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Fixed Income Securities

Lecture Note 3: Term Structure and Yield Curve

Apoorva Javadekar

Indian School of Business

December 11, 2019

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Agenda

We saw the concept of yield-to-maturity (ytm)


I ytm = Market required rate on the bond = Compensation

We ask two questions in this lecture


I Term-Structure: How is ytm determined for various maturities

I Dynamics: How does term-structure move through time?

Data + Traditional Take on term Structure + Economist’s view of interest


rates!

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Term Structure or Yield Curve

Term structure ⇒ ytm as a function of maturity of the bonds


Comparable bonds: To tease out the effect of only the maturity on ytm, its
essential that bonds of various maturities getting compared must be similar
I liquidity, credit risk, tax-structure, currency
I similarity of re-investment risk as well

Ideally: Compare ZCB issued by same issuer for various maturities


I Then you are canceling the re-investment risk as well and efficiently capture
the maturity structure

Spot Curve: Govt issues ZCB for maturities from 1 month to 1 year. Plotting
the ytm on these gives a spot-curve or zero-curve
Problem: But what to do for longer maturities?
I Invariably we have to mix zcb’s and coupon-bonds - a sub-optimal but only
choice in real-world

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US Yield Curve

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India Yield Curve
India Yield Curve - 1 Dec 2019
India Government Bonds
7.5%

7%

6.5%

6%

5.5%

5%

4.5%
2Y 4Y 6Y 8Y 10Y 12Y 14Y 16Y 18Y 20Y 22Y 24Y 26Y 28Y 30Y
Residual Maturity

India (1 Dec 2019) 1M ago 6M ago


Highcharts.com

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Stylized Facts

Co-movement: yields of various maturities tend to move in the same


direction.
I level factor

Term Spread is on-average positive ⇒ ytm10 − ytm2 > 0 on average - for


most parts after 1980
I yield-curve on average has been upward sloping

Term spread is volatile ytm10 and ytm2 are not perfectly correlated ⇒ Term
Spread = ytm10 − ytm2 is time-varying with high volatility.
I This is the slope factor
I Just before recessions (in fact all 7 of them in US history), term spread has
been negative!

Yield volatility is hump-shaped in maturity ⇒ short-rates and extreme


long-rates fluctuate less than medium term rates
I most of the shocks neither impact immediately not last for long-period ⇒
short and long maturities immune to shocks

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Yield Comovement

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Term Spread USA

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US Bonds Moments

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Information Content of the Yield Curve
Maturity premium
Horizon specific risk-premium
Expectations
Segmented demand

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Forward Rates

Forward rate ⇒ rate determined today for lending that will happen in future
n
Notation: ft,t+h ⇒ forward rate decided today (time t) for n-period ZCB
to be purchased at time t + h (i.e h periods from now)
Example: Assume no default risk. Let yt,1 , yt,2 be ytm on 1 and 2 year ZCB
at time t. Then two risk-free ways of investing over 2 year horizon
I Buy 2-year ZCB
1

I Buy 1-year ZCB + lock-in 1-year forward , 1 year from now ft,t+1

No Arbitrage If you invest 1$ in each strategy, you should get exactly the
same at year 2 given that both the methods are risk-free
2 1

1 × (1 + yt,2 ) = 1 × (1 + yt,1 ) × 1 + ft,t+1

2
1 (1 + yt,2 )
⇒ ft,t+1 =
(1 + yt,1 )

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Forward Rates Example

Example: Suppose ytm on 1 year ZCB to be 4% and 2 year ZCB to be 5%


⇒ yt,1 = 4%, yt,2 = 5%
2
Two year ZCB: 100 × (1.05) = 110.25$

Rollover Strategy: Give 104 $ at the end of year 1. At rate should 104 be
rolled-over to get 110.25 at year 2?
110.25
100(1.04) (1 + forward) = 110.25 ⇒ forward = − 1 = 6.009%
| {z } 104
payoff at year 1

Takaway: Forward rate captures the increasing structure of spot rates in this
example. This is the arbitrage free forward rate market should offer you

Forward Curve: Like spot curve, one can plot forward curve as well. Note
that nothing in the forward curve has more information than spot curve!
Finally you derive forward rates from spots

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Expectation Hypothesis

Yield curve has had many shapes


I Rising yield curve: short rates are lower than long rates
I Inverted yield curve: short rates are higher than long rates

Why? Expectations hypothesis suggests that yield curve reflects market


expectation of what will happen to interest rates in future. For example,
I Inverted curve ⇒ market expects short rates to go down in future

Under expectations hypothesis, one can view long-rates as a sequence of


expected short rates. If yield curve is upward sloping, Expectation hypothesis
says that its because market expects the future short term interest rates to
rise.

