29/07/2021 @® CODE-A Regd. Office: No. 111, 8% Cross, Paramount Gardens, Thalaghattapura, Kanakapura Main Road, Bengaluru-560062 MM : 720 FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2021 time: s.o0 ts. Test - 13 Mock Test for NEET (Complete Syllabus of class XI & XII) Instructions (Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. (i) Mark should be dark and should completely fll the circle, (ii) Dark only one circle for each entry. (iv). Dark the circle in the space provided only, (v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on Answer sheet, (vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every. wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks. (vil) There are two sections in each subject i.e., Section-A & Seetion-B, You have to attempt all 35 questions fram Section-A & only 10 questions out of 15 from Section-B. Choose the correct answer : SECTION-A 4, Two trains, one travelling at 15 m/s and the other at 20 mis are headed towards each other on a 1. Asser has 200 equal di Ked srg the cecuraference ct lee af one ‘ta level track. When they are 2 km apart, both along the circumference of disc and one full rotation of the disc advances on main scale by drivers apply simultaneously brakes. If their 0.05 om. The least count of screw gauge is brakes produces retardation of 0.20 mis? (for (1) 25%10%em (2) 25% 10cm each). The final separation between trains is (3) 1.25 * 10 cm (4) 5.0 * 103 cm (1) 468.8 m (2) 203.3 m 2. Which one is dimensionless? (3) 605.5 m (4) Zero (1) —Forwe__ (9) Velocity _ 5. Aball is thrown in the air and returns to the same Acceleration Acceleration level ground following a parabolic path. Which (e) Volume (a) Energy one of the following does not have the same ‘Area Work value at the time of throw and at the time of 3. A car moves on a circular path with constant return to ground? speed v. What is the change in velocity after its radius vector has described an angle of 60°? (1) Kinetic energy of the ball (2) Speed of the ball (3) Vertical component of velocity (4) Horizontal component of velocity (1)Test-13 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024 6 10. ‘A sphere is attached to an inextensible sting of length 0.5 m whose upper end is fixed to ceiling ‘The sphere has mass of 0.2 kg and is made to describe horizontal circle of radius 0.3 m. The speed of sphere is (1) 1.5 m/s (2) 0.6 mis (3) 25m/s (4) 1.8 mis You are on a frictionless horizontal plane. How can you move horizontally if no horizontal force is exerted by pushing against the surface? (1) By rolling your body on surface (2) By running on surface (3) By spitting or sneezing (4) By jumping straight up Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected by a massless spring as shown. A force of 100 N is applied on 20 kg and at some instant, its acceleration is 6 mis®. What is the acceleration of 10 kg mass? —>6 ms? 20 LF 10 reer 100 N Smooth (1) 1ms2 (2) 2ms? (3) 4ms2 (4) 1.8m s® A block is placed on top of a fixed smooth, inclined plane inclined at 30° to horizontal. The length of plane is 5 m. The block slides down the plane and reaches at bottom. The speed of the block at bottom will be nearly of A (1) 6 mis (2) 70 mis 3) 35ms (4) 9.2 mis ‘A smooth sphere of mass 1 kg is moving with horizontal speed of 3 mis strikes perpendicularly with a vertical wall and bounces off the wall with horizontal speed of 2 m/s. What is the coefficient of restitution between sphere and wall? a) 2) Nia Nie win ols (3) (4) “ 12. 13. 14, 15. 