SBI Clerk E - Book (III)

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Directions (1 – 5) Read the given information carefully and answer the

following questions.
There were eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H lives in an eight

storey building in which bottommost floor is numbered one and the
one above the one is numbered two and so on. All of them plays
cricket and each of them scored different runs from different balls.
The average number of balls faced by them was 15. The runs scored
by them were 5, 10, 12, 15, 20, 30, 40 and 50 but not necessarily
in the same order.
Note: The formula to calculate the strike rate is (number of runs

scored ÷ number of balls faced) × 100.
There were two person lives between C and the one who had scored
30runs. C’s strike rate is 50. There were two person lives between B
and the one who had scored 15runs. E’s strike rate is 200. A do not
live in the seventh floor. The number of person lives between G and
the one who had scored 40runs is same as the number of person
lives between H and the one who had faced 12balls. F lives in the
topmost floor and his strike rate is 300. There were two person lives
between A and the one who had scored 50runs. B lives immediately
above D, who had scored 10runs. Only one person lives between F
and the one who had scored 30runs. G’s strike rate is 600. The one
who had scored 50runs faced 35balls and lives in even numbered
floor. One person lives between the one who had faced 12balls and
the one who had faced 16balls.
Q1. How many balls were faced by D?
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a. 5
b. 10
c. 12
d. 16
e. 18
Q2. Which of the following combination is true?
a. F- 30runs – 8th floor

b. A – 12 runs – 5th floor
c. B- 35balls – 6th floor
d. E – 20 balls – 4th floor
e. G – 30 runs – 1st floor
Q3. How many persons are there between H and the one who have
scored 50 runs?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. None
Q4. If F is related to 15 runs and H is related to 40 runs then in the same
way G is related to?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 10
d. 12
e. 15
Q5. F faced scored how many runs?
a. 30
b. 15
c. 10
d. 12
e. 50
There were seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U and V likes different

subjects Maths, Physics, Chemistry, Tamil, English, Hindi and
Science but not necessarily in the same order. They read on
different days of the week starting from Monday. They also like
different sports such as cricket, hockey, badminton, basketball,
volleyball, tennis and football but not necessarily in the same order.
There were two days gap between S and the one who likes Physics.
The one who likes Chemistry read immediately after the one who
likes football. There were two days gap between Q and the one who
likes Hindi. The one who likes Science read immediately before the
one who likes tennis. There were two days gap between the one
who likes Chemistry and the one who likes volleyball. The one who
likes Physics lives below S. There were two days gap between P and
the one who likes football. The one who likes football was not on
Thursday. P lives above the one who likes football. There is a gap of
one day between the one who likes Hindi and the one who likes
volleyball. There were two days gap between V and the one who
likes Badminton. S does not like Science subject. The number of
days between U and the one who likes Physics is same as the
number of days between R and the one who likes Hockey. V does
not like Physics. The one who likes badminton read English. There is
a gap of one day between the one who likes Maths and the one who
likes Cricket. V reads immediately after the one who likes hockey.
The one who read Physics do not like basketball and cricket.
Q6. S reads which of the following subject?
a. Hindi
b. Tamil
c. Maths
d. Physics
e. English
Q7. Who among the following plays football?
a. P
b. Q
c. R
d. S
e. T
Q8. If V is related to English and R is related to Chemistry then P is
related to?
a. Maths
b. Science
c. Hindi
d. Tamil
e. Physics
Q9. How many days are there between the one who likes tennis and the
one who likes Tamil?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. None
a. T – Tamil
b. P – hockey
c. R – English
d. V – Basketball
e. S – Cricket
Directions (11-15) Read the given information carefully and answer the
There were eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sitting in a

circular table at equidistant and facing the centre. All of them have
different cars such as Audi, Alto, Honda, Toyota, Ford, Fiat, Honda
and Maruti but not necessarily in the same order. Each car is of
different colours such as blue, pink, red, white, black, grey, green
and orange but not necessarily in the same order. No two
successive friends sit together according to the alphabetical order
There were two persons between A and the one who likes Fiat car.
G sits second to the left of the one who has Hyundai car. Only one
person sits between the one who has Audi car and the one whose
car is in green colour. E does not have blue coloured car. The one
who has black coloured car sits opposite to the one who has Honda
car. The one who has Alto car sits third to the left of the one who
has orange coloured car. C sits opposite to the one who has green
coloured car. The one who has white coloured car sits third to the
left of the one who has Ford car. The one has Hyundai car sits third
to the left of B. D sits opposite to the one who has pink coloured
car. The one who has Audi car sits second to the left of the one who
has Fiat car. H does not like orange coloured car. The one who has
Maruti car sits to the immediate right of the one who has white
coloured car. The one who has Ford car sits second to the left of the
one who has red coloured car. The one who has orange coloured car
sits opposite to G. The one who has pink coloured car sits second to
the right of the one who has Alto car. C do not have Alto car.
Q11. G likes which of the following colour?
Pink
Red
White
Black
Orange
a. Honda – pink
b. Alto – green
c. Audi – blue
d. Marti – grey
e. Hyundai – red
Q13. What is the position of A with respect to the one who has green
coloured car?
a. Third to the left

b. Third to the right
c. Second to the left
d. Second to the right
e. Immediate right
Q14. If H is related to white and F is related to pink then in the same way
C is related to?
a. Black
b. Green
c. Grey
d. White
e. Red
Q15. How many persons are there between E and the one who has Audi
car?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. None
There were eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sitting in a

straight line. All of them like different players such as Dhoni, Root,
ABde, Faf, Raina, Bhuvi, Smith and Kholi but not necessarily in the
same order. They were of different ages 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50
and 60 but not necessarily in the same order. No two successive
friends sit together according to the alphabetical order. There were
four friends facing in north direction whereas the remaining four
friends face the south direction.
There were three person sits between T and the one who likes
ABde. Both T and the one who likes ABde were not at the ends. The
one whose age is 45 sits second to the right of the one who likes
Faf. There were two person sits between S and the one whose age
is 50. W sits second to the left of the one who likes Faf. Only one
person sits between P and the one who likes Bhuvi. The one who
likes Dhoni sits second to the right of T. R does not sit at any of the
ends. Q sits second to the left of the one who likes Raina. The one
who likes Smith sits third to the left of W. P’s age is half of the age
of W. Only one person sits between the one whose age is 45 and
the one who likes Root. The immediate neighbours of T face
opposite direction. S sits second to the left of the one whose age is
60. There were two person sits between the one who likes Dhoni
and the one who likes Faf. The one whose age is 25 sits to the
immediate right of U. The one whose age is 60 sits third to the right
of the one who likes Kholi. The one who likes Dhoni faces south
direction. The one whose age is 35 sits third to the left of R.
Q16. Who among the following likes Kholi?
a. S
b. T
c. U
d. V
e. W
a. V – ABde
b. S – 35
c. P – 30
d. W – Raina
e. V – Dhoni
Q18. Four of the following were in a certain group, which of the following
that does not belong to that group?
a. V
b. P
c. The one who likes ABde

d. The one who likes Smith
e. Q
Q19. If P is related to 60 and W is related to 35 then in the same way T is
related to?
a. 20
b. 25
c. 30
d. 40
e. 50
Q20. What is the position of P with respect to the one who likes Bhuvi?
a. Second to the left

b. Second to the right
c. Third to the left
d. Third to the right
e. Immediate left

one above the one is numbered two and so on. All of them like
different IPL teams CSK, RR, RCB, KKR, DD, Punjab, MI and SRH
but not necessarily in the same order. Each team has scored
different runs 120, 125, 130, 135, 140, 150, 160 and 170 but not
necessarily in the same order.

There were three person lives between A and the one who likes RR.
The one, who likes RR, lives below A. D likes CSK. There were two
person lives between E and the one who likes RCB. The team which
has scored 150runs lives immediately above E. DD team has scored
least runs. Only one person lives between the one who likes SRH
and the one, whose favourite team has scored 135 runs. E’s
favourite team has scored the runs in multiple of twenty five. H lives
in even numbered floor. There were three days gap between the
one, whose favourite team has scored 130 runs and the one who
likes MI. The one who likes RR does not live in the lowermost floor.
F lives immediately above C, whose favourite team has scored
140runs. The number of person lives between B and the one who
likes RCB is same as the number of person lives between H and the
one, whose favourite team has scored 125runs. The one who likes
RR does not live immediately above the one who likes RCB. The
difference between the runs scored by RR team and H’s favourite
team is forty. Only one person lives between the one who likes
Punjab team and the one whose favourite team has scored 140runs.
KKR team has scored 130runs. There were two person lives
between the one, whose favourite team has scored 150runs and the
one who likes RR.
Q21. G’s favourite team has scored how many runs?
a. 120
b. 130
c. 140
d. 150
e. 160
Q22. E likes which of the following team?
a. RR
b. RCB
c. SRH
d. MI
e. KKR
Q23. How many persons are there between H and the one who likes DD?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. None
a. E – 150
b. B – RR
c. C – 7th floor
d. G – RCB
e. A – 130
Q25. If H is related to CSK and E is related to SRH then in the same way
A is related to?
a. RR
b. Punjab
c. DD
d. KKR
e. MI

There were seven friends M, N, O, P, Q, R and S goes to shopping

on different days of the week starting from Monday. All of them buy
different fruits such as Mango, Apple, Blueberry, Blackberry,
Bilberry, Grapes and Banana but not necessarily in the same order.
All of them buy fruits at different prices such as 50, 100, 150, 200,
250, 300 and 500.
There were three days gap between S and the one who bought the
fruit for 150 rupees. There were two days gap between the one who
bought Apple and the one who bought the fruit for 500 rupees. The
one who bought the fruit for 500 rupees was not on Tuesday. S
does not buy Mango. The number of days between P and the one
who buy Mango is same as the number of days between O and the
one who buy the fruit for 500 rupees. There is a gap of one day
between O and the one who buy Banana fruit. There were two days
gap between M and the one who buy Bilberry. The one who buy
Apple was not on Sunday. O does not buy the fruit for 150 rupees.
The one who buy fruit for 50 rupees goes immediately after the one
who buy Grapes fruit. S lives above the one who buy the fruit for
150 rupees. Only one person lives between P and the one who buy
fruit for 500 rupees. The number of days between the one who buy
fruit for 200 rupees and the one who buy Grapes fruit is same as
the number of days between the one who buy Blueberry fruit and
the one who buy fruit for 200 rupees. Q buys fruit for 300 rupees.
There is a gap of one day between the one who buy Apple fruit and
the one who buy fruit for 150 rupees. There were two days gap
between the one who bought the fruit for 250 rupees and the one
who bought Banana fruit. M does not buy Banana fruit. There is a
gap of one day between N and the one who buy Blackberry.
Q26. Who likes Banana?
a. P
b. Q
c. R
d. S
e. N
a. O – 250
b. P – Blackberry
c. S – 200
d. M – Mango
e. Q – 500
Q28. How many days are there between N and the one who buy
Bilberry?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. None
Q29. If R is related to 200 and O is related to 150 then Q is related to?
a. 250
b. 300
c. 500
d. 100
e. 50
Q30. Blueberry was bought on which of the following day?
a. Monday
b. Tuesday
c. Wednesday

d. Thursday
e. Friday
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were captains of different cricket teams

such as IND, AUS, SA, SL, NZ, ENG, PAK and WI sitting around a
circular table at equidistant but not necessarily in the same order.
Each captain has won different number of matches such as 5, 10,
15, 20, 22, 23, 25 and 30 but not necessarily in the same order. No
two successive captains sit together according to the alphabetical
order. All of them were facing towards the centre.
There were two person sits between A and the one, who is the
captain of AUS.D sits opposite to the SA captain. The SL captain sits
second to the right of D. B is not adjacent to WI captain. The NZ
captain sits to the immediate left of G. The one, who has won 25
matches, sits opposite to the PAK captain. H was not SL captain.
There were two person sits between G and the WI captain. A has
won half of the matches won by the IND captain. The SA captain
sits third to the left of B. The one who has won 20 matches sits
second to the right of C. The one, who has won 10 matches, sits
opposite to the AUS captain. The difference between the matches
won by G and the ENG captain is seven. Only one person sits
between WI captain and the one who has won 10 matches. H does
not win the matches in multiple of five. PAK captain sits second to
the right of F. B was not WI captain.
Q31. D has won how many matches?
a. 15
b. 20
c. 22

d. 23
e. 25
Q32. Who among the following is the captain of NZ?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
Q33. How many persons are there between B and the one, who has won
15 matches when counting anticlockwise direction from B?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. None
a. F – WI – 15
b. A – PAK – 10
c. G – ENG – 30
d. H – SA – 22
e. E – NZ – 25
Q35. If G is related to SA and E is related to PAK then in the same way A
is related to?
a. IND
b. NZ
c. WI
d. ENG
e. AUS
There were ten students sitting in twelve seats in two parallel rows
containing five students each,in such a way that there is an equal
distance between adjacent students. In row 1, A, B, C, D and E are
seated and all of them are facing north, and in row 2, P, Q, R, S and
T are sitting and all of them are facing south. One of the seats is
vacant in each row. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement
each member seated in a row faces another member of the other
row. All of them like different colours such as pink, red, yellow,
white, black, brown, blue, green, grey and violet but not necessarily
in the same order.
E faces the one who sits second to the right of Q. The immediate
neighbour of E faces the one, who likes black colour. There were
three person sits between P and the one who likes green colour. A
sits second to the left of the one who likes grey colour. There were
two person sits between B and the one who likes yellow colour. The
one who likes pink colour sits to the immediate left of D. Q do not
like brown colour. The immediate neighbour of D faces the one who
likes red colour. A does not face the one who likes green colour. The
one who likes violet colour sits second to the left of the vacant seat.
P sits at any one of the ends. Either A or the one, who likes grey
colour sit adjacent to the vacant seat. Only one person sits between
T and the one who likes black colour. The one who likes brown
colour sits second to the right of the vacant seat. S faces the one
who likes yellow colour. B faces the one who sits second to the left
of white. The immediate neighbour of A faces the one who likes
brown colour. The immediate neighbour of the one who likes green
colour faces the one, who likes violet colour.
Q36. A likes which of the following colour?

a. Pink
b. Red
c. Black
d. Blue
e. White
Q37. Who among the following sits opposite to the one who likes violet
colour?
a. P
b. Q
c. R
d. S
e. T
Q38. Who among the following sit adjacent to the vacant seat?
a. The one who likes pink colour

b. The one who likes red colour
c. The one who likes green colour
d. C
e. T
Q39. If D is related to white colour and A is related to brown colour then
E is related to?
a. Pink
b. Red
c. Black
d. Blue
e. Grey
Q40. What is the position of T with respect to the one who likes pink
colour?

c. T faces th
d. e one, who sits second to the right of D
e. T faces the one, who sits third to the right of E
f. Immediate left

different sports such as hockey, volleyball, football, basketball,
tennis, badminton, kabadi and cricket but not necessarily in the
same order. They were of different ages 20, 23, 25, 27, 30, 33, 35
and 40.
There were four person lives between H and the one who likes
badminton. The one who likes badminton is not 30years old. C lives
immediately above the one who likes kabadi. G lives in odd
numbered floor. There were two person lives between the one who
likes tennis and the one whose age is 35years. There were three
person lives between F and the one whose age is 20. C is 25 years
old. The one who likes cricket does not live in the fifth floor. E’s age
is 30years. There were two person lives between the one who likes
kabadi and the one whose age is 27years. F does not like football. H
lives in odd numbered floor. The number of person lives between G
and the one who likes hockey is same as the number of days lives
between B and the one whose age is 40years. Only one person lives
between D and the one who likes basketball. There were two person
lives between the one who likes badminton and the one whose age
is 20years. B does not live in the topmost floor.There were two
person lives between the one who likes cricket and the one whose
age is 40years old. Only one person lives between F and the one
who likes cricket. The one who likes hockey is 23years old. A lives
immediately above E. There were two person lives between the one
who likes football and the one whose age is 30years. There were
two person lives between the one who likes basketball and the one
whose age is 33years.
Q41. Who among the following like tennis?
a. E
b. F
c. G
d. H
e. D
Q42. What is the age of F?
a. 20
b. 23
c. 25
d. 27
e. 30
Q43. How many persons are there between F and the one who likes
volleyball?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. More than four

Q44. If C is related to 40 and A is related to 35 the in the same way D is
related to?
a. 20
b. 23
c. 25
d. 27
e. 30
Q45. Which of the following combination is false?
a. H – kabadi
b. A – basketball
c. B – 35
d. D – 20
e. E – cricket
There were seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U and V like different books

English, Tamil, Hindi, Physics, Chemistry, Maths and GK but not
necessarily in the same order. All of them read on different days of
the week starting from Monday. Each book is of different colours
red, pink, blue, black, white, brown and green but not necessarily in
the same order.
There were three days gap between Q and the one who likes Tamil
book. U likes GK book. There is a gap of one day between the one
who likes English book and the one who likes black coloured book. V
likes white coloured book. The one who likes green colour book read

immediately before the one who likes Maths book. T read the book
immediately before the one who like Chemistry book. Only one day
gap between V and the one who likes Maths book. There is a gap of
one day between the one who likes Tamil book and the one who
likes green coloured book. Q lives above the one who likes Tamil
book. The one who likes Hindi book is not in yellow colour. P likes
Chemistry book. V does not read on Tuesday. The one who likes
yellow coloured book read immediately before the one who likes
Physics book. The number of days between S and the one who likes
GK book is same as the number of days between R and the one who
likes red coloured book. There is a gap of one day between U and
the one who likes brown coloured book. Q do not like Physics book.
The one who likes Maths book is not in blue colour. The one who
read red coloured book was not on Saturday.
Q46. P read on which of the following day?
a. Monday
b. Tuesday
c. Wednesday
d. Thursday
e. Friday
Q47. Who among the following like brown coloured book?
a. Q
b. The one who likes Tamil book
c. The one who likes Chemistry book
d. S
e. The one who likes English book
Q48. If U is related to brown and S is related to white then in the same
way T is related to?
a. Blue
b. Black
c. Red
d. Yellow
e. Green
Q49. How many days are there between S and the one who likes Physics
book?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. None
a. Hindi – white
b. GK – Sunday
c. S – blue
d. Tamil – yellow
e. V – Monday
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were sitting around a circular

table at equidistant. No two successive friends sit together
according to the alphabetical order. All of them like different
countries such as IND, AUS, SA, SL, NZ, ENG, PAK and WI but not

necessarily in the same order. Four friends were facing towards the
centre while the other four members were facing outside the centre.
H sits second to the left of the one who likes SL. A does not like SL.
The one who like WI sits third to the right of the one who likes AUS.
F faces the centre. Only one person sits between E and the one who
likes IND. The immediate neighbours of F face the opposite
direction. There were two person sits between B and the one who
likes SL. The one who likes NZ sits third to the left of C. G sits
opposite to the one who likes PAK. B and H do not like NZ. The one
who likes SA sits to the immediate left of G. The immediate
neighbour of the one, who likes ENG, faces the same direction. D
does not like AUS. A sits opposite to the one who likes NZ. The one
who likes SA faces outside the centre. The one who likes ENG sits
opposite to H. D sits second to the left of the one who likes PAK.
Q51. E likes which of the following country?
a. WI
b. AUS
c. PAK
d. SA
e. NZ
Q52. What is the position of A with respect to the one who likes SL?

c. Immediate left
d. Third to the left
e. Immediate right

a. E
b. C
c. A
d. H
e. B
Q54. If G is related to WI and F is related to AUS then in the same way D
is related to?
a. IND
b. ENG
c. SA
d. PAK
e. NZ
Q55. How many persons are there between B and the one who likes AUS
when counted from clockwise direction?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. None
There were eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sitting in a

straight line facing north. No two successive friends sit together
according to the alphabetical order. All of them were of different
ages 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 17, 18 and 20 but not necessarily in the
same order.

There were three person sit between P and the one whose age is
11. Only one person sits between Q and the one whose age is 10. W
sits third to the right of the one whose age is 10. Q sits third to the
left of the one whose age is 20. U sits second to the left of the one
whose age is 11.The number of person sit between V and the one
whose age is 10 is same as the number of person lives between U
and the one whose age is 17. T and the one, whose age is 14, are
immediate neighbours. W’s age was in multiple of three. The one
whose age is 20 and Q does not sit at any of the ends. T’s age was
in odd number whereas U’s age was in prime number. R sits second
to the left of the one whose age is 18.
a. P – 20
b. Q – 12
c. R -13
d. U – 11
e. T – 17
Q57. Which of the following order is true?
a. R>W>Q>T
b. U>V>S>T
c. T>W>Q>P
d. W>Q>U>V
e. P<Q<R<T
Q58. Who among the following sit at the end?
a. P
b. Q
c. R

d. S
e. T
Q59. If R is 11 and T is related to 13 then Q is related?
a. 12
b. 14
c. 17
d. 18
e. 20
Q60. What is the position of W with respect to the one whose age is 10?

c. Immediate right
d. Immediate left
e. Second to the left

one above the one is numbered two and so on. All of them born on
different months April, May, June, July, August, September, October
and November but not necessarily in the same order. All of them
like different colours such as green, pink, red, black, blue, white,
yellow and grey but not necessarily in the same order. The persons
who were born in the month having thirty days lives in even
numbered floor.

There were two person lives between H and the one who likes white
colour. H does not stay in the third floor. B likes grey colour. There
were two person lives between D and the one who was born in
November. There were three person lives between E and the one
who was born in July. The one who was born in August do not like
yellow colour. Only one person lives between the one, who was born
in June and the one who likes black colour. Only one person lives
between E and the one who likes red colour. A does not like black
colour. Neither B nor C lives in the topmost floor. The number of
person lives between F and the one who was born in June is same
as the number of person lives between E and the one who was born
in April. D lives immediately above the one who likes white colour.
There were two person lives between the one who likes blue colour
and the one who was born in October. Only one person lives
between H and the one who was born in July. G lives immediately
above the one who was born in August. There were two person lives
between C and the one who likes red colour. G was not born in
November. Only one person lives between the one who likes green
colour and the one who likes pink colour. There were two person
lives between A and the one who likes green colour.
Q61. G likes which of the following colour?
a. Green
b. Pink
c. Red
d. Black
e. White
a. C – August
b. E – November
c. A – April

d. D – June
e. F – May
Q63. Who among the following lives in the sixth floor?
a. D
b. E
c. H
d. The one who likes blue colour
e. The one who likes red colour
Q64. How many persons are there between H and the one who likes red
colour?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. None
Q65. If E is related to white and F is related to blue then in the same way
D is related to?
a. Green
b. Yellow
c. Red
d. Black
e. Pink
Directions (66- 70) Read the given information carefully and answer the

There were seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U and V goes to club on

different days of the week starting from Monday and ends on
Sunday but not necessarily in the same order. All of them go to club
by different cars such as Alto, Honda, Audi, Fiat, Ford, Toyota and
Hyundai but not necessarily in the same order.
There were three days gap between P and V. S either goes to club
on Honda car or Fiat car. U does not go to club on Toyota car. There
were two days gap between T and the one who has Honda car. Not
more than two people go to club before P. There were three days
gap between S and the one who has Hyundai car. U goes to club
immediately before the one, who has Honda car. P does not have
Ford car. There is a gap of one day between R and the one who has
Fiat car. The one who has Toyota car goes to club immediately
before P. R has Alto car and goes to the club after the one, who has
Fiat car.
a. T – Toyota
b. U – Audi
c. P – Hyundai
d. V – Fiat
e. Q – Fiat
Q67. Q goes to club on which of the following day?
a. Sunday
b. Monday
c. Wednesday
d. Thursday
e. Tuesday
Q68. If S is related to Alto and Q is related to Toyota then in the same
way P is related to?
a. Audi
b. Fiat
c. Honda
d. Hyundai
e. Ford
Q69. How many days are there between V and the one who has Audi
car?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. None
Q70. If all the letters are arranged in alphabetical order [friend’s name
from P to V] from Monday to Sunday then S has which of the following
car?
a. Toyota
b. Honda
c. Alto
d. Fiat
e. Audi
There were eight family members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sitting in

a circular table, facing the centre but not necessarily in the same
order.

C sits second to the left of F. E is the wife of F and sits third to the
right of A. The immediate neighbours of F are females. C is the son
of G. There were two person sits between G and C’s brother. E’s son
and the daughter in law of E are immediate neighbours. H is the
sister of B. F is the father of G. H sits second to the left of E’s son. F
is not an immediate neighbour of A and E. Not more than three
people lives in the same generation.
Q71. Who is daughter in law of E?
a. D
b. A
c. H
d. Either D or A
e. Cannot be determined
Q72. Who among the following sits third to the right of F?
a. A
b. D
c. H
d. B
e. E
Q73. How G is related with respect to D?
a. Brother
b. Husband
c. Sister
d. Sister in law
e. Aunt
Q74. What is the position of E’s son with respect to A?

c. Immediate left
d. Immediate right
e. Third to the left
Q75. Who among the following sit exactly between E’s daughter and D’s
mother?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. G
e. H
There were eight friends A, B, C, D, F, G and H sitting in a straight

line facing north. No two successive friends sit together according to
the alphabetical order. All of them like different colours such as
pink, red, blue, white, black, yellow, green and violet but not
necessarily in the same order.
E sits second to the left of the one who likes white colour. Only one
person lives between E and the one who likes green colour. H sits to
the immediate right of the one who likes blue colour. The number of
person sit between F and the one who likes red colour is same as
the number of person lives between D and the one who likes blue
colour. The one who likes black colour sits second to the right of H.
The one who likes green colour sits fourth to the left of C. F does
not like pink colour. B sits second to the right of the one who likes
yellow colour. D is not an immediate neighbour of F. The one who

likes green colour does not sit at any of the ends. Only one person
sits between G and the one who likes black colour.
Q76. Who among the following sit at the extreme ends?
a. The one who likes white colour

b. C
c. B
d. The one who likes violet colour
e. The one who likes red colour
a. F – yellow
b. B – violet
c. A – green
d. G – red
e. H – blue
Q78. What is the position of A with respect to the one who likes green
colour?
a. Second to the right

c. Immediate left
d. Immediate right
e. Second to the left
Q79. Who among the following are immediate neighbours of G?
a. F
b. The one who likes white colour

c. D
d. E
e. Both (b) and (d)
Q80. How many persons are there between F and the one who likes
black colour?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. None
There were eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W lives in an eight

different games such as volleyball, cricket, basketball, baseball,
badminton, tennis, hockey and football but not necessarily in the
same order. They also like different colours such as pink, red,
green, blue, black, white, grey and yellow but not necessarily in the
same order.
There were three person lives between W and the one who likes
cricket. There were two person lives between V and the one who
likes football. S does not live in the bottommost floor. Only one
person lives between U and the one who likes blue colour. Q lives
immediately above the one who likes badminton. W neither likes
blue colour nor volleyball. There were three person lives between R
and the one who likes tennis. There were two person lives between
P and the one who likes white colour. S likes hockey. There were
three person lives between the one who likes badminton and the
one who likes grey colour. The number of person lives between T
and the one who likes tennis is same as the number of person lives
between V and the one who likes green colour. The one who likes
yellow colour lives immediately after the one, who likes basketball.
There were two person lives between the one who likes pink colour
and the one who likes hockey. W lives in the odd numbered floor
and lives above the one who likes cricket. There were two person
lives between R and the one who likes green colour. T neither likes
cricket nor football. Only one person lives between the one who
likes cricket and the one who likes green colour. There were two
person lives between the one who likes baseball and the one who
likes black colour. V does not live in the topmost floor.
Q81. Who among the following lives in the topmost floor?
a. U
b. S
c. The one who likes baseball
d. The one who likes basketball
e. T
Q82. Q likes which of the following colour?
a. Red
b. Black
c. White
d. Pink
e. Yellow
a. P – grey
b. R – baseball

c. T – badminton
d. U – white
e. V – blue
Q84. If W is related to football and Q is related to volleyball then in the
same way P is related to?
a. Basketball
b. Badminton
c. Cricket
d. Hockey
e. Tennis
Q85. How many persons are there between S and the one who likes blue
colour?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. None
There were six friends A, B, C, D, E and F writes different exams on

different days starting from Monday and ends on Sunday. Each day
there will be only one exam and one of the days is holiday. The
different exams written by them are Physics, Chemistry, Maths,
Tamil, English and Science but not necessarily in the same order.
Each of them has scored different marks such as 70, 75, 80, 85, 90
and 95 but not necessarily in the same order.

There were three days gap between C and the one who writes
English exam. C writes the exam before the one who writes English
exam. There is a gap of one day between D and the one who has
scored 95marks. There were two days gap between the one who
writes Chemistry exam and the one who scored 90 marks. The one
who writes Tamil exam has scored the maximum marks among
them. The number of days between E and the one who writes
Chemistry is same as the number of days between F and the one
who writes Maths exam. There is a gap of two days between the
one who writes Physics exam and the one who scored 75marks. The
one who writes Chemistry exam does not scored 80marks. D does
not write the exam on Monday. The one who had scored 85marks
writes the exam immediately after the one who has written Science
exam. The number of days below holiday is same as the number of
days above the one who has written Chemistry exam. The one who
writes Maths exam does not scored 90 marks. B writes Physics
exam. There is a gap of one day between A and the one who scored
90 marks. The one who writes English exam writes immediately
after the holiday. E does not scored maximum marks. There is a
gap of one day between the one who writes Maths exam and the
one who scored 70marks.
Q86. E writes which of the following exam?
a. Maths
b. Physics
c. Chemistry
d. English
e. Science
Q87. Which of the following order is true? (According to their marks)
a. F>E>B>C>A
b. C<A<D<EE>A>B>C
d. A<B<D<E<F
e. F>E>C>B>A
a. A – 85
b. B – Physics
c. E – Sunday
d. C– 75
e. D – Tuesday
Q89. F writes the exam on which of the following day?
a. Monday
b. Sunday
c. Friday
d. Saturday
e. Wednesday
Q90. Who among the following has scored second highest mark?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W were sitting around a circular

table at equidistant. No two successive friends sit together
according to the alphabetical order. All of them like different IPL
team captains such as Rohit, Kholi, Dhoni, Rahane, DK, Ashwin,
Williamson and Gambhir but not necessarily in the same order. Four
friends were facing towards the centre while the other four
members were facing outside the centre.
There were two person sits between P and the one who likes
Gambhir. The one who likes Rohit sits second to the left of Q. W sits
second to the right of the one who likes Kholi. The one who likes
Ashwin sits second to the left of V. Only one person sits between U
and the one who likes Rahane. The immediate neighbour of P faces
opposite direction. The one who likes Williamson sits opposite to T.
Neither P nor U likes Ashwin. The one who likes Rohit does not face
the centre. U sits second to the left of the one who likes Gambhir.
Both P and the one who likes Gambhir face the same direction. The
one who likes Kholi sits opposite to the one who likes Ashwin. T sits
second to the left of the one who likes Dhoni. The one who likes
Rahane is not W. S does not like Williamson.
Q91. V likes which of the following captain?
a. Kholi
b. Dhoni
c. DK
d. Rahane
e. Ashwin
Q92. What is the position of S with respect to the one who likes
Williamson?

b. Second to the left
c. Immediate right
d. Immediate left
e. Third to the right
a. The one who likes Kholi

b. Q
c. S
d. The one who likes Ashwin
e. The one who likes DK
Q94. How many persons are there between U and the one who likes DK
when counted clockwise direction from U?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. None
Q95. If W is related to Ashwin and S is related to Williamson then in the
same way Q is related to?
a. Rahane
b. Dhoni
c. DK
d. Gambhir
e. Rohit

There were eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sitting in a

straight line facing north. They were of different ages such as 10,
12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17 and 18 but not necessarily in the same order.
All of them like different players such as Bhuvi, Faf, ABde, Warner,
Kholi, Smith, Yuvi and Root but not necessarily in the same order.
No two successive friends sit together according to the alphabetical
order.
There were three person sits between A and the one who likes
ABde. G sits to the immediate left of the one whose age was in
prime number which is less than the age of the one who likes Faf.
H’s age was 10. Only one person sits between both the persons
whose ages were in prime number. E sits third to the left of the one
who likes Faf. The one who likes Warner sits at the extreme right
end. The one who likes Bhuvi and the one who likes Yuvi are
immediate neighbours. F sits to the left of B and C is to the right of
B. D likes Kholi and sits fourth to the left of the one who likes Root.
The age of the one, who likes Faf is equal to the average age of A
and D. The one who likes Root has the age in multiple of seven. A’s
age is less than the D’s age. The one who likes ABde sits second to
the right of the one who likes Faf. The one who likes Bhuvi is not an
immediate neighbour of the one who likes Kholi.
Q96. H likes which of the following cricket player?
a. Kholi
b. Smith
c. Faf
d. ABde
e. None of these

Q97. What is the age of B?
a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 18
e. 10
Q98. Who among the following sits at the extreme ends?
a. E and the one who likes Yuvi

b. C and the one who likes Bhuvi
c. E and G
d. The one who likes Bhuvi and the one who likes Root
e. C and A
a. A – Faf
b. G – 13
c. D – 16
d. C – Warner
e. E – Root
Q100. What is the position of B with respect to the one who likes Yuvi?

c. Fourth to the left
d. Fourth to the right
e. Third to the left
Syllogism
Syllogism
Direction (101-104): Read the following three conclusions and then

decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts, if no conclusion is
following choose option none of these.
101) Statement:
Only a few Azure is Apricot
All Apricot are Amber
All Amber are Amaranth
Conclusion:
I). All Apricot are Amaranth
II). All Azure is Amber is a possibility
III). Some Azure is Amaranth
A. Only I follows
B. Both I and III follow
C. Both I and II follow
D. All I, II, and III follow
E. None follows
102) Statement:

Only a few Blush are Brown
Only Brown is Coral
No Brown is Cyan
Conclusion:
I). Some Coral are Blush
II). All Blush are Brown is a possibility
III). No Coral is Cyan
A. Only III follows
B. Both II and III follow
E. None follows
103) Statement:
No Gray is Eri
Some Eri is Jade
All Jade are Lemon
Conclusion:
I). All Jade can be Gray
II). Some Eri is Lemon
III). All Lemon are Gray is not a possibility

A. Only III follows
E. None follows
104) Statement:
Only Olive is Lime
No Olive is Peach
All Peach are Pink
Conclusion:
I). Some Peach are Lime
II). All Pink can be Olive
III). All Lime can be Pink
A. Only III follows
E. None follows
Syllogism

Direction (105-106): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
Give Answer:
a)IfOnly conclusion I follows.
b)If Only conclusion II follows.
c)If either conclusion I or II follows.
d)If Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
e)If both conclusions I and II follow.
105) Statement
Only a few officers are Manager
All Managers are General Manager
No Manager is Clerk
Conclusion
I). All General Managers are clerks
II). All Officers can be General Manager
106) Statement
Few Cycles are Bikes
No Bike is Car
All Cars are Vans
Conclusion

I). Some Bikes are Van is a possibility
II). All Cycle can be a Car
A.a
B.b
C.c
D.d
E.e
107) Statements:
Only a few book are pencils.
No pencil is Pen.
All pencil are Eraser.
Conclusions:
I. All Book are Pencil is a Possibility.
II. All pencil are Book is a Possibility.
108) Statements:
Only Banana are Apple.
Only a few Banana are Orange.
Some orange are Grapes.
All Grapes are Pineapple.
Conclusions:

I.All bananas can never be Grapes.
II. All Apple can never be Pineapple.
109) Statements:
Only a few Google are Yahoo.
No Google is Gmail.
No yahoo is Email.
Conclusions:
I. No Gmail is Yahoo.
II. No Email is Google.
110) Statements:
Only crow are Duck.
Some Crow are Sparrow.
No Sparrow is Parrot.
Some Parrot are Eagle.
Conclusions:
I. AllSparrowcan never be Duck.
II. Some Eagle are Sparrow is a possibility.
For Solution Join 3 Months SBI Clerk And


Directions (111-115): In each of the questions given below some

statements are followed by some conclusions. You have to take the
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q111. Statements:
Some letter are half
All half is full
No full is tank
Conclusion:
I. Some full are letter
II. Some letter are not tank is possibility
III. No half is tank
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Both I and III is true
(d) Only III is true
(e) None true
Q112. Statements:
Only confidence is Winner

Some confidence is Gold
All Gold is Silver

Conclusion:
I. Some winner are gold
II. No Silver is confidence
III. Some silver are confidence
(a) Only II is true
(b) Either I and II is true
(c) Only III is true
(d) None follows
(e) All is true
Q113. Statements:
Some time is happy
No happy is truth
All truth are hide
Conclusion:
I. Some Time are not Hide
II. Some truth is time

III. All Time are Hide
(a) Both II and III is true
(b) Only III is true
(c) Both I and II is true
(d) Either I and III is true
(e) Only I is true

Q114. Statements:
Some Shady are Revenge
All Revenge are Bad
No Bad is Hate
Conclusions:
I. All bad are shady
II. All shady can never be hate.
III. Some shady are hate
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) Only III follows
(e) None follows


Q115. Statements:
All car are flying
Some flying are Wheel
No car are speed
Conclusions:
I. Some flying are not speed
II. Some wheel are car
III. Some speed are wheel
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) Only I and II follow
(e) None of these
Directions (116-118): In each of the questions below are given some

statements followed by some Conclusions. You have to take the given
statements to be true even, if they seem to be at variance from
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If only conclusion I follows.

(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

Q116. Statements:
Some Give are New
Some New are Logical
All Logical are Fancy
Conclusions:
I: Some give are not Fancy
II: All New is fancy is possibility
Q117. Statements:
Some wood are table
All table are furniture
Conclusions:
I: Some wood is not Furniture
II: All wood are Furniture

Q118. Statements:
Some Noval are Good
No Good is bad
All Bad are Different
Conclusions:
I: Some Different are not Good

II: Some Noval are not bad

statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
Q119. Statements:
Some Blue are Olive.
Only few Orange are Blue
All Yellow are Orange.
Conclusions:
I. Some Yellow are Blue.

II. Some Orange being Olive is a possibility.
III. All orange is blue is a possibility.
(a) Both I and III follows
(b) Either I or II follows
(c) Only II follow
(d) Only I follow
(e) None of these
Q120. Statements:
Some Rain are Cloud
Some Cloud are Water.
No Sun is Rain.

Conclusions:
I. Some Rain are water
II. Some Water is Sun
III. All Sun can never be Cloud.
(a) Only I follow
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows

(d) Either I or III follows
(e) None Follows
Direction (121-125) In the following questions, Some statements are

given and followed by some conclusions. You have to decide from
which the given conclusions can be drawn from the given statements:
121) Statement:
Some cool are warm.
Some warm are winter.
Some winter are hands.
Some hands are ears.
Conclusion:

I. Some ears are winter.
II. Some winter are cool.
III. Some hands are warm.
IV. Some cool is ears.
a. None follows
b. Only II follows
c. Only IV follows
d. Only either II or IV follows

e. Only III follows

122) Statement:
All bad are cart.
Some cart are yard.
All yard are seat.
Some seat are tables.
Conclusion:

I. Some seat are cart.
II. Some tables are seat.
III. Some cart are bad.
IV. Some seat are yard.
a. Only II, III and IV follow

b. Only I, II and III follow
c. Only I, III and IV follow
d. All follow
e. None of these
123)Statement:
All door are paint.
All paint are windows.

All windows are walls..
Some windows are water.
Conclusion:
I. Some walls are windows.

II. All door are walls.
III. Some windows are door.
IV. Some water are windows.
a. Only I, II and III follow

b. Only II, III and IV follow
c. Only I, III and IV follow
d. Only I, II and IV follow
e. All are true
124) Statement:

Some stones are not rods.
All rods are black.
No black is a crow.
Conclusion:
I. Some crows are rods.

II. Some blacks are stones.
III. Some crows are blacks.

IV. Some stones are rods.
a. Only I follows
b. Only II follows
c. Only I and IV follow
d. Only IV follows
e. None of these
125) Statement:
Some pants are shirts.
No face is a pant.
No pant is a flower.
Conclusion:

I. No flower is a face.
II. No face is a flower.
III. Some shirts are not faces.
IV. Some shirts are pants.
a. Only I and II follow

b. Only III and IV follow
c. Either I or II follows

d. Only IV follows
e. None of these
Miscellaneous (126-150)
126) How many pairs of letters are there in the word “ARRANGEMENT”
each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the
English alphabetical series?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D. None
E.3
127) In the word “EXTERNAL” all the odd-numbered position letter from
left to right end is changed to the opposite letter according to the
alphabetical series and all the even-numbered position letter is changed
to the previous letter according to the alphabetical series, then all the
letters are arranged in alphabetical order from the left end. Which of the
following letter is fourth from the right end after the arrangement?
A.W
B.M
C.K
D.I
E.None of these

Data sufficiency
Direction (128-130): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements
Give Answer:
a)If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the

question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to
answer the question.
b)If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the

question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to
c)If the data either statement I alone or in statement II alone are

sufficient to answer the question.
d)If the data both statement I and II together are not sufficient to
e)If the data both statement I and II together are necessary to

128) Ten persons sitting in the two parallel rows. In row 1 P, Q, R, S and
T are seated and facing south. In row 2 I, J, K, L and M are seated and
facing north. Who sits second to the left of the person facing P?
I) T sits second to the right of the person who facing J. Two persons
sit between J and I. R sits immediate right of the person facing I. P
sits second to the ileft of the person facing the one who sits
immediate right of K.
II) Q sits second to the right of the person who faces the person sits
adjacent to J. Two persons sit between Q and the person who facing
the immediate neighbour of M. L facing the person who sits second
to the left of R.

129) Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around the square

table but not necessarily in the same order. The persons sitting at the
corner facing outwards the table and the persons sitting at the middle
facing towards the table. Who sits third to the right of the one who
facing G?
I) B sits second to the left of G who facing F. Two persons sit

between F and E. C sits second to the left of E. Three persons sit
between E and H.
II) E sits second to the left of D. A sits third to the right of D. Two
persons sit between B and C who sits immediate left of A.
130) Six persons- U, V, W, X, Y and Z attend the interview in the week

starting from Monday to Saturday. Who among them attends the
interview on Thursday?
I) Two persons attend between W and V. V attends after Thursday.