Example: Only way 2 year ZCB is offering 10% ytm compared to 5% ytm on
1 year ZCB is because market must be expecting that 1 year ZCB will offer
really high rate (around 20%) in one year from now

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Three ways of Expressing Expectation Hypothesis (EH)

Expectations: N-period yield ≈ average of current and future expected


one-period yields + Risk premium
N
(1 + yt,N ) = (1 + yt,1 ) Et [(1 + yt+1,1 ) (1 + yt+2,1 ) ... (1 + yt+N−1,1 )]
1
Forward Rate = expected future spot rate ⇒ ft,t+1 = Et (yt+1,1 )
I If expectations view is true, then forward rate has to reflect expectations
I Note its not necessary that this is true. For example forward rate is derived
from no-arbitrage and in principle has got nothing to do with expectations!

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Three ways of Expressing Expectation Hypothesis (EH)

Pt+1
Holding period return for ZCB = Change in prices ⇒ hprt,t+1 = Pt

EH says that Expected Holding-Period Returns are same across maturities!.


This could be really tricky to understand
1 year ytm = 5% and 2 year ytm = 10% 6= two period bond is a better
investment. Why?
I EH says that rising yield curve ⇒ short rates are expected to rise in future
I hence at t + 1 when short rates rise, price on 2 year ZCB falls producing 5%
1-year hpr
I Contrawise, if you invest in sequence of 1 year zcb, you are expected to earn
large short rate during second year (else curve would not slope up) ⇒
effective hpr over 2 years is 10%

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Does EH Holds?

Average hpr from 1953-2013 in the USA not much different across maturities
⇒ seems like EH is doing fine!

Maturity Mean hpr σ (hpr )

1 5.83 2.83
2 6.15 3.65
3 6.4 4.66
4 6.4 5.71
5 6.36 6.58

But what if long-investments perform better sometimes and


short-investments perform better other times? Average might mask this.

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Fama-Bliss Test

Idea: yield curve upward sloping ⇒ short-term yields expected to go up


 
proxy for Et (yt+1,1 )
z }| {
yt+1,1 − yt,1 = α + β ×  ft,t+1 −yt,1  +error
 
| {z }
Actual Yield Change
| {z }
expected yield change under EH

EH Prediction: β ≈ 1
Evidence: β ≈ 0 for 1 year horizon but 0.80 for 4 year horizon
I ⇒ EH fails in short-run but holds in long-run

β = 0 at 1 year horizon ⇒ short-term yields don’t rise as much even if yield


curve is sloping up ⇒ long-term investments earn excess returns!
I R 2 ≈ 20% ⇒ strategy risky! But yet over long term it pays off

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Fama-Bliss Test
Observe the left hand panel and how b builds over time. Right hand panel
regressed excess returns on long-term bonds as a function of slope of the yield
curve (forward spread / expected yield change). If actual yields don’t change
enough (left panel), long-bonds will earn higher returns if yield-curve is upward
sloping

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Take-away for Active Bond Management

Exploiting Fama-Bliss evidence is sometimes called as riding the curve


orrolling down the curve
Basically manager goes long on long bonds and short on short bonds ⇒ LL
-SS strategy
I going short on short bond means borrowing short-term and
I going long on long bonds ⇒ using these borrowed money to invest in long
term bonds

As predicted, if short-term rates don’t rise as much (Fama-Bliss), then


manager would make money
After 2008 crises, globally central banks assured to keep rates low. But there
was uncertainty as to how long this will be true ⇒ yield curve sloped
upwards
I Managers had even bigger incentive to exploit LL-SS strategy

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Segmentation Hypothesis

Markets for assets are segmented


I Investors have a predetermined portfolio rules and pick their assets fitting in
those rules / universe

Example: Pension funds are not allowed to invest in Non-Investment grade


bonds many a times

Other forms of segmentation: choices over maturities, corporate vs sovereign,


choices of currencies
Segmentation theory try to split the yield curve in multiple segments and
understand yield level for each segment separately
I perhaps using demand and supply for a particular segment

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Segmentation in Action: Gap-Filling Theory of Maturity

Greenwood-Hanson-Stein (2010, JF)


I If supply of Govt. bonds shrinks for a particular maturity, corporates
fill-the-gap by issuing more bonds of that maturity
I They fill 30-40% of the gap
I In essence, corporates are maturity liquidity providers