16. A body accelerates uniformly from rest to a velocity of 1 ms-! in 15 seconds. The kinetic ere the ot wi be 2 joe when ie is equal to (take mass of body equal to 1 kg) (1) 108 (2) 45 (3) 128 (4) 8s The angular velocity of a body changes from 6 radisec to 54 radisec without applying torque but by changing moment of inertia. The ratio of the initial radius of gyration to the final radius of gyration is 1 a) 4 m3 (5 a3 A cylinder is wrapped around its lateral surface by a rope as shown in the figure. The rope is moved upwards such that cylinder dows not fll from its initial position. Initially, it was at rest, What is the acceleration of the rope? ) @ 29 g wg 1 Qs mg a 3g @) 32 es The radius of newly discovered planet is 3 times that of the earth but having same density. it acceleration due to gravity on surface of the earth is g and that on surface of new planet is g’, then (1) g'=29 (3) g = 3g (4) g = 27g ‘A metallic rod breaks when strain produced is 0.2%. The Young's modulus of material of rod is 2x 101" Nim2, What should be the minimum area of cross-section to support a load of 10° N? (1) 25% 104 me (2) 6.25 « 10 m? (3) 1.25% 104m? (4) 4.1 10-4 me In a vessel having liquid filed up to height h, a small hole is made at its bottom. The velocity of liquid coming out of hole (1) Is proportional to h (2) Is proportional to density of mercury (3) Is proportional to area of cross-section of hole (4) Is proportional to (2) g'= (2)Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-A) 17. 18, 19. 20. 24 Five beats are produced by simultaneously blowing two closed organ pipes of different lengths in their fundamental mode. If the shorter organ pipe is 25 cm in length and speed of sound in air is 320 mis. What is the length of other organ pipe? (1) 25.4 em (2) 27.20m (3) 19.6 em (4) 32.5 0m ‘Aman measures the period of simple pendulum inside a stationary lft and finds it T second. Now the lift accelerates upwards and the time period v2 is tye accotraton ihe is (1) 29 (2) 39 (3) 359 (4) 429 Arlo of og 1 lage on conning ceed prover oe dn (edt a fe bene we maaed Sty tnparres Fad Ter > Fan itedy sash onpuratrsTot secono bat dts 7 fo te a ono , r a) (2) ox Q TY NS rc) x >x Two vessels having equal volumes contains, molecular hydrogen at 1 atmospheric pressure and helium at 2 atmospheric pressure. If both samples are at same temperature, the rms. velocity of the hydrogen molecule is (1) Equal to that of helium molecule (2) Half of that of helium molecule (3) 2 times that of helium @) 2x. @) 1. times that of helium v2 A polished metal plate with rough black spot marked on it is heated to about 1500 K and quickly taken into a dark room. Which of the following statement would be true? (1) The spot appear darker than plate (2) Spot and plate will appear equally bright (3) The plate and spot will disappear in dark (4) The spot appear brighter than plate 22. 23, 24, 25. 26. 27. 28. 14 gm of nitrogen gas at constant pressure has temperature of 300 K. How much heat energy would be required to change its temperature to 350 K at same pressure? (1) 672 (2) 935 J (3) 727 (4) 12344 ‘A pendulum bob of mass 8 mg carries an electric charge of 39.2 « 10"? C in a horizontal electric field of 20 x 103 NC~! and is at rest. The angle made by pendulum with vertical is nearly (1) 37" (2) 45" (3) 60" (4) 30" ‘An electron moves from rest from a point at ‘which potential is 50 V to another point at which potential is 70 V. Its kinetic energy in final state is (1) 32x 10-84 (2) 1.6% 10-9 (8) 62x 10474 (4) 6.4% 10-4 ‘An electric dipole consists of two equal and opposite. charges of magnitude 2 uC placed 0.03 m apart. itis lying in electric field of intensity 2 x 40% NIG) The maximum torque acting on dipole will be (1) 26.Nm (2) 1.2.Nm (3) 4.2% 10-2Nm (4) 24 10-°Nm Two bulbs whase resistances are in the ratio 2: 3 ‘are connected in series with a steady voltage source. The ratio of powers expended in the bulbs will be (3:2 (2) 4:9 (3) 2:3 (4) 1:2 The specific resistance of a material of wire is p and its volume is 3 m? and resistance is 3.2. The length of the wire will be 2 e ay 2) 2 ms ae 4 3 (4) = wp ve The length of potentiometer wire Is 1m and its resistance is 4 Q. A current of 5 mA Is flowing in it, An unknown source of emf is balanced on 40 cm length of this wire. The emf of the source is (1) Smv 2) 6mv (3) 12mv (4) 8mv 3) (3)Test-13 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024 22. 