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GS Test – 12 (23/02/2020)
Question Paper

1. Arrange the following events in chronological order from the earliest to the latest:
(1) The rule of Farrukhsiyar
(2) Nadir Shah's plunder of Delhi
(3) Burhan-ul-Mulk Sa‘adat Khan's appointment as subadar of Awadh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 3-1-2
(c) 2-1-3
(d) 1-3-2

2. With reference to Indigo Rebellion, which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The government set up the Indigo Commission which held the peasants guilty.
(b) Though indigo production collapsed in Bengal post-Indigo Rebellion, the planters
shifted their operations to Bihar.
(c) In 1859, thousands of ryots in Bengal refused to grow indigo and started a
nonviolent movement for stopping indigo cultivation.
(d) Gomasthas (also Gumasta) and lathiyals were at the forefront of these peasant
rebellions, leading them against the British.

3. Consider the following statements with respect to the aftermath of the Revolt of 1857:
(1) A member of the British Royalty (Viceroy) was made responsible for all the matters
related to the princely states of India.
(2) All ruling chiefs of the country were assured that their territory would never be
annexed in the future.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. Which of the following statements with respect to Pandita Ramabai is not correct?
(a) She was a great scholar of Sanskrit and wrote about the miserable lives of upper-
caste Hindu women.
(b) She published a book, Stri-Purush Tulna, criticising the social differences between
men and women.
(c) She founded a widows’ home at Poona to provide shelter to widows who had been
treated badly.
(d) She converted to Christianity while in Britain and became a social reformer.

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5. Consider the following statements with reference to the All India Trade Union
Congress:
(1) It was founded in 1920, and Lala Lajpat Rai was its first General Secretary.
(2) It was formed by the Indian National Congress to represent India at the
International Labour Organization and the League of Nations.
(3) During World War II, it completely got merged with Communist ideology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

6. Which of the following newspapers were started by Mahatma Gandhi in India?

(1) Young India
(2) Harijan
(3) Indian Opinion
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Consider the following pairs:

Movement/ Leader
Organisation
1. Kakori : Rajendra Lahiri
Conspiracy
2. Unionist Party : Fazl-i-Hussain
3. Self Respect : E.V. Ramaswamy
Movement Naicker
4. Anushilan Samiti : V.D. Savarkar
Which of the pairs given above is/are not matched correctly?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

8. With reference to the Indian Muslim leaders during the colonial era, consider the
following statements:
(1) Maulana Azad, a scholar of Islam, propounded the notion of Wahadat-i-Deen
(unity of religions).
(2) It was Sir Sayyid Ahmad Khan who first used the notion of two-nation theory to
justify the partition of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. East India Company’s monopoly over trade in India ended with which of the following
Acts?
(a) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
(b) The Charter Act of 1793
(c) The Charter Act of 1813
(d) The Charter Act of 1833

10. Arrange the following events chronologically:

(1) Deportation of Chapekar brothers
(2) The assassination of WC Rand
(3) Official Secrets Act
(4) Indian Universities Act
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 3-1-2-4
(d) 2-3-1-4

11. Which of the following sculptures were found in Indus Valley Civilisation?
(1) Red sandstone male torso
(2) Steatite figure of a bearded man
(3) The terracotta figurines of monkeys, sheep and dogs
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. Famous terracotta and stone sculptures such as the Yakshini from Didarganj and
Yaksha from Parkham belong to
(a) Pre-Mauryan period
(b) Mauryan period
(c) Gupta period
(d) Kushana period

13. Consider the following statements regarding the paintings of Mughal era:
(1) The Mughal paintings depicted not only political scenes but also daily life events of
ordinary people.