One person attends between V and U who attend the adjacent day
of Y.
II) Z attends before U. More than two persons attend between X and
Z.
Inequality (131-150)
Directions (1 – 5): In the following questions, the symbols %, @, #, $ and & are
used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P%Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P@Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P#Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P$Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P&Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be
true, find which of the four conclusions I, II, and III given below them is/are
definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
131. Statements: A%S, S$W, W&F, F@X

Conclusions:

I. S%F
II. W@A
III. X%W
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both II and III
D) All I, II and III
E) Only I and II
132. Statements: R&W, W#C, C%A, A$V

Conclusions:
I. C&R
II. A%W
III. V@C
A) Only II
B) Only I
C) Only I and III
D) Only III
E) None of these
133. Statements: A@D, D$M, M#S, S&J

Conclusions:
I. A$M
II. J&D
III. A@M
A) Either I or III
B) Only I
C) Only II and III
E) Either I or III and II
134. Statements: C#A, X%A, R$X, R@S

Conclusions:
I. R%A
II. R$A
III. C@S
A) Both I and II
B) Both I and III
C) Both II and III

D) Either I or II and III

E) Only I
135. Statements: X$E, E%W, W&Q, Q@A

Conclusions:
I. A@W
II. X%Q
III. E&A
A) Only III
B) Both I and II
C) All I, II and III
D) Both II and III
E) None of these
Direction (136-140): Relationship between different elements is shown in the

statements. Find if the conclusions also follow or not.
136) Statements: W > S ≤ Q, D ≤ S, I ≤ B = D
Conclusions:
I. Q ≥ I
II. Q = I
A) only I follows
B) only II follows
C) either I or II follows
D) neither I nor II follow
E) both I and II follow
137) Statements: Q < D ≤ A, C > A < K, D ≥ S Conclusions: I. K > D
II. C > S
A) only I follows
B) only II follows

138) Statements: S > N ≥ F, P = N, E > S
Conclusions:
I. E > P
II. F < E
A) only I follows
B) only II follows
139) Statements: E ≥ L > K, L > F < D, P > E
Conclusions:
I. P > D
II. E > F
A) only I follows
B) only II follows
140) Statements: Q ≥ X ≥ S, S < A, A > E
Conclusions:
I. E > X
II. X ≥ E
A) only I follows
B) only II follows
Direction (141-150): Relationship between different elements is shown in the

statements. Find if the conclusions also follow or not.
141) Statements: S > K ≥ X < C = N ≤ Q > A
Conclusions:
I. X ≥ Q
II. A > X
A) only I follows
B) only II follows
142) Statements: H > E ≥ V = S > L ≤ A
Conclusions:
I. E > L
II. S ≥ A

A) only I follows
B) only II follows
143. Statements: Q ≥ B > K < F; F < Q = S
Conclusions:
I. F ≤ B
II. Q < K
A) only I follows
B) only II follows
144. Statements: M < W W
II. A ≥ S
A) only I follows
B) only II follows

145. Statements: D < S V ≥ A ≥ S; A ≥ S; A ≥ O ≥ U
Conclusions:
I. V > U
II. S ≤ O
A) only I follows
B) only II follows
147. Statements: R > A ≥ X ≥ D; X ≥ D; X ≥ O ≥ Z
Conclusions:
I. Z = A
II. R > O
A) only I follows
B) only II follows
148. Statements: A > Z ≥ B ≤ M; B ≥ E < L
Conclusions:
I. A > E
II. M ≤ Z
A) only I follows
B) only II follows
149. Statements: Q > A ≥ M ≤ E; J ≥ E < S
Conclusions:
I. A ≥ S
II. S < Q
A) only I follows
B) only II follows
150. Statements: Q > S ≥ X < J = N ≤ A > V
Conclusions:
I. Q > N
II. S > J
A) only I follows
B) only II follows
Alphanumeric(151-170)
Directions (151-155): Study the following arrangement and answer questions
given:
H4R%MA#K2P5I©N3W@F&J1UV9QED78
151) If all the symbols are dropped from the arrangement, then which of the
following is the 6th letter to the right of the 15th letter from the right end?
A) N
B) J
C) E
D) 1

E) None of these
152) How many consonants are there in the arrangement each of which is
immediately followed by a letter?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) More than three
153) Complete the series: QEU V9J 1UF &JW ?
A) @N©
B) @FN
C) FNB
D) @WN
E) None of these
154) How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded
by a symbol?
A) None
B) One
C) Two

D) Three
E) More than three
155) Four of the five are alike in a certain way, which does not belong to the
group?
A) P52
B) QE9
C) MA#
D) ©NI
E) F&@

given:
648 483 295 333 261 ३१२
156) If the positions of first and second digits are changed in each number, which
is the lowest number?
A) 261
B) 312
C) 295
D) 648
E) 483
157) If in each number 1 is added to first digit and then first and third are
interchanged, then which is the largest number?
A) 312

B) 261
C) 295
D) 648
E) None of these
158) In all numbers are arranged in ascending order, then what is the difference
between the numbers which is third from the left and second from the right?
A) 186
B) 171
C) 165
D) 123
E) None of these
159) If one is subtracted from all even digits in the numbers, then in how many
numbers, a digit appear twice within a number?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) More than three
160) What is the resultant if first digit of second highest number is divided by the
second digit of the second lowest number?
A) 1.32
B) 0.94
C) 0.44
D) 2.00

E) 0.59

given:
B8C%S&EK4$92!VA6@TI8Z#U५
161) Which of the following is fifth to the right of eleventh from the right end of
the given series?
A) $
B) 4
C) 8
D) T
E) I
162) If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which number/letter will be
5th to the left of T?
A) V
B) 9
C) 2
D) 5
E) 4
163) How many symbols are in between 9 and U?
A) None

B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) More than three
164) How many numbers are immediately preceeded by a consonant and

immediately followed by a symbol?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) More than three
165) Four of the five below follows a certain pattern. Find which one does not
follow the pattern.
A) 92K
B) @TV
C) 8ZT
D) VA9
E) %SB

given:
C?TFL6$D%M#8R=B!K1&EW*PA+Q@7J2
166) How many such numbers are there in the above sequence, each of which is
immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol?
A) None
B) One
C) Three
D) Four
E) None of these
View Answer
167) Which of the following is sixth to the left of eighteenth element from the
left?
A) =
B) R
C) 1
D) 8
E) None of these
View Answer

168) If the above sequence is written in reverse order then which of the following
will be sixth to the right of sixteenth element from the right end?
A) M
B) E
C) B
D) *
E) None of these
View Answer
169) If the first fifteen elements in the above sequence are written in reverse
order, then which of the following wil be twenty-first from the right end?
A) 6
B) $
C) %
D) L
E) None of these
View Answer
170) What should come in place of question mark in the following on the basis of
above sequence?
?CF:J2@:LF$:Q@A:D$M:?
A) # M R
B) P A W
C) P * +
D) P A *
E) None of these
Coding – Decoding
Direction (171-175): Study the information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
In a certain code language,
“France Indonesia Kazakhstan Maldives” Is Written as

“G&10 L@18 N#14 J%16”
“Lebanon Greece Portugal Nigeria” Is Written as “ M@12 H&10

Q$14 O%12”
“Ukraine Nepal Philippines Colombia” Is Written as “D%14

Q#20 V&12 O$08”
“Lithuania Cyprus Senegal Uzbekistan” Is Written as “T$12

M%16 D#10 V@18”
171) What is the code for “India Romania“?
a) J%18 S%12
b) J%08 S@12
c) J%08 S%12

d) J%08 S%14
e) None of these
172) “L%18“ can be the code of which of the following?
a) Kazakhstan
b) Kyrgyzstan
c) Mauritania
d) Mongolia
e)None of these
173) What is the code for “Zimbabwe Cameroon“?
a) Y&14 D@14
b) A &12 D@14
c) A&14 D@12
d) A&14 D@14
e) Cannot be determined
174) What is the code for “Israel Jamaica“?
a) S$10 K@12
b) J$10 K%12
c) J$10 K%14
d) J&10 K%12

175) What is the code for “Liechtenstein”?
a) K@24
b) M@22
c) M&24
d) M@24
Direction (176-180): study the given information carefully and the answer the
following question below.
“You deserve the prize” is coded as “fo mo po no”
“They got the prize” is coded as “ to fo mo lo”
“They give clear Explanation” is coded as “lo xo bo so”
“I deserve an explanation” is coded as “ho ro xo po”
176) Which of the flowing is the code for “Clear”?
a) so
b) bo
c) xo
d) lo
e) Either (a) or (b)
177) How many distinct words code can be determined?
a) Six
b) Seven
c) Five
d) Eight
e) None of those given as option
178) Which of the following statements are used for find out the code for
“Prize”?
i) “Sheela won the prize” is written as “eo co mo fo”
ii) “Sheela is the most beautiful woman” – eoyo fo qo go ao”
iii) “She took first prize” – “ wo mo do uo”
a) Only (i)
b) Only (ii)
c) Only (i) and (ii)
d) Either (ii) or (iii)
e) None of the statement is sufficient
179) What can be the code for “an”?
a) lo
b) no
c) fo
d) mo
e) ro
180) Which of the following is the code for “You got prize clear”?
a) None of those given as option
b) to fo no mo
c) no to lo fo
d) to bo so no
e) to fo no bo
Directions (181-184): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
If
‘Generate pollution noise round’ is coded as ‘KYR PLG KRS TVM’
‘Street appeals generate protest’ is coded as ‘SDQ ZXA RVW PLG’
‘Manage noise level against’ is coded as ‘KRS CAE UPL VDQ’
‘Street round against heavy’ is coded as ‘TVM VDQ ZXA QSG’
181) What may be the code for ‘Heavy pollution level’?
A.CAE KRS QSG
B.ZXA RVW CAE
C.UPL KYR PLG
D.KYR QSG UPL
E.None of these
182) What is the code for ‘Noise generate against’?
A.VDQ KYR PLG
B.PLG VDQ KRS

C.RVW KRS UPL
D.VDQ SDQ TVM
E.None of these
183) Which of the following word represents the following code ‘ZXA RVW
SDQ’?
A.Protest round heavy
B.Appeal street against
C.Generate street appeal
D. Appeals protest street
E.None of these
184) Which of the following word may represent the following code ‘UPL TVM’?
A. Level against
B. appeal round
C. Manage round
D. pollution level
E. None of these
Directions (185-188): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
If
‘Leadership race expected to run’ is coded as ‘kj hu pl ew ac’
‘Community leadership union labours’ is coded as ‘ty gf qw hu’

‘Union expected labours revive’ is coded as ‘gf sd qw ac’
‘Labours to race support’ is coded as ‘fl pl ew gf’
185) What is the code for ‘revive support’?
A) pl sd
B) gf ac
C) qw fl
D) fl sd
E) None of these
186) Which of the following word represents the code ‘kj gf qw’?
A) leadership support to
B) expected race run
C) union leadership community
D) run union labours
E) None of these
187) What can be the code for ‘community expected race run’?
A) kj ac pl fl
B) kj ty ew ac
C) fl ac typl
D) kj ac ty qw
E) pl ty sd gf

188) What is the code for ‘to union support’, if the code for race is ‘ew’?
A) ew qw fl
B) gf pl hu
C) pl fl qw
D) pl qw sd
E) None of these
Direction (189-192): Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
“Cricket game hockey match” is coded as “mkl pxd ros wet”
“IPL Cricket score fans” is coded as “lpb rea mlv ros”
“Goal hockey match draw” is coded as “pxd mnh qwe wet”
“Revoke IPL team score” is coded as “lpb rea myc wqx”
189) What is the code for the word “IPL”?
A) lpb
B) rea
C) mlv
D) Cannot be determined
E) None of these
190) What is the code for the word “Hockey”?
A) pxd
B) wet
C) mlv
D) Either a or b
E) None of these
191) What is the code for the word “Cricket”?
A) myc
B) wqx
C) ros
D) mlv
E) None of these
192) What is the code for the word “Fans”?
A) mkl
B) pxd
C) wet
D) mlv
E) None of these
Direction (193-196): Study the following information carefully to answer the

given questions:
‘iron rusting black’ is coded as ‘ru ku bu’
‘black is brown’ is coded as ‘ni bu su’

‘rusting color brown ’ is coded as ‘lu ni ru’
‘red color iron suit’ is coded as ‘dr st ku lu’
Note: All the codes are in two letter format
193) What is the code for ‘red rusting’?
A) ru ni
B) dr ru
C) st ru
E) Either (b) or (c)
194) What is the code for ‘iron’?
A) bu
B) su
C) ku
D) lu
E) None of these
195)‘ni’ is denoted as____
A) is
B) rusting
C) black
D) brown

E) None of these
196) What is the code for ‘iron suit’?
A) ku dr
B) ku st
C) dr st
D) Either (a) or (b)
E) Cannot be determined
Direction (197-200): Study the following information to answer the given

questions:
If
‘Minor continue society shock’ is coded as ‘kl gkmrst’
‘Biggest challenge minor system’ is coded as ‘mrpthkrm’
‘Refuses shock biggest weapon’ is coded as ‘lm hknlgk’
‘Changes society remove shock’ is coded as ‘kl gkvnsv’
‘Weapon system changes claim’ is coded as ‘vnpt lm dn’
Note: All the codes are in two letter format
197) What is the code for ‘remove biggest claim’?
A) kldnhk
B) nl hkpt
C) dnvnsv
D) sv dnhk
E) None of these
198) What is the code for ‘challenge refuses shock’?
A) klrmnl
B) gkrmnl
C) vn lm nl
D) nl kl dn
E) None of these
199) Which of the word represents the following code ‘st kl’?
A) system claim
B) continue shock
C) continue society
D) refuses continue
E) None of these
200) What is the code for ‘refuses minor changes weapon’?
A) lm kl mrvn
B) sv rmnlst
C) lmdnmrvn
D) lmnlmrvn
E) None of these
Directions (201-205): In each of these questions a number series is given. In each

series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
201). 50 51 47 56 42 65 29
a. 51
b. 47
c. 56
d. 42
e. 65
202). 3 9 23 99 479 2881 20159
a. 9
b. 23
c. 99
d. 479
e. 2881
203). 7 4 6 9 20 52.5 160.5
1. 6
2. 4
3. 20
4. 9
5. 5
204). 1 3 6 11 20 39 70
a. 3
b. 39
c. 11
d. 20

e. 6
205). 2 13 27 113 561 3369 23581

a. 27
b. 13
c. 113
d. 561
e. 3369
206). 7 16 27 40 46
a. 7
b. 16
c. 27
d. 40
e. 46
207). 729 1331 2497 3375 4913
a. 729
b. 1331
c. 3375
d. 2497
e. 4913

208). 80 119 166 221 223

a. 80
b. 119
c. 166
d. 192
e. 223
209). 8 8.5 11.5 14 17
a. 8
b. 8.5
c. 11.5
d. 14
e. 17
210). 439 778 1456 2812 5624
a. 439
b. 778
c. 1456
d. 2812
e. 5624
211). 17, 36, 132, 635, 3500, 21750, 153762


a. 635
b. 17
c. 132
d. 3500
e. 36
212). 17, 20, 46, 147, 599, 3015, 18018
a. 20
b. 46
c. 599
d. 147
e. 3015
213). 90, 135, 286, 750, 2160, 6405, 19155
a. 90
b. 750
c. 6405
d. 286
e. 2160
214). 9, 14, 40, 129, 536, 2705, 16260
a. 14

b. 40
c. 536
d. 9
e. 129
215). 8, 18, 64, 272, 1395, 8424, 59045

a. 18
b. 8
c. 272
d. 1395
e. 64
216). 32, 39, 65, 128, 253, 467, 809, 1320
a. 39
b. 65
c. 253
d. 467
e. 32
217). 38, 49, 62, 72, 77, 91, 101
a. 49
b. 72
c. 77

d. 91
e. 38
218).19, 22, 32, 46, 73, 108, 158

a. 22
b. 46
c. 73
d. 19
e. 158
219). 47, 44, 45, 46, 33, 57, 3, 88
a. 44
b. 57
c. 46
d. 3
e. 47
220). 45, 131, 228, 338, 466, 619, 800
a. 131
b. 466
c. 619
d. 45
e. 800
221). 1, 8, 66, 460, 2758, 13785, 55146
a. 460
b. 2758
c. 66
d. 8
e. 55146
222). 56, 57, 48, 73, 24, 105, -10

a. 57
b. 73
c. 105
d. -10
e. 24
223). 2, 2, 13, 59, 363, 2519, 20161
a. 13
b. 20161
c. 2519
d. 59
e. 363
224). 3, 1, 3, 0.7, 3, 0.6, 3, 0.5, 3

a. 1
b. 7
c. 6
d. 3
e. 5
225). 2, 6, 13, 26, 54, 100, 197
a. 26
b. 100
c. 54
d. 197
e. 13
226. While filling his age in a form, a student mistakenly filled his age 10% less
than his actual age. To correct the age in the form, by how much percent he will
have to increase his age, if his actual age is 15 years?
A) 12 2/3%
B) 11 1/9%
C) 16 1/5%
D) 16 2/3%
E) 10 2/5%
227) Veena, Shweta and Charu started a business by investing Rs 2000, Rs

2500 and Rs 3000 respectively. After 8 months from start of business, due to
some problem all of them withdrew Rs 500 for next 2 months. If after this they
reinvest the withdrawn amount, then what is the share of Shweta out of a total
profit of Rs 66,000 after a year?
A) Rs 20,900
B) Rs 33,700
C) Rs 22,000
D) Rs 37,000
E) Rs 23,500

228) A certain sum of money amounts to Rs 1320 in 2 yrs and to Rs 1410 in 3.5
yrs. Find the sum and the rate of interest.
A) Rs 1360, 9%
B) Rs 1400, 5%
C) Rs 1220, 6%
D) Rs 1200, 5%
E) Rs 1100, 5%
229) A bag contains 3 red balls, 5 white balls and 4 green balls. 3 balls are
drawn at random. What is the probability that at least 1 ball is white in color?
A) 21/22
B) 27/44
C) 18/33
D) 37/44
E) None of these
230) Bhavna’s age 8 years ago was four more than Anjali’s age that time. If the
ratio of Bhavna’s age 8 years hence to Anjali’s age 8 years hence will be 7 : 6,
what will be the ratio of Anjali’s age 4 years hence to Bhavna’s age that time
A) 2 : 5
B) 3 : 4
C) 5 : 7
D) 6 : 5
E) 5 : 6
231) The speed of the stream is 5 km/hr and speed of the boat in still water is 9
km/hr. if a boat takes 55 hrs to travel downstream from point A to B and coming
back to point C midway between A and B, the what is the total distance
travelled by the boat?
A) 280 km
B) 320 km
C) 420 km
D) 380 km
E) 450 km
232) Cylindrical vessel A having radius 7 cm ad height 10 cm contains water.

Another cylindrical vessel B having radius 14 cm ad height 12 cm contains
milk. Half of the water and half of the milk from both vessels is taken out and
mixed in another vessel. Find the % of water (approximate) in the third vessel?

A) 22%
B) 12%
C) 17%
D) 18%
E) 15%
233) Raman starts driving from city A with speed 60 km/hr. After 2 hours Ravish
starts driving from the same place with speed 75 km/hr. Find the distance from
city A they have covered when they meet.
A) 480 km
B) 800 km
C) 600 km
D) 570 km
E) None of these
234) A bag contains 50 paise, Re 1, and Rs 2 coins in the ratio 2 : 5 : 7

respectively. If the total value of money in bag is Rs 200, what is the total
number of coins in the bag?
A) 100
B) 140
C) 120
D) 85
E) 125
235) A is 25% more efficient than B. If A can complete a work in 20 days, then in
how many days A and B together can complete twice the work?
A) 23 1/3 days
B) 22 2/9 days
C) 26 2/7 days
D) 20 1/4 days
E) 22 2/5 days
236) How many words can be made out of the letters of the word HEADING
such that all vowels occur together?
A) 120
B) 144
C) 124
D) 136
E) 720

237) 2 persons same at same time from point A and reach point B at 6 PM and 9
PM respectively. The average speed of one is 25 km/hr and that of another is 15
km/hr respectively. What should be there average speed (approximate) such
that both reach at 8 PM?
A) 15 km/hr
B) 20 km/hr
C) 17 km/hr
D) 16 km/hr
E) 18 km/hr
238) Rekha’s age is 4 years less than that of Sheetal who age is 8 years less
than Ravina. If seven years hence, the ratio of ages of Ravina to Rekha will be
13 : 7, then find the present age of Sheetal.
A) 11 years
B) 10 years
C) 15 years
D) 18 years
E) 13 years
239) A bag contains 7 red balls and 5 white balls. 2 balls are drawn at random.
What is the probability that both balls are red in color?
A) 2/33
B) 7/44
C) 8/33
D) 7/22
E) None of these
240) The incomes of 2 persons A and B is in the ratio 2 : 3. Their expenditures

are in the ratio 1 : 2 respectively. If both save Rs 13,000, then what is B’s
income?
A) Rs 39000
B) Rs 26000
C) Rs 29000
D) Rs 32000
E) Rs 48000
241) A man buys 30 articles at the marked price of 24 articles. If he sells the
articles by giving 2% discount, what will be the overall profit% made?
A) 25.5%

B) 22.5%
C) 20.5%
D) 18.5%
E) 23.5%
242) 25 men can complete a work in 40 days. They start the work, but because
of some reason only one-third work could be completed after 24 days. How
many extra men should join them in order to complete the work in 36 days?
A) 75
B) 82
C) 87
D) 58
E) 65
243) If an item is sold at 3/5th of its actual selling price, the profit made is 20%.
Now if the same item is sold at 25% less than the actual selling price, what will
be the profit%/loss%?
A) 48%
B) 52%
C) 45%
D) 53%
E) 50%
244) A solution contains ingredients P, Q, and R in the ratio 2 : 3 : 1 and another

solution contains them in the ratio 1 : 3 : 4 respectively. If both solutions are
mixed in the ratio 5 : 6. What is the percentage (approximate) of C in the final
solution?
A) 10%
B) 40%
C) 20%
D) 35%
E) 25%

245) The total population of a town is 1,20,000. It has 70% males and rest
females. If 85% of males and 50% of females are literate, then what is the total
number of illiterates in the town?
A) 32800
B) 12600
C) 23400
D) 30600
E) 20100
246) Seven men and three boys can together do four times as much work as
one man and one boy can do. Find the ratio of working capacity of one man to
one boy.
A) 3 : 1
B) 2 : 1
C) 3 : 2
D) 4 : 3
E) 4 : 1
247) A work which can be completed by 24 men in 15 days, can also be

completed by 30 women in 16 days. 10 men and 10 women start working and
work for 16 days. How many more men are required to work to complete the
remaining work in 1 day?
A) 80
B) 72
C) 75
D) 56
E) 68
248) There are two containers filled with milk and water mixture. Capacity of
containers is 18 litres and 12 litres respectively. They contain 35% water and
25% water respectively. If equal quantities from both the containers is mixed,
then what will be the percentage of water in final mixture?
A) 11%
B) 30%
C) 15%
D) 28%
E) 22%
249) A solution contains milk and water in the ratio 3 : 1. 16 litres of the solution
is drawn and 11 litres of water is added. If the final ratio of milk to water in the
solution is 3 : 2, find the initial quantity of the solution.
A) 65 l

B) 54 l
C) 45 l
D) 60 l
E) None of these
250) A and B invested Rs 5850 and Rs 6840. After 3 months, A added Rs 1650
and B withdrew Rs 840. If after a year, a total of Rs 41,800 is gained, what is the
difference in the shares in the profit?
A) Rs 1900
B) Rs 2600
C) Rs 2500
D) Rs 1200
E) Rs 1800
251) Ratio of age of A three years hence to age of B 5 years hence will be 4 : 5.
C’s age 7 years ago is two-thirds of A’s age 9 years hence. Also, the average
age of B and C is 26. Find the age of B.
A) 25.5%
B) 22.5%
C) 20.5%
D) 18.5%
E) 23.5%
252) Out of his monthly salary, Suhana spent 25% for her shopping of which
she spent 80% in her food items. From the remaining salary, she spent two-
eleventh on repair of furniture. If she saves Rs 14,400, what is her annual
salary?
A) Rs 5,34,000
B) Rs 4,80,000
C) Rs 4,46,000
D) Rs 3,25,000
E) Rs 3,84,000
253) A rectangle has its length and breadth in the ratio 4 : 5. If the dimensions
of the rectangle are each increased by 5 m and area of rectangle thus formed is
340 m2, then what is the perimeter of the original rectangle?
A) 43 m
B) 36 m
C) 51 m
D) 54 m

E) 63 m
254) There are n students in a class whose average weight is x kg. If 2 more
students having total weight 50 kg are also counted for average, the average
gets increased by 1. If 3 more students having total weight 67 kg are also
counted for average, then also the average gets increased by 1. Find the initial
number of students in class.
A) 18
B) 17
C) 16
D) 15
E) 19
255) The speed of boat is 11 km/hr and speed of stream is 6 km/hr. In how
much time can the 85 km distance going downstream from point A to B and
coming back can be completed?
A) 18 hrs
B) 22 hrs
C) 20 hrs
D) 10 hrs
E) 15 hrs
256) Population of a town which increases each year by same percentage is

8,75,000. Before one year the population was 7,00,000. Find the population of
town 3 years ago.
A) 456000
B) 342000
C) 483000
D) 324000
E) 448000
257) A shopkeeper bought rice at the rate of 6 Rs/kg. While selling he uses
false weights of 800 gms instead of 1 kg. If he sells rice making a profit of 66
2/3%, then he sold rice at what rate (per kg)?
A) Rs 8
B) Rs 5
C) Rs 10
D) Rs 12
E) Rs 14

258) After A and B worked together for 6 days, 7/12 of the work is remaining to
be completed by them. If B alone can do 1/9 of work in 4 days, then how much
work would be left if A alone works for 6 days?
A) 1/4
B) 2/5
C) 3/4
D) 4/5
E) 3/7
259) In a class there are 16 students in a group. If two more students are taken
into consideration then the average of the age of group increases by 1. If four
more students are taken into consideration then the average of the age of
group decreases by 1. If there is a difference of 4 years in the total ages of
students added both time, find the average of first 16 students in the group.
A) 11
B) 21
C) 15
D) 13
E) 17
260) Ratio of ages of B to A is 3 : 2 and also ratio of ages of C to B is 3 : 4. If the

average of their ages is 29 years, find ratio of age of A 6 years hence to age of
B 4 years hence.
A) 4 : 9
B) 7 : 10
C) 4 : 7
D) 3 : 4
E) 2 : 5
261) A and B invested some money in business for different duration. A

invested Rs 2700 for 8 months and then increased his investment by Rs 600 for
rest months. B invested Rs 2400 for 6 months and then increased his
investment by Rs 800 for rest months. After a year they got a profit of Rs
15,960. B was a working partner and got some extra money from the profit. If he
got a total of Rs 8710, then what is the extra money that A got?
A) Rs 1710
B) Rs 2920
C) Rs 1740
D) Rs 2510
E) Rs 1280

262) The speed of boat A is 3 km/hr less than the speed of boat B. The time
taken by boat A to travel a distance of 18 km downstream is 1 hour more than
time taken by B to travel the same distance downstream. If the speed of the
current is half of the speed of boat A, what is the speed of boat B?
A) 10 km/kr
B) 6 km/kr
C) 9 km/kr
D) 4 km/kr
E) 12 km/kr
263) P and Q start at the same point on a circular track with speeds 18 km/hr
and 27 km/hr respectively in opposite directions. If the circular track is 700 m
long, then after how much time both mill meet again?
A) 43 sec
B) 25 sec
C) 31 sec
D) 44 sec
E) 13 sec
264) An article is marked 15% above the cost price with marked price being Rs
138. The profit gets increased by Rs 25.2, when the selling price of this article
is increased by 20%. What is the original selling price of the article?
A) Rs 168
B) Rs 156
C) Rs 126
D) Rs 134
E) Rs 194
265) In how many ways all the letters of the word ‘EDITING’ can be arranged?
A) 2520
B) 1420
C) 2340
D) 3480
E) 1320
266) A bag contains 50 paise, Re 1 and Rs 2 coins in the ratio 8 : 5 : 3
respectively. If the total value of money in bag is Rs 150, what is the total
number of coins in the bag?
A) 165
B) 175
C) 150

D) 170
E) None of these
267) A boat takes 20 minutes more to travel 10 km upstream than to travel same
distance downstream. If the speed of stream is 4 km/hr, find the downstream
speed.
A) 16 km/hr
B) 18 km/hr
C) 20 km/hr
D) 24 km/hr
E) 25 km/hr
268) A person invests Rs 5800 in two schemes in such a way that he after 5
years and 4 years, he gets the same interest on respective parts. If the schemes
offer 12% and 14% rate of interest respectively, what is the amount invested at
12% rate of interest?
A) Rs 2200
B) Rs 2800
C) Rs 3600
D) Rs 3000
E) Rs 3200
269) A trader bought an article at a discount of 10%. Then he sold the same
article at 20% above the marked price of that article. What is the actual profit
percent made by trader in this transaction?
A) 16 2/3%
B) 22%
C) 31%
D) 24 1/2%
E) 33 1/3%
270) The length and breadth of a rectangular park is 125m and 20m
respectively. In the middle of the park is a circular lawn. If the area of
rectangular park leaving the circular lawn is 1114 m2, what is the
circumference of the circular lawn?
A) 132 m
B) 120 m
C) 176 m
D) 140 m
E) 152 m
271) There are two mixtures such that they contain 60% milk and 80% milk
respectively. Some amount from first mixture is mixed with thrice the same
amount of second mixture. Find the percentage of milk in the resultant
mixture?

A) 90%
B) 75%
C) 84%
D) 80%
E) 78%
272) An amount invested compounded annually becomes Rs 4680 in 2 years
and Rs 5616 in 3 years. What was the amount of money invested?
A) Rs 3450
B) Rs 3000
C) Rs 3250
D) Rs 4100
E) Rs 3500
273) The train can cover a total distance of 1200 km from station A to station B
and back to station A in a total of 19 hours. After reaching station B, the train
halted for 1 hour. If the average speed of train from stations A to B is 25% more
than that from station B to A, what is the speed of train from station A to station
B?
A) 50 km/hr
B) 80 km/hr
C) 60 km/hr
D) 75 km/hr
E) None of these
274) A train started from point P at a speed of 50 km/hr. After 1 hour another
train of same length started from point P at a speed of 60 km/hr in the same
direction as the first one. After how much time the second train will meet the
first train?
A) 6 hours
B) 5 hours
C) 5.5 hours
D) 360
E) 320
275) Two balls are drawn from an urn containing 6 red and 5 white balls one by
one with replacement. What is the probability that both balls are different in
color?
A) 59/157
B) 23/135
C) 30/121
D) 60/121
E) None of these

Simplification/ Approximation
276).2×(4/6) + 3×(6/7)+ 4×(5/7)+ 3×(2/3) = ?
a) 13×(3/7)
b) 14×(19/21)
c) 15×(19/21)
d) 14×(9/21)
e) None of these
277).22% of 365 – 36% of 465 = ?

a) 87
b) 87.1
c) -87.1
d) -77.1
e) None of these
278).?% of 460 – 34% of 356 = 456

a) 110.5
b) 123.4
c) 120.4
d) 125.4
e) None of these
279).82% of 285 + ?% of 456 = 845

a) 134.06
b) 135.06
c) 125.06
d) 124.06
e) None of these
280).√(729×81) + (19)2+ 11 = ?
a) 651
b) 615
c) 515
d) 551
e) None of these
281).(0.027)2÷ (0.09)5× (0.0081) = (0.3)?+4

a) 3
b) 4
c) -4
d) -3
e) None of these
282).(2.25)2 ÷ (3.375)4× (1.5)5 = (1.5)?-7

a) -3
b) -4
c) 3
d) 4
e) None of these
283).(√125.44×85÷8) – 11 = (?)2 ÷ 3
a) 12
b) 16
c) 28
d) 17
e) 18
284).67% of √676 ÷ 0.01 = ? + 577

a) 1165
b) 1156
c) 1651
d) 1166
e) None of these
285).√(122 × 24 ÷ 5 – 63 + 149.8) = (?)2

a) 25
b) 5
c) 625
d) 15
e) 17

286).48% of 4800 + 24% of 1260 =?

a) 2606.66
b) 2556.65
c) 2566.56
d) 2286
e) None of these
287).4572 × 195 − 765432 = ? + 65126

a) 50432
b) 55242
c) 60982
d) 71532
e) None of these
288).(38/85) x (255/114) ÷ (19/5) + (14/19) = ?

a) 7/14
b) 17/15
c) 1
d) 8/15
e) None of these
289).6241 + 3284 + 1923 + 2187 + 3268 + 3147 =?

a) 21040
b) 20050
c) 21150
d) 22150
e) None of these
290).(5)³ – (3.75)³ – (1.25)³– 3(3.75) (6.25) = ?

a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) -2.5
e) None of these
291).4571 × 72 = ? × 18 + 3621 × 36
a) 8020
b) 10000
c) 11042
d) 11054
e) None of these
292).7/11 of 6908 − 4/9 of 7704 = ? × 72

a) 9.33
b) 13.5
c) 17
d) 21.5
e) None of these
293).(1/3) of (5/7) of (5/11) of ? = 325

a) 3003
b) 3030
c) 3300
d) 3001
e) None of these
294).20 % 650 + 150 % ? = 2005

a) 1254
b) 1253
c) 1251
d) 1250
e) 1255
295).11.001 × ? × 25.875 = 678543

a) 2380
b) 2381
c) 2382
d) 2383
e) 2384
296).25.675% of 1321 + 64.328% of 4001= ___?__

a) 2912
b) 3016

c) 3126
d) 3254
e) 3348
297).64.66 ÷ 11.31 × 5.25 = ___?__

a) 30
b) 35
c) 39
d) 42
e) 45
298). 8.94% of 540 – 9.2% of 324 = ?

a) 32
b) 34
c) 37
d) 44
e) 41
299).√224 x 12.05 + ³√342 x 4 = ?

a) 218
b) 168
c) 208
d) 226
e) 145
300).(6791 + 5438 + 4624) ÷ (67 + 53 + 49) = ?

a) 86
b) 90
c) 100
d) 120
e) 140
301).(679.99 ÷ 17.01 + 564.01 ÷ 46.99) = ?

a) 48
b) 52
c) 58
d) 62
e) 74
302).1599.23 ÷39.26 × 288.99 – 345.82 + 423.56 = ?

a) 15667
b) 11927
c) 12579
d) 10674
e) 13897
303). 89.988% of 699.9 + 50.002% of 999.99 – 170.015 = ?

a) 950
b) 930
c) 960
d) 970
e) 980
304). 6999 ÷ 70.005 x 94.998 = ? x 19.999

a) 475
b) 380
c) 640
d) 720
e) 575
305). 43931.03 ÷ 2011.02 x 401.04 = ?

a) 7500
b) 8300
c) 8800
d) 8850
e) 8890
306). 619.002 – 134.99 ÷ 14.998—(9.01)2=?

a) 720
b) 530
c) 650
d) 690
e) 490

307). 439.97 ÷ 15 .02 + 208.08 ÷ 8.01 — 16.01 =?

a) 120
b) 60
c) 100
d) 80
e) 40
308). 4? × √226 =245.998 ÷ 8.001 + 929.99

a) 4
b) 5
c) 2
d) 3
e) 1
309). ?%of(140.06 x 7.99 — 679.92) = 330.01

a) 70
b) 90
c) 80
d) 50
e) None of these
310). 40% of 859 + 86.01 ÷ 7.99 = ?

a) 398
b) 286
c) 412
d) 215
e) 355
Directions (Q. 311 – 315): In the following questions, two equations I and II are
given. You have to solve both the equations and give Answer as,
a) If x > y
b) If x ≥ y
c) If x < y
d) If x ≤ y
e) If x = y or the relation cannot be established
311) I) x2 – 3x – 28 = 0
II) y2 – y – 72 = 0
312) I) 3x2 + 19x + 28 = 0
II) 2y2 + 13y + 21 = 0
313) I) 2x – 3y = -6
II) 3x + 4y = 25
314) I) 12x2– 37x + 21 = 0
II) 15y2 + 54y + 27 = 0
315) I) x2 + 3√7 x – 70 = 0
II) y2 + 2√3 y – 105 = 0
Direction (316-320): Following question contains two equations as I and II. You
have to solve both equations and determine the relationship between them and
give answer as,
a) If x > y
b) If x ≥ y
c) If x = y or relationship can’t be determined.

d) If x < y
e) If x ≤ y
316)
I) x2+ 2x – 195 = 0
II)y2+ y – 182 = 0
317)
I)x2– 25x + 136 = 0
II)y2– y – 56 = 0
318)
I) 2x2+ 16x + 30 = 0
II)y2+ 6y + 8 = 0
319)
I)x2+ 5x + 6 = 0
II)y2– 2y + 1 = 0
320)
I) x2– 11x + 30 = 0
II)y2– 21y + 90 = 0
Direction (321-325): In the following questions, two equations I and II are given.
You have to solve both the equations and give Answer as,
a) If x > y

b) If x ≥ y
c) If x < y
d) If x ≤ y
e) If x = y or the relation cannot be established
321)
I) 2x2– 3x – 44 = 0
II) 3y2– 20y + 25 = 0
322)
I) 3x – 2y = 2
II) 5x – 4y = 0
323)
I) x2+ 7x – 78 = 0
II) y2+ 27y + 182 = 0
324)
I) 2x2– 10x – 48 = 0
II) y2+ 9y + 20 = 0
325)
I) x = ∜65536 % of 450 – 122+ 80
II) y3= 1728
Directions (Q. 326 – 330): In each of these questions two equations (I) and (II)
are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer as,

326)
I) x = √676 ÷ ∛2197
II) y2= 4
A) If x > y
B) If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y
C) If x < y
D) If x ≤ y
E) If x ≥ y
327)
I) 2x – 3y = -1
II)3x + 2y = -21
A) If x > y
B) If x ≥ y
C) If x < y
D) If x ≤ y
E) If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y
328)
I) x2– 4x – 21 = 0
II)y2– 8y +16 = 0
A) If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y

B) If x ≥ y
C) If x < y
D) If x ≤ y
E) If x > y
329)
I) x2+ 520 = 641
II)y = -√144
A) If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y
B) If x ≥ y
C) If x < y
D) If x ≤ y
E) If x > y
330)
I) 2x2+ 13x + 21 = 0
II)3y2+ 4y – 15 = 0
A) If x > y
B) If x ≥ y
C) If x < y
D) If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y
E) If x ≤ y

Data interpretation (331- 400)

Direction (331-335): Study the following information carefully and answer the
The given pie graph shows the number of mobiles in five different
companies- Nokia, Samsung, Apple, Sony and Vivo.
331) If 70% of the Nokia mobile is sold, find the number of unsold Nokia mobile?
A) 218
B) 267
C) 276
D) 288
E) None of these

332) The number of Samsung mobile is what percent of the number of Sony
mobile?
A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 70%
E) None of these
333) What is the average number of Apple, Sony and Vivo mobiles together?
A) 1040
B) 1103
C) 1085
D) 1125
E) None of these
334) What is the ratio of the number of Nokia and Vivo mobile together to the
number of apple mobile?
A) 2:1
B) 3:2
C) 4:3
D) 5:4
E) None of these

335) Ratio of the number of boys to girls in the class A is 4: 5 and the ratio of the
number of boys to girls in class B is 3: 2. What is the ratio of the boys to girls in
the school (both class A and B)?
A) 3: 2
B) 4: 1
C) 5: 3
E) None of these
Directions (Q. 336 – 340): Study the following information carefully and answer
the given questions:
The following pie chart shows the total number of passengers in 5

different trains (A, B, C, D and E).
336) Find the difference between the total number of passengers in train A and C
together to that of the train B and D together?
a) 372
b) 448
c) 512
d) 396
e) None of these
337) Find the average number of passengers in train C, D and E together?
a) 1120
b) 980
c) 756
d) 1042
e) None of these
338) Total number of passengers in train E is what percentage of the total

number of passengers in train C?
a) 46 %
b) 54 %
c) 32 %
d) 28 %
e) None of these
339) If the cost of AC ticket in train E is Rs. 500 and the ratio of passengers in
AC, Sleeper class and Unreserved category in train E is 3: 3 :2, then find the total
cost paid by the AC class passengers in train E?
a) Rs. 91000
b) Rs. 80500
c) Rs. 75500
d) Rs. 84000
e) None of these
340) If the ratio of men, women and children in train C is 3: 2: 2, then find the
total number of men in train C?
a) 450
b) 600
c) 520
d) 560
e) None of these
The following table shows the principle amount invested by 6

different persons in 3 different schemes of a finance using simple
interest. Some values are missing here

341) Find the difference between the total interest earned by Rajesh in Scheme
M to that of total interest earned by Ranveer in Scheme O, at the rate of 8 % per
annum after 2 years, if the ratio of the amount invested by Rajesh in scheme M
to that of the amount invested by Rahul in Scheme N is 5 : 7 and the amount
invested by Ranveer in Scheme O is 20 % more than the amount invested by him
in scheme N?
a) Rs. 5820
b) Rs. 5380
c) Rs. 5560
d) Rs. 4640
e) None of these
342) Find the total amount invested by Ravi in Scheme N, if the total simple
interest earned by Ravi in all the given schemes after 3 years at the rate of 6 %
per annum is Rs. 22680?
a) Rs. 56000
b) Rs. 48000
c) Rs. 65000
d) Rs. 44000
e) None of these
343) Total amount invested by Ragu in Scheme M and O together is Rs. 76000
and the rate of interest offers for Scheme M and O is 10 % and 12 % respectively
for the period of 4 years. If the interest earned by Ragu in Scheme M is Rs. 8320
less than the interest earned by him in Scheme O, then find the total amount
invested by Ragu in Scheme O?
a) Rs. 40000
b) Rs. 48000
c) Rs. 44000
d) Rs. 52000
e) None of these
344) Find the ratio between the simple interest earned by Ramesh in Scheme N to
that of the simple interest earned by Rahul in the same Scheme after 3 years at
the rate of 8 % per annum, if the total amount received by Ramesh in Scheme N
after 2 years at the rate of 5 % per annum, using compound interest is Rs.
41895?
a) 38: 35
b) 23: 17
c) 19: 28
d) 33: 37
e) None of these
345) Find the difference between the average amount invested by Ravi, Rahul
and Ragu in Scheme M to that of the average amount invested by Ravi, Rahul
and Ramesh in Scheme O, if the amount invested by Ragu in Scheme M is 6000
more than the amount invested by him in Scheme N and the amount invested by
Rahul in Scheme O is Rs. 62000?
a) Rs. 25000
b) Rs. 22000
c) Rs. 23000
d) Rs. 24000
e) None of these

Directions (346 – 350): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:
Following table shows the total population in 5 different cities and

the percentage of population below poverty line and the ratio of
male and female in the total population.
Total population
City
% of below poverty line Male : Female
(In lakhs)
A 75 36 % 3:2
B 40 42 % 5:3
C 30 44 % 2:3
D 60 26 % 1:1
E 55 30 % 5:6
346) Find the difference between the population of above poverty line of City B
to that of city D?
a) 25.8 lakhs
b) 21.2 lakhs
c) 28.4 lakhs
d) 33.6 lakhs
e) None of these
347) Total population of city A and E together is what percentage more than the
total population of city B and D together?
a) 40 %
b) 55 %

c) 30 %
d) 60 %
e) None of these
348) Find the ratio between the total male population in city B and C together to
that of total female population in city A and C together?
a) 37 : 48
b) 42 : 53
c) 29 : 35
d) 41 : 49
e) None of these
349) Find the average number of female population in city A, B and E together?
a) 40
b) 30
c) 15
d) 25
e) None of these
350) Find the sum of the total population of below poverty line in city D and E
together?
a) 32.1 lakhs
b) 37.8 lakhs
c) 42.5 lakhs

d) 47.3 lakhs
e) None of these
Direction (351-355): Study the following information carefully and

answer the questions given below.
A company has 4 different departments – IT, Sales, HR and

Finance. The number of female employees from IT department is
800 and the ratio of the number of male to female employees from
HR department is 3: 2. The number of female employees from IT
department is 80 less than the number of male employees from
Finance department. The number of female employees from IT
department is 160 less than the number of male employees from
HR department. Ratio of the number of male to female employees
from Finance department is 2: 3 and the total number of male
employees from all the departments together is 800 more than of
the total number of female employees from all the departments
together. The ratio of the number of male to female employees from
IT department is 2: 1 and the number of female employees from
Sales department is 480.
351) What is the difference between the total number of employees from
Finance and HR department?
A) 400
B) 500
C) 600
D) 700
E) None of these
352) If 60% of the male employees from IT departments are transferred

to Sales department and 55% of the female employees from sales
department are transferred to IT department, then what is the ratio of the

total number of employees from IT and Sales department together?
A) 67: 79
B) 69: 71
C) 71: 74
D) 73: 75
E) None of these
353) What is average number of employees from all the departments

together?
A) 1640
B) 1820
C) 2050
D) 2280
E) None of these
354) If 20% of the number of male employees from Finance department

is resign their jobs and then 20% of the female employees transferred to
other department, then what is the total employees of the finance
department?
A) 1680
B) 1730
C) 1760

D) 1790
E) None of these
355) What is the difference between total number of male and female
employees from all the departments together?
A) 600
B) 700
C) 800
D) 500
E) None of these
Data Interpretation
Direction (356-360): Study the following information carefully and

The given pie graph shows the number of students in six different
colleges.

Exam fee for boys and girls is Rs.80 and Rs.50 respectively.
The given table shows the ratio of boys and girls in different
colleges.
356) What is the difference between the total exam fees collected from A
and C?
A) Rs.13500

B) Rs.14800
C) Rs.15600
D) Rs.16200
E) None of these
357) Which of the following statements is correct according to the given

information?
A) Total fee collected from boys in A is equal to Total fee collected

from girls in D
B) Total fee collected from boys in B is equal to Total fee collected

from girls in E
C) Total fee collected from boys in C is equal to Total fee collected

from girls in B
D) Total fee collected from boys in F is equal to Total fee collected

from girls in C
E) Total fee collected from boys in D is equal to Total fee collected

from girls in F
358) What is the total number of boys from all the colleges together?
A) 8410
B) 5060
C) 8450
D) 5470

E) 5400
359) What is the difference between the total fees collected from boys
and girls in all the colleges together?
A) Rs.227800
B) Rs.237800
C) Rs.247800
D) Rs.257800
E) None of these
360) Number of girls from E is what percent of the total number of

students from B?
A) 32.5%
B) 35%
C) 37.5%
D) 42.5%
E) None of these
Directions (Q. 361 – 365): Study the following information carefully and
answer the given questions?
The following pie chart shows the total production of bikes of 5

different companies and the table shows the total number of model
1 and model 2 bikes produced by them and the percentage
distribution of bikes sold by them.
361) Find the difference between the total production of model 1 bikes in
company P, R and T together to that of total production of model 2 bikes
in company Q, S and T together?
a) 4000
b) 3600
c) 3900
d) 4200
e) None of these
362) Find the total number of model 1 bikes sold by company P, Q and R
together?
a) 24410
b) 25680
c) 23850
d) 26540
e) None of these
363) Find the ratio between the total number of bikes produced by
company P, R and S together to that of total number of model 2 bikes
produced by company S and T together?
a) 54: 19
b) 45: 23
c) 72: 35
d) 62: 17
e) None of these
364) Total number of model 2 bikes sold by company P and R together is

approximately what percentage of total number of model 1 bikes
produced by company Q and R together?
a) 108 %

b) 92 %
c) 80 %
d) 65 %
e) 120 %
365) Find the difference between the average number of model 1 bikes
sold by company Q and T together to that of the average number of
model 1 bikes sold by company S and T together?
a) 2170
b) 2356
c) 1866
d) 2412
e) None of these
Direction (366 – 370): Read the following information carefully and

answers the following questions. The table below shows number of
pens produced and sold by three different companies and the given
years:

366) If the total number of pens sold by company M and N in the year
2007 is 400 and the number of pens sold by company N in 2008 is 200
more than pens sold by the same company in 2007 then find the number
of pens produced by company N in 2008?
a) 200
b) 400
c) 855
d) 305
e) 350
367) If the ratio of the number of pens sold by company M in 2009 to that
in 2010 is 8:9 then find the approximate percentage of pens were sold by
company M in 2010?
a) 18
b) 12

c) 25
d) 30
e) 35
368) If company O produced ‘x’ number of pens in 2007 and ‘x+ 200’
number of pens in 2009 and the total number of pens sold by company
O in these years is 630 then find how many pens were sold in 2009?
a) 200
b) 250
c) 480
d) 300
e) 350
369) Company N produced 900 pens in 2010 and the number of pens
sold by the same company in 2007 is 10 % more than number of pens
sold by the company in 2010 then find number of pens produced by the
same company in 2008 if the number of pens sold by company N in 2007
and 2008 is in the ratio of 9:8?
a) 200
b) 400
c) 100
d) 660
e) 350

370) If the average number of pens sold by company M in 2006, 2007 and
2008 is 200 then find the production of company M in 2008 is what
percentage of the production of company N in 2009?
a) 100 %
b) 80 %
c) 75 %
d) 65 %
e) 55 %
Directions (Q. 371 – 375) Study the following information carefully and
answer the given questions:
The following pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total

number of two company data cards (In lakhs) sold by the shop
keeper in six different months and the table shows the ratio of BSNL
and Toshiba company data cards sold by the shopkeeper in the

given months in a certain state.
371) Find the difference between the total number of BSNL data cards
sold in the month of Jan and Feb together to that of total number of data
cards sold in the month of Apr?
a) 24000
b) 26000

c) 18500
d) 22500
e) None of these
372) Find the ratio between the total number of BSNL data cards sold in
the month of Mar to that of total number of Toshiba data cards sold in
the month of June?
a) 5 : 9
b) 6 : 11
c) 7 : 12
d) 4 : 7
e) None of these
373) Find the average number of Toshiba data cards sold in the month of
Jan, Mar and May together?
a) 64500
b) 72000
c) 68500
d) 74000
e) None of these
374) Total number of Toshiba data cards sold in the month of Feb and
Apr together is what percentage more/less than the total number of data
cards sold in the month of May?

a) 18.92 % more
b) 14.28 % less
c) 15.36 % more
d) 13.12 % less
e) None of these
375) Find the difference between the average number of data cards sold
in the month of Feb and June together to that of the average number of
BSNL data cards sold in the month of Apr and May together?
a) 52000
b) 58500
c) 64500
d) 48000
e) None of these

The following pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total

number of two company data cards (In lakhs) sold by the shop
keeper in six different months and the table shows the ratio of BSNL
and Toshiba company data cards sold by the shopkeeper in the
given months in a certain state.
376) Find the difference between the total number of BSNL data cards
sold in the month of Jan and Feb together to that of total number of data
cards sold in the month of Apr?
a) 24000
b) 26000
c) 18500
d) 22500

e) None of these

377) Find the ratio between the total number of BSNL data cards sold in
the month of Mar to that of total number of Toshiba data cards sold in
the month of June?
a) 5 : 9
b) 6 : 11
c) 7 : 12
d) 4 : 7
e) None of these
378) Find the average number of Toshiba data cards sold in the month of
Jan, Mar and May together?
a) 64500
b) 72000
c) 68500
d) 74000
e) None of these


379) Total number of Toshiba data cards sold in the month of Feb and
Apr together is what percentage more/less than the total number of data
cards sold in the month of May?
a) 18.92 % more
b) 14.28 % less
c) 15.36 % more
d) 13.12 % less
e) None of these
380) Find the difference between the average number of data cards sold
in the month of Feb and June together to that of the average number of
BSNL data cards sold in the month of Apr and May together?
a) 52000
b) 58500
c) 64500
d) 48000
e) None of these

The following table shows the total number of Air conditioner (AC)
sold in 5 different shops in a certain month and the price per AC
also given.
Note: Total Revenue = Total number of AC sold * Price per AC
381) Total number of AC’s sold in the shop of D is what percentage of

total number of AC’s sold in the shop of A and E together?
a) 44 %
b) 36 %
c) 57 %
d) 68 %
e) None of these
382) Find the average price per AC of all the given shops together?
a) 35700
b) 39200


c) 28300
d) 31600
e) None of these
383) Find the ratio between the total revenue of shop B and C together?
a) 91 : 75
b) 85 : 73
c) 77 : 52
d) 115 : 91
e) None of these
384) Find the difference between the total revenue of shop D and shop
E?
a) 190000
b) 210000
c) 150000
d) 230000
e) None of these

385) The price per AC in shop C is what percentage of the price per AC
in shop D?

a) 74 %
b) 62.5 %
c) 86 %
d) 93.5 %
e) None of these

The following bar graph shows the total number of male and female
working in 6 different companies.