20. 34 32. 33, 34. 36. ‘A om x 12 em rectangular coil with number of tums 600 is placed in uniform magnetic field of strength 0.1 T. The maximum magnetic torque acting on it when a current of 10 A is passed through itis closest to (1) 3.6 « 10° Nm (2) 2.4% 10-5 Nm (3) 2.4 * 10% Nm (4) 1.8 * 10-5 Nm ‘An alpha particle is moving in magnetic field of B= (31+2)) tesla with velocity of 5 1087 mis, The magnetic force acting on the particle is. (1) 1.6 10-2 N (2) 32% 10-°N (3) 3.2% 10-N (4) 64% 10-2N In a hydrogen atom, an electron is revolving in a circular path of radius 5.1. x 10 m with frequency of 6.8 x 10°° Hz. The equivalent magnetic moment is (1) 89% 10-2 Am? (2) 62% 105 Am? (3) 12.6 « 10-4 Am? (4) 5.38 « 1025 Am? When current changes in a col from 8 A to 2 Ain 3 x 10? s, an emf of 2 V is induced init’ The Self inductance of the coils. (1) 10m (2) 20mH (3) 5mH (4) 15mH When a conductor is rotated in perpendicular magnetic field, then its free electrons initially (1) Move along field direction (2) Move at right angles to field direction (3) Remain stationary (4) Move opposite to field direction In the following diagram, the value of applied ac emf source will be R c Ne et 4ov 40Vv (es) (1) 160 (2) 80V (3) 120V (4) 40/2 Vv The incorrect statement for the state of resonance is (1) Impedance becomes resistive (2) The resultant reactance of the circuit is zero (3) The phase difference between E and J is x/2 and current is maximum (4) The power factor of the circuit becomes 1 36. 37. 38, 39, 40, a 42, SECTION-B The light photons of energy 1 eV and 2.5 eV respectively are made incident on metallic plate of work function 0.8 eV, one after another. The ratio of maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron emitted by them will be 4 1 Ms as 1 1 OF Ms IF in photoelectric cell, the wavelength of incident light is changed from 4000 A to 3600 A, the change in stopping potential will be (1) 0.34V (2) 057V @ariv (4) ost The wavelength of a photon of momentum 6.6 « 10° kg ms“ is (1) 100A (2) 5A (3) 2A @) 1A The ratio of time periods of electron in second and first orbits of hydrogen atom will be ayant @) 1:8 Qe (424 The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron and ceparticles are x: and xz respectively. The energy released in the following reaction will be sH? + |H? —> 2He* + Q (1) (+2) (2) (@—m) (3) 2005 + x2) (4) 40x— x9) ‘A transistor is connected in common emitter configuration. The collector supply is 8 V and voltage drop across a resistor of 800 © jin collector circuit is 0.5 V. Ifthe current gain factor, = 24, then base current will be (1) 20 pa, (2) 26 yA (3) 32 uA (4) 24 wa A fish in an aquarium approaches the left wall at arate of 3 ms’ and observes a fly approaching it at 8 ms! If refractive index of water is (4/3), What is the actual velocity of fly? P “Aquarium (1) 425ms* (2) 32ms* (3) 375ms4 (4) 1.75 ms (4)Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-A) 43, 44, 45. 46. 47. 51 52. ‘A compound microscope has magnifying power of 100 when image is formed at infinity. The objective has focal length of 0.5 em and length of tube is 65 cm, What is the focal length of eyepiece? (1) 20m (2) 250m (3) 3cm (4) 4om A screen is placed 50 cm from single sl which is illuminated with 600 nm light, If the distance between first and third minima in diffraction pattern is 3 mm, then what is the width of the sit? (1) 0.2mm (2) 0.3mm (3) 0.5mm (4) 23mm In Young's double slit experiment, how many maximas can be obtained on screen on both sides of central maxima (including central maxima) if wavelength of monochromatic light is 2.