social experiment aimed at providing people a chance to show how caring they are.
On a daily basis, people in New York City are often in a hurry to get around. However, the
Tweenbots, through their inability to look after themselves, took people out of their normal
routines. The people who noticed the helpless little robots were actually interested in helping the
Tweenbots find their way home. Tweenbots move at a constant speed and can only go in a
straight line. If one was to get stuck, or was going in the wrong direction, it would be up to
strangers to free it or turn it in the right direction. Surprisingly, no Tweenbot was lost or
damaged, and each one arrived at its target in good condition. In
fact, most people treated the robot in a gentle manner, and some even treated it as though it were
a small living being. Even if you were in a rush to go somewhere, would you stop and help a
Tweenbot successfully reach its destination?
Question 38. what is this reading about?
A. A place to buy robots B. A new kind of toy
C. An experiment D. An interesting idea for the future
Question 39. what is a Tweenbot?
A. A person from New York City B. A ten-inch smiling robot
C. A pedestrian D. A terrorist device
Question 40. The word “congested” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________
A. flocked B. secluded C. stuffed D. crowded
Question 41. How did a Tweenbot get to its final destination?
A. With the help of other Tweenbots.
B. With the help of kind pedestrians on the street
C. With the help of Kacie Kinzer.
D. With the help of other robots in New York City.
Question 42. which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. Most Tweenbots arrived at their destination damaged or broken.
B. Most people treated the Tweenbots in a gentle manner.
C. Tweenbots could not navigate the city on their own.
D. Tweenbots move at a constant speed and can only go in a straight line.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
Being aware of one’s own emotions - recognizing and acknowledging feelings as they happen -
is at the very heart of Emotional Intelligence. And this awareness encompasses not only moods
but also thoughts about those moods. People who are able to monitor their feelings as they arise
are less likely to be ruled by them and are thus better able to manage their emotions. Managing
emotions does not mean suppressing them; nor does it mean giving free rein to every feeling.
Psychologist Daniel Goleman, one of several authors who have popularized the notion of
Emotional Intelligence, insisted that the goal is balance and that every feeling has value and
significance. As Goleman said, “A life without passion would be a dull wasteland of neutrality,
cut off and isolated from the richness of life itself.” Thus, we manage our emotions by
expressing them in an appropriate manner. Emotions can also be managed by engaging in
activities that cheer us up, soothe our hurts, or reassure us when we feel anxious.
Clearly, awareness and management of emotions are not independent. For instance, you might
think that individuals who seem to experience their feelings more intensely than others would be
less able to manage them. However, a critical component of awareness of emotions is the ability
to assign meaning to them - to know why we are experiencing a particular feeling or mood.
Psychologists have found that, among individuals who experience intense emotions, individual
differences in the ability to assign meaning to those feelings predict differences in the ability to
manage them. In other words, if two individuals are intensely angry, the one who is better able
to understand why he or she is angry will also be better able to manage the anger. Self-
motivation refers to strong emotional self-control, which enables a person to get moving and
pursue worthy goals, persist at tasks even when frustrated, and resist the temptation to act on
impulse. Resisting impulsive behavior is, according to Goleman, “the root of all emotional self-
control.”
Of all the attributes of Emotional Intelligence, the ability to postpone immediate gratification and
to persist in working toward some greater future gain is most closely related to success - whether
one is trying to build a business, get a college degree, or even stay on a diet. One researcher
examined whether this trait can predict a child’s success in school. The study showed that 4-
year-old children who can delay instant gratification in order to advance toward some future goal
will be “far superior as students” when they graduate from high school than will 4-year-old who
are not able to resist the impulse to satisfy their immediate wishes.
Question 43. which of the following can we infer from paragraph 1?
A. Some people can understand their feelings better than others.
B. People who can manage their emotions will be controlled by them.
C. If people pay attention to their feelings, they will not be able to manage them.
D. If people pay attention to their feelings, they can control their emotions better.
Question 44. The word “encompasses” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ___________
A. maintains B. includes C. entertains D. divides
Question 45. The word “soothe” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by___________.
A. reduce B. weaken C. worsen D. relieve
Question 46. From paragraph 2, we can see that Daniel Goleman___________
A. trained people to increase their Emotional Intelligence
B. treated patients who had emotional problems
C. wrote about Emotional Intelligence
D. studied how people manage their emotions
Question 47. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about our emotions
EXCEPT___________.
A. every feeling is important B. we can manage our emotions
C. emotions are part of a satisfying life D. we should ignore some feelings
Question 48. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. psychologists B. individuals
C. individual differences D. intense emotions
Question 49. In paragraph 3, the author explains the concept of awareness and management of
emotions by___________.
A. describing how people learn to control their emotions
B. giving an example of why people get angry
C. comparing how two people might respond to an intense emotion
D. explaining why some people are not aware of their emotions
Question 50. According to paragraph 5, children might be more successful in school if they can
resist impulses because they can ___________.
A. easily understand new information
B. be more popular with their teachers
C. have more friends at school
D. focus on their work and not get distracted
Đáp án
1-D 2-B 3-C 4-B 5-B 6-A 7-C 8-B 9-D 10-B
11-A 12-A 13-B 14-A 15-C 16-D 17-B 18-A 19-A 20-C
21-C 22-B 23-C 24-C 25-C 26-D 27-A 28-D 29-C 30-A
31-B 32-B 33-D 34-C 35-A 36-B 37-D 38-C 39-B 40-D
41-B 42-A 43-D 44-B 45D 46-C 47-D 48-D 49-C 50-D
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

ĐỀ SỐ 06 NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. heritage B. package C. passage D. teenage
Question 2. A. clothes B. bosses C. boxes D. couches
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. desert B. dessert C. centre D. circle
Question 4. A. medieval B. managerial C. mediocre D. magnificent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Due to the economic unrest, people___________happy lately.
A. hadn’t been B. aren’t C. weren’t D. haven’t been
Question 6. Television can make things memorable for the reason that it presents
information___________an effective way.
A. over B. with C. in D. on
Question 7. ___________how confident you are, it is almost impossible not to be a little nervous
before an important exam.
A. No matter B. Eventhough C. Not only D. whereas
Question 8. The Principal usually has his pupils___________waste paper for their mini-project.
A. collect B. having collected C. collected D. to collect
Question 9. Neither of the boys came to school yesterday, ___________?
A. didn’t they B. does they C. did they D. doesn’t they
Question 10. Anna is holding her shopping bag with one hand and turning the door handle with .
A. another B. the other C. other D. others
Question 11. ___________that Columbus discovered America.
A. It was in 1492 B. There was in 1492
C. In 1492 D. That was in 1492
Question 12. ___________be needed, the river basin would need to be dammed.
A. Hydroelectric power should B. When hydroelectric power
C. Hydroelectric power D. Should hydroelectric power
Question 13. Most office furniture is bought more on the basis of___________than comfort.
A. afford B. affording C. afforded D. affordability
Question 14. Although our opinions on many things___________, we still maintain a good
relationship with each other.
A. differ B. receive C. maintain D. separate
Question 15. The pointless war between the two countries left thousands of people dead and
seriously___________.
A. injured B. wounded C. spoilt D. damaged
Question 16. He enjoyed the dessert so much that he accepted the second___________when it
was offered.
A. sharing B. helping C. pile D. load
Question 17. I’ve just been offered a new job! Things are___________.
A. clearing up B. making up C. looking up D. turning up
Question 18. Ihe children had to___________in the principal’s office after they took part in a
fight.
A. hit the right notes B. beat around the bush
C. play second fiddle D. face the music
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Mobility is one of the characteristics often demanded of executives, and they must
accustom themselves to move quite regularly.
A. Mobility B. characteristics C. of D. to move
Question 20. Every city in the United States has traffic problems because the amount of cars
on American streets and highways is increasing every year.
A. in the United States B. traffic
C. amount D. on American streets
Question 21. Parents’ choices for their children’s names is based on names of their relatives or
ancestors.
A. choice B. their C. is based D. relatives
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. More petrol is consumed nowadays than ten years ago.
A. Not so much petrol was consumed ten years ago as nowadays.
B. Petrol consumption is going down nowadays.
C. We had more petrol ten years ago than we do nowadays.
D. We should consume as much petrol as possible.
Question 23. The problem was so complicated that the students couldn’t understand it.
A. It was such complicated problem that the students couldn’t understand.
B. The problem wasn’t simple enough for the students to understand it.
C. The problem was too complicated for the students to understand.
D. It was so complicated problems that the students couldn’t understand
Question 24. My American friend finds it difficult to pick up food with chopsticks.
A. My American friend doesn’t feel like picking up food with chopsticks.
B. My American friend can’t find chopsticks to pick up food.
C. My American friend didn’t used to pick up food with chopsticks.
D. My American friend is not used to picking up food with chopsticks.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that a best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.
B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
Question 26. She fell over in the last minutes. She didn’t win the race.
A. If she didn’t fall over in the last minutes, she would win the race.
B. She didn’t win the race even though she fell over in the last minutes
C. Not having won the race, she fell over in the last minutes
D. She could have won the race if she hadn’t fallen over in the last minutes.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following questions.
Question 27. Jenny: “Wow! what a nice coat you are wearing!”
Peter: “___________”
A. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. B. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
C. I like you to say that. D. Yes, of course. It’s expensive.
Question 28. Stranger. “Excuse me! Can you show me the way to Main Street, please?”
Man. “___________”
A. Continue. B. It’s easy to do it.
C. Um, I am sorry I have no idea. D. Am I going right?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. By being thrifty and shopping wisely, housewives in the city can feed an entire
family on as little as 500.000 VND a week.
A. luxurious B. economical C. sensible D. miserable
Question 30. Gerry didn’t go on the expedition - he made up that part of the story.
A. invented B. narrated C. unfolded D. recounted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31. About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but
most, like the starfish and crabs, live in the ocean.
A. with backbones B. with ribs C. without ribs D. without backbones
Question 32. If you say bad things about the person who give a job you bite the hand that feeds
you.
A. be unfriendly B. be ungrateful C. be thankful D. be devoted
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
(33) ___________in technology have made a lot of changes to our everyday lifestyles, but one of
the biggest has got to be how we read books. Since the invention of the e-book, there has been a
significant change to our reading habits. Given the choice between taking a couple of heavy
paperbacks on holiday or an e-book device like a Kindle, most of us, including our parents and
grandparents, would unsurprisingly opt (34) ___________the Kindle.
But what would our lives be like with no books at all? It’s a (35) ___________question. Some
educational specialists are making predictions that in the future we wont even see books in
classrooms - everything will be done online! (36) ___________of the idea of getting rid of books
say that there will always be a need for paper-based versions of materials. However, to be
realistic, we have to accept that there is a (37) ___________chance that in a decade’s time
schools and classrooms will be book-free! what do you think of that?
Question 33. A. Progression B. Successes C. Increases D. Advances
Question 34. A. of B. on C. for D. at
Question 35. A. special B. naughty C. funny D. tricky
Question 36. A. Alternatives B. Contestants C. Opponents D. Enemies
Question 37. A. remote B. far C. long D. distant
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Bitcoins are a form of virtual currency. In other words, they are a type of money that does not
exist in the actual world. However, they can be used to purchase actual products and services
from real companies.
The bitcoin system was created in 2009 by an enigmatic person named Satoshi Nakamoto. In
fact, no one is sure if Satoshi Nakamoto is an actual person or a group of people. Bitcoins are
designed to serve as an alternative to national currencies, such as dollars and euros. They can be
used to pay for things instead of cash or credit cards, when bitcoins are transferred from a buyer
to a seller, the transaction is recorded in a public database. Governments are concerned that
bitcoins can easily be stolen by hackers. It has dawned on them that
they might be used for illegal purposes. For example, stolen goods could be purchased without
the government’s knowledge. Although more and more companies are beginning to accept
bitcoins, the percentage of purchases made using bitcoins is minuscule compared to other online
payment methods, such as credit cards. Instead, many bitcoin owners simply keep them as an
investment since more valuable in the future. This may or may not be a wise approach.
Currently, the value of bitcoins is fluctuating wildly, especially when compared to highly stable
national currencies, Bitcoin Investors are gambling on the hope that as this high-tech money
becomes more widely accepted, its value will soar. (Adaptedfrom,
https.//www.digitalcommerce360.com/)
Question 38. What is the passage mainly about?
A. A new kind of currency in the virtual world
B. A way of doing business in the virtual world
C. An alternative to bitcoins created by Nakamoto
D. The future of bitcoins in the real world.
Question 39. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to___________
A. dollars B. euros C. things D. bitcoins
Question 40. The word “minuscule” is closest in meaning to___________
A. considerable B. small C. minimal D. increasing
Question 41. why are bitcoins of great concern to governments?
A. Because the value of bitcoins is fluctuating wildly.
B. Because bitcoins will eventually replace national currencies.
C. Because bitcoins may be used in illegal transactions.
D. Because most of bitcoin owners are hackers.
Question 42. Which of the following is defined in the passage?
A. Bitcoins B. Transactions C. Credit cards D. Public Database
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
WHY DON’T YOU GET A PROPER JOB?
She wants to be a singer; you think she should go for a long-term career with job security and
eventually retire with a good pension. But a new report suggests that in fact she’s the practical
one.
Why do parents make terrible careers advisers?
Today’s 14 and 15-year-olds are ambitious. They are optimistic about their prospects, but their
career ideas are rather vague. Although 80% of them have no intention of following in their
parents’ footsteps, 69% still turn to their parents for advice. They look at their working future in
a different way to their parents. A job for life is not in their vocabulary; neither is a dead-end but
secure job that is boring but pays the bills. Almost half the boys surveyed expected that their
hobbies would lead them into the right sort of
job, while most girls seemed determined to avoid traditionally female careers such as nursing.
In the past, this might have counted as bad news. Certainly when I was 15, my guidance
counsellors were horrified at my plans to become a writer. I’m glad I didn’t change my plans to
suit them. Even so, their faith in rigid career paths was well-founded. In those days, that was the
way to get ahead. But the world has changed. The global economy is not kind to yesterday’s
diligent and dependable
worker. The future belongs to quick-thinking people who are resourceful, ambitious and can take
the initiative. This means that a 14-year-old who sees her working future as a kind of adventure,
to be made up as she goes along is not necessarily being unrealistic.
However, she has to have the training and guidance to help her develop the right skills for
today’s market; not the rigid preparation for a workplace that disappeared twenty years ago.
Many young people are very aware of the pitfalls of the flexible workplace; they understand
that redundancy, downsizing and freelancing are all part of modern working life, but no one is
telling them how they might be able to turn the new rules of the employment game to their
advantage. This is what they need to know if they are to make a life for themselves.
So what is to be done? A good first step would be to change the way in which schools prepare
young people for adult life. The education system is becoming less flexible and more obsessed
with traditional skills at just the time that the employment market is going in the opposite
direction. Accurate, up-to-date information on new jobs and qualifications can help guidance
counsellors to help their students. Young people need solid information on the sort of training
they need to pursue the career of their dreams. Also, a little bit of encouragement can go a long
way. If nothing else, a bit of optimism from an adult can serve as an antidote to the constant
criticism of teenagers in the press.
What, then, can we as parents do to help them? The best thing is to forget all the advice that your
parents gave you, and step into your teenagers shoes. Once you’ve done that, it’s easier to see
how important it is that they learn how to be independent, resourceful and resilient. Give them
the courage to follow their dreams -however odd they might sound right now. In a world that
offers economic security to almost no one, imagination is a terrible thing to waste.
Question 43. What is the writer’s attitude to the changing job market?
A. It is a challenge that must be faced.
B. It had made too many people unemployed.
C. It is something that young people are afraid of.
D. It has had a negative effect on education.
Question 44. How does the writer think the global economy has affected the employment
market?
A. Workers have to be willing to change jobs.
B. Workers are unlikely to receive a pension.
C. It has made workers less dependable.
D. It has made work more adventurous.
Question 45. The writer uses the phrase “aware of the pitfalls” to show that young
people___________
A. feel that modern jobs are too flexible B. know about the problems of modern jobs
C. don’t think they get enough training D. accept that they will be made redundant
Question 46. What kind of employment would teenagers like to have?
A. A job similar to their parents. B. A job that gives them fulfillment.
C. A job that can also be a hobby. D. A job with economic security.
Question 47. The writer feels that most parents___________
A. give their children good career advice
B. do not tend to be particularly ambitious
C. have very traditional views about work
D. have realistic goals for their children
Question 48. How can parents help their children?
A. By trying to think the way they do B. By learning to be courageous
C. By ignoring advice given by others D. By becoming more independent
Question 49. what does the writer believe about her guidance counsellors?
A. That they should have treated her better. B. That the advice they gave was wrong
C. That they were in some ways right. D. That they had tried to ruin her career.
Question 50. What does the writer feel will happen if the education system does not change?
A. Young people will be discouraged from working.
B. Young people will receive mover criticism in the press,
C. Young people will be unable to fulfill their potential.
D. Young people will not be optimistic about their future.
Đáp án
1-D 2-A 3-B 4-D 5-D 6-C 7-A 8-A 9-C 10-B

