TEST 2

I. PHONOLOGY (5PTS):
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. A practice B device C. service D. office
2. A. vision B. measure C .usually D. pleasant
3. A. clean B. death C. head D. heavy
4. A. dinosaur B. launch C. nausea D. laurel
5. A. slaughter B. throughout C. drought D. laughter

Choose the word which is stressed differently from the other three.
1. A. television B. education C. entertainment D. information
2. A. legislature B. repository C. magnificent D. mistake
3. A. argumentative B. psychological C. contributory D. hypersensitive
4. A. photograph B. payroll C. accent D. regretful
5. A. trustworthyB. envisage C. prosperity D. intensify
II. WORD CHOICE: (5PTS)

1. The main problem the local people have to contend with is water ___________ .
A. lack B. drought C. limit D. shortage
2. Jean has a very easy-going _________ which is why she is so popular.
A. role B. characteristic C. personality D. reputation
3. I love the painting of an old man. He has such a beautiful……………smile.
A. childhood B. childish C. childless D. childlike
4. She caught a ……………………of the thief as he made his get- away.
A. glance B. sight C. glimpse D. flash
5. Frank has a house in the ………………..
A. outskirts B. edges C. limits D. suburds
6. The film lasted every three hours with…………….of 15 minutes between part one and part two.
A. a pause B. an interruption C. an interval D. a stop
7. The person who writes symphonies or concertos is a ……………..
A. composer B. conductor C. pianist D. playwright
8. Is it far to Stambord? It’s only………………..from here.
A. stone’s cut B. bird’s eye view
C. short cut D. step in the right direction
9. She loved tennis and could watch it till the _____ came home.
A. she B. everyone C. horses D. cows
10. Men still expect their jobs to take _________.
A. superiority B. imposition C. priority D. seniority
III. STRUCTURE AND GRAMMAR: (5PTS)
Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
1. There are two small rooms in the beach house , ______________ served as a kitchen .
A. the smallest of which B. smallest of that
C. the smaller of which D. the smaller of them
2. He got an excellent grade in his examination _____ the fact that he had not worked particularly hard .
A. on account of B. because C. in spite of D. although
3. It turned out that we ______ rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours .
A. hadn’t B. should have C. mustn’t D. needn’t have
4. It was a service…………..I will be internally grateful.
A. to which B. for which C. to whom D. for whom
5. Tom and Mary never came to class late. ..................................
A. So did we B. Neither did we C. We did either D. Neither we did
6. I remember ....................to Hanoi when I was a very small child.
A. taking B. to take C. to be taken D. being taken
7. Helen asked me ......................the film called “Star Wars”.
A. if I had seen B. have I seen C. have you seen D. if had I seen
8. At first I found ......................to get used to .....................on the other side of the road.
A. it difficult - drive B. difficult - drive
C. it difficult - driving D. difficult- driving
9. Not only _______ as a cooked dish the world over, but it is used as the base of many other foods,
condiments, and even beverages
A. eating rice B. rice is eaten C. people eat rice D. is rice eaten
10. ______________be needed, the water basin would need to be dammed.
A. hydroelectric power should B. when hydroelectric power
C. hydroelectric power D. should hydroelectric power
IV. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS: (5PTS)
1. The civil servant______________ his post because he disagreed with the minister.
A. gave in B. gave out C. gave off D. gave up
2. Everybody is very anxious about the______________of the negotiations.
A. outbreak B. outcome C. output D. outlook
3. I missed the bus and couldn't get to the office until ten o'clock.
A. reach B. go C. arrive D. come
4. The politician went _______ his speech before the important presentation.
A. on B. off C. over D. away
5. The speaker kept on talking even though most of the audience had left.
A. went on B. continued C. went over D. A and B are right
6. I can count on my parents to help me in an emergency.
A. look for B. depend on C. go on D. try on
7. No smoking is allowed in here. Please _______ your cigarette.
A. out off B. put out C. put away D. put on
8. You should never sign any legal paper without checking it _______ first.
A. up B. in C. out D. over
9. I’ll lend you some money to _________you over to the end of this month
A. hand B. tide C. get D. make
10. Frankly speaking, your daughter does not take _______ you at all.
A. after B. along C. up D. over