= 3500 A and slit separation is 6000 A? ae 23 3) 5 (4) 4 A small bob of mass m is suspended from a vertical light sting of length |. The bob is'given.a horizontal speed of f5g/. The difference in tension in the string at the topmost and bottom most point is (1) 3mg (2) 4mg (3) 6mg (4) 8mg A particle is projected with same speed but at 48, 49, 50, A thin rod AB of length / has linear mass density of the rod les at a cstance ( ralio a: bis (at (2) 4:2 (@)4s4 (4) 3:2 A liquid is filed upto a height of 20 cm in a cylindrical vessel. The speed of liquid coming out of a small hole at the bottom of the vessel is (g= 10 mis?) (1) 2ms (2) 1 mis (3) 4mis. (4) 6 mis When an ideal gaseous system is taken from state i to state f along path jaf, it is found Q = 50/cal and w = 20 cal. Along the path ibf, Q= 36 cal. w along ibfis a = r i b (1) 14 cal (2) 6 cal (8) 16 cal (4) 66 cal different angles of projections. Among the following, the range will be maximum for (1) 48" (2) 60° (3) 32" (4) 80° SECTION-A 64 g CHs is mixed with 128 g of oxygen to form COz and HO. The maximum mass of CO2 formed is (1) 22g (2) 44g (3) 88g (4) 1769 ‘Which of the following set of quantum numbers is not possible? (1) n=41=-3,m=-2,5 (2) n=4,1=3,m=-3,5= (3) n=4,1=0,m=0,s= (4) n=41=3m=-1s= 53, 54. 55. Correct order of first ionisation enthalpy is (1) BeX—49 +H, Product Y in the above reaction is (1) BN (2) BHsNH» (3) BaNsHe (4) BH; Il i (CH,-CH,—C-CH, and CH,-CH,-CH,-C-H are (1) Chain isomers (2) Position isomers (3) Metamers (4) Functional isomers Most acidic compound among the following is (1) CHeCHsCOOH (2) CH»COOH (3) CH,-CH-COOH (4) HCOOH Hy In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.5 g of an organic compound gave 0.188 g of AgBr. ‘The percentage of bromine in the compound is [At, Mass: Br = 80 u, Ag = 108 u] (1) 4% (2) 8% (3) 16% (4) 32% cro, ays ACK CH — Fee — A “Torrey —?8 wn Product B in the above reaction is CH, cl *Q * COCH. CH. (3) “6 Which of the following on ozonolysis gives single product? ay 8) Oo Maximum prescribed concentration of Cd in drinking water is (1) 0.2 ppm (3) 0.005 ppm (2) 0.05 ppm (4) 5 ppm (6)Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-A) 73, 74, 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. In a cubic unit cell, the atoms of A are at the comers of the cube, atoms of B are at edge centres of the cube and atom C are at the face centres of the cube. The possible formula of the compounds is (1) ABC (2) ABCs (3) ABC (4) ABC Which of the following is not true for a solution showing negative deviation from Raoult’s law? (1) AV ue <0 (2) AGuy <0 (8) AH <0 (4) AS pu <0 Maximum limiting motar conductivity among the following at 298 K in water is of (ay (2) Mgr (3) Cae (ay ke Mass of Cu deposited by the electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuSO« for 965 seconds with a current of 10 Ais (1) 34759 (2) 6.359 @) 31.759 (4) 6354 How many half lives are required for a first order reaction for 93.75% completion? at (2) 2 @)3 (4) 4 Select the incorrect statement regarding physisorption (1) Arises because of van der Waal's forces. (2) Non specific in nature (3) Reversible in nature (4) Results into unimolecular layer on adsorbent surface at high pressure 400 Nico), 24 Nix 4co ‘Above process belongs to (1) van Arkel method (2) Mond's process (3) Zone refining (4) Hall-Heroult process. Correct order of bolling point of hydrides of group 15 element is (1) NHs < PH < AsHs < SbiHs < BiHs (2) BiHs < SbHs < AsHs < PHs < NH3 (3) PHa < AsHs < NHs < SbHs < BiH (4) PHs < Ashts < SbHs < BiHs < NHs at 82, 83, 84, 85, 86, 87. 