Relation to segmentation? If investors are segmented by maturities (so some


investors prefer long-term bonds while other prefer short-term bonds), then
there is always a clientele to be satisfied for particular maturity.
I If government can’t provide a particular maturity, corporates steps in
I It’s not as if everyone is moving away from bonds of particular maturity

Time variation of maturity profile: They show that a lot of variation in


maturity profile of corporate bonds can be explained by this gap-filling effect

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Implications for Term Structure of Gap-Filling Theory

Slope of term-structure is a function of relative supply of long-term and


short-term bonds by governments
I If supply of long bonds ↑, (say exceeding the segmented demand for long
bonds), then excess supply can be sold at higher yields as investors in
short-term segment will demand premium to move out of their preferred
habitat
I ⇒ Yield curve will slope upward in this case

Corporate issues short-term bonds then. But from Fama-Bliss tells us that
when yield curve is upward sloping, borrowing costs with rollover strategy are
much lower than issuing a long-bond.
I In essence, managers are timing the yield curve

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Another Example: Financing Frictions and Maturity Choices
A more recent contribution is that by Chakraborty - Mackinlay (2019).

Idea Firms adjust the maturities of bonds to match to the preferences of


underwriters
How do they measure preferences?
I Average maturity choices of insurance companies who are underwriter’s clients
/ investors

Result: Firm’s maturity choice more sensitive to underwriter’s changing


preferences rather than firm’s current maturity structure
Does Segmented market hurt companies? Yes!
I Firm’s with large maturity mismatch with underwriter’s maturity choice raise
lower amount through debt issuance

Example from Quantitative Easing: Wen Fed bough huge amount of


mortgage backed securities, it reduced the market supply of MBS. Given that
MBS oriented investors / funds had a preferred habitat for these assets, the
only way they could buy limited assets was to bid up the prices ⇒ yields on
MBS dropped from 6% in 2006 to 2% in 2012.
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Corporate Debt Maturity Dynamics
Average maturity drops during US recessions!

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Corporate Debt Maturity Dynamics By Size
Smaller firms can’t borrow long-term in recessions, but that’s exactly when larger
firms issue long-bonds!

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Level, Slope and Curvature Factors

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Factor Model for Yield - Curve

Yield curve is dynamic ⇒ it changes from time to time

We want to know how it changes. There are multiple possibilities


I Level Shifts: It can be that curve shifts up or down in a parallel fashion. That
is yields on all maturities move up or down in tandem?
I Slope: When yield curve changes, it could also change it’s slope ⇒ term
spread changes.
I Curvature: specific maturities, (say medium term yields) could move
differently but long and short end move in tandem

Empirically, what do we observe? What type of change is most common?


Note each type of change exposes you to different portfolio risk depending
upon what is your portfolio. So important to note the way yield curve shifts

Quick Answer: 70 % of the yield curve dynamics is level factor. 25 % is slope


and remaining is curvature

How can we find this? Can we use it to hedge better or trade?

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A simple factor model

Level factor: average yields across all maturities


1
Levelt = (yt,1 + yt,2 + ... + yt,n )
n
Slope: term spread, long minus short
yt,5 + yt,4 yt,2 + yt,1
Slopet = −
2 2
Run a factor model one for each maturity

yt,n = α + β level × Levelt + β slope × Slopet + errort

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Factor Model Results

level and slope explains 97% variation in yields!

ytn = an + bn × levelt + sn × slopet + εnt


|{z}
n-year yield

Maturity an bn sn R2
y1 0.09 0.9998 -0.77 0.97
y2 -0.08 1 -0.28 0.97
y3 -0.04 0.9999 0.1 0.97
y4 -0.02 1.0008 0.38 0.98
y5 0.04 0.9993 0.56 0.98

⇒ 97% of the dynamics of yield-curve can be captured either as level-shift (up


or down) or changing slope.

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Litterman-Scheinkman Approach (optional)

Factor model approach is little adhoc


I where did level or slope factors came from? We would like data to tell us the
factors that explains variation in yields
I Contribution of each of the factor is difficult to identify

Instead one can perform a Principal Component Analysis (PCA)


I PCA is a statistical tool to identify common factors driving many economic
variables. This way we can pin down and study only handful of factors and we
can predict movement of many variables at a time

Interpreting backed-out factors: These factors are just time series variables -
we don’t know what they mean. We need to see how these recovered factors
correlate with some postulated aggregate factors

Example: Postulate that cash flow growth for a firm are given as

yit = αi + βi × GDPt

Then after running PCA, we would see if first factor looks like GDP or not

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Litterman-Scheinkman Approach (Optional)

Step 1: Collect the data on yields of various maturities over time and
compute var-covariance matrix Σ

Step 2: Decomposition: Find Q and Λ such that

Σ = QΛQ 0

where Λ is diagonal matrix

Step 3: Get the Factors as


xt = Q 0 yt

Matlab Code: It’s two lines

Sigma = [21; 12];

[Q, Lambda] = eig (Sigma);


apply this Q to time series of y to get x

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Equilibrium Level of Interest Rates

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What Determines he Interest Rate Level?