V. READING PASSAGE (10PTS)

Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question.
Passage 1:
Continents and ocean basins represent the largest identifiable bodies on Earth. On the solid portions
of the planet, the second most prominent features are flat plains, elevated plateaus, and large mountain
ranges. In geography, the term “continent” refers to the surface of continuous landmasses that together
comprise about 29.2% of the planet’s surface. On the other hand, another definition is prevalent in the
general use of the term that deals with extensive mainlands, such as Europe or Asia, that actually
represent one very large landmass. Although all continents are bounded by water bodies or high
mountain ranges, isolated mainlands, such as Greenland and India-Pakistan areas are called
subcontinents. In some circles, the distinction between continents and large islands lies almost
exclusively in the size of particular landmass.
The analysis of compression and tension in the earth’s crust has determined that continental
structures are composed of layers that underlie continental shelves. A great deal of disagreement among
geologists surrounds the issue of exactly how many layers underlie each landmass because of their
distinctive mineral and chemical composition. It is also quite possible that the ocean floor rests on the
top of unknown continents that have not yet been explored. The continental crust is believed to have
been formed by means of a chemical reaction when lighter materials separated from heavier ones, thus
settling at various levels within the crust. Assisted by the measurements of the specifics within crust
formations by means of monitoring earthquakes, geologists can speculate that a chemical split occurred
to form the atmosphere, sea water, and the crust before it solidified many centuries ago.
Although each continent has its special features, all consist of various combinations of components
that include shields, mountain belts, intra-cratonic basins, margins, volcanic plateaus, and block-vaulted
belts. The basic differences among continents lie in the proportion and the composition of these features
relative to the continent size. Climatic zones have a crucial effect on the weathering and formation of
the surface features, soil erosion, soil deposition, land formation, vegetation, and human activities.
Mountain belts are elongated narrow zones that have a characteristic folded sedimentary
organization of layers. They are typically produced during substantial crustal movements, which
generate faulting and mountain building. When continental margins collide, the rise of a marginal edge
leads to the formation of large mountain ranges, as explained by the plate tectonic theory. This process
also accounts for the occurrence of mountain belts in ocean basins and produces evidence for the
ongoing continental plate evolution.
Question 1. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Continental drift and division B. Various definitions of the term “continent”
C. Continental structure and crust D. Scientific analyses of continental crusts
Question 2.According to the passage, how do scientists define continents?
A. As masses of land without divisions B. As extensive bodies of land
C. As the largest identifiable features D. As surgical compositions and ranges
Question 3. In line 6, the word “bounded” is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. covered B. convened C. delimited D. dominated
Question 4. The author of the passage implies that the disagreement among scientists is based on the
fact that
A. each continent has several planes and shelves B. continents have various underlying layers of
crust
C. continents undergo compression and experience tension
D. continents have different chemical makeup
Question 5. The word “specifics” in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. specialities B. speculations C. exact details D. precise
movements
Question 6. The word “it” in line 18 refers to
A. a chemical split B. the crust C. the atmosphere D. sea water
Question 7. The author of the passage implies that ___________.
A. it is not known exactly how the continental crust was formed
B. geologists have neglected the exploration of the ocean floor
C. scientists have concentrated on monitoring earthquakes
D. the earth’s atmosphere split into water and solids
Question 8. According to the passage, what are the differences in the structure of continents?
A. The proportional size of continents to one another
 B. Ratios of major components and their comparative size
C. The distinctive features of their elements D. Climatic zones and their effect on the surface
features
Question 9. The author of the passage implies that ___________.
A. the process of mountain formation has not been accounted for
B. mountain ranges on the ocean floor lead to surface mountain building
C. faulting and continental margins are parts of plate edges
D. the process of continent formation has not been completed
Question 10. The word “evidence” in the last line is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. eventually B. confirmation C. exemplification D. challenge
Passage 2:
Passage 2: Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer

The ocean bottom- a region nearly 2.5 times greater than total land area of the Earth- is a vast
frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago , the deep-
ocean floor was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,6000 meters
deep. Totally without light and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the
Earth’s surface, deep-ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans , in some ways as forbidding
and remote as the void of outer space.
Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the
first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the
beginning of the National Science Foundation’s Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP). Using
techniques first developed for the offshore oil gas industry, the Dad’s drill ship , the Glomar
Challenger, was able to maintain a steady position on the ocean’s surface and drill in very deep
waters,extracting samples of sediments and rock from the ocean floor.
The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15 –year research program that ended in
November 1983. During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000
core samples of seabed sediments and rocks at 624
drilling sites around the world . The Glomar Challenger’s core samples have allowed geologists to
reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of years ago and to calculate what it
will problem look like millions of years in the future. Today , largely on the strengthof evidence
gathered during the Glomar Challenger’s voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of
plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the geological processes that shape the
Earth.
The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to
understanding the world’s past climates . Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching
back hundreds of millions of years, because theyare largely isolated from the mechanical erosion
and the intense chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of
past climates. This record has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic
change-information that may be used to predict future climates
1. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a “frontier” because it___
A. attracts courageous explorers B. is not a popular area for scientific research
C. contains a wide variety of life forms D. is an unknown territory
2. The word “inaccessible” is closest meaning to ___ .
 A. unusable B. unreachable C. unrecognizable D. unsafe
3. The author mention outer space in the first paragraph because___ .
A. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment
B. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean
exploration .
C. the Earth’s climate millions of years ago was similar to condition in outer space.
D. rock formations in outré space are similar to those found on the ocean floor
4. Which of the following is True of the GlmmerChallenger ?
A. It is a type of submarine . B. It has gone on over 100 voyages .
C. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968. D. It is an ongoing project .
5. The word “extracting” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____.
A. locating B. breaking C. analyzing D. removing
6. The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was ____.
A. attempt to find new sources of oil and gas B. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry
C. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom D. composed of geologists from all over the
world
7. The word “strength” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ____.
A. endurance B. basis C. discovery D. purpose
8. The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to ____.
A. sediments B. cores C. climates D. years
9. The DSDP can be said to be ____in terms of geological exploration.
A. a total flop B. a west of time and effort
C. a great success D. of crucial importance
10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea Drilling
Project ?
A. Geologists were able to determine the Earth’s appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.
B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.
C. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen
D. Information was revealed about the Earth’s past climatic changes .

VI. GUIDED CLOZE (10 PTS)

Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space.
Passage 1:
FRIDAY THE THIRTEENTH
Police are hunting for a hit-and-run driver who knocked a teenage cyclist off her bike in East
Street. Sarah Tucker, 17, had a lucky escape on Friday, 13th May, when she was sent reeling by a black
Volvo on her way home from work.
She bruised her thigh and shoulder and her bicycle was (1 ) ______________.The driver stopped
for a moment but then drove off without (2 ) ______________ a name or address and before Sarah
could get his number. “ I tried to get out of his way, but I couldn’t,” she said.” Everyone at work kept
going on about it being Friday 13th. I’m not a bit (3) ______________and wouldn’t change any of my
plans just because Friday 13th is supposed to be unlucky, I don’t usually take any (4 ) ______________
of that sort of thing but I will now. I think I’ll stay in bed.”
The accident (5) ______________at the junction with Westwood Road at about 6.30p.m as
Sarah was making her (6) ______________ home to the Harley Estate.
The Volvo pulled out of Westwood onto Henley Road in front of the teenager’s bicycle. “ He
could at ( 7) ______________have helped her up. I don’t see why he should get away with it,” said her
father, Derek, “ Sarah was lucky. I don’t know why the driver didn’t see her. He can’t have been (8)
______________attention. It is unfortunate that nobody took down the number .” Though still too (9)
______________to ride a bike, Sarah was able to go back to (10) ______________ in Marlow on
Monday.
1. A. damaged B. harmed C. devastated D. crashed
2. A. noting B. presenting C. leaving D. suggesting
3. A. irrational B. superstitious C. unreasonable D. prejudices
4. A. notice B. consideration C. note D. care
5. A. came about B. turned up C. finished up D. took place
6. A. route B. way C. course D. path
7. A. once B. most C. least D. best
8. A. giving B. paying C. attracting D. providing
9. A. discouraged B. confused C. overcome D. shaken
10. A. work B. job C. post D. employment
Passage 2:
CONVERSATIONAL TURNS
Probably the most…..(1)…….recognized conversational convention is that people
take……(2)….. speaking. But how do they know when it is their turn? Some…..(3)…..must be present,
otherwise conversations would be continually breaking down into a disorganized jumble of
interruptions and simultaneous talk.
Turn-taking cues are usually quite subtle. People do not simply ….(4)….. talking when
they are ready to yield the floor. They usually signal in advance that they are about to conclude. The
clues may be semantic “ So anyway,…” or “Last but not least,…”; but more commonly the speech itself
can be modified to show that a turn is about to …..(5)….. typically, by lowering its pitch, loudness, or
speed.
 Body movements and patterns of eye……(6)……are especially important. While
speaking, we look at any away from our listener in about equal……(7)……; but as we approach the end
of a turn, we look at the listener more steadily.
Listeners are not passive in all of this. Here too there are several ways of …(8)… that
someone wants to speak next. One way is through an observable increase in body tension by learning
forward or producing an audible intake of breath. A less subtle approach is simply to…..(9)…… a
strategy that may be tolerated, if the purpose is to …..(10)….what the speaker is saying, but that more
usually leads to social disapproval.
1. A. widely B. completely C. easily D. largely
2. A. sides B. care C. interest D. turns
3. A. regulations B. rules C. norms D. laws
4. A. stop B. end C. start D. give up
5. A. end B. stop C. complete D. final
6. A. movement B. contact C. look D. appearance
7. A. parts B. shares C. turns D. proportions
8. A. signing B. signaling C. hinting D. saying
9. A. break B. cut C. interrupt D. interfere
10. A. clear B. paraphrase C. repeat D. clarify