88, XeF2 on reaction with PFs gives (1) Per (PFE (2) [ker 2) PFs (3) [PF XeFs- (4) [PFSyDXeF 5} Eni ne IS positive for (1) co (2) Ni (3) Cu (4) Zn Minimum ionic radii among the following is of (1) Ce (2) Pe (3) Eu (4) Sm* Which of the following is incorrect regarding [Co(NHa)sI**? (1) Diamagnetic (2) sp'¢? hybridised (3) Octahedral geometry (4) Low spin complex KON aH Py Hie CHI St 5a HO" pO yc ‘The product D in the given reaction is (1)/(Cats (2) CHsCH.OH (3) CHsCHeNHe (4) CHscHO SECTION-B Which of the following will show fastest elimination reaction on reaction with alc, KOH? cr cl x oS : cl ocy Me Oo-Oxne ‘and B in the above reaction are 1.0 0.8 OH OH 1.5 no Essential amino acid among the following is (1) Glycine (2) Alanine (3) Valine (4) Glutamine (7)Test-13 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024 89, 90. ot. 92. 93, Artificial sweetener limited to use in cold food and soft drink is (1) Alitame (3) Aspartame Monomers of glyptal are (1) Ethylene glycol and formaldehyde (2) Urea and formaldehyde (3) Ethylene glycol and phthalic acid (4) Formaldehyde and phthalic acid (2) Sucralose (4) Saccharin N Prrtane GHICOOH ater) a) Product C is NH NH Br oO) @ Br oH oH Br Br °) “ Br Br Which of the following can give iodoferm reaction? (1) Catto (2) cHicH:cHo (2) CsHecHO (4) CHscooH 9 Na0H O owas Product Ais Oo Oo O° ot °Q 94, 965, 96. 97, 98. 99, 100. Minimum pKs among the following is of NH, “6 NHCH. 2) (3) CHaNHe (4) CHaNHCHs Which of the following on reaction with Grignard reagent gives primary alcohol? (1) CO (2) HCHO (3) CHsCHO (4) CHeCOCHs Ratio of radius of 3 orbit of Li? ion to the radius of 2" orbit of He* fon is (yas (2) 243 (3) 3:2 aya Which among the following can act as acid and base both? (1) HP (2) HPO; (3) HPO, (4) HPF Which among the following is a polar aprotic solvent? (1) pMso (2) H20 (3) CaHsOH (4) Cals A solute gets 50% dimerised and 50% ionized into two ions, The van't Hoff factor of solute is. a4 (2) 1.25 (3) 18 (4) 1.75 Select the correct electronic configuration for high spin octahedral complex having d* configuration (1) e5 (2) teh (3) Ge (4) te (8)Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-A) 101 102. 103. 104. 105. SECTION-A Nuclear energy was hailed as a non-polluting way of generating electricity. But it has some serious inherent problems like. (@) Accidental leakage (b) Depletes Ozone layer (c) Generates a lot of green house gases (@) Disposal of radioactive wastes Select the correct pair of options? (1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d) (3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (4) Which of the following measures can control the alarming environmental problem of Global warming? (1) Increasing the use of fossil fuel (2) Improving efficiency of energy usage (3) Deforestation (4) Increasing the growth of human population In many cultures, tracts of forest are set aside and all the trees and wildlife within were venerated and given total protection, such conservation strategies are called: (1) Sanctuary (2) Botanical gardens (3) Sacred groves (4) Biosphere reserves Select the incorrect match (1) Genetic : India has about 1000 diversity varieties of Mango. (2) Species _: Western ghats have greater. diversity amphibian species diversity than easter ghats. (3) Sixth £100 to 1000 times faster extinction than in the pre-human times (4) Co-extinction : Nile perch and 200 species of Cichlid fish became extinct in lake Victoria Select the incorrect statement w.rt. Ecological pyramids? (1) Pyramid of Energy is always upright and can never be inverted (2) The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted (3) Energy at a lower trophic level is always less. than at a higher trophic level (4) The pyramid of number is upright in most cases like in a pond or a grassland 106. 107. 108, 109. 