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(2) Mughal paintings made during Shahjahan’s reign started the trend of naturalism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Paintings here depict palace scenes. One shows Kirtivarman, the son of Pulakesi-I
(also Pulakeshin I) and the elder brother of Mangalesha, seated inside the palace with
his wife and feudatories watching a dance scene. Towards the corner of the panel are
figures of Indra and his retinue Queen and attendants, which is another famous
painting here.
Which of the following locations best describe the above-given description?
(a) Badami temple
(b) Brihadeswara temple
(c) Virupaksha temple
(d) Ajanta caves

15. With reference to the Vedic religion, which of the following statements are correct?
(1) The early gods of the Aryans were chiefly connected with the sky and were male-
only.
(2) Indra was considered as the greatest god who fulfilled the dual function of a war-
god and weather-god.
(3) Varuna was associated with storms and thunders.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

16. With reference to the Fourth Buddhist Council, consider the following statements:
(1) Mahavibhasa is a doctrine of Sarvastivadins sect, codified in the Fourth Buddhist
Council.
(2) The Fourth Buddhist Council was held under the patronage of Kanishka.
(3) Mahayana and Hinayana sects emerged from the Fourth Buddhist Council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

17. With reference to Ashoka’s Dhamma, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Ashoka was concerned with broader ethics in governance and to reduce social
conflict.

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(b) Ashoka saw his dhamma as a result of good deeds which were inspired by formal
religious beliefs.
(c) Ashoka’s intention was the propagation of his Dhamma to make it virtually the
state religion of the Mauryan Empire.
(d) Buddha’s Dhamma and Ashokan Dhamma were distinct and had no relation to
each other.

18. He reduced obscurities of Vedas and made it comprehensible to the educated. He

achieved fame for his study of the Vedic system and as the new interpreter of Vedanta
philosophy. He also rekindled a greater interest in the Upanishads through his
commentaries elaborating on the relation between the Atman and Brahman and
realised through Jnana. He was:
(a) Adi Shankaracharya
(b) Madhvacharya
(c) Ramanujacharya
(d) Kapila Muni

19. Consider the following statements:

(1) Yakshagana is one of the oldest living theatre traditions of south India.
(2) It originated in the courts of the Chola empire.
(3) It is mostly a descriptive dance and drama enacted by many artists.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

20. Consider the following statements regarding the Tamil epic ‘Silappadikaram’:
(1) Illango Adigal was the author of the epic.
(2) The story of the epic is associated with the philosophy of Buddhism primarily.
(3) The story in the book unfolds in the reign of the king Senguttuvan, the ruler of
Madurai.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

21. Which of the following areas can be taken up for afforestation under the Social
Forestry Programme?
(1) Agricultural fields
(2) Areas affected by shifting cultivation
(3) Unused fallow lands
(4) Roadsides

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(5) Panchayat land

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

22. Consider the following statements about the ‘Indian Star Tortoise’:
(1) They are found only in the Indian subcontinent
(2) The exotic pet trade threatens their survival.
(3) They were recently downgraded to CITES Appendix II category.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

23. With reference to the sacred groves in India, consider the following pairs:
Local names of States
Sacred groves
1. Sarpa Kavu : Kerala
2. Sarnas : Arunachal Pradesh
3. Kenkri : Maharashtra
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

24. With reference to ‘species richness’ and ‘species evenness’ consider the following
statements:
(1) Species richness denotes the number of different species present in an area.
(2) Species evenness, which is dependent on the species richness, compares the
number of individuals between species.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

25. If you were to see a ‘Binturong’ in its natural habitat, where would you be looking for?
(a) Coral reef
(b) Hot spring

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(c) Tree
(d) Agricultural field

26. With reference to the ’e-waste clinic’, consider the following statements:
(1) It was first established in Bhopal in India.
(2) It is a joint initiative of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and Bhopal
Municipal Corporation.
(3) The project has been conceived as per the E-waste Management Rules, 2016.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

27. ‘Actions on Air Quality’ report is released by

(a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(b) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
(c) United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat)
(d) World Economic Forum (WEF)

28. ‘Secure 20 by 2020’ is a global initiative to identify and secure the landscape range of
which of the following animals?
(a) Tiger
(b) Snow Leopard
(c) Elephant
(d) Rhinoceros

29. With reference to the ‘Ecological Successions’, consider the following statements:
(1) Desert represents a climax ecosystem due to lack of precipitation and extreme
climatic conditions.
(2) Ecological succession in deserts is characterised by increased productivity and
decreased diversity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

30. In the recent past, human activity has caused an increased concentration of CO2 in
the atmosphere. However, a lot of CO2 does not remain in the lower atmosphere due
to:
(1) The photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the oceans.
(2) The trapping of air in the polar ice caps.
(3) A tiny amount of CO2 escapes into the outer atmosphere due to diffusion.