B. WRITTEN TEST (70PTS)

I. CLOZE TEST (70PTS):
Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
WORD for each space.
Passage 1:

The pleasure of learning to play a musical instrument

As an activitylearning to play an instrument is (0) SOMETHING that can give a lot of pleasure.

It's also an achievement and a skill (1)__________ stays with you for life. Music has a part to play in
everyone's life, and has been described (2)__________ a 'primary language'.
Learning to play an instrument isn't easy at the beginning (3)________  takes effort and
determination. And while there's nothing wrong with aiming (4) _________ the top, music is definitely
(5) ____________ something to take up because you think you ought to do it.
A lot of adults regret not (6) ____________ learnt to play an instrument when they were
younger. But it is never (7) _____________late to learn! And the advantages of learning an instrument
are far greater than just the pleasure of producing a marvelous sound. When you've progressed far
(8)__________,there are lots of amateur groups which you can join (9)__________ you want to be part
of a larger group. Once you've reached a good enough standard to join a band or orchestra, you add the
team skills like (10) ________ you get from playing sport. There's also a great social side to playing
with others, as well as the chance to travel through touring.

Passage 2:
Students frequently complain (1)___________ studying for hours on (2)________ and then not doing
well in their final exams. Many factors can (3) _________ in poor performances: (4) _________illness
or a personal problem. Getting high grades can also put a terrible strain on students (5) _________ don’t
want to let their parents down.
 Can students’ knowledge be judged by a (6) _________exam? Certainly not! If we want to be fair,
students ought to be (7) _________on a regular basic. So does that mean more exams? Yes, but (8)
_________many written ones. In many countries, student do not have to take written exams (9)
_________ they don’t want to, they are (10) _________to take oral ones instead. This seems to be fairer
way of assessing understanding, not just testing it.

II. WORD FORMATION (20PTS)

Part 1: Supply the correct form of the words in the CAPITAL LETTER
1. Stop sitting there looking so bored and…………... Get up and find something to do! I don't want you
sitting around the house like this all summer. (ENTHUSIASM)
2. They …………....….. the bomb by the remote control. (EXPLOSION)
3. The islands were gradually ……………. by settlers from Europe. (POPULATION)
4. The news that a volunteer was teaching them to read caused quite an ……………..….. in the
neighbourhood. (EXCITE)
5. In the 1830s, Charles Darwin ……………….. observed plants and animals in many parts of the
world. (CARE)
6. Before the development of agriculture, people had to search for food …………...…… , which left
them little time for other activities. (CONTINUE)
7. Many Old English poems praised a real or imaginary hero and tried to teach the values of bravery and
……………..…… . (GENEROUS)
8. Experimentation is one of the chief techniques used in …………… research. (PSYCHOLOGY)
9. Most scientists consider the …………..…….. of evolution to be a scientific fact. (OCCUR)
10. My uncle, who is an ___________ guitarist, taught me how to play. ( ACCOMPLISH )