11-A 12-D 13-D 14-A 15-B 16-B 17-C 18-D 19-D 20-C

21-C 22-A 23-C 24-D 25-D 26-D 27-A 28-C 29-B 30-A

31-A 32-C 33-D 34-C 35-D 36-C 37-A 38-A 39-D 40-B

41-C 42-A 43-A 44-D 45-B 46-B 47-B 48-A 49-C 50-B
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ SỐ 07 NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. scholarship B. architect C. cherish D. chorus
Question 2. A. honest B. honor C. vehicle D. height
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. private B. protect C. reform D. regard
Question 4. A. policeman B. eyewitness C. copyright D. dressmaker
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Our line of designer clothing is more expensive than____________ of our
competitor.
A. this B. those C. that D. their
Question 6. The boat was sailing north when a terrible storm____________.
A. was breaking B. would break C. had broken D. broke
Question 7. It____________that neither the passengers nor the driver was injured in the crash
A. was announced B. is announcing C. is announced D. was announcing
Question 8. After____________goodbye to her friends, she got onto the bus.
A. to be said B. being said C. having said D. said
Question 9. It’s high time we____________these mice.
A. are getting rid of B. are going to get rid of
C. get rid of D. got rid of
Question 10. The lady____________design had been chosen stepped to the platform to receive
the award.
A. whom B. whose C. that D. which
Question 11. Professor Smith explained the lecture slowly____________.
A. as soon as his students understood it clearly
B. so that his students can understand it clearly
C. unless his students fail to understand it clearly
D. so that his students could understand it clearly
Question 12. Put all the toys away____________someone slips and falls on them.
A. provided that B. unless C. in case D. so long as
Question 13. The interviews with parents showed that the vast majority were____________of
teachers.
A. support B. supportive C. supporter D. supporting
Question 14. Some____________animals become tame if they get used to people.
A. wild B. domestic C. endangered D. rare
Question 15. She made a big____________about not having a window seat on the plane.
A. fuss B. complaint C. interest D. excitement
Question 16. After the robbery of the bank, the police____________of the robbers and arrested
the whole band.
A. kept pace B. took notice C. made use D. kept track
Question 17. After a good nights sleep he woke up feeling as fresh as____________and eager to
start work again.
A. fruit B. a daisy C. a kitten D. a maiden
Question 18. Bill seems unhappy about his job because he doesn’t get____________ his boss.
A. up to B. on for C. on well with D. in with
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. If I wasn’t been wearing the seatbelt, I’d have been seriously injured.
A. wasn’t B. wearing C. I’d D. seriously injured
Question 20. The receptionist said I must fill in that form before I attended the interview.
A. The B. I must C. that form D. attended
Question 21. They had a discussion about training not only the new employees but also giving
them some challenges.
A. about B. training not only C. giving D. some changes
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. Mary exclaimed that the singer’s voice was so sweet.
A. “How sweet is the singer’s voice?” said Mary.
B. “What a sweet voice the singer has” said Mary.
C. “How sweet voice the singer is” said Mary.
D. “What a sweet voice the singer is” said Mary.
Question 23. Without skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.
A. But for skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
B. With skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
C. Had it not been for skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
D. He wouldn’t have survived the operation if it hadn’t been for skillful surgery.
Question 24. The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do.
A. It was such an embarrassing situation; however, she did not know what to do.
B. So embarrassing was the situation that she did not know what to do.
C. So embarrassing the situation was that she did not know what to do.
D. She did not know what to do, though it was not an embarrassing situation.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot. She could hardly improve her
performance
A. However much Laura practiced playing the instrument, she could hardly perform any better.
B. As soon as Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot, she could perform much better
C . Had Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot, she could have performed much better.
D. Hardly had Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot when she could improve her
performance.
Question 26. The boy lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers. The doctors are
operating
on him.
A. The boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers is being operating on.
B. The boy whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of
firecrackers.
C. The boy was whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of
firecrackers.
D. The doctors are operating on the boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Bill and Jerry are in a coffee shop.
- Bill: “Can I get you another drink.”
- Jerry: “____________”
A. No, it isn’t B. Not just now C. No, I’ll think it over D. Forget it
Question 28. Mary and her son are in the kitchen.
- Mary: “Watch out or you’ll hurt yourself!”
- Son: “____________”
A. Yes, I won’t do that again B. That’s a good idea
C. Thank you! D. I totally agree with you.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. The game of life is a lot like football. You have to tackle your problems, block your
fears, and score your points when you get the opportunity.
A. have B. take C. gain D. fulfill
Question 30. Because of a piece of paper in the soup bowl, the old lady raised a ballyhoo about it
at the restaurant.
A. made a fuss B. appeased C. applauded D. complained
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has
won a lot of prizes.
A. advantage B. obstacle C. barrier D. disadvantage
Question 32. She told him she’d spent all her savings but he didn’t bat an eyelid.
A. didn’t tell anything B. showed surprise
C. didn’t care D. refused to listen
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Tattooing is an old art. Tattooing is an old art. In ancient Greece, people who had tattoos were
(33) ____________as members of the upper classes. On the other hand, tattooing was banned in
Europe by the early Christians, (34) thought that it was a sinful thing to do. It was not (35)
____________ the late 18th century, when Captain Cook saw South Sea Islander decorating their
bodies with tattoos that attitudes began to change. Sailors came back from these islands with
pictures of Christ on their backs and from then on, tattooing gained(36)____________popularity.
A survey by the French army in 1881 showed that among the 387 men questioned there were
1,333 designs.
Nowadays, not everybody finds tattoos acceptable. Some people thing that getting one is silly
because tattoos are more or less permanent. There is also some (37) ____________about
catching a blood disease from unsterilized needles. Even for those who do want a tattoo, the
process of getting one is not painless, but the final result, in their eyes, is worth the pain.
Question 33. A. supposed B. realised C. held D. regarded
Question 34. A. who B. that C. they D. whose
Question 35. A. by far B. since C. because D. until
Question 36. A. at B. on C. in D. of
Question 37. A. danger B. trouble C. concern D. threat
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42. Jupiter is the largest and most massive
planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun. It is well placed for observation for several
months in every year and on average is the brightest of the planets apart from Venus, though for
relatively brief periods Mars may outshine it. Jupiter’s less than 10-hour rotation period gives it
the shortest day in the solar system in so far as the principal planets are concerned. There are no
true seasons on Jupiter because the axial inclination to the perpendicular of the
orbital plane is only just over 3°-less than that for any other planet.
The most famous mark on Jupiter is the Great Red spot. It has shown variations in both intensity
and color, and at times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years. At its greatest
extent it may be 40,000 kilometers long and 14,000 kilometers wide, so its surface area is greater
than that of Earth. Though the latitude of the Red Spot varies little, it drifts about in longitude.
Over the past century the total longitudinal drift has amounted to approximately 1200°. The
latitude is generally very close to -22°. It was once thought that the Red Spot might be a solid or
semisolid body floating in Jupiter’s outer gas. However, the Pioneer and Voyager results have
refuted that idea and proven the Red Spot to be a phenomenon of Jovian meteorology. Its
longevity may well due to its exceptional size, but there are signs that it is decreasing in size,
and it may not be permanent. Several smaller red spots have been seen occasionally but have not
lasted.
Question 38. According to the passage, which planet typically shines the most brightly?
A. Earth B. Jupiter C. Venus D. Mars
Question 39. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ____________
A. Jupiter B. The Great Red Spot C. intensity D. color
Question 40. The word “exceptional” in paragraph 2 mostly means____________
A. extreme B. sustainable C. temporary D. infrequent
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Jupiter is bigger than all other planet in the solar system
B. A day in Jupiter is nearly 10 hours long
C. The Red Great Spot moves more vertically than horizontally
D. Scientists have proof showing that smaller red spots are increasing their size to become other
Great Red Spots.
Question 42. The passage was probably taken from____________
A. an art journal B. a geology magazine
C. a high school textbook D. an archaeology book
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Mickey Mantle was one of the greatest baseball players of all time. He played for the New York
Yankees in their years of glory. From the time Mantle began to play professionally in 1951 to his
last year in 1968, baseball was the most popular game in the United States. For many people,
Mantle symbolized the hope, prosperity, and confidence of America at that time.
Mantle was a fast and powerful player, a “switch-hitter” who could bat both right-handed and
left- handed. He won game after game, one World Series championship after another, for his
team. He was a wonderful athlete, but this alone cannot explain Americas fascination with him.
Perhaps it was because he was a handsome, red-haired country boy, the son of a poor miner from
Oklahoma. His career, from the lead mines of the West to the heights of success and fame, was a
fairy-tale version of the American dream. Or perhaps it was because America always loves a
“natural”: a person who wins without seeming to try, whose talent appears to come from an inner
grace. That was Mickey Mantle.
But like many celebrities, Mickey Mantle had a private life that was full of problems. He played
without complaint despite constant pain from injuries. He lived to fulfill his father’s dreams and
drank to forget his father’s early death. It was a terrible addiction that finally destroyed his body.
It gave him cirrhosis of the liver and accelerated the advance of liver cancer. Even when Mickey
Mantle had turned away from his old life and warned young people not to follow his example,
the destructive process could not be stopped.
Despite a liver transplant operation that had all those who loved and admired him hoping for a
recovery, Mickey Mantle died of cancer at the age of 63.
Question 43. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Mickey Mantle’s success and his private life full of problems
B. Mickey Mantle as the greatest baseball player of all time
C. Mickey Mantle and the history of baseball
D. Mickey Mantle and his career as a baseball player
Question 44. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that Mantle____________
A. introduced baseball into the US
B. earned a lot of money from baseball
C. had to try hard to be a professional player
D. played for New York Yankees all his life
Question 45. The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. Mantles being fascinated by many people
B. Mantle’s being a wonderful athlete
C. Mantles being a “switch-hitter”
D. Mantle’s being a fast and powerful player

Question 46. The word “fulfill” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to____________.


A. achieve what is hoped for, wished for, or expected
B. do something in the way that you have been told
C. do what you have promised or agreed to do
D. get closer to something that you are chasing
Question 47. which of the following is mentioned as the main cause of the destruction of
Mantle’s body?
A. His way of life B. His loneliness
C. His own dream D. His liver transplant operation
Question 48. The word “cirrhosis” in paragraph 5 probably means____________
A. a danger B. an operation C. the destruction D. a serious disease
Question 49. All of the following are true about Mantle EXCEPT____________ .
A. He was born into a poor family but later achieved fame and success
B. He was so severely addicted to alcohol that he couldn’t give it up to the last days of his life
C. He could hit with the bat on either side of his body
D. His father’s early death exerted a negative influence on him.
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that for most Americans____________.
A. success in Mantle’s career was difficult to believe
B. Mantle had a lot of difficulty achieving fame and success
C. success in Mantle’s career was unnatural
D. Mantle had to be trained hard to become a good player.
Đáp án
1-C 2-D 3-A 4-A 5-C 6-D 7-A 8-C 9-D 10-B
11-D 12-C 13-B 14-A 15-A 16-D 17-B 18-C 19-A 20-B
21-B 22-B 23-D 24-B 25-A 26-D 27-B 28-A 29-C 30-A
31-A 32-B 33-D 34-A 35-D 36-C 37-C 38-C 39-B 40-D
41-D 42-B 43-A 44-B 45-B 46-A 47-A 48-D 49-B 50-A
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

ĐỀ SỐ 08 NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. whispered B. wandered C. sympathized D. sentenced
Question 2. A. compile B. facile C. facsimile D. textile
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. carpet B. country C. idea D. volume
Question 4. A. familiar B. uncertainty C. impatient D. arrogantly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I demand to know how this vase_____________, and no one is leaving till I find out.
A. got broken B. was breaking C. has broken D. is broke
Question 6. The more you practice speaking in public, _____________.
A. the more you become confident B. the more you become confidently
C. the greater confidence you become D. the more confident you become
Question 7. It is said the Robinhood robbed_____________rich and gave the money to poor.
A. a/ a B. a/ the C. the/ the D. the/ a
Question 8. Not only_____________among the largest animals that ever lived, but they are also
among the most intelligent.
A. some whales B. they are whales C. whales D. are whales
Question 9. _____________, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.
A. Intelligent as was the boy B. As intelligent the boy was
C. As the boy was intelligent D. Intelligent as the boy was
Question 10. There is no excuse for your late submission! You_____________the report by last
Monday.
A. should have finished B. mightn’t have finished
C. needn’t have finished D. must have finished
Question 11. My parents lent me the money. _____________, I couldn’t have afforded the trip.
A. Therefore B. Otherwise C. Only if D. However
Question 12. The biologists have found more than one thousand types of butterflies in the forest,
_____________its special characteristics.
A. each one has B. which has C. each having D. having
Question 13. John is feeling_____________because he hasn’t had enough sleep recently.
A. irritate B. irritation C. irritably D. irritable
Question 14. Jenny has an_____________command of Japanese cuisine.
A. intensive B. utter C. impressive D. extreme
Question 15. why are you always so jealous_____________other people?
A. in B. of C. below D. on
Question 16. The head teacher has asked me to take the new boy under my_____________and
look after him.
A. sleeves B. arm C. wing D. cloak
Question 17. The online game “Dumb ways to die” quickly_____________with young people
after being released in 2013.
A. took on B. caught up C. caught on D. took up
Question 18. Just think! Next month you’ll be_____________and it seems like only yesterday
you were a baby.
A. in your teens B. in your teenage C. teenager D. at your teens
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. The children are extremely excited about the visit to the town where their
grandparents were born in.
A. about B. were C. where D. the town
Question 20. Chandler was shocked when his entire class seemed to come down with the same
imaginative disease.
A. was shocked B. entire class C. come down with D. imaginative disease
Question 21. Transgender people are denied the ability to join the armed forces due to
discriminating policies implemented by the government.
A. Transgender B. are denied C. armed forces D. discriminating
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. “Please, let my child go!” she begged the kidnapper.
A. She begged the kidnapper to let her child to go.
B. She pleaded with the kidnapper to release her child.
C. She solemnly ordered the kidnapper to set her child free.
D. She pleaded the kidnapper to let her child go.
Question 23. Sometimes having professional assistance with your CV can increase your chance
of finding a job.
A. Having your CV professionally prepared determines whether you’ll get the job or not.
B. The prospects for finding employment can possibly be enhanced by a professionally
produced CV.
C. Having a professional help you with your CV is a sure way to find a job.
D. Without a professional CV, it is impossible to find a job
Question 24. It seems to me that we’ve taken the wrong train.
A. The trained turned out to be not the one we were supposed to have taken.
B. There is no chance that we’ll catch the train that we’re supposed to.
C. I have a feeling that this train is not the one we should be on.
D. I wish we had been more careful and taken the right train from the station.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. She was the first woman in the Philippines. She was elected as the president of the
country.
A. She was the first woman who is elected as the president of the Philippines.
B. She was the first woman elected as the president of the Philippines.
C. She was the first woman being elected as the president of the Philippines.
D. She was the first woman to be elected as the president of the Philippines.
Question 26. They are my two sisters. They aren’t teachers like me.
A. Unlike me, neither of my two sisters aren’t teachers.
B. They are my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me.
C. They are my two sisters, neither of whom is teacher like me.
D. They are my two sisters who neither are teachers like me.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Tony and Bob are talking in their classroom.
Tony: “We are buying Lily a graduation present.” - Bob: “_____________”
A. She’s out of my league. B. Can you all be more down-to-earth?
C. I’m raking in money now. D. Could I chip in?
Question 28. Mai and Joey are talking about their favorite pastimes.
Joey: “What sort of things do you like doing in your free time?” - Mai: “_____________”
A. I love checking out the shops for new clothes.
B. None. Been starved since 9 yesterday.
C. I hate shopping.
D. Nothing special. Just some photos I took on the trip to Nepal.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Some operations may have to be halted unless more blood donors come forward to
help.
A. offer B. claim C. attempt D. refuse
Question 30. The natives were angry when foreigners came to their country and took over their
land.
A. migrants B. tourists C. members D. locals
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. Later a wine reception will be followed by a concert before guests tuck into a
banquet.
A. a formal party B. a formal conference
C. an informal party D. an enormous breakfast
Question 32. The nominating committee always meet behind closed doors, lest its deliberations
become known prematurely.
A. dangerously B. safely C. privately D. publicly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Left-handers are the odd ones out. Sure, lefties (33) _____________up about 10 percent of the
population - but, frankly, it seems like society has forgotten about them. Just consider all of the
right-
handed gadgets, awkwardly designed desks, and cooking tools that fit comfortably only in your
right hand, what (34) _____________someone to become a lefthand? Scientists aren’t exactly
sure, but research points to a complex (35) _____________between genes and environment.
While no exact set of “leftie genes” have been discovered, people who dominantly use their left
hands
do have more left-handed family members. And researchers have found different brain wirings in
righties vs. lefties. But no matter (36) _____________it is that drives someone to use their
antipodal paw, science has also uncovered a particular set of personality traits that lefthanded
people tend to have. So for all of you lefties, leftie-loving righties, and ambidextrous folks out
there - it’s time to brush up on your left-handed knowledge and help (37) _____________an end
to leftie discrimination once and for all.
Question 33. A. consist B. account C. hold D. make
Question 34. A. causes B. makes C. gets D. does
Question 35. A. collaborate B. collaboration C. collaborating D.
collaborated
Question 36. A. which B. who C. what D. that
Question 37. A. put B. bring C. make D. take
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Trees are useful to man in three very important ways: they provide him with wood and other
products, they give him shade, and they help to prevent drought and floods.
Unfortunately, in many parts of the world man has not realized that the third of these services is
the most important. In his eagerness to draw quick profit from the trees, he has cut them down in
large numbers, only to find that without them he has lost the best friends he haD.
Two thousand years ago a rich and powerful country cut down its trees to build warships, with
which to gain itself an empire. It gained the empire but, without its trees, its soil became hard
and poor. When the empire fell to pieces, the country found itself faced by floods and starvation.
Even though a government realizes the importance of a plentiful supply of trees, it is difficult for
it to persuade the villager to see this. The villager wants wood to cook his food
with, and he can earn money by making charcoal or selling wood to the townsman. He is usually
too lazy or too careless to plant and look after trees. So unless the government has a good system
of control, or can educate the people, the forests will slowly disappear.
This does not only mean that there will be fewer trees. The results are even more serious. For
where there are trees their roots break the soil up, allowing the rain to sink in and also bind the
soil, thus preventing it being washed away easily, but where there are no trees, the soil becomes
hard and poor. The rain falls on hard ground and flows away on the surface, causing floods and
carrying away with it the rich topsoil, in which crops grow so well, when all the topsoil is gone,
nothing remains but a worthless desert.
Question 38. In the writer’s opinion, _____________, or the forests slowly disappear.
A. people shouldn’t draw benefit from the tree
B. measures must be taken
C. government must realize the serious results
D. unless trees never be cut down
Question 39. The word “bind ” in the passage probably means___________
A. to make wet B. to wash away C. to make stay together D. to improve
Question 40. In the last two paragraphs the writer wanted to make it clear that____________
A. where there are no trees, the soil becomes hard and poor
B. where there are no trees, the land might become desert slowly
C. where there are many trees, there are fewer floods
D. floods will make the land become desert
Question 41. It’s a great pity that in many places____________
A. man is not eager to make profits from trees
B. man hasn’t found out that he has lost all trees
C. man hasn’t realised the importance of trees to him
D. man is only interested in building empire
Question 42. Trees are useful to man mainly in three ways, the most important of which is that
they can ____________
A. keep him from the hot sunshine B. make him draw quick profit from them
C. enable him to build warships D. protecthim from drought and floods
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
PERCEPTIONS OF ANIMALS ACROSS CULTURES
When living and working in another country, there are numerous things to consider apart from
the more obvious ones of climate, language, religion, currency, etc. Some important
considerations are less obvious. For example, do you have a pet or do you enjoy a hobby such as
horse riding? Your animal or hobby may be perceived in a completely different light in another
culture so it’s important to consider the significance given to specific animals in different parts
of the world and general perceptions towards them.
One example which is often mentioned in popular press is the case of dogs. In some cultures,
like the US or UK, dogs are loved and considered a great pet to have at home and with the
family. In other cultures, such as those where Islam is the majority religion, dogs may be
perceived as dirty or dangerous. Muslims treatment of dogs is still a matter of debate amongst
Islamic scholars, while these animals are widely considered by many Western cultures to be
“mans best friend”, the Koran describes them as “unhygienic”. Muslims will therefore avoid
touching a dog unless he can wash his hands immediately afterwards, and they will almost never
keep a dog in their home.
In Iran, for instance, a cleric once denounced “the moral depravity” of dog owners and even
demanded their arrest. If you are an international assignee living and working in Saudi Arabia or
another Arabic country, you should remember this when inviting Arab counterparts to your
house in case you have a dog as a pet. This is just one example of how Islam and other cultural
beliefs can impact on aspects of everyday life that someone else may not even question. A
Middle Eastern man might be very surprised when going to Japan, for instance, and seeing dogs
being dressed and pampered like humans and carried around in baby prams!
Dogs are not the only animals which are perceived quite differently from one culture to another.
In India, for example, cows are sacred and are treated with the utmost respect. Conversely in
Argentina, beef is a symbol of national pride because of its tradition and the high quality of its
cuts. An Indian working in Argentina who has not done his research or participated in a cross
cultural training programme such as Doing Business in Argentina may be surprised at his first
welcome dinner with his Argentinean counterparts where a main dish of beef would be served.
It is therefore crucial to be aware of the specific values assigned to objects or animals in different
cultures to avoid faux-pas or cultural misunderstandings, particularly when living and working in
another culture.
Learning how people value animals and other symbols around the world is one of the numerous
cultural examples discussed in Communicaid’s intercultural training courses. Understanding how
your international colleagues may perceive certain animals can help you ensure you aren’t
insensitive and it may even provide you with a good topic for conversation.
(Source: https. //www.communicaid.com)
Question 43. What does the author suggest in the last paragraph?
A. Talking about different perceptions with others will help you overcome insensitivity.
B. To avoid cultural shocks, people should not live or work in another culture.
C. It’s important to value the objects or animals in different countries before going there.
D. Understanding different perceptions of animals will help you avoid faux-pas in another
nation.
Question 44. According to paragraph 2, which sentence is INCORRECT?
A. The dog is a typical example of different views in the world about animals.
B. Dogs are well-treated and loved in the US and UK.
C. Muslims are those considering dogs as their best pets at home.
D. People whose religion is Islam don’t like having dogs in their home.
Question 45. The word “unhygienic” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning
to____________
A. unhealthy B. undependable C. unreliable D. unacceptable
Question 46. What does the word “this” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. you are an international assignee
B. you are having a dog as pet
C. a cleric once denounced the moral depravity of dog owners and even demanded their arrest
D. you are living and working in Saudi Arabia or another Arabic country
Question 47. The author mentioned cows in paragraph 4 as an example of______________
A. the animals that are differently perceived in numerous cultures
B. sacred animals in Argentina
C. a symbol of a nation for its high quality of nutrients
D. which may cause surprise for Argentinian people at dinner
Question 48. which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Perceptions of animals across cultures
B. What should be learnt before going to another country
C. Dogs and different beliefs in the world
D. Muslims and their opinions about animals
Question 49. The word “pampered” in the third paragraph could be best replaced
by____________
A. indulged B. taken care of C. made up D. respected
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that______________
A. people will change their perceptions of animals when living in another culture
B. you should not be surprised if other counterparts consider your sacred animals as food
C. there are many things to research before going to live and work in another country
D. respecting other cultures is a good way to have a successful life abroad
Đáp án
1-D 2-C 3-C 4-D 5-A 6-D 7-C 8-D 9-D 10-A

