31/07/2021 4 Regd. Office: No. 111, 6th Cross, Paramount Gardens, 7 FINAL TEST SER MM : 720 Tesi Mock Test for NEET (Comple freer: () SagaT ae wr aS fay daa Ae / are ata (iy Pere Tee VA aUARY ae Aw yp: aT TAT (ii) wet wae fre deat ve thar Fe (iv) are at dee Ry wy wars FA] (vy) SR yRaeT we eH Gr Rega sel Sen ay rerd ar witt + | (vi) Wee Het S 4 aim E) wet Tor Ta & fey < (vi) were fers ¥ 2 ws Gata we-a Ger We-B) 1 15 ect FS Saat 10 vet S To SE PHY! Choose the correct answer : SECTION-A 1. kgs could be unit of (1) Momentum (2) Viscosity (3) Force (spring) constant (4) Gravitational potential 2. Abo romped tom wp oa oer covers Z of its total height in last second of its fall. The time of fall is (1) 2s @ 4s (3) 3s (4) 5s Test-13 (Code-B) 3. A body of mass 1 kg crosses a point O moving with velocity of 60 m/s. A force of 10 N opposite to velocity starts acting on the body at O. The body will cross point O again in (1) 128 (2) 6s @) 9s (4) 15s 4, Two identical balls are projected one vertically up and other at an angle of 30° to the horizontal, with same initial speed. The potential energy at their highest point is in the ratio (1) 2:4 (3) 6:1 (2) 3:4 (4) 4:1 5. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of 20 mis. In 10 the velocity changes to 20 m/s northwards. The average acceleration of particle during this time is (1) Oms= (2) 2V2ms* NE (3) 2V2 ms? N-W (4) 20 ms? S-E 6. Which of the following graph represents variation of vertical component of velocity of projectile motion (oblique) with time? 4 f a 2) ta Y a N t @ 4 «4 L___, t= t> 7. Asmall mass m starts from rest at top and slides down the smooth surface of a solid sphere of radius R. The angle of radius vector of the mass with respect to the vertical when it leaves the surface of the sphere is nearly (1) 90° (2) 60" (3) 37° (4) 48°Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B) 8, 10. 11 12. 13. 14. In case of horse pulling a cart, the force that causes the horse to move forward is the force that (Choose best possible answer) (1) Cart exerts on the horse (2) The ground exerts on the horse (3) The horse exerts on the cart (4) The horse exerts on the ground Two identical point masses are placed at a distance of r. The gravitational force of attraction between them will be proportional to a) (2) (3) 4 4 6 itis found that on certain smooth inclined plane of angle 30° with horizontal, a minimum force of 10 N is required to start a body up when applied Parallel to inclined plane. The minimum force required to be applied horizontally to start the same body up will be (in N) (1) 20 (2) 15 (3) 14 (4) 11.5 ‘A car of mass 1000 kg moves on rough road where road friction is 10 percent of its weight and air friction is 2 percent of its weight. To keep the car moving at constant speed of 36 km h-!, the power required is (1) 11,76 KW (2) 18.32 kW (3) 9.31 kW (4) 7.52 kW The ratio of magnitude of potential energy to kinetic energy of an earth's satellite in circular orbit is (13:4 ast (4) 1:2 ‘A body of mass 1 kg moving with velocity of 6 mis collides head on elastically with another identical body at rest. After colliding the velocity of second body in ms“ will be 6 8 (3) 12 (4) 4 The frequency of spring mass system is 16 Hz. If the spring is cut into two halves and one half oscillates with same mass, the frequency of oscillation will be (1) 16 Hz (3) 32.4 Hz (3) 2:4 (2) 32Hz (4) 22.62 Hz 15. Arring, a solid sphere and a thin disc of different masses rotate with same rotational KE. Equal torques are applied to stop them. Which one will make least number of revolutions before coming to rest? (1) Ring (2) Dise (3) Solid sphere (4) All make same number of revolutions 16. The volume of an air bubble is doubled when it rises from the bottom to the surface of a lake. The depth of the lake is approximately (assume same temperature along depth) (1) 10.2m (2) 153m (3) 20m (4) 22m 17. If a graph is drawn between height of liquid inside capillary and radius of capillary tube for a given liquid, which of the following will it be? (1) Straight line through origin having positive slope (2) Straight line through origin having negative slope (3) Rectangular hyperbola (4) Parabola 18. If a gas is allowed to expand adiabatically against, external pressure (1) There is decrease in internal energy of gas (2) Pressure remains constant (3) Its temperature remains constant (4) There is increase in its internal energy of gas 19. An ideal homodiatomic gas has r.m.s. speed of molecules equal to v, On doubling the temperature, the gas molecules dissociate into monoactomic gas. The new r.m.s. speed will be (1) 2v 2) (3) 3v (4)Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B) 20. 24 22. 23. 