Impatience Rate: If savers in the economy are impatient, then interest rates
are higher as investors need more compensation to over-come their
impatience of consumption

Expected Growth: Higher expected growth ⇒ higher expected income


growth. Consumers like to maintain stable profile of consumption ⇒ they
start borrowing today in anticipation of better income tomorrow ⇒ demand
for loans ↑ ⇒ interest rates ↑

Variance of growth of risk: If risk ↑ ⇒ precautionary savings ↑ ⇒ demand


for loans ↓ ⇒ interest rates ↓

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Credit and Transition Risk

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Credit Risk

Credit risk ⇒ Bond issuer fails to repay coupons / face value as promised
Components of Credit risk
I default risk ⇒ probability that issuer fails to repay
I recovery risk ⇒ conditional on default, recovery could be very low

Credit loss
Credit Loss = P (default) × (1 − recovery )

I If high yield bonds default 5% of times on average and recovery in case of


default is 30% ⇒

Credit Loss = 0.05 × 0.70 = 3.5%

Credit losses for Investment-grade ≈ 0.50%, junk-bonds ≈ 2.50% in last 50


years in the USA

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Default Rates

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Default Rates By Industry

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Default Rates: Financial vs Non-Financial

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Default Rates Hazard Rates

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Recovery Rates

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Recovery Rates

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Type of Bond Matters

Type of Bond Average Recovery Rates (1980-2018)

Loans 80.40%
Senior Secured 62.30%
Senior Unsecured 47.90%
Subordinate 29%

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Credit Risk Summary

Average global default rate ≈ 1% between 1980-2020


I default rates ≈ 3 to 4% for speculative grade bonds

Leisure / media and Energy / natural gas sector with highest defaults (> 3
%) in last 40 years

Utility and ironically Real estate, Insurance are least defaulted sectors in last
40 years
Non-financials default way more financial firms
I but maybe because financial firms are bailed out?

Risk of default for speculative bonds is very early in life and recedes later

Recovery rates: 40% for bonds, 75% for bank loans. Lastd ecade saw much
better recovery even for bonds

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Credit Migration and Transition Risk

Risk that initial rating of a bond changes


Typically this risk can be analysed using transition matrix
I Probability that a bond rated in one-category moves to other rating category
over n-year period

Observations:
I Ratings Inflation: Downgrades more frequent than upgrades!
I Horizon is important: AAA stay AAA with 87% chance over 1-year, but just
with 22% chance over 10-years
I Clustering: Downgrades clustered in recession. but so are upgrades!!

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1 Year Global Transition: 1980-2018

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10 Year Global Transition: 1980-2018

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Asymmetric Nature of Transition

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Asymmetric Nature of Transition

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Credit Spreads ⇒ Price of Risk!

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Various Spreads

G-Spread: Spread of a risky-bond over matched maturity government bond


I makes sense only if government bond for that maturity is considered risk-free
I if matched-maturity bond is not-available, average of yield on bonds with
maturity around matched-maturity is used

Moody’s Baa-AAA Spread: classical gauge of junk vs highly-rated firms


Swap-Spread: Under the swap, one party pays fixed-rate and other pays
floating-rate (linked to some benchmark rate)
I swap-spread = fixed rate under swap - govt yield
I swap spread ⇒ counter-party risk

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Moody’s Corporate Bond G-Spread

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Moody’s Corporate Bond Credit Spread

Moody's Seasoned Baa Corporate Bond Yield-Moody's Seasoned Aaa Corporate Bond Yield

3.5

3.0

2.5
%-%

2.0

1.5

1.0

0.5
1975 1980 1985 1990 1995 2000 2005 2010 2015

Shaded areas indicate U.S. recessions Source: Moody’s fred.stlouisfed.org

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Observations on Spreads

Quantum: Baa-AAA ≈ 1%

Baa-AAA is Counter-cyclical ⇒ shoots up in recession


Baa-10yr Govt is not necessarily counter-cyclical
I late 1970 and early 1980 recessions ⇒ 10 year yield went up more than Baa
as it was primarily fiscal crises (oil shocks, inflation)

Post GFC, Baa-AAA spread has been around 1% after peaking to 3% during
2008

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What Determines Credit Spread? We don’t know!