11-B 12-C 13-D 14-C 15-B 16-C 17-C 18-A 19-C 20-D

21-D 22-B 23-B 24-C 25-D 26-C 27-D 28-A 29-A 30-D

31-C 32-D 33-D 34-A 35-B 36-C 37-A 38-B 39-C 40-B

41-C 42-D 43-D 44-C 45-A 46-C 47-A 48-A 49-B 50-C
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ SỐ 09
NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. chemistry B. Christmas C. machine D. headache
Question 2. A. honest B. honey C. hour D. heir
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. digest B. cactus C. camel D. human
Question 4. A. compliment B. heartbroken C. labour-saving D. short-sighted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I have bought a present for my brother, and now I need some____________.
A. paper wrapper B. wrap paper C. wrapped paper D. wrapping paper
Question 6. You____________by my secretary next week.
A. will notify B. would notify C. will be notified D. is going to be notified
Question 7. Her boy friend is said____________in the army two years ago.
A. to have served B. to serve C. serving D. have served
Question 8. Nothing is____________easy as it looks.
A. so B. such C. as D. that
Question 9. The local council recommended that John____________to the head of the
apartment.
A. is appointed B. was appointed C. be appointed D. could be appointed.
Question 10. ____________they’ve already made their decision, there’s nothing much we can
do.
A. Seeing that B. On grounds that C. Assuming that D. For reason that
Question 11. It was under the tree____________he found the wallet he had lost before.
A. that B. whom C. who D. where
Question 12. Can I help you, sir?” - “I’m looking for a____________ table”
A. wooden round fashionable B. round wooden fashionable
C. wooden fashionable round D. fashionable round wooden
Question 13. The architects have made____________use of glass and transparent plastic.
A. imaginative B. imagine C. imagination D. imaginatively
Question 14. I only tell my secrets to my____________ friend as she never reveals them to
anyone.
A. creative B. enthusiastic C. trustworthy D. unrealizable
Question 15. Paul is a very____________character, he is never relaxed with strangers.
A. self-conscious B. self-satisfied C. self-directed D. self-confident
Question 16. I haven’t read any medical books or articles on the subject for a long time, so I’m
____________with recent developments.
A. out of reach B. out of condition C. out of touch D. out of the question
Question 17. He was wearing very shabby, dirty clothes and looked very____________.
A. easy- going B. down to earth C. out of shape D. down at heel
Question 18. Attempts must be made to____________the barriers of fear and hostility which
divide the two communities.
A. break down B. set up C. get off D. pass over
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s the
boss.
A. inappropriate B. it C. because D. the
Question 20. For its establishment, ASEAN Tourism Association has played an important role in
promoting and developing ASEAN Tourism services.
A. Tourism Association B. played
C. in promoting and developing D. For its
Question 21. Sleeping, resting and to drink fruit juice are the best ways to care for a cold.
A. juice B. best ways C. Sleeping D. to drink
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. “I agree that I am narrow-minded,” said the manager.
A. The manager denied being narrow-minded.
B. The manager admitted being narrow-minded.
C. The manager refused to be narrow-minded.
D. The manager promised to be narrow-minded.
Question 23. A supermarket is more convenient than a shopping centre.
A. A shopping centre is not as convenient as a supermarket.
B. A shopping centre is more convenient than a supermarket.
C. A supermarket is not as convenient as a shopping centre.
D. A supermarket is as inconvenient as a shopping centre.
Question 24. It was a mistake for Tony to buy that house.
A. Tony couldn’t have bought that house.
B. Tony can’t have bought that house.
C. Tony needn’t have bought that house.
D. Tony shouldn’t have bought that house.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 25. Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Marie turn up at John’s birthday party.
B. I wish Marie had turned up at Johns birthday party.
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
D. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 26. Their team performed excellently at the elimination tournament. They didn’t win
the trophy.
A. Subsequent to their performance at the elimination tournament, they were afraid to win the
trophy excellently.
B. Were it not for their excellent performance at the elimination tournament, they wouldn’t have
won
the trophy.
C. Despite their excellent performance at the elimination tournament, they didn’t win the trophy.
D. Because they didn’t win the trophy, their performance at the elimination tournament was
however excellent.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following questions.
Question 27. Sue and Anne are talking about their future plans.
Sue: “I am not interested in the idea of taking a gap year and going backpacking in Nepal.”
Anne: “ Well,_____________.”
A. I am B. help yourself C. neither do I D. that’s life
Question 28. Two students are chatting in the corridor after class.
Tim: “ We should make a slide show for our history presentation next week.”
Laura: “_____________”
A. Sorry, I have to check my diary. B. That’s exactly what I was going to say.
C. I’d love to but I just can’t now. D. That’s true. I understand how you feel.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.
A. essential B. informative C. invented D. exciting
Question 30. Please stop making that noise! It really gets on my nerves.
A. cheers me up B. wakes me up C. annoys me D. amuses me
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31. One is supposed to expend far more energy in marathon run than expected.
A. exhaust B. spend C. consume D. reserve
Question 32. The information you have got is actually off the record, so be careful if you intend
to use it for publication.
A. private B. official C. confidential D. important
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Amy Tan was born on February 19th , 1952 in Oakland, California. Tan grew up in Northern
California, (33)____________when her father and older brother both died from brain tumors in
1966, she moved with her mother and younger brother to Europe, where she attended high
school in Montreux, Switzerland. She returned to the United States for college. After college,
Tan worked as a language development consultant and as a corporate freelance writer. In 1985,
she wrote the story “Rules of the Game” for a writing workshop, which laid the early (34)
____________for her first novel The Joy Luck Club. Published in 1989, the book explored the
(35) ____________between Chinese women and their Chinese-American daughters, and became
the longest-running New York Times bestseller for that year. The Joy Luck Club received
numerous awards, including the Los Angeles Times Book Award. It has been translated into 25
languages, including Chinese, and was made into a major motion picture for (36)
____________Tan co-wrote the screenplay. Tan’s other works have also been (37)
____________into several different forms of media.
Question 33. A. however B. moreover C. so D. but
Question 34. A. preparation B. base C. source D. foundation
Question 35. A. relate B. relative C. relationship D. relatively
Question 36. A. whom B. that C. what D. which
Question 37. A. adjoined B. adapted C. adjusted D. adopted
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
The first thing to do when you have a trip abroad is to check that your passport is valid. Holders
of out- of-date passports are not allowed to travel overseas. Then you can prepare for your trip. If
you don’t know the language, you can have all kinds of problems communicating with local
people. Buying a pocket dictionary can make a difference. You’ll be able to order food, buy
things in shops and ask for directions. It’s worth getting one. Also there’s nothing worse than
arriving at your destination to find there are no hotels available. The obvious way to avoid this is
to book in advance. This can save you money too. Another frustrating thing that can happen is to
go somewhere and not know about important sightseeing places. Get a guide book before you
leave and make the most of your trip. It’s a must. Then, when you are ready to pack your clothes,
make sure they are the right kind. It’s no good packing sweaters and coats for a hot country or T-
shirts and shorts for a cold one. Check the local climate before you leave.
Also, be careful how much you pack in your bags. It’s easy to take too many clothes and then not
have enough space for souvenirs. But make sure you pack essentials, what about money? Well,
it’s a good idea to take some local currency with you but not too much. There are conveniently
located cash machines (ATMs) in most big cities, and it’s usually cheaper to use them than
change your cash in banks. Then you’ll have more money to spend. When you are at your
destination, other travellers often have great information they are happy to share. Find out what
they have to say. It could enhance your travelling experience.
(Adapted from Pearson Test of English General Skills)
Question 38. what is the passage mainly about?
A. Things to avoid when you go abroad B. Tips for Travellers Overseas
C. The benefits of travelling D. How to find ATMs in big cities
Question 39. According to the passage, you should do all of the following before leaving
EXCEPT____________.
A. taking money from an ATM B. making sure of the validity of your passport
C. preparing suitable clothes D. getting a guide book
Question 40. The word “This” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. finding are no hotels to stay at B. saving money
C. booking in advance D. asking for directions
Question 41. According to the passage, holders of out-of-date passports____________.
A. have to show an ID instead when they travel
B. cannot travel to other countries
C. should ask for help from local people
D. may have their passports renewed in any country.
Question 42. The word “essentials” in paragraph 4 mostly means____________.
A. everything B. valuables C. necessities D. food
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43-50.
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care.
View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living.
Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between
finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt
to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of
friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to
begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes,
hobbies, and surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would
you like to travel?
Do you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or co-operative work?”
There are no right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you. Determine which
job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then
rank them in order of importance to you. The setting of the job is one factor to take into account.
You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are diversity occupations - building
inspector, supervisor, real estate agent - that involve a great deal of time away from the office.
Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields is concentrated in
certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand,
many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the
country. If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many
jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially
increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or
negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a
plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may
have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours
without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to
consider is that as you get mature, you will likely to develop new interests and skills that may
point the way to new opportunities.
The choice you make today need not be your final one.
Question 43. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order
to____________
A. emphasize that each persons answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important.
D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
Question 44. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs
Question 45. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by____________.
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
Question 46. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a
person who does not want to live in a big city?
A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
Question 47. Those are all the factors you should take into account when choosing a job
EXCEPT____________
A.Your likes and your dislikes B. The atmosphere at work
C. Geographical location D. Your strengths and weaknesses
Question 48. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that ____________
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.
Question 49. The word “grueling” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by____________.
A. tiring and hard B. relaxing C. painful D. enjoyable
Question 50. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant.
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
Đáp án
1-C 2-B 3-A 4-D 5-D 6-C 7-A 8-C 9-C 10-A

11-A 12-D 13-A 14-C 15-A 16-C 17-D 18-A 19-B 20-D

21-C 22-B 23-A 24-D 25-B 26-C 27-A 28-B 29-A 30-C

31-D 32-B 33-D 34-D 35-C 36-D 37-B 38-B 39-A 40-C

41-B 42-C 43-A 44-C 45-B 46-D 47-B 48-A 49-A 50-D
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ SỐ 10 NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. wisdom B. minor C. lively D. wildness
Question 2. A. hatred B. naked C. knocked D. sacred
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. ignite B. igloo C. dogsled D. asset
Question 4. A. domestic B. dormitory C. dogmatic D. deliberate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. “When is your math exam?” “Well, this time tomorrow I___________for it”.
A. will be sitting B. will sit C. will have been sitting D. sit
Question 6. The President mentioned pension reform and went on___________that he would
reduce unemployment figures.
A. adding B. add C. to be adding D. to add
Question 7. ___________you to be offered that job, would you have to move to another city?
A. Provided that B. Should C. Were D. Had
Question 8. I agree___________one point with Chris: it will be hard for us to walk 80km.
A. in B. of C. on D. for
Question 9. Up___________when it saw its master.
A. jumped the dog B. did the dog jump C. the dog jump D. does the dog jump
Question 10. ___________will be carried in the next space payload has not yet been announced
to the public.
A. It B. What C. When D. That
Question 11. ___________extremely bad weather in the mountains, we’re no longer considering
our skiing trip.
A. Due to B. Because C. Since D. Due to the fact that
Question 12. Having been selected to represent the Association of American Engineers at the
International Convention, ___________.
A. the members applauded him B. a speech had to be given by him
C. the members congratulated him D. he gave a short acceptance speech
Question 13. The authorities have shown no signs of ___________to the kidnappers’ demands.
A. standing up B. bringing about C. getting down D. giving in
Question 14. My main___________to the new motorway is that it will spoil the countryside.
A. objection B. object C. objective D. objecting
Question 15. Sue would suffer obesity if she couldn’t control her___________ overeating.
A. compulsive B. disastrous C. exhaustive D. unbearable
Question 16. After a six-year relation, Martha and Billy have decided to___________.
A. break the bank B. tie the knot C. turn the page D. make ends meet
Question 17. Most of the in this workshop do not work very seriously or productively.
A. tooth and nail B. rank and file C. eager beavers D. old hand
Question 18. A penalty shot is___________when a major foul is committed inside the 5-meter
line.
A. prevented B. awarded C. committed D. ranged
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. The train to Ho chi Minh city left at precisely 7 o’clock as usually, but the train to
Ha Noi capital left at half past six o’clock, which was exactly 20 minutes late.
A. exactly B. as usually C. which D. precisely
Question 20. Sam found it hard to concentrate on his work because the noise.
A. it B. concentrate C. work D. because
Question 21. Peacocks are among the most exotic birds in nature; its long tail feathers fan out to
reveal a profusion of vivid colors.
A. fan out B. its C. most exotic D. among
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. It is not until a Vietnamese girl getting 18 years old that she is allowed to get
married legally.
A. A Vietnamese girl is not allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
B. A Vietnamese girl is allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
C. The legal allowance for a Vietnamese girl to get married will be issued in 18 years.
D. They never allow a Vietnamese girl to get married legally when she is 18 years old.
Question 23. “I would be grateful if you could send me further information about the job.”, Lee
said to me.
A. Lee thanked me for sending him further information about the job.
B. Lee felt great because further information about the job had been sent to him.
C. Lee politely asked me to send him further information about the job.
D. Lee flattered me because I sent him further information about the job.
Question 24. The workers only complain because of their unfair treatment.
A. Were the workers fairly treated, they wouldn’t complain.
B. The workers complain because their employees are unfair.
C. If the workers are treated fairly, they will not complain.
D. Are the workers treated fairly, they will not complain.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that a best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 25. He was overconfident. Therefore, he ruined our plan completely.
A. It was because his overconfidence that ruined our plan completely.
B. He was overconfident, which ruined our plan completely.
C. That he was overconfidence ruined our plan completely.
D. It was his overconfidence ruined our plan completely.
Question 26. He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the
mountain.
A. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. As the result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain
D. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following questions.
Question 27. - “Excuse me. where’s the parking lot?” - “___________”
A. You missed the turn. It’s back that way.
B. Do you get lost? I do too.
C. You are going the wrong way. It’s not here
D. Why do you ask me? I don’t know.
Question 28. Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.
- Hoa: “Why aren’t you taking part in our activities?” “__________”
- Hai: “Yes, I can. Certainly!”
A. Shall I take your hat off?
B. Can you help me with this decoration?
C. Can I help you?
D. Could you please show me how to get the nearest post office?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. I think we should tell Peter that the location of the picnic has been changed.
Let’s put him in the picture.
A. show him B. take his photo C. explain to him D. inform him
Question 30. Mike pretended to be sick, but I saw through his deception at once.
A. was used to B. got angry with C. got bored with D. was aware of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31. You’re 25 years old, but you still haven’t cut the apron strings.
A. become independent B. bought a new house
C. relied on others D. started doing well
Question 32. Though built almost five hundred years ago, the church remained practically intact.
A. in perfection B. in completion C. in chaos D. in ruins
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. MODERN SCIENCE
It seems entirely natural to US that there are teams of scientists in universities and (33)
___________institutions around the world, attempting to discover the way the world works. (34)
___________, it hasn’t always been that way. Although the scientific method is now four or five
hundred years old, the ancient Greeks, for example, believed that they could (35)
___________the cause of natural events just by the power of thought.
During the 17th century, more and more people began to realize that they could test their
scientific ideas by designing a relevant experiment and seeing what happened. A lot of (36)
___________was made in this way by individual scientists. These men and women often worked
alone, carrying out research into many different areas of science, and they often received very
little (37) ___________for their hard work. At the start of the 20th century, though, it became
clear that science was becoming more complicated and more expensive. The individual scientists
disappeared, to be replaced by highly
qualified teams of experts. Modern science was born.
Question 33. A. every B. whole C. other D. another
Question 34. A. However B. Accordingly C. Thus D. Besides
Question 35. A. solve out B. work out C. come out D. give out
Question 36. A. evolution B. progress C. movement D. development
Question 37. A. reward B. present C. gift D. prize
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Accidents do not occur at random. People eighty-five years of age and older are twenty-two
times likely to die accidentally than are children five to nine years old. The risk for native
Americans is four times that for Asian-Americans and twice that for white Americans or
African-Americans. Males suffer accidents at more than twice the rate of females, in part
because they are more prone to risky behavior. Alaskans are more than three times as likely as
Rhode Islanders to die in an accident. Texans are twenty- one times more likely than New
Jerseyites to die in a natural disaster. Among the one hundred most populous counties, Kern
County, California (Bakersfield), has an accident fatality rate three times greater than Summit
County, Ohio (Akron).
Accidents happens more often to poor people. Those living in poverty receive inferior medical
care, are more apt to reside in houses with faulty heating and electrical systems, drive older cars
with fewer safety features, and are less likely to use safety belts. People in rural areas have more
accidents than city or suburban dwellers because farming is much riskier than working in a
factory or office and because emergency medical services are less readily available. These two
factors - low income and rural residence - may explain why the south has a higher accident rate
than the north.
(Source: Proficiency Reading)
Question 38. which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. Children aged five to nine face the greatest accident risk.
B. All people face an equal risk of having an accident.
C. One in every 22 people aged 85 and over will die in an accident.
D. The risk of having an accident is greater among certain groups of people.
Question 39. The word “inferior” in the passage is closest in meaning to___________.
A. modern B. low-quality C. well-equipped D. unsafe
Question 40. According to the passage, which of the following groups of people in America face
the highest risk of having an accident?
A. Native Americans B. Asian-Americans
C. White Americans D. African-Americans
Question 41. What does the word “that” in the passage refer to___________?
A. males B. native Americans
C. the risk D. African-Americans
Question 42. which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for a higher accident rate
among the poor?
A. Little knowledge about safety.
B. Inadequate medical services.
C. Poor housing and working conditions.
D. Use of cars which incorporate fewer safety features.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
The concept of being environmentally conscious, or “green”, has become more prevalent in
twenty first-century U.S culture. It has begun to affect the manufacturing of everything from
non- toxic household cleaning products to motor vehicles powered by alternative sources of
energy. However, one way of being “green” that is perhaps not as apparent to the viewer but of
equal importance in being environmentally conscious, is the construction of buildings that are
considered “sustainable”. Sustainable buildings are those that do not impose on the environment
or rely on the over-utilization of energy or natural resources. There are four main principles of
sustainability, which includes consideration of the health and stability of all living things and
their environmental diversity, as well as the economic opportunities of humanity.
Sustainable architecture consists of environmentally conscious design techniques. In the past, the
demolition of an old building meant that all or most of the debris of the building would end up in
a landfill or a waste disposal site. Today, architects can plan and design a building that uses
recycled materials, such as wood, concrete, stone, or metal. These materials are salvaged from
the demolition of an older building and can be appropriately incorporated into a new
construction. Architects and construction supervisors may also choose to recycle more organic
parts of demolished buildings, such as wooden doors, windows and other glass, ceramics, paper,
and textiles. A problem that has often arisen has been with how a site crew-whether it is
demolition or construction crew determines and sorts what is “waste” and what is recyclable.
Architects and environmental scientists have to decide whether or not a material is appropriate
for use in new construction and how it will impact the environment. They must evaluate the
materials from the demolition and determine what those materials contain, and if they meet the
standards set by the U.S, government’s Environmental Protection Agency (the EPA). If the
debris from the demolition contains hazardous materials that are harmful to the environment or
to the consumer, such as asbestos, then the material is not salvageable. Use of the asbestos for
insulation and as a form of fire retardation in buildings and fabrics was common in the
nineteenth century. Asbestos was once used in shingles on the sides of buildings, as well as in
the insulation in the interior walls of homes or other construction. In new “green” construction,
insulation that once asbestos- based can be replaced with recycled denim or constructed with
cellulose-a fibrous material found in paper products. The same-assessment applies to wood or
wallboard painted with toxic lead-based paints. In addition, gas-flow regulators and meters on
both water and gas heating systems constructed prior to 1961 must be carefully evaluated to
determine that they do not contain dangerous substances such as mercury. Mercury can be
harmful to humans and the environment if it is spilled during the removal of these devices.
Question 43. The word “prevalent” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. rare B. unusual C. widespread D. valuable
Question 44. In paragraph 1, the author implies that___________.
A. some companies manufacture vehicles that are not powered by gasoline
B. the concept of being green has not influenced manufacture
C. uses of alternative energy are apparent to the consumer
D. all buildings impose on the environment
Question 45. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true?
A. All construction follows the concept of sustainable architecture.
B. Sustainable buildings do not overuse electricity, oil, or gas.
C. Todays cleaning products and appliances harm the environment.
D. Construction of “green” buildings is an old idea.
Question 46. In paragraph 2, the word “salvaged” is closest in meaning to___________.
A. lost B. destroyed C. buried D. saved
Question 47. According to paragraph 2, environmentally conscious design
incorporates___________.
A. safe, organic, recycled materials B. new wood, stone, or concrete
C. debris from a demolished building D. materials from a landfill
Question 48. In paragraph 3, the author mention both demolition and construction crews in order
to___________
A. give an example of how choosing materials is not easily determined on a site
B. illustrate the types of crews that sort waste and recyclables
C. demonstrate that choosing recyclable materials is challenging for both crews
D. contrast the work of the two types of crews on a site
Question 49. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. the EPA
B. the site crew
C. architects and environmental scientists
D. the materials from the demolition
Question 50. In paragraph 3, the author mentions all of the following hazardous materials found
in a debris from a demolition site EXCEPT___________.
A. cellulose B. mercury C. asbestos D. lead