24, 25. Two spheres of same material but radii in ratio 2:1 are heated to same temperature and left in same surrounding, The rate of the cooling will be in the ratio of (1) 1:2 (3) 1:8 (2) 1:4 (4) 6:4 itis difficult to cook at high altitudes because of (1) Lack of oxygen (2) High moisture content in air (3) Decrease in boiling point of water (4) Increase in boiling point of water A flask contains argon and chlorine in the ratio 2 : 1 by mass at a temperature of 27°C. The ratio of molar mass of chlorine to argon is roughly 3 : 5. The ratio of average translational kinetic energy of argon to chlorine molecule is @) & (4) 1.41 (1) \075 3) 4 Ice starts forming in a lake with water at 0°C when atmospheric temperature is - 10°C. If time taken for 1 om of ice layer to be formed is 7 hours, time taken for the thickness of ice to increase from 1 om to 2 em is (1) 7 hours (2) Less than 7 hours (3) More than 7 hours but less than 14 hours, (4) 21 hours The critical angle for the material a prism is 36°. The maximum angle of prism for which an ‘emergent ray is possible will be (1) 72" (2) 54° (3) 36° (4) 16° When an astronomical telescope is adjusted for parallel rays, the distance of objective from the eye piece is found to be 1.05 m. The magnifying power of telescope is 20. The focal length of eyepiece lens is (1) 1m (3) 0.95m (2) 0.05m (4) 0.52m 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 34 32. How many photons are emitted per second by a yellow lamp of power 10 watt? (Wavelength of yellow light = 600 nm) (1) 3.33 x 102 (2) 3.03 x 10% (3) 3.3 x 106 (4) 1.5.x 101 If a lens is moved towards the object from a distance of 20 om to 15 cm, the magnification of the image remains the same. The focal length of the lens is (1) 15.5 em (2) 1680m (3) 17.5 om (4) 12.6. om In Young's double slit experiment using light of wavelength 2, the intensity of bright fringe is J units, the intensity at a point where the path difference is * is a (1) (2) i 2 i @ 5 @) A clear sheet of polaroid is placed on top of similar sheet so that their axis make an angle sin-'(3/5) with each other. The ratio of intensity of final emergent light to that of unpolarised light (incident) is (1) 16:25 (2) 9:25 (3) 15:36 (4) 8:25 A person standing at a distance of 3.6 km can just resolve two poles. The distance between the 4 es is (if eye, limit of resolution = —— rad} poles is (if eye, limit of resolution = == 5 rad) (1) 1m (2) 10m (3) 04m (4) 5m ‘An open pipe of length 40 cm and diameter 5 cm vibrates. The wavelength of sound emitted by it in fundamental mode is, (1) 77m (2) 81.5cm (3) 86 om (4) 78.50m If a source of frequency f and a listener approaches each other with a velocity of a of the velocity of sound each, frequency heard by the listener is the apparent 24 19 ) oO" @ af 2 20 (3) Bf ZFFinal Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B) 33. 34, 36. 36. 37. amplitude from mean position will be B Yo 3M @ > Mw My © % o 3B A particle of mass 1 kg and charge 1 C moves from rest through a potential of 1 V. Its final velocity will be 39 (1) ms (2) 2ms* (3) 4ms* (4) 1.4 ms The capacitance between diagonal AC of square ABCD is 2uF A B 2uF 2uF 2uF 40. D ie 2uF (1) 2uF (2) 3uF (3) 4 nF (4) 6 uF SECTION-B In electrostatic condition of a conductor, a (1) Potential all across conductor is constant (2) Electric field on surface is perpendicular to surface (3) Surface charge density is always uniform 42 (4) Both (1) and (2) To make a voltmeter from sensitive galvanometer (1) A high resistance is connected in parallel (2) Alow resistance is connected in parallel (3) Ahigh resistance is connected in series (4) Alow resistance is connected in series In the circuit shown in figure, galvanometer G reads zero. The internal resistance of batteries is negligible. The value of Xis +N 5000 7 12v (1) 100.0 (2) 2000 (3) 2400 (4) 500.0, ‘An infinite long straight wire is bent into the shape as shown in figure. It carries current / and radius of circular loop is a. The magnetic field at the centre of loop is (d << a) Hol tig(n + 1)i wy oe gr co wlle=d (ay Holet2d Two wires of same material and same length are connected to two gaps of a meter bridge. The balancing length measured from left gap is 25 cm. The ratio of radius of two wires in left gap to that in the right gap is (1) 3:4 (2) ¥B:1 (3) 1:9 (4) 3:2 The relative permeability of material is 6000 (ie. high). The substance could be (1) Copper (2) Aluminium (3) Bismuth (4) Iron A solenoid of diameter 0.2 m has 500 tums per metre, At the centre of this solenoid, a coil of 100 turns is wrapped closely around it. If the current in solenoid changes from zero to 2 A in 1 millisecond, Induced emf developed in the coil is nearly (1) 2.45 (3) 6.55V (2) 3.95V (4) 1.25VFinal Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B) 43. A transformer has efficiency of 75%. The power input is 4 KW at 100 V. If secondary voltage is 200 V, what is secondary current? (1) 104 (2) 9A (3) 124 (4) 15A 44, The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle moving with velocity 2.25 x 10° ms“ is equal to wavelength of a photon. The ratio of kinetic energy of the particle to energy of the photon is (velocity of light = 3 * 10® mis) (1) 1:8 (2) 1:4 (3) 1:5 (4) 3:8 45. The potential barrier for germanium p-n junetion is 0.3 V. If the width of the depletion layer is 1 micron, then field strength at the junction is (2) 3% 104Vort (4) 3.33 x 10°V ar (1) 3 108 Vit (3) 3x10 Vm 46. A particle has initial velocity (2/+6j) m/s. The particle experiences a constant acceleration 2j)ms*. The becomes parallel to x axis at t equal to velocity of particle (1) 2s (2) 3s (3) 4s (4) 6s 47. Which of the following distance-time graph is not, possible g g 4) 2 0 B m2 @2 Time Time g g g a @2 2 “T Time Time 48. The location of centre of mass of three bodies of mass 1 kg each, located at the points (0, 0) (3, 0) and (0, 4) in xy plane is (4 oF) a © (53) 49. 50. 51 52. 53. 5A, 56. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by @ = 2 — 38. The torque on wheel becomes zero at (1s (2) 3s (3) 05s (4) 45 The percentage error in measurement of length and time-period is 2% and 1% respectively. The percentage error in measurement of gis (1) 2% (2) 3% (3) 6% (4) 4% CHEM SECTION-A Mole fraction of 4.5 molal aqueous solution is 1 3 (5 aa 2 7 Oa (4) is Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not correct? 1 4) n=5,1=4,m=0, s= (1) n= 5,1=4,m=0, s=> (2) n=5,1=0,m=-1, s= (3) n=5,124,m=-3, 8-2 2 If for a bulb, rate of emission of photon having wavelength 662.6 nm is 3 x 102”s~' then power of bulb is (1) 10W (2) 30W (3) 90w (4) 100 W Minimum negative electron gain enthalpy among the following is of (1) F (2) cl (3) Br at Shape of SFs molecule is (1) Pyramidal (2) Tetrahedral (3) Square planar (4) See-sawFinal Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B) 56. Maximum bond order among the following is of (1) Oz (2) 03 67. (3) OZ (4) OF" 57. An ideal gas is heated in open container from 27° to 127°C. The fraction of moles of gas remained in the container is 1 4 = — 68. 5 @ ¢ 3 2 @ > 2 58. Unit of van der Waal constant ‘b’ is (yb (2) Lmok* (3) mol L* (4) mol L? 59. For which of the following reaction Ky = K:? (1) PCIe(g) + PCh(g) + Ch{9) °°. (2) CaCox{s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g) ) H2(g) + lag) = 2HI(g) (4) N2O4(g) = 2NO2(g) 60. pH of the solution made by mixing 0.2 M, 100 mL NaOH and 0.1 M, 400 mL. of CHsCOOH is (pKs of CHsCOOH = 4.7) (1) 2.35 (2) 47 @) 7 (4) 93 61. Which of the following is incorrect regarding isothermal free expansion of an ideal gas? (1) q=0 (2) w=0 (3) AU=0 (4) AS=0 62. Oxidation number of sulphur in NazS«Os is (1)2 (2) 25 (@) 6 (4) -2 70. 63. Electron rich hydride among the following is (1) NaH (2) CHa (3) HF (4) NiHor 64. Which of the following does not exist as solid? (1) NaHCOs (2) LiHCOs n (3) CaCO. (4) MgCOs 65. Hybridisation of Al in the acidified aqueous solution of AlChs is (1) sp? (2) sp? (3) sp3d (4) spa? 72. 66. The chain length of silicone polymer can be controlled by adding (1) CHaSiChs (3) (CHs)sSicl (2) (CHapSiCe (4) Sil. COOH IUPAC name of is 1) 5-Hydroxyhexanoic acid (2) 5-Oxohexanoic acid 3) (4) 5-Carboxypentan-; 1-Carboxypentan-5-one ¢ ¢ G ¢ one ‘Aromatic species among the following is, 2) UO CH,(CH,),CH, es A Tot AC, 40-20 aim las Heat c Product C in the above reaction is ° O (CH,CH,COOH ° oO ,COOH ° oO CHO (4) Ratio between crystal field splitting Ao and A: is 5 5 4) 2 2) 2 3 > 9 4 @ > @ F ‘Blue baby syndrome’ is due to the excess of in drinking water. (1) Fluorides (3) Sulphate (2) Lead (4) Nitrate Which of the following compounds shows both Frenkel as well as Schottky defects? (1) Nac (2) AgBr (3) CsCl (4) Zas (1Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B) 73. 74, 7. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81 Vapour pressure of an ideal solution made by 82, mixing 5 moles of A and 10 moles of B is (PR = 100 torr, P3 = 200 torr) (1) 160 torr (2) 166.7 torr (3) 133.3 torr (4) 125 torr 8 Most basic compound in aqueous medium among the following is (1) NH (2) (CeHs)N 84. (3) (CoHts)NH (4) CoHsNHe Rate of Sx2 reaction will be maximum in (1) CHsBr (2) CHsCH:Br (3) (CHs),CHBr (4) (CHe)sCBr 8 Which of the following ethers can not be formed by Williamson ether synthesis? (1) (Oy ~CH, (2) CHs—O-CHs 86. “OO (4) CH2 = CH-O-CHs 87. Rickets is caused by the deficiency of (1) Vitamin (2) Vitamin A (3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin Bs 88. Which of the following compounds gives Tollens’ test but does not give Fehling's test? (1) CHscHO (2) HCHO (3) CHsCOCHs (4) CeHsCHO Which of the following property is widely used to determine the molar masses of proteins? (1) Relative lowering in vapour pressure (2) Elevation in boiling point (3) Depression in freezing point 8 (4) Osmotic pressure Which of the following condition(s) is/are true for a galvanic cell at equilibrium? (1) aG=0 (2) Eca =0 (3) K=Q (4) Allof these A process is never spontaneous if (1) AH>OandAS>0 (2) AH0 90. (3) AHOand AS <0 Volume of COz gas obtained at STP by the complete combustion of 45 g of ethane is (1) 67.2L (2) 2241 (3) 4.8L (4) 11.24 ‘Temporary effect among the following is (1) Inductive effect (3) Electromeric effect (2) Resonance effect (4) Hyperconjugation If A2, for NaCl, HCI and NaAc are a, b and ¢ S cm? mol then A2, for HAc is, (1) atb—c (3) atenb (2) btc-a (4) atbte Half life of a reaction is constant for (2) First order (4) Third order (1) Zero order (3) Second order SECTION-B Butter is an example of (1) Gel (2) Foam (3) Emulsion (4) Sol In the extraction of gold by leaching with CN-, the reducing agent involved is (1) Zn (2) OW (@) cu (4) CN Which of the following reaction gives Nz as a product? (1) (NHg)2CO3 > (2) (NH4)2Cr0, > (3) NH,NO; 4-5 (4) 2NO.+N,0, —22°K_, F on reaction with MnOj in neutral or faintly alkaline solution gives (1) b (2) 105 (3) log (4) 10 1 mole of CoCls.4NHs on reaction with excess of AgNOs gives 1 mol AgCl. The secondary valency of cobalt in the complex is a) (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 6 (1Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B) 1 92, 93, 94, 96. 96. 