110. m1 112. Humus is further degraded by some microbes, which releases the inorganic nutrients in the soil by the process is called: (1) Mineralisation (3) Leaching ‘The specific type of population interaction in which an orchid grows as an epiphyte on a mango branch in a forest in the tropics is called: (1) Mutualism (3) Competition (4) Predation Desert lizards manage to keep their body temperatures fairly constant by: (1) Physiological ability (2) Genetic adaptation (3) Behavioural responses (4) Allen's rule ‘The bacteria which can fix atmospheric nitrogen While freesiving in the soil and thus enriching the nitrogen content of the sollis: (1) Rhizobium (2) Frankia (3) Azotobacter (4) Glomus ‘Statins Which has been commercialised as blood- cholesterol lowering agent, is produced by the yeast: (1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (2) Monascus purpureus (3) Aspergius niger (4) Trichoderma polysporum (2) Catabolism (4) Fragmentation (2) Commensalism Scientists have succeeded in producing virus free banana, sugarcane, potato, etc, by culturing (1) Meristems (2) Embryo. (3) Somatic cells (4) Hybrid protoplasts Resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew in mung bean were induced by: (1) Conventional breeding (2) Somatic hybridisation (3) Mutations (4) Protoplast fusion (9)Test-13 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by Alec Jeffreys. He used a satellite DNA as probe that shows very high degree of polymorphism. It was called as: (1) Southem blotting (2) Northem blotting (3) RT-PCR (4) VNTR ‘Some amino acids are coded by more than one codons, hence the genetic code is (1) Unambiguous (2) Specific (3) Degenerate (4) Universal Match the terms given in column-| with their appropriate explanation given in column-ll and select the correct option? Columns Column. a, Exons (Largest known human gene b. Introns (ii) Coding sequences ©. Cistron (ii) Do not appear in processed RNA (iv) DNA segment coding for a polypeptide (1) ali, beid, ctv), dC) (2) aii, Bq, ei), av) (3) atv), BQ, efi, dG) (4) afi, BD, ), atv) Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of a chromosome(s), called (1) Pleiotropy (2) Polyploidy (3) Aneuploidy (4) Polygenic inheritance XO type of sex-determination in which the males have only one X-chromosome besides the autosomes while the female have a pair of X- chromosomes, and autosomes is seen in (1) Drosophita (2) Birds (3) Humans (4) Grasshopper Select the mismatch ._Dystrophin (1) Mutiple alleles : ABO blood grouping in man (2) Incomplete dominance Pink flowers in F in snapdragon (3) Co-dominance : Starch grains produced in Bb seeds of pea (4) Test cross. : Organism showing dominant phenotype whose genotype is to be determined is crossed with recessive parent 119. 120. 121 122, Select the odd statement wrt devices? (1) Self incompatibility is a genetic mechanism, which prevents self-pollen from fertiising the ovules. (2) Dioecy as seen in papaya prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy outbreeding (3) Monoecious condition as seen in castor and maize prevents autogamy and geitonogamy (4) If both male female flowers are present on the same plant, it prevents autogamy but not geltonogamy. Majority of insect-pollinating flowers are: (1) Having well exposed stamens so that the pollen are easily dispersed into wind currents (2) With large feathery stigma to easily trap pollen grains. (3) Large, colourful, fragment and rich in nectar (4) Offen having a single ovule in each ovule. Match the terms given in column-| with their ‘explanations in. column-ll and select the most appropriate option as the answer. Column-1 Columneit Meiocytes Period from birth to natural death Specialised gamete mother cell undergoing meiosis in diploid organisms, Vital fink that ‘ensures continuity of species from one generation to next. a @ b. Clones: w ©. Zygote (iy d._Life-span (iv) Morphologically and genetically identical individuals (1) ali, BG), of), i) (2) ati), btiv), et), i) (3) (i), BGI), efi), div) (4) ativ), bri, ti), ai) Consider the following terms: (a) Homothallic (b) Monoecious (c) Heterothallic (6) Dioecious (e) Hermaphrodites Unisexual condition in several fungi and plants is denoted by: (1) (¢) and (d) only (8) (@), (0), (€) and (a) (2) (c), (6) and (e) (4) (@) and (b) only (10)Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-A) 123. 