Đáp án
1-A 2-C 3-A 4-B 5-A 6-D 7-C 8-C 9-A 10-B
11-A 12-D 13-D 14-A 15-A 16-B 17-D 18-B 19-B 20-D
21-B 22-B 23-C 24-A 25-B 26-A 27-A 28-B 29-D 30-D
31-C 32-D 33-C 34-A 35-B 36-B 37-A 38-D 39-B 40-A
41-C 42-A 43-C 44-A 45-B 46-D 47-A 48-C 49-D 50-A
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ SỐ 11
NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. climate B. examine C. invitation D. interview
Question 2. A. society B. geography C. dry D. sandy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. dismiss B. destroy C. display D. district
Question 4. A. entertain B. candidate C. referee D. afternoon
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. When Bill got home, his children_____________in the yard.
A. will be playing B. were playing C. are playing D. played
Question 6. Did you manage_____________the book you were looking for?
A. to find B. found C. finding D. find
Question 7. That cannot be a true story. He_____________it up.
A. must have made B. should have made
C. would have made D. can have made
Question 8. Beethovens Fifth Symphony_____________next weekend.
A. is going to be performed B. has been performed
C. will be performing D. will have performed
Question 9. She said that when she_____________to school, she saw an accident
A. had been walking B. has walked C. was walking D. has been walking
Question 10. She wanted Tom, _____________she liked, as a partner, but she got Jack, She
didn’t like.
A. whom/ whose B. whose/ whom C. whose/ whose D. whom/ whom
Question 11. Scarcely_____________out of bed when_____________
A. had I got/ did the doorbell ring B. had I got/ the doorbell rang
C. I had got/ did the doorbell ring D. I had got/ the doorbell rang
Question 12. I think he will join us, _____________?
A. won’t he B. don’t I C. will not he D. do not I
Question 13. For more than 10 years, we have seen the significant_____________in the
economy of our country.
A. develop B. developments C. developers D. developed
Question 14. The_____________load for this car is one ton.
A. top B. max C. peak D. height
Question 15. Most modern office_____________includes facsimile machines, photocopiers and
telephone systems.
A. device B. tool C. equipment D. instrument
Question 16. I just took it_____________that he’d always be on time.
A. into consideration B. easy C. into account D. for granted
Question 17. That’s exactly what I mean, Tom. You’ve_____________!
A. put your foot in it B. killed two birds with one stone
C. put two and two together D. hit the nail on the head
Question 18. My car is getting unreliable. I think I’ll trade it_____________for a new one.
A. off B. away C. in D. up
Mark the letter A, B, C, orD on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. I visited Mexico and United States last year.
A. visited B. Mexico C. United States D. last year
Question 20. Yesterday he said he regretted not to have gone to the exhibition last week.
A. yesterday B. said C. regretted D. not to have gone
Question 21. Minh’s mother would sooner not to meet her friend in person than phone her.
A. sooner B. not to meet C. in person D. than
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. Friendly though he may seem, he’s not to he trusted.
A. He’s too friendly to be trusted.
B. However he seems friendly, he’s not to be trusted.
C. He may have friends, but he’s not to be trusted.
D. However friendly he seems, he’s not to be trusted.
Question 23. The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Question 24. Calling Odyse is pointless because his phone is out of order.
A. It’s worth not calling Odyse since his phone is out of order.
B. It’s no use to call Odyse since his phone is out of order.
C. It’s useless call Odyse as his phone is out of order.
D. There is no point in calling odyse as his phone is out of order.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. Randy doesn’t play rugby. Neither does Lucy
A. Neither Randy nor Lucy doesn’t play rugby.
B. Neither Randy nor Lucy play rugby.
C. Neither Randy nor Lucy plays rugby.
D. Either Randy or Lucy plays rugby.
Question 26. Nguyen Huu Kim Son broke the SEA Games record in the men’s 400-metre
individual medley event. He is very proud of it.
A. He is very proud of what he broke the SEA Games record.
B. He takes pride in breaking the SEA Games record.
C. He is interested in the SEA Games record.
D. He is very proud of he broke the SEA Games record.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. This situation happened in a restaurant
- Customer: “Excuse me!”
- Waiter: “Yes, sir. How can I help you?”
- Customer: “I don’t want to make a scene but there’s a fly in my soup.”
- Waiter: “_____________”
A. I’m so sorry! I will get you another one.
B. What can I do to help?
C. You are right. I will get you another one.
D. You could be right but I don’t think it is a fly.
Question 28. Alice and Mary have just finished watching a movie.
- Alice: “Endgame is such a wonderful movie”
- Mary: “_____________”
A. I couldn’t agree more. B. I don’t like your saying.
C. I didn’t say anything. D. I’m a huge fan of Marvel.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. One of the biggest issues that many victims of negligent behavior encounter is
difficulty in determining whether or not an action had foreseeable consequences.
A. predictable B. unpredictable C. ascertainable D. computable
Question 30. We’re really close friends but we just cannot see eye to eye on politics.
A. not see well B. not share the same views about
C. not understand D. not care for
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. The research findings were reliable since modern technology was used to increase
the precision of the sampling procedure.
A. inaccuracy B. exactness C. insecurity D. flexibility
Question 32. Despite the traffic hold-ups, we were able to arrive at the airport in the nick of the
time just before the check-in counter closed.
A. in a terrible condition B. with all out luggage
C. at the very last moment D. with much time to spare
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work
helps foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often
simultaneously, thus teaching people how to (33) _____________their way through different
systems. It therefore brings people into touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the
future.
Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to
impart to others that say a teacher or agriculturalist or nurse would have, (34)
_____________they do have many skills that can help others. And in the absence of any
particular talent, their energy and enthusiasm can be harnessed for the benefit of their fellow
human beings, and ultimately themselves. From (35) _____________this, the gain to any
community no matter how many volunteers are involved is (36)
_____________.
Employers will generally look favorably on people (37) _____________have shown an ability to
work as part of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which
would be desirable qualities in any employee.
Question 33. A. give B. work C. put D. take
Question 34. A. so B. but C. or D. for
Question 35. A. all B. none C.above D. both
Question 36. A. unattainable B. immeasurable C. undetectable D. impassible
Question 37. A. which B. whose C. who D. what
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Insects’ lives are very short and they have many enemies, but they must survive long enough to
breed and perpetuate their kind. The less insect-like they look, the better their chance of survival.
To look “inedible” by imitating plants is a way frequently used by insects to survive. Mammals
rarely imitate plants, but many fish and invertebrates do.
The stick caterpillar is well named. It is hardly distinguishable from a brown or green twig. This
caterpillar is quite common and can be found almost anywhere in North America. It is also called
“measuring worm” or “inchworm.” It walks by arching its body, then stretching out and grasping
the branch with its front feet then looping its body again to bring the hind fed forward, when
danger threatens, the stick caterpillar stretches its body away from the branch at an angle and
remains rigid and still, like a twig, until the danger has passed.
Walking sticks, or stick insects, do not have to assume a rigid, twig-like pose to find protection:
they look like inedible twigs in any position. There are many kinds of walking sticks, ranging in
size from the few inches of the North American variety to some tropical species that may be over
a foot long, when at rest their front legs are stretched out, heightening their camouflage. Some of
the tropical species are adorned with spines or ridges, imitating the thorny bushes or trees in
which they live. Leaves also seem to be a favorite object for insects to imitate. Many butterflies
can suddenly disappear from view by folding their wings and sitting quietly among the plants
that they resemble.
Question 38. what is the main idea of the passage?
A. Caterpillars that live in trees
B. The feeding habits of insects
C. How some insects imitate plants to survive
D. Insects that are threatened with extinction
Question 39. which of the following does the word “enemies” in line 1 refer to?
A. plants looking like insects B. extreme weather conditions
C. creatures that eat insects D. insects looking like plants
Question 40. According to the passage, how does a stick caterpillar make itself look like a twig?
A. By holding its body stiff and motionless
B. By looping itself around a stick
C. By changing the colour of its skin
D. By laying its body flat against a branch
Question 41. Which of the following is the antonym of the word “inedible” in paragraph 3?
A. eatable B. colourful C. beautiful D. moving
Question 42. How can butterflies make themselves invisible?
A. By hiding under the leaves
B. By disappearing from the view
C. By folding wings and sitting still among the leaves with similar colours
D. By flying among colourful flowers
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
There are two basic types of glaciers, those that flow outward in all directions with little regard
for any underlying terrain and those that are confined by terrain to a particular path.
The first category of glaciers includes those massive blankets that cover whole continents,
appropriately called ice sheets. There must be over 50,000 square kilometers of land covered
with ice for the glacier to qualify as an ice sheet, when portions of an ice sheet spread out over
the ocean, they form ice shelves.
About 20,000 years ago the Cordilleran Ice sheet covered nearly all the mountains in southern
Alaska, western Canada, and the western United States. It was about 3 kilometers deep at its
thickest point in northern Alberta. Now there are only two sheets left on Earth, those covering
Greenland and Antarctica.
Any domelike body of ice that also flows out in all directions but covers less than 50,000 square
kilometers is called an ice cap. Although ice caps are rare nowadays, there are a number in
northeastern Canada, on Baffin Island, and on the Queen Elizabeth Islands.
The second category of glaciers includes those of a variety of shapes and sizes generally called
mountain or alpine glaciers. Mountain glaciers are typically identified by the landform that
controls their flow. One form of mountain glacier that resembles an ice cap in that it flows
outward in several directions is called an ice field. The difference between an ice field and an ice
cap is subtle. Essentially, the flow of an ice field is somewhat controlled by surrounding terrain
and thus does not have the domelike shape of a cap. There are several ice fields in the Wrangell.
St. Elias, and Chugach mountains of Alaska and northern British Columbia.
Less spectacular than large ice fields are the most common types of mountain glaciers: the cirque
and valley glaciers. Cirque glaciers are found in depressions in the surface of the land and have a
characteristic circular shape. The ice of valley glaciers, bound by terrain, flows down valleys,
curves around their corners, and falls over cliffs.
Question 43. what does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Where major glaciers are located
B. How glaciers shape the land
C. The different kinds of glaciers
D. How glaciers are formed
Question 44. The word “terrain” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by____________.
A. the seabed B. area of land C. countryside D. prairie
Question 45. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that ice sheets are so named
because____________
A. they are thicker in some areas than the others
B. they are identified by the landform that controls their flow
C. they cover large areas of land
D. they are confined to cirque glaciers
Question 46. According to the passage, where was the Cordilleran Ice Sheet thickest?
A. Alaska B. Antarctica C. Greenland D. Alberta
Question 47. According to paragraph 5, ice fields resemble ice caps in which of the following
ways?
A. Their flow B. Their texture C. Their location D. Their shape
Question 48. The word “subtle” in paragraph 5 could best be replaced by____________.
A. slight B. substantial C. regional D. obvious
Question 49. The word “their” in last paragraph refers to____________.
A. ice fields B. cirque glaciers C. valley glaciers D. valleys
Question 50. All of the following are alpine glaciers EXCEPT____________.
A. cirque glaciers B. ice caps C. ice fields D. Valley glaciers

Đáp án
1-A 2-C 3-D 4-B 5-B 6-A 7-A 8-A 9-C 10-D
11-B 12-A 13-B 14-B 15-C 16-D 17-D 18-C 19-C 20-D
21-B 22-D 23-A 24-D 25-C 26-B 27-A 28-A 29-A 30-B
31-A 32-D 33-B 34-B 35-A 36-B 37-C 38-C 39-C 40-A
41-A 42-C 43-C 44-B 45-C 46-D 47-A 48-A 49-D 50-B
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ SỐ 12 NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. theatre B. thunder C. therefore D. throughout
Question 2. A. apologises B. invites C. roofs D. certificates
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. sector B. lawyer C. workforce D. prefer
Question 4. A. diversity B. biography C. biology D. fundamental
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I don’t know much about computer, so I asked the assistant for____________advice.
A. a little B. many C. a few D. a lot
Question 6. You should know that everyone in this office____________busy planning the dance
for a week.
A. is B. has been C. are D. have been
Question 7. The children were made____________up the mess they had left before they could
watch TV.
A. clear B. to clear C. clearing D. cleared
Question 8. Most headaches____________with aspirin unless they are too severe.
A. can treat B. can be treating C. can be treated D. can treats
Question 9. I wish I____________able to accept that role, but I was preparing for another
play at the time.
A. were B. was C. had been D. have been
Question 10. Everyone thought she would accept the offer. ____________, she turned it down
immediately.
A. Therefore B. Moreover C. However D. Hitherto
Question 11. I would have cooked something special if I____________you were coming.
A. knew B. know C. have known D. had known
Question 12. Women have proved repeatedly that they are equal and often
superior____________men in almost every field.
A. to B. than C. as D. over
Question 13. There is still widespread____________against older people in the job market.
A. discriminate B. discriminatory C. discrimination D. discriminating
Question 14. The arrested man is suspected of____________government funds for himself.
A.robbing B. appropriating C. appreciating D. confiscating
Question 15. It was hard to____________the temptation to watch the late-night show even
though I was so tired then.
A. defy B. resist C. refuse D. oppose
Question 16. The company managed to beat the ____________on delivering its new system.
A. team B. other C. time D. clock
Question 17. Even though she had been studying hard, she had only a____________chance of
passing the exam.
A. slim B. narrow C. thin D. light
Question 18. I ran in a marathon last week, but I was not fit enough. I____________after 15
kilometres.
A. dropped out B. moved in C. showed off D. closed down
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Keith had so interesting and creative plans that everyone wanted to work on his
committee.
A. wanted B. plans C. so interesting D. on
Question 20. Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large,
industrial world.
A. in our large B. with C. many D. are
Question 21. A paragraph is a portion of a text consists of one or more sentences related to the
same idea.
A. sentences B. consists of C. to D. A paragraph
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. Greater use of public transport would cut the amount of pollution from cars.
A. Were more people to use public transport, cars would stop releasing exhaust into the
atmosphere.
B. If more people use public transport, it will cut the amount of pollution from cars.
C. If public transport was widely used, people would no longer suffer from pollution from cars.
D. If more people used public transport, there would be less pollution from cars.
Question 23. Mark delayed writing the book until he had done a lot of research.
A. Mark did a lot of research after he finished writing the book.
B. It was only when Mark had written the book that he did a lot of research.
C. Mark delayed writing the book as he had already done any research.
D. Only after Mark had done a lot of research did he begin to write the book.
Question 24. “Would you like to come out to dinner with me tonight, Jenny?” Paul said.
A. Paul suggested that Jenny go out to dinner with him that night.
B. Paul insisted on Jenny going out to dinner with him that night.
C. Paul invited Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night.
D. Pau offered Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. Lee gave up her job. She planned to continue her education.
A. Lee’s education was interrupted since she wanted to find a job.
B. Lee gave up her job with the aim at continuing her education.
C. Lee gave up her job in case she continued her education.
D. Lee gave up her job with a view to continuing her education.
Question 26. This is a rare opportunity. You should take advantage of it to get a better job.
A. You should take advantage of this rare opportunity, for which is to get a better job.
B. This is a rare opportunity what you should take advantage of to get a better job.
C. You should take advantage of this opportunity, that is rare to get a better job.
D. This is a rare opportunity that you should take advantage of to get a better job.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Mark and Anne are talking after the class.
Mark: “Guess what? I’ve been recruited to be a member of Green Dream Volunteer Group.”
Anne: “____________”
A. Good luck next time!
B. That’s great! Congratulations!
C. That’s the least thing I could do for you.
D. It doesn’t make sense to me.
Question 28. Amy and Jacob are talking about the two-day excursion at the end of the school
year. Amy: “You look so sad. ____________”