386) Find the ratio between the total number of male employees in
company P, R and T together to that of total number of female
employees in company Q, S and U together?
a) 65 : 62
b) 30 : 23
c) 45 : 31
d) 57 : 43
e) None of these
387) If the ratio of officers and clerks in company R and company T is 3 :

4 and 2 : 3 respectively, then find the difference between the total
number of officers to that of clerks in company R and T together?
a) 1050

b) 1250
c) 600
d) 700
e) None of these
388) Total number of employees in company P and Q together is what

percentage of total number employees in company T and U together?
a) 85.75 %
b) 91.25 %

c) 88.5 %
d) 75 %
e) None of these
389) Find the average number of male employees in all the given
companies together?
a) 1100
b) 1250
c) 950
d) 1375

e) None of these
390) Total number of female employees in company Q and R together is

approximately what percentage more than the total number of female
employee in company U?
a) 85 %
b) 115 %
c) 105 %
d) 70 %
e) 130 %
The following bar graph shows the cost price of 6 different items.

391) Find the ratio between the marked price of item A to the cost price
of item C, if the mark-up % of item A is 25 %?
a) 23 : 27
b) 19 : 22
c) 37 : 45
d) 15 : 16
e) None of these


392) Find the average cost price of item B, D and F together?
a) Rs. 450
b) Rs. 420
c) Rs. 380
d) Rs. 540
e) None of these
393) Find the difference between the selling price of item C to that of
item E, if the profit % of item C is 20 % and loss % of item E is 10 %?
a) Rs. 70
b) Rs. 145
c) Rs. 105
d) Rs. 180
e) None of these
394) Find the approximate profit % of item P, if the cost price of item P is
75 % of cost price of item D and the selling price of item P is equal to the
cost price of item B?
a) 7 % loss
b) 11 % profit
c) 18 % profit
d) 15 % loss
e) 23 % profit

395) The cost price of item A and E together is approximately what
percentage of the cost price of item D and F together?
a) 95 %
b) 78 %
c) 143 %
d) 112 %
e) 130 %
the given questions.
The following line graph shows the total number of doctors (Dentists
+ Physicians) in 6 different cities. (In hundreds)

396) Find the difference between the total number of physician in city P and R
together to that of total number of dentist in city Q and S together?
a) 2000
b) 3400
c) 2200
d) 3800
e) None of these
397) Find the ratio between the total number of doctors in city R and T together
to that of total number of doctors in city S and U together?
a) 28 : 17
b) 13 : 5

c) 42 : 23
d) 35 : 32
e) None of these
398) Total number of physicians in city Q and S together is what percentage

more than the total number of dentists in the same cities?
a) 25 %
b) 40 %
c) 50 %
d) 15 %
e) None of these
399) Find the average number of dentists in all the given cities except the city T?
a) 2400
b) 3000
c) 2800
d) 3200
e) None of these
400) Total number of doctors in city P is approximately what percentage of total

number of doctors in city R?
a) 135 %
b) 120 %
c) 95 %

d) 150 %
e) 80 %
Reading Comprehension
Direction (401-410): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it.
October 15 is observed, respectively, as International Day of Rural

Women by the United Nations, and National Women’s Farmer’s Day
(Rashtriya Mahila Kisan Diwas) in India. In 2016, the Minis try
of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare decided to take the lead in
celebrating the event, duly recognising the multidimensional role of
women at every stage in agriculture from sowing to planting,
drainage, irrigation, fertilizer, plant protection, harvesting, weeding,
and storage. This year, the Ministry has proposed deliberations to
discuss the challenges that women farmers face in crop cultivation,
animal husbandry, dairying and fisheries. The aim is to work
towards an action plan using better access to credit, skill
development and entrepreneurial opportunities. Yet, paying lip
service to them is not going to alleviate their drudgery and hardships
in the fields. According to Oxfam India, women are responsible for
about 60-80% of food and 90% of dairy production, respectively.
Attempts by the government to impart them training in poultry,
apiculture and rural handicrafts is trivial given their large numbers.
In order to sustain women’s interest in farming and also their uplift,
there must be a vision backed by an appropriate policy and doable
action plans. The Agriculture Census (2010-11) shows that out of an
estimated 118.7 million cultivators, 30.3% were females. Similarly,
out of an estimated 144.3 million agricultural labourers, 42.6%
were females. In terms of ownership of operational holdings, the
latest Agriculture Census (2015-16) is startling. Out of a total 146
million operational holdings, the percentage share of female
operational holders is 13.87% (20.25 million), a nearly one
percentage increase over five years. While the “feminisation of

agriculture” is taking place at a fast pace, the government has yet

to gear up to address the challenges that women farmers and
labourers face.
In March 2018, on International Women’s Day, CTA launched a

programme called VALUE4HER, which aims to increase the
prosperity of women in agriculture by linking them to international
buyers and markets. VALUE4HER will build women’s capacity in
terms of leadership and business skills and teach them how to
operate in the international marketplace. CTA has experience of
supporting young entrepreneurs to build successful ICT-enabled
agribusinesses via programmes like Pitch AgriHack, which offers
entrepreneurs business training, mentorship, incubation and
networking opportunities. This year’s Pitch AgriHack competition
focuses on empowering women entrepreneurs in the ICT for
agriculture space: 50% of the selected start-ups are led by women.
To ensure that these young people, especially women, reach their
full potential it is imperative that we equip them with the skills and
opportunities needed to progress a sustainable and productive agri-
food sector. CTA is therefore supporting the GODAN Action Project,
which aims to build the capacity of a range of stakeholders,
particularly women, in using open data to develop solutions for
increased agricultural productivity and resilience. The biggest
challenge is the powerlessness of women in terms of claiming
ownership of the land they have been cultivating. In Census 2015,
almost 86% of women farmers are devoid of this property right in
land perhaps on account of the patriarchal set up in our society.
Notably, a lack of ownership of land does not allow women farmers
to approach banks for institutional loans as banks usually consider
land as collateral. Research worldwide shows that women with
access to secure land, formal credit and access to market have
greater propensity in making investments in improving harvest,
increasing productivity, and improving household food security and
nutrition. Provision of credit without collateral under the micro-
finance initiative of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development should be encouraged. Better access to credit,
technology, and provision of entrepreneurship abilities will further
boost women’s confidence and help them gain recognition as

farmers. As of now, women farmers have hardly any representation
in society and are nowhere discernible in farmers’ organisations or in
occasional protests. They are the invisible workers without which
the agricultural economy is hard to grow.
Second, land holdings have doubled over the years with the result
that the average size of farms has shrunk. Therefore, a majority of
farmers fall under the small and marginal category, having less than
2 ha of land — a category that, undisputedly, includes women
farmers. A declining size of land holdings may act as a deterrent
due to lower net returns earned and technology adoption. The
possibility of collective farming can be encouraged to make women
self-reliant. Training and skills imparted to women as has been done
by some self-help groups and cooperative-based dairy activities.
These can be explored further through farmer producer
organisations. Moreover, government flagship schemes such as the
National Food Security Mission, Sub-mission on Seed and Planting
Material and the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana must include women-
centric strategies and dedicated expenditure. Third, female
cultivators and labourers generally perform labour-intensive tasks
(hoeing, grass cutting, weeding, picking, cotton stick collection,
looking after livestock). In addition to working on the farm, they
have household and familial responsibilities. An increased work
burden with lower compensation is a key factor responsible for their
marginalisation. It is important to have gender-friendly tools and
machinery for various farm operations. Most farm machinery is
difficult for women to operate. Manufacturers should be incentivised
to come up with better solutions. Farm machinery banks and
custom hiring centres promoted by many State governments can be
roped in to provide subsidised rental services to women farmers.
Last, when compared to men, women generally have less access to
resources and modern inputs (seeds, fertilizers, pesticides) to make
farming more productive. The Food and Agriculture Organisation
says that equalising access to productive resources for female and
male farmers could increase agricultural output in developing
countries by as much as 2.5% to 4%. Krishi Vigyan Kendras in
every district can be assigned an additional task to educate and

train women farmers about innovative technology along with
extension services. As more women are getting into farming, the
foremost task for their sustenance is to assign property rights in
land.
401) According to the passage which of the following statement has been
mentioned correct about VALUE4HER programme?
i) The programme aims to increase the prosperity of women in

agriculture by linking them to international buyers and markets
ii) It was launched by CTA on International Women’s Day
iii) The programme aims to provide better delivery of irrigation

water
a) i and ii
b) ii and iii
c) Only i
d) i and iii
e) None of these
402) According to the passage which of the following statement is correct as per
the report of Oxfam India?
a) Agricultural growth has been slowed down, averaging about

3.5% per annum, and cereal yields have increased by only 1.4%
per annum
b) The country has some 195 m ha under cultivation of which some

63 percent are rainfed of India’s land.
c) Women are responsible for about 90% of dairy production and

60-80% of food
d) Majority of India’s poor i.e. about some 770 million people are
found in rural areas.
e) None of these
403) Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
i) As per the Agriculture Census (2010-11), 30.3% were females

out of an estimated 118.7 million cultivators
ii) Agriculture’s share in India’s economy has progressively declined

to less than 17% due to the high growth rates of the industrial and
services sectors
iii) As per the data the percentage share of female operational

holders is 13.87% out of a total 146 million operational holdings
a) ii and iii
b) i and iii
c) Only i
d) Only iii
e) None of these
404) According to the passage what measures must be taken in order to elevate
women’s place as real and visible farmers.
i) Provision of credit without collateral should be encouraged under

the micro-finance initiative of the NABARD
ii) There must be better access to credit as well as technology
iii) Boosting of entrepreneurship abilities will further foster women’s

confidence
a) i and ii

b) All except ii
c) ii and iii
d) i and iii
e) All are correct
405) Which of the following government flagship scheme has not been mentioned
in the passage?
a) National Food Security Mission,
b) Sub-mission on Seed and Planting Material
c) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
d) Kisan sampada yojana
e) All are mentioned
406) Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
a) GODAN Action Project aims to build the capacity of a range of

stakeholders in using open data to develop solutions for increased
agricultural productivity and pliability
b) Pitch AgriHack competition focuses on empowering women

entrepreneurs in the ICT for agriculture space
c) International Day of Rural Women and National Women’s

Farmer’s day is observed on October 15
d) As per the Food and Agriculture Organisation, equalising access

to productive resources for female and male farmers could increase
agricultural output by as much as 3.5% to 5%
e) Women are 14% less likely to own a mobile phone than men,
which means there is limited access to the mobile phone-enabled

services that are helping farmers to stay informed and receive

financial support
407) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word
“propensity” printed in bold as used in the passage
a) Penchant
b) Antipathy
c) Demur
d) Repugnance
e) Loathness
408) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word
“discernible” printed in bold as used in the passage
a) Vague
b) Cryptic
c) Apparent
d) Enigmatic
e) Dubious
409) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word “drudgery”
in bold as used in the passage
a) Struggle
b) Travail
c) Workout
d) Slavery

e) Delight
410) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word
“deliberations” in bold as used in the passage
a) Speculation
b) Nonchalance
c) Prudence
d) Attention
e) Heed
Direction (411-420): Read the passage carefully and answer the following
questions.
Human resource management (HRM or HR) is the strategic

approach to the effective management of organization workers so
that they help the business gain a competitive advantage.
Commonly known as the HR Department, it is designed to maximize
employee performance in service of an employer’s strategic
objectives. HR is primarily concerned with the management of
people within organizations, focusing on policies and on systems.
HR departments are responsible for overseeing employee-benefits
design, employee recruitment, training and development,
performance appraisal, and rewarding (e.g., managing pay and
benefit systems). HR also concerns itself with organizational change
and industrial relations, that is, the balancing of organizational
practices with requirements arising from collective bargaining and
from governmental laws.
Human resources overall purpose is to ensure that the organization

is able to achieve success through people. HR professionals manage
the human capital of an organization and focus on implementing
policies and processes.
HR is a product of the human relations movement of the early 20th

century, when researchers began documenting ways of creating
business value through the strategic management.
The Human Resources field evolved first in 18th century in Europe.

It built on a simple idea by Robert Owen (1771-1858) and Charles
Babbage (1791-1871) during the industrial revolution. These men
concluded that people were crucial to the success of an
organization. They expressed the thought that the well-being of
employees led to perfect work, without healthy workers, the
organization would not survive.
HR emerged as a specific field in the early 20th century, influenced

by Frederick Winslow Taylor (1856–1915). Taylor explored what he
termed “scientific management” (others later referred to
“Taylorism”), striving to improve economic efficiency in
manufacturing jobs.
The scope of HRM is, indeed, very vast and wide. It includes all
activities starting from manpower planning till employee leaves the
organisation. Human Resource Planning refers to a process by which
the company identifies the number of jobs vacant, whether the
company has excess staff or shortage of staff and how to deal with
this excess or shortage.
Another important area of Human Resource Management is job

analysis. Job analysis gives a detailed explanation about each and
every job in the company.
Based on information collected from job analysis the company

prepares advertisements and publishes them in the newspapers.
This is recruitment. A number of applications are received after the
advertisement is published, interviews are conducted and the right
employee is selected.
Once the employees have been selected, an induction or orientation

programme is conducted. This is another important area of human
resources management. The employees are informed about the
background of the company, explained about the organizational

culture and values and work ethics and introduced to the other
employees.
Every employee goes under training program which helps him to put
up a better performance on the job. Training program is also
conducted for existing staff that have a lot of experience. This is
called refresher training. Training and development is one area
where the company spends a huge amount.
Once the employee has put in around 1 year of service,

performance appraisal is conducted that is the Human Resource
department checks the performance of the employee. Based on
these appraisal future promotions, incentives, increments in salary
are decided.
There are various rules regarding compensation and other benefits.

It is the job of the Human Resource department to look into
remuneration and compensation planning.
Motivation becomes important to sustain the number of employees

in the company. It is the job of the Human Resource department to
look into the different methods of motivation. Motivation improves
the level of performance. The ability to do work and willingness to
do work both affect the efficiency of a person. The ability to do work
is obtained with the help of education and training and willingness
to do work is obtained with the help of motivation.
Willingness is more important in comparison to ability. For example,

a person is highly educated and he is recruited on this very basis.
But it is not essential that he will do outstanding work.
He shall have to be motivated to do good work. This is possible only

through motivation. Therefore, motivation improves efficiency. The
efficiency of a person is reflected through increase in productivity
and decrease in costs.

Another important area of Human Resource Management is

maintaining cordial relations with the union members. This will help
the organization to prevent strikes lockouts and ensure smooth
working in the company. Effective HR management is a modern
version of what used to be called personnel management.
The main difference between Personnel Management and Human

Resource Management lies in their scope and orientation. The scope
of personnel management was limited and had an inverted approach,
wherein workers were viewed as tool.
Traditional personnel management focused on personnel

administration and basic labor relation issues. In contrast, the HR
management of employees is more diverse, focusing on recruitment
and selection into the workplace; ongoing motivation and morale in
the workplace.
Under traditional personnel management, employees were provided

with less training and development opportunities. Under HR
management of employees, training and development opportunities
are employed to maximize employee productivity and effectiveness.
Under HR management, the ultimate potential of each employee is

gauged, then employees are fitted to a position that takes full
advantage of their talents and ongoing evolution.
411) According to the passage, which of the followings, tells about the culture,
values and work ethics of an organisation to the newly selected employee?
a) performance appraisal
b) recruitment programme
c) orientation programme
d) training programme
e) job analysis

412) According to the passage, which of the followings is not the part
of personnel management?
a) focusing on personnel administration
b) extensive training programme for improving the efficiency of the

employee
c) inverted approach
d) focusing on basic labor relation issues
e) viewing employee as a tool
413) According to the passage, by which of the followings, working efficiency of

an employee is affected the most?
a) qualification of employees
b) training and development programme
c) working atmospheres
d) willingness to work
e) incentives and compensation
414) According to the passage, which of the followings, unfolded the field of
human resource for the first time?
a) Frederick Herzberg
b) David McClelland
c) Elton Mayo
d) C. S Myers
e) Robert Owen

415) Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?
a) Ability to do work is more important in comparison to willingness

to do work.
b) It is not essential that highly educated employee will do

outstanding work
c) HR is primarily concerned with the remuneration of people within

organizations
d) None of the above
e) All are true
416) Find the incorrect statement on the basis of the given passage.
a) Effective HR management is a modern version of what used to be

called personnel management.
b) Once the employees have been selected, an induction

programme is conducted.
c) Job analysis gives a detailed explanation about each and every

job in the company.
d) Human Resource Planning refers to a process by which the

company allocates the responsibilities to the managers of different
divisions.
e) All are correct
417) Choose the word which as same meaning as the word emerged
a) fled
b) waned
c) transpired

d) ebbed
e) wilted
418) Choose the word which as same meaning as the

word outstanding
a) abysmal
b) groovy
c) appalling
d) outrageous
e) despicable
419) Choose the word which as opposite meaning as the word cordial
a) affable
b) convivial
c) frosty
d) amiable
e) genial
420) Choose the word which as opposite meaning as the

word inverted
a) reversed
b) overturned
c) upturned
d) wrong way up

e) upright
Direction (421-430): Read the passage carefully and answer the following
questions.
When we talk about any market it comes to our mind that a market
consists of many shops, outlets, stalls, hawkers and now newly
developed markets known as malls. Very obvious all these are
essential parts of any market but when we talk about Money Market
means that there are hundreds of shops selling money.
No doubt there are such places also where we see the currency
notes and coins piled up on a table or counter but all these shops of
money are just dealing in exchange of money on two accounts- First
they deal with exchanging old, torn, mutilated , and such currency
notes which are not usually accepted by common shopkeepers.
The money market is entirely different where no visible shops are

counters exist.
It comprises of different types of companies, institutions, firms,

individuals who are either in need of money or are
having surplus money. The entities in need of money seek financial
help from this market against some payables and the entities
having surplus funds, deploy their surplus money in gainful way.
Money market basically refers to a section of the financial market

where financial instruments with high liquidity and short-term
maturities are traded. Money market is that component of the
financial market which is used for buying and selling of securities of
short-term maturities, of one year or less.
Money market instruments offer low risk, their returns are

significantly lower than those of other securities.
Withdrawing money from the money market is easier. Money

markets are different from capital markets as they are for a shorter

period of time while capital markets are used for longer time
periods.
The money market is used by a wide array of participants, from a

company raising money by selling commercial paper into the market
to an investor purchasing Certificate of Deposits as a safe place to
park money in the short term.
Money market consists of two sectors- organized sector comprising

the Reserve Bank of India and commercial banks, and unorganized
sector having an indigenous stint.
The functions and activities of organized sector of money market

are coordinated by the RBI.
The organized sector of the Indian money market can be divided into
sub-markets.
The call money market (CMM) is the market where overnight (one
day) loans can be availed by banks to meet liquidity. Banks who
seek to avail liquidity, approach the call market as borrowers and
the ones who have excess liquidity, participate there as lenders.
Call Money Market is the main market oriented mechanism to meet

the liquidity requirements of banks. Call Money refers to the
borrowing or lending of funds for 1 day. Notice Money refers to the
borrowing and lending of funds for 2-14 days and Term money
refers to borrowing and lending of funds for a period of more than
14 days.
Treasury bill market is the market for the sale and purchase of short
term government securities. These securities are called treasury
bills which are promissory notes or financial bills issued by RBI on
behalf of the government of India. In other words, it can be said
that when government goes to the financial market to raise money,
it can do it by issuing two types of debt instruments – treasury bills
and government bonds. Treasury bills are issued when the

government need money for a shorter period while bonds are issued
when it need debt for more than say five years.
Market for the Certificate of Deposit (CDs) again an important segment of

Indian money market. It is issued by the commercial bank. A certificate of
deposit is an agreement to deposit money for a fixed period with a
bank that will pay you interest.
Market for the commercial papers is the market where commercial papers are
traded.Commercial paper is an unsecured, short-term debt
instrument issued by a corporate house, have working capital more
than or equal to rupees 5 crore. It is typically issued for the
financing of accounts payable and inventories, and meeting short-
term liabilities.
The money market plays an important part in the economy of every

nation and has specific role particularly in short term financing. It
helps in maintaining balance between demand and supply of short
term monetary transactions.
Money market plays a very important role by making funds

available to many units or entities engaged in diversified field of
activities be it agriculture, industry, trade, commerce or any other
business.
By providing funds to developing sectors it helps in growth of

economy also.
No doubt it provides a base for the implementation of monetary

policy also. The money market provides opportunity for short term
investments.
Money market is integral part of financial market where instruments

of high liquidity with very short period of maturity are traded. The
money circulated throughout the money market, finances short-
term borrowing by large corporations and the government. This
borrowing allows both businesses and government agencies to

continue to spend the money on programs and expansion projects

necessary to encourage economic growth.
421) According to the passage, in order to meet their liquidity requirements,

banks reach which of the following markets?
a) treasury bill market
b) commercial bill market
c) call money market
d) commercial paper market
e) short term loan market
422) According to the passage, which of the following functions, is not played by
the money market?
a) provide opportunity for short term investment
b) discounting bill of exchange
c) promote the growth of the economy
d) provide base for implementing monetary policy
e) make funds available to business units
423) According to the passage, which of the followings is not the feature of money
market?
a) easy withdrawal of money
b) high liquidity
c) lower return
d) lower risk

e) securities of long term maturities
424) According to the passage, for financing its short term liabilities, which of the
following instruments can be used by the business house?
a) bond
b) treasury bill
c) fixed deposit
d) commercial paper
e) certificate of deposit
425) Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?
a) Certificate of deposit is issued by listed company or business

firm.
b) Money market instruments offer higher risk.
c) Notice Money refers to the borrowing and lending of funds for 2-

14 days.
d) None of the above
e) All are true
426) Find the incorrect statement on the basis of the given passage.
a) The money market plays an important part in the economy of

every nation
b) Commercial paper is an unsecured, short-term debt instrument.
c) Listed companies are the only participants of money market.
d) The functions and activities of organized sector of money market

are coordinated by the RBI.
e) All are correct
427) Choose the word which as same meaning as the word “torn”
a) seamless
b) pristine
c) tattered
d) immaculate
e) intact
428) Choose the word which as same meaning as the word

“organized”
a) muddled
b) structured
c) chaotic
d) tangled
e) cluttered
429) Choose the word which as opposite meaning as the word

“diversified”
a) swelled
b) split off
c) branched out
d) inflated
e) unvaried

430) Choose the word which as opposite meaning as the word

“surplus”
a) superfluous
b) surfeit
c) slippage
d) redundant
e) plethora
Error Detection
Directions (431-440): There is a sentence given below which is divided into four
or five parts. There is an error in any part(s) of the sentence. From the given
options, find out the part which contain(s) error.
431) RBI has shortlisted six IT majors including TCS, Wipro and (A)/IBM India
to set up Public Credit Registry (PCR) for capture details of borrowers and
willful (B)/defaulters, the proposed Public Credit Registry will also include data
from entities like SEBI, GSTN and IBBI(C)/to enable banks and financial
institutions to get a 360-degree profile(D)/for the existing as well as prospective
borrowers on a real-time basis(E).
a) Only A and C
b) Only B and E
c) Only A and D
d) Only C and D
e) Only D and E
432) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will soon introduce(A)/Rs 20 notes with
additional features, the central bank has already issued (B)/new-look currency

notes on the denominations of (C)/ Rs 10, Rs 50 and Rs 100 and the new notes are
to(D)/ introduced under the Mahatma Gandhi (new) series(E).
a) Only A and C
b) Only B and C
c) Only A and D
d) Only C and D
e) Only D and E
433) Prime Minister NarendraModi inaugurated the(A)/ Bogibeel bridge in

Assam on the birth anniversary of former (B)/Prime Minister Atal B Vajpayee
and after inaugurate(C)/ the bridge, PM Modi also flag off a train – the
Tinsukia-Naharlagun Intercity(D)/ Express, which will run five days a week(E).
a) Only A and C
b) Only B and C
c) Only C and D
d) Only A and D
e) Only D and E
434) Indian stock market is overtaken(A)/the Germany stock market for the first
time in seven (B)/years to become world’s 7 th largest stock(C)/ market and
at $27.07 trillion, US is world’s biggest stock (D)/market, followed with China
($5.46 trillion) and Japan ($5.41 trillion)(E).
a) Only A and C
b) Only B and C
c) Only A and D
d) Only C and D
e) Only A and E
435) The government on Thursday seek Parliament’s approval(A)/for

infusing ₹2,345 crore of equity by(B)/ debt-laden national carrier Air India,
which(C)/ is on a revival plan and the infusion will (D)/help Air India to manage
its operational expenses(E).
a) Only A and C
b) Only B and C
c) Only A and B
d) Only C and D
e) Only D and E
436) In a relief to the distressed onion growers(A)/in Maharashtra, the Fadnavis

government on Thursday decided to providing ₹2 per kg subsidy(B)/on the bulbs
sold from November 1 till December 15 in the(C)/ State and the money, which
will be pay in the(D)/form of ex-gratia amount, will cost ₹150 crore to the State
treasury(E).
a) Only A and C
b) Only B and C
c) Only A and D
d) Only B and D
e) Only D and E
437) P V Bharathi has been appointed(A)/with managing director and chief

executive officer(B)/of the Corporation Bank, she will taking (C)/over the charge
on or after February 1, 2019 and(D)/ remain in the post till March 31, 2020(E).

a) Only A and C
b) Only B and C
c) Only A and D
d) Only C and D
e) Only D and E
438) ICICI Bank has projected the GDP to increase(A)/ to 7.4% in 2019-20, it
has also stated that one of the biggest(B)/ factors for restricting growth will be
the real(C)/ estate and small-scale units as it have to still (D)/recovering from the
effects of GST and demonetization(E).
a) Only A and C
b) Only B and C
c) Only A and D
d) Only C and D
e) Only D and E
439) Music Broadcast Ltd, the company that run the(A)/ FM brand Radio City,
has partner with Noida Metro Rail Corporation (NMRC) to provide(B)/
passengers with in-transit entertainment experience and as per the
agreement(C)/, Radio City will provide customized music and entertainment
across(D)/ all the 21 stations of the NMRC Aqua Linearound Noida(E).
a) Only A and C
b) Only B and C
c) Only A and D
d) Only A and B
e) Only D and E
440) After a day-long strike last Friday, close to 1 million(A)/ employees of

various banks, including private lenders, will(B)/ be on one-day strike on
December 26 to (C)/protesting against the proposed amalgamation(D)/ over
Vijaya Bank and Dena Bank with Bank of Baroda(E).
a) Only A and C
b) Only B and C
c) Only A and D
d) Only C and D
e) Only D and E
Direction (441-450): The sentences may contain multiple errors, find out which
part of sentence has an error and mark the option given below as a),b),c),d).
Choose e) as an option if you find out that sentence has no error.
441) Democracy is imperiled, as 2019 rolls in A)/, with the rise of

authoritarianism, divisiveness within B)/ societies, the deterioration of public
discourse C)/and assaults on freedom of speech in many countries D)/No Error
E)/
a) A-C
b) B-D
c) A-B
d) C-D
e) No Error
442) Apple Inc is likely to pull some iPhone models A)/off its German stores after
Qualcomm Inc said it posted B)/security bonds to enforce a court order banning
C)/the sale of this iPhone models in the country D)/No Error E)/
a) B-D

b) A-C
c) A-B
d) A-D
e) No Error
443) The updated US-China travel advisory A)/follows the detention over the
past month B)/of two Canadian in China, who said they C)/were suspected of
harming China security D)/No Error E)/
a) B-C
b) A-B
c) C-D
d) A-D
e) No Error
444) The weak ISM factory read adds A)/to anxiety spurred by poor data from
B)/China and Europe a day earlier, stoking fear that C)/a recession looms larger
then previously thought D)/No Error E)/
a) C-D
b) A-B
c) B-C
d) A-D
e) No Error
445) Policymakers and the experts who advise A)/them must become humble and
pause B)/before imposing their certainties on a C)/complex system they do not
comprehend D)/No Error E)/

a) B-C
b) A-D
c) B-D
d) A-C
e) No Error
446) Taking cognizance of the carcinogenic effect, the A)/norms also prohibit the
use of newspaper and such B)/ other materials for packing of food articles and
include C)/respective India standard for printing inks for use on food packages
D)/No Error E)
a) A-C
b) B-D
c) A-B
d) C-D
e) No Error
447) The continue overhang of bad debt, rising policy A)/uncertainties ahead of
the polls, and the lack of B)/many progress in unclogging the pipeline of stalled
projects C)/seems to be weighing down the animal spirits of Indian industry
D)/No Error E)/
a) B-D
b) A-C
c) A-B
d) A-D
e) No Error

448) The misuse of the gift channel with Chinese A)/e-commerce apps was
creating a B)/unfair playing field, risking to wipe out the small C)/and medium
enterprises sector in India D)/No Error E)/
a) C-D
b) A-B
c) B-C
d) A-D
e) No Error
449) The lack of an investment recovery and the high A)/rates of stalling also
reflect poor on the incumbent B)/ government who rode to power promising to
end an C)/era of policy paralysis, and to reinvigorate the investment cycle D)/No
Error E)/
a) A-C
b) B-D
c) B-C
d) A-D
e) No Error
450) India and South Africa has now been insisting A)/on ending the moratorium
on electronic transfer of B)/ services with shrinking distinctions between goods
C)/and services, such as e-books, which lead to revenue loss D)/No Error E)/
a) C-D
b) A-B
c) B-C
d) A-D
e) No Error
Cloze Test
Direction (451-460): In a passage given below there are 10 blanks, each followed
by a word given in bold. Every blank has four alternative words given in options
(a), (b), (c) and (e). You have to tell which word will best suit to the respective
blank. Mark (e) as your answer if the word given in the bold after the blank is
your answer i.e. “No change requires”
Bilateral deficits, it is true, can more easily be _ (1) _ [change] by trade

policy. The tax cuts that the president signed into law in December
make his _ (2) _ [hanged-up] on trade deficits even more senseless.
Boosting the budget deficit to 5% of GDP in 2019 will, other things
being equal, widen the trade gap. It is hard to imagine Mr. Trump
blaming himself for that—and all too easy to see him making a new
round of threats against foreigners. The president’s more
fundamental error is to see trade as a zero-sum game, in which
exporting is for winners and importing is for dupes. In fact, the
gains from trade come from the specialization permitted by the free
exchange of goods, capital and know-how that allows, for example,
Californian-designed iPhones to be _ (3) _ [meet] in China and sold
worldwide by the bucket load.
Mr. Trump’s misunderstanding of economics explains why his

politics are so irresponsible. Rather than join with other _ (4) _
[oppress] countries to put legal pressure on China, Mr. Trump has
threatened _ (5) _ [Common] allies. Rather than work within the rules-
based system of trade, which America helped create and which,
despite the system’s imperfections, has served the country well, he
bypasses it at will. He is particularly _ (6) _ [reckless] to claim that the
steel and aluminum tariffs are justified by national-security
concerns. If America thumbs its nose at the WTO, why shouldn’t
others. Managed trade is a mistake, not a victory. It _ (7) _
[replace]the power of political lobbies for market forces, favoring
loud, well-organized producers over silent, _ (8) _

[contrasted] consumers and _ (9) _ [hijack] economies of the

nimbleness needed to adapt to changing technological conditions.
Other countries will feel _ (10) _ [self-ruled] to follow America’s
example, making a trade war a repeated risk rather than a one-off
danger. Mr. Trump’s approach threatens to leave everyone much
worse off.
451)
a) Amend
b) Stagnated
c) Altered
d) Reshape
e) No change required
452)
a) Fixation
b) Obsessing
c) Alteration
d) Repudiation
453)

a) Mass up
b) Assembled
c) Dismantled
d) Congregate
454)
a) Disturbed
b) Prosecute
c) Aggrieved
d) Comforted
455)
a) Reputing
b) Proven
c) Accepted
d) Putative

456)
a) Discreet
b) Mindful
c) Prudent
d) Meek
457)
a) Substitutes
b) Exchange
c) Relief
d) Procurator
458)
a) Congruent
b) Agreeing
c) Disparate
d) Unrelated

459)
a) Robbing
b) Abscond
c) Condemning
d) Plunder
460)
a) Barred
b) Freer
c) Confined
d) Unpaid
Direction (1-10): In a passage given below there are 10 blanks, each followed by a
word given in bold. Even blank has four alternative words given in options (a),
(b), (c) and (Dd. You have to tell which word will best suit to the respective
your answer i.e “No change requires”.
_(1)_[vanished]___are the days, when only the Public Sector was

prevalent in the economy. At present, many countries have adopted
the policy of privatisation, through which private sector is also
gaining_(2)_[load]_. For the progress and development of any
country, both the sectors must _(3)_[exit]_hand in hand as only one

sector cannot lead the country in the path of success. The private
sector comprises of business which is owned, managed and
controlled by individuals.
On the contrary, public sector comprises of various business

enterprises owned and _(4)_[tolerated]_by Government. Such
organizations _(5) [have]_either fully or partly owned by the center or
state and come under the separate ministry. Some of the public
sector organizations are set up by a special act of Parliament.
There is a cut-throat competition between both the sectors, to prove

itself better over the other sector. So it can be said that the section
of the nation’s economy, which is under the control of government
whether it is central, state or local is known as public sector and the
section of the nation’s economy which is owned and controlled by
the private individuals or companies is known as private sector. The
basic __(6)_[ground]_of the public sector is to serve the citizens of
the country.
There are two _(7)_[modes]_of public sector organizations, i.e. either

the Government fully finances them through the revenues they raise
by collecting taxes, duties, fees, etc. or the government holds more
than 51% of the total share capital of the company.
The public sector enterprises are established with service motive.

Public sector is the largest sector, which _(8)_[appraises]_for the
upliftment of the people by providing the services like generation of
employment opportunities, postal services, providing education and
health facilities at low cost, providing security etc.
Business __(9)_[combinations]_of the private sector are generally

established with the sole objective of making profit and building
brand reputation. They provide quality services to the community to
win the trust and goodwill from people to survive in the long run
and _(10)_[challenge]_with the rivals.
1)

a) disappeared
b) departed
c) gone
d) spent
2)
a) substance
b) importance
c) weight
d) magnitude
3)
a) abscond
b) leave
c) depart
d) go
4)
a) survived
b) endured

c) managed
d) continued
5)
a) will
b) might
c) could
d) are
6)
a) point
b) explanation
c) objective
d) root
7)
a) styles
b) brands
c) fonts
d) types

8)
a) attempts
b) tries
c) works
d) struggles
469)
a) amalgamations
b) entities
c) mergers
d) fusions
470)
a) fight
b) compete
c) dispute
d) oppose
Direction (471-480): In a passage given below there are 10 blanks, each followed
by a word given in bold. Even blank has four alternative words given in options
(a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to choose which word will best suit to the respective
your answer i.e “No change requires”.
A business partnership is a specific kind of legal relationship

_(1)_[outlined]_by the agreement between two or more individuals to
carry on a business as co-owners.
A partnership is a business with multiple owners, each of whom has

_(2)_[devoted]__ money in the business. Some partnerships include
partners who work in the business, while other partnerships may
include partners who _(3)_[cover]_limited participation and
also limited liability for the debts and lawsuits against the business.
A partnership, as different from a corporation, is not a separate

entity from the individual owners. The partnership business’s
income tax is _(4)_[surrendered]_by the partnership, but the profits
and losses are _(5)_[cracked]_among the partners, and paid by the
partners, based on their agreement.
Depending on the type of partnership and the levels of partnership

hierarchy, a partnership can have several different types of
partners.
General partners are the partners who participate in managing the

partnership and have liability for partnership debts. Limited partners
are the partners who invest but do not participate in management.
Some partners may be paid as employees, while others have only a

share in ownership.
Partnerships _(6)_[shall]_usually registered with the state in which

partners _(7)_[accomplish]_the business, but the requirement to
register varies from state to state. Partnerships use a partnership
agreement to clarify the relationship between the partners, the roles
and responsibilities of the partners, and their respective shares in
the profits or losses of the partnership.

Once you have registered with your state, you can then proceed to
the other typical tasks in starting a partnership business.
An individual _(8)_[has]_join a partnership at the beginning or when

the partnership business is being carried on by partners. The
incoming partner must invest in the partnership, by bringing capital
(usually money) into the business. The amount of the investment
and other_(9)_[motives]_, like the amount of liability the partner is
willing to take on, determine the new partner’s investment and
_(10)_[segment]_of the profits (and losses) of the business each year.
471)
a) appeared
b) formed
c) twisted
d) produced
472)
a) installed
b) connected
c) invested
d) provided
473)
a) contain

b) include
c) comprise
d) have
474)
a) compensated
b) balanced
c) paid
d) forfeited
475)
a) broke
b) divided
c) partitioned
d) smashed
476)
a) has
b) could
c) might

d) are
477)
a) make
b) achieve
c) do
d) act
478)
a) would
b) can
c) may
d) should
479)
a) grounds
b) sources
c) reasons
d) factors

480)
a) piece
b) bit
c) share
d) fraction
Para jumbles (481-500)

Direction (481-485): Given bellow are six statements A, B, C, D, E and F, which
when arranged in the correct order, form a coherent and meaningful paragraph.
The sentence marked as E is fixed and would fit in the fourth position.
Rearrange the other statements in a proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph, then answer the questions below.
A) Ryan Said, a research scientist with Vaisala and the inventor of

the GLD360 system, explained that lightning had been reported
within 300 nautical miles of the North Pole before. Between 2012
and 2017, there was no more than one single day each summer
where lightning was seen within this range, and sometimes none
was detected. In those years, the most discharges recorded in that
area in a single day was six.
B) “It has been an extraordinary year and an extraordinary summer

in the far north,” says Daniel Swain, a climate scientist at the
University of California, Los Angeles. Weird things are happening in
the Arctic, and quirky lightning is yet another peculiarity to add to
the growing list.
C) Although plenty of factors needed to come together to produce

the lightshow, the specter of climate change lingers over this
meteorological mystery. It is possible that a freakishly warm Arctic,

a staggering lack of sea ice, and even possibly smoke from

unprecedented wildfires within the Arctic Circle, among other things,
contributed to this lightning’s unexpected appearance near the top
of the world.
D) That’s why it took scientists by surprise when dozens of lightning

strikes were detected within 300 nautical miles of the North
Pole this past weekend. In fact, it was so unusual that it
was highlighted on Twitter by the National Weather Service’s office
in Fairbanks, Alaska. A bulletin of theirs said this was “one of the
furthest north lightning strikes in Alaska forecaster memory.”
E) The lightning was detected by Vaisala’s GLD360 network, which uses a

worldwide distribution of GPS-synchronized radio receivers that pick up on the
powerful radio bursts lightning discharges unleash. Individual sensors can detect
such radio bursts 6,000 miles away from their sources, which allows the network
to spot lightning anywhere on Earth, including the remotest Arctic.
F) Lightning happens all the time, but certain parts of the world get
far less of it than others, including near the North Pole. Lightning
requires atmospheric instability, something that’s set up when cold,
parched air sits atop warmer, wetter air. At very high latitudes, that
hotter, damper air tends not to show up.
481) Which of the following will be LAST sentence after

rearrangement?
A) D
B) A
C) F
D) E
E) None of these
482) Which of the following will be FIRST sentence after

rearrangement?
A) B
B) C
C) F
D) A
E) None of these
483) Which of the following pairs form two consecutive statements after
rearrangement?
A) A-D
B) B-C
C) B-E
D) C-D
E) None of these
484) Which of the following will be FOURTH sentence after

rearrangement?
A) D
B) C
C) B
D) A
E) None of these
485) Which of the following will be THIRD sentence after

rearrangement?

A) D
B) E
C) F
D) A
E) None of these
Direction (486-490) :
(a) While there may be some geographical synergies between the

banks being merged, unless they realise cost synergies through
branch and staff rationalisation, the mergers may not mean much to
them or to the economy.
(b) Mergers are driven by synergies — in products, costs, business,

geographies or technology and the most important, cost synergies.
(c) The jury is, of course, out on whether this strategy will succeed.
(d) The bottomline is clear: to create banks of global level that can
leverage economies of scale and balance sheet size to serve the
needs of a $5-trillion economy by 2025.
(e) For its sheer magnitude, the scale and the ability to disrupt the
status quo, the mega bank mergers announced by Finance Minister
Nirmala Sitharaman on Friday must go down as the most significant
the banking industry has seen in the five decades since
nationalisation.
486) Which is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e
487) Which is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e
488) Which is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e
489) Which is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e
490) What is the LAST sentence after rearrangement?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e
491) The increase in demand for sport utility vehicles has taken a
toll (a)/ on the sedan segment as launches in the segment (b)/ has
also dried up. Maruti’s new generation Dzire and Honda’s new
generation Amaze have been (c)/ the only two successful product
introductions in the segment, in the last two financial years. (d)

a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) No error.
492) “The rating revision also factors in the challenges (a)/ in terms
of maintaining the asset quality, given (b)/ the continuous slowdown
in the real estate sector because (c)/ of subdued sales and
increasing funding challenges,” the agency said. (d)
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) No error.
493) To accommodate disenfranchised persons, detention camps

have been (a)/ setted up across the state. At present,(b)/ there are
six existing detention centres in Assam’s Goalpara, Dibrugarh,
Jorhat, Silchar, Kokrajhar and Tezpur, (c)/ where district jails have
been converted to camps.
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) No error.
494) According to the rating agency, the rating remains (a)/ under
watch with developing implications (b)/ in light of the merger
proposal among IBHFL (c)/ and Lakshmi Vilas Bank (LVB). (d)
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) No error.
495) Adequate opportunity of being heard has been given to all

persons at every stage of the process. (a)/ The entire process is
conducted as per statutory provisions and (b)/ due procedure
followed at every stage,” (c)/ said a central government official,
seeking anonymity.(d)
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) No error.
Direction (496-500): Rearrange the sentence into a coherent and meaningful

paragraph and answers the question that follow.
A) The El Paso shooting reverberated on the campaign trail for next

year’s U.S. presidential election, with several Democratic candidates
denouncing the rise of gun violence and repeating calls for tighter
gun control measures.
B) The first massacre occurred on Saturday morning in the heavily

Hispanic border city of El Paso, where a gunman killed 20 people at
a Walmart store before surrendering to police.
C) Texas Governor Greg Abbott said the rampage appeared to be a

hate crime, and police cited a “manifesto” they attributed to the
suspect, a 21-year-old white man, as evidence that the bloodshed
was racially motivated.
D) Across the country, a gunman opened fire in a downtown district

of Dayton, Ohio, early on Sunday, killing nine people and wounding
at least 26 others, police and the city mayor said. The assailant was
shot dead by police.
E) Thirty people died and dozens were wounded in two mass

shootings within just 13 hours of each other in the U.S., shocking
the country and prompting calls from some politicians for tighter
gun control.
496) Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after the
arrangement?
A) B
B) A
C) E
D) C
E) D
497) Which of the following will be the THIRDsentence after the

arrangement?
A) E
B) C
C) B
D) A
E) D
498) Which of the following will be the LASTsentence after the

arrangement?
A) B
B) C
C) D
D) E
E) A

499) Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after the
arrangement?
A) C
B) E
C) A
D) B
E) D
500) Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after the
arrangement?
A) B
B) D
C) A
D) E
E) C

501. 90, 55, 75, 142.5, ? , 862.5
a) 285
b) 325
c) 470

d) 855
e) 270
502. 5, 12, 39, 160, ? , 4836

a) 850
b) 750
c) 800
d) 805
e) 820
503. 1, ? , 7, 31, 151, 911

a) 4
b) 5
c) 2
d) 3.5
e) 3
504. ? , 16, 64, 8, 128, 4

a) 32
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
e) 64
505. 2, 30, 130, 350, ? , 1342

a) 712
b) 720
c) 738
d) 742
e) 750
506.

a) 60
b) 70
c) 40
d) 35
e) 75
507. ? + 185.10 – 79.09 = (23.01)² - 70.01% of 139.99

a) 400
b) 375
c) 350
d) 325
e) 300
508.
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 32
e) 64
509. 44.04% of 349.98 + 205.01% of 140.01 = (?)²

a) 29
b) 361
c) 19
d) 441
e) 21
510.
a) 230
b) 920
c) 220
d) 1880
e) 960
511. If the sum of speed of upstream and downstream is 18 Kmph and

speed of Stream is one-third speed of boat in still water. So, calculate
the time taken by boat to travel 54 km upstream and 48 km
downstream.)
a) 10 hrs
b) 11 hrs
c) 13 hrs
d) 9 hrs
e) 15 hrs
512. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘PRAISE’
be arranged?
a) 720
b) 650
c) 510
d) 360
e) 240
513. Suresh gave Rs. 1200 on loan in which some amount he gave at
4% per annum simple interest and remaining at 5% per annum simple
interest. After two years, he got Rs. 110 as total interest. Then the
amounts given at 4% and 5% per annum are, respectively:
a) 500, 700
b) 400,600
c) 600,400
d) 700,500
e) None of these
514. A metal cube of edge 12 cm is melted and formed into three

smaller cubes. If the edges of two smaller cubes are 6 cm and 8 cm,
then find the edge of the third smaller cube.
a) 10 cm
b) 14 cm
c) 12 cm
d) 11 cm
e) 6 cm
515. An ore contains 25% of an alloy that has 90% iron. Other than
this, in the remaining 75% of the ore, there is no iron. To obtain 60 kg
of pure iron, the quantity of the ore needed, in kg, is approximately:
a) 250.57
b) 266.67
c) 275.30
d) 315.10
e) 300
Direction : (516-520) In the given questions, two equations (I) & (II)
are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the answer
accordingly.
a) x<y
b) x>y
c) x≥y
d) x≤y
e) x=y or no relation
516.
517.
518.
519.
520.