97. (00, (Nao Tazno AT aa 7B (Major) Product B is No, Product C in the above reaction is cl cl © © Br Which of the following is not a disaccharide? (1) Lactose (2) Sucrose (3) Amylose (4) Mattose Monomer of Bakelite is (1) Phenol (2) Formaldehyde (3) Phthalic acid (4) Both (1) and (2) Tranquilizer among the following is (1) Equanit (2) Aspirin (3) Prontosil (4) Norethindrone Ratio of toa to tso for a first order reaction is aya (2) 2:4 (3) 3:4 (4) 9:4 Which of the following does not react with Hinsberg's reagent? t) NH) @ \—w wy ne, 3 as 98. For the equilibrium H2(g) + la(g) = 2HI(Q), which of the following change alters the equilibrium constant? (1) Addition of inert gas (2) Increase in pressure (3) Addition of catalyst (4) Increase in temperature 99, Aromatic species among the following is (1) O a | @) C: @ Os 100. Mass of CO2 formed by the reaction of 16. g CHs and 32 g oxygen is, (1) 119 (2) 229 (3) 449 (4) 889 BOT SECTION-A 101. Match the different taxonomical aids given in column-I with their correct explanation given in column-ll, and select the most appropriate option as answer? Column-1 Column-tt a. Herbarium (i) Information on any one taxon b. Museum (ii) Quick referral systoms. Key (ii) Analytical in nature. Monographs (iv) Collections of preserved plant and animal specimens (1) adi), bGiv), efi, Ai) (2) ali), BG), e(iv), aii) (3) aliv), b(i), ti, Ai) (4) ali), bili), efiv), dCi) 102. The three domain system of classification has (1) Two domains for Eukaryotes (2) Two domains for Prokaryotes (3) Kept all prokaryotes in one domain (4) One domain for virus, viroid, prions ete. (1Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B) 103. Pigments of which of the following group of protists are identical to those present in higher plants? (1) Chrysophytes (2) Diatoms and desmids (3) Euglenoids (4) Dinoflagellates 104, Hydrocolloids like algin are present in (1) Green algae (2) Brown algae (3) Red algae (4) Blue green algae 105. The inconspicuous, small but multicellular free- living, mostly photosynthetic _thalloi gametophytes in pteridophytes developing from spores is called: (1) Primary protonema (2) Secondary protonema (3) Prothallus. (4) Lateral bud 106. The axillary bud gives rise to slender and spirally coiled stem tendrils which help plants to climb are found in: (1) Bougainvillea (2) Citrus (3) Peas (4) Gourds 107. Select the mismatched pair. (1) Epipetaious (2) Epiphyiious (3) Monoadelphous Brinjal Flowers of lily Pea (4) Polyadelphous — Citrus 108. The arrangement of primary xylem, where the protoxylem lies towards periphery and meta xylem lies towards the centre is called. (1) Exarch (2) Endarch (3) Triarch (4) Tetrarch 109. In dicotyledonous root, initiation of lateral roots and formation of vascular cambium during the secondary growth takes place in the cells of (1) Epidermis (2) Hypodermis 3) Pericycte (4) Casparian strips 110. Reserve material in prokaryotic cells are stored in the cytoplasm in the form of: (1) Polysome (2) Inclusion bodies (3) Mesosomes (4) Capsule 111. Select the odd one w.rt. the endomembrane system? (1) RER is frequently observed in cells actively involved in protein synthesis and secretion (2) Lysosomal vesicles have been found to be very rich in almost all types of hydrolytic enzymes (3) Vacuoles contain water, sap, excretory products and other materials (4) The Golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged near the nucleus with distinct cis or the maturing face and the concave trans or the forming face 112. Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles, their identity as discrete elements is lost, nuclear membrane develops around the chromosome clusters during which of the following stages of mitotic division? (1) Prophase (3) Telophase (2) Metaphase (4) Anaphase 113. The homologous chromosomes separate, whi sister chromatids remain associated at thei centromeres, during which of the following stages of division? (1) Metaphase-I (2) Anaphase-| (4) Anaphase-II 114. Match the stages of interphase given in column-I, with the correct events taking place during the stages in column-ll and select the most appropriate option as the answer. (3) Prophase-1 Column-1 Column-tt a. Grphase () Cells remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate. b. S-phase (ii) Most organelle duplication occurs during this phase. c. Grphase (ii) DNA replication takes place. d. Gephase (iv) Period of cytoplasmic growth. (1) (i), Bi), oi), Av) (2) aliv), b(il), ei). diy (3) afi tiv), oi) ctiv), ai) (1Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B) 115, 116. 417, 118, 119, 120, Select the odd statement wr. relations. plant-water (1) The greater the concentration of water in a system, the greater is its kinetic energy or water potential (2) If a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water or a solution, its water potential decreases (3) For a solution at atmospheric pressure water potential y,, is equal to solute potential y, (4) The more the solute molecules, the lower (more negative) is the solute potential Which of the following is ultimately responsible for enlargement and extension growth of cells? (1) Hypertonic solution (2) Isotonic solution (3) Turgor pressure (4) Plasmolysis, Root nodules in some plants like soyabean export fixed nitrogen along with the transpiration stream in the form of (1) Ammonia (2) Amino acids (3) Amides (4) Ureides Which of the following nutrient is a component of several enzymes like nitrogenase and nitrate reductase? (1) Boron (2) Manganese (3) Molybdenum (4) Chlorine The primary COz acceptor during the carbon reactions in Cs plants present in the mesophyll cells of leaf are (1) Phosphoenol pyruvate (2) Oxaloacetic acid (3) Malic acid (4) RUBP Consider the following statements. a