124. 126. 126. 127. 128. 129. Which of the following compound can be used to hasten fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples and to accelerate abscission in lowers and fruits? (1) Carotenoids (2) Terpenes (3) Ethephon (4) Abscission-t There are many plants, where there is no correlation between exposure to light duration and induction of flowering response, such plants are called (1) Long day plants (2) Short day plants (3) Long night plants (4) Day neutral plants When fatty acids like tipalmitin is used as a substrate in respiration, the R.Q. value is (1) 07 (2) 09 (3) 10 rt Pyruvate formed by the glycolytic catabolism of carbohydrates in the cytosol, is converted into acetyl CoA by oxidative decarboxylation in the mitochondrial matrix, by the help of the enzyme named (1) «ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (2) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (3) Succinate dehydrogenase (4) Citrate synthase Select the odd statement w rt photorespiration? (1) This is the reaction where RuBP combines with Oz (2) Absent in the plant having Hatch Slack pathway (3) In the photorespiratory pathway, there is neither synthesis of sugars nor ATP (4) Photorespiration does occur in C4-Plants because they have a mechanism that decreases the COz concentration at the site of the enzyme RuBisCO The photosystem-I (PS-I) reaction centre chlorophyll-a has an absorption peak at: (1) 700 nm (2) 680 nm (3) 660 nm (4) 760 nm The bacteria which can reduce the nitrates present in the soil to nitrogen are: (1) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter (2) Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus (3) Rhodospirillum and Nostoc (4) Frankia and Rhizobium 130. 131 132 133. 134, 135. Which of the following group of elements can delay flowering if their concentration in plants is low? (1) Ca, Mg, Cu (2) NK, Mg, Fe (3) N.S, Mo (4) Zn, Mn, Fe Select the incorrect statement w.rt. uptake of mineral ions? (1) Most minerals must enter the root by active absorption into the cytoplasm of epidermal calls (2) The concentration of the minerals in the soll is usually higher than the concentration of minerals in the root (3) Active uptake of ions is partly responsible for the water potential gradient in roots and therefore for the uptake of water by osmosis Minefal ions are absorbed from the soil by both passive and active transport The! apoplast, that is continuous throughout the plant, except at the casparian strips of the ‘endodermis in the roots, is the system of: (1) Interconnected protoplast (2) Plasmodesmata (3) Cytoplasmic strands (4) Adjacent cell walls The beginning of diplotene stage of prophase-| of Meiosis-|is recognised by: (1) Formation of synaptonemal complex (2) The dissolution of the synaptonemal complex (3) Terminatisation of chiasmata (4) Alignment of bivalents on the equatorial plate When viewed under the microscope, cells do not- show Golgi complexes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and the nuclear envelope, at the end of: (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase Which of the following type of chromosome has centromere slightly away from the middle resulting in one shorter arm and one longer arm? (1) Acrocentrio (2) Telocentric (3) Metacentric (4) Sub-metacentric 4) (11)