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Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

31. Consider the following statements regarding corals:

(1) Coral reefs have lesser biodiversity than tropical rainforests.
(2) Most fishes lay eggs in coral colonies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

32. With reference to Peatlands, consider the following statements:

(1) They are the most abundant natural terrestrial carbon store.
(2) They are mostly concentrated in temperate forests.
(3) Damaged peatlands are a significant source of greenhouse gas emissions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

33. Which of the following organisations were established under the provisions of the
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?
(1) Central Zoo Authority
(2) Animal Welfare Board of India
(3) National Tiger Conservation Authority
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

34. Which of the following can be classified as herbivorous marine mammals?

(1) Porpoises
(2) Manatees
(3) Dugong
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

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(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

35. 'Assemblages of Lepidoptera in selected protected areas across Indian Himalayas

through long-term ecological monitoring' Report was recently published by Zoological
Survey of India (ZSI). Lepidoptera denotes
(a) Rhododendrons
(b) Ants and termites
(c) Mosses and lichens
(d) Moths and Butterflies

36. Consider the following statements about Kisan Rail Yojana:

(1) The scheme aims to build a seamless supply chain for all agricultural commodities.
(2) The Kisan Rail is to be set up through PPP arrangements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I List-II
Public Characterist
Private ics
Partnership
Model

A. Build- 1. The initial

Operate- investment
Transfer by Private
(Annuity) player

B. Engineering- 2. The
Procurement government
-Construction shares the
investment
cost

C. Hybrid 3. 100%
Annuity investment
Model by
Government

D. Toll-Operate- 4. Leasing of
Transfer assets to the

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private
sector.
Codes
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 3 1 4

38. Which of the following is not amongst the objectives of the NITI Aayog?
(a) To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities.
(b) To offer a platform for resolution of inter-sectoral and inter-departmental issues.
(c) To formulate credible plans at the central level and divide these progressively up
to the village level.
(d) To actively monitor and evaluate the implementation of programmes and

39. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the demography of India?
(a) India is yet to reach the replacement level of Total Fertility Rate.
(b) In the long run, a lower Total Fertility Rate would increase the dependency ratio.
(c) At present, a quarter of the Indian population is aged 60 years or more.
(d) Scheduled Tribes consist of less than 10% of Indian population as per census
2011.

40. Which of the following can solve the problem of malnourished children in India?
(1) Adopting food fortification for grains like rice and wheat.
(2) Providing adequate sanitation.
(3) Including traditional nutritious food in diets of children.
(4) Providing a clean water supply.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

41. Consider the following statements with respect to unemployment in India:

(1) The unemployment rate among “30-40” age group is more than the “20-30” age
group.
(2) Tripura is the state with the highest unemployment level.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2

42. Consider the following statements regarding family farming, recently in the news:
(1) It relies predominantly on family labour.
(2) Years 2019-2028 have been declared the UN’s Decade of Family Farming.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

43. Which of the following statements with respect to the Public Distribution System in
India is not correct?
(a) FCI is the nodal agency for the procurement and distribution of food grains.
(b) Procurement is done under an open-ended basis by FCI.
(c) Surplus food grains are disposed of by FCI and State Governments at the market
rate.
(d) FCI undertakes direct procurement in non-DCP (Decentralised Procurement)
States.

44. Which of the following pairs have been matched correctly?

(Indicators/In Measures
dices
1. Multidimensio : Incidence
nal Poverty and intensity
Index of poverty
2. Poverty Line : Intensity of
poverty
3. Poverty Gap : Incidence of
Ratio Poverty
4. Lorenz Curve : Relative
Poverty
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

45. Consider the following statements about the Travel and Tourism Competitiveness
Report 2019:
(1) The UN World Tourism Organisation has published the Report.
(2) India has made the most significant improvement amongst all countries since the
2017 Report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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(5) International practice