CO2 is the major limiting factor for photosynthesis, b. Dark reactions being enzymatic are temperature controlled. c, Water stress causes the stomata to close hence reducing COz availabilty d. Six tums of Calvin cycle results in the formation of six molecules of glucose. The correct statements are (2) b,candd (4) onlyd (1) band ¢ only (3) a,bandc 121. During which of the following conversions substrate level phosphorylation takes place in Glycolysis? (1) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate acetone phosphate (2) Phosphoenolpyruvate to Pyruvic acid (3) Glucose-6-phosphate to Fructose-6-phosphate to Dihydroxy- (4) 2-phosphoglycerate to Phosphoenolpyruvate 122. Complex-IV of the Electron transport system (ETS) in aerobic respiration refers to: (1) Cytochrome-c oxidase complex (2) NADH dehydrogenase complex (3) Succinate dehydrogenase complex (4) Cytochrome be: complex 123. Match Column-| with Column-ll and select the most appropriate option. Column-| a. S-curve a Column-Il Ability of the plant to produce new plant material. b. Arithmetic growth (ii) Root elongating at a constant rate. Characteristic of living organism growing in a natural environment ©. De-differentiation (ii) d. Efficiency index (iv) Formation of inter fascicular cambium (1) ali), bGiv), c(i), dCi) (2) aliv), bill), (i), dCi) (3) ali), BG), ctiv), Ai) (4) ali), BG, ety), dCi) 124. Select the mismatched pair. (1) Auxin : Apical dominance (2) Gibbereliins : Promotes bolting (3) Cytokinin : Lateral shoot growth (4) Abscisic acid : Root hair formation 125. Members of the Kingdom Fungi and simple plants such as algae reproduce through special asexual reproductive structures. The most common of these structures are: (1) Gemmules (2) Buds (3) Zoospores (4) Bulb (1Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B) 126. Organisms exhibiting external fertilization: (1) Sharply reduce the number of eggs produced (2) Perform syngamy inside their body (3) Show great synchrony between the sexes (4) Produce egg inside the female body where it fuses with male gamete 127. The generative cell of the pollen grain: (1) Is bigger with abundant food reserve (2) Has a large irregularly shaped nucleus (3) Forms the pollen tube (4) (4) Is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm and a nucleus 128, Genetically different types of pollen grains can ‘come on the stigma of a flower, by which of the following strategies of pollination (1) Geitonogamy (2) Homogamy (3) Xenogamy (4) Autogamy 129, Select the odd statement w.r.t sex-determination in Honey Bee? (1) An unfertilised egg develops as a male (drone) by means of parthenogenesis (2) The females are diploid having 32 chromosomes (3) Males have father and can have sons (4) Males produce gametes/sperms by mitosis 130. Match the genetic conditions given in column-I, with the correct explanation given in column-Il and select the most appropriate option as answer. Column-1 Column-ll Autosome linked recessive blood disease. a. Thalassemia (i) b. Phenylketonuria (i) Due to lack of enzyme that converts phenylalanine into tyrosine Defect caused by substitution of glutamic acid by valine at 6th position of chain of haemoglobin ©. Sickle-cell anemia (ii) Sex-linked recessive condition d. Haemophilia (iv) 131 132. 133, (1) afiv), b(i), efi, diy (2) a(i), Bi), efi), div) (3) aliv), b(i), c(i, ai) (4) afi), b(iv), efi), di) Select the odd statement wrt. structure of polynucleotide chain? (1) A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 1°C. pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic linkage to form a nucleoside. (2) Two nucleotides are linked through 3'- phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide (3) In RNA 5-methyl uracil is found at the place of thymine (4) Cytosine is common for both DNA and RNA. Match column-1 and column-ll w.rt. the various aspects of Human Genome Project and select the correct option as the answer. Column-1 Column-tt a. Expressed (i) Atabout 1.4 million sequence tags locations b. Sequence (ii) Genes that are annotation expressed as RNA ©. Bioinformatics (il) Whole set of genome containing all coding & non- coding sequence d. Single nucleotide (iv) High speed polymorphism ‘computational devices for storage, retrieval & analysis of data, (1) aGi), BG), (iv), di) (2) al tiv), di) (3) eli), Av) (4) aliv), biii), eC), i) Select the odd statement w.rt. Lac operon (1) Essentially, regulation of Lac operon can be visualised as regulation of enzyme synthesis by its substrate (2) A very low level of expression of Lac operon has to be present in the cell all the time, otherwise lactose cannot enter the cells, (3) Regulation of Lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation (4) Lac operon can never be under control of positive regulationFinal Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B) 134. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell/explant is called (1) Somatic hybrids (2) Totipotency (3) Traditional breeding (4) Meristem culture 135. The new crop variety of Abelmoschus esculentus, called Prabhani Kranti, resistant to yellow mosaic virus was produced through (1) Conventional breeding (2) (3) Genetic Engineering (4) Mutation breeding Tissue culture SECTION-B 136. The ladybird and dragonflies respectively are useful biocontrol agents to get rid of: (1) Birds and fish (2) Aphids and mosquitoes (3) Arthropods and insects (4) Root borne pathogens 187. Select the incorrect statement wart. use of microbes for household products? (1) LAB play very beneficial role in checking disease causing microbes (2) LAB converts milk to curd, which improves the nutritional quality by increasing vit Biz (3) The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to production of CO2 gas (4) The ‘Roquefort cheese’ are ripened by growing a specific bacteria on them 138. The salt concentration measured as salinity in parts per thousand in some hypersaline lagoons is (1) 5 (2) 30-35 (3) >100 (4) 50 139. An overwhelming majority (99%) of animals and nearly all plants cannot maintain a constant internal environment. Their body temperature changes with the ambient temperature, so they are called: (1) Conformers (3) Partial regulators, (2) Regulators (4) Suspenders 140. The rate of formation of new organic matter by ‘consumers is known as: (1) Primary production (2) Gross primary productivity (3) Secondary productivity (4) Net primary productivity 141. The amount of nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorous, calcium etc., present in the soil at any given time, which varies in different kinds of ecosystems and also on a seasonal basis, is known as: (1) Standing crop (2) Standing state (3) Climax vegetation (4) Sedimentary cycle 142. The most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction is: (1) Habitat loss & fragmentation (2) Over-exploitation (3) Alien species invasion (4) Co-extinctions 143. Select the odd one wrt. on-site conservation strategy. (1) Biosphere reserves (2) National parks (3) Wildlife safari parks (4) Biodiversity hotspots 144, Select the mismatch w.r:t. pollutants and their treatment strategies. (1) Hospital wastes — Recycling (2) Electronic wastes - Recycling (3) Solid waste - Sanitary land fills (4) Domestic sewage — Sewage treatment plant 145, Realising the significance of participation by local communities in managing and protecting forests, the Government of India in 1980s has introduced the concept of: (1) Jhum cultivation (2) Reforestation (3) Joint forest management (4) Chipko movementFinal Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B) 146. If the amount of DNA and number of chromosomes in a meiocyte is 20 pg and 20 respectively then what will be the amount of DNA and number of chromosome after meiosis Il in daughter cells? DNA (in pg) Chromosome (1) 20 10 (2) 40 20 (3) 10 10 (4) 20 20 147. Which of the following component of phloem is non-living? (1) Sieve tubes (2) Phloem parenchyma (3) Bast fibers (4) Companion cells 148. Which of the following has both RNA and DNA? (1) Virus (2) Prions (3) Virusoids (4) Bacteria 149. Enzyme of Krebs cycle that does not present in mitochondrial matrix is (1) Citrate synthase (2) Malate dehydrogenase (3) Succinate dehydrogenase (4) Fumarase 150. Cytochrome c___during respiratory ETC (1) Accepts the electron from oxygen (2) Is a mobile electron carrier (3) Transfer the electrons to oxygen (4) Is a main part of NADH dehydrogenase SECTION-A 151. Which of the following characteristic feature always holds true for the corresponding group of animals? (1) External fertilisation and - Chondrichthyes indirect development (2) External ear openings - Reptiles are present (3) Cartilaginous cranium & - Cyclostomata vertebral column (4) Gill slits are separate -Osteichthyes and without operculum 152. Two animals ‘x’ and 'Y' belong to the same phylum but different class. ‘X' differs from “Y" in that °X' lacks the ability to regulate its body temperature. Identify the Y and X respectively (1) Lamprey, Hyla (2) Chelone, Scoliodon (3) Bufo, Bungarus (4) Neophron, Naja 153. What type of blood group can be transfused to a person having anti B antibodies in his plasma but no Rh antigen on surface of his RBCs? (1) ABN (2) Bw (3) Ave (4) ov# 154, Antigen binding site in an antibody molecule is present at (1) Variable region of light chain and constant region of heavy chain (2) Constant region of light chain and variable region of heavy chain (3) Variable region of both light and heavy chains (4) Constant regions of light and heavy chains 155. False statement about Chaetopleura is (1) Sexes are separate and belongs to phylum Arthropoda (2) Calcareous shell is present outside the body as an exoskeleton (3) Possess bilateral symmetry and true coelom, (4) Metamerism is absent and has muscular foot, for locomotion 156. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration, includes (1) TV+ERV (2) ERV+RV (3) ERV+TV+IRV (4) RV+ERV+TV+IRV 157. Select the incorrect statement about reproductive system of Periplaneta Statement-A : Pair of spermatheca is present in the 6" abdominal segment of female which opens into the genital chamber. Statement-B : The external genitalia are represented by male gonapophysis or phallomeres Which are chitinous asymmetrical structures, surrounding the male gonopore (1) Both statements are correct (2) Both statements are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correctFinal Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B) 158. Identify the below given diagram showing location of endocrine glands in humans. Select the labelled endocrine gland whose over secretion causes disfigurement (especially of the face) in adults (ya (2) 8 @)c (4) D 159. For a biochemical reaction, when we increase substrate concentration (1) The velocity of enzymatic reaction