Influential paper by Collin-Dufresne, Goldstein, Martin (2001) in Journal of


Finance

Idea: Spread is a function of firm-specific and aggregate characteristics. For


better identification, regress changes in spreads on changes in characteristics

∆CSit = αi + β1 ∆levit + β2 ∆rt10 + β3 ∆slopet


+ β4 ∆VIXt + β5 ∆S&Pt + β6 ∆retit + errorit

Expected Signs: β1 > 0, β2 < 0, β3 < 0 , β4 > 0, β5 < 0

Higher leverage makes firm more risky ⇒ CS should go up. Higher


aggregate uncertainty (VIX) should make agents more risk averse and push
up the credit spreads. If firm’s equity is returning good, then there must be
positive news about the firm ⇒ CS should move down and so on

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Results: Not default risk, but risk-premium
r: Rising r pushes down CS. This sensitivity is higher for low credit bonds

VIX: most sensitive factor, but affects short-term bonds more

∆ ret vs ∆ S&P: CS ↓ with both, but CS far more sensitive to ∆ S&P ⇒


First sign that firm-specific factors may not be as important

R 2 ≈ 25%: ⇒ host of factor explain only 25% of the variation in the credit
spreads

Correlated Residuals: Unexplained CS changes are correlated across bonds


and one-single factor explains 55% of variance of residuals on average

Unknown factor This factor is not correlated to firm-specific factors ⇒


credit spread is not reflective of default risk. Recall this factor is common!

Risk Premium: It reflects risk-premium ⇒ the price of risk demanded by


investors.

Take-Away: Changes in credit spread reflect changing risk-premium (price of


risk), not the change in default risk (quantity of risk)
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Risk-Neutral Implied Probabilities of Default

Example: 1-year economy, two possible states at t = 1: default (D) or


no-default (ND). Risk-free ZCB yield is 5%. Risky ZCB is priced at 90 $ and
recovery rate in case of default is 40%.

Under risk-neutral environment, P = E (PresentValue) ⇒ no risk-premium

π × 40 + (1 − π) 100
= 90 ⇒ π = 9.16%
1.05
Risk-Neutral default-probability (implied by prices) is 9.16%

Why we call it risk-neutral? If default probability is 9.16%, only a risk-neutral


investor is ready to pay 90$. A risk-averse investor would invest only if
P < E (presentvalue) as he requires risk-premium

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Quantifying Risk-Premia

Fons (1987): Risk-neutral (price-implied) default rates 5% point larger than


actual default rates
I gap between the two is indicative of risk-premium charged by investors.
Risk-averse investor price assets lower as if actual default probability was 5%
point larger

Altman (2001): Creates a portfolio of BBB-rated bonds and also of treasury


bonds. When bond defaults, the portfolio loses value. Still Risky portfolio
outperform treasuries.
I ⇒ credit spread more than adequate to cover default losses
I ⇒ risk-premia is present

Chen, Lesmond, Wei (2007): Liquidity explains 50% of credit spreads ⇒


credit spread less affected by credit ratings but more by liquidity
I sort on liquidity within each rating group matters. But once you sort the bonds
on liquidity dimension, further sorting on rating has not effect on spreads

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GZ Spreads

Bond by Bond Credit spread measure: For each bond, create a hypothetical
matched treasury security with exact cash flow structure
I discount the cash-flow using zero-curve
I compute ytmrf of this matched security

Sit [k] = yit [k] − yt,rf [k]


1 XX
StGZ = ksSit [k]
Nt
i

Advantage: Duration of underlying treasury bond is matched. Typically,


Baa-AAA spreads are plagued with duration mismatch

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GZ Spread

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GZ Spread and Economic Activity

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Excess Bond Premia

Excess bond premia ⇒ Credit spread in excess of that due to firm level
factors
I Step 1: Estimate S[
it [k] = f (firm factors)

I Step2: Compute average of S[


it [k] and call it St
b
I firm factors are leverage, distance to default, age governance etc
I Step 3: Bond-Premiat = S GZ − Sbt

Substantial variation in GS spreads is due to bond-premia ⇒ factors


common to all the firms

You can think of bond-premia as price of risk (default). GZ find that


bond-premia is not correlated with default risk ⇒ credit spreads move up
due to changing price of default rather than change in probability of default

Predictability: Most of the predictability of economic activity through credit


spreads is actually due to bond premia

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Excess Bond Premia and Economic Activity

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