Jacob: “I couldn’t get my parents’ permission to stay the night away from home.”
A. Can you help me? B. How do you deal with it?
C. What should I do? D. what’s the problem?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. It was late at night, the wind was howling and when she heard the knock on the
door, she almost jumped out of her skin.
A. was surprised B. was asleep C. was terrified D. was delighted
Question 30. Wild animals use various methods to ward off predators and their natural enemies.
A. rebel B. befriend C. deter D. attack
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. We should grow more trees so that they can absorb more carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere.
A. take in B. emit C. consume D. cut off
Question 32. We have achieved considerable results in the economic field, such as high
economic growth, stability and significant poverty alleviation over the past few years.
A. eradication B. aggravation C. prevention D. reduction
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution (33) ____________is as complicated as it
is serious. It is complicated because much pollution is caused by things that benefit people. (34)
____________, exhaust from automobiles causes a large percentage of air pollution. But the
automobile provides transportation for millions of people. Factories discharge much of the
material that pollutes the air and water but factories give (35) ____________to a large number of
people. Thus, to end or greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to (36)
____________using many things that benefit them. Most people do not want to do that, of
course. But pollution can be gradually reduced in several ways. Scientists and engineers can
work to find ways to lessen the amount of pollution that such things as automobiles and factories
cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws (37) ____________require businesses and traffic
to stop, or to cut down on certain polluting activities.
Question 33. A. event B. accident C. work D. problem
Question 34. A. As a result B. However C. Therefore D. For example
Question 35. A. employed B. employment
C. unemployed D. unemployment
Question 36. A. start B. stop C. enjoy D. continue
Question 37. A. whom B. that C. whose D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
By adopting a few simple techniques, parents who read to their children can considerably
increase their children’s language development. It is surprising, but true. How parents talk to
their children makes a big difference in the children’s language development. If a parent
encourages the child to actively respond to what the parent is reading, the child’s language skills
increase. A study was done with two or three-year-old children and their parents. Half of the
thirty children participants were in the experimental study; the other half acted as the control
group. In the experimental group, the parents were given a two-hour training session in which
they were taught to ask open-ended questions rather than yes-no questions. For example, the
parent should ask, “What is the doggy doing?” rather than, “Is the doggy running away?”
Experimental parents were also instructed how to expand on their children’s answer, how to
suggest alternative possibilities, and how to praise correct answers.
At the beginning of the study, the children did not differ on levels of language development, but
at the end of one month, the children in the experimental group were 5.5 months ahead of the
control group on a test of verbal expression and vocabulary. Nine months later, the children in
the experimental group still showed an advance of 6 months over the children in the control
group.
Question 38. Parents can give great help to their children’s language development
by____________them.
A. responding to B. reading to C. adopting D. experimenting
Question 39. what does the word “they” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. Participants B. Children C. Questions D. Parents
Question 40. During the training session, experimental parents were taught to____________.
A. use yes-no questions B. study many experiments
C. ask open-ended questions D. give correct answers
Question 41. what was the major difference between the control group and the experimental one
in the study?
A. The number of participants. B. The books that were read.
C. The age of the children. D. The training that parents received.
Question 42. What conclusion can be drawn from this passage?
A. Children who read actively always act six months earlier than those who don’t.
B. The more children read, the more intelligent they become.
C. Two or three-year-old children can be taught to read actively.
D. Children’s language skills increase when they are required to respond actively.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
The elements other than hydrogen and helium exist in such small quantities that it is accurate to
say that the universe is somewhat more than 25 percent helium by weight and somewhat less
than 75 percent hydrogen. Astronomers have measured the abundance of helium throughout our
galaxy and in other galaxies as well. Helium has been found in old stars, in relatively young
ones, in interstellar gas, and in the distant objects known as quasars. Helium nuclei have also
been found to be constituents of cosmic rays that fall on the earth (cosmic rays are not really a
form of radiation; they consist of rapidly moving particles of numerous different kinds). It
doesn’t seem to make very much difference where the helium is found. Its relative abundance
never seems to vary much. In some places, there may be slightly more of it; in others, slightly
less, but the ratio of helium to hydrogen nuclei always remains about the same.
Helium is created in stars. In fact, nuclear reactions that convert hydrogen to helium are
responsible for most of the energy that stars produce. However, the amount of helium that could
have been produced in this manner can be calculated, and it turns out to be no more than a few
percent. The universe has not existed long enough for this figure to be significantly greater.
Consequently, if the universe is somewhat more than 25 percent helium now, then it must have
been about 25 percent helium at a time near the beginning.
However, when the universe was less than one minute old, no helium could have existed.
Calculations indicate that before this time temperatures were too high and particles of matter
were moving around much too rapidly. It was only after the one- minute point that helium could
exist. By this time, the universe had cooled so sufficiently that neutrons and protons could stick
together. But the nuclear reactions that led to the formations of helium went on for only
relatively short time. By the time the universe was a few minutes old, helium production had
effectively ceased
Question 43. What does the passage mainly explain?
A. Why hydrogen is abundant.
B. How stars produce energy.
C. When most of the helium in the universe was formed.
D. The difference between helium and hydrogen.
Question 44. According to the passage, helium is____________.
A. difficult to detect.
B. the oldest element in the universe.
C. the second-most abundant element in the universe.
D. the most prevalent element in quasars.
Question 45. The word “constituents” is closest in meaning to____________.
A. causes B. relatives C. components D. targets
Question 46. Why does the author mention “cosmic rays”?
A. To explain how the universe began.
B. As an example of an unsolved astronomical puzzle.
C. To explain the abundance of hydrogen in the universe.
D. As part of a list of things containing helium.
Question 47. The word “they” refers to____________ .
A. radiation B. constituents C. cosmic rays D. particles
Question 48. The word “vary” is closest in meaning to____________.
A. include B. mean C. stretch D. change
Question 49. The creation of helium within stars____________.
A. cannot be measured
B. produces hydrogen as a by-product
C. produces energy
D. causes helium to be much more abundant in old stars than in young stars
Question 50. Most of the helium in the universe was formed____________ .
A. in a very short time
B. in interstellar space
C. before most of the hydrogen
D. during the first minute of the universes existence
Đáp án
1-C 2-A 3-D 4-D 5-A 6-B 7-B 8-C 9-C 10-C
11-D 12-A 13-C 14-B 15-B 16-D 17-A 18-A 19-C 20-D
21-B 22-D 23-D 24-C 25-D 26-D 27-B 28-D 29-C 30-C
31-B 32-B 33-D 34-D 35-B 36-B 37-B 38-B 39-D 40-C
41-D 42-D 43-C 44-C 45-C 46-B 47-C 48-D 49-C 50-A
ĐỀ SỐ 13 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. stone B. zone C. phone D. none
Question 2. A. university B. unique C. unit D. undo
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. release B. offer C. amaze D. believe
Question 4. A. classify B. flexible C. sensitive D. tomato
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. The examination was not very difficult, but it was_____________ long.
A. so much B. too much C. very much D. much too
Question 6. Our industrial output_____________from $2 million in 2002 to $4 million this year.
A. rises B. has risen C. was rising D. rose
Question 7. We had a lot of fun_____________at the picnic.
A. to play B. playing C. played D. plays
Question 8. We_____________to take a taxi. Otherwise we’ll be late for the meeting.
A. would rather B. had better C. must have D. will have
Question 9. Some film stars_____________difficult to work with.
A. are said be B. are said to be C. say to be D. said to be
Question 10. the long jumper_____________the pole-vaulter win the prize.
A. Both-and B. Neither-nor C. Either-or D. Not only-but also
Question 11. _____________restaurant you pick is fine with me.
A. Whichever B. Whenever C. whoever D. wherever
Question 12. Now the manager is no longer as indifferent_____________criticism as he used to
be.
A. against B. to C. towards D. with
Question 13. Does Mr. Mike bring his farm_____________to the local market every day?
A. productively B. productive C. product D. produce
Question 14. In population growth Latin America_____________first, Africa second, and Asia
third.
A. places B. ranks C. numbers D. stands
Question 15. The referee_____________the coin to decide which team would kick the ball first.
A. caught B. threw C. cast D. tossed
Question 16. Sorry for being late. I was_____________in the traffic for more than an hour.
A. carried on B. held up C. put off D. taken after
Question 17. Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a_____________day.
A. windy B. rainy C. foggy D. snow
Question 18. “What I’ve got to say to you now is strictly_____________and most certainly not
for publication” said the government to the reporter.
A. off the record B. for the time being
C. by the way D. on record
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. The Canadian Shield is a huge, rocky region who curves around Hudson Bay like a
giant horseshoe.
A. a huge B. who C. around D. like
Question 20. Almost all of the people appeared on television wear makeup.
A. Almost B. of C. appeared D. wear
Question 21. The original World Cup trophy was given permanent to Brazil to honour that
country’s record third world cup title in Mexico in 1970.
A. The original World Cup trophy B. permanent
C. that country’s record D. in Mexico
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. Studying all night is good for neither your grades nor your health.
A. Studying all night is good for your grades.
B. Studying all night does not help at all.
C. Studying all night is good for your health
D. Studying all night is helpful to you
Question 23. You should not keep bad company under any circumstances.
A. In no circumstances should you be friends with bad people.
B. Under no circumstances should you not keep bad company.
C. Under any circumstances shouldn’t you make friends with bad people.
D. In no circumstances should you keep your company because it is bad.
Question 24. Although he was disabled, he was quite confident the first time he practiced this
sport.
A. Though a disabled boy, he was quite confident the first time he practiced this sport.
B. Though he was unable to walk, but the first time he practiced this sport, he was quite
confident
C. In spite of being quite confident the first time he practiced this sport, he was disabled
D. He was quite confident when practicing this sport for the first time despite of a disabled boy.
Mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. My grandmother is very old. She can’t do the chores herself.
A. My grandmother is very old that she cant do the chores herself.
B. My grandmother is too old to do the chores herself.
C. My grandmother is such old that she cant do the chores herself.
D. My grandmother is too old to not do the chores herself.
Question 26. She turned the radio on at 7.30. She was still listening to it when her mother came
home at 9.30.
A. She had been listening to the radio at 7.30
B. She had been listening to the radio since 7.30
C. She had been listening to the radio after 7.30
D. She had been listening to the radio by 7.30
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Hana and Rina are talking about Lucy.
- Hanna: “Lucy has lost her purse somewhere this morning!”
- Rina: “_____________”
A. Tough luck B. Congratulations!
C. Never mind. D. I will take it for her
Question 28. Lucia wants to borrow his friends bike.
- Lucia: “Would you mind if I used your bike?”
- Friend: “_____________”
A. I don’t want to use your bike. B. Sure, go ahead.
C. Sorry, no, I wont do it. D. Please accept it with my best wishes.
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. We had never experienced such discourtesy towards the elderly as it occurred at
this center
A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement
Question 30. Just by coincidence, I met my old classmate after 20 years.
A. sight B. surprise C. chance D. luck
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. His thoughtless comments made her very angry.
A. kind B. honest C. thoughtful D. pleasant
Question 32. I could not see what she was doing. It was so dark there.
A. make out B. make up C. make for D. make from
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
The story of gold is an adventure involving kings, queens, pirates, explorers, conquerors, and
the native people they conquered. Throughout history, gold has (33) _____________a magic
spell over those it touched. Gold is beautiful and rare; a soft shiny metal that can be moulded into
many shapes. It has been used for money, jewelry, and to decorate special buildings such as
palaces and places of worship. (34) _____________the precious metal was discovered,
prospectors rushed to mine it, starting new cities and countries as they went. Gold and the people
who love it have helped shape the world we live in today. Gold is one of many elements, or
substances that cannot be changed by normal chemical means, that are found in the Earth’s crust.
Gold has a warm, sunny colour and (35) _____________it does not react with air, water, and
most chemicals, its shine never fades. In its natural (36) _____________, gold is soft and easily
shaped, when heated to 1,062 Celsius it melts and can be poured (37) _____________moulds to
form coins, gold bars, and other objects. Stories have been told, movies made and legends born
about the discovery of the world’s great gold deposits. It is a saga of dreams, greed, ambition and
exploration.
Question 33. A. knitted B.folded C. woven D. sewn
Question 34. A. Whoever B. However C. Wherever D. Whatever
Question 35. A. despite B. because C. yet D. so
Question 36. A. position B. size C. condition D.shape
Question 37. A. into B. forward C. with D. at
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Tsunami is a Japanese word which means harbour wave and is used as the scientific term for
seismic sea wave generated by an undersea earthquake or possibly an undersea landside or
volcanic eruption, when the ocean floor is tilted or offset during an earthquake, a set of waves is
created similar to the concentric waves generated by an object dropped into the water. Most
tsunamis originate along the Ring of Fire, a zone of volcanoes and seismic activity, 32,500 km
long that encircles the Pacific Ocean.
Since 1819, about 40 tsunamis have struck the Hawaiian Islands. A tsunami can have
wavelengths, or widths, of 100 to 200 km, and may travel hundreds of kilometers across the deep
ocean, reaching speeds of about 725 to 800 kilometres an hour. Upon entering shallow coastal
waters, the wave, which may have been only about half a metre high out at sea, suddenly grows
rapidly. When the wave reaches the shore, it maybe 15 m high or more. Tsunamis have
tremendous energy because of the great volume of water affected. They are capable of
obliterating coastal settlements.
Tsunamis should not be confused with storm surges, which are domes of water that rise
underneath hurricanes or cyclones and cause extensive coastal flooding when the storms reach
land. Storm surges are particularly devastating if they occur at high tide. A cyclone and
accompanying storm surge skilled an estimated 500,000 people in Bangladesh in 1970. The
tsunami which struck south and southeast Asia in late 2004 killed over 200 thousand people.
Question 38. What does the word “concentric” in paragraph 1 mean?
A. wavy B. having many centres
C. having a common centre D. a ring
Question 39. what is the greatest speed of tsunami travelling across the deep ocean?
A. 200 kilometres an hour B. 700 kilometres an hour
C. 800 kilometres an hour D. 150,000 kilometres an hour
Question 40. How are tsunami capable of obliterating coastal settlements?
A. They have tremendous energy due to the great volume of water affected.
B. They are a metre high or more.
C. They travel hundreds of kilometres
D. They can strike the shore fifteen metres high
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Tsunami only occurs in Asia
B. A cyclone along with storm surges happened in Asia in 1970.
C. Storm surges are domes of water rising underneath hurricanes or cyclones.
D. Storm surges cause extensive coastal flooding.
Question 42. what is the passage mainly about?
A. Where tsunamis originate.
B. Damage caused by tsunamis.
C. Facts about tsunamis.
D. How tremendous the energy of a tsunami is.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
There are many theories of aging, but virtually all fall into the category of being hypotheses with
a minimum of supporting evidence. One viewpoint is that aging occurs as the body’s organ
systems become less efficient. Thus failures in the immune system, hormonal system, and
nervous system could all produce characteristics that we associate with aging. Following a
different vein, many current researchers are looking for evidence at the cellular and sub cellular
level.
It has been shown that cells such as human fibroblasts (generalized tissue cells) grown in culture
divide only a limited number of times and then die. (Only cancer cells seem immortal in this
respect). Fibroblast cells from an embryo divide more times than those taken from an adult.
Thus some researchers believe that aging occurs at the cellular level and is part of the cell’s
genetic makeup. Any event that disturbs the cell’s genetic machinery such as mutation, damaging
chemicals in the cell’s environment, or loss of genetic material, could cause cells to lose their
ability to divide and thus bring on aging. Other theories of aging look at different processes.
Chronological aging refers to the passage of time since birth and is usually measured in years.
While chronological age can be useful in estimating the average status of a large group of
people, it is a poor indicator of an individual person’s status because there is a tremendous
amount of variation from one individual to the next in regard to the rate at which biological age
changes occur. For example, on the average, aging results in people losing much of their ability
to perform strenuous activities, yet some elderly individuals are excellent marathon runners.
Another type of aging is cosmetic aging, which consists of changes in outward appearance with
advancing age. This includes changes in the body and changes in other aspects of a person’s
appearance, such as the style of hair and clothing, the type of eyeglasses, and the use of a hearing
aid.
Like chronological aging, it is frequently used to estimate the degree to which other types of
aging have occurred. However, it is an inaccurate indicator for either purpose because of
variation among individuals and because a person’s appearance is affected by many factors that
are not part of aging, including illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight
Question 43. What is the best title for this passage?
A. Different Processes of Aging
B. Outstanding Characteristics Associated with Aging
C. Theories of Aging: Well Proven Hypotheses
D. Theories of Aging: Poorly Supported Hypotheses
Question 44. The author points out that cancer cells_____________
A. seem to live forever
B. divide and then die
C . divide more in embryos than in adults
D. lose their ability to divide
Question 45. The phrase “an embryo” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. a descendant B. an infant C. a parent D. an internal organ
Question 46. The word “strenuous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. basic B. troublesome C. mental D. intense
Question 47. As explained in this passage, the theory of aging which examines the cellular level
would NOT assign which of the following as a cause of aging?
A. Mutation B. Deterioration into the body’s immune system
C. Loss of genetic material D. Chemical damage from the environment
Question 48. According to the passage, chronological aging is not a good indicator of an
individual’s status regarding aging because_____________ .
A. elderly people are often athletic
B. there is individual variation in the rate of biological aging
C. strenuous activities are not good measures of age
D. it is difficult to get accurate records of birth dates
Question 49. In the last paragraph, the word “this” refers to_____________
A. cosmetic aging B. type of aging C. outward appearance D. advancing age
Question 50. The author implies all of the following about cosmetic aging
EXCEPT_____________
A. It does not occur at the same rate for all people
B. It is a poor indicator of chronological age
C. Illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight cause aging to occur
D. It is described by changes in outward appearance
Đáp án
1-D 2-D 3-B 4-D 5-D 6-B 7-B 8-D 9-B 10-A
11-A 12-B 13-D 14-B 15-D 16-B 17-B 18-A 19-B 20-C
21-B 22-B 23-A 24-A 25-B 26-B 27-A 28-B 29-B 30-C
31-C 32-A 33-C 34-C 35-B 36-C 37-A 38-C 39-C 40-A
41-A 42-C 43-D 44-A 45-B 46-D 47-B 48-B 49-A 50-C
ĐỀ SỐ 14 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. dinner B. distribute C. mine D. begin
Question 2. A. factory B. satisfy C. ability D. easy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. diverse B. desert C. sector D. willing
Question 4. A. volunteer B. Vietnamese C. expedition D. sociable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. We need_____________money to send our son to Oxford University.
A. a large sum of B. a few of C. many D. lot of
Question 6. Only after she had finished the course did she realize she_____________a wrong
choice.
A. had made B. has made C. had been making D. was making
Question 7. Tom denied_____________part in the fighting at school.
A. to take B. take C. to taking D. taking
Question 8. I_____________buy that book because I didn’t bring any money with me.
A. can’t B. couldn’t C. may not D. must
Question 9. Two people are said_____________in the accident two weeks ago.
A. to get hurt B. got hurt C. to have got hurt D. to have been got hurt
Question 10. John, along with twenty students, _____________a party
A. plan B. have planned C. is planning D. are planning
Question 11. _____________really surprised all of us
A. That he can speak Vietnamese very well
B. He can speak Vietnamese very well
C. It is he can speak Vietnamese very well
D. The fact is he can speak Vietnamese very well
Question 12. The students are expected to stick_____________their school’s regulation.
A. in B. at C. to D. by
Question 13. Many species of plants and animals are in_____________of extinction.
A. dangerous B. endangered C. danger D. dangerously
Question 14. The wine had made him a little_____________and couldn’t control his movement.
A. narrow-minded B. light-headed C. light-footed D. light-hearted
Question 15. Pesticide residues in fruit and vegetable can be_____________to health.
A. crucial B. supportive C. receptive D. destructive
Question 16. Thomas knows Paris like the back of his_____________. He used to be a taxi
driver there for 2 years.
A. head B. mind C. hand D. life
Question 17. We are_____________a survey to find out what our customers think of their local
bus service.
A. conducting B. researching C. corresponding D. investigating
Question 18. when the light_____________, we couldn’t see anything.
A. came off B. put out C. switched off D. went out
Mark A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 19. To everyone’s surprise, it wasn’t in Bristol which he made his fortune, although
that’s where he was born.
A. To B. surprise C. which D. made
Question 20. After spending two days arguing about where to go for their holidays, it was
decided that they shouldn’t go anywhere.
A. arguing B. for C. it was decided D. shouldn’t go
Question 21. Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their
experience in the film industry.
A. successful B. film directions C. former D. expand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following sentences.
Question 22. “Do you believe in what the boy says, Mary?” said Tom.
A. Tom asked Mary if she believed in what the boy said.
B. Tom asked Mary to believe in what the boy said.
C. Tom asked Mary whether she believes in what the boy says.
D. Tom said that Mary believed in what the boy said.
Question 23. John is fat because he eats so many chips.
A. If John didn’t eat so many chips, he would not be fat.
B. John is fat though he eats so many chips.
C. Being fat, John eats so many chips.
D. If John doesn’t eat so many chips, he will not be fat.
Question 24. Refusal to give a breath sample to the police could lead to your arrest.
A. If you refused to be arrested, you have to give a breath sample.
B. You could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police.
C. If a breath sample is not given, the police will refuse to arrest you.
D. The police could cause you to give a breath sample to decide whether to arrest you or not.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 25. People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees
in the park.
A. People should either throw rubbish in the park or cut down the trees in the park.
B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
C. People should either throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
D. People should neither throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park.
Question 26. The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems.
A. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problems.
B. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problems.
C. He was so bright a student that he could solve all the math problems.
D. Such bright was the student that he could solve all the math problems.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. A student is asking the librarian to help her to fax a report.
Student: “Could you help me to fax this report?”
Librarian: “_____________”
A. Sorry, I have no idea.
B. It’s very kind of you to say so.
C. What rubbish! I don’t think it’s helpful.
D. Certainly, what’s the fax number?
Question 28. Anne is complaining about the noise from the next - door house.
Anne: “I can’t really stand the noise from the next-door house, especially after 10 p.m.”
Mary: “_____________. You should talk to your neighbor.”
A. Calm down, Anne. B. I’m sorry. I didn’t mean that.
C. I know what you mean. D. What a silly girl.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Tet marks the beginning of spring and, for agrarian people who depend on the
lunar
calendar to manage their crops, the start of the year.
A. traditional ones B. minority people C. farmers D. old people
Question 30. The government decided to pull down the old building after asking for the ideas
from the local resident.
A. renovate B. purchase C. maintain D. demolish
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 31. His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has
won a
lot of prizes.
A. difficulty B. barrier C. advantage D. disadvantage
Question 32. Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to
cooperate more in the future.
A. express disapproval of B. voice opinions on
C. find favor with D. resolve a conflict over
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks.
Parents whose children show a special interest in a particular sport have a difficult decision to
(33) _____________about their childrens career, should they allow their children to train to
become top sportsmen and women? For many children it means starting very young and school
work, going out with friends and other interests have to take second place. It’s very difficult to
explain to a young child why he or she has to train for five hours a day, even at the weekend,
when most of his or her friends are playing.
Another problem is of course money. In many countries money for training is (34) ___________
from the government for the very best young sportsmen and women. If this help cannot be
given, it means that it is the parents that have to find the time and the money to support their
child’s (35) _____________and sports clothes, transport to competitions, special equipment etc.
can all be very expensive.
Many parents are understandably concerned that it is dangerous to start serious training in a sport at an
early age. Some doctors agree that young muscles may be damaged by training before they are properly
developed. Professional trainers, (36) _____________, believe that it is only by starting young that you
can reach the top as a successful sports person. What is clear is that very (37) _____________ people
reach the top and both parents and children should be prepared for failure even after many years of
training.
Question 33. A. do B. plan C. make D. prepare
Question 34. A. enough B. available C. possible D. enormous
Question 35. A. development B. develop C. developing D. developed
Question 36. A. furthermore B. in addition C. moreover D. however
Question 37. A. little B. many C. a few D. few
Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
Paul Watson is an environmental activist. He is a man who believes that he must do something,
not just talk about doing something. Paul believes in protecting endangered animals, and he
protects them in controversial ways. Some people think that Watson is a hero and admire him
very much. Other people think that he is a criminal.
On July 16th, 1979, Paul Watson and his crew were on his ship, which is called the Sea
Shepherd. Watson and the people who work on the Sea shepherd were hunting on the Atlantic
Ocean near Portugal. However, they had a strange prey; instead of hunting for animals, their
prey was a ship, the Sierra. The Sea shepherd found the Sierra, ran into it and sank it. As a result,
the Sierra never returned to the sea. The Sea Shepherd, on the other hand, returned to its home in
Canada. Paul Watson and his workers thought that they had been successful.
The Sierra had been a whaling ship, which had operated illegally. The captain and crew of the
Sierra did not obey any of the international laws that restrict whaling. Instead, they killed as
many whales as they could, quickly cut off the meat, and froze it. Later, they sold the whale
meat in countries where it is eaten. Paul Watson tried to persuade the international whaling
commission to stop the Sierra. However, the commission did very little, and Paul became
impatient. He decided to stop the Sierra and other whaling ships in any way that he could. He
offered to pay $25,000 to anyone who sank any illegal whaling ship, and he sank the Sierra. He
acted because he believes that the whales must be protected. Still, he acted without the approval
of the government; therefore, his actions were controversial.
Paul Watson is not the only environmental activist. Other men and women are also fighting to
protect the Earth. Like Watson, they do not always have the approval of their governments, and
like Watson, they have become impatient. Yet, because of their concern for the environment,
they will act to protect it.
(Adapted from “Eco fighters” by Eric Schwartz, OMNI)
Question 38. According to the reading, an environmental activist is someone
who_____________.
A. runs into whaling ship.
B. does something to protect the Earth.
C. talks about protecting endangered species.
D. is a hero, like Paul Watson.
Question 39. when something is “controversial”, _____________.
A. everyone agrees with it. B. everyone disagrees with it.
C. people have different ideas about it. D. people protect it.
Question 40. The Sea Shepherd was hunting_____________.
A. the Atlantic Ocean B. whales C. the Sierra D. Portugal
Question 41. The author implies that Paul Watson lives in_____________.
A. Portugal B. a ship on the Atlantic
C. the Sierra D. Canada
Question 42. In paragraph 3, the phrase “and froze it” refers to_____________.
A. whale meat B. the Sierra C. whales D. the Sierra crew
Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer for
each of the blanks. The ocean bottom - a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area
of Earth - is a vast frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a
century ago, the deep-ocean floor was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging
over 3,600 meters deep. Totally without light and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of
times greater than at the Earths surface, the deep- ocean bottom is a hostile environment to
humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer space.
Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a
century,the first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until
1968, with the beginning of the National Science Foundations Deep Sea Drilling Project
(DSDP). Using techniques
first developed for the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP’s drill ship, the Glomar
Challenger, was able to maintain a steady position on the ocean’s surface and drill in very deep
waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from the ocean floor. The Glomar Challenger
completed 96 voyages in a 15-year research program that ended in November 1983. During this
time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed
sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar challenger’s core
samples have allowed geologists to reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions
of years ago and to calculate what it will probably look like millions of years in the future.
Today, largely on the strength of evidence gathered during the Glomar Challenger’s voyages,
nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift that explain
many of the geological processes that shape the Earth. The cores of sediment drilled by the
Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to understanding the world’s past
climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back hundreds of millions
of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the intense chemical
and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates. This
record has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change -
information that may be used to predict future climates.
Question 43. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a “frontier” because it_____________
A. is not a popular area for scientific research
B. contains a wide variety of life forms
C. attracts courageous explorers
D. is an unknown territory
Question 44. The word “inaccessible” is closest in meaning to_____________
A. unrecognizable B. unreachable C. unusable D. unsafe
Question 45. The author mentions “outer space” because_____________
A. the Earth’s climate millions of years ago was similar to conditions in outer space.
B. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment.
C. rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor.
D. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean exploration
Question 46. which of the following is true of the Glomar Challenger?
A. It is a type of submarine. B. It is an ongoing project.
C. It has gone on over 100 voyages. D. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968.
Question 47. The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was_____________
A. an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas
B. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom
C. omposed of geologists from all over the world
D.. unded entirely by the gas and oil industry
Question 48. The word “they” refers to_____________
A. years B. climates C. sediments D. cores
Question 49. which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the
Deep Sea Drilling Project?
A.. eologists were able to determine the Earths appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.
B. T o geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.
C. Information was revealed about the Earth’s past climatic changes.
D.. eologists observed forms of marine life never seen before.
Question 50. How long did the Glomar Challenger conduct its research?
A.. years B. 5 years C. 15 years D. 16 years
Đáp án
1-C 2-B 3-A 4-D 5-A 6-A 7-D 8-B 9-C 10-C
11-A 12-C 13-C 14-B 15-D 16-C 17-A 18-D 19-C 20-C
21-B 22-A 23-A 24-B 25-B 26-C 27-D 28-A 29-C 30-D
31-C 32-A 33-C 34-B 35-A 36-D 37-D 38-B 39-C 40-C
41-D 42-A 43-D 44-B 45-B 46-D 47-B 48-C 49-D 50-C
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