521.
a) 16
b) 10
c) 15
d) 12
e) 21
522.
a) 121
b) 118
c) 103
d) 111
e) 95
523.
a) 8
b) 18
c) 11
d) 14
e) 19
524.
a) 4
b) 6
c) 5
d) 7
e) 3

525.
a) 50
b) 70
c) 30
d) 60
e) 40
526. Average of marks scored by Deepak in English, Hindi and Math is

70 and average marks scored by Deepak in English and Math are 73. If
marks of Deepak in Science are 25% more than his marks in Hindi,
then find average marks scored by Deepak in these 4 subjects.
a) 76.5
b) 72.5
c) 71.5
d) 75.5
e) 78.5
527. Sum of present ages of A & B together is 90 years and C is 4

years younger than B. If present age of A is 72% of that of C, then find
sum of present ages of B & C together.
a) 92 years
b) 114 years
c) 88 years
d) 118 years
e) 104 years
528. A vessel contains 800 liters mixture of water and milk in the ratio
5 : 3 respectively. If 200 liters mixture from the vessel is completely
replaced with milk, then find ratio of milk to water in the final mixture
in the vessel.
a) 17:15
b) 5:4
c) 3:2
d) 11:7
e) None of the above.
529. Population of a village is decreased by 40% in 2017 and

increased by 70% in 2018. If total population of the village in 2018 is
306000, then find population of village in 2016. a) 180000
b) 160000
c) 250000
d) 300000
e) 240000
530. A & B invested Rs.9000 and Rs.16000 respectively in a business.

After 5 months, A increased his investment by 66⅔% of his initial
investment and B withdraws Rs.6000. If total profit at the end of the
year is Rs.36000, then find profit share of B at the end of the year.
a) Rs.15000
b) Rs.18000
c) Rs.16000
d) Rs.20000
e) Rs.14000
531. 819 818 408 135 ?

a) 31
b) 31.5
c) 32
d) 32.75
e) 33
532. 7 12 32 105 ?
a) 428
b) 214
c) 218

d) 416
e) None of these
533. 5 54 90 115 131 140 ?

a) 149
b) 146
c) 142
d) 152
e) None of these
534. 4 10 40 190 940 ? 23440

a) 4690
b) 2930
c) 5140
d) 3680
e) None of these
535. 120 320 ? 2070 5195 13007.5

a) 800
b) 920
c) 850
d) 900
e) None of these
536. 210 209 213 186 202 (?)

a) 138
b) 77
c) 177
d) 327
e) None of these
Directions(537-540) Study the following graph carefully & answer the

questions given below it.

537. In which of the following years, the imports made by company 'A'
was exactly equal to the average import made by it over the given
years?
a) 1996
b) 1995
c) 1997
d) B and C
e) None of these
538. What was the percentage increase in imports by company ‘B’

from 1995 to 1999?
b) 250
c) 100
d) 200
e) 180
539. Imports by company ‘C’ in 1997 is how many more than the
average imports by all company in same year?

a) 35
b) 15
c) 25
d) 60
e) 45
540. In which of the following years was the total imports made by all
the three companies together the maximum?
a) 1998 and 2000
b) 1998
c) 2000
d) 1999
e) None of these
541. The perimeter of square is 3 times the perimeter of rectangle

whose length and breadth are 12cm and 8 cm respectively. Find out
the total surface area of sphere whose diameter is 2 times of the side
of square.
a) 3000π cm²
b) 2300π cm²
c) 3300π cm²
d) 3600π cm²
e) 4300π cm²
542. A container contains two liquid A and B in the ratio 3:5 when 40
liters of mixture are replaced with B, the ratio of A:B becomes 18:35.
find out the initial quantity of mixture.
a) 424 liters
b) 444 liters
c) 520 liters
d) 384 liters
e) 414 liters

543. When the annual rate of compound interest increases from 7.5%
to 12.5%, then a man’s yearly interest increase by Rs 1750. Find out
the simple interest on same principal at 5% per annum for 3 years?
a) Rs. 4850
b) Rs. 5250
c) Rs. 4320
d) Rs. 6520
e) Rs. 5150
544. If A, B and C started a business in a partnership investing in the

ratio of 3:5:7 respectively. At the end of the year, they earned total
profit of Rs. 23550. which is 15% of the total investment. Find out the
investment of B’s share (approximately in Rs.)?
a) Rs. 53860
b) Rs. 51333
c) Rs. 51003
d) Rs. 53454
e) Rs. 52334
545. There are three number A, B and C. If A is three times more than
B and 8 times of C. if average of A, B and C is Rs. 770, then find out
the difference between 2nd largest number and smallest number.
a) 200
b) 420
c) 210
d) 1470
e) 110
546.
a) 1526
b) 17

c) 7
d) 11
e) 8
547.
a) 12
b) 8
c) 10
d) 11
e) 4
548.
a) 864
b) 756
c) 625
d) 522
e) 976
549. 0.2% of 329.995 +1% of 169.995-0.4% of 419.995=?

a) 0.1
b) 0.4
c) 1.8
d) 0.68
e) 1.3
550. 16.66% of 108.123+7.69% of 168.998-5.88% of 173.4=?

a) 28.4
b) 20.8
c) 37.2
d) 26.6
e) 32.2
551. In a class there are 72 boys whose average age is decreased by

2.5 months, when 1 boy aged 30 years is replaced by a new boy. Find

the age of the new boy.

a) 16 years
b) 10 years
c) 15 years
d) 20 years
e) 24 years
552. 46% of 450 + 84% of 525 – 55% of 880=?
a) 164
b) 166
c) 170
d) 162
e) 160
553.
a) 1
b) -1
c) 3
d) -3
e) None of these
554. 55% of 280 + 60% of 555 = ?

a) 487
b) 1014
c) 1011
d) 817
e) None of these
555. 0.09 × 0.1 – 0.009 ÷ 10 + 0.09 = ?

a) 0.01009
b) 0.0101

c) 0.19
d) 0.109
e) 0.0981
556. 10, 22, 56, 180, 732, ?

a) 3672
b) 3660
c) 3648
d) 3762
e) 3726
557. 1, 1.69, 2.56, 3.61, 4.84, ?

a) 625
b) 62.5
c) 6.25
d) 0.625
e) 1.5625
558. 9, 5, 6, ?, 23, 60
a) 12
b) 10.5
c) 9
d) 7.5
e) 13.5
559. 59. 529 841 961 1369 1681 1849 ?

a) 2809
b) 2601
c) 3249
d) 3481
e) 2209
560. 10 17 48 165 688 3475 ?

a) 27584
b) 25670
c) 21369
d) 20892
e) None of these
561. If average of five consecutive odd numbers is 33, then the least
odd number is:
(a) 27
(b) 31
(c) 29
(d) 23
(e) 33
562. The average weight of boys in a class of total strength 50 is 40

kg while average weight of girls is 35 kg. Find number of girls in
class if average weight of class is 38 kg.
(a) 10
(b) 30
(c) 20
(d) 40
(e) 15
563.Three year ago, the average age of five employee of a company

was 54 yrs. The present average age is 52 yr after the inclusion of a
new employee entered. Find the age of the new employee?
(a) 18 yr
(b) 25 yr
(c) 20 yr
(d) 22 yr
(e) 27 yr
564.Average of four numbers is increased by 1 when a number is

replaced by x and average of that four number is decreased by 1
when another number is replaced with x. What is the difference of
the both numbers?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 4
(e) Cannot be determined

565. 3 years ago, Average age of father and his son was 36 year.
Present age of mother is 3 years less than twice of the age of son
and ratio of mother’s age 3 years later to the father’s age 4 years
ago is 24 : 25. Then, find the present average age of family ?
(a) 39 years
(b) 44 years
(c) 36 years
(d) 41 years
(e) 43 years
566. Ritu, Payal and Sakshi’s present salaries are in the ratio of 3 :
5 : 7. In the next year, their salaries increases by 20%, 25% and
30% respectively, find the ratio of their salaries next year.
(a) 72 : 125 : 182
(b) 125 : 72 : 182
(c) 182 : 125 : 72
(d) 21 : 53 : 123
(e) 3 : 8 : 11
567. A certain amount was to be distributed among A, B and C in the

ratio 2 : 3 : 4 respectively, but was erroneously distributed in the
ratio 7 : 2 : 5 respectively. As a result of this, B got Rs. 40 less. What
is the total amount distributed?
(a) Rs. 210
(b) Rs. 270
(c) Rs. 230
(d) Rs. 280
(e) Rs. 320
568. Mixture P and mixture Q have wine and water in ratio 3 : 7 and
1 : 4 respectively. At what ratio both mixture must mixed to get a
ratio of wine to water 1 : 3 ?
(a) 2:3
(b) 1:1
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2
(e) None of these

569. Ratio of first and second number is 9:10 and ratio of first and
third number is 3:4. Find difference of second and third number if
average of all the three numbers is 62?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 14
(e) 16
570. Average temperature of a place in 25 days is recorded as 15°C.

Later it was found that average temperature of four days which was
14°C by mistake taken as 16.5°C. Find the original average
temperature of that place within that duration.
(a) 14.8°C
(b) 14°C
(c) 14.4°C
(d) 14.6°C
(e) 14.2°C
Directions (571-575): Given below pie chart shows percentage

distribution of population of five village in two different years (2016
& 2017). Read data carefully and answer the questions.

571. Find increment percentage of population of village E in the year

2017 over the 2016?
(a) 7.5%
(b) 8.5%
(c) 11.5%
(d) 12.5%
(e) 10.5%
572. Find the ratio between total population of village B in the year
2017 to total population of village B & C together in the year 2016?
(a) 8 : 15
(b) 9 : 11
(c) 9 : 17
(d) 9 : 16
(e) 9 : 19
573. Find difference between population of village D in the year

2017 and village D in the year 2016?
(a) 112
(b) 110
(c) 108
(d) 104
(e) 112

574. Find the average number population of village C in the both

given years?
(a) 240
(b) 300
(c) 250
(d) 320
(e) 360
575. Find decrement percentage in population of village C in the year

2017 over the year 2016?
(a) 43.75%
(b) 44.75%
(c) 47.25%
(d) 48.75%
(e) 50.25%
Directions(576-580): What will come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following
questions:
576. 49.99% of 399.99 + 399.98% of 70.98 = ? 2

a) 18
b) 20
c) 28
d) 22
e) 36
577. 35*3.99 + 359.978% of 16.67 = ? 2 * 7.98

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 8
e) 7
578. 1025.08 + 1623.13 – 1784.91 + 2564.31 – 2897.98 = ?

a) 511
b) 529
c) 515
d) 523
e) 574

579. 23.95 × 26.005 + (√48.99×13.08)/90.99 = 5.05 ×? ³

a) 8
b) 5
c) 12
d) 18
e) 20
580. 149.99% of 20 + 322.98/17.10 + √? = (8.99)²

a) 1443
b) 1936
c) 988
d) 1024
e) 1089
581. 2/7 of 5033 +80% of 600 = ?+495

a) 1340
b) 1280
c) 1360
d) 1423
e) 1452
582. 14 man can make 1000 cricket bats in 12 hours. After

8 hours of work, 2 more man joined them and starts
working. How many more hours will it take to complete
the production of 2000 cricket bats?
(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 12
(e) 10
583.P, Q and R can do some work in 36 days. P and Q

together do twice as much work as R alone and P and R
together can do thrice as much work as Q alone. Find the
time taken by R to do the same work.

(a) 80 days
(b) 72 days
(c) 108 days
(d) 96 days
(e) 120 days
584. Rahul is 25% more efficient than Ravi and Ravi is

20% less efficient than Rekha. If Rekha completes a job in
20 days, then in how many days Rahul will complete the
same job?
(a) 25
(b) 24
(c) 30
(d) 20
(e) 28
585. A is 40% more efficient than B. If B takes 6 days

more than A to complete a work alone then in how many
days ‘A’ alone can complete the whole work.
(a) 10 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 24 days
(e) 12 days
L1Difficulty 2
586. A certain number of people were supposed to

complete a work in 20 days. The work, however, took 28
days, since 8 people were absent throughout. How many
people were supposed to be working originally?
(a) 32
(b) 27
(c) 36

(d) 30
(e) 28
587. ‘X’ men can complete a work in (X–2) days while (X–
10) men can complete same work in 2X days. Find in how
many days (X–6) men can complete half of the work?
(a) 8 days
(b) 12 days
(c) 16 days
(d) 20 days
(e) 24 days
588. Two inlet pipes can fill a tank in 15 min and 20 min
alone respectively. If these two pipes are opened with an
outlet pipe, then the tank fills in 12 min then find in how
much time outlet pipe can empty full tank.
(a) 24 min
(b) 30 min(c) 25 min
(d) 20 min
(e) 36 min
589. Two pipes can fill a tank in 15 hours and 20 hours

respectively, while the third pipes can empty it in 30
hours. If all the pipes are opened simultaneously, the
empty tank will be filled in
(a) 10 hours
(b) 12 hours
(c) 15 hours
(d) 15½ hours
(e) 20 hours
590. The rate of filling pipes A and B is 50 m3/ min and 60

m3/ min respectively. They together can fill a tank of
capacity 3000 m3 in how much time?
(a) 200/11 min

(b) 300/11 min
(c) 400/17 min
(d) 100/9 min
(e) 500/11 min
Directions (591-595): Given below are the number of

students (in hundreds) in two schools A and B, in different
years. Answer the following questions based on given DI.
591. What is the average number of students of school A in

the year 2013, 2014 and 2016 and number of students of
school B in the year 2012 and 2015 together?
(a) 3300
(b) 2500

(c) 3100
(d) 1550
(e) 2250
592. If in year 2017, number of students of school A

decreases by 25% and that of school B increases by 10%
as compared to year 2016. Find total number of students
of school A and B together in 2017.
(b) 5200
(c) 6500
(d) 4800
(e) 5000
593. Total number of students of school B in year 2015 is

approximately what percent more than that of total
number of students of school A in year 2012.
(a) 164%
(b) 162%
(c) 170%
(d) 172%
(e) 167%
594. If school A students in year 2012 decreases by 20%

as compared to 2011. What was the total number of
students in school A in 2011?
(a) 1875
(b) 1650
(c) 1700
(d) 1775
(e) 1675

595. Find the ratio of students in school A in the year 2013

and 2014 to the students in school B in the year 2015 and
2016 together?
(a)12 : 11
(b) 8 : 7
(c) 1 : 6
(d) 3 : 2
(e) 11 : 12
596. 44% of 5025 + 56% of 2025 = ?

a) 3345
b) 3250
c) 3180
d) 3060
e) 2980
597. 136 ÷ 2² × x = 17% of 500 ÷ 10

a) 1
b) 1.12
c) 0.25
d) 1.15
e) 2.2
598. 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟔 × 𝟓 ÷ 𝟑 – 𝒙2 = 𝟗6
a) 6
b) 9
c) 14
d) 8
e) 12
599. 242 + 182 – ?2 = 416

a) 22
b) 26

c) 29
d) 24
e) 19
600. Ram travels a certain distance at 3 km/h and reaches 15 minutes

late. If he travels at 4 km/h, he reaches 15 minutes earlier. The
distance he has to travel is:
a) 8
b) 5
c) 9
d) 6
e) 4
601. A sum on simple interest becomes 7/2 times of itself in ten

years, find the rate of interest.
(a) 20%
(b) 16%
(c) 30%
(d) 25%
(e) 12%
602. Ayush divided 2189 in three parts such that interest on them
after 1, 2, 3 years respectively may be equal. The rate of SI is 4%
per annum in all case. The smallest part is ?
(a) 702
(b) 398
(c) 425
(d) 756
(e) 1093
603. A certain money becomes 7/4th of itself in 6 years at a certain

rate of simple interest. Find the rate of interest (in %).
(a) 25
(b) 30

(c) 12.5
(d) 6.25
(e)10
604. An amount is lent out at y% p.a at S.I for 2 years. If it had been
lent at 2y% p.a at S.I for ‘a’ more years, then the interest would
have been five times of the earlier interest. Find the value of ‘a’.(in
years)
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
(e) none of these
605. Rahul invested a sum of Rs. 10000 in a scheme offering simple

interest at 10% p.a. after 2 years, he again invested all the money
he got from scheme in share market at Rs. 50 per share. After 1
month, he sold all his shares at Rs. 52 per share. Find his profit
percent.
(a) 2 %
(b) 24 %
(c) 4 %
(d) 15 %
(e) 12 %
606. If the rate of interest is 20% p.a. then find the compound
interest earned on Rs. 2000 in 1½ years. If interest is charged half
yearly.
(a) Rs. 500

(b) Rs. 961
(c) Rs. 662
(d) Rs. 463
(e) Rs. 460

607. The simple interest on a certain sum for 4 yrs. at a rate of

12.5% per annum is Rs 4000. What will be the compound interest on
the same sum at a rate of 4% per annum after two years?
(a) Rs 762.8
(b) Rs 562.8
(c) Rs 652.8
(d) Rs 842.4
(e) Rs 648.6
608. In new year offer Axis bank reduced interest rate from 20% to
10% C.I. P.A. Due to this offer Anurag have to pay Rs. 345 less
interest in two year. Find the loan amount of Anurag.
(a) Rs. 1,000

(b) Rs. 2,400
(c) Rs. 4,000
(d) Rs. 1,500
(e) Rs. 2,000
609. A man invested a certain amount at the rate of 8 % per annum

for 5 year and obtained a total SI of Rs. 5000. Had he invested the
same amount at the same rate for 2 years, how much amount would
he have obtained as CI at the end of 2 year?
(a) 2050 Rs.

(b) 2010 Rs.
(c) 2040 Rs.
(d) 2080 Rs.
(e) 2020 Rs.
610. Bhavya have 10,000 Rs. He invested some amount in Scheme
‘A’ which offers 15% p.a. at SI and rest in Scheme ‘B’ which offers
20% p.a. at CI. Interest earned form scheme ‘A’ after 2 years is
780Rs more than interest earned form scheme ‘B’ after 2 years. Find
the amount invested in Scheme ‘B’?
(a) 8000 Rs
(b) 7000 Rs
(c) 3000 Rs
(d) 2000 Rs
(e) 5000 Rs
Directions (611-615): Study the given bar graph carefully and

answer the questions given below. Bar-graph shows number of
people (in hundred) using two different types of bike service over
the years.
611. What is the average no. of people using the HONDA bike service
in all over the years?
(a) 6400
(b) 4900
(c) 5800
(d) 6125
(e) 6800
612. Find the ratio of no. of people using the HONDA service in year
2015 and 2016 together to no. of people using the TVS service in
year 2017 and 2014 together.
(a) 4 : 5
(b) 3 : 4
(c) 5 : 4
(d) 6 : 5
(e) 4 : 3
613. What is the difference between no. of people using TVS service
all over the years (excluding 2016) and no. of people using HONDA
service all over the years (excluding 2015)?
(a) 2000
(b) 2500
(c) 3500
(d) 1500
(e) None of these
614. Total bike service in year 2018 is what percentage more/less

than the total bike service in year 2014 and 2015 together?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
615. If per service cost of TVS is 20% more than HONDA, then total
service cost of TVS in year 2015 is what percent of total service cost
of HONDA in same year?
(a) 125%
(b) 150%
(c) 200%
(d) 100%
(e) 50%

616. 22% of 150 + 29 × 36 + 24% of 750 = x

a) 1328
b) 1194
c) 1075
d) 1135
e) 1257
617. 65% of 540 + 868 ÷ 14 – 12 × 39 = x
a) -56
b) -68
c) -46
d) -51
e) -55
618. 24% of 350 – 1197 ÷ 19 + 35% of 340 = x

a) 120
b) 130
c) 140
d) 110
e) 150
619. √4761 ÷ 3 × 13 + 41472 ÷ 48 ÷ 9 = x

a) 395
b) 318
c) 343
d) 360
e) 372
620. 26 × 56 + √1369 – 76% of 150 = x

a) 1325
b) 1440
c) 1388
d) 1379
e) 1452
621.

a) 68
b) 70
c) 72
d) 65
e) 85
622.
a) 792.5
b) 852.5
c) 1092.5
d) 992.5
e) 892.5
623. √3249 × √2116 – (38)2 = (?)² + (31)² – 72
a) 17
b) 18
c) 19
d) 21
e) 23
624. (6386 ÷ 31) + (825 ÷ 33) + (9720 ÷ 216) = ?

a) 271
b) 276
c) 283
d) 285
e) 286
625. (37)2 = ? + [(11√3 + 5√3) × (9√3 + 11√3)]
a) 411
b) 415
c) 409
d) 406
e) 410
626. The sum of age of P and Q, 6 years ago is 82 years. Q’s age 14
years ago is equal to the present age of P. Then find age of P after 4
years?
a) 42 yr
b) 44 yr
c) 46 yr
d) 48 yr
e) 50 yr
627. The circumference of a semi-circle is 54 cm. A rectangle is drawn

such that its length is equal to the diameter of the semi-circle and
breadth is more than the radius of that semi-circle. Find the

area of rectangle (in cm²) ?
a) 280
b) 285
c) 385
d) 315
e) 420
628. The speed of boat in still water is 700% more than speed of
stream. Boat travels distance of 63 km in downstream in 2 hr 48 min.
Then, find the time taken by boat to travel 56 km in upstream.
a) 2 hr 56 min
b) 3 hr 02 min
c) 3 hr 12 min
d) 3 hr 36 min
e) 4 hr 12 min

629. A shopkeeper allows a two successive discount of 18% and 15%

on a trouser. If he allows only a single discount of 27.5% on it, he will
have a more profit of Rs. 35 then find the MRP of trouser?
a) Rs. 1250
b) Rs. 1275
c) Rs. 1185
d) Rs. 1215
e) Rs. 1300
630. Pipe P₁ can fill ⅗ th of the tank in 9 minutes. There are two more
pipes P₂ and P₃, in which P₂ is 50% more efficient than P₁ and P₃ pipe
is 5/9 th as efficient as P₂. Then find the time taken by all the three
pipes to fill that tank when opened together ?
a) 5 min
b) 6 min
c) 7 ½ min
d) 3 ½ min
e) 4 ½ min
Direction : (631-635) Bar chart shows the total number of sedans and
total number of SUVs in 5 different cities (A, B, C, D & E) in 2018.

631. Total number of sedans in A & E together is what percent more

or less than total number of SUVs in B & E together?
a) 40%
b) 25%
c) 5%
d) 30%
e) 15%
632. Find ratio of total sedans in C & D together to total SUVs in A & D
together.
a) 40:43
b) 35:41
c) 24:35
d) 43:40
e) 35:24

633. Total number of SUVs in C & D together is how much more or

less than total number of sedans in B & E together?
a) 1600
b) 1200
c) 1500
d) 600
e) 900
634. If total number of hatchbacks in D are 20% less than total number
of sedans in C, then find total number of hatchbacks in D are how
much more or less than total number of sedans in A?
a) 800
b) 500
c) 1800
d) 1400
e) 700
635. Find difference between total number of sedans in A, B, C, D & E

together and total number of SUVs in A, B, C, D & E together.
a) 900
b) 1500
c) 2000
d) 400
e) 600
Directions(636-640): Find the missing term ‘?’ of the following number

series.
636. 5, 11, ?, 55, 117
a) 12
b) 15
c) 18
d) 25
e) 30

637. 5, 6, ?, 57, 244

a) 10
b) 12
c) 15
d) 16
e) 13
638. 4, 11, 25, 53, 109, ?

a) 200
b) 215
c) 221
d) 213
e) 222
639. 5, 7, 13, 25, 45, ?

a) 60
b) 70
c) 80
d) 78
e) 75
640. 483, 471,435, 375, 291, ?

a) 170
b) 183
c) 175
d) 189
e) 195
641. A and B can do a piece of work in 30 days and 40 days

respectively. A and B together started the work but after some days B
left the work and whole work completed in 21 days. Find out after how
many days B left the work?
a) 15 days
b) 12 days
c) 14 days

d) 8 days
e) 10 days
642. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 12 days, 18 days and 24

days respectively. All of them started the work together but after 4
days, A left the work and 2 days before the completion of the work, B
left. In how many days total work will be completed in this manner?
a) 15 days
b) 12 days
c) 14 days
d) 8 days
e) 10 days
643. Ravi bought two articles for Rs. 380 together and sold both
article at the same price. He sold 1st article at the profit of 10% and
2nd article at the loss of 10%. Find out the difference between their
cost price?
a) Rs. 54
b) Rs. 44
c) Rs. 38
d) Rs. 42
e) Rs. 45
644. Anurag purchased an article and sold it at the loss of ,

again with use of this money he purchased a new article and sold it at
the profit of . Find out over all profit or loss in the whole
transaction.
a) 12.5% profit
b) 3⅓% profit

c) 12.5 % loss
d) 33⅓% loss
e) neither profit nor loss
645. A and B invest their capital in the ratio of 2:3 but they donate the
5% of the total profit (at the end of the year) and remaining profit
distributed between A and B in the terms of their capital. If B gets Rs.
323 more than profit of A. Find out the total profit?
a) Rs. 800
b) Rs. 1300
c) Rs. 1200
d) Rs. 1700
e) Rs. 1900
646. Average weight of girls in a college is 48 kg and average weight

of boys in the college is 56 kg. find out the average weight of total
students if ratio of number of boys and girls in the college is 2:3.
a) 51.2 kg
b) 56.6 kg
c) 53.2 kg
d) 49.6 kg
e) 52.4 kg
647. The ratio of ages of M and N is 5:6 and that of M and O is 7:9. 5
years ago the age difference of N’ age and O’ age is 3 years. Find out
the average of present age of M and O.
a) 35 years
b) 40 years
c) 42 years
d) 38 years
e) 44 years
648. A 500-meter-long train crosses a pole in 12 sec. find out the time
taken by train to cross a 900-meter-long platform?
a) 33 sec
b) 31 sec
c) 34 sec
d) 32 sec
e) 33.6 sec
649. Two trains A and B crosses each-other in 8 sec when running in

opposite direction and in 72 sec in same direction. Find out the ratio
of speed of trains?
a) 5:4
b) 4:3
c) 7:5
d) 7:3
e) 5:3
650. A car travels half distance at 70 kmph and half of remaining

distance at the speed of 50 kmph and remaining distance cover by 45
kmph. Find out the average speed of the car?
a) 62 kmph
b) 54 kmph
c) 56 kmph
d) 56.50 kmph
e) 60 kmph
651. ?% of 21.99 + 20 = 14 2
a) 250
b) 300
c) 800
d) 500
e) 450
652. (2275 ÷ 91) ÷ 5 = ?

a) 5
b) 4
c) 6
d) 7
e) 2
653. 20% of 30% of 40% of 210 = ?

a) 8
b) 5
c) 15
d) 10
e) 12
654. 161.999 - 319.999 + 349.991 = ?

a) 193
b) 210
c) 260
d) 281
e) 250
655. 24.96 + 4.95 × 7.07 – 11.82 ÷ 2.93 = ?
a) 34
b) 40
c) 74
d) 56
e) 82
Directions (656-660) Study the following pie chart and answer the
Percentage-wise Distribution of Employees in Six Different

Professions

656. What is the difference between the total number of employees in

teaching and medical profession together and the number of
employees in management profession?
a) 7170
b) 7700
c) 7570
d) 7770
e) 7275
657. In management profession three-fourth of the number of

employees are female. What the number of male employees in
management profession?
a) 1225
b) 1138
c) 1272
d) 1289
e) 1139

658. 25% of employees from film production profession went on a

strike. What is the number of employees from film production who
have not participated in the strike?
a) 3271
b) 3819
c) 3948
d) 1273
e) 1246
659. What is the total number of employees in engineering profession

and industries together?
a) 5690
b) 5884
c) 5679
d) 5896
e) 5487
660. In teaching profession if 60 % teachers are not permanent, what

is the number of permanent teachers in the teaching profession?
a) 1608
b) 1640
c) 1764
d) 1704
e) 1686
661. A vendor bought 8 onions in Rs. 3. To get a profit of 60%, at what

rate he will sell these onions?
a) 2 in Rs. 1
b) 3 in Rs. 2
c) 5 in Rs. 3
d) 12 in Rs. 5
e) 3 in Rs. 5
662. In a basket there are 3 red, 4 green and 5 white bolls respectively.
3 bolls are selected randomly. Find the probability that these bolls are
green.
a) 7/53
b) 5/36
c) 2/55
d) 1/55
e) None of these
663. A, B and C start a business together by investing a total amount

of 50,000. Sum of A is Rs. 4,000 more than that of B and sum of B is
Rs. 5,000 more than that of C. If total profit at the end of a year was
found to be Rs. 35,000, what is the share of A in the profit?
a) Rs. 11,900
b) Rs. 14,700
c) Rs. 13,600
d) Rs. 8,470
e) Rs. 12,700
664. A and B can complete a work in 12 days together, B and C can

complete the same work in 15 days together and A and C can
complete that work in 20 days together. In how many days A can
complete the same work alone?
a) 30 days
b) 40 days
c) 25 days

d) 50 days
e) 45 days
665. One year before, the age of a person was 4 times of his son’s
age. 6 years hence, his age will be 9 years more than twice age of his
son. What is the ratio of their current ages?
a) 9 : 2
b) 11 : 3
c) 12 : 5
d) 13 : 4
e) 4: 1
Direction : (666-670) Study the table given below and answer the
Table gives information about election held in 5 different villages (A,
B, C, D & E).
666. Find invalid votes of village – A & D together.
a) 15400
b) 18700
c) 14000
d) 16000
e) 15200
667. Votes cast in village – A & B together are what percent of valid
votes of village – D.
a) 262.5%
b) 225%
c) 137.5%
d) 175%
e) 215%
668. Find average of valid votes in villages – B, D & E.
a) 15000
b) 18000
c) 16000
d) 21000
e) 20000
669. Total invalid votes of village – D & E together are how much more
or less than total votes cast in village – C?
a) 1500
b) 3000
c) 2500
d) 1000
e) 2000
670. Valid votes of village – A & C together are what percent more or
less than votes cast in village – D & E together?
a)

b)
c)
d)
e)
Directions : (671-675)
(What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
number series?)
671. 3, 52, 88, 113, 129, ?

a) 148
b) 142
c) 133
d) 145
e) 138
672. 2, 3, 8, ?, 112, 565

a) 36
b) 14
c) 27
d) 45
e) 54
673. 6, 4, 8, 23, ?, 385.25

a) 84.5
b) 73
c) 78.5
d) 82
e) 86

674. 8, 64, 216, 512, ?, 1728

a) 729
b) 1331
c) 684
d) 1000
e) 1004
675. 113, 130, 164, 215, ?, 368

a) 293
b) 273
c) 283
d) 327
e) 382
Direction(676-680): Study the following information carefully and

answer for it accordingly:
In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given.
You have to solve both the equations and give answer
676.
I 4X² -43X +105=0
II Y²-29Y +30=0
a) X > Y
b) Y > X
c) X ≥ Y
d) Y ≥ X
e) X = Y or Relation cannot be determined
677.
I. x2 +35x +276 = 0
II. Y2 +23y +132 = 0

a) x< y
b) x> y
c) x ≤ y
d) x ≥ y
e) x = y or relationship cannot be established
678.
I. x2 +6x -216 = 0
II. Y2 +41y +414 = 0
a) x< y
b) x> y
c) x ≤ y
d) x ≥ y
679.
I. x2 -25x +154 = 0
II. Y2 -32y +247 = 0
a) x< y
b) x> y
c) x ≤ y
d) x ≥ y
680.
I. x2 +2x -3 = 0
II. Y2 +31y +238 = 0
a) x< y
b) x> y
c) x ≤ y
d) x ≥ y

681. A man engaged a servant on the condition that he would pay him
Rs. 90 and a turban after service of one year. He served only for nine
months and received the turban and an amount of Rs. 65. The price of
turban is
a) Rs. 25
b) Rs. 18.75
c) Rs. 10
d) Rs. 2.50
e) None of these
682. A fraction becomes 1/6 when 4 is subtracted from its numerator

and 1 is added to its denominator. If 2 is added to numerator and 1 is
added to denominator then it becomes 1/3. Then, the LCM of the
numerator and denominator of the said fraction, must be
a) 14
b) 350
c) 5
d) 70
e) None of these
683. The batting average of 40 innings of a cricket player is 50 runs.

His highest score exceeds his lowest score by 172 runs. If these two
innings are excluded, the average of the remaining 38 innings is 48
runs. The highest score of the player is
a) 165 runs
b) 170 runs
c) 172 runs
d) 174 runs
e) None of these

684. A barrel contains a mixture of wine and water in the ratio 3 : 1.

How much fraction of the mixture must be drawn off and substituted
by water so that the ratio of wine and water in the resultant mixture in
the barrel becomes 1 : 1 ?
a) 1/4
b) 1/3
c) 3/4
d) 2/3
e) None of these
685. Two workers A and B working together completed a job in 5

days. If A worked twice as efficiently as he actually did and B worked
1/3 as efficiently as he actually did, the work would have been
completed in 3 days. To complete the job alone. A would require
a)
b)
c) 7 days
d) 8 days
e) None
Direction (686-690) In each question two equations numbered (I) and

(II) are given. You should solve both the equations and mark
appropriate answer.
a) If x = y or no relation can be established

b) If x > y
c) If x < y
d) If x ≥ y
e) If x ≤ y

686.
687.
688.
689.
690.
Directions (691-695) : Study the following information carefully and

answer the given questions.
There are certain number of students studying in a school. In a survey

it is found that 45.6% of total number of students like tea. 12.8% of
total number of students like cold drink. 84.4% of total number of
students like milk. 7% of students do not like any drink. 3.6% students
like tea and cold drink. 10.2% of total students like cold drink and
milk. 38.6% of total students like tea and milk. 2.6% students like all
three drinks. Number of students who do not like any drinks is 35.
691. What is the number of students who like only milk?
a) 162
b) 182
c) 204
d) 191
e) 235
692. What is the number of students who like tea and cold drink but
don’t like milk?
a) 5
b) 13
c) 12
d) 8
e) 18
693. What is the number of students who like exactly two drinks out of
the given three options?
a) 219
b) 223
c) 221
d) 225
e) 231
694. What is the number of students who like at least one drink?
a) 460
b) 465
c) 470
d) 480
e) 485
695. What is the number of students who like at least two drinks?
a) 230
b) 228
c) 236
d) 238
e) 240
Directions(696-700): What value should come in place of the x in the

following questions?
696. 22% of 150 + 29 × 36 + 24% of 750 = x
a) 1330
b) 1190
c) 1060
d) 1150
e) 1257
697. √31.36 ÷ √0.64 × 252 =x2 × 36

a)11
b) -8
c) 49
d) 81
e) -7
698. 65% of 540 + 868 ÷ 14 – 12 × 39 = x

a) -58
b) -68
c) -70
d) -51
e) -55
699. √(122 × 16 ÷ 24 + 193 + 7 × 5) = x2

a) 3√2
b) 2√2
c) 4√2
d) 5√2
e) None of these

700. √1849 × 1326 ÷ 51 + x% of 350 – 12% of 950 = 1165

a) 46
b) 49
c) 53
d) 57
e) 59
Directions (701-705): In each of the questions below are

given some statements followed by some Conclusions. You
have to take the given statements to be true even, if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read
all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements
701. Statements:
Only a few music is sweet
No sweet is tasty
All tasty is Mango
Conclusions:
I: Some mango are not sweet
II: No music is tasty
702. Statements:
All Bus are Truck
All truck are Car
Some truck are train
Conclusions:
I: Some bus are train

II: No train is bus
703. Statements:
Some Hot are Cold
All cold are water
All water is steam
Conclusions:
I. Some water are Hot
II. Some steam are hot
704. Statements:
Only a few grapes are mango
Only a few mango are Onion
All onion are Apple
Conclusions:
I. Some grapes are apple is possibility
II. Some mango are apple is possibility
705. Statements:
No sand is smoke
All smoke is Smog
No smog is fog
Conclusions:
I. Some smog are not sand
II. Some smoke are not Fog
706. If all the letters in the word ‘JOURNALISM’ are

arranged in alphabetical order from left to right in such a
way that vowels are arranged first followed by consonants,

then how many letters are there in between O and N after

the arrangement?
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) None
(d) Three
(e) Four
707. If in the number ‘18397652’, 2 is subtracted to each

of the digit which is greater than 6 and 1 is added from
each of the digit which is less than 5 and three is added to
each of the digit which is equal to 5 and 6 then how many
digits are repeating in the number thus formed?
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) None
(d) Three
(e) Four
708. Mohit is 15th from the left end of a row and Ram is
22th from the right end of row. If they interchanged their
positions then Ram ranks become 16th from right end.
Find total number of persons in the row?
(a) 30
(b) 29
(c) 31
(d) 25
(e) Can’t be determined
709. Showing a woman on the stage, Ravi said, “She is the

aunt of the son of only brother of my wife. How is the
woman on stage related to Ravi?
(a) Wife
(b) Brother
(c) Mother in law
(d) Sister in law
(e) Mother
710. Which of the following will be definitely not true if the

given expression A>D≥R>J≥W>L=T≤C>B≤N is definitely
true?
(a) R>T
(b) C≥T
(c) W<A
(d) L<D
(e) J≥T
Directions (711-715): Study the following information

carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight persons are sitting around a circular table, in such a
way some are facing inside while some are facing outside
the center. Each of them likes different fruits. C sits third
to the left of the one who likes Grapes. The one who likes
Grapes faces outside. Only two persons sit between C and
H. The one who likes Mango sits on the immediate right of
H who is facing outside. The one who likes Kiwi sits second
to the right of G. B likes Guava. G is neither an immediate
neighbour of H nor of C. G does not like Grapes. Only one
person sits between A and the one who likes Kiwi. D sits
on the immediate left of the one who likes Banana. G does
not like Banana. E likes Litchi. E is not an immediate
neighbour of A who likes mango. The one who likes Apple
is an immediate neighbour of E. The one who likes Orange
is an immediate neighbour of F. B is facing same direction
as F and E but opposite to A and C who does not like apple.
C is facing same direction as D.
711. Who among the following likes Grapes?

(a) D
(b) E
(c) B
(d) F
(e) None of these
712. Who among the following sits second to the right of

the one who likes Kiwi?
(a) B
(b) D
(c) G
(d) A
(e) None of these
713. A likes which of the following Fruit?

(a) Kiwi
(b) Mango
(c) Apple
(d) Orange
(e) None of these
714. Who among the following faces the one who sits third
to the left of B?
(a) H
(b) the one who likes Orange
(c) E
(d) the one who sits second to the right of G
(e) None of these

715. Which of the following fruit likes by the one who sits
third to the right of D?
(a) Apple
(b) Litchi
(c) Guava
(d) Banana
(e) None of these
Directions (716-720) Read the information carefully and answer the

questions
Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circle.
Three of them are facing toward the centre and other five are facing
outside the centre of the circle. Two persons sit between W and T and
two persons sit between U and T. R sits second left to V, who faces
the centre of the circle. Q faces the centre of the circle. Q sits third
right to U. S is not neighbour of W. R is sitting third to the left of S,
who sits second right to P, who faces outside the centre of the circle.
T is not opposite to U and R. Immediate neighbors of U faces opposite
direction.
716. Who among following sits fourth to right of P?
a) U
b) S
c) T
d) R
e) W
717. Who is sitting third to the left of T?
a) S
b) U
c) Q
d) W
e) None of these
718. Who among following sits immediate left of U?

a) R
b) P
c) T
d) S
e) W
719. Who is second to the right of V?

a) U
b) W
c) Q
d) W
e) P
720. How many people are sitting between W and S, when counted in
clockwise direction from S?
a) Three
b) Four
c) One
d) Two
e) None of these
Directions (721-725): Study the following information to

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing
six people each in such a way that there is an equal
distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, K, L, M, N, O
and P are sitting and all of them are facing South. In row-
2, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting and all of them are facing
North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each
member of a row faces another member of the other row.
C sits third to the right of B. B faces P and P does not sit at

any of the extreme ends of the lines. N sits third to the

right of M. F faces K. The one facing K sits third to the right
of D. O and D does not sit at the extreme ends of the lines.
A is not an immediate neighbour of B and P is not an
immediate neighbour of N.
721. Who among the following sits opposite to M?
(a) D
(b) C
(c) E
(d) B
(e) None of these
722. How many persons sit between A and F?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) More than Three
(d) Three
(e) None
723. Who among the following sits third to the left of P?
(a) O
(b) L
(c) K
(d) N
(e) None of these
724. What is the position of E with respect to D?

(a) Second to the right

(b) Immediate left
(c) Third to the right
(d) Second to the left
(e) None of these
725. Which among the following persons sit opposite to

the one who sits second to the right of M?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) F
(d) C
(e) None of these
Directions (726 – 727): Study the following information

and answer the questions given below:
‘Q + R’ means ‘Q is father of R’
‘Q ÷ R’ means ‘R is brother of Q’
‘Q × R’ means ‘Q is husband of R’
‘Q – R’ means ‘Q is sister of R’
726. In the expression “Q + R × P – S ÷ T” is true, then

how is S related to R?
(a) Brother-in-law
(b) Sister-in-law
(c) Nephew
(d) Brother
(e) Can’t be determined
727. In the expression “Q + R – S + T ÷ M” is true, then

how is M related to Q?

(a) Son
(b) Daughter
(c) Grandson
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
Directions (728-729): Study the following series carefully

and answer the questions.
D is the mother of K and wife of H. L who is son of H, is
married to P. P and S are siblings and D has one grandchild
J. K is unmarried.
728. What is the relation of K with respect to J?
(a) Mother
(b) Aunt
(c) Brother
(d) Uncle
(e) Either (b) or (d)
729. How L is related to S?
(a) Mother-in-law
(b) Sister-in-law
(c) Brother-in-law
(d) Grandfather
(e) None of these

730. Which alphabet is 3rd from the left in the meaningful

five-letter word formed from the 1st, 3rd, 5th, 9th and
11th letter of the word COMMUNITIES? If more than one
word is formed, then mark answer as X and no meaningful
word is formed then mark answer as Z.
(a) S
(b) U
(c) Z
(d) M
(e) X
731. How many pairs of letters are there in the word

‘CHAMPIONS’, each of which have as many letters between
then in the word as they have between then in the English
alphabet?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
732. The position of how many alphabets will remain

unchanged if each of the alphabets in the word
‘OVERCOME’ is arranged in alphabetical order from left to
right?
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) One
(e) None
733. What will come in place of the question mark (?) to

make the expressions I < H as well as K ≥ J definitely
true? J = Y ≤ I ? K < H
(a) ≥
(b) <
(c) >
(d) ≤
(e) None of these
Directions (734-735): In each of the questions below are

given some statements followed by some conclusions. You
have to take the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read
conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
734. Statements:
Some Pink are Black.
All Black are Yellow.
Some Blue are Black.
Conclusions:
I. Some Yellow are Pink.
II. Some Blue being Pink is a possibility.
III. Some Yellow are not Blue.
(a) Both I and II follows
(b) Either I or II follows
(d) None follows
(e) Only I follows

735. Statements:
Only a few Mars are Venus.
All Mars are Star.
No Sun is Star.
Conclusions:
I. All Venus is star is a possibility
II. Some Venus is Sun
III. No Mars is Sun
(a) Only I follow
(b) Only II follows
(d) Both I and III follows
(e) None of these
Direction (736 - 740) Read the given information carefully and answer
the questions;)
Seven boxes are arranged in a stack A, B, C, D, E, F and G are placed
one above another (but not necessarily in the same order) are of
seven different colours Blue, Black, Green, Pink, Yellow, Purple and
White. Green colour box is just above G. More than four boxes are
between the box A and the White colour box. Box B is of Black colour
and placed just above box F. Only one box is between F and C. E is
not of White colour. Only three boxes are between the Blue colour
box and G. The Purple colour box is just above the Pink colour box.
Box E is not of Pink colour. Only three boxes are between G and A.
Box which is of Yellow colour is not F.
736. Which of the following box is placed at bottom?)

a) The box which is of purple colour
b) B
c) C

d) The box which is of Yellow color

e) None of these
737. How many boxes are in between black coloured box and Box C?)
a) Three
b) Two
c) Four
d) More than four
e) None of these
738. Which of the following box is of blue colour?

a) B
b) C
c) D
d) A
e) None of these
739. Which of the following box is placed at top?

a) G
b) A
c) B
d) D
e) None of these
740. Which of the following is immediate below white colour box?

a) E
b) B
c) C
d) no one
e) None of these

Directions (741-745): Study the information carefully and

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a
circular table and all of them facing towards center. They
all like different fruits i.e. Grapes, papaya, Orange, Mango,
Apple, Litchi, Guava and Peach but not necessary in same
order.
A likes peach and sits second to the right of C. Two
persons sit between C and E, who likes Litchi. B who likes
Grapes sit opposite to H. B is not immediate neighbor of
the one who likes peach. The one who likes Mango sits
opposite to the one who likes Papaya. F sits second to the
right of the one who likes papaya. D is immediate neighbor
of the one who likes Orange. H does not like Guava. G is
not immediate neighbor of A.
741.Which of the following fruit D likes?
(a) Apple
(b) Guava
(c) Orange
(d) Papaya
(e) None of these
742. Who among the following sits immediate left of F?

(a) D
(b) C
(c) G
(d) B
(e) None of these

743. Four of the following five are alike in certain way

based from a group, find the one that does not belong to
that group?
(a) C-G
(b) F-A
(c) B-H
(d) E-D
(e) D-H
744. Which of the following combination is true?
(a) B- Apple
(b) H-Apple
(c) D-Orange
(d) A-Litchi
(e) C-Papaya
745. Which among the following fruit G likes?
(a) Grapes
(b) Orange
(c) Papaya
(d) Mango
(e) None of these

carefully and answer the given questions.
‘down cyber market report’ is coded as ‘bx fe fm xp’
‘cyber watch order market’ is coded as ‘fm xp xe kx’
‘down market major watch’ is coded as ‘xi xe fm fe’
‘smog report market today’ is coded as ‘dx bx lx fm’

746. Which of the following is the code for ‘market’?

(a) bx
(b) xe
(c) fe
(d) fm
(e) None of these
747. Which of the following word is coded as ‘xp’?

(a) smog
(b) down
(c) cyber
(d) market
(e) None of these
748. What may be the code of ‘Word Down’?

(a) fe fm
(b) fe kx
(c) fe xi
(d) fe zx
(e) None of these
749. Which of the following code is coded for ‘Watch’?
(a) fe
(b) xe
(c) xp
(d) xi
(e) None of these
750. What will be the code of ‘smog’?

(a)dx
(b) xi
(c) lx
(d) Either (a) or (c)
(e) None of these
Directions (751-755): In these questions, relationship

between different elements is shown in the statements.
These statements are followed by two conclusions. Mark
answer
(a) if only conclusion I is true.
(b) if only conclusion II is true.
(c) if either conclusion I or II is true.
(d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(e) if both conclusion I and II are true.
751. Statements: A>B, D≤E, C≥F=G, B≤C=D

Conclusions:
I. B≥G
II. E≥G
752. Statements: T>S≤Q, T≥U=V, H≥T

Conclusions:
I. U≤H
II. S<H
753. Statements: A>B≥L, R>B=H

Conclusions:
I. A<L
II.R>L
754. Statements: P>K=L, P≤S<Q, T>K

Conclusions:
I.Q>K
II.Q<T

755. Statements: P<H, V≥S>H, N≥V

Conclusions:
I.N≥P
II.S>P
questions
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W live on different floors in the
same building, in such a way that ground floor is numbered 1 and the
top most floor is numbered 8. S lives on even numbered floor above
the floor numbered 5. There are only two persons live between the
floor on which V and W live. P lives immediate above the floor on
which U lives. V lives on an even numbered floor below the floor on
which S lives. R lives on floor numbered 4. There are only three
persons lives between U and T who lives on odd numbered floor
above the floor on which R lives.
756. Who among the followings lives on topmost floor?
a) W
b) V
c) Q
d) S
e) None of these
757. T lives on which of the following floor?
a) 1st
b) 3rd
c) 4th
d) 5th
e) None of these
758. How many floors between Q’s floor and U’s floor?
a) Four
b) Five

c) Three
d) Two
e) None of these
759. W lives on which floor?
a) 1st
b) 3rd
c) 4th
d) 5th
e) None of these
760. How many floors between V and the one who lives immediately
below W?
a) Four
b) Three
c) Five
d) Two
e) None of these
(761-765) answer the questions given below.

Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V like different colours Purple,
Green, Yellow, Blue, White, Brown, and Black (not necessarily in
same order) also they are from different cities. One of the persons
from Delhi. Neither Q nor U likes yellow and brown colour. T likes
white colour and is from Kolkata city. Q is from either Noida or
Gurgaon. S doesn’t like purple and yellow colour. The one who is
from Gurgaon city doesn’t like purple colour. P likes green colour.
The one who likes black colour is not from Chennai city. S is from
Chennai city. V is from Pune city. The person who is from Goa city
likes brown colour. U is not from Noida city. P is not from Noida and
Gurgaon city.
761. Who among the following likes Purple Colour?

(a) S
(b) R

(c) U
(d) Q
(e) V
762. Who among the following person is from Delhi city?
(a) Q
(b) R
(c) P
(d) S
(e) T
763. Which of the following combination is true about U?
(a) Black-Gurgaon
(b) Blue-Delhi
(c) Yellow-Kolkata
(d) Purple-Chennai
(e) Green-Noida
764. Which of the following combination is true?
(a) P- Goa
(b) R-Noida
(c) Q- Chennai
(d) U-Delhi
(e) S- Chennai
765- Who among the following person is from Goa?
(a) U
(b) R
(c) Q
(d) V
(e) None of these
Direction (766-768): Read all the information carefully and answer

Eight persons H, J, K, L, R, O, S, P of a family going for vacation.

There are four married couples and two generations in the family. S
who is the brother-in-law of P is going with his wife O. H is the
paternal uncle of P. L is the sister-in-law of R and going with her
nephew P. J is the sister-in-law of O. The husband of R has two
children. S is son-in-law of R’s husband.
766. How is K related to J?

(a) Daughter
(b) Father
(c) Mother
(d) Daughter-in-law
(e) None of these
767. How is R related to O?
(a) Aunt
(b) Father-in-law
(c) Mother
(d) Uncle
(e) None of these
768. How is H related to R?
(a) Brother
(b) Brother-in-law
(c) Mother-in-law
(d) Father in law
(e) None of these
Directions (769–770): Study the following information carefully and

There are eight member- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in a family with
three generation. D is mother of G. H is niece of C. A is father of E. B
has only two married sons. G is grandson of B. F is sister-in-law of C
who is father of G. A is not married to F.

769. Who among the following is mother of H?
(a) F
(b) C
(c) B
(d) D
(e) G
770. Who among the following is nephew of E?
(a) D
(b) F
(c) G
(d) H
(e) C
771.Dinesh ranked 18th from the top and 24th from the bottom in a
class. How many students are there in the class?
(a) 42
(b) 43
(c) 41
(d) 39
(e) 40
772. If in the number 8639726501, positions of the first and the

second digits are interchanged, positions of the third and fourth
digits are interchanged and so on till the positions of 9th and 10th
digits are interchanged, then which of the following digit will be 6th
from the left end?
(a) 7
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 9
(e) None of these
773. How many pairs of letters are there in the word” EARPHONE”
which have as many letters between them (both forward and
backward direction) in the word as in alphabetical series?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four

statements followed by some Conclusions. You have to take the
given statements to be true even, if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
774. Statements:
Only a few Mango is Orange
No Orange is Green
All Green are white
Conclusion:
I: Some white are not Orange
II: Some Mango are green
775. Statements:
Only a few Car is Truck
All Truck is Shoes
Some Shoes are Bottle
Conclusion:
I: Some bottle is car
II: No bottle is car
Directions (776-780): These questions are based on the following

five numbers.
234 436 517 625 397
776. If all the digits of numbers are arranged in ascending order

within each of the number, then which of the following is third
lowest number thus formed?
a) 234
b) 517
c) 397
d) 625
e) 436
777. If 1st digit of highest number is divided by 2nd digit of 2nd

highest number, then what will be the resultant?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 9
e) 6
778. If 1st digit is replaced with 2nd digit, 2nd digit is replaced with
the 3rd digit and 3rd digit is replaced with the 1st digit within the
number, then which number thus formed will be the lowest among
all?
a) 517
b) 625
c) 436
d) 234
e) None of these
779. What is the sum of the third digit of the second highest number and
the first digit of the lowest number? a) 7
b) 6
c) 4
d) 9
e) None of these
780. If 1st digit of 2nd highest number is multiplied by 1st digit of

lowest number, then what will be the resultant?
a) 15

b) 16
c) 10
d) 14
e) None of these
Directions (781-785): Study the following information carefully

and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons are sitting around a square table, facing the centre, in such
that four persons sit at middle of the sides and four persons sit at the
corners. Each of them likes different colour – blue, purple, olive, yellow,
black, green, white and violet. The one who likes violet sits third to the
right of S. O is an immediate neighbour of S. The one who likes olive sits
second to the right of O. N sits third to the right of T. Only one person
sits between O and the one who likes green. T neither likes violet nor
olive colour. M and R are immediate neighbours of each other. Q does not
like white colour. Neither M nor R likes violet colour. The one who likes
blue colour sits second to the right of M. Only two people sit between P
and the one who likes purple colour. P does not like violet colour. The one
who likes yellow colour is not an immediate neighbour of the one who
likes violet colour. The one who likes black colour sits second to the left of
M. The one who likes Violet colour does not sit at the corner.
781. T likes which of the following colour?

(a) Violet
(b) Black
(c) Blue
(d) Green
(e) None of these
782. Who among the following sits second to the right of the one who
likes violet colour?
(a) Q
(b) R
(c) O
(d) M
(e) None of these

783. Who among the following likes purple colour?
(a) N
(b) M
(c) Q
(d) O
(e) None of these
784. Who among the following sits opposite to the one who likes yellow
colour?
(a) R
(b) The one who likes white colour
(c) T
(d) The one who likes purple colour
(e) None of these
785. Which of the following statement is true about Q?
(a) The one who likes black colour sits immediate right of Q
(b) Q likes blue colour
(c) T sits opposite to Q
(d) Q sits third to the right of S
(e) None is true
Directions (786-790): In these questions, a relationship between

different elements is shown in the statements. The statements
are followed by two conclusions. Give answer
Q786. Statement: A<B; G<D>E; G<F>B

Conclusion: I. E≥A II. A>E
(a) if either conclusion I or II is true.
(b) if only conclusion I is true.
(c) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(d) if only conclusion II is true.

(e) if both conclusions I and II are true.
Q787. Statement: D>K≥J; D≤S=H; I>K

Conclusion: I. K<H II. I>D
(a) if both conclusion I and II are true.
(b) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(c) if only conclusion I is true.
(d) if either conclusion I or II is true.
(e) if only conclusion II is true.
Q788. Statement: K<L<M≥S; K≥O>T

Conclusion: I. M>T II. M=T
(a) if only conclusion II is true.
(b) if either conclusion I or II is true.
(d) if only conclusion I is true.
Q789. Statement: Q> T>N; A>S>Q; A<M

Conclusion: I.N<A II. M>T
(b) if only conclusion I is true.
(d) if either conclusion I or II is true.
Q790. Statement: D>B≤C; F<M≤D; C=N

Conclusion: I. M≤C II. M>N
(b) if either conclusion I or II is true.
(d) if only conclusion I is true.

Directions (791-793): Study the following information carefully

and answer the given questions.
Amongst five friends, A, B, C, D, E, each got different marks in the
examination. A scored more than B but less than C. C scored 65 marks. D
scored less marks than only E. The one who scored the minimum marks
scored 60 marks and the one who scored the highest, scored 80 marks.
791. Who scored the second highest marks?
(a) B
(b) E
(c) D
(d) C
(e) A
792. Who is the most likely to have scored 62 marks?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) D
(d) E
(e) Either E or B
Q793. Who scored the lowest marks?
(a) B
(b) E
(c) D
(d) C
(e) A
Q794. In a class Nisha is 10th from the top and Aparna is 20th from the
bottom. Naveen is 11 ranks above Aparna and 21 ranks below Nisha.
How many students are there in the class?
(a) 60
(b) 61
(c) 62
(d) 58
(e) None of these
Q795. Rohit’s rank is 21st from the top and 15th from the bottom in the
class. How many students are there in the class?
(a) 29
(b) 36
(c) 27
(d) 35
(e) None of these
Directions (796-800) Read the information carefully and answer the questions
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W live on different floors in the same
building, in such a way that ground floor is numbered 1 and the top most floor is
numbered 8. S lives on even numbered floor above the floor numbered 5. There
are only two persons live between the floor on which V and W live. P lives
immediate above the floor on which U lives. V lives on an even numbered floor
below the floor on which S lives. R lives on floor numbered 4. There are only
three persons lives between U and T who lives on odd numbered floor above the
floor on which R lives.
796. Who among the followings lives on topmost floor?
a) W
b) V
c) Q
d) S
e) None of these
797. T lives on which of the following floor?
a) 1st
b) 3rd
c) 4th
d) 5th
e) None of these

798. How many floors between Q’s floor and U’s floor?
a) Four
b) Five
c) Three
d) Two
e) None of these
799. W lives on which floor?
a) 1st
b) 3rd
c) 4th
d) 5th
e) None of these
800. How many floors between V and the one who lives immediately below W?
a) Four
b) Three
c) Five
d) Two
e) None of these
Direction (801-805): Read the given information carefully

and answer the questions:
Six boxes M, N, O, P, Q, and S are placed one above
another, also they are of different weights (in kg.) i.e. 24,
25, 36, 37, 43, and 81(but not necessarily in the same
order). Box P’s weight is not a lowest among all the boxes.
M is placed either top or bottom. The weight of the box
which is placed at bottom is 25kg. Only one box is placed
between P and S. Box Q is not placed just above and below
P. Box O is placed below Q but not just below Q. The
weight of the box which is placed just above N is a perfect
square of an odd number. Box O’s weight is a prime
number. Box N is not placed above M, whose weight is not
a perfect square. Only 2 boxes are placed between M and

P, whose weight is a prime number. Box P is not third

heaviest box.
Q801. What is the weight of Box O?

(a) 24
(b) 25
(c) 36
(d) 37
(e) None of these
802. Which of the following box is placed at top?

(a) N
(b) S
(c) O
(d) M
(e) None of these
803. How many boxes are placed between Q and the box
which weight’s is 25?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) More than three
(e) None of these
804. Which of following box is 24kg?

(a) P
(b) N
(c) Q
(d) M
(e) None of these
805. What is the weight of the box which is placed

immediate below N?
(a) 36
(b) 43
(c) 24
(d) 81
(e) None of these
Directions (806-808): Study the information carefully and

There are nine members in a family, in which only three
married couples. There are three generation in this family.
Q is the wife of P. P is the grandfather of R. Q has only one
son who is married to T’s child. T has only two children one
son and one daughter. X is grandson of T. S is brother in
law of son of T. U and V are children of T. W is married to
the son of T. X is nephew of U and he is W’s child. U is a
married woman.
806. If R is married to Y, then how is Y related to S?

(a) Son
(b) Daughter
(c) Son in law
(d) Daughter in law
(e) Can’t be determine
807. How is S related to T?
(a) Son
(b) Daughter
(c) Son in law
(d) Daughter in law
(e) Husband
808. How is Q related to R?
(a) Grandfather
(b) Grandmother
(c) Uncle
(d) Aunt
(e) Either (c) or (d)

carefully and answer the given questions:
In a family of five members, there are two married couples
in the family. A is father in law of X, who is married with
W. Z is the son of W. D who is a married woman has only
one daughter.
809. How is A related with Z?
(a) Grand Father

(b) Grand Mother
(c) Father in law
(d) Daughter in law
(e) Grandson
810. Who is the son in law of Z’s grandmother?
(a) A
(b) D
(c) W
(d) X
(e) None of these
811. How many pairs of letters are there in the word

“Adequate” each of which have as many letters between
them in the word as they have between them in the
English alphabetical series?
(a) Three
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) More than three

(e) None
812. If in the number 63143214, addition of 1 after

multiplying by 2 in each of the odd digit and subtract 3
after multiplying by 2 in each of the even digit then, How
many digits are repeating in new number ?
(a) Three
(b) One
(c) None
(d) Two
(e) Four
813. Which of the following elements should come in a

place of ‘?’
JQ4 HS9 FU16 ?

(a) EV36
(b) PK 81
(c) IR 100
(d) DW25
(e) LO 49
814. Arun’s ranked 38th from the top and 44th from the
bottom in a class. How many students are there in the
class?
(a) 82
(b) 77
(c) 81
(d) 79
(e) None of these
815. If in the number 867351429, all digits are arranged in

increasing order from right to left than how many digit
remain same place in the new arrangement?

(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) None
(d) Two
(e) One

questions
Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circle.
Three of them are facing toward the centre and other five are facing
outside the centre of the circle. Two persons sit between W and T and
two persons sit between U and T. R sits second left to V, who faces
the centre of the circle. Q faces the centre of the circle. Q sits third
right to U. S is not neighbour of W. R is sitting third to the left of S,
who sits second right to P, who faces outside the centre of the circle.
T is not opposite to U and R. Immediate neighbors of U faces opposite
direction.
816. Who among following sits fourth to right of P?
a) U
b) S
c) T
d) R
e) W
817. Who is sitting third to the left of T?
a) S
b) U
c) Q

d) W
e) None of these
818. Who among following sits immediate left of U?
a) R
b) P
c) T
d) S
e) W
819. Who is second to the right of V?
a) U
b) W
c) Q
d) W
e) P
820. How many people are sitting between W and S, when counted in
clockwise direction from S?
a) Three
b) Four
c) One
d) Two
e) None of these

carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight persons are sitting around a circular table. Some are
facing inside while some are facing outside the table. Only
two persons are sitting between T and S who sits second
to the right of U. R sits third to the right of Q. T is not an
immediate neighbour of U. V its second to the right of T,
both are facing same directions. V is not an immediate

neighbour of P who sits third to the left of W. Q sits second
to the right of the one who sits second to the left of U. W
and P facing same direction but opposite to R and S. Q
doesn’t face inside.
821. Who among the following sits opposite to S?
(a) R
(b) V
(c) P
(d) W
(e) None of these
822. Who among the following sits immediate right of Q?

(a) R
(b) T
(c) U
(d) V
(e) None of these
Q823. Which of the following statement is not true about

W?
(a) Only three persons sit between W and S

(b) U sits second to the left of W
(c) V is an immediate neighbour of W
(d) W and P facing same direction
(e) All are true

Q824. Who among the following sits immediate left of the

one who sits third to the right V?
(a) U
(b) R
(c) Q
(d) P
(e) None of these
Q825. What is the position of Q with respect to P?
(a) Third to the left

(b) Immediate right
(c) Second to the left
(d) Third to the right
(e) None of these
Direction (826-828): Read the information carefully and

answer the questions:
A person starts walking in east direction from his home
and walks 5m, then takes right turn and walks 8m then he
takes left turn and walks 10m to reach at point P. From
point P he walks 12m in north direction and then takes a
right turn and walks 6m to reach at point Q. Then finally
walks in south direction and walks 20m to reach his office.
826. What is the direction of his home with respect to

point Q?
(a) North-west
(b)West
(c) North-east

(d)South-west
(e) None of these
Q827. What is the shortest distance between point P and

his office?
(a) 27m
(b) 10m
(c) 15m
(d) 13m
(e) None of these
828. If point R is 4m south of point Q, then what is the

shortest distance between his home and point R?
(a) √31m
(b) 14m
(c) 21m
(d) 15m
(e) None of these
Direction (829-830): Read the information carefully and

answer the questions:
Point A is 10m west of point B. Point E is 8m south of point
D. Point B is 3m north of point C. Point E is 20m east of
point F, which is 5m south of point G. Point C is 15m west
of point D.
829. What is the direction of point F with respect to point

C?
(a)South
(b) South-west
(c)North-east
(d)East
(e) None of these
830. What is the shortest distance between point A and

Point G?
(a) 19m
(b) √41m
(c) 13m
(d) √61m
(e) None of these
Direction (831-835): In each of the questions below are

given some statements followed by some conclusions. You
have to take the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read
conclusions logically follows from the given statements
(a) If only conclusion I is true
(b) If only conclusion II is true
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) If both conclusion I and II are true
Q831. Statements:
All Exam are Job.
Some Exam are Success.
No Result are Success.
Conclusions:
I. All Exam can be Result.
II. Some Job is not Success.

832. Statements:
Some Silent are Mute.
All Mute are Peace.
No Mute is a Quiet.
Conclusions:
I. All Mute can be Silent.
II. No Silent is a Quiet.
833. Statements:
Some Flower are Wood.
No Plant is Tree.
Some Tree are flower.
Conclusions:
I. Some Flower is not Plant.
II. All Tree can be Wood.
834. Statements:
Only Green are Blue.
Some Green are Yellow.
Some Yellow are White.
Conclusions:
I. All White is Green is a possibility
II. Some Blue is Yellow
Q835. Statements:
Only a few Mobile is Computer.
Some Laptop are Computer.
No System are Mobile.
Conclusions:
I. Some Laptop are System is a possibility.
II. All Mobile are Computer is a possibility.

Direction (836-840) Answer the questions on the basis of the

following information
There are five persons Sarthak, Prachi, Rohan, Kanika and Gagan.
Two of them are Doctors, while other three are Engineer, Architect
and Chartered Accountant. A doctor and the Chartered Accountant
own a same car Superb. The other three own different cars viz. City,
Innova and Verna. Two of the five persons stay in Mumbai, while the
other three persons live in three different cities viz. Delhi, Pune and
Bangalore. The Chartered Accountant is the tallest, while the doctor
who is an ENT is the shortest. The other doctor is an eye specialist
and lies between the Engineer and Chartered Accountant height wise.
Kanika is an eye specialist and owns Superb while Gagan lives in
Delhi and owns a Verna. The engineer lives in Pune and owns a City.
Prachi lives in Bangalore, while Sarthak lives in Mumbai and is an
ENT.
836. What is Prachi by profession?
a) Engineer
b) Chartered Accountant
c) Architect
d) Doctor
837. What is Gagan by profession?
a) Engineer
c) Architect
d) Doctor

838. What is Rohan by profession?
a) Engineer
c) Architect
d) Doctor
839. Height-wise, who among the following lies between Sarthak and
Rohan?
a) Chartered Accountant
b) Engineer
c) Eye Specialist
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
840. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Gagan lives in Mumbai

b) Sarthak owns a Verna
c) Rohan is a Chartered Accountant
d) Kanika lives in Mumbai
e) Prachi is an Engineer
Directions (841-845): Study the following information carefully and

answer the questions given below:
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting on a square table

such that some persons are sitting on the corners and some persons
are sitting in middle of the table. The one who sits at the corner are
facing towards the centre of the table and the one who sits at the
middle are facing outside the centre of table but not necessarily in the
same order. Q and V are not immediate neighbours of each other . T
sits immediate right of P. P is facing outside the centre table and one
person sits between P and R . Two persons sit between R and V . S

sits immediate right of V. One person sits between V and W .W and P
are not immediate neighbours of each other. U and Q are immediate
neighbours of each other. Q is not facing the centre of the table.
841. Who among the following person sits immediate left of T?
(a) R
(b) U
(c) Q
(d) W
(e) None of these
842.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence
form a group find the one which does not belong to that group?
(a) T
(b) P
(c) V
(d) W
(e) U
843. If P and Q interchange their position then who sits immediate

right of Q ?
(a) W

(b) S
(c) T
(d) R
(e) None of these
844. Who among the following person sits immediate left of W?
(a) S
(b) V
(c) U
(d) P
(e) None of these
845. Who among the following person is facing U?
(a) V
(b) S
(c) W
(d) T
(e) None of these
Directions (846-850): In each of the question, relationships between

some elements are shown in the statements. These statements are

followed by conclusions numbered I and II. Read the statements and

give the answer.
846. Statements: C>V≥B<N<M>A>S>D>F>G
Conclusion:
I: V>S
II: V≤S
847. Statements: Z<X<C≤V;B>C<G<H≤J
Conclusion:
I: Z<G
II: X<J
848. Statements: A>S>D>F>G<H<J<K<L
Conclusion
I: A>G
II: H<L
849. Statements: X>C>H≥J≥K;H>Y≥U<I<O
Conclusion
I:X>U
II: KX>C<V; X>A>S<D<F; D>Q<W<R
Conclusion
I:Z>W
II: V<R

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting in a row some are

facing north and some are facing south direction but not necessarily
in the same order. The number of persons facing south is more than
the number of person facing north direction. A sits immediate left of C
and A sits at one of the extreme end of the row. Number of persons
sitting to the left of E is same as the number of persons sitting to the
right of E. A sits to the right of E. One person sits between D and F
and F is not immediate neighbour of E. G sits to the right of C but not
immediate right. D is facing the same direction as E. A and C are
facing opposite direction to each other. The persons sitting at the end
are facing the same direction . The person who sits at the immediate
right of E is facing north direction. B and G is facing the same
direction.

851.Who among the following person sits exactly between C and G ?

(a) E
(b) A
(c) D
(d) F
(e) None of these
852.What is the position of D with respect to B ?
(a) Immediate left
(b) Second to the right
(c) Second to the left
(d) Immediate right
(e) None of these
853. How many persons sit between G and F ?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) None
(d) Three
(e) None of these
854.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence
form a group find the one which does not belong to that group ?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) D
(d) F
(e) G
855. If B and F interchange their position then who sits immediate

right of B ?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) G
(d) A
(e) None of these
Direction (856-860) Study the following information carefully and

answer the questions given below
Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five persons in
each row such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent
persons. In row-1, A, B, C, D and E are seated and all of them are
facing south. In row-2, P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all of them are
facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each
member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
T sits third to the right of Q. The persons facing P sits to the
immediate right of B. Only one person sits between B and D. P sits
second to the left of T. A is not an immediate neighbor of B. Only two
people sit between A and C. Neither B nor A faces S.
856. Who among the following person facing D?
a) P
b) Q
c) R
d) S
e) T
857. Who among the following sits immediate right of R?
a) P
b) S
c) T
d) Q
e) No one
858. Who among the following faces the one who sits second to the
left of E?
a) P
b) T
c) A
d) Q
e) S
859. Who among the following sits immediate right of A?

a) E
b) B
c) No one
d) C
e) E

860. Who among the following sits exactly between A and the one
who faces R?
a) E
b) C
c) D
d) B
e) None of these

answer the below questions.
Seven boxes are placed one above another. Only two boxes are
placed between box M and box N. Box O is placed above box M but
not just above box M. Only one box is placed between box P and
box R. More than three boxes are placed between box R and box N.
As many boxes placed between box M and Q as placed between
boxes S and N. Box Q is not placed above box S. Box S is not
placed immediately below box M. Box N is placed above box M.
861) Which among the following boxes is placed third from top?
a) Q
b) P
c) O
d) M
e) S
862) How many boxes were placed between Q and O?
a) Two

b) Three
c) One
d) Four
e) None of these
863) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they
form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
a) N, R
b) O, M
c) S, P
d) M, Q
e) N, S
864) Which among the following boxes is placed exactly between R and
S?
a) Q
b) M
c) O
d) P
e) None of these
Seating arrangement


Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a circular table

and all of them facing towards center. They all like different fruits
i.e. Grapes, Litchi, Apple, Papaya, Plum, Cherry and strawberry but
not necessarily in the same order. A likes cherry and sits second
right of C. Two persons sit between D and the one who likes
strawberry and neither of them sits to the immediate right of C. E
who likes papaya sits third left of the one who likes grapes. B and F
are immediate neighbors of each other. Neither B nor F likes
strawberry. The only one who likes plum sits between F and the one
who likes apple. C likes apple.
865) How many persons were sitting between the one who likes Litchi
and the one who likes papaya when counted to the left of the one who
likes Litchi?
a) Two
b) One
c) Three
d) None
e) None of these
866) Who among the following persons likes grapes?
a) E
b) A
c) B

d) F
e) C
867) Who among the following person sits immediate left of G?
a) One who likes papaya
b) One who likes plum
c) One who likes grapes
d) One who likes Cherry
e) None of these
a) B, E
b) E, A
c) F, D
d) C, D
e) G, B
Directions Sense

Point N is 6m to the west of point C. Point M is 8m to the east of

point J which is 3m to the north of point H. Point N is 3m to the
south of point M. Point E is 4m to the south of point N. Point L is 6m

to the east of point E and 4m to the west of point W.
869) In which direction point N lies with respect to point J?
a) South east
b) North east
c) South west
d) None of these
e) North west
870) What is the shortest distance between point C and W?
a) None of these
b) √32m
c) √33m
d) √34m
e) √35m

Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W attends seminar on two

different dates 11 and 20 of four different months namely February,
April, July and November but not necessarily in the same order. Two
persons attend the seminar between P and Q. P attends seminar in
a month having more than 30 days. U attends the seminar
immediately before Q. As many persons attend the seminar before
V as after T. W attends the seminar immediately after T. R attends

the seminar on one of the days before T but after V.
871) Who among the following persons attend the seminar on April 20?
a) W
b) R
c) P
d) V
e) T
872) How many persons attend the seminar between T and V?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
873) As many persons attend the seminar before Q as after which of the
following persons?
a) W
b) S
c) R

d) T
e) P
874) If P is related to V and S is related to T, in the same way, R is related

to which of the following persons?
a) V
b) U
c) T
d) Q
e) W
875) Which of the following statements is true as per the given

arrangement?
a) S attends the seminar on November 20
b) All are true
c) U attends the first seminar of the year
d) Three persons attend the seminar between V and W
e) S attends the seminar immediately after W
Seating arrangement


Eight persons J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q are seated in three parallel rows

not necessarily in the same order. The rows are arranged such that
there are two seats in row 1, four in row 2 and two in row 3. The
persons in row 1 and row 3 sit exactly in front and exactly behind
the persons seated between the extreme ends of row 2 respectively.
All the persons face towards the north. J sits second to the left of L.
The immediate neighbor of L sits behind K. The seats of N, P and K
lie in a straight line. M is the only neighbor of P. O sits in front of
the person who sits at the immediate right of Q.
876) Who sits in front of J?
A) K
b) Q
c) M
d) O
e) None
877) What is the position of L with respect to N?
a) Immediate left
b) Immediate right
c) Second to the right
d) Second to the left
e) Immediately behind
878) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence forms
a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a) KQ
b) LM
c) JN
d) OL
e) JP
879) Who among the following pairs forms a straight line?
a) JNL
b) OLM
c) KPN
d) both a) and c)
e) both b) and c)
880) Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a) Q sits south-west of O
b) P sits behind N
c) J is an immediate neighbor of Q
d) O, J and M sits in different rows
e) All are correct

Directions (881-885): Study the following information carefully to answer

the given question:
Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on separate floors of a 7-

floor building but not necessarily in the same order. Ground floor is
as 1st floor; just above floor is as 2nd floor and so on until the
topmost floor is as 7th floor. All of them like different colours i.e.
Grey, White, Blue, Orange, Pink, Yellow and Red but not necessarily
in the same order.
R lives on 5th floor and does not like Yellow. U lives on an even
numbered floor below of the floor in which R lives. The one who
likes Yellow lives just above the Q’s floor and just below the S’s
floor. Two floors gap between the persons who like Blue and Yellow.
Two floors gap between P and V, who likes White. V does not live on
the top floor. The one who likes Grey lives just above the one who
likes Pink. Q does not like Red.
881) Who among the following lives on top most floor?
a) T
b) P
c) V
d) U
e) Q
882) Who among the following person likes Red?
a) S
b) T

c) U
d) P
e) None of these
883) How many persons live between T and S?
a) One
b) None
c) Three
d) Two
e) More than three
884) P is related to Blue and V is related to Yellow in the same way

which of the following colour is related to R?
a) Pink
b) Orange
c) Red
d) White
e) None of these
a) P

b) T
c) S
d) Q
e) R
PUZZZLE
Directions (886-890): Study the following information carefully to answer

the given question:
Ten persons viz. A, B, C, D, K, L, M, N, O, and P have seminar in

five different months viz. February, April, June, August, December,
but not necessarily in the same order.
Their seminar has on 2 different dates viz. 13 and 18. N have

seminar on 18th of the month after June. There are four persons
who have a seminar between O and M. There is one person who has
a seminar between C and A. A’s seminar is just after the seminar of
L but not in the same month. There are four persons who have a
seminar between P and K. There are two persons who have a
seminar between N and M. The number of persons has a seminar
after P is same as the number of persons have a seminar before B.
886) Who among the following has a seminar on 13th June?
a) D
b) B
c) O
d) M

eC
887) The number of persons have seminar before A is same as the

number of persons have seminar after ____?
a) D
b) N
c) B
d) O
e) None of these
a) B
b) K
c) O
d) L
e) N
889) Who among the following has a seminar before April?
a) C
b) B

c) O
d) M
e) D
890) How many persons have a seminar between B and P?
a) Five
b) Four
c) Two
d) Six
e) Three
Directions (891-893): In each question, relationship between different

elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by
conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and
select the appropriate answer.
891) Statements:
A < D ≤ R < T = O; M ≥ S > R < P; M≤U<V
Conclusions:
I) D < V
II) T > M
III) M ≥ O
IV) U ≥ O
a) Only I follow
b) Only II and III follow
c) Either II or III follow
d) Either II or III and I follow
e) None of these
892) Statements:
B ≥ Y < R = O > S; Z ≤ A < Y > T; C≤E=T<F
Conclusions:
I) O > Z
II) Y < C
III) S < A
IV) T < O
a) Only I follow
b) Only II and III follow
c) Only I and IV follow
d) All I, II and IV follows
e) None follows
893) Statements:

S < M > A = R ≥ I; P > I ≤ N < H; L≤H=O>V
Conclusions:
I) M > H
II) O ≥ M
III) A > O
IV) H ≤ M
a) None follows
b) Only II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Only IV follows
e) Either I or IV follows
Blood relation

In a family containing 10 members; F and K are siblings. J is

the Daughter of S who is the mother-in-law of K. O is the only
daughter of P. M is the Nephew of O who is married to H. D is the
paternal grandmother of M who is the brother of W. F is the brother
of O and he is unmarried. D has only three children.
894) How is P related to W?
a) Father
b) Brother
c) Cousin
d) Uncle
e) Grand father
895) How is F related to J?
a) Sister-in-law
b) Brother
c) Spouse
d) Brother-in-law
e) None of these
Directions (896-900): Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
Give Answer:
a) If Only conclusion I follows.
b) If Only conclusion II follows.
c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
d) If Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
896) Statement

Only a few better are best
No best is super
All good are super
Conclusion
I) All better can be super
II) Some good are best is a possibility.
897) Statement
Only a few bigger are smaller
All bigger are Longer
No longer is shorter
Conclusion
I) All Smaller can be longer
II) Some bigger are shorter
898) Statement
Only a few colleges are schools
No school is Office
No home is school
Conclusion
I) Some colleges are home is a possibility
II) All colleges are office is not a possibility

899) Statement
All Combs are Bands
Some Combs are Bottles
Few Bands are powders
Conclusion
I) Some Combs are powders
II) Some bottles are bands
900) Statement
All Soaps are Shampoo
All Pastes are Brush
No Shampoo is Paste
Conclusion
I) Some Pastes are Soap
II) Some Shampoo is Brush
Direction (901-905): In each questions bellow, a paragraph is given, containing

three blanks. Six words are given after the paragraph. Choose correct
combination of words from the options, which can fit in the blanks both
grammatically and meaningfully.
901) In fact, it’s these _______ blue colors that first caught biologist
RanilNanayakkara’s attention, and _______ the critters—now
namedChilobrachysjonitriantisvansicklei—as potentially new to science. “When
we first spotted them I was in awe, lost for words,” Nanayakkara says of the
decked-out females. “The males,” he notes, “are smaller and are _______ brown
in color.”

A. snazzy
B. puissant
C. flagged
D. diatribe
E. mossy
F. polemic
A) A, C & E
B) B, D & F
C) A, D & F
D) B, C & F
E) None of these
902) It supported the Punjab Press _______ its “efforts to inform the people
truthfully and impartially” during the years of militancy in the early 1990s;
around the same period, it _______ several publications that showed _______
bias in coverage of the Ayodhya agitation.
A. on
B. in
C. pulled up
D. wheedling
E. communal
F. redress
A) A, C & E
B) B, D & F
C) A, D & F

D) B, C & E
E) None of these
903) In fact, the fall will make India’s exporters _______. Economists often
complain that the rupee is over-valued in terms of the real effective exchange
rate making exports uncompetitive. Interestingly, the Reserve Bank of India does
not appear to have _______ in support of the rupee, signalling that it is not
_______ with the fall.
A. competitive
B. blandishment
C. vicissitude
D. intervened
E. oracular
F. uncomfortable
A) A, C & E
B) B, C & F
C) A, D & F
D) B, C & E
E) None of these
904) The Buddha asked _______ to examine their mind so that they can _______
misery, suffering and happiness. This can be done through mindfulness, gaining
insight _______ what truly is.
A. tirade
B. disciples
C. enigmatic
D. transcend
E. in
F. into
A) A, C & E
B) B, D & F
C) A, D & E
D) B, C & E
E) None of these
905) Most of us think _______ ourselves as a body and a mind; few realize that
we have another part that is our true _______, our soul. Our soul has many
layers covering it. These layers are the impressions _______ throughout our life.
A. of
B. about
C. abstruse
D. essence
E. shabby
F. accumulated
A) A, C & E
B) B, D & F
C) A, D & F
D) B, C & E
E) None of these
Direction (906-910): The following question consists of a sentence which is

divided into three parts which contain grammatical errors in one or more than
one part of the sentence, as specified in bold in each part. If there is an error in
any part of the sentence, find the correct alternative to replace those parts from
the three options given below each question to make the sentence grammatically
correct. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any
correction, choose (E), i.e “No correction required” as your answer.
906) Given both the overfishing of juvenile makos, that reduces future
reproductive rates, and the high losses from the natural die-off of
mature females (a)/during the past three decade, even if fishing were to
stop immediately, their stock in the North Atlantic would continue to
decline until at least 2035, (b)/according to the shark species group
with the International Commission for the Conservation of Atlantic
Tunas(c)/
a) which reduces future reproductive rates
b) during the past three decades
c) according to a shark species group with
A) Only a
B) Both a and b
C) Only c
D) Both b and c
E) No correction required
907) It held that privacy is a natural right that inheres in all natural
persons, and that the right may be restricted only by state action that pass
each of the three tests: (a)/First, such state action must have a
legislative mandate; Second, it must be pursuing a legitimate state
purpose; and third, it must be proportionate i.e., such state action (b)/—
both in its nature and extent, must be necessary in a democratic society and
the action ought to be the least intrusive of the available
alternatives to accomplish the ends (c)/

a) that the right may be restricted only by state action that passes
each of the three tests
b) it might be proportionate
c) both in its nature and extent, must be necessary at the

democratic society
A) Only a
B) Both a and b
C) Only c
D) Both b and c
908) Of course, in an era where unsubstantiated rumors roll

endlessly through the blogosphere, (a) /where lying and concealment
and spin are too much a part of public utterance that words have lost their
meaning (b) /and much of us automatically suspect anything a public figure
says, the very idea of right speech can sound countercultural (c)/
a) in an era where unsubstantiated rumors roll endless
b) spin are so much a part of public utterance
c) most of us automatically suspect anything a public figure says
A) Only a
B) Both a and b
C) Only c
D) Both b and c

909) The bottom line of the Tantric teaching on words is this: Since
everything in existence, (a) /including rocks and planets, is made out of
different densities of vibration—that is, out of (b) /coagulated sound—
words are not mere signifiers, but actual powers (c)/
a) Since everything at existence
b) are made out of different densities of vibration
c) words are not merely signifiers, but actual powers
A) Only a
B) Both a and b
C) Only c
D) Both b and c
910) We can check in with ourselves about (a) /what we are about to say and
why we have chosen to say this, (b) /out of all the possible things we
could offer with our speech to this moment (c)/
a) check out with ourselves
b) we are about to saying and why we have chosen
c) we could offer to
A) Only a
B) Both a and b
C) Only c
D) Both b and c

Direction: (911-915): Which of the following phrases (A), (B) (C) and (D) given
below in each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make
the sentence grammatically correct without changing the meaning of the
sentence? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect
that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of grammatically correct
sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is mark (E), i.e “No correction required”
as your answer.
911) In the deep sea, a group of marine archaeologist called Diving with a
Purpose are searching for wrecks of slave-carrying ships and parsing the
stories of those transported across the Atlantic.
A) A group of marine archaeologists called Diving with a Purpose

are searching for wrecks of slave-carrying ships
B) A group of marine archaeologists called Diving with a Purpose for

searching for wrecks of slave-carrying ships
C) Group of marine archaeologists called Diving with a Purpose is

D) A group of marine archaeologists called Diving with a Purpose is

912) The scientists carefully packed the eggs to blocky white coolers and
quickly carried them onto waiting helicopter, which ferried them to the
airport in Nairobi.
A) To blocky white coolers and quickly carried them onto a waiting

helicopter, which ferried them
B) To blocky white coolers and quickly carried them on a waiting


C) Into blocky white coolers and quickly carried them onto a waiting
D) Into blocky white coolers and quickly carried them onto a waiting
helicopter, that ferried them
913) The minister went away convinced that a time were ripe to
overthrowing the king and seize the throne.
A) The time was ripe to overthrow the king
B) A time was ripe to overthrow the king
C) The times were ripe to overthrow the king
D) The time was ripe to overthrowing the king
914) In fact, in the past few quarters, there has gradually shift into the
loan mix for most banks towards a higher share of retail loans.
A) Has gradual shift in the loan mix for most banks
B) Has been gradual shift in the loan mix for most banks
C) Has been gradually shift in the loan mix for most banks
D) Has been gradual shift into the loan mix to most banks
5) Unless the birth rate declines, there is no possibility for India to see good
days; it is almost impossible.
A) A birth rate decline, there is no possibility for India to see good

days

B) A birth rate declines, there is any possibility for India to see good
days
C) The birth rate declines, there is any possibilities for India to see
good days
D) The birth rate decline, there is no possibility to India to see good

days

one part of the sentence, as specified in bold in each part. If there is an error in
any part of the sentence, find the correct alternative to replace those parts from
the three options given below each question to make the sentence grammatically
correct. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any
correction, choose (E), i.e “No correction required” as your answer.
916) Conservationists hope that transporting those four to OlPejeta (a)/in

their native Africa, with its warmer climate and expansive
grasslands, (b)/would inspire them to breed and allow the subspecies to
recover(c)/
a) Hoped that transporting those four to OlPejeta
b) To its warmer climate and expansive grasslands
c) Will inspire them to breed
A) Only a
B) Both a and b
C) Only c
D) Both b and c

917) On the run-up to the meeting between Prime Minister Narendra Modi
and U.S. President Donald Trump, (a)/expected on the sidelines of
the G7 summit, many in South Block would have hope (b)/that the U.S.
President would not make any of his characteristically controversial
statements(c)/
a) In the run-up to the meeting
b) Many in South Block would have hoped
c) Not of his characteristically controversial statements
A) Only a
B) Both a and b
C) Only c
D) Both b and c
918) Even if a southern white rhino cow can carry a northern white rhino
fetus (a)/to term—that is uncertain—the northern white rhino
calves (b)/might not be genetically diverse enough to sustain a
population(c)/
a) Even a southern white rhino cow can carry
b) Which is uncertain
c) May not be genetically diverse enough
A) Only a
B) Both a and b
C) Only c

D) Both b and c
919) It is the wings of our prayers that count, wings that help us fly to make
the impossible possible, (a)/Wings that take us to that
unreachable; these are the wings on which we must soar ever so gently, ever
so slowly, (b)/but ever forward, ever higher inch by inch; wings that
can be so often injured, sometimes weakened, sometimes aching to fold
in defeat, even broken(c)/
a) Wing that help us fly to make the impossible possible
b) That are the wings on which we must soar ever so gently
c) Wings that could be so often injured
A) Only a
B) Both a and b
C) Only c
D) Both b and c
920) China announced on Friday it will hit U.S. imports worth $75
billion (a)/with new tariffs as retaliation for Washington’s planned tariff
hikes, (b)/further intensifying the pair’s bruising trade war(c)/
a) In Friday it will hit U.S. imports
b) With new tariffs as retaliation to
c) Further intensify the pair’s
A) Only a

B) Both a and b
C) Only c
D) Both b and c
Direction (921-930): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given
below it. There are some blanks given in the passage based on which some
questions are framed, and some words are highlighted as well to help you answer
some of the questions.
Charles Darwin closed his On the Origin of Species (1870) with a

provocative promise that ‘light will be thrown on the origin of man
and his history’. In his later books The Descent of Man (1871)
and The Expression of Emotions in Man and Animals (1872), Darwin
shed some of that promised light, especially on the evolved
emotional and cognitive capacities that humans share with other
mammals. In one scandalous passage, he demonstrated that four
‘defining’ characteristics of Homo sapiens – tool use, language,
aesthetic sensitivity and religion – are all present, if rudimentary, in
nonhuman animals. Even morality, he argued, arose through
natural selection. ……………………….(A) self-sacrifice might not give
the individual a survival advantage, but, he wrote:
There can be no doubt that a tribe including many members who,

from possessing in a high degree the spirit of patriotism, fidelity,
obedience, courage, and sympathy, were always ready to aid one
another, and to sacrifice themselves for the common good, would
be victorious over most other tribes; and this would be natural
selection.
Yet Darwin’s revolutionary understanding of the evolved nature of

human emotions has been neglected since. When scientists turned
again to the mind a century later, the computer was the model that
both sparked the cognitive sciences revolution and served as its
exclusive investigative tool. (B) The substrate (1) model of the mind

has been very powerful, but it has no way (and no need) to capture
the biologicalfeeling-states(2) of motivational ingredient (3), and has
been unconcerned with the evolved computational (4) to such
processes. Even when evolutionary psychology rose to prominence
in the 1990s, it did so by ignoring the actual evolved physiology and
behaviour of brain and body. Rather, it set out on a search for
computational modules that had placed human behaviour in some
largely mythical Pleistocene. Indeed, contemporary moral
psychology and its philosophical counterpart often continue this
modular approach, assuming the existence of innate normative
switches in the human mind and discounting the emotional nature
of ethical actions.
Finally, in our own era, artificial intelligence has made great strides,
holding out the promissory note of imminent general intelligence.
While algorithmic digital computation produces problem solving
machines, such problem solving – confusedly called ‘intelligence’ by
the dominant paradigm – lacks the obvious motivational goads and
other affective triggers observed in real …………………. (C) animals. In
fact, artificial intelligence and artificial-life research has lost interest,
unapologetically, in the biological creature.
Without the same fanfare, a group of intensively creative scientists,

including the neuroscientists JaakPanksepp and Antonio Damasio
and the neuropsychologist Richard Davidson, have been developing
a new field of affective (or emotional) science since the 1990s. The
field of affective neuroscience isolates emotional brain systems
(largely in regions of the brain that we share with other mammals)
that undergird adaptive behaviours in vertebrates. With the help of
neuroscientific and behavioural research, we are beginning to
appreciate how the ancestral mammal brain is alive and well inside
our higher neocortical systems. (D)Unlike the computational
approach to mind, the effective turn is deeply rooted in what we
know about the brain as a biological reality. In the first decade of
the new millennium, affective (or emotional) studies began to trickle
into disciplines such as ethology (the study of animal
behaviour). (G)The primatologist Frans de Waal, for

example, recognise (1) to endeavoured (2), in a rigorous and primate

(3) manner, the real emotions in our scientific (4) cousins. In
economics, psychologists such as Daniel Kahneman began to detail
biases, often emotionally grounded, that derail rational decision
making. And in philosophy, thinkers such as Martha Nussbaum
began to reintroduce emotion as a form of pseudo-judgment. The
time has finally come for a defence of emotions as biological
adaptations that do not merely follow or corrupt the dictates of
reason, but successfully lead as well.
(H)Of course, this project rests on the assumption that there really
are universal natural emotions inherited by our ancestors. Are
emotions truly universal? Some historians and anthropologists
argue that we learn our emotions from our cultural experience, and
that they are thus constituted by very particular circumstances. If
that’s the case, then our argument for the importance of emotional
wellsprings in the evolution (and therefore the nature) of the human
mind comes …………………..(E). So is the basic emotional structure
of the mind a universal, biological fact?
Recently, the biological basis of human emotions has come into

question by thinkers who focus largely on higher-level emotions and
our cultural narratives about emotional life. This approach has done
great work in celebrating the diversity of emotional cultures, and
their historical and anthropological differences, but it loses
something crucial when it rejects natural emotions altogether. One
of its most vocal and popular ……………………(F) is the social
psychologist Lisa Feldman Barrett. In her book How Emotions Are
Made (2017), Barrett argues that emotions are conceptual events,
and our emotions, such as anger or sadness, are very fast mental
constructions – almost like real-time, miniature theories about our
experiences.
Emotions, in this formulation, are intellectual processes, requiring

language to carve raw feelings into ……………….(I) emotions.
Instead of biological or physiological systems, emotions are said to
be more like thoughts, and each person learns early in life how to

name and organise them into seemingly natural kinds, which in

truth, according to Barrett, are cognitively and culturally
constructed conventions. When your stomach churns in a bakery,
Barrett argues that your brain labels those feelings as ‘hunger’,
whereas a different context – say, a hospital waiting room – leads
your brain to label the same feelings as ‘worry’. She applies this
same logic to all emotions, claiming that there is no such thing as
innate anger or lust, but that there are merely contextual
interpretations of bodily arousal.
(J)The analogy (1) for this sensory (2) view rests precariously on
an argument (3) with certain top-down aspects of counterintuitive
(4) perception. That perception is subject to distortion under even
quite slight cognitive suggestion is well-known, and psychologists
have made careers ‘priming’ subjects to misperceive something, or
notice something that would not otherwise stand out. For example,
asking witnesses how fast the car is moving when it ‘smashes’ into
another vehicle raises the witnesses’ estimated speed significantly,
as compared with those asked how fast the car is moving when it
‘hits’ the other vehicle. Cognitive bias on certain kinds of perception
is demonstrable even on seemingly unmediated perceptions.
921) Which of the following word given in the options should come at the place
marked as (A) in the above passage to make it grammatically correct and
meaningful? Also, the word should fill in the two sentences given below to make
them contextually correct and meaningful?
(I) The distinction between egoistic and ……………….. action is further

complicated by two facts.
(II) He seemed driven by purely …………………… reasons to organize a

week-long celebration of Finnish design.
A) Socialistic
B) Altruistic
C) Personal
D) Ethical
E) None of the above
922) The sentence given in (B) has four words given in bold. Amongst the given
bold words which of the following must replace each other to make the sentence
contextually correct and meaningful?
A) Both 2-1 and 3-4
B) Both 1-4 and 2-3
C) Both 2-4 and 1-3
D) 1-3
E) 2-4
923) Which of the following should fill the blank given in (C) to make it
A) Sentient
B) Automaton
C) Intelligent
D) conscious
E) None of the above.
924) In the above passage, sentence (D) may or may not have an error in one part
of the sentence, select the part having error in it as your answer.
A) Unlike the computational approach
B) to mind, the effective turn is deeply
C) rooted in what we know

D) about the brain as a biological reality.
E) Both (a) and (b)
marked as (E) in the given passage to make it grammatically correct and
meaningful? Also, given below to make them contextually correct and
meaningful?
A) Magniloquent
B) Debauched
C) Rational
D) Unprecedented
E) Unmoored
926) Which of the following phrase should fill the blank (F) to make it
contextually and grammatically correct and meaningful?
A) Barrister
B) Critique
C) Legatee
D) Proponent
927) The sentence given in (G) has four words given in bold. Among the given
bold words, which of the following must replace each other to make the sentence
grammatically correct and meaningful?
A) Both 2-1 and 3-4
B) Both 1-4 and 2-3

C) Both 2-4 and 1-3
D) 1-3
E) 2-4
928) In the above passage, sentence (H) may or may not have an error in one
part of the sentence, select the part having error in it as your answer.
A) Of course, this project
B) rests on the assumption that
C) there really are universal natural
D) emotions inherited by our ancestors.
marked as (I) & (II) in the given passage to make it grammatically correct and
meaningful? Also, given below to make them contextually correct and
meaningful?
(I) This tool may look like one continuous piece of the same
material. However, it actually consists of several …………… parts.
(II) The book is unusual in that it is separated into several ………………

sections, which are totally unconnected.
A) Connected
B) Discreet
C) Discrete
D) Sprinkle

930) The sentence given in (J) has four words given in bold. Amongst the given
bold words which of the following must replace each other to make the sentence
A) Both 2-1 and 3-4
B) Both 1-4 and 2-3
C) Both 2-4 and 1-3
D) 1-3
E) 2-4
Direction (931-935): Each question below contains a statement with three blanks
followed by four options. Choose the option that can fill the three blanks and
mark it as your answer.
931) Speaking to journalists before the weekly Executive Council meeting, Lam
_______ that the initiative should not be seen as condoning the violence, which
escalated during protests over the weekend. The government has zero tolerance
_______ violence regardless of the circumstances and political motives, and it is
committed to bringing _______ to justice, she said.
A) Emphasized, for, gibe
B) Geniality, to, perpetrators
C) Geniality, to, gibe
D) Emphasized, for, perpetrators
E) None of these
932) Mosquitoes pose _______ threat to humans by transmitting pathogens,

especially those causing dengue fever, yellow fever, malaria and Zika in some
countries and regions, said Yang Dazhu, deputy director general of the
International Atomic Energy Agency, at a conference _______ the technology
developed by Xi’s team in Guangzhou this month. Mosquito-transmitted malaria
virus infected 200 million people and killed more than 400,000 in 2017, he said,
citing the World Health Organization. About two-fifths of the world’s population
_______ threat of dengue fever.
A) Grumpiness, on, faces
B) Grave, on, faces
C) Grumpiness, for, impotent
D) Grave, for, impotent
E) None of these
933) Jiao added that the commission has also _______ mental health checkups
and consultations as well as therapies that incorporate traditional Chinese
medicine into a list of recommended services for the disabled elderly, in addition
to traditional service categories that include bathing assistance and _______
medication. China has nearly 250 million people aged 60 or over, accounting
_______ about 18 percent of the population, according to data released by the
National Statistics Bureau in January.
A) Disposing of, ominous, to
B) Disposing of, dispensing, for
C) Incorporated, dispensing, for
D) Incorporated, ominous, to
E) None of these
934) A _______ attitude towards forest conservation would only spell doom for
species dotting our earth. While it is heartening that the international community
is taking note of the _______, much needs to be done to prevent forest fires in the
first place. The inextricable link between tropical rainforests and their role in
mitigating the _______ consequences of global warming cannot be disputed.
A) Ulterior, conflagration, devastating
B) Callous, rendezvous, indulge

C) Ulterior, rendezvous, indulge
D) Callous, conflagration, devastating
E) None of these
935) Following foregoing _______, IFCI, previously the Industrial Finance

Corporation of India, was set up in 1949. This was _______ India’s first
development bank for financing industrial investments. In 1955, the World Bank
prompted the Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI) —
the parent of the largest private commercial bank in India today, ICICI Bank —
as a _______ effort between the government with majority equity holding and
India’s leading industrialists with nominal equity ownership to finance modern
and relatively large private corporate enterprises.
A) Precepts, probably, collaborative
B) Lopsided, probably, collaborative
C) Precepts, reprieve, castigate
D) Lopsided, reprieve, castigate
E) None of these
Direction (936-940): From the options given bellow, select the option which states
the correct combination of incorrect/correct sentences.
936)
a) Given the direct impact the world’s land systems have on human
well-being, livelihood, food security and water security, the report
cannot be overlooked, and especially not by acutely vulnerable
India.
b) Desertification of land under agriculture use will exacerbate the

already worsening dangers of declining crop yields and crop failures.

c) Combating it requires the urgent implementation of measures

from the set of several remedial options proposed in the report,
including reduced tillage, plant cover crops, improvements in
grazing management and greater use of agroforestry.
d) However, another key component is maintaining and extending

forest cover, as forests act as enormous natural carbon sinks.
A) Both a and d are correct
B) Both a and c are incorrect
C) All sentences are correct
D) Both b and d are incorrect
E) Both a and b are incorrect
937)
a) A voraciously hungry social media and lax ethical standards have

turned the surveillance experiment into a voyeur’s delight.
b) The millions of CCTV cameras that have been installed help the
police curb crime and trace criminals, keep cities clean, and ensure
the smooth flow of traffic.
c) But instead of using the information to bring to heel criminals and

create safer cities, some unethical officials have been leaking data
meant for only that purpose to satiate baser, voyeuristic instincts.
d) These images cause a lot of pain for the families and friends of
those captured, especially when they see these videos on loop on
mobile phones and TV channels.