becomes constant after reaching the Vmax (2) The value of Km increases continuously (3) The velocity of enzymatic reaction increases continuously (4) The value of Km decreases continuously 160, Select the incorrect match w.r.t. glands and their description (1) Pancreas ~ Secretes hypoglycemic hormone which acts on hepatocytes and GLUT-4 (2) Nourohypophysis — Synthesises and releases a hormone which acts on latter parts of renal tubules (3) Parathyroid = Present on the dorsal side of gland another endocrine gland (4) Pineal gland — Located on the dorsal side of forebrain 161. Read the following statements for skeletal muscle fibres and choose the correct answer. ‘A. Each muscle fibre contains large number of parallelly arranged myofibrils. B. Each myofibril has alternate dark and light bands on it. C. Light band contains thick and thin myofilaments. D. Dark band contains both thin and thick filaments. (1) A, Band C are correct (2) A, Band D are correct (3) A.C and D are correct (4) 8, C and D are correct 162. Ina resting neuron (1) K* diffuse from inside to outside of the axonal membrane through leaky channels (2) Na* diffuse from inside to outside of the axonal membrane through leaky channels (3) 3K! move outside for 2Na* into the axoplasm by sodium-potassium pump (4) K* and Na® both diffuse from inside to outside of the axonal membrane through leaky channels 163. All of the following are correct features for lining of alveoli except (1) A single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries (2) Cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix (3) The epithelium which lines the alveoli is highly vascular (4) Lining cells of alveoli rest on a non-cellular basement membrane 164, Identify the given below amino acids A and B Ha aa H,N-C-C-OH H,N-C-C-OH ox, sH GH. A 2 Choose the correct option. A B (1) Serine Tyrosine (2) Cysteine Tyrosine (3) Cystine Phenylalanine (4) Cysteine Phenylalanine 165. Which of the following cells/substances, are not found in all connective tissues? (a) Fibroblast (b) Proteins (c) Adipocytes (d) Matrix (1) (a) and (¢) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a) and (b) (4) (b) and (4)Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B) 166. After taking a long deep breath, we can hold breathing for some time till (1) More COe in arterial blood sensitize the central chemoreceptor area (2) More COz in venous blood sensitize the central chemoreceptor area (3) More ©: in arterial blood sensitize the central chemoreceptor area (4) More O2 in venous blood sensitize the central chemoreceptor area 167. Number of canine teeth in upper half jaw of a 14 years old child is (1) 14 (2) 10 @) 4 44 168. Consider the following statements. (i) Steapsin is present in succus entericus. (ii) Sphincter of Oddi regulates the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into duodenum. (ii) Gastric juice of infants contains pepsin, renin and trypsin. Which of the following option includes incorrect statements only? (1) @ and Gi) (3) (and (il) 169. During ventricular systole (1) Atrioventricular valves remain open (2) Ventricles receive the blood from atria (3) Right and left atria receive blood from vena cava and pulmonary veins respectively (2) (i and (i) (4) (, (i) and iy (4) Semilunar valves remain open for about 0.5 sec 170. The number of QRS complexes observed per minute in an ECG of a person is 84. What would be the number of cardiac cycles of that person for 15 seconds? (1) 84 (2) 42 (3) 21 (4) 72 fal convoluted tubule differs from proximal convoluted tubule in 1 (1) Facultative reabsorption of water (2) Reabsorption of almost all bicarbonates bordered (3) Possessing brush cuboidal epithelium (4) Secretion of maximum H* 172. Select the correct set of ammonotelic animals. (1) Bony fishes, aquatic amphibians, land snails (2) Cartitaginous fishes, tadpole larva of frog, crocodile (3) Aquatic insects, bony fishes, aquatic amphibians (4) Sponges, cnidarians, adult frog 173, The 8", 9" and 10" pair of ribs are called false ribs because (1) They are attached directly to sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage (2) They are attached to sterum with the help of fibrous cartilage (3) They are attached to 7* rib with the help of hyaline cartilage (4) They are not attached to thoracic vertebrae 174. In parasympathetic nervous system, which neurotransmitter is released? (1) Adrenaline (2) Nor-adrenaline (3) Acetylcholine (4) Dopamine 175. Which lobe of cerebral hemisphere register feeling of hot, cold, touch and pain? (1) Frontal (2) Parietal (3) Temporal (4) Occipital 176. If the haploid eggs without fertilisation develop into only males, this type of parthenogenesis is called (1) Amphitoky (2) Cyclic (3) Arthenotoky (4) Thelytoky 177. Choose a brush border enzyme which can act on the product, formed by action of the enzyme of pancreatic juice. (1) Amylase (3) Nucleases (2) Sucrase (4) Nucleotidase 178. In double circulation, the pulmonary circulation starts from (1) Right atrium, (2) Left atrium (3) Right ventricle (4) Left ventricle 179. Hormone which is responsible for libido in human males, is secreted from (1) Pituitary gland (3) Testes (2) Pancreas (4) LiverFinal Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B) 180. Cartilage differs from bone in that they (1) Possess non-pliable matrix (2) Possess fluid matrix (3) Lack lamellae (4) Are site of erythropoiesis in