ĐỀ SỐ 15 NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. announced B. evaluated C. enunciated D. demanded
Question 2. A. queue B. quarter C. quadruple D. questionnaire
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. record B. mentor C. timber D. bother
Question 4. A. catastrophe B. millennium C. acknowledgement D. photograph
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Peter ordered a pizza and salad.__________pizza was nice but__________salad was
disgusting.
A. A/a B. The/ ∅ C. ∅/∅ D. The/the
Question 6. Since the end of the war, the Government __________over five thousand of
prisoners.
A. have released B. released C. has released D. has been released
Question 7. The suspect was seen__________the building by at least a dozen witnesses.
A. enter B. to entering C. entering D. entered
Question 8. The four men are widely believed__________by their captors because their family
did not agree to pay the ransom.
A. to kill B. to have been killed
C. to have killed D. to be killed
Question 9. Having counted all the students on the bus, __________
A. the vehicle started moving B. the vehicle was driven
C. they were allowed to play D. the driver started to drive
Question 10. Many exam candidates lose marks simply__________they do not read the
questions properly.
A. because of B. because C. due to D. owing that
Question 11. What__________to your family if you were to die in an accident?
A. happens B. would happen C. will happen D. happened
Question 12. Those Americans are looking for a place where they can exchange their
dollars__________pounds.
A. into B. to C. for D. with
Question 13. All attempts at__________were stamped on by senior officials.
A. modernise B. modernisers C. modernisation D. modernising
Question 14. NATO has finally arrived at an important decision to__________cruise missiles
in the battle.
A. employ B. deploy C. defeat D. withdraw
Question 15. The woman crying in front of the burning house has lost her
most__________possession in the fire.
A. valued B. appreciated C. recognised D. prized
Question 16. The woman was confused about whether or not to__________the pregnancy.
A. stop B. terminate C. eradicate D. dismiss
Question 17. His voice had a freshness that would make many tenors under the age of 40 go
green with__________.
A. jealousy B. hatred C. envy D. arrogance
Question 18. This band normally__________their album with an instrumental track.
A. closes off B. closes up C. closes down D. closes out
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. what was once a great and powerful empire have effectively ceased to be.
A. to be B. have effectively C. powerful D. was once
Question 20. One of the boys kept laughing, this annoyed Jane intensely.
A. this B. one of the boys C. intensely D. laughing
Question 21. I’m trying to cut down on diary product intake and it’s difficult because I adore
cheese.
A. I adore cheese B. diary product intake
C. difficult D. trying to cut
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. This country wouldn’t have much income without tourism.
A. Tourism is developing very quickly in this country.
B. Tourism development is going up in this country.
C. This country depends on its tourism for making its income.
D. In order to develop, this country invests into tourism.
Question 23. Many people were severely critical of the proposal for the new motorway.
A. There was severe criticism of the proposal for the new motorway.
B. The proposals for the new motorway was severely criticized.
C. There was the proposal for the new motorway, but many people were criticised.
D. Many people were severely criticised by the new motorway that was proposed.
Question 24. There was no precedent for the President’s resignation in the country.
A. The President resigned in the country, which seemed strange.
B. Never before had any President resigned in the country.
C. That the President resigned becomes a scandal in the country.
D. Never before there was an event that President resigned in the country.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in the
competition.
B. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn’t do well in the
competition.
C. Such were his friends’ support and encouragement that he couldn’t do really well in the
competition.
D. Had it not been for his friends’ support and encouragement, he couldn’t have done so well in
the competition.
Question 26. Joe has finished his first-aid course. He proves extremely helpful as a rescue
worker.
A. Although Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker, he hasn’t finished his first-aid
course.
B. Without finishing his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker,
C. However helpful Joe proves as a rescue worker, he hasn’t finished his first-aid course.
D. Having finished his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Tim: “__________”
Laura: “Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.”
A. When have you got this beautiful dress?
B. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
C. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!
Question 28. Tim: “Would you like to have dinner with me?” -
Steve: “__________.”
A. Yes, so do I B. Yes, it is C. Yes, I’d love to D. I’m very happy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Within their home country, National Red Cross and Red Crescent societies assume
the duties and responsibilities of a national relief society.
A. get off B. take on C. go about D. put in
Question 30.1 had tried to sketch an aspect of life that I had seen and known, and that was very
well indeed, and I had wrought patiently and carefully in the art of the poor little affair.
A. a nature B. a part C. a character D. an appearance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
Question 31. She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problems we are
facing.
A. broke B. wealthy C. kind D. poor
Question 32. He fell foul of me when I asked him to apologize to his teacher.
A. quarrelled with me B. made friends with me
C. attacked me D. showed appreciation for me
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
The wildlife of the Juan Fernandez Archipelago remained undisturbed until the arrival of
European settlers, who introduced their animals to the Islands. Amongst these were goats and
cows to be bred for meat and milk, but also rats and mice which had jumped ship. Cats later
brought over to kill these pests also quickly escaped into the (33) __________. Little did the
settlers understand the impact this would have on local species. The rabbits they’d brought over
too, could not be held in captivity for long, and their numbers rapidly expanded. But it was not
just fauna that arrived but also (34) __________. Plants such as the blackberry bramble
flourished in the tropical climate and spread throughout the native forest. In the past, the islands’
birds had no natural predators. Many therefore evolved to lay their eggs in ground
nests. This habit now makes them incredibly (35) __________as rats and mice destroy their eggs
and cats devour the newly hatched chicks. Meanwhile grazing goats, rabbits and cows have
turned once fertile valleys into wasteland. One now rare tree species is known as the Luma, in
which firecrown hummingbirds nests. Today the Luma is being covered over by spiky
blackberry brambles, the hummingbird’s natural habitat is disappearing and the fear is that they
will soon (36) __________. Conservationists from Chile and around the world are uniting to
show the urgent need for preservation of these islands’ original and unique species. They know
the best way to do this is to (37) __________the plants and animals that are alien species.
Question 33. A. landscape B. surroundings C. scenery D. wild
Question 34. A. crops B. flora C. vegetation D. weeds
Question 35. A. susceptible B. risky C. incapable D. vulnerable
Question 36. A. wipe out B. die out C. pass away D. go through
Question 37. A. ban B. abolish C. eradicate D. demolish
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
TEENAGE FICTION
Teenagers have their own TV channels, websites and magazines. So, what about books? Last
year one publisher, Martins, started publishing a series called Waves. We spoke to the director
Julia Smith. She explained, “Teenage fiction has been published since the 1970s but publishers
have never been particularly successful in getting teenagers to buy and read books. Now they’re
realizing that teenagers aren’t just older children but they’re not adults either and often aren’t
interested in adult fiction. For this series we’re looking for new writers who write especially for
teenagers.”
Athene Gorr’s novel was published in the series last year and is selling well. Its title is The
Purple Ring, she says, “The important thing is to persuade teenagers to pick up your book. I’m a
new writer so, although I’ve got an unusual name which people might remember, nobody knows
it yet! But my book has a fantastic cover which makes people want to look inside. Then they
realize what a brilliant story it is!”
And what do teenagers themselves think about the series? We talked to Sophie Clarke, aged 15.
She said, “I’ve read a few books in the Waves series. They say they’re for 14 - 19 year-olds and I
agree with that.
We’re not interested in the same things as people in their twenties and thirties. I like them and I
think they look really good too. The only thing is that because bookshops put them in the
children’s section, lots of teenagers won’t find them so they may not do very well. And it’s a
shame there’s no non-fiction in the series as I think lots of teenagers, especially boys, might buy
that.”
Question 38. What is the writer trying to do?
A. give information about a new series of books
B. explain why teenager fiction is easier to write than adult fiction
C. persuade authors to write more teenager fiction
D. compare different series of teenager fiction
Question 39. Julia Smith says publishers now recognize that teenagers__________.
A. can enjoy the same kind of stories as adults
B. are more interested in reading nowadays
C. grow up more quickly nowadays
D. are neither children nor adults
Question 40. Athene Gorr thinks teenagers were attracted to her book because of__________
A. its cover B. the story C. its title D. her name
Question 41. What does Sophie Clarke say about the books in the Waves series?
A. They shouldn’t be kept with children’s books.
B. She would prefer to read adult fiction.
C. They will be bought by lots of teenagers.
D. She isn’t keen on the design.
Question 42. Which of these paragraphs could be used to advertise the Waves series?
A. “This series is for all teenagers and those who are nearly teenagers, whether you’re 10 or 19,
you’ll find something here to please you.”
B. “Choose a book from the Waves series. It includes both fiction and non-fiction and is aimed at
teenagers aged 14+.”
C. “The Waves series has been popular with teenagers since the 1970s. This year we have added
20 new writers to our list.”
D. “If you’re aged between 14 and 19, don’t miss the Waves series which has novels by new
authors.”
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
SPORTS COMMENTARY
One of the most interesting and distinctive of all uses of language is commentary. An oral
reporting of ongoing activity, commentary is used in such public arenas as political ceremonies,
parades, funerals, fashion shows and cooking demonstrations. The most frequently occurring
type of commentary may be that connected with sports and games. In sports there are two kinds
of commentary, and both are often used for the same sporting event. “Play-by-play” commentary
narrates the sports event, while “colour - adding” or “colour” commentary provides the audience
with pre-event background, during-event interpretation, and post¬event evaluation. Colour
commentary is usually conversational in style and can
be a dialogue with two or more commentators.
Play-by-play commentary is of interest to linguists because it is unlike other kinds of narrative,
which are typically reported in past tense. Play-by-play commentary is reported in present tense.
Some examples are “he takes the lead by four” and “she’s in position.” One linguist characterizes
radio play-by-play commentary as “a monologue directed at an unknown, unseen mass audience
who voluntarily choose to listen...and provide no feedback to the speaker.” It is these
characteristics that make this kind of commentary unlike any other type of speech situation.
The chief feature of play-by-play commentary is a highly formulaic style of presentation. There
is distinctive grammar not only in the use of the present tense but also in the omission of certain
elements of sentence structure. For example, “Smith in close” eliminates the verb, as some
newspaper headlines do.
Another example is inverted word order, as in “over at third is Johnson.” Play-by-play
commentary is very fluent, keeping up with the pace of the action. The rate is steady and there is
little silence. The structure of the commentary is cyclical, reflecting the way most games consist
of recurring sequences of short activities---as in tennis and baseball---or a limited number of
activity options---as in the various kinds of football. In racing, the structure is even simpler, with
the commentator informing the listener of the varying order of the competitors in a “state of
play” summary, which is crucial for listeners or viewers who have just tuned in.
Question 43. The word “that” in paragraph 1 refers to?
A. commentary B. an ongoing activity
C. language D. sporting event
Question 44. Which of the following statement is true of colour commentary?
A. It narrates the action of the event in real time, using the present tense.
B. It is a monologue given to an audience that does not respond to the speaker.
C. It is steady and fluent because it must keep up with the action of the event.
D. It gives background on the event, and interprets and evaluates the event.
Question 45. How is play-by-play commentary distinct from other types of narrative?
A. It is not published in magazines. B. It involves only one reporter.
C. It is not spoken in past tense. D. It takes place after the event.
Question 46. why does the author quote a linguist in paragraph 2?
A. To give examples of play-by-play commentary.
B. To show how technical sports commentary is.
C. To describe the uniqueness of radio play-by-play.
D. To criticize past trends in sports commentary.
Question 47. The word “pace” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to?
A. speed B. score C. cause D. plan
Question 48. The word “crucial” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to?
A. fascinating B. important C. confusing D. generous
Question 49. It can be inferred from the passage that the author most likely agrees with H which
of the following statements about sports commentary?
A. Sports commentators should work hard to improve their grammar,
B. Sports commentators do not need special knowledge of the sport.
C. Colour commentary is more important than play-by-play commentary.
D. Commentary enhances the excitement and enjoyment of sports.
Question 50. What mainly makes play-by-play commentary special?
A. a highly formulaic style of presentation
B. the distinctive use of present tense
C. the omission of certain sentence elements
D. the inverted word order
Đáp án
1-A 2-A 3-A 4-D 5-D 6-C 7-C 8-B 9-D 10-B
11-B 12-C 13-C 14-B 15-D 16-B 17-C 18-D 19-B 20-A
21-B 22-C 23-A 24-B 25-D 26-D 27-D 28-C 29-B 30-B
31-D 32-D 33-D 34-B 35-D 36-B 37-C 38-A 39-D 40-A
41-A 42-D 43-A 44-D 45-C 46-C 47-A 48-B 49-B 50-A
ĐỀ SỐ 16 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. expand B. stagnant C. vacancy D. applicant
Question 2. A. examine B. employ C. exact D. species
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. attention B. financial C. guarantee D. courageous
Question 4. A. profit B. modern C. typhoon D. feature
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Some encyclopedias provide___________on specific fields such as music or
philosophy.
A. information B. informations C. informing D. informativation
Question 6. This time last Friday, we___________to Moscow.
A. flew B. had flown C. were being flown D. were flying
Question 7. My boss expects the report___________on time.
A. to be completed B. to complete C. completing D. being completed
Question 8. The language centre offers courses of various levels, such as elementary,
intermediate and___________.
A. advance B. advancement C. advanced D. advancing
Question 9. ___________5 months for the fridge to be delivered, I decide to cancel the order.
A. Waiting B. Waited C. Having waited D. Had waited
Question 10. The clothes of my sister are more expensive___________of my mother.
A. than this B. than that C. than those D. than these
Question 11. In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye___________with the
interviewers.
A. link B. connection C. touch D. contact
Question 12. It is___________of businessmen to shake hands in formal meetings.
A. familiar B. typical C. ordinary D. common
Question 13. Yesterday, John told me that he wished he___________harder in high school then
university might not be so difficult for him.
A. studied B. would study C. had studied D. studies
Question 14. Peter was the last applicant___________by that interviewer.
A. to interview B. interviewing C. to be interviewing D. to be interviewed
Question 15. He fixed a metal ladder to the wall below his window___________escape if there
was a fire.
A. to B. not to C. so as not D. so that
Question 16. He came___________a lot of criticism for the remarks he made in a television
interview.
A. in for B. over C. out of D. off
Question 17. Jane has never enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera. They are not really
her___________.
A. piece of cake B. cup of tea C. biscuit D. chip off the old block
Question 18. I always get in my stomach before visiting the dentist. ___________
A. worms B. butterflies C. crabs D. mosquitoes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. The keynote speaker started with some complementary remarks about the
organizers of the conference, and then proceeded with her speech.
A. The keynote speaker B. complementary remarks
C. organizers D. proceeded
Question 20. when I got home, Irene lay in bed watching a blockbuster movie.
A. got home B. lay C. watching D. blockbuster
Question 21. The graduated assistant informed us that the first exam was the most difficult of the
two.
A. graduated B. informed C. the first D. most difficult
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. In Vietnam, football is more popular than basketball.
A. In Vietnam, basketball is not as popular as football.
B. In Vietnam, basketball is more popular than football.
C. In Vietnam, football is not as popular as basketball.
D. In Vietnam, football is as popular as basketball.
Question 23. It usually takes her an hour to drive to work.
A. She never spends an hour driving to work.
B. She used to drive to work in an hour.
C. She doesn’t usually drive to work in an hour.
D. She usually spends an hour driving to work.
Question 24. It is believed that modern farming methods have greatly improved farmers’ lives.
A. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers’ lives thanks to modern farming
methods.
B. Modern farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers’ lives.
C. Modern farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers’ lives.
D. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modern farming methods.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. We gain more knowledge about how to stay safe online. We worry about the threats
of cybercrime less.
A. The more knowledge about how to stay safe online we gain, the less we worry about the
threats of cybercrime.
B. The more we stay online to gain safety knowledge, the less we worry about the threats of
cybercrime.
C. The more knowledge about how to stay safe online we gain, the more we worry about the
threats of cybercrime.
D. The more we know about how to stay safe online, we worry about the threats of cybercrime
less.
Question 26. The new contract sounds good. However, it seems to have some problems.
A. In spite of the fact that the new contract sounds good, it appears to have some problems.
B. In spite of its sound, the new contract appears to have some problems.
C. In order to get less problem, the new contract should improve its sound.
D. If it had much less problems, the new contract would sound better.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Liz and Jenifer are talking about the gift Jenifer brought.
- Liz: “Thanks for the nice gift you brought to us!”
- Jenifer: “__________ ”
A. Not at all, don’t mention it.
B. Welcome! It’s very nice of you.
C. Alright! Do you know how much it costs?
D. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it.
Question 28. Ben has done something by accident.
- Ben: “___________”
- Jane: “Never mind”
A. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned
B. Would you mind going to dinner next Sunday?
C. Thank you for being honest with me.
D. Congratulations! How wonderful!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. The football final has been postponed until next Sunday due to the heavy
snowstorm.
A. cancelled B. changed C. delayed D. continued
Question 30. The discovery of the new planet was regarded as a major breakthrough in
astronomy.
A. promised B. doubted C. considered D. refused
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. People nationwide have acted without hesitation to provide aids for the victims in
the disaster-stricken areas.
A. awareness B. uncertainty C. reluctance D. willingness
Question 32. Any student who neglects his or her homework is unlikely to do well at school.
A. puts off B. looks for C. attends to D. approves of
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Back in the 1960s and 1970s, the world was becoming more aware of the destructive effects of
industry (33) ___________. the environment and people were starting to think seriously about
ways of protecting the environment. One man who was particularly affected by this subject was
Gerard Morgan- Grenville. As Morgan-Grenville travelled round earning his living as a
gardener, he noticed signs of damage that was being done to the countryside around him. It
wasn’t long before Morgan-Grenville decided that he had to do something about this situation.
He felt that if people could be shown a better way of living then maybe they would be interested
enough to try to protect their (34) ___________environment.
Mr. Morgan-Grenville decided to set up a project (35) ___________would prove what was
happening to our surroundings and what could be done about it. So, in 1975, Morgan-Grenville
created the Centre for Alternative Technology (CAT) in a village in Wales.
The main aim of CAT is to search for an ecologically better way of living by using technology
which (36) ___________no harm to the environment. One of the most important things CAT did
initially was to explore and demonstrate a wide range of techniques and to point out which ones
had the least destructive results on the world around us. (37) ___________, CAT provides
information and advice to people all over Britain and all over the world. If more and more
individuals are informed about how much damage our modern lifestyle is causing to the planet,
maybe more of them would be prepared to look for practical solutions to environmental
problems.
Question 33. A. for B. to C. with D. on
Question 34. A. worthless B. valueless C. precious D. priceless
Question 35. A. that B. whose C. who D. this
Question 36. A. gets B. makes C. plays D. does
Question 37. A. Therefore B. However C. Moreover D. Although
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
The custom of paying a bride price before marriage is still a well-established part of many
African cultures. In paying a bride price, the family of the groom must provide payment to the
family of the bride before the marriage is allowed. The bride price can vary greatly from culture
to culture in Africa.
In the Zulu and Swazi tribes of southern Africa, the bride price often takes the form of cattle. In
Western African, kola nuts, shells, and other goods are often used for the payment of the bride
price. The actual payment of money sometimes takes place, but the payment of goods is more
frequent. The amount of paid in a bride price can also vary. In modern times, the bride price is
occasionally quite small and its value is mainly symbolic. However, the bride price can still be
quite high, especially among prominent or highly traditional families.
There are a number of justifications used to explain the payment of bride price. The first is that
the bride price represents an acknowledgement of the expense the bride’s family has gone in
order to raise her and bring her up as a suitable bride for the groom. It also represents payment
for the loss of a family member, since the bride will officially become a member of her husbands
family and will leave her own. On a deeper level the bride price represents payment for the fact
that the bride will bring children into the family of the groom, thereby increasing the wealth of
the family. This concept is reinforced by the fact that the bride price must often be returned if the
bride fails to bear children.
The payment of the bride price has quite a number of effects on African society. First, the
payment of bride price acts to increase the stability of African family structures. Sons are
dependent on their fathers and older relatives to help them pay the bride price of their wives, and
this generally leads to greater levels of obedience and respect. The negotiations between the two
families concerning the bride price allow the parents and other family members to meet and get
to know one another before the marriage.
Finally, since the bride price must often be repaid in case of divorce, the bride’s family often
works to make sure that any marital problems are solved quickly. Bride prices also work as a
system of wealth distribution in African cultures. Wealthier families can afford to support the
marriage of their son, and thus their wealth is transferred to other families.
Question 38. What is the topic of the passage?
A. The most common payments of the bride price in African cultures.
B. The effects of the practice of bride price on African society.
C. The practice of bride price in many African cultures.
D. The financial problems arising after marriage.
Question 39. The word “prominent” in paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to____________.
A. famous B. impoverished C. two-parent D. affluent
Question 40. The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. Justification B. The expense of raising the bride
C. An acknowledgement D. The bride price
Question 41. It can be inferred from the paragraph 2 that____________.
A. After marriage, married women never see their parents again.
B. The family of the groom pays the bride price on the wedding day.
C. African society puts more value on men than women.
D. African families attach great importance to children.
Question 42. Which of the following statement is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. With the practice of paying the bride price, African men would not respect their family
members.
B. The initial negotiations over the bride price provide opportunities for the two families to get to
know each other.
C. Animals are an acceptable form of payment when it comes to paying the bride price.
D. The bride’s family has to return the bride price to the groom’s in case the couple are unable to
have children or get divorced.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Contrary to popular belief, one does not have to be trained programmer to work online. Of
course, there
are plenty of jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of new
media has
opened up a wide range of Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of
technical
expertise. Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the job of webmaster.
However, it is hard to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications and
responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular organization needs a webmaster to perform.
To specify the job description of a webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software
that the website the webmaster will manage is running on. Different types of hardware and
software require different skill sets to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website
will be running internally (at the firm itself) or externally (renting shared space on the company
servers). Finally, the responsibilities of a webmaster also depend on whether he or she will be
working independently, or whether the firm will provide people to help. All of these factors need
to be considered before one can create an accurate webmaster job description.
Webmaster is one type of Internet career requiring in-depth knowledge of the latest computer
applications. However, there are also online jobs available for which traditional skills remain in
high demand. Content jobs require excellent writing skills and a good sense of the web as a “new
media”.
The term “new media” is difficult to define because it encompasses a constantly growing set of
new technologies and skills, specifically, it includes websites, email, Internet technology, CD-
ROM, DVD, streaming audio and video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital
music, computer illustration, video games, virtually reality, and computer artistry.
Additionally, many of today’s Internet careers are becoming paid-by-the-job professions. With
many companies having to downsize in tough economic items, the outsourcing and contracting
of freelance workers online has become common business practice. The Internet provides an
infinite pool of buyers from around the world with whom freelancers can contract their services.
An added benefit to such online jobs is that freelancers are able to work on projects with
companies outside their own country of residence.
How much can a person make in these kinds of career? As with many questions related to todays
evolving technology, there is no simple answer. There are many companies willing to pay people
with technical Internet skills salaries well above $70,000 a year. Generally, webmasters start at
about $30,000 per year, but salaries can vary greatly. Freelance writers working online have been
known to make between $40,000 and $70,000 per year.
Question 43. What is the best title for this passage?
A. The definition of “new media” B. Internet jobs
C. The job of Webmasters D. People with Internet skills
Question 44. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE of webmasters?