938)
a) A Reserve Bank of India panel, led by former governor

BimalJalan, have recommended that the central bank pay interim
dividend to the government, a practice that started in 2016-17, only
under exceptional circumstances.
b) All the recommendations of the panel, set up to studying the

central bank’s economic capital framework, were accepted by RBI’s
central board on Monday, although the report was published on
Tuesday.
c) The Jalan committee has also recommended that RBI’s capital

framework be reviewed every five years and its accounting year
(July-June) be aligned with the fiscal year that ends on 31 March.
d) “The committee recommends that the framework may be

periodically reviewed every five years. Nevertheless, if there is a
significant change in the RBI’s risks and operating environment, an
intermediate review may be considered,” the committee said in its
report.
939)
a) Although the outcome of the voting wasn’t announced on

Tuesday, Gangwal’s decision to back the resolutions last week
means they are likely to sail through.
b) Gangwal had earlier objected to the board expansion as he

contended that in the absent or resignation of an independent
director, co-founder Rahul Bhatia’s InterGlobe Enterprises Pvt. Ltd
(IGE) would have an unfair advantage in approving key policy
changes since it has five directors representing it.
c) Also absence from the AGM was independent director

AnupamKhanna, who had questioned some of chairman M.
Damodaran’s decisions related to the board’s working.
d) Gangwal, in his letter, flagged concerns about certain RPTs and

said the shareholders’ agreement provides co-promoter Bhatia with
unusual controlling rights over IndiGo. Bhatia has denied the
allegations.
D) Both b and c are incorrect
940)
a) The Indian economy continued to slow down in July, with most

indicator of domestic demand still flashing red in June, the latest
edition of the Mint Macro Tracker shows.
b) The consumer economy continues to remain the weakest spot,

with all four consumer economy indicators—passenger vehicle sales,

tractor sales, two-wheeler sales, and domestic air passenger

growth—flashing red for the sixth successive month.
c) According to an Edelweiss report on April-June corporate earnings

issued earlier this month, auto companies witnessed a 7% revenue
declining in the first quarter of fiscal 2020.
d) Unsurprisingly, members of the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI’s)

monetary policy committee (MPC) expressed graver concerns about
growth than about inflation in their deliberations ahead of the policy
rate cut in August, the recently released minutes of the meeting
shows.
Direction: (941-945): Which of the following phrases (A), (B) (C) and (D) given
below in each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make
the sentence grammatically correct without changing the meaning of the
sentence? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect
the correct use of phrase in the context of grammatically correct sentence. If the
sentence is correct as it is mark (E), i.e “No correction required” as your answer.
941) But it might have been partly blinded because of an controversy that
erupted late last year on the level of reserves which it maintains, and the
quantum of profits or surplus that it should distribute to the
government — the owner of the bank.
A) may have been partly blinded because of a controversy that

erupted late last year on the level of reserves

B) might have been partly blinded because of a controversy that

C) may have partly blind because of a controversy that erupted late

last year on the level of reserves
D) may have been partly blind because of a controversy that

942) But, over the past decade, successive governments, desperate to raise
revenues, have sought hefty payouts from the central bank, arguing that it was
far more capitalised than not just its emerging market peers but also
in comparison to some of the leading global central banks.
A) over the past decades, successive governments, desperate to

raise revenues, have sought hefty payouts from the central bank,
arguing that it was far more capitalised
B) over the past decade, successive governments, desperate to

raise revenues, have sought hefty payouts from the central bank,
argue that it was far more capitalised
C) over the past decade, successive government, desperate to raise

revenues, have sought hefty payouts from the central bank, arguing
that it was far more capitalised
D) over the past decade, successive governments, desperate to rise

revenues, have sought hefty payouts from the central bank, arguing
that it was far more capitalised
943) Here, his brittle cheerfulness about “the dispersal and near-fall
of the House of Penvorn” – Penvorn, after its builder, were a name of
the Larkins’ large and gloomy-looking residence – mask some real anxieties
about his family’s safety and the permanence of “home”.

A) was a name of the Larkins’ large and gloomy-looking residence–

masks some real anxieties about
B) was the name of the Larkins’ largest and gloomy-looking

residence–mask some real anxieties about
C) was the name of the Larkins’ large and gloomy-looking residence

– mask some real anxieties about
D) was the name of the Larkins’ large and gloomy-looking

residence–masks some real anxieties about
944) A lot of what have been published by and about he since his death – and
Letters Home is no exception – suggests that as well as boredom
the legacy of his childhood included rage, fear, embarrassment,
guilt, resentment and, perhaps above all, shame.
A) have been published by and about him from his death
B) has been published by and about him since his death
C) has been published by and about him from his death
D) has been published with and about him since his death
945) There has been an possible close to that with the RBI board
approving the recommendations of a committee headed by
BimalJalan, based on which, the central bank will transfer Rs 1.76
lakh crore to the government, including the surplus and excess
provisions.
A) has been an possible close to that with the RBI board approving
B) has been a possible close to that with the RBI board approving

C) has been a possible closure to that with the RBI board approving
D) has been an possible closure to what with the RBI board

approving

one part of the sentence. If there is an error in any part of the sentence, find the
correct alternative to replace those parts from the three options given below each
question to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the given sentence is
grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose (E), i.e “No
correction required” as your answer.
946) It is an enigma to many as to why this oldest commission is still

being treated in such a casual way (a)/while three of the other
national commissions of later years, those for the Scheduled Castes,
Scheduled Tribes and Backward Classes, are now regulated by the
Constitution (b)/and there is a parliamentary charter of each of the
national commissions for human rights, minorities, women, children
and safaikarmcharis (c)/
a) It is an enigma to many as to why this oldest commission is still

been treated in such a casual way
b) while three of the other national commissions of later years, that

for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Backward Classes,
are now regulated by the Constitution
c) and there is a parliamentary charter for each of the national

commissions for human rights, minorities, women, children and
safaikarmcharis
A) Only a
B) Both a and b
C) Only c
D) Both b and c
947) By incoherence I don’t mean an “extreme” position or the

shriek of the provocateur, (a)/but a specific genre of chin-stroking,
brow-furrowing, “eye opening” sophistry (b)/that’s now robust
represented in mainstream newspapers and magazines(c)/
a) By incoherence I didn’t mean an “extreme” position or the shriek

of the provocateur,
b) but the specific genre of chin-stroking, brow-furrowing, “eye

opening” sophistry
c) that’s now robustly represented in mainstream newspapers and

magazines
A) Only a
B) Both a and b
C) Only c
D) Both b and c
948) It is also saddening that the present and future generation of

backward classes (a)/who were initially brought to J&K in 1957 by
the state government (b)/have been compelled to remain as
sweepers in the state (c)/
a) It is also saddening that the present and future generations of

backward classes
b) who are initially brought to J&K in 1957 by the state government
c) has been compelled to remain as sweepers in the state

A) Only a
B) Both a and b
C) Only c
D) Both b and c
949) In sharp contrast, the precautionary measures taken in

J&K (a)/are for the large interest of the public to maintain public
order, (b)/which is the responsibility of the election government (c)
a) In sharp contrast, the precaution measures taken in J&K
b) are for the larger interest of the public to maintain public order,
c) which is the responsibility of the elected government
A) Only a
B) Both a and b
C) Only c
D) Both b and c
950) But if that was all, where did he acquires his bad
stammer, (a)/or his conviction that “human beings should not lived
together (b)/and children should be taken from their parents at an
early age”? (c)/
a) But if that was all, where did he acquire his bad stammer,
b) or his conviction that “human beings should not live together

c) and children should be take from their parents at an early age”?
A) Only a
B) Both a and b
C) Only c
D) Both b and c
Direction (951-955): In the following questions two columns are given

containing three Sentences/phrases each. In first column,
sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column the
sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first
column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the
second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the
sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a
grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options
given forms a correct sentence after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of
these” as your answer.
951)

A) A-D, B-F
B) B-F, C-D
C) B-E, C-F
D) A-F, B-D
E) None of these

952)

A) A-D, B-F
B) B-E, C-D
C) A-E, C-F
D) A-F, B-D
E) None of these

953)

A) A-D, B-E
B) B-F, C-D
C) B-D, C-F
D) A-F, B-E
E) None of these
954)

a) A-D, B-E

b) B-F, C-D
c) B-E, C-F
d) A-F, B-D
e) None of these
955)


A) A-D, B-E
B) B-F, C-D
C) B-E, C-F
D) A-F, B-D
E) None of these
Directions (956-960): Read the given passage carefully and answer the
questions that follow.

Protests broke out in Hong Kong two months ago when local
authorities proposed a Bill that would have allowed them
to (A)extradite suspects to places with which the city doesn’t
have extradition treaties, including mainland China. The Bill was
suspended amid public anger, but the protests, now entering the
tenth week, continue to rock the city, affecting the economy and
setting off an unprecedented political crisis. The police have tried
several tactics to rein in the protesters and restore normalcy in the
city, a major Asian financial hub and business centre. They have
fired tear gas shells and rubber bullets. Dozens have been arrested,
some on riot charges. Still, the city has been on a standstill. Public
transportation is hit. People, from construction workers to teachers
and lawyers, have joined the demonstrations. The protesters
ransacked the local legislative council building and occupied parts of
the airport, which led to the cancellation of several flights. Graffiti
appeared across the city calling for “a revolution” and “liberation” of
Hong Kong. Despite warnings from both the city government and
Beijing, the protesters don’t seem to be in a mood to leave the
streets.

It is no longer about the extradition Bill as a leadership-less group
keeps coming up with new and varied demands. Carrie Lam, the
Chief Executive of Hong Kong, has said the Bill is dead. The
protesters first wanted the city government to formally withdraw
the Bill. Then they wanted Ms. Lam, the architect of the Bill, to go.
Now, the protesters say they won’t end the rallies even if Ms. Lam
quits. They have made a host of demands — withdraw the Bill,
order an independent probe into the clashes between protesters and
police, drop all charges on the arrested protesters and start the
process to reform the electoral system. Ms. Lam, perhaps wary of
being seen to be weak in the face of mounting pressure, has ruled
out any more concessions. For her, the top priority is to restore

order, while Beijing, with its patience wearing thin, has hinted that
it could interfere to end the crisis. Both the city government and the
protesters share responsibility for the crisis Hong Kong is in today.
Ms. Lam could have officially withdrawn the Bill instead of merely
pronouncing it dead. Her (B)reluctance to do so even after the Bill
was suspended only fanned the
flames. __________(C)___________ an excessively provocative path
when they ransacked the city Parliament and attacked the police.
What could have been a peaceful protest against an extradition Bill
led to the biggest political crisis Hong Kong has seen since it was
handed over to China by the British colonialists. At least now, the
focus of both the local leadership and protesters should shift to
finding common ground and a peaceful settlement. It’s in
everyone’s interest to arrest the slide of Hong Kong.
956) Choose the option which is most similar to the word marked (A) in
the passage.

A) Deport
B) Precarious
C) Inveigled
D) Shelter
E) None of these
957) Choose the option which is most opposite to the word marked (B)
in the passage.


A) Indisposition
B) Distaste
C) Repugnance
D) Alacrity
E) None of these
958) Which of the following is/are correct according to the passage?
I) The police have tried a number of tactics to control the protesters

and restore normalcy in the city, a major Asian financial hub and
business centre. They have also fired tear gas shells and rubber
bullets and Dozens have been arrested, some on riot charges.

II) The protesters first wanted the city government to formally
withdraw the Bill now they also want the president of China to
resign.
III) The protesters have made a host of demands– withdraw the Bill,
order an independent probe into the clashes between protesters and
police, drop all charges on the arrested protesters and start the
process to reform the electoral system
A) Only III
B) II and I
C) I and III
D) I, II , III
E) None of these
959) What can be a suitable title for the passage?
A) New demands sprout up in Hong Kong protests- demand of

resignation of Carrie Lam
B) On the US-China trade war: what lies ahead?
C) Atrocities of the police on the people of Hong Kong
D) Hong Kong on the brink: On continuing protests
E) None of these

960) Which of the following phrases should fill the blank in (C) to make it
A) The protesters on the other side took
B) It is deplorable that
C) The Parliament has been attacked by
D) The citizens have taken the agitation

E) None of these

961) The increase in demand for sport utility vehicles has taken a
toll (a)/ on the sedan segment as launches in the segment (b)/ has
also dried up. Maruti’s new generation Dzire and Honda’s new
generation Amaze have been (c)/ the only two successful product
introductions in the segment, in the last two financial years. (d)
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) No error.

962) “The rating revision also factors in the challenges (a)/ in terms
of maintaining the asset quality, given (b)/ the continuous slowdown
in the real estate sector because (c)/ of subdued sales and
increasing funding challenges,” the agency said. (d)
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) No error.


963) To accommodate disenfranchised persons, detention camps
have been (a)/ setted up across the state. At present,(b)/ there are
six existing detention centres in Assam’s Goalpara, Dibrugarh,
Jorhat, Silchar, Kokrajhar and Tezpur, (c)/ where district jails have
been converted to camps.
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) No error.
964) According to the rating agency, the rating remains (a)/ under
watch with developing implications (b)/ in light of the merger
proposal among IBHFL (c)/ and Lakshmi Vilas Bank (LVB). (d)

a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) No error.
965) Adequate opportunity of being heard has been given to all

persons at every stage of the process. (a)/ The entire process is
conducted as per statutory provisions and (b)/ due procedure
followed at every stage,” (c)/ said a central government official,
seeking anonymity.(d)

a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) No error.

Direction (966-970) :
(a) While there may be some geographical synergies between the

banks being merged, unless they realise cost synergies through
branch and staff rationalisation, the mergers may not mean much to
them or to the economy.
(b) Mergers are driven by synergies — in products, costs, business,

geographies or technology and the most important, cost synergies.
(c) The jury is, of course, out on whether this strategy will succeed.
(d) The bottomline is clear: to create banks of global level that can
leverage economies of scale and balance sheet size to serve the
needs of a $5-trillion economy by 2025.
(e) For its sheer magnitude, the scale and the ability to disrupt the
status quo, the mega bank mergers announced by Finance Minister
Nirmala Sitharaman on Friday must go down as the most significant
the banking industry has seen in the five decades since
nationalisation.

966) Which is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e
967) Which is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e
968) Which is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e
969) Which is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e

970) What is the LAST sentence after rearrangement?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e

Directions (971-975): In each of the questions given below, a sentence
is given, divided into parts. Find the part that contains the error and
mark it as your answer. If the sentence is grammatically correct, mark
option (E).
971) Its a quiet evening, but soon the space would be abuzz with
acquaintances and other art enthusiasts who would come to listen to
him talk about the history of illustrations.
A) Its a quiet evening,
B) but soon the space would be
C) and other art enthusiasts who
D) would come to listen to him talk
E) No error


972) The motion of the bus at that moment, and the people inside
partially recoiling as the vehicle whizzes in reverse, is one of the
scenes that artist Indrapramit Roy brilliantly capture through his
illustrations back in 1997, for Tara Books’ first ever handmade
book, The Very Hungry Lion.
A) and the people inside partially recoiling as the
B) vehicle whizzes in reverse, is one of the scenes
C) that artist Indrapramit Roy brilliantly capture
D) through his illustrations back in 1997, for
E) No error
973) When Singam roars, asking them to take him along, the driver is
petrified — he deftly shifts the gear to reverse and darts backwards.
A) asking them to take
B) him along, the driver
C) is petrified — he deftly shifts
D) the gear to reverse and
E) No error

974) Roy’s initiation to the arts, was, unsurprisingly, through theatre.
“Later drawing and painting happened, and when I decided to join

an art college, it was a cakewalk,” says the 55-year-old, who

graduated from Shantiniketan and later went at the Royal College of
Art, London.
A) was, unsurprisingly, through theatre. “Later drawing
B) and painting happened, and when I decided to join an
C) art college, it was a cakewalk,” says the 55-year-old,
D) and later went at the Royal College of Art, London.
E) No error
975) Roy was born to a family steeped in the arts: his father was a
prolific figure in Bengali theatre, associated with Bohuroopi, one of
the premier theatre groups. His mother “was a silent supporter” and
a sitar player.
A) steeped in the arts: his father was a
B) prolific figure in Bengali theatre,
C) one of the premier theatre groups. His mother
D) “was a silent supporter” and a sitar player.
E) No error
Directions (976-980): You are provided with sentence in each question,

with two/three highlighted words in bold. Select the option that gives the
correct set of words as a replacement to the bold words. If the sentence
is correct, mark option E.


976) A conundrum of tales, and interestingly not only an artist, but
an artiste too, he sat down to talk about illustrations and his brief
tryst with the genre, before rush off to replay his slides and see if
everything is in order.
A) Storehouse, darting
B) Powerhouse, refuge
C) Package, running
D) Unedifying, recourse
E) No improvement required
977) Back then, I was a freelance artist concentrating on painting and

drawing; and was only remotely interested in illustrations.
A) Elaborate, desperation, responsible
B) Dictated, relocated, amenability
C) Elaborated, deliberated, pragmatic
D) Point, exhausting, nadir

978) The book was a way in which I could rekindles with my interest
in justifying for children’s books.
A) Reconcile, illustrating
B) Resolve, formed
C) Critical, sort
D) Manageable, practiced

979) PM Khan said he is a pacifist who doesn’t want war but if
it happens, we are ready. “We will fight till the end.”
A) Elimination, retort
B) Interfere, elocution
C) Interference, persuasion
D) Delegation, deliberate
980) Prime Minister Khan said Prime Minister Modi

had lambasted Kashmiris by revoking Article 370. “This is a
miscalculation by Narendra Modi. You will see it’s repudiate in the
coming days.”


A) Backstab, repercussions
B) Betrayed, consequences
C) Reiterated, retort
D) Diversified, surreal

Direction (981-985): Each question below contains a statement with
three blanks followed by four options. Choose the option that can fill the
three blanks and mark it as your answer.
981) During the past few decades, _______under CITES have been used
“more than a hundred times,” even though that penalty wasn’t
officially _______as part of the treaty until 2007, says Scanlon, who now
serves as special _______for African Parks, a conservation nonprofit
that manages national parks and protected areas throughout Africa.
A) Rudimentary, codified, envoy
B) Sanctions, disgruntled, detractor
C) Sanctions, codified, envoy
D) Rudimentary, disgruntled, detractor

E) None of these
982) That exact situation was one that some _______worried about at the
last triennial CITES meeting, in South Africa. A
proposal _______ submitted to include all African elephants under the
strictest level of protection, effectively preventing any African
elephant _______trade whatsoever.

A) Conservationists, had been, threnody
B) Proliferation, has been, threnody
C) Proliferation, has been, ivory
D) Conservationists, had been, ivory
E) None of these
983) The paper ultimately recommended _______bag fees, like the five-
cent charge you pay to use a plastic bag in Washington, D.C. The fee,
the paper _______, would could cost less than buying small trash bags
but still encourage shoppers to bring reusable bags. The Surfrider
Foundation also _______ fees instead of outright bans as the most
effective way to incentivize consumers to change their behavior.
A) Soporific, concludes, encourages
B) Imposing, concludes, encourages
C) Soporific, batter, untouched
D) Imposing, batter, untouched

E) None of these

984) By refusing to sit down with the South, the North is signalling that it
prefers to deal directly with the United States. This is a cruel _______for
a South Korean leader who helped facilitate talks between Mr Trump and
Kim Jong-un. Pyongyang might be calculating that it is getting nothing
from its neighbour, no concessions without Washington’s approval. And
now that Kim Jong-un has a direct line to the White House, and a means
of getting those “beautiful letters” to Mr Trump, he might be thinking it’s
best to deal with him. The Trump administration has also given
Pyongyang a free pass to act in this way. At no point after the last six
short-range missile tests has the US strongly _______the testing of
missiles which could threaten its _______.
A) Snub, condemned, ally
B) Preponderance, condemned, ally
C) Snub, alumnus, alimony
D) Preponderance, alumnus, alimony
E) None of these
985) We _______use the usual and common vocabulary – I am very

busy…I have no time. This mindset doesn’t let us prioritize our works
and manage our time. We, as a result, over-commit and under-deliver in
every area of life. The _______energy of the word busy conveys that we
are not available to enjoy life’s most precious moments. Busyness
makes us _______about saving time, wasting time and constantly being
engaged in action.
A) Alchemy, turbulent, stressed

B) Routinely, unsullied, engrossment
C) Alchemy, unsullied, engrossment
D) Routinely, turbulent, stressed
E) None of these

Direction (986-990): From the options given bellow, select the option
which states the correct combination of incorrect/correct sentences.
986)
a) Just by saying busy..busy..busy, even if our schedule permits a

few hour of leisure, we won’t utilize it to care for ourselves or
others.
b) When we consume and add it to our vocabulary, we radiate a

message of having too much to manage and that we are not
available for the benefit and betterment of our own self and other
people.
c) Being easy or busy indicate opposite states of your mind; they

have nothing to do with the amounts of work you do.
d) You will, then, radiate vibrations of peace to your mind, health to

your body, harmony to your relationships and happiness to your
environment.

987)

a) He doesn’t shout, and is passive-aggressive, and when I try to
talk about it he tells me I’m being over-sensitive.
b) When have a conversation about something that is troubling you

in your relationship, but the other person can’t see this, they may
feel attacked.
c) As a new mum, you may feel that your identity has changed
drastically, so the first thing I would suggest is to get back in touch
with who you were before you had your baby.
d) Dress for each other, get away from the domestic situation, and
talk about what you both want and need in your new normal. Let
each other know what is troubling you.

988)
a) Alcoholism is a progressive illness, and as long as I continued to

drink my situation only got worse.
b) All I did was go to work (to pay for the booze), come home and
drink until I went to bed, pass out, then get up and do it all again.
c) By the end, I had no social life and I stopped doing all the things
that make life worthwhile, like dancing, making art, and being with
people.

d) I was stressed and getting to my wits end. But this turned out to
be my moment of clarity, and it made me seek professional help for
the first time in my life.
989)

a) Temples, ashrams and places of pilgrimage are all outside you;

they are a part of the outer world.
b) By being a member of a religious organisation or practicing and

participating in its religious activities do not make one religious.
c) Sect is an outer expression of religion but as long as their is

insistence of specific teaching, dress, practice or person,
sectarianism will prevail.
d) When an individual gets filled with divine radiance, His conduct

also reflects the illumination and emanates divine fragrance.

990)
a) When an Enlightened One emerges, two groups are formed. One

that opposes and the other that has bigoted attachment.
b) The opposer group focus on the lamp, the person, and not on the
flame, the illumined Self.

c) They see the Enlightened One and His prescribed religious

practices as different from those in the past and begin criticising,
opposing and disrespecting.
d) The different is they are attached to the lamp and insist for that
lamp alone. They cannot believe that there can be light in any other
lamp.

Directions (991-995): In the questions given below a sentence has been
broken down into four fragments labeled (A), (B), (C) and (D) arranged
but not necessarily in the same order. You have to find the correct order
of the arrangement from the options given below. In case, the sentence
is correct in its original form, please select (E) as your answer.
991) come into our lives and grow in confidence (A)/ however, we
don’t need to be enslaved by our anxiety (B)/ and instead can
strengthen our mindful skills (C)/ to ease our anxious minds, (D)/
A) ACBD
B) CBAD

C) BCDA
D) BDAC
E) No arrangement required
992) underlying all mindfulness teachings is that rigid

attachment (A)/ to who you believe yourself to be and the stories
you tell (B)/ in fact, we would argue that a main principle (C)/ about
yourself are limiting and are the root cause of many of our
problems (D)/
A) ADBC
B) CABD
C) ACDB
D) BDAC

993) to be or to how we think things “should” be, we’re stuck (A)/ we
are tightly bound to who we believe ourselves (B)/ in this case, what
we mean is that when (C)/ in a place that narrows options and
responsiveness (D)/
A) DCBA
B) CBAD

C) ABDC
D) BDAC
994) John Hickenlooper, the former governor of Colorado, (A)/ has

dropped out of the race, making the announcement (B)/ during a
three-minute YouTube video calling the journey (C)/ “more exciting
and more rewarding than I ever imagined.” (D)/
A) DCBA
B) CBAD
C) ABDC
D) BDAC
995) that could offer new insights on how the universe works (A)/ yet
of a never-before-seen type of cosmic collision (B)/ passed through
Earth—giving us the best evidence (C)/ on August 14, the resulting
ripples in the fabric of spacetime (D)/

A) DCBA
B) CBAD
C) ABDC

D) BDAC
Direction (996-1000): In each questions below, a paragraph is given,

containing three blanks. Six words are given after the paragraph.
Choose correct combination of words from the options, which can fit in
the blanks both grammatically and meaningfully.
996) This year’s Objectivist Conference revealed that her _______ of

hyper-capitalism has a major recruiting problem: All the young people
want to be socialists! Eight rules governed the original Ayn Rand clubs
that _______ across college campuses in the 1960s, as they sought to
seed Objectivism—Rand’s philosophical glorification of laissez-faire
capitalism and heroic individualism—in the minds of _______ youth.
And of these eight, only two rules could ever be mentioned publicly: 1)
Ayn Rand is the greatest human being who has ever lived, and 2) her
novel Atlas Shrugged is the greatest human achievement in the history
of the world.
A. cult
B. preponderance
C. proliferated
D. perturbed
E. impressionable
F. disquiet
A) A, C & E
B) B, D & F
C) A, D & F
D) B, C & F

E) None of these

997) For the Randian faithful, this pair of diktats has _______ the test of
time. At this year’s Objectivist Conference, the world’s largest annual
gathering of Rand acolytes, everyone seemed to be in _______. Take
Emily Bujold, 26 years old. She was once an avowed environmentalist.
She didn’t own a car or eat meat, and had even signed a pact to never
have a child, so as not to help _______ a rapacious species. But a
chance encounter with Rand’s wisdom rocked her world. “Now I know
that the only solution is to celebrate and encourage development,” she
told me.
A. withstood
B. abhorrence
C. fluster
D. compliance
E. dyspeptic
F. perpetuate
A) A, C & E
B) B, D & F
C) A, D & F
D) B, C & E
E) None of these


998) Bujold was among the 500 pilgrims who made the trip this June to
the conference, held this year in Cleveland, Ohio. The organizers at the
Ayn Rand Institute stressed that the location was significant: Cleveland
was the city Rand chose for the fictional Patrick Henry University in
Atlas Shrugged, where a _______ but ideologically _______ John Galt
first made his mark before going on to lead the resistance against
collectivism. It’s also, they pointed out, the first major American city to
produce commercial-grade steel. But the choice of Cleveland was tinged
with irony as well. The once-robust Rust Belt metropolis has
been _______ by a real-life version of Randian corporate overlordship—
its factories closing, its people fleeing, its scraps fed to a subprime
mortgage machine.
A. penniless
B. amiable
C. splenetic
D. unimpeachable
E. absurd
F. ravaged
A) A, C & E
B) B, D & F
C) A, D & F
D) B, C & E
E) None of these


999) This was the _______ setting for a nearly week-long celebration of
Rand’s genius that coincided with the fiftieth anniversary of her clarion
call for a capitalist-aligned cultural and aesthetic movement, The
Romantic Manifesto. Thrumming in the background was a related,
similarly _______ trend for Objectivists: The romance of the movement
has lost a good deal of its cachet in an unequal, austerity-battered
America—particularly when it comes to pulling in the young recruits
who were once the _______ of the Rand insurgency. All the kids these
days are becoming socialists and communists.
A. dissuade
B. grim
C. unnerving
D. abrasive
E. backbone
F. satiate
A) A, C & E
B) B, D & F
C) A, D & F
D) B, C & E
E) None of these


1000) The moral case for fossil fuels, it turned out, was a Steven Pinker–
esque _______ to the bright side of human progress. “The world is
better than ever,” Epstein declared, thanks in no small part to
energy _______ from fossil fuels. Environmentalism is thus anti-
humanist. “People are just looking for negatives about fossil fuels,” he
lamented. “They’re not looking for positives.” He then _______ the
crowd on some useful rhetorical flourishes that he has passed on to
policy-makers.
A. tribute
B. ogle
C. derived
D. emblematic
E. drilled
F. buffoonery
A) A, C & E
B) B, D & F
C) A, D & F
D) B, C & F
E) None of these


Topic Question No.
Reasoning
Puzzle Question – 1 - 100
Syllogism Question 101 – 125
Coding – Decoding Question 126 – 150
Inequality Question 151 – 175
Alphanumeric Series Question 176 – 200
Quantative Aptitude
Data Interpretation Question 201 – 300
Arithmetic Question 301 – 350
Wrong Number Series Question 351 – 375
Simplification Question 376 – 400
English
Cloze test Question 401 – 424
Para Jumble Question 425 – 444

Error Detection Question 445 – 455
Passage Question 456 – 485
Filler Question 486 – 196
Direction(1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer

the questions given below:
Five persons are working at different departments of different
companies in different cities.
P works in Mumbai but doesn’t work at HR department. Q works in
Wipro but doesn’t work in Jaipur and Kolkata. O works in Content
department but doesn’t work in TCS and IBM. Person who works at
Production in Infosys doesn’t work in New Delhi and Mumbai. N
works at Sales but doesn’t work in Chennai. Person who works in
Mahindra works in Chennai. M doesn’t work in Kolkata. Person who
works in Marketing department doesn’t work in IBM.
1. In which of the following city M works? a) Mumbai

b) New Delhi
c) Chennai
d) Jaipur
e) None of these
2. In which of the following department P works?
a) Marketing
b) Sales
c) Production
d) Content
e) None of these
3. Who among the following works in Chennai?

a) N
b) Person who works at HR department
c) O
d) Person who works in TCS
e) None of these
4. Which of the following is true?
a) P-HR-New Delhi
b) Q-Content-Jaipur
c) O-Production-Chennai
d) M-Sales-Kolkata
e) None is true
5. In which of the following company N works?
a) TCS
b) Mahindra
c) IBM
d) Infosys
e) None of these

In a building of a eight floors, seven persons are living on seven

different floors such that the first floor is numbered as 1, the floor
above is numbered as 2 and so on till the topmost floor which is
numbered as 8. One floor remains vacant.
The vacant floor lies above E’s floor. There are two floors between E
and I. D lives above the vacant floor. G lives immediately above F. I
lives on an odd numbered floor below 4th floor. Number of persons
living above H is the same as the number of persons living below H. J
lives immediately below E.

6. How many persons are living above J’s floor?

(a)Five
(b)Three
(c)Two
(d)One
(e)None
7. Which of the following floor is vacant?

(a)Third
(b)Fifth
(c)First
(d)Seventh
(e)Second
8. Who among the following lives on the 1st floor?

(a)No one
(b)I
(c)E
(d)F
(e)None of these
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form
a group, which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a)H
(b)G
(c)E
(d)I
(e)D
10.Which of the following is not true?
(a)7th floor is vacant
(b)H lives above G
(c)E lives on an odd numbered floor
(d)D lives immediately above vacant floor
(e)F lives below J
Direction (11-15) Study the following information carefully and answer

the question given below:
M, N, O, P, Q, R, J and K are sitting in a straight line but not
necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing south while
some are facing north. Only two people sit to the right of M. N sits
third to the left of M. Only one person sits between N and R. R sits to
the immediate right of Q. Only one person sits between Q and K. Both
the immediate neighbours of N face the same direction. M faces north.
O sits third to the left of R. N faces the opposite direction of M. J does
not sit at any of the extremes ends of the line. P faces the same
direction as Q. Both J and O face the opposite direction of K.
11. How many persons in the given arrangement are facing North?
a) More than four
b) Four
c) One
d) Three
e) Two
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, and so form a
group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
a) Q,R
b) K,J
c) N,M
d) N,J
e) P,O
13. What is the position of R with respect to K?
a) Second to the left

b) Third to the right
c) Third to the left
d) Fifth to the right
e) Second to the right
14. Who amongst the following sits exactly between K and Q?

a) N
b) J
c) R
d) Q
e) O
15. Who is sitting 2nd to the right of N?
a) N
b) P
c) R
d) Q
e) O

Direction (16-20) Study the following information carefully to answer

There are six employees A, B, C, D, E, F of a company and all of them
are working on six different designation of a company viz. CMD, MD,
CEO, COO, SE, JE. All the designations given are to be considered in
a given order (as CMD is considered as Senior-most and JE is
considered as the Junior-most). Each of them likes some colour and
have some hobby.
The one who is MD likes white colour. E likes dancing and senior than
F who likes black colour. The one who is SE likes travelling. Only two
employees are junior than D. The one who likes blue colour is senior
than the one who likes Singing. C likes reading and senior than the
one who likes green colour. B likes purple colour and junior than F.
The one who likes painting is senior than the one who likes writing.
The one who likes green colour is senior than the one who likes
travelling . C does not like white colour. D does not like green colour.
A senior than the one who likes black colour and he is not CEO. The
one who likes yellow colour is junior than the one who likes singing.
The one who is SE does not like blue colour.
16. Who among the following person likes Reading?
a) A
b) The one who likes Green colour
c) The one who is CMD
d) The one who likes Black Colour
e) E
17. Who among the following SE of the company?

a) The one who likes writing
b) A
c) The one who likes Purple colour
d) The one who likes travelling
e) E

18. How many persons are senior than F?
a) Two
b) One
c) four
d) Three
e) More than Four
19. What is the hobby of the COO of the company?
a) Writing
b) Painting
c) Dancing
d) Singing
e) Travelling
20. What is the designation of the one who likes dancing?
a) SE
b) MD
c) JE
d) CEO
e) COO

A group of seven persons are sitting in a row facing south. There are
three females in the group. Only males sit at the extreme ends of the
row. All females sit adjacent to each other. Persons live in three
different cities of the country at least two in each city. There are three
persons between P and S. K is the immediate left of U and is on the
immediate right of S. P is the immediate neighbour of R and N. There
is only one person between P and U. S lives in Kanpur with only one
person who is not a female. There are two persons between N and S.
R lives in Delhi only with the person who is at extreme end. W is at the

left end of the row. No female is neighbour of R and W. The one who
is in the middle of the row has neighbours who live in Mumbai.
21. Who among the following sit at the extreme ends of the row?
a) R, S
b) W, P
c) R, W
d) N, R
e) P, R
22. How many persons are there between R and N?
a) One
b) Two
c) None
d) Four
e) Three
23. Which of the following is the group of females?
a) K, N, P
b) K, N, U
c) U, K, W
d) K, W, N
e) R, U, N
24. Four of the following five are alike in a same way, find out the odd
one?
a) R, P
b) N, U
c) K, N

d) S, R
e) W, U
25. Which of the following does match correctly?
a) P–Male–Mumbai
b) U–Female–Mumbai
c) K–Male–Delhi
d) W–Female–Mumbai
e) Both c and b
Direction (26-30) Read all the information carefully and answer the
given questions:
There are eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H they live on 8 different
floors of a building, lowermost floor is numbered as 1 and topmost
floor is numbered as 8. All are of different ages i.e. 45, 36, 28, 24, 5,
15, 17 and 11, but not necessarily in the same order.
There are two people live between E and C. H is the oldest person but
doesn’t live on even numbered floor. There are only two people live
between C and the floor on which third youngest person live. B lives
just above the floor on which the person lives who is 5yrs old. E’s age
is a perfect square of even number. B lives on an even numbered
floor. E lives on odd numbered floor. Neither G nor F lives on 7th
floor. B’s age is not 11 and 17 yrs. The one who lives on 2nd floor, his
age is an even number, but he is not 24yrs old. A lives on even
numbered floor above B. D lives on even numbered floor. Only two
persons live between G and A, whose age is a prime number, but he
is younger than F.
26. Who among the following lives on 5th floor?
a) F
b) C
c) G

d) A
e) D
27. Who among the following is 28 yrs old?
a) C
b) A
c) D
d) B
e) E
28. C lives on which of the following floor?
a) 8th floor
b) 3rd floor
c) 4th floor
d) 7th floor
e) 1st floor
29. Who among the following is 17yrs old?
a) F
b) C
c) A
d) E
e) D
30. How many persons lives between A’s floor and H’s floor?
a) Two
b) One
c) Three
d) Four
e) None of these


answer the question given below:
Eight persons M, N, O, V, W, X, Y and Z attend Meetings on different
months of the year viz. January, February, March and April, such that
not more than two persons attend their Meetings in each of the
months. Meetings can be held on either 10th or 11th day of the month.
No two Meetings can be held on the same day. W attend meeting in a
month which has less than 30 days. Only one person attend meeting
between W and Z. O attends meeting in March. M attend meeting on
even day of a month having 30 days. Equal Number of meeting are
between Z and X as there between Z and V. Y attend meeting
immediate before X.
31. M attends his Meeting on which of the following dates?

a) 10th March
b) 11th April
c) 10th April
d) 10th January
e) None of these
32. Which of the following persons attends his Meeting on 11th
January?
a) W

b) N
c) M
d) X
e) None of these
33. How many persons attend the Meeting after W?

a) 5
b) 4
c) 6
d) 3
e) None of these
34. Who among the following persons attends the Meeting on 10th
March?
a) W
b) M
c) V
d) Z
e) None of these
35. How many persons attended Meeting after V?

a) 5
b) 4
c) 7
d) No one
e) None of these
Directions (36-40): Study the following information to answer the

given questions.
Eight boxes K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R are placed one above another. Each

of them contains different fruits Apple, Mango, Banana, Guava,

Grapes, Papaya, Orange, Litchi. Box O contain Litchi. Two boxes are
placed between box O and box K. Box M contain Guava and placed
immediately above box P. Only two boxes are placed between box P
and box R which contains Banana. Only one box is placed between
box O and box R. Four boxes are placed between box Q and N and
box Q is placed above box N. Not more than one box is placed
between box N and L which contains Papaya. The box which contain
Banana is placed below box N. Box of Orange is placed immediately
above box of Mango. Box N does not contain Apple.
36. Which of the following box contain Mango?

a) M
b) K
c) P
d) L
e) None of these
37. How many boxes are placed between box M and N?

a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three

38. Box P contain which of the following fruit?

a) Apple
b) Mango
c) Orange
d) Guava
e) Grapes
39. If box of Orange is related to M, box of Guava is related to O, in a

certain way then in the same way box of Grapes is related to which of
the following?
a) R
b) N
c) Q
d) L
e) K
40. Which of the following box is placed at the top and bottom
respectively?
a) M,L
b) K,N
c) Q,L
d) P,O
e) M,K

answer the question given below:
A certain number of persons are standing in a row facing north. Q
stands at one of the ends of the row. As many persons are standing
between R and T as between S and R. Eight persons are standing
between S and P. Only one person stands between Q and S. P is 3rd
from one of the ends. L is 5th to the left of R. More than 6 persons are
standing between Q and T. Not more than 5 persons are standing

between P and L.
41. How many persons are standing to the right of L?

a) 12
b) 8
c) 10
d) 13
e) None of these
42. If X is 4th right to T, then how many persons are standing between
P and X?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
d) 5
e) None of these
43. How many total numbers of persons are standing in the row?
a) 15
b) 14
c) 13
d) 12
e) None of these
44. How many persons are standing between P and R?

a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
e) Seven
45. If ‘O’ is third to the left of L, then what is the position of O with
respect to P?
a) Second to the right
b) Immediate right
c) Second to the left
d) Third to the left
e) Immediate left

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, H and G like different fruits- Mango,
Kiwi, Guava, Pineapple, Grapes, Papaya, Orange and Apple. Each
friend also like different colors namely Red, Pink, Blue, Purple, Black,
White, Orange and Silver (not necessarily in the same order).
F likes Red color and neither likes Guava nor Pineapple. The one who
likes Mango also likes Pink. The one who likes Apple also likes Silver
color. A likes Kiwi but neither likes Purple nor like Black. B likes
White and does not like Pineapple. D likes Grapes but doesn’t likes
purple color. The one who likes Pineapple does not likes Black color.
G neither likes Pink and nor likes Pineapple. E does not like
Pineapple. The one who likes orange color also likes orange fruit. H
neither likes pink color nor apple fruit. C and E doesn’t like orange
color. E doesn’t like apple. H doesn’t like purple color.
46. Which of the following color does D like?
a) Black
b) Blue
c) Silver
d) Purple
e) None of these
47. Which of the following combinations of fruit and color is correct

with respect to C?
a) Apple and Pink

b) Grapes and Silver
c) Pineapple and Purple
d) Apple and Silver

e) Pineapple and Pink
48. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a
group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
a) A - Pineapple
b) D - Papaya
c) C - Mango
d) D - Grapes
e) E - Apple
49. Who among the following likes Mango?
a) E
b) A
c) F
d) G
e) H
50. Which fruit does F like?
a) Guava
b) Papaya
c) Mango
d) Grapes
e) None of these
Direction (51-55) Study the information carefully and answer the

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a linear row.
Some of them face north and some of them face south. Not more than
two persons sit adjacent face same direction.
C sits immediate right of E. G sits one of the extreme ends of the row.
Two persons sit between G and H. F sits third to the left of H.
immediate neighbor of H face opposite direction to each other. Three
persons sit between F and E. C face north direction. A and D sits

immediate neighbor to each other. Only one person sits between D
and B. F face north direction. The persons sit at extreme ends of the
row face opposite direction to each other. G faces same direction of
H.
51. Four of the following five are alike in certain way based from a
group, find the one that does not belong to that group?
a) G
b) F
c) E
d) H
e) D
52. Who among the following sits immediate left of A?

a) E
b) The one who sits immediate left of C
c) D
d) The one who sits second to left of D
e) None of these
53. How many persons sit between D and G?

a) One
b) Two
c) More than three
d) Three
e) None
54. How many persons face south direction?
a) Two
b) Five
c) Three

d) One
e) Four
55. Which of the following pair sit at extreme end of the row?
a) D, F
b) B, G
c) C, H
d) D, C
e) None of these
Direction (56-60) Study the given information and answer the

questions:
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square
table in such a way that four of them sit at the four corners while four
sits at the middle of each of four sides. The one who sit at the corners
face the center and who sit at the middle of the sides face outwards
but not necessarily in the same order. F sits third to left of C. C faces
outward. H sits immediate right of A. F sits second to right of B. E sits
on the immediate left of A. D is not immediate neighbor of H. Only two
friends sit between F and A.
56. Who among the following sits at corner of the table?
a) C
b) D
c) G
d) B
e) None of these
57. Who among the following sits opposite to D?

a) G
b) F
c) C

d) B
e) A
58. Who among the following sits immediate left of B?

a) A
b) E
c) C
d) B
e) None of these
59. Who among the following sits 2nd to the left of G?

a) A
b) H
c) B
d) E
e) F
60. Who among following sits diagonally opposite to H?

a) E
b) B
c) F
d) A
e) None of these

the questions which follow.
Eight persons are sitting around a circular table, facing towards
inside. Each of them likes different colours- Red, White, Black, Yellow,
Green, Brown, Pink and Blue.
S likes pink and sits second to the right of M. The one who likes black
sits second to the right of the one who likes green. The one who likes
brown sits opposite to S. T likes blue and he is not an immediate
neighbour of M and S. The one who likes white sits second to the left
of Q. O sits second to the left of T. R and N are immediate neighbours
of each other. P sits second to the left of R. P sits opposite to the one

who likes red. Q doesn’t like yellow and black.
61. Who among the following likes Green colour?
a) N
b) Q
c) O
d) P
e) None of these
62. Who among the following sits second to the left of the one who
likes white colour?
a) The one who likes Yellow colour
b) O
c) The one who likes Blue colour
d) S
e) None of these
63. P likes which of the following colour?

a) Green
b) White
c) Black
d) Yellow
e) None of these
64. Which of the following statement is true about O?

a) O likes Green colour
b) T sits second to the left of O
c) O sits opposite to T
d) O likes Black colour
e) None is true
65. Who among the following sits opposite to the one who likes
yellow colour?
a) M
b) O

c) T
d) N
e) None of these
Direction (66-70) ( Study the following information carefully and

answer the questions given below.)
(There are eight persons are sitting around a circular table, some are
facing towards the center and likes some laptops brands while some
are facing outside the center and likes some Cars brand.
E sits third to the right of the one who likes Renault car. Only one
person sits between the one who likes Renault car and Ford car. F,
who likes Apple laptop sits third to the right of the one who likes Ford
car. Only one person sits between F and the one who likes Lenovo
laptop. G does not like Car. G sits opposite to the one who likes Dell
laptop. Only one person sits between G and H. The one who like Acer
laptop and Hyundai car are immediate neighbours. H faces same
direction as F. A sits second to the right of B and does not like Ford
car. C is not immediate neighbour of H. D is not the immediate
neighbour of E. One of them likes Suzuki car.)
66. Who among the following likes Ford?)

a) D
b) G
c) F
d) A
e) None of these
67. Who among the following faces the one who likes Acer?)
a) C
b) G
c) F
d) E
e) None of these

68. How many persons are sitting between E and D, when counted left
of E?)
a) Four
b) Two
c) Three
d) More than four
e) None of these
69. Which of the following likes by B?)

a) Renault
b) Suzuki
c) Ford
d) Hyundai
e) None of these
70. What is the position of G with respect to H?)

a) Fourth to the right)
b) Immediate left
c) Second to the left
d) Third to the right
e) None of these
Direction (71-75) Study the following information to answer the given

questions
Eleven persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K are sitting in such a way

that some are facing North and some of them are facing south. Not
more than two consecutive persons face same direction. No two
persons sit adjacent to each other according to the English alphabet
(i.e. B does not sit adjacent to A and C and so on).
D sits 2nd from one of the ends and faces south. Four persons sit
between D and J. Persons at both the ends face same direction as C,
who is sitting exactly in the middle of the row. Number of the persons
sitting to the right of C is one more than those sitting right of J. Both
C and J face opposite direction. Two persons sit between J and K,

who faces same direction as C. E and H are neighbors of each other.
Both G and I are immediate right to each other, one of them is next to
C. Four persons sit between E and G. Immediate neighbors of D face
same direction. A is not neighbor of D. Not more than four persons
face south.
71. How many persons in the above arrangement are facing north?
a) 7
b) 6
c) 5
d) 8
e) 4
72. Who among the following represents the pair of persons who are
immediate neighbor of B?
a) A-F
b) G-D
c) H-D
d) J-C
e) None of these
73. Four of the following five forms a group, who does not belong to
that group?
a) C
b) A
c) B
d) G
e) H
74. Which of the following pair represents the persons sitting at the
ends?
a) A-F
b) G-D
c) F-A
d) J-C
e) None of these
75. Who among the following sits 5th right to H?

a) E
b) B
c) F
d) G
e) H

the questions given below
Eight persons sit around a circular table. They all have done their
tests for COVID 19. Some of them are found positive and some of
them are found negative. Persons who are positive face outside the
center of the table and the ones who are found negative face towards
the center of the table.
A sits third to the right of G who is found negative. Only two persons
sit between G and F. One of the immediate neighbors of G is H. S sits
second to the right of H. D sits third to the right of S who is found
positive. Both the immediate neighbors of F are found negative. F
faces the same direction as H. V who is not an immediate neighbor of
A sits third to the right of H. L and A face opposite direction as V.
76. Who among the following person sits second to the right of L?
a) G
b) F
c) V
d) A
e) L
77. How many persons sit between the D and V when counted from
left of V?
a) Three
b) One
c) Two
d) None
e) More than three
78. Which of the following statement is true?

a) V is found positive
b) S is found negative
c).D is immediate neighbor of V
d) G faces outside the center
e) A and F are in same side.
79. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form
a group which of the following does not belong to the group?
a) F
b) A
c) G
d) L
e) H
80. How many persons are found negative in the test?

a) one
b) Three
c) Two
d) None
e) More than three
Direction (81-85) Study the information carefully and answer the

Eight persons J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting in a linear row some
of them facing towards the north and some of them facing towards
south but not necessary in the same order. Not more than two
consecutive persons face same direction.