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

51. What is the likely impact of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code on the
macroeconomic environment of India?
(1) Encourage entrepreneurship
(2) Wealth creation
(3) Discourage risk-taking
(4) Increase in Merger and Acquisition Deals
(5) Reduction of crony capitalism in India
(6) Development of credit market in India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(b) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

52. Consider the following statements with reference to groundwater consumption in India:
(1) A Ground Water Conservation Fee (GCWF) is levied for the consumption of
groundwater beyond a point.
(2) Domestic users account for more than 50% of the groundwater consumed.
(3) Irrigation sector has been exempted from GCWF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

53. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the debt position of Central
Government?
(a) More than 99% of public debt is Internal debt.
(b) Among the internal debt, Marketable securities are the most significant
component.
(c) Central government debt is characterised by high currency risk.
(d) The weighted average maturity of outstanding debt has decreased over the last
decade.

54. Consider the following statements with respect to India’s bilateral trade over the last
decade:
(1) Merchandise export to GDP ratio has declined for India.

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(2) Merchandise import to GDP ratio has increased for India.

(3) Net service surplus has declined as a percentage of GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

55. Consider the following statements with reference to the Monetary Policy Transmission
in India:
(1) Operation Twist is an instrument used to ensure better monetary policy
transmission.
(2) Higher the credit spread, lesser is the monetary transmission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

56. What does the phrase “India is an indestructible union of destructible states” imply?
(1) The Union Government can destroy the States whereas the State Governments
cannot destroy the Union.
(2) The Constitution does not guarantee the territorial integrity or continued existence
of any State.
(3) The Central Government cannot form new States or alter the borders of existing
States without the consent of the States concerned.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

57. With reference to the liberal tradition, which of the following terms best describe
‘equality’?
(1) Equality of all before the law
(2) Equality of outcomes
(3) Equality of opportunities
(4) Absence of privileges by birth
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

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58. ‘Lucknow Declaration', recently in the news, is an outcome of

(a) SAARC Home Ministers Meeting
(b) Asia-Pacific Economic Forum Meeting
(c) India-Africa Defence Ministers Conclave
(d) International Maritime Organization (IMO) Meeting

59. The term 'YuWaah', sometimes in the news, is

(a) a multi-stakeholder alliance to facilitate youth to gain relevant skills for productive
lives and the future of work.
(b) a scheme to provide an air-conditioned low-cost travel option for India's young
athletes participating in national-level and international level sports events in India.
(c) a scheme on entrepreneurship education and training.
(d) a scheme to aid cooperative farmers from the Northeast Region.

60. With reference to the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), consider the following
statements:
(1) It was established as a response to piracy and oil spills denting economic
activities.
(2) It is based on the principles of Open Regionalism for strengthening Economic
Cooperation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

61. India is a member of which of the following groups/agreement?

(1) Nuclear Suppliers Group
(2) Wassenaar Agreement
(3) Australia Group
(4) Missile Technology Control Regime
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

62. Human Rights Watch is

(a) An agency of the United Nations to help refugees of civil wars.
(b) A non-governmental organisation to conduct research and for advocacy of human
rights.
(c) A global human rights movement that originated after the Second World War.
(d) An intergovernmental agency to prevent gross violations of human rights in war-
ravaged regions.

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63. Regarding the Cape Town Agreement of International Maritime Organisation (IMO),
consider the following statements:
(1) It helps to combat illegal, unregulated and unreported (IUU) fishing.
(2) It is aimed at facilitating better control of all fishing vessels' safety by flag, port and
coastal States.
(3) India is the first Asian country to ratify the Agreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

64. The ‘State of the World’s Children’ Report is published by which of the following
organisations?
(a) Save The Children, an NGO
(b) United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)
(c) World Health Organization
(d) World Economic Forum

65. Consider the following statements with reference to Public Health Emergency of
International Concern (PHEIC) declared by the World Health Organisation:
(1) It is declared when an extraordinary event occurs, posing public health risk
globally requiring a coordinated global response.
(2) It is confined to infectious disease epidemics such as Covid-19, SARS and Ebola
Virus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

66. With which of the following country India has signed Military Logistics Support
Agreements (MLSA)?
(a) Russia
(b) Australia
(c) France
(d) Japan

67. Which of the following statements regarding Pressure Groups is not correct?
(a) It is a group organised by people to promote and protect their common interests.
(b) Unlike political parties, their aim is not to capture political power and contest
elections.
(c) It tries to influence policymaking and its implementation by legal means only.