adults 181. Which extraembryonic membrane in humans participates in formation of placenta during ‘embryonic development? (1) Amnion (2) Chorion (3) Allantois (4) Yolk sac 182. Identify the incorrect statement about gonadotropin activity in a normal fertile woman (1) High level of circulating FSH & LH in blood during follicular phase of menstrual cycle (2) Amount of progesterone _increases continuously in luteal phase of menstrual cycle if fertilisation and implantation occur (3) LH surge is responsible for ovulation at the end of follicular phase (4) During pregnancy, FSH & LH increase gradually and give positive feedback to corpus luteum for secretion of estrogen and progesterone 183. What is correct for cleavage divisions in humans? (1) Meroblastic (2) Determinate (3) Fast (4) Asynchronous 184. Identify the incorrect statements from given below statements and select the correct option. Statement-A : Innate immunity is majorly responsible for graft rejection in humans. Statement-B : In allergy, the histamine and steroids are given to combat only cell mediated immunity. Statement-C : Vaccination or immunisation boost our immunity. (1) Aand B only (2) Band C only (3) Aand C only (4) A, Bandc 185. If a female Anopheles mosquito feeds on the blood of infected host suffering from malaria then (1) Merozoites will enter into its gut which will form gametes (2) Gametocytes are taken up with blood meal (3) Sporozoites enter into the body of female Anopheles mosquito (4) Oocyst enters into the body of female Anopheles mosquito SECTION-B 186. The rapidly proliferating cells called neoplastic or tumor cells (1) Show apoptosis (2) Have normal nucleus (3) Show contact inhibition (4) Can show metastasis 187. In controlled breeding experiments such as MOET, the animal is generally inseminated (1) After superovulation (2) Before superovutation (3) Before the administration of FSH-like hormone (4) Just after the administration of FSH-ike hormone but prior to superovulation 188. All are objectives of animal breeding except (1) To improve growth rate (2) To increase production of milk, meat, egg etc. (3) To decrease resistance to various diseases (4) To improve the desirable quality of animal produce 189. In recombinant DNA technology, a plasmid vector PBR322 can be cleaved by A. Sal in amp® gene B. Pst! in te gene C. Cla | outside the selectable marker genes D. EcoR | in both amp® and tef* gene Select the option which correctly states each statement as true (T) or false (F). A Bc oD QF TOF T Q@ FFTEeE @ FF TT @ TT TE 190. If only gene Q is to be isolated from given alien DNA, what would be the best choice of enzyme? ce a EI EooR | EcoR Bamit | Bam | bina Hing iFinal Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-13 (Code-B) (1) Single digestion with EcoR | (2) Single digestion with BamH 1 (3) Double digestion with EcoR | then with BamH 1 (4) Single digestion with Hind II 191, Which of the following statement is incorrect for Taq polymerase used in PCR technique? (1) Itis obtained from Thermus aquaticus (2) It adds new nucleotides to the 3'-OH end of a growing strand (3) It can't begin synthesis de novo without primer (4) Generally adds new nucleotides to only single type of primer 192. Read the following statements and choose the correct answer Statement-A : Antisense RNA used for silencing a specific mRNA in RNAi has sequence ‘complementary to antisense strand of mRNA. Statement-B : Genetic modification have been used to create tailor made plants such as production of hirudin by Brassica napus. (1) Both statements are correct, (2) Both statements are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct 193. All of the following can be used as vectors for introducing alien DNA in bacterium except (1) pBR322 (2) pucs (3) Retrovirus (4) 4 phage 194. Genetic modification in plants have been useful in many ways except (1) Made plants more tolerant to abiotic stresses (2) Increased reliance on chemical pesticides (3) Helped to reduce post harvest losses (4) Enhanced nutritional value of food 195. The DNA sequences for A chain and B chain were introduced into which of the following selectable marker for production of human insulin by Eli Lilly company? (1) lac Z gene for B galactosidase (2) amp® gene (3) tef® gene (4) neo® gene 196. Medulla oblongata regulates all of the following functions except (1) Gastric secretions (2) Cardiovascular (3) Moderates cardiac functions (4) Body temperature 197. Which of the following parts of nephron is not included in renal tubule (1) Glomerulus (3) DCT (2) PCT (4) Loop of Henle 198. Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer. Statement A: PCT helps in osmoregulation as well as acid base balance of the body fluids. Statement B: Potassium ions are reabsorbed in PCT and secreted in DCT. (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is corect 199. Choose the incorrect match (1) Acromegaly Hypersecretion of GH (2) Dwarfism — Hyposecretion of GH (3) Cretinism — — Hyposecretion of thyroxine (4) Osteoporosis Hyposecretion of parathormone 200. Choose the incorrect statement wrt. a nerve fibre (1) During resting condition, axoplasm is negatively charged (2) Na‘-K pump operates during polarised stage of nerve fibres (3) Voltage gated sodium channels are open during depolarisation (4) Velocity of impulse conduction through myelinated nerve fibres is less than through unmyelinated nerve fibres