Part 2: Fill in each blank with the suitable form of a word in the box

PROFESSOR SALE ACQUISITION STARRY

BAND INVADE ORIGIN LONELY
QUARTER POPULARITY

The Beatles became the most popular grouping rock music history. The (1) _____ of
extraordinarily talented musicians generated a frenzy that transcended countries and economic strata.
While all of them sang, John Lennon and Paul McCartney wrote the majority of their songs. (2)
_______ , Lennon and five others formed a group called Quarrymen in 1956, with McCartney joining
them later that year. George Harrison, John Lennon and Paul McCartney, together with Stuart Sutcliffe,
who played the bass guitar, and Pete Best on the drums, performed together in several bands for a few
years, until they finally settled on the Silver Beatles in 1960. American Rock musicians, such as Chuck
Berry and Elvis Presley, influenced Lennon's and McCartney's music, whose first hits consisted of
simple tunes and lyrics about young love. The Beatles' U.S. tour propelled them to (3) _______
and led to two movies filmed in 1964 and 1965. The so-called British (4) _______ of the United States
was in full swing when they took the top five spots on the singles' charts, followed by the release of
their first film.
During the 1960s, their music matured and (5) _______ a sense of melody. The lyrics of their
song became deeper and gained in both imagination and meaning. Their popularity continued togrow as
the Beatles turned their attention to social problems and political issues in "Nowhere Man" and Eleanor
Rigby". (6) _______ and nostalgia come through in their ballad "Michelle" and 'Yesterday", which fully
displayed the group's (7) _______ development and sophistication.
 Lennon's sardonic music with lyrics written in the first person, and McCartney's songs that
created scenarios with offbeat individuals, contributed to the character of the music produced by the
group. In addition to their music, the Beatles set a social trend that (8)_______ long hair, Indian
music,and moss dress. For a variety of reasons, the musicians began to drift apart, and their last concert
took place in San Francisco in 1966. The newspapers and tabloids publicized their quarrels and
lawsuits, and the much idolized group finally (9)_______ in 1970. However, their albums had (10)
_______ those of any other bands in history. Although all of the Beatles continued to performed solo or
form new rock groups alone, none could achieve the recognition and success that they had been able to
win together.
III. ERROR IDENTIFICATION
There are ten errors in the following paragraph. Find them and correct them

HOW TO BE A BETTER FRIEND

Instead giving endless advice, learn to listen more. Listening is Line 1
an underestimated skill, and it is easy to forget when you are worrying about Line 2
other people problems. How many times do we say “Oh yeah, that happened Line 3
to me and …” before we give the other persons a chance to explain what Line 4
happen to them ? Line 5
Sometimes, a friend may just want to talk something about with Line 6
someone else to sort things out in their mind – so listen hardly to Line 7
what they are saying, and try to offer advices only when you Line 8
think they are asking for it. Line 9
We all feel we’ve been let down by a friend at some points in Line 10
our lives. Perhaps they let out a secret we trusted them to keep Line 11
under wraps, or sudden sided with the opposition during an Line 12
argument. Nobody’s perfect, so try to have realistic expectation. Line 13
Friendships don’t develop overnight; they deepen over time as you begin to Line 14
trust one other. Don’t place unrealistic demands on Line 15
your friendship. Line 16
Your Answer:
Mistake Correction Mistake Correction
Line 1 Line 9
Line 2 Line 10
Line 3 Line 11
Line 4 Line 12
Line 5 Line 13
Line 6 Line 14
Line 7 Line 15
Line 8 Line 16
IV. Rewrite the following sentences using the words given.
1. The inhabitants were far worse-off twenty years ago than they are now.
→ The inhabitants are nowhere. ……………………………………………………. .
2. They only reimbursed us because we took legal advice.
→ We wouldn’t ……………………………………………………. .
3. However friendly he seems, he’s not to be trusted.
→ Friendly …………………………………………………………. .
4. We had a long discussion about the problem, but we couldn’t solve it.
→ We discussed……………………………………………………….
5. Why are you against inviting Jackie to the party?
→ What’s ………………………………………………………………?
6. The reason why my son has been studying hard is that he wants to apply for a scholarship. (VIEW)
→ My son………………………………………………………………. .
7. We agreed that each of us would do this washing – up on alternative days. (TURNS)
→ We agreed ……………………………………………………….
8. He said he had nothing to do with the accident. (BLAME)
→ He refused…………………………………………………………….
9. The book was not as good as he had hoped. ( EXPECTATIONS)
The book failed …………………………………………………………………………..
10. Barry wasn't strong enough to lift the box. (HAVE)
 Barry didn't …………………………………………………………… with the exception of
------THE END----