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(d) They may act as a liaison or middle person between the Government and the
citizens.

68. Which of the following statements regarding a State Legislative Council is not correct?
(a) Its creation or abolition is at the will of the State Legislative Assembly of the State
concerned agreed upon by Parliament.
(b) Two-thirds of its members are indirectly elected every second year.
(c) Maximum size of the State Legislative Council depends on the size of the State
Legislative Assembly of the State concerned.
(d) Although the Constitution has fixed the maximum and minimum limits on the
strength of the number of members of the State Legislative Council but the
Parliament fixes the actual number.

69. Consider the following statements:

(1) As per the Constitution, civil servants are conferred personal immunity from legal
liability for official contracts.
(2) Civil Servants have immunity for the sovereign functions of the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

70. With reference to National Emergency, consider the following statements:

(1) Once declared, the polity becomes unitary without any formal amendment.
(2) State Governments in States continue to function without being dismissed.
(3) The President can issue an Ordinance on the State subjects.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

71. The “Asymmetric cryptosystem”, often in the news, also defined under the provision of
Information and Technology Act 2000 means
(a) a chain of Super Computers
(b) a system of Communication Devices
(c) a system of Secure Key Pair
(d) None of the above

72. Consider the following statements with reference to special provisions related to
specific classes:
(1) The Constitution has not defined the Backward Classes of citizens in India.

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(2) The Constitution has defined the persons who belong to the Anglo Indian
community.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

73. In which of the following bodies are seats reserved for representatives from the
Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribes?
(1) Lok Sabha
(2) Rajya Sabha
(3) State Legislative Assemblies
(4) State Legislative Councils
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

74. With reference to the Government of India Act 1858, consider the following
statements:
(1) It had no principle of separation of powers as the entire authority for governance of
India, was vested in the Governor-General only.
(2) The principle of absolute imperial control dominated it without any popular
participation in the administration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

75. What was/were the results of the passing of the Indian Independence Act of 1947?
(1) Abolition of the Sovereignty and Responsibility of the British Parliament.
(2) The Governor-General and Provincial Governors were designated constitutional
heads.
(3) The sovereignty of the Dominion Legislature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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76. Which of the following parameters have been used by the 15th Finance Commission
for the vertical devolution of taxes?
(1) 1971 Population Census
(2) Demographic Performance
(3) The geographical area of a State
(4) Forest Cover
(5) Tax Effort
(6) Income Distance
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

77. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India:
(1) The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President and holds the
office till his pleasure.
(2) Retiring Election Commissioners are not debarred from any further appointment by
the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

78. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Fundamental Duties
under the Constitution?
(1) The duties are addressed to the citizens without any legal sanction.
(2) They provide a guide to the interpretation of constitutional and legal issues.
(3) The laws of Parliament can enforce them.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

79. With respect to the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), consider the following
statements:
(1) The Parliament is constitutionally authorised to determine the conditions of service
of the Chairman of the Commission.
(2) Its jurisdiction can be extended by an Act made by the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

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(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

80. Which of the following provisions can be amended by a ‘Special Majority of Parliament
and with the consent of State Legislatures’?
(1) Election of the President
(2) Second Schedule
(3) Representation of the States in the Parliament
(4) Fundamental Rights
(5) Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

81. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on the Co-
operative Societies?
(1) Fundamental Rights
(2) Fundamental Duties
(3) Directive Principles of State Policy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

82. With reference to the Comprehensive Online Modified Modules on Induction Training
(COMMIT) program, consider the following statements:
(1) It is a collaboration of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions
with the United Nations Development Programme.
(2) It is aimed at improving the public service delivery mechanism through the training
of public servants.
(3) It is being implemented in all of the States and Union Territories in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

83. ‘The Code on Wages 2019’, recently in the news, aims at achieving the goals
envisaged under:
(1) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(2) The Preamble