N sits second to the right of J. Q sits second to the left of N. Two
persons sit between Q and P. More than three persons sit between L
and O. The persons sit on extreme ends face opposite direction to
each other. M sits second to the right of P. N is not immediate
neighbor of M, who sits third from one of the extreme ends of row. O
is not immediate neighbor of N and M. O face south direction. J sits
immediate right of M. L face opposite direction to Q.
81. Who among the following person sits second to right of O?
a) M
b) P
c) J
d) K
e) None of these
82. How many persons sits between N and K?
a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Three
e) None of these
83. Who among the following person is immediate neighbor of P and

J?
a) L
b) M
c) K
d) Q
e) None of these

84. How many persons sits on the right of M?
a) One
b) More than Four
c) Three
d) Four
e) None
85. Four of the following five are alike in certain way based from a
group, find the one that does not belong to that group?
a) Q
b) N
c) K
d) J
e) P
Direction (86-90)Study the information carefully and answer the

questions given below
Six persons are sitting around a triangular table such that three of
them sit at the corners and the rest on the middle of the side. The one
who sits at the corner face away from the center and the one who sits
at the middle of the side face towards the center. They also like
different fruits. A sits second to the left of the one who likes banana.
Only two persons sit between C and D. F sits second to the left of the
one who likes grapes. C sits second to the right of B. Neither F nor C
likes banana. The one who likes mango sits second to the right of the
one who likes apple. D sits middle of the side and likes orange. A
does not like guava.
86. Who among the following likes guava?

a) B
b) C
c) D

d) E
e) F
87. Who among the following sits immediate right of the one who likes
banana?
a) A
b) C
c) The one who likes grapes
d) The one who likes orange
e) F
88. How many persons sit between A and C, when counted right of A?
a) None
b) Two
c) Three
d) One
e) More than three
89. What is the position of D with respect to F?

a) Immediate left
b) Third to the right
c) Immediate right
d) Third to the left
e) Second to the left
90. Four of the following five from a group, which among the following
does not belong to this group?
a) F-Mango
b) A-Grapes
c) E-Apple
d) B-Orange
e) D-Banana
Directions (91-95): Answer the questions based on the information

given below:
Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U goes from Delhi to Mumbai on a trip

on different dates among 4th, 6th, 9th, 19th, 24th and 29th October.
Each person belongs to different profession viz. Engineer, Painter,
Mechanic, Advocate, Consultant and Politician. S is an engineer but
not on 4th October. U goes on 29th October but not a Painter or
Mechanic. R goes 5 days after the one, who is Advocate. Neither P nor
T is Advocate. One person goes on a trip who is Consultant on 6th
October. T is not a Consultant. S goes before T.
91. Who among the following is an Advocate?

a). R
b) S
c) Q
d) U
e) None of these
92. How many persons go on a trip after S?

a) Three
b) One
c) Two
d) Four
e) None of these
93. On which date does Q go on a trip?

a) 9th
b) 24 th
c) 6th
d) 4th
e) ) None of these
94. Who among the following is Mechanic?

a) Q
b) P
c) T

d) R
95. Who is the first person to go on a trip?

a) Q
b) R
c) T
d) S
e) None of these

given below:
Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are different employees of

company(their profession in increasing order) viz. Peon, Clerk, Junior
Manager, Senior Manager, Chief Manager, Vice President and
Presidentbut not necessarily in same order. The age of these seven
persons are 25, 40, 51, 53, 58, 61 and 66.
R is working as Peon. U’s age is 8 years less than that of V. P is Clerk

and V is President. Q age is 13 less than the oldest person. Person
whose age is 51 years is Junior Manager but he is not S. The
difference in the age of Q and P is same as the difference in the age of
V and Q. Neither S nor T is youngest. There is difference of at least 5
years between P and T. Neither S nor U is a Senior Manager. S is
senior than U in the company.
96. Who among the following is Senior Manager?

a) P
b) T
c) U
d) Q
e) None of these

97. What is the difference in the age of R and T?

a) 26
b) 30
c) 40
d) 12
e) None of these
98. Who among the following is Chief Manager?

a) U
b) S
c) T
d) V
99. What is position of T in the company?

a) Peon
b) Chief Manager
c) Vice President
d) Junior Manager
e) Senior Manager
100. Who among the following is the senior most person?

a) U
b) V
c) P
d) R
e) S
Direction : In each of the questions below are given some statements

followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding

101)
Statements:
Some heads are tails.
Some coins are head
Conclusions:
I. At least some tails are heads.
II. Some tails being coins is a possibility.
1. Either conclusion I or II follows.

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
3. Both conclusions I and II follow.
4. Only conclusion I follows.
5. Only conclusion II follows.
102)
Statements:
All reviews are observations.
All comments are reviews.
Conclusions:
I. All observations are comments.
II. No observation is a comment.
1.Only conclusion II follow.

2.Both conclusion I and II follows.
3.Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
4.Only conclusion I follows.
5.Either conclusion I or II follows.
103)
Statements:
No mountain is a cliff.
Some cliffs are rocks.
Conclusions:
I.No mountain is a rock.
II.All rocks can never be mountains.

3.Both conclusions I and II follow.

5.only conclusion II follows.
104)
Statements:
All amounts are principles.
Some principles are balances.
Conclusions:
I.All balances being amounts is a possibility.
II.Some balances are definitely not principles.

3.Only conclusion II follows.
5.Both conclusion I and II follow.
105)
Statements:
All posts are mails.
No mail is a letter.
Conclusions:
I.No post is a letter.
II.At least some posts are letters.
1.Both conclusions I and II follow.

2.Only conclusion II follows.
106)
Statement:
Only earrings is ring.
Only a few earrings is necklace.
No necklace is bangles
Conclusions:
I. Some ring can be necklace

II. No earrings is bangles
1. If only conclusion I follows.

2. If only conclusion II follows.
3. If either conclusion I or ll follows.
4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5. If both conclusions I and II follow.
107)
Statement:
Only a few cup is plate.
All plate is utensils.
No glass is utensils.
Conclusions:
I. Some cup is not glass
II. No plate is glass

3. If either conclusion I or Il follows.
108)
Statement:
All orange is banana.
No banana is mango.
All litchi is mango
Conclusion:
I. No litchi is orange
II. All banana is orange

3. If either conclusion for ll follows.
4. If neither conclusion I nor Il follows.
109)
Statements:
Only a few circle is triangle.
Some square is rhombus.
No triangle is square.
Conclusions:
I. Some rhombus is not triangle.
II. All triangle being circle is a possibility.

3. If either conclusion I or II follows.
110)
Statements:
All black are white.
Some white is not red.
Only a few blue is red.
Conclusions:
I. All black being red is a possibility.
II. All blue being red is a possibility.

111)
Statements:
Some coffee is tea.
Only tea is milk.
No coffee is fanta
Conclusions:
I. Some milk being coffee is a possibility.

II. All tea being Fanta is a possibility.

112)
Statements:
Some leaves are not trees.
Some trees are papers.
All papers are wood.
Conclusions:
I. Some wood is papers.
II. All papers being leaves is a possibility.

113)
Statements:
All Science is English.
No English is Hindi.
No Hindi is Computer.
Conclusions:
I. No science is computer.
II. Some science is computer.

Directions (114-120): In the question below there are three statements

followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the three given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding
a) Only conclusion I follows

b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Both the conclusions I and II follow
d) Neither conclusion I nor II follow
e) Either conclusion I or II follows
114).
Statements
Only a few M are W.
Some W are C.
All C are A.
Conclusions
I. Some C can never be M.
II. All A are W is possibility.
115)
Statements:
Only a few M are K
Only a few K are E
Some E are F
Conclusions:
I. All E being K is a possibility.
II. All K being F is a possibility.
116)
Statements:
Only a few S are C
Some S are H
Some H are D
Conclusions:
I. No D is C.
II. Some D are C.
117)
Statements:
Each river is ocean
67% oceans are seas
No seas are lakes
Conclusions:
I. Few rivers can be seas
II. All oceans can be lakes
118)
Statements:
Only a few clubs are discos.
No disco is bar.
All bars are pubs.
Conclusions:
I: All clubs being bars is not a possibility.
II: All pubs being discos is a possibility.
119)
Statements :
All new are old
only a few old are start
some start are end

Conclusions :
I. Some new are start
II. All end being old is a possibility
120)
Statements :
Some rats are mats
only a few mats are cats
Some cats are dogs
Conclusions :
I. All dogs can be cats
II. All mats can be cats
121)
Statements:
Only a few phone is busy.
No busy is online.
All phone is connection.
Conclusions:
I. All phone being online is a possibility.
II. Some connection is not online.

122)
Statement:
Only Mumbai is Pune.
Some Mumbai is Maharashtra.
Only a few Maharashtra is Nagpur.
Conclusions:
I. All Mumbai can be Maharashtra.
II. Some Nagpur can be Pune.


123)
Statement:
No plate is grocery.
No grocery is bowl.
All bowl is cup.
Conclusions:
I. Some plate can be bowl.
II. All cup can be grocery.

124)
Statement:
Only a few paint is oil.
All oil is wine.
Some wine is bear.
Conclusions:
I. Some paint can be bear.
II. All bear can be wine.


125)
Statements :
Only mangoes are apples
Some mangoes are juices
Some juices are sweets
Conclusions :
I. All apples can be sweets
II. Some mangoes are sweets
a) Only conclusion I follows

b) Both the conclusions I and II follow
c) Neither conclusion I nor II follow
d) Only conclusion II follows
e) Either conclusion I or II follows
Direction (126-130): Study the following information carefully to

In a certain code language
“people popular perfect party’’ is coded as “nm st ow bj”
“party passage point peak” is coded as “bj kx ry dq”
“perfect party passage proper” is coded as “ow bj kx au”
“point popular proper passion” is coded as “ry st au gc”
126. What is the code for the word “perfect”?
(a)bj
(b)ow
(c)st
(d)nm
(e)au
127. What is the code for the word “popular passage”?
(a)nm kx
(b)nm dq
(c)st dq
(d)st kx
(e)ry kx
128. If “proper planning” is coded as “au pf” then what could be the
possible code for “ planning vacations”?
(a)pf dq
(b)au st
(c)au nm
(d)pf kx
(e)pf it
129. What is the code for the word “peak”?
(a)dq
(b)ow
(c)bj
(d)kx
(e)gc
130. What could be the possible code for “party preference”?
(a)bj ow
(b)bj kx
(c)au gc
(d)bj lw
(e)st bj
(Direction 131 – 135): Study the following information carefully and

answer the given questions.
"Gagan Mangesh Suresh Trilok" is coded as "KZ LX AB CZ"
"Trilok Mangesh Akash Sanchit" is coded as "CZ LX XC PC"
"Sanchit Suresh Babita Candy" is coded as "PC AB IS VU"
"Gagan Candy Danny John" is coded as "KZ VU NS LK"
131. What could be the code for ‘PC’?

A) Gagan
B) Mangesh
C) Sanchit
D) Suresh
E) Danny
132. 'PC NA VU' can be a code of which of the following?

A) Suresh Sanchit Candy
B) Sanchit Sheri Candy
C) Sanchit Danny Candy
D) Cannot Be Determined
E) None of These
133. What could be the code of "Mangesh" in the given language?

A) AB
B) KZ

C) LX
D) CZ
E) Either C or D
134. 'AB LX VU' can be a code of which of the following?

A) Suresh Magesh Candy
B) Suresh Trilok Candy
C) Suresh Gagan Candy
D) Either A or B
E) None of These
135. What can be the code of "Gagan" in the given language?
A) LX
B) KZ
C) PC
D) NS
E) LK
Directions (136- 140): Study the information below and answer the
following question:
In a certain code language
"Celebrate Million Perform Security" is coded as "CE MN PM SY"
"Perform Reserve Police Force" is coded as "PM RE PE FE"
"Reserve Celebrate Category Quality" is coded as "RE CE CY QY"
"Category Security Appreciate Create" is coded as "CY SY AE RT"
136. If "Wing Police External" is coded as "WG PE EL" in the given

coded language, then how will "Celebrate Wing Guard" be coded as?
A) PM CE CY
B) MN CE SY
C) PM SY RE
D) PM SY CE
E) CE WG GD
137. Which of the following may represent the code of "Police

Reserve Category" in the given coded language?
A) PE RE CY
B) FE RE CY
C) Either A or B
D) PE RE SY
E) None of These
138. Which of the following may represent the code of "Perform

Improve" in the given coded language?
A) PM IE
B) PM CE
C) PM PE
D) PM AE
E) None of These
139. In the given coded language, what does the code "AE" stands
for?
A) Appreciate
B) Security
C) Create
D) Either A or C
E) Cannot Be Determined
140. What is the code of "Million" in the given coded language?
A) CE
B) MN
C) PM

D) SY
E) None of These

In a certain code language:
‘Light Green Blue Sky’ is written as ‘en lu ks tm’,
‘Heart Sky Breath Hard’ is written as ‘tm ar th dr’,
‘Hard light Blue Answer’ is written as ‘th en kp ks’
‘Road know lots Answer’ is written as ‘kp od wk ts’.
141. What is the code for ‘Green’ in the given code language?
a) En
b) Lu
c) Ks
d) Tm
e) None of these
142. What may be the code for ‘light Heart Sky’ in the given code
language?
a) en th tm
b) lu ks dr
c) en ar tm
d) tm en ks
e) None of these
143. What is the code for ‘know lots Road Hard’ in the given code
language?
a) od wk ts th
b) od en wk ts
c) kp dr tm od
d) wk ts od ks
e) None of these

144. What is the code for ‘Sky’ in the given code language?
a) wk
b) kp
c) od
d) ts
e) None of these
145. What may be the code for ‘Answer Breath’?

a) ks ar
b) wk lu
c) dr kp
d) od en
e) None of these
Direction (146-150) Study the following information to answer the

given question.
‘energy save bright light’ is written as ‘ su da nc ki’,
‘human light south effect’ is written as ‘ ph ra ti da’,
‘found effect bright health’ is written as ‘ti gi ki mo’,
‘health system south energy’ is written as ‘zo nc ph gi’.
What is the code for ‘save’?
1. da
2. su
3. nc
4. ki
5. Cannot be determined
Study the following information to answer the given question.
‘energy save bright light’ is written as ‘ su da nc ki’,

‘human light south effect’ is written as ‘ ph ra ti da’,
‘found effect bright health’ is written as ‘ti gi ki mo’,
‘health system south energy’ is written as ‘zo nc ph gi’.
146. What is the code for ‘save’?

a) da
b) su
c) nc
d) ki
147. Which of the following is the code for ‘human health bright’?
1. zo ra ki
2. ra su mo
3. ti su ra
4. ki ra gi
5. None of these
147. Which of the following is the code for ‘human health bright’?
a) zo ra ki
b) ra su mo
c) ti su ra
d) ki ra gi
e) None of these
148. What does ‘mo’ stand for?

a) bright
b) health
c) found

d) south
149. Which of the following is represented by the code ‘da ph nc’?

a) south effect energy
b) energy light system
c) energy light south
d) south human effect
e) None of these
150. Which of the following may be the possible code for ‘team save
found light’?
a) su ye ph da
b) mo gi da su
c) da su mo ye
d) ti ye su da
e) None of these
Direction(151-155) Directions: In these questions, relationship

between different elements is shown in the various statements which
are followed by three conclusions. Choose the correct answer on the
basis of information given below.
151. Statements: D ≥ S , X < W, S = J, W > Y, X > D, Y ≤ O, J ≥ E
Conclusions: (i) D > E (ii) D = E (iii) O > S
a) Only conclusion (i) follows

b) Both conclusions (i) and (iii) follow
c) Only conclusion (iii) follows
d) Either conclusion (i) or (ii) follows
e) All the conclusions follow
152. Statements: W < X, Y = Z , V < U, X > Z, G ≥ Y, W > U, H = V
Conclusions: (i) G > X (ii) W > H (iii) Y = H


b) Both conclusions (i) and (iii) follow
c) Only conclusion (ii) follows
e) None of the conclusions follow
153. Statements: S < V, P = M, T > V, M < I, R = I, P < T
Conclusions: (i) I > P (ii) S > M (iii) I < T

b) Both conclusions (i) and (ii) follow
e) None of the conclusions follow
154. Statements: X ≥ T, Z < K, K < H, F = Q, T < Z, F > H
Conclusions: (i) T < F (ii) Q > K (iii) Z < F

155. Statements: B > A ≥ T , F = Y ≤ T , S > D ≤ F , Y ≤ X ≤ T
Conclusions: A ≥ F , T > D , B > Y


c) Only conclusion I and III follow
156. In which of these expression ‘L > P’ is definitely false?

A) W A ≥ L > V
B) N > L > M = D ≥ B = A > P = R
C) M ≤ A > L > W ≥ V ≤ B = P < S
D) S > L = C ≥ H = H ≥ P ≤ Q = T
E) B > L ≤ A = M < Q ≤ T = P < G
157. In which of these expression ‘A ≤ P’ is definitely false?

A) W A ≥ R > V
B) N > A > M = D ≥ B = L > P = R
C) M ≤ A > L > W ≥ V ≤ B = P < S
D) S > A > = C ≤ H = P ≤ Q = T = K
E) B > L ≤ A > M ≥ Q < T > P < G
Direction (158-162): In the following questions, the symbols %, @, #, $

and & are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P%Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P@Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P#Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P$Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P&Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given
statements to be true, find which of the four conclusions I, II, and III
given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer
accordingly.
158. Statements: A%S, S$W, W&F, F@X

Conclusions:
I. S%F
II. W@A

III. X%W
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both II and III
E) Only I and II
159. Statements: R&W, W#C, C%A, A$V

Conclusions:
I. C&R
II. A%W
III. V@C
A) Only II
B) Only I
C) Only I and III
D) Only III
E) None of these
160. Statements: A@D, D$M, M#S, S&J

Conclusions:
I. A$M
II. J&D
III. A@M
A) Either I or III
B) Only I
C) Only II and III
E) Either I or III and II
161. Statements: C#A, X%A, R$X, R@S

Conclusions:
I. R%A
II. R$A
III. C@S
A) Both I and II
B) Both I and III

C) Both II and III
D) Either I or II and III
E) Only I
162. Statements: X$E, E%W, W&Q, Q@A

Conclusions:
I. A@W
II. X%Q
III. E&A
A) Only III
B) Both I and II
C) All I, II and III
D) Both II and III
E) None of these
163 Statement:
P>B=C; C≥D>E; E≥V; F≤Q; H>Q
Conclusion:
1) P > Q
2) P ≤ Q
3) P > E
4) H > E
5) C > H
a) Only conclusion 1 follows.

b) Only conclusion 5 follows.
c) Either conclusion 1 or 2 and conclusion 3 follow
d) Neither conclusion 3 nor 5 follows.
e) Both conclusion 4 and 2 follows.
164. Statement:
A < N < U; U ≤ R=T;T ≥ S ≥ E
Conclusion:
1) T > N
2) R≥E
3) A > R
4) R > N
5) A > E

b) Only conclusion 3 follows.
c) Either conclusion 1 or 2 and conclusion 3 follow
e) Conclusion 1, 2 and 4 follow.
165. Statement:
M>S≥W;W≥U;V U
4) S = U
5) M > U

b) Only conclusion 2 and 5 and either 3 or 4 follow.
c) Either conclusion 1 or 2 follows.
166. Statement:
P ≤ X ; Y > X ; Y = Z >Q ; P Z
2) P < Q
3) P < Y
4) Y < Q
5) B = Q

a) Only 3 follows.
167. Statement:
A ≥ O ; O ≥P = Q ; B < Q
Conclusion:
1) A > B
2) B = A
3) A > P
4) P Q

168. In which of the following expressions 'W > Z' as well as ' Y > Z'
hold definitely true?
a) W > X > U = Z < H ≤ Y

b) W ≥ X = U > Z ≤ H < Y
c) W = X > U ≥ Z < H < Y
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
169. From the given below conditions: choose the correct option : M ≤
N < O >= P , N ≤ Q and R > O
Statement I. M < R
Statement II. P ≤ Q
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) If either I or II follow
d) If neither I or II follow
e) If both I and II follow
170. From the given below Statements: choose the correct option :
Statements: A ≥ B < C = D ≥ E < F > G
Conclusion I. F ≥ B
Conclusion II. G < A
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) If either I or II follow
d) If neither I nor II follow
e) If both I and II follow
171. Statements: R ≥ T = Q < M, S ≥ R, S = L > Z
Conclusions: I. Z < R II. S ≥ Q III. M > T IV. L ≥ Q
a) Only II, III and IV are true

b) Only I, III and IV are true
c) Only I and II are true
d) Only II and IV are true
e) None of these
172. Statements: A > B = C ≥ D, V ≥ G ≤ H = D
Conclusion: I. C ≥ D II. A > H III. B ≥ G IV. C < V
a) Only I and II are true

b) Only III and IV are true
c) Only I, II and III are true

d) All I, II and III are true

e) None of these
173. Statements: M ≤ N < L ≥ Q, R > T ≥ Q
Conclusions: I. R ≥ L II. T ≤ N III. L > M IV. R ≥ M
a) Only I and II are true

b) Only III is true
e) None of these
174. Statements: E = G ≥ H = N, C > F ≥ M = N
Conclusions: I. F ≥ E II. E ≥ M III. C ≥ G IV. C > H
a) Only II and IV are true

b) Only III is true
e) None of these
175. Which of the following symbols should replace the question

mark in the given statement in order to make conclusion 'W = F' as
well as ' P > Y' definitely true?
M>W=P?F≥T>Y
a) >
b) <
c) ≥
d) =
e) None of these

Direction : Study the following alphanumeric series carefully and

176-180)
176) How many symbols are there in the series which are immediately
preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?
1.One
2.Two
3.Three
4.Four
5.None of these
177) If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which
letter/number will be eleventh to the left of fifteenth letter/number
from you left ?
1.2
2.V
3.6
4.Z
5.None of these
178) If the position of the first and the sixteenth elements, the second
and the seventeenth elements, and so on up to the eleventh and the
twenty-sixth elements, are interchanged, which letter/number/
symbol will be seventh to the rightof nineteenth
letter/number/symbol from the right?
1.#

2.E
3.V
4.U
5.None of these
179) If the positions of the letters in the sequence are reoccupied by

the letters themselves though after getting rearranged alphabetically
from the left, which of the following will indicate the position of L in
the new arrangement?
1.L is fourteenth from left
2.L is between * and M
3.L is seventeenth from right
4.Both (A) and (C)
5.None of these
180) What is the total number of ‘the numbers immediately followed

by a letter’ and ‘the symbols immediately following the letters’
together in the above sequence?
1.Four
2.Five
3.Three
4.Six
5.None of these
181-185)
714 927 175 593 398
181) If these numbers are written with their digits in the increasing
order, which number among them will be 2nd lowest?
1.927
2.593
3.714
4.175
5.None of these
182) If 3rd digit of 2nd highest number is divided by 1st digit of lowest
number, then what will be the final answer?
1.2
2.1
3.4
4.5
5.None of these
183) If these numbers are written with their digits in the increasing
order, which number among them will be highest number?
1.175
2.593
3.398
4.714
5.None of these
184) If these numbers are written with their digits in the decreasing
order, which number among them will be 5th lowest?
1.398
2.714
3.175
4.593
5.None of these
185) If the addition of last two digits of each number is multiplied by 5

and then subtract by 1st digit, then after doing the operations, how
many numbers are odd number?
1.One
2.Two
3.Three
4.Four
5.None of these
186-190)
186) How many consonants in the above series are immediately

preceded as well as followed by symbols?
1. None
2. Two
3. One
4. Three
5. Four
187) Which element is 9th to the right of the element which is 12th
from the right end?
1. $
2. #
3. M
4. D
5. 3
188) What is the exact number of vowels between the 7th element
from the left end and 14th element from the right end?
1. None
2. One

3. Two
4. Three
5. More than three
189) What would come at the question mark in the following

sequence?
$21 ΩΕΒ K2% ?
1. 8 4 8
2. 8 A 4
3. 8 4 @
4. 8 4 A
5. 8 4 I
190) How many numbers are there in the above series which are
followed by number and preceded by symbol?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. More than three
Directions (191-195): Following questions are based on the five words

given below, Study the following words and answer the following
questions.
TAP NOT MAT PQR STB

(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations

may not necessarily be a meaningful English word.)
191) If the given words are arranged in the order as they appear in a
dictionary from right to left, which of the following will be second
from the left end?
(a) MAT
(b) NOT
(c) STB
(d) TAP
(e) None of these
192) How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series
between the third letter of the word which is second from the left end
and the second letter of the word which is third from the right end?
(a) 20
(b) 19
(c) 18
(d) 17
(e) None of these
193) If in each of the word given, the second alphabet is replaced by

its following alphabet and third alphabet is replaced by its preceding

alphabet as per the English alphabetical order, then how many words
thus formed will be without any vowels?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four
194) If the positions of the first and the third alphabet in each of the
words given are interchanged, then how many meaningful word will
be formed?
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) Four
(d) Three
(e) None
195) If in each of the given words, every consonant is changed to its

previous letter and every vowel is changed to its next letter according
to the English alphabetical series, then in how many words, thus
formed, at least one vowels will appear?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) None of these
Directions (196 - 200): Study the following arrangement and answer

questions given:
196) Which of the following is the 5th letter to the right of the 16th
letter from the right end?
A) &
B) #
C) 6
D) S
E) A)
197) How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement
each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and
immediately followed by a number?
A) Four
B) Three
C) None
D) One
E) Five
198) Which of the following is the 9th letter to the left of the 18th
letter from the left end?
A) 9
B) L
C) 0
D) ~
E) &
199) How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) More than three
200) Four of the five are alike in a certain way based on arrangement,
which does not belong to the group?
A) 1&9
B) 6SM
C) 3I6

D) GJ+
E) 9L#
(201-205)
Following line graph shows the percentage profit earned by two
companies A and B during the period 2014 to 2019. Answer the
following questions based on this graph.
201. If the expenditure of Company B in the year 2014 was Rs17 lakh,
what was its income in that year?
(1) Rs22.95 lakh
(2) Rs23.15 lakh
(3) Rs24.5 lakh
(4) Rs25.65 lakh
(5) Rs27.50 lakh

202. If the income of Company A in the year 2018 is Rs26 lakh, what is
the expenditure of Company B in that year?
(1) Rs20 lakh
(2) Rs33.8 lakh
(3) Rs22.5 lakh
(4) Rs21.6 lakh
(5)Can’t be determined
203. If the sum of expenditure of Company B in the year 2015 and

2018 together is Rs48 lakh, what is the total income of Company B in
these two years together?
(1) Rs62.4 lakh
(2) Rs36.2 lakh
(3) Rs64.1 lakh
(4) Rs65.5 lakh
(5) None of these
204. In which year is the ratio of income to expenditure of Company A

the maximum?
(1) 2014
(2) 2018
(3) 2015
(4) 2019
(5) None of these
205. If the expenditure of Company A in the year 2014 and Company B

in the year 2019 are the same and the income of Company B in the
year 2019 is Rs77 lakh, what is the income of Company A in the year
2014?
(1) Rs55 lakh
(2) Rs66 lakh
(3) Rs56 lakh

(4) Rs64 lakh
(5) None of these
206-210
Direction: Answer the following questions based on the given
information

206.
If total number of tax payers in 2003 was 8,00,00,000 then find the
average tax paid by a tax payer in Punjab.
1. 31250
2. 32250
3. 31350
4. 32150
5. 32350
207.
Find the ratio of tax collected from Delhi and Punjab to tax collected
from UP and Haryana from years 2001 – 2003.
1. 48: 37
2. 46: 37
3. 48: 39
4. 48: 35
5. 46: 35
208.
Express the difference between tax collected from Haryana and
Punjab in the year 2002-2003 as the approximate percentage of the
tax collected from UP in the year 2002-2003.
1. 50%
2. 53%
3. 55%
4. 58%
5. None of these
209.
If the average tax payed from all four states in 2004 was 25,000, find
the number of tax payers from Delhi.
1. 2.59 crores
2. 2.34 crores
3. 2.39 crores
4. 2.44 crores
5. 2.49 crores
210.
Find the total tax collected from these states in the 5 years.
1. 805 thousand crores


5. None of these
211-215
Direction: Total appeared candidates from 2011 to 2015 is 1500.
The pie chart shows the percentage breakup of candidates who
appeared for examination in these five years.
211. If in 2012, out of the number who appeared for the examination,
20% candidates are not able to qualify the examination then how
many candidates are able to qualify in the exam?
1. 156
2. 144
3. 136
4. 126
5. 80
212. If in 2014, out of the number who appeared for the examination,
1/3rd of the candidates are not able to qualify and the ratio of male to
female who are able to qualify the exam is 10:6, then what is the
difference between the qualifying males to qualifying females?
1. 60
2. 100
3. 90
4. 80
5. 75
213. What is the difference between the appeared candidates in 2011

to that of 2015?
1. 135
2. 150
3. 155
4. 145
5. 160
214. If in 2016, the number of candidates who appeared for the

examination are 40% more than that of who appeared in 2015 and
only 62.5% are able to qualify for the examination in 2016. If the
number of qualifying candidates from 2015 and 2016 are the same
then how many candidates are not able to qualify in 2015?

1. 35
2. 25
3. 40
4. 30
5. 50
215. The number of candidates who appeared for the examination in

2012 and 2013 together are how much percentage more than that of
qualifying candidates of 2011, if only 3/5th candidates are able to
qualify the examination in 2011?
1. 75%
2. 80%
3. 33.33%
4. 25%
5. 125%
216-220.
Three different products (in thousands) produced by a company in
five different years:-

216.
Number of ‘Jeans’ produced in year 2018 was what percentage of
total number of ‘Jackets’ produced in all the years together?
1) 20
2) 30
3) 25
4) 12.5
5) None of these
217.
What was the respective ratio between the number of Shirts
produced by company in the year 2018 and number of Jeans produced
by the company in the year 2016 ?
1) 8 : 5
2) 13 : 5
3) 5 : 13
4) 5 : 8
5) None of these
218.
What is the difference between the total number of Jackets and Shirts
produced by company together in the year 2019 and number of Jeans’
produced by the company in 2015 ?
1) 30 thousand
2) 75 thousand
3) 45 thousand
4) 50 thousand
5) None of these
219.
What was the respective ratio between the number of Jeans’
produced by the company in year 2016, 2018, 2019?
1) 6 : 8 : 7
2) 3 : 2 : 7
3) 8 : 6 : 7
4) 3 : 5 : 2
5) None of these
220.
What is the percent increased in production of Jackets in year 2018
from the previous year?
1) 40 %
2) 66 2/3%
3) 33 1/3%
4) 20 %
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 221 – 225) Study the following information carefully

and answer the given questions:
The following table shows the distance (In Km) travelled by five
different buses in 6 different days in a week
221. If the speed of the bus A in Friday is 36 km/hr, then find the total
time taken by A on Friday to reach the destination?
a) 7 hours
b) 8 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 5 hours

e) None of these
222. If the total time taken by bus E on Tuesday is 8 hours 54 mins to

reach the destination, then find the speed of the bus E on Tuesday?
a) 40 km/hr
b) 35 km/hr
c) 50 km/hr
d) 60 km/hr
e) None of these
223. Find the average distance travelled by bus C in all the given days
together?
a) 288
b) 356
c) 272
d) 314
e) None of these
224. Find the difference between the total distance travelled by bus B
Monday and Wednesday together to that of total distance travelled
by bus D on Tuesday and Saturday together?
a) 110
b) 70
c) 160
d) 50
e) None of these
225. Find the ratio between the total distance travelled by Bus A to
that of Bus D on all the given days?
a) 944: 851
b) 152: 77
c) 359: 223
d) 471: 379
e) None of these
Direction (226-230) The following pie-chart shows the percentage

number of students passed in examination from six different cities
across the country in the year 2018. Also the bar graph shows the
percentage of female students who passed their exam in 2018.


226.) If in 2018, total number of female students from Pune was 252,
then how many male students passed the exam from Mumbai?
(a) 792
(b) 842
(c) 1012
(d) 892
(e) 642
227.) If total passed students from Chennai in 2018 was 3600, then
what is the ratio of the numbers of female students who passed from
Kolkata to that of male students who passed from Pune?
(a) 154 : 189

(b) 154 : 450
(c) 77 : 540
(d) 77 : 270
(e) 11 : 108
228.) If in the year 2019, there is an increase of 16% and 24% in the
strength of passing students from Delhi and Pune respectively and the
total number of passed students from Kolkata in the year 2018 was
2750. What would be the total number of students who passed from
Delhi and Pune in 2019?
(a) 10780
(b) 9860
(c) 11240
(d) 12320
(e) 11610

229.) If the male students passed from Delhi in 2018 were 306. What
was the total number of passed students from all cities together?
(a) 1875
(b) 1950
(c) 1850
(d) 1750
(e) 1975
230.) If in 2018, the total number of students who passed the exam in
all cities was 1750. What was the total number of male students from
Hyderabad who passed the exam?
(a) 126
(b) 154
(c) 134
(d) 180
(e) 216
Direction (231-235) Study the following table carefully to answer the

given Questions
The table gives the stock market data for 5 companies in the last 25
weeks

231) The difference between Highest & lowest price in the 25 last
weeks is highest for which of the following Company ?
1.A
2.C
3.E
4.B
5.None of these
232) How much % is the lowest Price of E is lower than the highest
price of D (approximately) ?
1.82%
2.75%
3.88%

4.90%
5.None of these
233) What is the % gain for B from 25 weeks lowest price to the
current
price?
1.82.5%
2.73.6%
3.62.5%
4.55.7%
5.None of these
234) Which of the following companies has lowest average market

price?(Average price is equal to average of high, low and current
prices )
1.C
2.E
3.D
4.A
5.None of these
235).What is the total of highest price of all the five companies in the
last 25 weeks ?
1.4172
2.3243
3.2342
4.5122
5.None of these
Directions (236-240): The following line graph gives the percentage of

the number of candidates who qualified an examination out of the
total number of candidates who appeared for the examination over a
period of seven years from 1994 to 2000.
Percentage of Candidates Qualified to Appeared in an Examination
over the Years
236.) If there was an increase in the qualifying percentage by 5 unit in

the year of 1995. Then how many students would have qualified if
there were 20000 students?
1. 12000

2. 11000
3. 15000
4. 18000
5. 19000
237.) If the total number of candidates appeared in 1998 and 1999

together was 47400, then the total number of candidates qualified in
these two years together was?
1. 34000
2. 35000
3. 36220
4. 37920
5. None of these
238.) If the number of candidates qualified in 1998 was 21200, what

was the number of candidates appeared in 1998?
1. 32000
2. 28000
3. 26500
4. 25000
5. 24000
239.) In which pair of years was the number of candidates qualified

the same?
1. 1994 and 1995

2. 1995 and 1996
3. 1997 and 1998
4. Data Inadequate
5. None of the above
240.) The difference between the percentages of candidates qualified

to appear was maximum in which of the following pairs of years
1. 1997 and 1998

2. 1996 and 1997
3. 1994 and 1995
4. 1999 and 2000
5. None of the above
Direction (241-245): Study the table carefully and answer the

questions that follow:
241) What is the cost of flooring of A?
1. Rs. 4000
2. Rs. 4600
3. Rs. 4800
4. Rs. 5000
5. Rs. 4400
242) What is the difference between the cost of fencing of C and that
of B?

1. Rs. 180
2. Rs. 120
3. Rs. 240
4. Rs. 360
5. Rs. 480
243) What is the ratio of the cost of flooring to that of fencing of field
D if the other side of parallelogam apart from the base is of 13m
length?
1. 4:1
2. 6:1
3. 144:167
4. 96:11
5. 5:1
244) The cost of fencing of field E is approximately what percent of

the cost of flooring of field C?
1. 10.5%
2. 19.46%
3. 18.71%
4. 15.36%
5. 13.82%
245) The cost of fencing of field C is what percent of the cost of

fencing of field D?
1. 87.54%
2. 67.5%
3. 72.13%
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of These
Direction (246-250) :- Study the following table carefully to answer

the given questions
246) The no of appeared candidates from state MP increased by 70%

from 2005 to 2006 then what is the number of Qualified students in
2006 in the same state ?
A.380
B.460
C.366
D.420
E.None of these
247) The no of students qualified from Assam in 2007 is 246, then

what is the ratio of Qualified students and not Qualified students in
the same year in Assam ?
A.59:41
B.41:59
C.59:46
D.42:55
E.None of these
248) If the total number of students Qualified in 2008 in all the states
together is 712, then the no of students Qualified in state UP is what
% of the total no of students appeared in the State UP(round off to
the whole number)?
A.64%
B.56%
C.50%
D.48%
E. None of these
249) Find the average number of students qualified from the sate UP
in all the years together ?
A.410
B.278
C.340
D.360
E.None of these

250) What is the difference between the no of students Qualified in

2009 and 2007 in all the states together ?
A.52
B.69
C.43
D.37
E.None of these
Direction (251 – 255) Following Graph shows the percentage of

students selected in different streams Arts, Science and Commerce
from total number of students from 6 different schools.
251) If the total number of students in all the schools are equal, then
out of the total number students from school A, B, E and F what
percent of the students selected Science stream?

A) 50.00%
B) 52.50%
C) 54.75%
D) 56.25%
E) None of these
252) If total number of students in each of the school is 600, then

what is the difference between the average number of students
selected Arts stream from all 6 schools together and the average
number of students selected commerce stream from all 6 schools
together?
A) 52
B) 60
C) 64
D) 76
E) None of these
253) If total number of students in school D and F are 40% and 60%
more than the total number of students in school B respectively, then
out of total number of students from school B, D and F what percent
students selected Arts?
A) 25.625%
B) 30.25%
C) 33.75%
D) 36.325%
E) None of these
254) If total number of students in school A is 100 more than total

number of students in school E and out of total number of students

from school A and E, 53.75% students selected science stream, then
how many students from school A and E together selected science
stream?
A) 200
B) 215
C) 225
D) 240
E) None of these
255) If ratio of total number of students in school A, C and E is 4:5:7,

then out of total number of students from these 3 schools what
percent students selected Arts stream?
A) 22.60%
B) 26.25%
C) 28.40%
D) 30.25%
E) None of these
Direction 256-260) Read the data carefully and answer the following
questions.
Certain number of students applied for three different exams SBI,

IBPS and LIC. Some applied for 1 exam and some for 2 exams and
more. Number of students who applied for only SBI are 80. Total
number of students applied for SBI are 700 and 660 applied for IBPS
and 540 applied for LIC exam. Total Number of students who applied
for only 2 exams are 500 and in total 200 students applied for all the
three exams. Total number of students who applied for IBPS along
with at least one more exam are 540.
256) What is the total number of students applied for only one exam?
A)200
B)250
C)300
D)400
E)None of these
257) Total number of students who applied for SBI and IBPS but not
LIC is what percent more than the candidates who applied for SBI and
LIC but not IBPS?
A)37.5%
B)50%
C)62.5%
D)75%
E)None of these
258) Out of total number of students, how much percent students

applied for only SBI and Only IBPS together?
A)18%
B)20%
C)22%
D)24%
E)None of these
259) What is the ratio between the candidates who applied for atleast
2 exams and the candidates who applied for only one exam?
A)5:3
B)2:1
C)7:3
D)4:1
E)None of these
260) Find the difference between the students who applied for both
IBPS and SBI not LIC and students who applied for all three subjects?
A)20
B)40
C)60
D)80
E)None of these

The following table shows the total number of Professionals from
different departments in different years in a certain city and the
percentage of female among them.

261) Find the difference between the number of male engineering

professionals in the year 2015 to that of number of female Law
professionals in the year 2013?
a) 43
b) 24
c) 65
d) 52
e) None of these
262) Find the ratio between the number of male medical

professionals in the year 2014 to that of number of female
engineering professional in the year 2013?
a) 23: 57
b) 51: 79
c) 5: 13
d) 11: 39
e) None of these
263) What is the difference between the total number of engineering

professionals and total number of medical professionals in all the
given years together?
a) 2450
b) 2300
c) 2440
d) 3340
e) 1430
264) Find the average number of male law professionals in the year
2013, 2015 and 2017 together?
a) 314
b) 352
c) 287
d) 275
e) None of these
265) Number of medical professionals in the year 2014 is

approximately what percentage the number of engineering male
professionals in the year 2016?
a) 42 %
b) 49 %
c) 28 %
d) 15 %
e) 66 %
Direction (266-270): Given below is the data related to Candidates

enrolled in a college entrance test from 6 different district


266) Find the total number of girls qualified from all districts together.
1. 2652
2. 2742
3. 2826
4. 2761
5. None of these
𝟏
267) If 11 % of girls qualified from district A were found not eligible to
𝟗
take admission in the college due to some reasons. Then find the ratio
between girls admitted in college from district A to the total number

of students qualified from district A.
1. 8: 23
2. 7: 23
3. 15: 8
4. 8: 15
5. 23: 8
268) Boys appeared from district D is what percent of average no. of

boys appeared from all colleges?
1. 50%
2. 54%
3. 58%
4. 62%
5. 65%
269) Find the ratio of boys appeared from district B and district D
together to the girls qualified from the same.
1. 5: 4
2. 4: 3
3. 3: 2
4. 2: 1
5. None of these
270) Girls appeared from district B is what percent of girls qualified

from district C? (Round off to 2 decimal places)
1. 54.54%
2. 52.56%
3. 51.58%
4. 56.58%
5. None of these

The following table shows the percentage distribution of total

population of 6 different cities in a certain state and the percentage of
male among them.