A. They work either independently or collaboratively.
B. The duties they perform stay almost unchanged.
C. Their jobs require a minimal level of expertise
D. They hardly support hardware and software products.
Question 45. The word “identity” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to____________
A. find out B. pick up on C. come across D. look into
Question 46. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. websites B. tasks C. hardware and software D. skill sets
Question 47. Which of the followings is NOT true about the job of the freelance writers?
A. It may involve working with foreign companies.
B. It is considered a “content” job.
C. There is a high demand for traditional skills.
D. It requires deep knowledge of computer applications.
Question 48. The word “downsize” in paragraph 5 most likely means____________.
A. dismiss workers B. decrease salary C. go bankrupt D. win new contracts
Question 49. According to the passage, all of the followings are true EXCEPT____________.
A. A basic job description for a webmaster is not easy to define.
B. A webmaster does not have to get himself updated with computer science.
C. “New media” does not encompass writing skills.
D. Online jobs for workers with basic computer skills are available.
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that____________.
A. only well-trained workers are advised to work online.
B. online workers can work full-time online.
C. becoming a webmaster is really easy.
D. workers with limited computer skills cannot make good money.
Đáp án
1-C 2-D 3-C 4-C 5-A 6-D 7-A 8-C 9-C 10-C
11-D 12-B 13-C 14-D 15-A 16-A 17-B 18-B 19-B 20-B
21-D 22-A 23-D 24-D 25-A 26-A 27-A 28-A 29-C 30-C
31-D 32-C 33-D 34-D 35-A 36-D 37-C 38-C 39-A 40-D
41-D 42-A 43-B 44-A 45-A 46-C 47-D 48-A 49-B 50-B
ĐỀ SỐ 17 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the -word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. comb B. come C. dome D. home
Question 2. A. volunteer B. trust C. fuss D. judge
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. sleepy B. trophy C. facial D. exact
Question 4. A. authority B. necessity C. academic D. commercially
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. He was not offered the job because he knew____________about Information
Technology.
A. a little B. little C. many D. a few
Question 6. Graham was disappointed because he____________for the bus for an hour.
A. was waiting B. waited C. has been waiting D. had been waiting
Question 7. Sally hoped____________to join the private club. She could make important
business contacts there.
A. inviting B. being invited C. to invite D. to be invited
Question 8. ____________the homework, he was allowed to go out with his friends.
A. finishing B. finish C. to finish D. having finished
Question 9. The country is rapidly losing its workers as____________people are emigrating.
A. the most and the most B. the more and the more
C. more and more D. most and most
Question 10. It is absolutely essential that she____________ head office in advance.
A. arrive B. arrives C. will arrive D. must arrive
Question 11. We have just visited disadvantaged children in an orphanage____________in Bac
Ninh Province.
A. located B. locating C. which locates D. to locate
Question 12. Peter works hard at everything he does. His brother, ____________, seldom puts
out much effort.
A. on the other hand B. otherwise C. furthermore D. consequently
Question 13. John’s____________and efficiency at the company led to his promotion to Sales
Manager.
A. punctuality B. punctual C. punctuate D. punctually
Question 14. We truly respected our father and always____________by his rule.
A. submitted B. obeyed C. complied D. abode
Question 15. We were quite impressed by the____________students who came up with the
answer to our question almost instantly.
A. absent-minded B. big-headed C. quick-witted D. bad-tempered
Question 16. I am sure your sister will lend you a sympathetic____________when you explain
the situation to her.
A. eye B. ear C. arm D. finger
Question 17. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but
he____________to the occasion wonderfully.
A. raised B. rose C. fell D. faced
Question 18. You looked exhausted. I think you’ve____________more than you can handle.
A. turned on B. taken up C. turned up D. taken on
Mark A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 19. The more tired you are, the more hard you can concentrate.
A. more tired B. you are C. more hard D. concentrate
Question 20. The ocean probably distinguishes the earth from other planets of the solar system,
for scientists believe that large bodies of water are not existing on the other planets.
A. probably B. for C. are not existing D. from
Question 21. There were considerate amounts of money wasted on large building projects.
A. considerate B. amounts C. wasted D. building
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following sentences.
Question 22. I thought I should not have stayed at home yesterday.
A. I regretted staying at home yesterday. B. I regretted for staying at home yesterday.
C. I regret for staying at home yesterday. D. I regret to stay at home yesterday.
Question 23. They don’t let the workers use the office telephone for personal calls.
A. They don’t allow using the office telephone to call personal secretaries.
B. They don’t allow workers to use the office telephone.
C. The office telephone is used by workers personally.
D. They don’t let the office telephone be used for personal purpose by workers
Question 24. “ You should have finished the report by now.” John told his secretary.
A. John reproached his secretary for not having finished the report.
B. John said that his secretary had not finished the report.
C. John reminded his secretary of finishing the report.
D. John scolded his secretary for not having finished the report.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 25. He hadn’t eaten anything since morning. He took the food eagerly.
A. He took the food eagerly although he had eaten a lot since dawn.
B. He took the food eagerly for he had eaten nothing since dawn.
C. He had eaten nothing since dawn so that he took the food eagerly.
D. He took the food so eagerly that he had eaten nothing since dawn.
Question 26. Julie had a training course in alternative medicine. She was able to help the man out
of danger.
A. Much as Julie had a training course in alternative medicine, she was able to help the man out
of danger.
B. Having trained in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
C. But for a training course in alternative medicine, Julie could have helped the man out of
danger.
D. Despite training in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Maria and Diana are talking about the evening.
Maria: “ Thanks for the lovely evening”
Diana: “____________”
A. I’m glad you enjoyed it B. Oh, That’s right
C. No, it’s not good D. Yes, it’s really great
Question 28. Tom came late for the meeting with Barbara.
Tom: “ Sorry, I’m late. The traffic was terrible”
Barbara: “____________”
A. My pleasure B. Don’t worry.
C. I wish I could but I’m sorry D. Well, let me see.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Since the death of Laura’s father, her mother has become a breadwinner to support
the
family.
A. a person who bakes bread every morning
B. a bakery-owner
C. a person who delivers bread to make money
D. a person who goes out to work to earn money
Question 30. Peter is the black sheep of the family, so he is never welcomed there.
A. a beloved member B. a bad and embarrassing member
C. the only child D. the eldest child
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 31. The loss of his journals had caused him even more sorrow than his retirement from
the military six years earlier.
A. grief B. joy C. comfort D. sympathy
Question 32. As a newspaper reporter, she always wanted to get information at first hand
A. indirectly B. directly C. easily D. slowly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
SPORTS IN SOCIETY
The position of sport in today’s society has changed out of all recognition. People no longer
seem to think of sports as ‘just a game’ - to be watched or played for the (33) ____________of
enjoyment.
Instead, it has become big business worldwide. It has become accepted practice for leading
companies to provide sponsorship. TV companies pay large sums of money to screen important
matches or competitions. The result has been huge rewards for athletes, some of (34)
____________are now very wealthy, particularly top footballers, golfers and tennis players. (35)
____________, it is not unusual for some athletes to receive large fees on top of their salary, for
advertising products or making personal appearances.
A trend towards shorter working hours means that people generally tend to have more free time,
both to
watch and to take in sporting activity; sport has become a significant part of the recreation
industry that
we now rely (36) ____________to fill our leisure hours. Professional sport is a vital part of that
industry, providing for millions of (37) ____________people all over the world.
Question 33. A. advantage B. good C. benefit D. sake
Question 34. A. whose B. whom C. who D. that
Question 35. A. In addition B. However C. In contrast D. Therefore
Question 36. A. for B. with C. on D. in
Question 37. A. ordinary B. mighty C. extremist D. abnormal
Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
In many ways, the increasingly rapid pace of climate change is a direct result of the growth of
the human population. In the last 100 years, the world population has more than tripled, from just
under 2 billion at the beginning of the century to nearly 7 billion today. In addition, the average
person uses more energy and natural resources than the average person one hundred years ago,
meaning that the rates of consumption are actually much higher than just the increase in
population would imply. For example, it took the world 125 years to use the first one trillion
barrels of oil. The next trillion barrels will be used in less than 30 years, which is almost 5 times
as fast, not three.
All of these activities: food production, energy usage, and the use of natural resources, contribute
to climate change in some way. The greater amounts of oil and other fuels burned to create
energy release chemicals which add to global warming. In order to produce more food, farmers
cut down trees to gain more land for their fields. In addition, we cut down trees to build the
houses needed for a larger population. Those trees are an essential part of controlling global
warming; others are too numerous to mention.
In addition to a growing population, the world also has a population that desires a higher
standard of living than in the past, and a higher standard of living requires the use of even more
natural resources.
A look at one country will provide a clear example of this fact. China is the worlds most
populous nation, with 1.3 billion people. Currently, the standard of living for most of those
people is far below that of people in first world nations. Therefore, the average Chinese citizen
uses far fewer natural resources and less energy than the average citizen of the US or Japan. But
China is growing in power, and more of its citizens are beginning to expect a first world lifestyle.
If every Chinese person attains a first world lifestyle, the amount of energy and natural resources
needed in the world will double, even if the standard of living in every other nation on Earth
remains the same as it is today.
Question 38. How many years did it take the world years to use the first one trillion barrels of
oil?
A. 100 years B. 125 years C. 30 years D. 7 years
Question 39. The word “consumption” in the passage is closest in meaning to___________.
A. development B. usage C. population D. increase
Question 40. According to the passage, which of these activities does NOT contribute to climate
change in some way?
A. food production B. energy usage
C. wild animals hunting D. natural resources consumption
Question 41. According to the passage, how does food production contribute to global warming?
A. Producing more food leads to growth in the world population.
B. Food production uses many chemicals which add to global warming.
C. Food production requires that the forests be cleared to create farmland.
D. Food production decreases the ability of the air to release heat..
Question 42. According to the passage, how does the standard of living affect global warming?
A. Higher standards of living are better for the environment.
B. First world nations create less population than developing nations.
C. The use of natural resources is directly related to the standard of living.
D. High standards of living lead to increases in world population.
Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of
the following questions.
Carnegie Hall, the famous concert hall in New York City, has again undergone a restoration.
While this is not the first, it is certainly the most extensive in the building’s history. As a result
of this new restoration, Carnegie Hall once again has the quality of sound that it had when it was
first built. Carnegie Hall owes its existence to Andrew Carnegie, the wealthy owner of a steel
company in the late 1800s. The hall was finished in 1891 and quickly gained a reputation as an
excellent performing arts hall where accomplished musicians gained fame. Despite its reputation,
however, the concert hall suffered from several detrimental renovations over the years. During
the Great Depression, when fewer people could afford to attend performances, the directors sold
part of the building to commercial businesses. As a result, a coffee shop was opened in one
corner of the building, for which the builders replaced the brick and terra cotta walls with
windowpanes. A renovation in 1946 seriously damaged the acoustical quality of the hall when
the makers of the film Carnegie Hall cut a gaping hole in the dome of the ceiling to allow
for lights and air vents. The hole was later covered with short curtains and a fake ceiling
but the hall never sounded the same afterwards.
In 1960, the violinist Isaac Stern became involved in restoring the hall after a group of real estate
developers unveiled plans to demolish Carnegie Hall and build a high-rise office building on the
site.
This threat spurred Stern to rally public support for Carnegie Hall and encourage the City of New
York to buy the property. The movement was successful, and the concert hall is now owned by
the city. In the current restoration, builders tested each new material for its sound qualities, and
they replaced the hole in the ceiling with a dome. The builders also restored the outer walls to
their original appearance and closed the coffee shop. Carnegie has never sounded better, and its
prospects for the future have never looked more promising.
Question 43. This passage is mainly about___________.
A. changes to Carnegie Hall
B. the appearance of Carnegie Hall
C. Carnegie Hall’s history during the Great Depression
D. damage to the ceiling in Carnegie Hall
Question 44. The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to___________.
A. Carnegie Hall B. New York City C. a restoration D. a plan
Question 45. what major change happened to the hall in 1946?
A. The acoustic dome was damaged.
B. Space in the building was sold to commercial businesses.
C. The walls were damaged in an earthquake.
D. The stage was renovated.
Question 46. Who was Andrew Carnegie?
A. A violinist B. An architect
C. A steel mill owner D. Mayor of New York City
Question 47. What was Isaac Stern’s relationship to Carnegie Hall?
A. He made the movie “Carnegie Hall” in 1946.
B. He performed on opening night in 1891.
C. He tried to save the hall, beginning in 1960.
D. He opened a coffee shop in Carnegie Hall during the Depression
Question 48. which of the following is closest in meaning to the word detrimental in paragraph
2?
A. dangerous B. trivial C. impressive D. damaging
Question 49. which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “unveiled” in paragraph 3?
A. announced B. restricted C. overshadowed D. located
Question 50. How does the author seem to feel about the future of Carnegie Hall?
A. ambiguous B. guarded C. optimistic D. negative
Đáp án
1-B 2-A 3-D 4-C 5-B 6-D 7-D 8-D 9-C 10-A
11-A 12-A 13-A 14-D 15-C 16-B 17-B 18-B 19-C 20-C
21-A 22-A 23-D 24-A 25-B 26-B 27-A 28-B 29-D 30-B
31-B 32-A 33-D 34-B 35-A 36-C 37-A 38-B 39-B 40-C
41-C 42-C 43-A 44-C 45-A 46-C 47-C 48-D 49-A 50-C
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ SỐ 18 NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. laugh B. cough C. enough D. though
Question 2. A. breath B. breathe C. with D. soothe
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. nuclear B. consist C. hello D. prepare
Question 4. A. economic B. solution C. convention D. specific
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. A complete_____________of terms and conditions should be made before the
agreement is signed.
A. examine B. examining C. examination D. examined
Question 6. I_____________one item early last week, but I am certain that I did not get the
receipt at that time
A. purchase B. purchases C. purchased D. have purchased
Question 7. American_____________to have been discovered by Colombus.
A. is said B. was said C. being said D. says
Question 8. _____________to set the alarm clock, Jenny left for work late this morning.
A. Forget B. To forget C. Having forgotten D. Forgotten
Question 9. Since he was unable to attend the annual meeting, Mr. Yokomate requested that the
minutes_____________to his office.
A. be sent B. were sent C. sent D. send
Question 10. Volunteers should keep in mind values of the charity event in_____________they
participate actively.
A. when B. whose C. that D. which
Question 11. _____________to the airline strikes, Mr. Jones had to postpone his business trip to
Rome.
A. Owed B. Because C. Due D. As
Question 12. If she had experience in medical research, she_____________for one of the
positions at the hospital.
A. apply B. could apply C. could have apply D. can apply
Question 13. Those in research positions are responsible for compiling
and_____________research data.
A. store B. storage C. storing D. to store
Question 14. _____________a year, Tarrin Industrial Supply audits the accounts of all of its
factories.
A. Once B. Immediately C. Directly D. Yet
Question 15. The timeline for the pathway lighting project was extended to_____________input
from the Environmental Commission.
A. use up B. believe in C. make into D. allow for
Question 16. If you don’t want your business to_____________bankrupt, avoid consulting those
willing to step out on a limb.
A. come B. take C. go D. pay
Question 17. _____________the BPT39 wireless speaker is widely popular, production will be
increased fivefold starting next month.
A. On behalf of B. Whether C. Moreover D. As
Question 18. Jack is very independent, he always paddle his own_____________
A. boat B. canoe C. ship D. yatch
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions
Question 19. If you came to the party tomorrow, don’t forget to bring your parents.
A. If B. came C. don’t D. to bring
Question 20. Even the CEO had to admit that Prasma Designs’ win was part the result of
fortunate timing.
A. Even B. Prasma Designs’ C. part D. timing
Question 21. To prepare for marathon, I run 15 kilometers three and four times a week.
A. To prepare B. run C. three and four D. times
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. “Where were you last night, Mr. Jenkins?” he said.
A. He wanted to know where Mr. Jenkins was the night before.
B. He asked Mr. Jenkins where was he last night.
C. He wanted to know where Mr. Jenkins had been the following night.
D. He asked Mr. Jenkins where he had been the previous night.
Question 23. The burglar was caught red- handed by the police when he was breaking into the
flat.
A. The police caught the burglar to break into the flat.
B. The police caught the burglar when breaking into the flat,
C. When the burglar had broken into the flat, the police caught him at once.
D. The police caught the burglar breaking into the flat.
Question 24. “We’ll go camping as long as the weather is good.”
A. If the weather is fine, we will go camping.
B. The weather is good when we will go camping.
C. If the weather is better, we will go camping.
D. We’ll go camping immediately the weather is good.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. We are not going to select the ruling party. We are not going to select the
opposition party either.
A. We are going to select neither the ruling party nor the opposition party in the upcoming
election.
B. We are not going to select neither the ruling party nor the opposition party in the upcoming
election.
C. We are going to select either the ruling party or the opposition party in the upcoming election.
D. We are not going to select either the ruling party or the opposition party in the upcoming
election.
Question 26. The lighthouse was built in the 1600s. It remains standing through hundreds of
years.
A. Having been built in the 1600s, the lighthouse remains standing through hundreds of years.
B. Building in the 1600s, the lighthouse remains standing through hundreds of years.
C. Built in the 1600s, the lighthouse remains standing through hundreds of years.
D. Having built in the 1600s, the lighthouse remains standing through hundreds of years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Laura is warning Bob about the house.
- Laura: “Mind your head. The ceiling is low”.
- Bob: “_____________”
A. Don’t mention it. B. Thanks, I’ll remember it.
C. I couldn’t agree more with you. D. I don’t think you’re right.
Question 28. David is talking to Linda after a party.
- David: “Would you like me to give you a ride home?”
- Linda: “_____________”
A. That’s be great, thanks. B. Sorry, you’re not my type.
C. Yes, I’m riding home now D. No, thanks. I don’t like riding.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. The Boy Scouts organisation is dedicated to helping boys become moral and
productive adults.
A. committed B. used C. focused D. interested
Question 30. Father has lost his job,so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.
A. earn money B. save money C. sit still D. economize
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31. Henry has found temporary job in a factory.
A. eternal B. genuine C. permanent D. satisfactory
Question 32. We had a whale of time as everything was quite fantastic.
A. had little time to play B. had a lot of time to play
C. felt happy D. felt disappointed
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B, C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Not everybody recognises the benefits of new developments in communications technology.
Indeed, some people fear that text messaging may actually be having a negative (33)
_____________on young people’s communication and language skills, especially when we hear
that primary school children may be at risk of becoming addicted to the habit. So widespread has
texting become, however, that even pigeons have started doing it. (34) _____________, in this
case, it’s difficult to view the results as anything but positive. Twenty of the birds are about to
take to the skies with the task of measuring air pollution, each (35) _____________with sensor
equipment and a mobile phone. The readings made by the sensors will be automatically
converted into text messages and beamed to the Internet - (36) _____________they will appear
on a dedicated ‘pigeon blog’. The birds will also each have a GPS receiver and a camera to
capture aerial photos, and researchers are building a tiny ‘pigeon kit’ containing all these
gadgets. Each bird will carry these in a miniature backpack, (37) ____________ , that is, from
the camera, which will hang around its neck. The data the pigeons text will be displayed in
the form of an interactive map, which will provide local residents with up-to-the-minute
information on their local air quality.
Question 33. A. result B. outcome C. effect D. conclusion
Question 34. A. Therefore B. What’s more C.whereas D. That is
Question 35. A. armed B.loaded C. granted D. stocked
Question 36. A. when B. which C. where D. what
Question 37. A. instead B. except C. apart D. besides
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The Art World One of the maj or problems in the art world is how to distinguish and promote an
artist. In effect, a market must be created for an artist to be successful.The practice of signing and
numbering individual prints was introduced by James Abbott McNeill whistler, the nineteenth -
century artist best known for the painting of his mother, called “Arrangement in Grey and
Black”, but known to most of us as“ whistler’s Mother”. Whistler’s brother - in - law, Sir Francis
Seymour Haden, a less well - known artist, had speculated that collectors might find prints more
attractive if they knew that they were only a limited number of copies produced. By signing the
work in pencil, an artist could guarantee and personalize each print. As soon as Whistler and
Haden began the practice of signing and numbering their prints, their work began to increase in
value, when other artists noticed that the signed prints commanded higher prices, they began
copying the procedure. Although most prints are signed on the right - hand side in the margin
below the image, the placement of the signature is a matter of personal choice. Indeed, prints
have been signed within the image, in any of the margins, or even on the reverse side of the print,
wherever the artist elects to sign it, a signed print is still valued above an unsigned one, even in
the same edition. above an unsigned one, even in the same edition.
Question 38. Which of the following would be a better title for the passage?
A. Whistlers Mother B. Whistler’s Greatest Works
C. Ihe Practice of Signing Prints D. Coping Limited Edition Prints
Question 39. The word “speculated” in the paragraph 1 could best be replaced by_____________
A. guessed B. noticed C. denied D. announced
Question 40. What was true about the painting of Whistler’s mother?
A. It was painted by Sir Francis Haden
B. Its title was “Arrangement in Grey and Black”
C. It was not one of whistler’s best paintings
D. It was a completely new method of painting
Question 41. The author mentions all of the following as reasons why a collector prefer a signed
print EXCEPT_____________
A. it guarantees the prints authenticity
B. it makes the print more personal
C. it encourages higher prices for the print
D. it limits the number of copies of the print
Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that artists number their prints_____________
A. as an accounting procedure B. to guarantee a limited edition
C. when the buyer requests it D. at the same place on each of the prints
Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions. Butterflies are among the most extensively studied
insectsan estimated 90 percent of the world’s species have scientific names. As a consequence,
they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and
distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public.
Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and conservation
issues such as diversity. Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most
attention over the past century is the striking difference in species richness between tropical and
temperate regions. For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in
the Amazon when he mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour’s walk,
whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of
Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness
has been well confirmed. A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this
difference between temperate and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how
these patterns vary among different animal and plant groups.
However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather
man between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the
Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly “personal communication” citations,
even for vertebrates, In other words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas,
these patterns are still in the documentation phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions
are made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is
known about the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the
preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by
focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be
minimized.
Question 43.The word “striking” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________
A. physical B. confusing C. noticeable D. successful
Question 44. Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation
issues because they_____________
A. are simple in structure
B. have been given scientific names
C. are viewed positively by people
D. are found mainly in temperate climates
Question 45. The word “exceed” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_____________
A. locate B. allow C. go beyond D. come close to
Question 46.Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
A. European butterfly habitats
B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region
D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups
Question 47. All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of
diversity EXCEPT_____________
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones
B. patterns of distribution of species in each region
C. migration among temperate and tropical zones
D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
Question 48. Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss_____________
A. their physical characteristics B. their adaption to different habitats
C. their names D. their variety
Question 49. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refer to_____________
A. insects B. butterflies C. patterns D. issues
Question 50. The idea “little is known about the eveness of butterfly distribution” in paragraph 5
means that_____________
A. there are many things that we know about butterfly eveness distribution
B. we don’t know anything about butterfly evenness distribution
C. we know much about butterfly evenness distribution
D. we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent
Đáp án
1-D 2-A 3-A 4-A 5-C 6-C 7-A 8-C 9-A 10-D
11-C 12-B 13-C 14-A 15-D 16-C 17-D 18-B 19-B 20-C
21-C 22-D 23-D 24-A 25-A 26-C 27-B 28-A 29-A 30-D
31-C 32-D 33-C 34-B 35-A 36-C 37-C 38-C 39-A 40-B
41-D 42-B 43-C 44-C 45-C 46-C 47-C 48-D 49-B 50-B
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