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(3) The Fundamental Rights

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

84. With reference to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
Atrocities) Amendment Act, 2018, consider the following statements:
(1) A preliminary enquiry will not be required for registering a First Information Report
against a person accused under the Act.
(2) Persons accused of committing an offence under the Act can apply for anticipatory
bail.
(3) The investigating officer will not require the approval of any authority for the arrest
of an accused.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

85. Which of the following statements regarding Tuberculosis (TB) is correct?

(a) It is caused by a virus that spreads through microscopic droplets released in the
air.
(b) People with Human Immune Deficiency Virus (HIV) are less likely to get TB than
are people without HIV.
(c) It is the single most lethal infectious disease globally today.
(d) China has the highest number of TB cases yet reported in the world.

86. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the differences between
4G and 5G technologies?
(1) 5G has higher throughput and lower latency as compared to 4G technology.
(2) 5G, generally, will use a lower-frequency spectrum in sub-1GHz, while 4G
technology uses higher frequencies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

87. Consider the following pairs:

Terms Related to
1. Mission Shakti : Anti Satellite Missile
2. Chang'e-4 : Intercontinental Ballistic Missile

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3. GEMINI : Fishermen navigation

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

88. Consider the following statements regarding Doppler Weather Radars (DWRs):
(1) They can only track and predict cyclones and storms.
(2) Their receiver “hears” waves of lower and higher frequency depending on the
direction of precipitation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

89. With reference to the Science for Equity, Empowerment and Development (SEED)
division, which of the following statements are correct?
(1) It aims to utilise science and technology for sustainable and inclusive development
of projects at the grassroots level.
(2) It helps both NGOs and educational institutions in undertaking socially productive
research.
(3) It aids in the technological transition of traditional craftsmen.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

90. With reference to the Unique Methods of Management and treatment of Inherited
Disorders (UMMID), which of the following statements are correct?
(1) It will help provide counselling, prenatal testing as well as multidisciplinary care in
government hospitals.
(2) It will oversee the training and capacity augmentation of skilled professionals.
(3) It will screen pregnant women and newborn babies for inherited genetic diseases.
(4) It will screen people coming from outside India for genetic diseases.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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91. With reference to the Global Innovation & Technology Alliance, consider the following
statements:
(1) It is a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) company.
(2) It provides both financial and incubation support for empowering research and
development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

92. Which of the following statements are correct about the Genome India Initiative?
(1) Its first phase involves capturing the biological diversity of India.
(2) It will be beneficial against Mendelian disorders.
(3) It will reduce the usage of precision medicine in India.
(4) The gathered information will not be shared for any international endeavour.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

93. Consider the following statements about the office of the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India:
(1) The Constitution of India provides for an independent office of the CAG of India.
(2) The CAG can conduct the audits of the local bodies.
(3) CAG reports on execution of programs by the Ministries are discussed by the
Public Accounts Committee.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

94. With reference to “double jeopardy”, consider the following statements:

(1) The term ‘double jeopardy’ is mentioned in the Constitution.
(2) The protection against double jeopardy extends to proceedings before
administrative authorities, apart from before a court of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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95. With reference to alluvial soil, consider the following statements:

(1) The alluvial soil of north Indian plains, displays close relations with its parent
material.
(2) Higher content of sand particle increases the water holding capacity of the soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

96. Which of the following is/are the possible consequences of construction of series of
multipurpose dams across the Ganga River?
(1) Shrinking of river Deltas near the mouth of the river.
(2) Likely decrease in the population of Golden Mahseer fish.
(3) Lowering of the groundwater table.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

97. Considering the geological characteristics, which of the following pair has closely
associated region/geographic features?
(a) Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman Islands
(b) Aravalli Mountains and Pir Panjal Range
(c) Rajmahal Hills and Garo Hills
(d) Sundarbans and Konkan Coast

98. Which of the following agricultural practices can be useful in water conservation?
(1) Terrace farming
(2) Use of vermicompost
(3) Use of Happy Seeder machine
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

99. Which of the following geographical features visitors are likely to come across within
the Khangchendzonga National Park?
(1) Extensive Duars formation
(2) Cold desert
(3) Coniferous forest

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