ĐỀ SỐ 19 NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. workshop B. worm C. worry D. wordless
Question 2. A. borrowed B. helped C. dismissed D. booked
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. dissolve B. household C. confide D. approach
Question 4. A. determine B. argument C. counterpart D. marvelous
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. A few days ago, ____________problem arise. However, until now, we haven’t
found any solutions to it yet.
A. a B. an C. the D. ∅
Question 6. Keith deserves____________in the conference for all the help she has given us.
A. to mention B. mention C. mentioning D. mentioned
Question 7. This is not____________the last one we stayed in.
A. as a comfortable hotel as B. an as comfortable hotel as
C. a as comfortable hotel as D. as comfortable a hotel as
Question 8. There are dozens of TV channels, ____________operate 24 hours a day.
A. some B. some of which C. some of those D. some of them
Question 9. Thirty-one people have been injured in____________incidents throughout the day.
A. violent B. violence C. violently D. violate
Question 10. what chemical is this? It’s____________a horrible smell.
A. giving over B. giving off C. giving down D. giving up
Question 11. Mary will have finished all her work ____________
A. as soon as her boss returned B. until her boss will return
C. by the time her boss returns D. when her boss will return
Question 12. So little____________about mathematics that the lecture was beyond completely
beyond me.
A. I have known B. I knew C. do I know D. did I know
Question 13. It is probably impossible for life to ever exist on Venus____________its intense
surface heat.
A. because B. although C. despite D. due to
Question 14. If you cannot improved sales figures this month, you will be____________sacked.
A. promise B. conduct C. regulate D. deliver
Question 15. At the meeting last week, the finance director____________the figures for the
previous year.
A. produced B. represented C. purchased D. commended
Question 16. I think Trump can easily win the election. He is a man of the____________.
A. community B. society C. country D. people
Question 17. Overcrowded slums are often considered as breeding ground____________crime.
A. of B. to C. for D. towards
Question 18. The military court____________ the major for failing to do his duty.
A. scolded B. reprimanded C. humiliated D. ridiculedƯ
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. A severe illness when she was just nineteen months old deprived the well- known
writer and lecturer Helen Keller from both her sight and hearing.
A. just B. deprived C. when D. from both
Question 20. He didn’t know who it was and couldn’t imagine why they did it, but there must
have been somebody that started the rumor which he was from London and very wealthy.
A. which B. who C. why D. that
Question 21. It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as
cooking.
A. such as B. in the near future
C. It is believed D. be used to doing
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. It would have been better if he had told us his new address.
A. He might have told us his new address.
B. He should have told us his new address.
C. He shouldn’t have told us his new address.
D. It doesn’t matter that he didn’t tell us his new address.
Question 23. She knows more about it than I do.
A. I know as much about it as she does.
B. She knows as much about it as I do.
C. I don’t know as much about it as she does.
D. She doesn’t know as much about it as I do.
Question 24. “Why don’t you participate in the volunteer work in summer?”, said Sophie.
A. Sophie suggested me to participate in the volunteer work in summer.
B. Sophie asked me why not participate in the volunteer work in summer.
C. Sophie suggested my participating in the volunteer work in summer.
D. Sophie made me participate in the volunteer work in summer.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. We arrived at the airport. We realized our passports were still at home.
A. It was until we arrived at the airport that we realized our passports were still at home.
B. We arrived at the airport and realized that our passports are still at home.
C. Not until had we arrived at the airport we realized our passports were still at home.
D. Not until we arrived at the airport did we realize that our passports were still at home.
Question 26. Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful.
A. Nam regrets to have been so rude to them last night.
B. Nam regrets having so rude to them last night.
C. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night.
D. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. - Laura: “What a lovely cat you have!”
- Maria: “____________.”
A. Of course not, it’s not costly
B. Thank you. Thank you. My father bought it for me
C. I think so
D. No problem
Question 28. - Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?”
- Susan: “____________’’
A. I don’t agree, I’m afraid B. You’re welcome
C. That would be great D. I feel very bored
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. she got up late and rushed to the bus stop.
A. came into B. went leisurely C. dropped by D. went quickly
Question 30. School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools.
A. divided B. paid C. required D. depended
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. being courteous B. being cheerful C. being efficient D. being late
Question 32. My sister lives in Alaska, so we can only see each other once in a blue moon.
A. occasionally B. rarely C. at night D. frequently
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
VIRTUAL DOCTORS
Clare Harrison rarely falls ill and hates going to the doctors when she does. So when she recently
(33) ____________out in a painful rash down one side of her body she emailed her symptoms,
(34) ____________also included a (35) ____________fever, to e-doc, the internet medical
service. Two hours later she was diagnosed as having shingles (Herpes Zoster) by her online
doctor, who prescribed a special cleansing solution for the rash and analgesics to help relieve the
pain.
Health advice is now the second most popular topic that people search for on the internet, and
online medical consultation is big business. Sites vary enormously in what they offer, with
services ranging from the equivalent of a medical agony aunt to a live chat with a doctor via
email. They are clearly (36) ____________a demand from people who are too busy or, in some
cases, too embarrassed to discuss their medical (37) ____________with their general
practitioners.
Question 33. A. worked B. passed C. came D. ran
Question 34. A. whose B. which C. who D. that
Question 35. A. small B. weak C. mild D. calm
Question 36. A. serving B. meeting C. creating D. establishing
Question 37. A. harm B. story C. hardship D. complaint
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Dolphins are one of the most intelligent species on the planet, which makes them a very
interesting animal to scientists. In their natural habitats, dolphins use various vocalization
techniques. They whistle and squeak to recognize members of their pod, identify and protect
their young, and call out warnings of danger. They also make clicking sounds used for
echolocation to find food and obstacles in dark and murky waters.
Amazingly, the whistling sound that the bottlenose dolphin makes has been found to have a
similar pattern to human language. They always make conversational sounds when they greet
each other. If you listen to dolphins’ squeaks and squeals, it will sound like they are having a
conversation.
Dolphins usually use both sound and body language to communicate with each other. It is
through gesture and body language, however, that most of their communication with humans
comes. Dolphins can be trained to perform complicated tricks. This suggests they have a high
level of intelligence and communication capacity. If they work for a long time with a trainer,
they are able to recognize and understand human commands.
A lot of dolphin communication has been studied using dolphins in captive environments. These
studies have been criticized because some marine biologists believe that dolphins living in
aquariums or research centers cannot be considered “normal.” Even so, most believe that
studying dolphin communication in captivity is useful for beginning to understand the
complexity of dolphin communication. After all, dolphins are one of the most intelligent animals.
Their ability to communicate is impressive and worthy of study.
Question 38. What would be the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Communications in dolphins
B. Intelligent mammals in captivity
C. Dolphins’ social tendencies with humans
D. Complex patterns in dolphin life
Question 39. In line 2, the word vocalization is closest in meaning to____________.
A. making gestures B. creating words C. producing sounds D. closing eyes
Question 40. According to paragraph 4, what do some marine biologists think about captive
dolphins?
A. Their relationships are too personal with marine biologists.
B. They can’t be considered accurate subjects for biological studies.
C. They can communicate exactly the same as humans do.
D. They easily demonstrate how dolphins act in the wild.
Question 41. All of the following are true about dolphin communication EXCEPT____________
A. dolphins’ squeals and squeaks sound conversational to the human ear
B. dolphins’ clicking sounds are sometimes used to greet humans
C. communication using sounds and gestures occurs between dolphins
D. body language and gestures are used for communication with humans
Question 42. In line 17, the word “most” refers to ____________
A. the majority of marine biologists B. a few bottlenose dolphins
C. a lot of bottlenose dolphins D. the minority of marine biologists
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
What does it take to graduate from university with a First?
Mark McArdle, first-class degree holder from the University of Lancaster, tells how he did it.
Don’t spend too much time at the student lounge, do turn up for most lectures and tutorials and
do submit all coursework - eventually. That, I was told by a PhD student during freshers’ week,
was all I needed to do to get a 2:2. For a 2:1, I’d require a better attendance record and have to
work harder, but not at the expense of being cut off from civilization. And for a First I would
have to become some sort of social outcast, go to even lecture and tutorial (scribbling notes
madly), spend every waking moment immersed in academic books, and be among the last to be
thrown out of the university library at 10 pm closing time.
Well, I did not give up my life for study. I didn’t attend every lecture and tutorial. I didn’t write
down every word spoken in lectures. I didn’t get 80% or more in every essay, project, test or
exam. I was usually behind with my reading and occasionally mystified by the syllabus.
Sometimes I couldn’t be bothered to go to university and stayed at home instead. But I always
knew where I was what I had to do and what not to bother with. And I always worked hard on
the things that counted: assignments and exams.
Getting a degree is about learning, but it isn’t just about learning biology, history, English or
whatever. It’s about understanding what you need to succeed - what, in fact, the university
wants from you and what you will get in return. You have to have a feel for the education market
and really sell your inspirations, what does the lecturer want? what is the essay marker searching
for? Some students try to offer something not wanted. Others want to give very little - they steal
the thoughts of others and submit them as their own. But they all want to be rewarded. Exchange,
but don’t steal, and you’ll get a degree.
I could guarantee every book on my reading list was out on long loan from the university library
within five seconds of the list being issued. This was worrying at first, but I quickly learned that
it was impossible to read all of the books on an average reading list anyway. I sought shortcuts.
Collections of selected readings or journal articles were excellent sources that often saved me the
bother of reading the original texts. References in books dragged me all over the place but with
all the courses I had to do, there wasn’t enough time to be dragged too far. I would flick through
the book, read the introduction,
note any summaries, look at diagrams, skim the index, and read any conclusions. I plucked out
what was needed and made my escape. I revised by discarding subject areas I could not face
revising, reading, compiling notes, and then condensing them onto one or two sheets of A4 for
each subject area. Leading up to the exam, I would concentrate on just the condensed notes and
rely on my memory to drag out the detail behind them when the time came. I didn’t practice
writing exam questions, although it was recommended. I prefer to be spontaneous and open-
minded. I don’t want pre-formed conclusions filling my mind.
And nor should you; there is no secret to getting a First - this is just an account of how I got my
First. Be a happy student by striking the right balance between working and enjoying yourself.
Take what you do seriously and do your best. And, no matter what you do don’t forget to
appreciate every day of your university studies: it is one of the greatest periods of your life.
Glossary:
University degree classifications in the UK:
- First class
- Upper second (2:1)
- Lower second (2:2)
- Third class (3)
Question 43. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To describe learning experience of an excellent student
B. To emphasize the importance of higher education
C. To suggest ways to deal with assignments at university
D. To point out challenges of studying at university
Question 44. The PhD students who spoke to the writer____________.
A. exaggerate the need to work hard B. succeeded in scaring the writer
C. was uncertain how to help the writer D. thought the writer would get a First
Question 45. In the third paragraph, the writer warns against____________.
A. offering money to academic staff B. trying to second-guess lectures
C. expecting to be rewarded D. plagiarism in essays and exams
Question 46. The word “immersed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to____________.
A. ploughed B. absorbed C. sunk D. dipped
Question 47. Why did the writer not practice writing exam questions?
A. He thought the practice was rather boring.
B. He wanted to answer exam questions critically.
C. He was advised not to.
D. He thought it might prejudice staff against him.
Question 48. The word “flick through” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to____________.
A. search quickly B. skim C. borrow D. read carefully
Question 49. All of the following are mentioned about factors that help the writer to succeed at
university EXCEPT ____________.
A. an understanding of what was required
B. regular attendance at lectures
C. selective reading
D. well-organizing revision
Question 50. It can be inferred from what the write said in the last paragraph that____________ .
A. student’s top priority is to pass exams
B. teachers should set goals for students right from the first year
C. students should follow his recipe for success
D. students should make the most of being a student
Đáp án
1-C 2-A 3-B 4-A 5-A 6-C 7-D 8-B 9-A 10-B
11-C 12-D 13-D 14-D 15-A 16-D 17-C 18-B 19-D 20-A
21-D 22-B 23-C 24-C 25-D 26-C 27-B 28-C 29-D 30-C
31-D 32-D 33-C 34-B 35-C 36-B 37-D 38-A 39-C 40-B
41-B 42-A 43-A 44-A 45-D 46-B 47-B 48-B 49-B 50-D
ĐỀ SỐ 20 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA
NĂM HỌC: 2019 – 2020
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. land B. sandy C. many D. candy
Question 2. A. compete B. intend C. medal D. defend
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. relax B. wonder C. problem D. special
Question 4. A. reflection B. division C. industry D. remember
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I think everyone wants to make friends with John. He is___________honest person.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 6. He___________only three letters to his parents since he joined the army.
A. has written B. wrote C. would write D. had written
Question 7. Jimmy’s low examination scores kept him from___________to the university
A. to admit B. to be admitted C. admitting D. being admitted
Question 8. The company is believed___________a lot of money last year.
A. to lose B. lost C. to have lost D. to be losing
Question 9. When___________as the new manager of the company, Mr. Smith knew he had a
lot of things to do.
A. appointing B. appointed C. appoint D. have appointed
Question 10: ___________his poor English, he managed to communicate his problem very
clearly.
A. Because B. Even though C. Because of D. In spite of
Question 11. If I___________a wallet in the street, I’d take it to the police.
A. find B. found C. will find D. would find
Question 12. I assume that you are acquainted___________this subject since you are responsible
writing the accompanying materials.
A. to/for B. with/for C. to/to D. with/with
Question 13. The song has___________been selected for the 2018 World Cup, Russia.
A. office B. officer C. officially D. official
Question 14. Elephants___________the ecosystems they live in, and make it possible for a lot of
other species to survive in those environments as well.
A. obtain B. remain C. maintain D. attain
Question 15. After the fire, the government pledged to implement a program of___________all
over
the devastated national park.
A. reforestation B. rebuilding C. replenishment D. reconstruction
Question 16. He was given a medal in___________of his service to the country.
A. gratitude B. recognition C. knowledge D. response
Question 17. I’m going on business for a week, sp I’ll be leaving everything___________.
A. on your guards B. up to your eyes
C. in your capable hands D. in the care of you
Question 18. Archaeologists think that massive floods could have___________the dinosaurs.
A. wiped out B. laid off C. put aside D. taken down.
Mark A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 19. The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.
A. smoking B. effects C. on D. have been proved.
Question 20. She had so many luggage that there was not enough room in the car for it.
A. so many B. was C. enough room D. it
Question 21. Alike light waves, microwaves may be reflected and concentrated elements.
A. Alike B. waves C. may be D. concentrated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following sentences.
Question 22. “I didn’t break the mobile phone,” Lan said.
A. Lan denied breaking the mobile phone.
B. Lan admitted breaking the mobile phone.
C. Lan prevented us from breaking the mobile phone
D. Lan promised to break the mobile phone.
Question 23. The bag was heavy, so we could not take it with us.
A. If the bag was not heavy, we would take it with us.
B. Unless the bag had not been heavy, we would have taken it with us.
C. If had the bag not been heavy, we would have taken it with us.
D. Had the bag not been heavy, we would have taken it with us
Question 24. He was such a wet blanket at the party tonight!
A. He made people at the party wet through.
B. He spoiled other people’s pleasure at the party
C. He bought a wet blanket to the party.
D. He was wet through when going home from the party.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. He was suspected of stealing credit cards. The police have investigated him for
days.
A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.
B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected of stealing credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
D. Suspected of stealing credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
Question 26. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam. She didn’t want it to get broken in the
post.
A. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam so that it wouldn’t get broken in the post.
B. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam so it didn’t get broken in the post.
C. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam so as it wouldn’t get broken in the post.
D. The girl packed the vase in polyester foam for it didn’t get broken in the post.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. David and Cathy are talking about the party next week.
David.: “I’d like to invite you to a party next Sunday.”
Cathy: “___________”
A. Thank you. What time? B. How do you do?
C. You’re entirely welcome. D. I’m glad you like it.
Question 28. Tom and Marry are meeting at the class reunion.
Tom. “Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary” - Mary. “___________”
A. Thanks. That’s a nice compliment B. why do you say so?
C. Sorry, I don’t like it D. I think so
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. I strongly recommend that you should take out an insurance policy in the house for
your own peace of mind.
A. to stop your sleeping B. to stop your worrying
C. to stop your thinking D. to stop your believing
Question 30. Every year this charity organization takes on volunteers to support the needy and
the poor.
A. dismisses B. creates C. recruits D. interviews
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 31. I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. being on time B. being cheerful C. being efficient D. being late
Question 32. Jose had a hard time comparing the iPhone to the Samsung phone because to him
they were apples and oranges.
A. containing too many technical details B. very similar
C. completely different D. very complicated
Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
blanks. Higher education also provides a competitive edge in the career market. We all know that
in the economic times we are living in today, finding jobs is not guaranteed. The number of
people unemployed is still relatively high, and the number of new career (33) ___________ isn’t
nearly enough to put people in jobs they are seeking. As a job seeker, you’re competing with a
high number of experienced workers (34) ___________ have been out of the workforce for a
while and are also seeking work. (35) ___________, when you have a higher education, it
generally equips you for better job security. Generally speaking, employers tend to value those
who have completed college than those who have only completed high school and are more
likely to replace that person who hasn’t (36) ___________a higher education. Furthermore, some
companies even go so far as to pay your tuition because they consider an educated (37)
___________to be valuable to their organization. A college education is an investment that
doesn’t just provide you with substantial rewards. It benefits the hiring company as well.
Question 33. A. responsibilities B. activities C. opportunities D. possibilities
Question 34. A. who B. where C. whose D. which
Question 35. A. Otherwise B. Moreover C. Therefore D. However
Question 36. A. permitted B. refused C. applied D. received
Question 37. A. employment B. employer C. employee D. unemployed
Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions from 38 to 42.
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to
put a greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of
readily available, renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth - friendly. Two such
resources are solar power and geothermal power.
Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the
needs of worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed
through the use of photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the us alone, more
than 100, 000 homes are equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar
roof tiles. And in other parts of the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar
system is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is
geothermal power, which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot
water and steam that are trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run
a generator, which produces electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than
the entire known supply of fossil fuel resources and as with solar power, the technology needed
to utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple. A prime example of effective geothermal use in
Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity where there are over 80 percent of private homes,
are heated by geothermal power.
Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional
energy sources. The time is long overdue to invest in the development and use of alternative
energy on global scale.
Question 38. what is the main topic of this passage?
A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.
B. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
C. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
Question 39. which of the following words could best replace the word “abundant”?
A. a lot B. scarce C. little D. enough
Question 40. The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to_____________
A. solar energy B. the earth C. sunlight D. energy consumption
Question 41. According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal
energy production?
A. They both require the use of a generator.
B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface.
C. They both require fairly simple technology.
D. They are both conventional and costly.
Question 42. what best describes the author’s purpose in writing the passage?
A. To warn people about the hazards of fossil fuel use.
B. To convince people of the benefits of developing alternative energy sources.
C. To describe the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy use.
D. To outline the problems and solutions connected with global warming.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the
correct answer to each of the following questions from 43 to 50.
According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may become
recognized as the leader of a social group in the United States. In the family, traditional cultural
patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other cases, such as friendship
groups, one or more persons may gradually emerge as leaders, although there is no formal
process of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen formally through election or
recruitment.
Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ability, decades of
research have failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category of “natural
leaders.” It seems that there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common;
rather, virtually any person may be recognized as a leader if the person has qualities that meet the
needs of that particular group. Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups
have a single leader, research suggests that there are typically two different leadership roles that
are held by different individuals.
Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion of tasks by a social group.
Group members look to instrumental leaders to “get things” done. Expressive leadership, on the
other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the collective well¬being of a social group’s member.
Expressive leader are less concerned with the overall goals of the group than with providing
emotional support to group members and attempting to minimize tension and conflict among
them. Group members expect expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships within the group
and provide support to individual members. Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather
secondary relationship to other group members. They give orders and may discipline group
members who inhibit attainment of the groups goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more
personal or primary relationship to others in the group. They offer sympathy when someone
experiences difficulties or is subjected to discipline, are quick to lighten a serious moment with
humor, and try to resolve issues that threaten to divide the group. As the differences in these two
roles suggest, expressive leaders generally receive more personal affection from group members;
instrumental leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy
a more distant respect.
Question 43. what does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How leadership differs in small and large groups
B. The role of leaders in social groups
C. The problems faced by leaders
D. How social groups determine who will lead them
Question 44. The passage mentions all of the following ways by which people can become
leaders EXCEPT___________
A. recruitment B. specific leadership training
C. traditional cultural patterns D. formal election process
Question 45. which of the following statements about leadership can be inferred from paragraph
2?
A. person can best learn how to be an effective leader by studying research on leadership.
B. Most people desire to be leaders but can produce little evidence of their qualifications.
C. A person who is an effective leader of a particular group may not be an effective leader in
another group.
D. Few people succeed in sharing a leadership role with another person.
Question 46. The passage indicates that instrumental leaders generally focus on___________
A. sharing responsibility with group members
B. achieving a goal
C. ensuring harmonious relationships
D. identifying new leaders
Question 47. The word “collective” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___________
A. necessary B. group C. particular D. typical
Question 48. It can be understood that___________
A. There is lots of tension and conflict in an election of a leader in the family.
B. There is usually an election to choose leaders in a family as well as in larger groups.
C. It has been said that there must be a set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common.
D. Leaders are sometimes chosen formally or informally.
Question 49. The word “resolve” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___________
A. talk about B. find a solution for
C. avoid repeating D. avoid thinking about
Question 50. Paragraphs 3 and 4 organize the discussion of leadership primarily in terms
of___________
A. examples that illustrate a problem B. narration of events
C. comparison and contrast D. cause and effect analysis
Đáp án
1-C 2-A 3-A 4-C 5-B 6-A 7-D 8-C 9-B 10-D
11-B 12-B 13-C 14-C 15-A 16-B 17-C 18-A 19-D 20-A
21-A 22-A 23-D 24-B 25-D 26-A 27-A 28-A 29-B 30-C
31-D 32-B 33-C 34-A 35-D 36-D 37-C 38-B 39-A 40-A
41-C 42-B 43-B 44-B 45-C 46-B 47-B 48-D 49-B 50-C

You might also like