271) Find the difference between the total population of city B to that
of city E?
a) 595000
b) 605000
c) 560000
d) 620000
e) None of these

272) Find the ratio between the total female population in city A to
that of total male population in city C?
a) 11: 8
b) 15: 7
c) 23: 15
d) 37: 19
e) None of these
273) Find the average population of city A, B and C together?
a) 1760000
b) 1520000
c) 1630000
d) 1440000
e) None of these
274) Total male population in city F is approximately what percentage

of total population of city D?
a) 77 %
b) 92 %
c) 64 %
d) 55 %
e) 103 %
275) Total male population in city E is approximately what percentage

more/less than the total female population in city C?
a) 5 % more
b) 15 % less
c) 20 % less
d) 5 % less
e) 15 % more
276-280)
In an aeroplane there are 2400 passengers. 18 percent of the total
number of passengers are from Sri Lanka. Two-fifths of the total
number of passengers are from Nepal. 6 per cent of the total number
of passengers are from Pakistan. The remaining number of passengers
are from India.25 per cent of the number of passengers from Sri Lanka
are females.Half the number of passengers from Nepal are
males.There is no female passenger from Pakistan.Two-thirds of the
number of passengers from India are females.
276) What is the total number of male passengers from Sri Lanka and
female passengers from India together?
1. 840
2. 1020
3. 950
4. 860
5. None of these
277) What is the difference between the number of male passengers

from Pakistan and the number of female passengers from India?
1. 64
2. 482
3. 474
4. 432
5. None of these
278) What is the average number of male passengers from all the four
countries?
1. 309
2. 264.5
3. 345
4. 464
5. None of these
279) The number of male passengers from Nepal is approximately

what percentage of the total number of passengers Sri Lanka?
1. 111
2. 115
3. 120.
4. 125
5. 131
280) What is the ratio of the number of passengers from Pakistan, the
number of female passengers from Nepal and the total number of
passengers from India?
1. 2 : 5 : 18
2. 3 : 10 : 18
3. 3 : 11 : 18
4. 2 : 18 : 5
5. None of these


given below.
The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of the
number of emails received by five different persons in 2018.


281) What is the difference between the unofficial mails received by

Chetan in 2018 and the number of official mails received by Vikas in
2018?
a) 2840
b) 2860
c) 2880
d) 2900
e) None of these
282) Number of unofficial mails received by Ritesh in 2018 is what

percent less/more than the number of official mails received by Amar
in 2018?
a) 25%
b) 28%
c) 30%
d) 32%
e) None of these
283) What is the average number of unofficial mails received by Vikas

and Amar in 2018?
a) 9330
b) 9340
c) 9350

d) 9360
e) None of these
284) Out of the total number of official and unofficial mails received
by Amar in 2018, 15% and 20% respectively are spam mails. Find the
total number of spam mails received by Amar in 2018.
a) 2760
b) 2780
c) 2800
d) 2820
e) None of these
285) Number of unofficial mails and official mails received by Sourabh

in 2019 increased by 25% and decreased by 25% as compared to the
previous year respectively. Find the number of mails received by
Sourabh in 2019.
a) 7286
b) 7596
c) 7864
d) 8064
e) None of these

given below.
The table below represents the number of trimmer sold online, and
percentage of trimmer sold offline out of total trimmer sold (online +
offline), each of the given four brands.

286). Find the number of Havells trimmer sold offline.
a) 80
b) 60
c) 120
d) 100
e) 50
287. Find the difference between number of MI trimmer sold online
and MI trimmer sold offline.
a) 420
b) 480
c) 460
d) 500
e) 510

288. Number of Philips trimmer sold online is how much percent

more/less than number of Philips trimmer sold offline?
a) 50%
b) 40%
c) 60%
d) 75%
e) 100%
289. Find the total number of Nova trimmer sold ?
a) 600
b) 800
c) 1000
d) 700
e) 500
290. Find the number of MI trimmer sold offline.
a) 300
b) 360
c) 380
d) 400
e) 320

given below.
The line graph below represents the number of students who visited
book fair, and number of students who did not purchase any book in
the fair, in five different days.
291. Find the difference between number of students who purchased

at least a book on Monday and that of same on Friday.
a) 20
b) 60
c) 10
d) 80
e) None of these
292. Find the ratio of number of students who did not purchase a
book on Tuesday to that of same on Wednesday.
a) 3:5
b) 4:7
c) 1:2
d) 5:4
e) None of these
293. Find the number of students who purchased at least a book on
Thursday.
a) 100
b) 160
c) 130
d) 120
e) None of these
294. Find the average of number of students who visited book fair on
the given five days.
a) 200
b) 170
c) 160
d) 180
e) 220
295. What is the sum of number of students who purchase at least a
book on Tuesday and Wednesday together?
a) 260
b) 220
c) 240
d) 280
e) 250
Direction (296-300) Study the following table and answer the

questions that follow-:

Table shows the total number of employees working in three different

companies A, B, and C in four different departments
Following Information is also known as-:
*In company A, the ratio of the number of employees is HR and

Operation is 3:1.
*33(1/3)% of total number of employees in all three companies work
in company B.
26(2/3)% employees of company B works in Technology.
*Number of employees in Technology department of company C is
100 % more than the employees of same company in Marketing
department.
296) find the difference between the employees working in HR

department of company A and Company C together to the employees
working in Technology department in Company B?
A) 550
B) 650
C) 750
D) 800
E) None of these
297) find the ratio between the employees working in marketing

department of company b to the employees working in operation
department of company C?
A) 1 : 2
B) 2 : 3
C) 3 : 2
D) 4 : 3
E) None of these
298) Find the total number of employees in Company B is how much

percent more than the employees working in Technology
department?
A) 20%
B) 25%
C) 30%
D) 40%
E) None of these
299) If 40% more employees recruited in Company B and out of those

160 worked in Technology department and remaining divided
according to ratio of other department. Find the employees working
in marketing department is how much percent of employees in
operation department?
A) 100%
B) 150%
C) 200%
D) 250%
E) None of these
300) Find the total number of employees in marketing department

and company C together?
A) 2000
B) 2100
C) 2200
D) 2300
E) None of these
301. The RBI lends a certain amount to the SBI on simple interest for two years at
15%. The SBI gives this entire amount to Bharti Telecom on compound interest
for two years at the same rate annually. Find the percentage earning of the SBI at
the end of two years on the entire amount.
a) 3%
b) 3.25%
c) 3.5%
d) 2.25%
e) None of these
302. A and B together can completed a work in 5 days. Had A worked at twice the
speed and B at half the speed, it would have taken them 4 days to complete the
job. How much time would it take for A alone to do the work?
a) 10 days
b) 20 days
c) 25 days
d) 15 days
e) 30 days
303. Point P to Point Q is a downstream journey of 300 km on a stream which

flows at a speed of 5 km/hr. Two boats X and Y starts from point P and Point Q
respectively with speed of 25 km/hr and 15 km/hr in still water. After reaching the
opposite point they return to their starting points, find after how much time will
they meet second time?
a) 7.5hour
b) 15hour
c) 20hour
d) 10hour
e) 12 hours
304. If the volume and curved surface area of a cylinder 616 m³ and 352m²
respectively, what is the total surface area of the cylinder (in m²)?
a) 429
b) 419
c) 435
d) 421
e) 417
305. A man borrows Rs. 4000 at 20% compound rate of interest. At the end of
each year he pays back Rs. 1500. How much amount should he pay at the end of
the third year to clear all his dues?
a) Rs. 2592
b) Rs. 2852
c) Rs. 2952
d) Rs. 2953
e) Rs. 2454
306. Mayank can do 50% more work than Shishu in the same time. Shishu alone
can do a piece of work in 30 hours. Shishu starts working and he had already
worked for 12 hours when Mayank joins him. How many hours should Shishu and
Mayank work together to complete the remaining work ?
a) 6 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 4.8 hours

d) 7.2 hours
e) 6.2 hours
307. There are 12 pipes connected to a tank. Some of them are fill pipes and the
others are drain pipes. Each of the fill pipes can fill the tank in 8 h and each of the
drain pipes can drain completely in 6 h. If all the pipes are kept open, an empty
tank gets fill in 24 h. How many of the 12 pipes are fills pipes ?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
e) 4
308. A cylindrical flask, whose circular part has a diameter of 35 cm is filled with
water up to a height of 24 cm. A solid iron spherical ball of radius 12 cm is
dropped in the flask to submerge completely in water. Find the increase in the
level of water (in cm) (rounded off to two decimal places).
a) 8.56
b) 8.24
c) 7.88
d) 7.52
e) 6.52
309. Shantanu borrowed Rs. 2.5 lakh from a bank to purchase one car. If the rate
of interest be 6% per annum compounded annually, what payment he will have to
make after 2 years 6 months?
a) Rs. 189,325
b) Rs. 186,32
c) Rs. 389,325
d) Rs. 289,325
e) None of these
310. . A 180 meters long train running at a speed of 90km/hr passed a 240 meters
long platform in T seconds. If train passed a tunnel in (7.2 +T) sec then find the
length of tunnel?
(a) 350 meters
(b) 420 meters
(c) 480 meters

(d) 300 meters

(e) 260 meters
311. Ratio between length of two trains X & Y is 3 : 4 and both the trains are
running at the speed of 81 km/hr and 108 km/hr respectively. If both the trains are
running in opposite direction, they crossed each other in 8 sec, then find in what
time both trains will cross each other when running in same direction?
a) 48 sec
b) 56 sec
c) 44 sec
d) 42 sec
e) 40 sec
312. A man lent Rs. 4500 at 30% compound interest per annum for 3 years. What
is the difference between the interest earned by the man in the 2 nd year only and
the interest earned by the man in the 3 rd year only?
a) Rs. 545.5
b) Rs. 502
c) Rs. 526.5
d) Rs. 532
e) Rs. 529
313. There are 5 multiple choice questions in an examination. How many

sequences of answers are possible, if the first three questions have 4 choices
each and the next two have 6 choices each?
a) 2804
b) 3456
c) 7776
d) 2304
e) 1024
314. How many 4 digits number can be formed using 2, 3, 5, 7, 6 and 9 if the
number should be divisible by ‘4’ and repetition is not allowed?
a) 120
b) 96
c) 160
d) 64
e) 296

315. A box contains 2 blue balls, 4 red balls, 5 green balls and 1 yellow balls. If
two balls are picked at random, what is the probability that at most 1 ball is blue?
a) 1/6
b) 1/10
c) 1/12
d) 34/45
e) 65/66
316. A shopkeeper deals in milk and 45 litre mixture is to be distributed in Milk &
Water in the ratio of 4 : 1. If 4 litre milk & 3 litre water will be added in the mixture
then what will be the new ratio of water and milk?
a) 5:6
b) 3:10
c) 4:5
d) 7:8
e) 10:3
317. How many kilograms of rice of Rs.5.4 per kg should be mixed with 10 kg of
rice of Rs.4.5 per kg, such that there may be gain of 20% by selling the mixture at
Rs.5.94 per kg.
a) 10 kg
b) 12 kg
c) 15 kg
d) 8 kg
e) None of these
318. Present average of age of A and B is 6x – 15 years. Present average age of A,

B and C is 4x + 6 years. If present age of B is 25% less than the present age of C
and 20% more than the present age of A, then find the present age of A.
a) 30 years
b) 33 years
c) 36 years
d) 39 years
e) Can't be determined
319. Shikha got married 9 years ago. Today her age is her age at the time
of marriage. At present her daughter’s age is one-sixth of her age. What was her
daughter’s age two years ago?

a) 6 years
b) 7 years
c) 3 years
d) Can’t be determined
e) 4 years
320. Gita started a business investing Rs. 60000. After six months Kanchan joined
her with Rs. 90000. After another six months Rekha also joined them with Rs. 1.35
lakh. The profit earned at the end of 3 years when Gita started the business
should be distributed among Gita, Kanchan and Rekha in the ratio of
a) 4 : 5 : 6
b) 6 : 7 : 8
c) 6 : 8 : 7
d) 6 : 5 : 4
e) None of these
321. Puneet, Sumit and Amit started a business jointly investing Rs. 11 lakh, 16.5
lakh and 8.25 lakh respectively. The profit earned by them in the business at the
end of three years was Rs. 19.5 lakh. What will be the half of Amit’s share in the
profit?
a) Rs 4.5 lakh
b) Rs 2.25 lakh
c) Rs 2.5 lakh
d) Rs 3.75 lakh
e) None of these
322. The salary of a man is Rs. 60000, from which he deposits x% amount at 13%
simple interest. If the accumulated amount for the sum deposited after 3 years
was Rs. 29190, then find the value of ‘x’.
a) 40
b) 35
c) 45
d) 50
e) 55
323. Arnab deposited Rs. 14500 in SBI mutual fund which offers simple interest at
the rate of 9%. The simple interest obtained from SBI is deposited in Birla Sun
Life mutual fund at the rate of 12% simple interest. If the time period for

depositing in SBI and Birla were 2 years and 5 years respectively, then find the
total simple interest earned by Arnab.
a) Rs. 5248
b) Rs. 3856
c) Rs. 4176
d) Rs. 4462
e) None of these
324. After selling a suit for Rs. 1680 a shopkeeper suffers a loss of 16%. If he
wants to earn 15% profit after giving the discount of 8%, what will be the marked
price?
a) Rs. 2500
b) Rs. 2000
c) Rs. 1500
d) Rs. 2600
e) None of these
325. A boat travels downstream for 14km and upstream for 9km. If the boat took
total of 5 hours for its journey. What is the speed of the river flow if the speed of
the boat in still water is 5km/hr?
A) 8km/hr.
B) 2km/hr.
C) 6km/hr.
D) 5km/hr.
E) 3km/hr
326. There are two places A and B which are separated by a distance of 100k. Two
boats starts form both the places at the same time towards each other. If one boat
is going downstream then the other one is going upstream, if the speed of A and
B is 12km/hr. and 13km/hr. respectively. Find at how much time will they meet
each other.
A) 10hrs.
B) 4 hrs.
C) 8hrs.
D) 6hrs.
E) 7hrs.
327. In a fixed time, a boy swims double the distance along the current that he
swims against the current. If the speed of the current is 3km/hr. , then what is the
speed of the boy in still water ?

A) 9 km/hr
B) 13km/hr
C) 15km/hr
D) 22km/hr
E) 10km/hr
328. 2 boys and 3 girls can together can complete a piece of work in 4 days and 3
boys and 2 girls together can complete work in 3 days.In how many days 10 girls
will complete this work?
a) 2 days
b) 4 days
c) 5 days
d) 5 days
e) 7 days
329. Two pipes A and B can separately fill a cistern in 15 and 30 minutes
respectively. A person opens both the pipes together when the cistern should
have been was full he finds the waste pipe open. He then closes the waste pipe
and in another 5 minutes the cistern was full. In what time can the waste pipe
empty the cistern when fill ?
a) 12 seconds
b) 29 seconds
c) 24 seconds
d) 20 seconds
e) 15 seconds
330. A and B can do a piece of work in 45 days and 40 days respectively. They
began to do the work together but A leaves after some days and then B
completed the remaining work in 23 days. The number of days after which A left
the work was
a) 10 days
b) 11 days
c) 9 days
d) 15 days
e) 12 days

331. A bus leaves from the bus depot at 5.pm at a speed 60km/hr towards
bengaluru. After 3 hours another bus also leaves from the depot and follows the
same direction of the first bus. In how much time will the second bus be 20km
ahead of the first bus if the speed of the second bus is 70 km/hr?
a) 25
b) 15
c) 30
d) 20
e) 10
332. The perimeter of a rectangular park is 178 more than the length of the
rectangular park. The cost of fencing the boundary of the park at the rate of Rs. 7
per m is Rs. 1708. A path has been made inside the park of width 4 m along its
boundary. Find the cost of paving the path with marbles at the rate of Rs. 9 per m 2
a) Rs. 7700
b) Rs 8208
c) Rs. 7454
d) Rs. 8520
e) Rs. 8000
333. The perimeter of a square is twice the perimeter of rectangle .If the perimeter
of square is 48 cm and length of rectangle is 7 cm. Find the breadth of rectangle?
a) 8 cm
b) 5 cm
c) 7 cm
d) 6 cm
e) 4 cm
334. The area of rectangular field is 3375 m^2 and length and breadth are in ratio
5:3.Find the length?
a) 75 m
b) 125 m
c) 50 m
d) 45 m
e) 130 m

335. Tanishq declared 20 percent discount on its ornaments. Rashi bought

ornaments worth Rs 30000 after getting discount. Now she fixed the selling price
of the ornaments in such a way that she got a profit of 15% on the marked price.
Find the selling price of the ornaments?
a) Rs 35625
b) Rs 35500
c) Rs 36100
d) Rs 35400
e) Rs 34500
336. Himani sold 10 shoes for a total profit of Rs. 460 and 12 shoes for a total
profit of Rs. 144. At what profit per shoes should she sell the remaining 20 shoes
so that she gets an average profit of Rs. 18 per shoes?
a) Rs 5.60
b) Rs 7.60
c) Rs 5.00
d) Rs 4.50
e) Rs 3.20
337. By selling 8 materials, a shopkeeper makes a loss equal to the cost price of 4
materials. Find loss%?
a) 50 %
b) 40 %
c) 45 %
d) 55 %
e) 60 %
338. Gokul sold his goods in such a way that even after allowing 25% discount on
cash , he gains 40%.If the cost price of the thing is Rs.280, Then what is the
marked price of the thing?
a) 540
b) 523
c) 542
d) 515
e) 525

339. In a business A and C invested amounts in the ratio 2 : 1 whereas A and B

invested amounts in the ratio 3 : 2. If their annual profit be Rs. 157300, then B’s
share in the profit is
a) Rs. 24200
b) Rs. 24200
c) Rs. 48000
d) Rs. 48400
e) Rs. 49500
340. Abhishek started a business investing Rs. 50,000. After one year he invested
another Rs. 30,000 and Sudin also joined him with a capital of Rs. 70,000. If the
profit earned in three years from the starting of business was Rs. 87,500, then
find the share of Sudin in the profit.
a) Rs. 37,500
b) Rs. 32,500
c) Rs. 38,281
d) Rs. 52,500
e) Rs. 35000
341. The average marks of a student in seven subjects was 75. His average marks
in six subjects, excluding Maths, was 73. How many marks did he score in Maths
?
a) 81
b) 84
c) 87
d) 91
e) 95
342. Rajiv decided to go for a dinner with his 12 friends. He paid Rs. 145 and each
of his friends paid some equal amount. They later found out that the average
amount that should be paid by all of them was 5 more than what was actually paid
by each of his friends. How much money did each of his friend pay?
a) Rs. 80
b) Rs. 90
c) Rs. 150
d) Rs. 100
e) None of these
343. In a class with a certain number of students if one new student weighing 50
kg is added, then average weight of class is increased by 1 kg. If one more
student weighing 50 kg is added, then the average weight of the class increases
by 1.5 kg over the original average. What is the original average weight (in kg) of
the class?
a) 46
b) 42
c) 27
d) 47
e) 52
344. If the average weight of the whole class is 50 kg. And the average weight of
boys in the class is 30 kg and the average weight of girls in the same class is 22
kg. What could be the possible strength of boys and girls in the class
respectively?
A) 5 : 8
B) 5 : 3
C) 7 : 5
D) 7 : 6
E) 9 : 5
345. From a container of wine , 8 litres of wine is drawn and replace the same
quantity with water. This is performed three more times, now the ratio of the
quantity of wine to that of water in the container becomes 16 : 65. What is the
initial quantity of wine in the container?
A) 26 L
B) 28 L
C) 24 L
D) 22 L
E) 20 L
346. The ratio of the present age of Pratyush to that of Avnish is 3:11.Avnish is 12
years younger than Rahul.Rahul’s age after 7 years will be 85 years.What is the
present age of Pratyush father .who is 25 years older than Pratyush?
a) 42 yr
b) 43 yr
c) 38 yr

d) 35 yr
e) 40 yr
347. The present age of Mahesh is 1/4th that of his father.After 6 years.the father’s
age will be twice the age of Kamlesh.If Kamlesh celebrated his 5th birthday 8
years ago,What is Mahesh present age?
a) 5 yr
b) 6 yr
c) 8 yr
d) 9 yr
e) 10 yr
348. In how many different ways can the letters of the word “Thoughts” be
arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?
a) 2620
b) 2420
c) 2520
d) 2320
e) 2120
349. In how many different ways can the letters of word RABBIT be arranged?
a) 360
b) 240
c) 300
d) 275
e) 320
350. Rajat lends Rs. 20,000 to two of his friends. He gives Rs.10,000 to the first at
15% p.a. simple interest. Rajat wants to make a profit of 20% on the whole. The
simple interest rate at which he should lend the remaining sum of money to the
second friend is
a) 12 %
b) 16 %
c) 20 %
d) 25 %
e) 24 %

351. 8, 12, 24, 60, 160, 630

a) 160
b) 24
c) 60
d) 630
e) 12
352. 7 16 73 500 5488 71314
a) 5488
b) 73
c) 500
d) 16
e) 71314
353. 442, 378, 346, 330, 322
a) 320
B) 318
C) 310
D) 314
E) 316
354. 20,40,61,84,111
A 138
B 146
C 136
D 144
E None of these
355. 15 65 125 133 60 20
a) 65
b) 133
c) 125
d) 60
e) 20
356. 3. 8, 20, 44, 90, 188, 380

a) 44
b) 380
c) 188

d) 20
e) 90
357. 10 14 23 39 64 99 149
a) 14
b) 39
c) 64
d) 99
e) 149
358. 36 54 18 27 9 18.5 4.5

a) 4.5
b) 18.5
c) 54
d) 18
e) 27
359. 6, 91, 584, 2935, 11756, 35277, 70558

a) 6
b) 70558
c) 584
d) 2935
e) 35277
360. 15 36 71 120 183

a) 183
b) 120
c) 71
d) 36
e) 9
361. 1.21 2.69 4.25 5.98 7.61 9.41
a) 2.69
b) 7.61
c) 4.25
d) 9.41
e) 5.98
362. 8 11 17 47 128 371 1100

a) 11
b) 47
c) 17
d) 371
e) 128
363. 50, 51, 47, 56, 45, 65, 29

a) 47
b) 29
c) 51
d) 65
e) None of these
364. 12, 6.8, 7.5, 12.75, 27.5 , 71.25

a) 12
b) 27.5
c) 7.5
d) 12.75
e) 6.8
365. 11, 12, 26, 81, 320, 1645

a) 11
b) 12
c)81
d) 320
e) None of these
366. 84, 138, 192, 270, 348, 434

a) 192
b) 138
c) 84
d) 348
e) 434
367. 8424, 4212, 2106, 1051, 526.5, 263.25, 131.625

a) 526.5
b) 1051
c) 4212
d) 8424
e) 263.25

368. 37, 150, 306, 511, 763, 1062

a) 150
b) 1062
c) 306
d) 763
e) 511
369. 10000 2000 1000 200 50 20

a) 200
b) 20
c) 50
d) 1000
e) 10000
370. 1210 1584 2025 2548 3150 3840
a) 2025
b) 3840
c) 3150
d) 1584
e) 2548
371. 60, 48, 84, 231, 866.25, 4114.6875

a) 866.25
b) 84
c) 60
d) 4114.6875
e) 231
372. 12 24 48 144 915 13200
a) 48
b) 915
c) 144
d) 13200
e) 24
373. 50, 67, 101, 152, 220, 304

a) 220
b) 304
c) 101
d) 152
e) 67
374. 7, 27, 237, 279, 783, 858

a) 27
b) 237
c) 279
d) 858
e) 783
375. 200, 300, 600, 1200, 1800, 2700

a) 1200
b) 600
c) 300
d) 1800
e) 2700
Simplification and Approxiation

376)
586 ×9234 ÷ 48 % of 950 = 36 ×750 ÷4 + ? + 4500
1. 25
2. 728
3. 5
4. 75
5. 474
377)
1323 ÷(27 % of 700) = 35 ×7 3/5 of (? ÷190)
1. 7
2. 9
3. 4
4. 5
5. 8

378)
(28 ×9 + 54 ×3 + 12 ×11) ÷(142–√961 + 17) = ?
1. 6
2. 3
3. 5
4. 8
5. 7
379)
32450 ÷11 + (4/9) of 11520 + 48 % of 7500 = ?2–430
1. 150
2. 178
3. 110
4. 92
5. None of these
380)
√13225 +∛205379 + 52 % of 700 = 408 + ?
1. 156
2. 218
3. 189
4. 130
5. None of these
381)
492÷14 ×8 + 582= 4 ×? –15 % of 2480
1. 1489
2. 1277
3. 1645
4. 1823

5. None of these
382)
(85410 + 36885 + 24705) ÷1600 = ?
A. 92.875
B. 91.875
C. 93.675
D.92.675
E. None of these
383)
12.5 X 14÷8.75 + 12 = 20 + ?
A. 14
B. 11
C. 12
D. 18
E. 15
384)
? X (523.5 + 687.5) = 24220
A. 10
B.15
C.17
D. 20
E. 30
385)
5610÷35.0625 X 25 = ?
A.3000
B.2000
C.5000
D.4000
E.6000
386)
184 ÷46 ÷0.008 ÷12.5 = ?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 60
D. 80
E. None of these
387)
(4270÷122) + ? = 200
A. 165
B. 155
C. 175
D. 185
E. None of these
388)
(2222.5 –1680 X 0.75) X 1.2 = ?
A. 1015
B. 1255
C. 1115
D. 1055
E. 1155
389)
20 X 168÷14-40 = ? + 110
A. 60
B. 30
C. 40
D. 80
E. 90
390)
555.55 + 55.55 + 15 + 0.55 + 0.05 = ?
A. 626.50
B. 626.70
C. 625.50
D. 626.70
E. None of these
Directions (Q. 391-395): What value should come in the place of

question mark (?) in the following equations:
391)
(325.25÷25)% of 3223 = ? + 267

A)132
B)152
C)178
D)165
E)None of these
392)
(21.85)2 × 7.09 + (23.06)2 × 6.35 = ?
A)6777
B)6774
C)6752
D)6762
E)None of these
393)
(1/6) of 5640 + 285 = ?2
A)25
B)55
C)35
D)45
E)None of these
394)
(1/3) of (256/7) of (21/16) of (1/2) of ? = 3648

A)456
B)654
C)765
D)876
E)None of these
395)
[ √(121×49) ]÷3.5 × 78 = ?2 + 35
A)39
B)49
C)51
D)41
E)None of these
Directions (396 to 400): What should come in place of the question

mark (?) in the following questions?
396)
𝟐 𝟏
18 + 7 = ?
𝟑 𝟐
𝟏
a) 26
𝟑
𝟏
b) 19
𝟐
𝟏
c) 26
𝟔
𝟐
d) 25
𝟑
e) None of these

397)
-224 + (-314) ×(-9) = ?
a) -547
b) 2602
c) +547
d) -2602
e) None of these
398)
8.7 + 6.2 × 7.5 = ?
a) 55.04
b) 55.02
c) 66.48
d) 104.02
e) None of these
399)
64344 + 5239 + 4423 + 123 = ?
a) 74126
b) 74223
c) 74129
d) 75624
e) None of these

400)
(608.40 × ?) ÷ 225 + 37 = 375
a) 115
b) 135
c) 130
d) 124
e) None of these
Direction (401-406) Instructions: Read the following paragraph and fill in the
blanks in the paragraph with the most appropriate.
At first glance, they are difficult to ……………. (i). On a closer, second look, the
dots, curves and the ‘akku’ unique to the Tamil script – albeit stylized – reveal
themselves. In straight, thick lines, they are ……………. (ii) in a calligraphic style
which is satisfying contemporary. And, interestingly, what lends content to this
style is ancient Tamil literature. Avvaiyar’s12th Century text, Aathichoodi, a
collection of 109 single-line quotations arranged in alphabetical order that
……………. (iii) everything from good habits to the importance of discipline. An
……………. (iv) reader of Tamil literature, Chennai based artist Arvind Sundar
draws a lot from ancient texts in his calligraphic practice. His lockdown interest
has now evolved itself into an online design studio, which he runs along with
photographer Mahesh Thiru. His studio ……………. (v) to create a contemporary
design space exclusively for Tamil literature. The studio’s upcoming project is a
pack of playing cards demarcated by the four dynasties that ruled Tamil Nadu –
namely the Chola, Chera, Pandya and Pallava. The kings are portrayed in their
war ……………. (vi) with the royal insignia, while the queens take up different
roles pertaining to medicine, literature and battle.
401. Find the word appropriate to be filled in (i)

a) Jettison
b) Decipher
c) Assiduity
d) Whittled
e) Battered

402. Find the word appropriate to be filled in (ii)

a) Limp
b) Inscribed
c) Oblivious
d) Rogatory
e) Inundation
403. Find the word appropriate to be filled in (iii)

a) Convalesce
b) Preaches
c) Spiteful
d) Assailants
e) Buttress
404. Find the word appropriate to be filled in (iv)

a) Esthetic
b) Renegade
c) Extradited
d) Avid
e) Freak
405. Find the word appropriate to be filled in (v)

a) Sybarite
b) Strives
c) Shun
d) Staggering
e) Minacious
406. Find the word appropriate to be filled in (vi)

a) Inept
b) Pillage
c) Conspirator
d) Attire
e) Elude
Directions (407-411): In the passage given below there are blanks which are
numbered from 11 to 15. They are to be filled with the options given below the
passage against each of the respective numbers. Find out the appropriate word in
each case which can most suitably complete the sentence without altering its

meaning. . If none of the words given in options fits in, mark ‘None of these’ as
your answer choice.
There is no liquidity crisis in the NBFC sector right now, ___407___ to SBI
chairman Rajnish Kumar. Mr. Kumar’s comments ___408___ at a time when the
government and the RBI are in disagreement over the liquidity ___409___ of
NBFCs. NABARD chairman Harsh Kumar Bhanwala also sought to downplay the
liquidity issue, saying that it had improved ___410___ since the IL&FS crisis. Mr.
Bhanwala said that he did not ___411___ that the contagion from the IL&FS crisis
was spreading.
407. Find the word appropriate to be filled in 407

a) As
b) Per
c) According
d) Said
e) Says

a) Are
b) Come
c) Relevant
d) Published
e) Offered

a) Price
b) Story
c) Situation
d) Standoff
e) None of these


a) From
b) Significantly
c) Also
d) Drastic
e) None of these
411. . Find the word appropriate to be filled in 410

a) Feel
b) Thought
c) Saw
d) Expected
e) Sought
Directions (412-416)In the following passage, some of the words have been left
out, each of which is indicated by a letter. Find the suitable word from the options
given against each letter and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make
the paragraph meaningful.
Four of the most popular forms ie facebook,twitter,snapchat,instagram of social

media ___412____ great damage upon young people’s mental health. These four
platforms have a negative effect because they can____413____ children’s and
young people’s body image worries, and worsen bullying, sleep problems,
anxiety, depression and loneliness. The findings follow growing
____414____among politicians, health bodies, doctors and parents about young
people suffering harm as a result of cyberbullying and social media ____415____
feelings of self-loathing and leading them to commit suicide. However, the leader
of the UK’s psychiatrists said these findings were too simplistic and they
____416____ blamed social media for the complex reasons why the mental health
of so many young people is suffering.
412.
a) desecrate
b) impious

c) inflict
d) perpetrating
413.
a) mitigate
b) exacerbate
c) alleviate
d) effectuate
414.
a) bridle
b) consternate
c) poise
d) concern
415.
a). reinforcing
b) ebbing
c) augment
d) accentuate
416.
a) legitimately
b) outlandish
c) unfairly
d) impartially
Directions (417-424): Given below is a paragraph that has blank spaces.

Corresponding to each blank, five options are given, out of which only one is
appropriate. Choose the option that fits most suitably in the given blank making
sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
Long did we wait, but no one turned up. An hour _____(417)_____, and the
stationmaster came to _____(418)_____. He asked us for our tickets. We showed
them to him. He asked us why we tarried. We told him that we
were _____(419)_____ for Koregaon and that we were waiting for father or his

servant to come, but that neither had turned up and that we did not know how to
reach Koregaon.
We were well-dressed children. From our dress or talk no one could make out
that we were children of the untouchables. Indeed, the stationmaster was quite
sure we were Brahmin children and was extremely touched at
the _____(420)_____ in which he found us. As is usual among the Hindus, the
stationmaster asked us who we were. Without a moment's thought I blurted out
that we were Mahars. (Mahar is one of the communities which were treated as
untouchables in the Bombay Presidency.) He was _____(421)_____. His face
underwent a sudden change. We could see that he was _____(422)_____ by a
strange feeling of _____(423)_____. As soon ashe heard my reply, he went away
to his room and we stood where we were. Fifteen to twenty minutes elapsed; the
sun was almost setting. Our father had not turned up nor had he sent his servant,
and now the stationmaster had also left us. We were quite _____(424)_____,
and the joy and happiness, which we felt at the beginning of the journey, gave
way to a feeling of extreme sadness.
417.
(a) came
(b) elapsed
(c) went
(d) gone
(e) taken
418.
(a) run
(b) eat
(c) enquire
(d) shout
(e) beat
419.
(a) bound
(b) killed
(c) slapped
(d) slept
(e) cried
420.
(a) car
(b) happiness
(c) accomplishment
(d) success

(e) plight
421.
(a) happy
(b) humiliated
(c) beaten
(d) stunned
(e) thankful
422.
(a) surprised
(b) overpowered
(c) heard
(d)insulted
(e) encouraged
423
(a)attraction
(b)motion
(c) exercise
(d) supposition
(e) repulsion
424.
(a) driven
(b) crying
(c) satisfied
(d) bewildered
(e) angry
Direction (425-434) Given below the sentences each of which has been divided
into four parts. Each of the questions is then followed by the five options which
give the sequence of the rearranged parts. You must choose the option which
gives the correct sequence of the parts. If the sentence is already arranged in the
correct sequence or the correct sequence doesn’t match with any of the given
sequence, mark option (e) .i.e. ‘None of the above’ as your answer.
425. U.S. Senator from California Kamala Harris (A)/mate of presumptive

Democratic(B)/ presidential nominee Joe Biden (C)/ has been named running. (D)
a) BADC
b) ADBC

c) ABDC
d) ACBD
426. The Central Public Works Department asked (A)/they would keep the
drawings secret (B)/the three firms to sign affidavits saying (C)/ before submitting
financial bids. (D)
a) BADC
b) ADBC
c) ABDC
d) ACBD
427. working on developing “mega labs” to (A)/ the Council of Scientific and
Industrial Research is (B)/well as improve the accuracy rate (C)/ramp up testing
for COVID-19 as (D)
a) BADC
b) ADBC
c) ABDC
d) ACBD
428. Without a stable Internet connection, a (A)/functional laptop and a phone

(B)/anxious about attempting her exam (C)/ with a clear camera, Ms. Dhar is.(D)
a) BADC
b) ADBC
c) ABDC
d) ACBD
429. With the redevelopment plan, he (A)/akin to Connaught Place or Khan Market
(B)/and rival the best in the city (C)/ hopes the market will become (D)
a) BADC
b) ADBC
c) ABDC

d) ACBD
430. The old man who is sitting in that (A)/ room lived here (B)/ for more than (C)/
a month but he (D)/ has never created any problem (E).
a) ACDE
b) ABCD
c) BCDE
d) ABDE
e) None of these
431. A criminal which escaped (A)/ a Peruvian prison by drugging (B)/ his twin
brother and leaving him (C)/ in his place has been recaptured (D)/ after more than
a year on the run (E).
a) BCDE
b) ABCD
c) ABDE
d) ACDE
e) None of these
432. Unfortunately, we live in a (A)/ time where these sort (B)/ of things are
happening (C)/ more and more — (D)/ and not just in schools (E).
a) BCDE
b) ABCD
c) ABDE
d) ACDE
e) None of these
433. School offers many opportunities (A)/ of meeting helpful people, (B)/reading
useful books and (C)/ obtain information (D)/ about a variety of public careers. (E)
a) ABCE
b) ABCD
c) ACDE
d) ABDE
e) None of these

434. The P.M said that (A)/ his party (B)/would not repeat (C)/ the mistakes make
(D)/ by the previous government. (E)
a) ABCD
b) BCDE
c) ACDE
d) ABDE
e) None of these
Directions(435-439) A set of six statements is given below. It is given that

statement D is the last statement when arranged correctly. You need to arrange
them in a logical sequence and then answer the following questions:
A. Prime Minister Haider al-Abadi, who led the Victory Alliance, bet on the gains
the Iraqi army made under his leadership in the war against the Islamic State to
win political points.
B. The May 12 parliamentary vote was crucial for all the main blocs in Iraq.
C. For the Al-Fatih bloc, a coalition of parties and leaders that have close ties with
Iran, capturing power was important at a time when Iran is facing new regional
challenges, and they ran a largely pro-Shia campaign.
D. Mr. Sadr, on the other side, shed his early sectarian image, focussed his
campaign on social justice and government failure, attacked Iran’s deepening
influence in Iraq from a nationalist perspective and stitched up alliances with
liberals and communists to expand his base.
E. Iraq’s parliamentary election results marked a remarkable comeback for

Muqtada al-Sadr.
F. He is the nationalist Shia cleric who for years had been sidelined both by the
Iraqi establishment and its Iranian backers.
435. Which of the following would be the first statement after re-arrangement?
a) F
b) E
c) A
d) C
e) B
436. Which of the following would be the second statement after re-arrangement?
a) F
b) E
c) A
d) C
e) B
437. Which of the following would be the third statement after re-arrangement?
a) F
b) E
c) A
d) B
e) C
438. Which of the following would be the fourth statement after re-arrangement?
a) F
b) E
c) A
d) B
e) C
439. Which of the following would be the fifth statement after re-arrangement?
a) F
b) E
c) C
d) B
e) A
Directions(440-444) Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E, F and G

in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
question given beside.
A. Last month, the FCA issued a proposal to relax listing conditions for state-
owned issuers wishing to qualify for the London Stock Exchange (LSE) Premium
Listing Segment – the exchange’s “gold standard” segment, governed by
stringent regulations.

B. In its consultation paper, the FCA states that “sovereign owners tend to be
different from private-sector individuals or entities both in their motivations and
in their nature.”
C. It is a valid assumption – and precisely the reason why SOEs should notbe
given preferential regulatory treatment.
D. Amid intense competition for the anticipated listing of Saudi Aramco – the
world’s largest oil company, owned by the Saudi state – stock exchanges and
financial-market regulators are under pressure to provide incentives for the
company to dual-list its shares abroad.
E. The proposal is presented as a mere technicality, but it is significant for

reasons that extend beyond Saudi Aramco. In fact, it implies that regulators now
believe that state-owned enterprises (SOEs) deserve special regulatory treatment.
F. The United Kingdom’s Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) seems to be bowing

to that pressure.
440. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
a) D
b) C
c) A
d) E
e) B
441. Which of the following would be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after
rearrangement?
a) D
b) C
c) A
d) E
e) B
442. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
a) D
b) C
c) A
d) E
e) B

443. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
a) D
b) C
c) A
d) E
e) B
444. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
a) D
b) C
c) F
d) E
e) B
Directions(445-455): Directions: The given sentence has been broken up into four
different parts. The error, if any, will be in any one part of the sentence. Select the
option which contains the part of the sentence which has an error (spelling,
grammatical or contextual). If there is no error, choose option E.
445. The government has acknowledged that (A) / economic growth did slow
down in 2018-19 (B) / owing to declining in private consumption growth (C) / a
tepid increase in fixed investments and muted exports. (D) / No Error (E)
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) No Error
446. This perplexing trend may be attributed to (A) / increasing compliance

among businesses amidst (B) / the aggressive push by the (C) / tax authorities to
wider the tax base. (D) / No Error (E)
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) No Error
447. Just behind the royal standard-bearers (A)/came the Princess Ozma in her
royal chariot, (B)/that was of gold encrusted(C)/ with emeralds and diamonds set

in exquisite designs(D)/ No Error (E)

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) No Error
448. The state’s exit could result in foreign equity(A) control of banks and
possibly(B) even a loss of sovereinty(C) over a sector that is vital(D) to the
economy/ No Error (E)
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) No Error
449. India must join region(A) trade partnership, hook(B) into global value chains,
and address(C) issues afflicting(D) competitiveness./ / No Error (E)
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) No Error
450. It needs to be highlighted that (A)/compliance and disclosures are far

superior (B)/at the IPO stage across many aspects, (C)/but falls significantly post
listing. (D) / / No Error (E)
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) No Error
451. The stakeholders must appreciate (A) / that the only way to postpone (B) /
resistance is though improved (C) / hygiene and vaccinations. (D) / No Error (E)
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) No Error

452. Most schools in Paris (A) / will stay open (B) / until the summer holidays (C) /
start after Friday afternoon. (D) / No error (E)
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) No Error
453. Those present (A)/were all astonished (B)/to the results(C)/of the
election(D)/.No Error(E)
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) No Error
454. Estonia, the tiny Baltic state of 1.3 million (A)/ people has been touted as
most (B)/ advanced digital society in the (C)/ world with an adult literacy rate of
99.8%. (D) / No Error(E).
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) No Error
455. If a credible fiscal council elucidates the evolving contours of

macroeconomic health, (A)/ and the rationale for fiscal expansion or contraction,
(B)/ that is likely to inspire confidence among investors, domestic and foreign,
(C)/ rather than meeting or missing some preset numerical targets. (D) / No
Error(E).
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) No Error

Directions (456 – 463): Read the passage given below and answer the
questions.
The clay idols of the Goddess Durga and her children, along with
Mahisasura are famous across the world though this is a festival
exclusive to the Bengalis everywhere. It is an international event and
the clay image makers are an institution unto themselves. This apart,
the detailed and perfect idols of national leaders, spiritual
personalities, and historical figures are included too, in the average
Kumartuli potter's or idol maker's portfolio.
In 1757, Lord Robert Clive and the East India Company won the first
military victory for British arms on Indian soil at the Battle of Plassey,
defeating the Mughal Nawab. According to Ray, the story goes that
members of the urban Hindu elite of Calcutta who supported the
British decided to celebrate it with a Durga Puja. Clay images were
then made by the craftsmen of Krishnanagar, then a small town
outside the main city. Most of them later migrated to Calcutta and
settled in Kumartuli. The name Kumartuli is derived from kumore
meaning potter which the craftsmen originally were and tuli meaning
their small place of shelter. As Calcutta grew as a centre of trade and
administration during the British rule, these potters became the core
settlers of Kumartuli Potters Quarters.
Kumartuli is the largest hub of Durga idols in and around Kolkata. The
smell of wet clay from the Ganges and other rivers, the dry crackling
of straw beneath one's feet, the criss-cross patterns of bamboo
spread out within the narrow confines of a ramshackle, eight-by-eight
(8x8) studio, blend seamlessly to create the traditional homes of the
artisans where Goddess Durga takes 'birth. Sadly, there is very little
active and live documentation of the work of these world-class
artisans. Kumartuli comprises a narrow tract of cheap walls and tiled
roofs, tin sheds and plastic awnings that lead to narrow lanes. The
workshops where the artisans work are so confined that they seem
claustrophobic. Their struggling lives and limited spaces have recently
been captured by filmmaker Ranajit Ray in a 52-minute film called
Documentation of Clay Image Makers of Kumartuli. The film unfolds
the story of this unique art form that recreates itself through its
artists year after year, without break within very limited conditions of
geography, space, lighting and lifestyles. The film won the National
Award (Rajat Kamal) at the 62nd National Film Awards 2014.
The artisans offer the rare experience of the spirit of the puja much
before the drums begin to play on Maha Shasthi and then fade away
as the idols are immersed in the muddy waters of the river Hooghly
on Bijoya Dashami. How does the Kumartuli sculptor respond? "We
work round the clock to create exquisite works of art. But it
sometimes hurts when we see our own creations being destroyed.
Our year-long efforts are sunk without a trace".
456)
What does the British East India Company and a Mughal emperor
have to do with the celebration of the biggest Bengali festival?
A) The Durga Puja was meant to be a sign of peace between the

warring forces of the East India Company and the Mughal Empire.
B) Calcutta's nobility which supported the British, celebrated the East

India Company's victory over the Mughals with the Durga Puja.
C) The locals of Bengal celebrated with Durga Puja once the British
East India Company was protested against at the battle of Plassey in
1757.
D) All of the above.
E) The locals who were caught in the war between the British and the
Mughals started observing Durga Puja to pray for peace.
457)
Who were the original idol makers during big festivals such as Durga
Puja?
А) The elite Hindus of Bengal, particularly Calcutta.
B) The artisans who worked under the upper-class Hindu residents of

Calcutta.
C) The artisans who were originally from Krishnanagar in Bengal and

later migrated to Calcutta.
D) The artisans who resided in the shabby, claustrophobic lanes of

what is known as Kumartuli.
458)

Which of the following is similar in meaning to "institution" as used in

the passage?
A) Establishment
B) Practice
C) Ritual
D Building
E) All of the above
459)
From where does Kumartuli derive its name?
A) An amalgamation of two words, the former meaning 'potter' and

the latter referring to their abode.
B) A merger of two words referring to 'potter', their toil and their

instruments of creation.
C) A reworking of the name of the place where the potters originally

came from.
D) A name granted to the potters by the elite Hindu residents.
E) The British East India Company documented a name for the place
where the artisans resided.
460)

What has Ranajit Ray's work achieved vis-a-vis the potters of

Kumartuli?
A) Lauded the artisans' unceasing efforts in the light of the suffocated

place where and the dismal conditions under which they stay and
work on the idols.
B) In a first, glorified the potters and their work while also capturing
the indifference shown to them by the rest of society.
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) Acknowledged for the first time, the contribution of these artists to

Bengal's history, society and culture ever since the Battle of Plassey in
1757.
E) Won accolades for the artisans' sake.
461)
Which of the following is opposite in meaning to "elite" as used in the
passage?
A) Sophisticated
B) Sophist
C) Gentry
D) Sundry
E) Rabble

462)
How does the importance of the potters wane with the end of Durga
Puja?
A) Their source of work is lost once the Puja has ended, so their
importance is also reduced.
B) They are no longer hailed as heroes of the Durga Puja after it ends,
so their importance falls.
C) With the immersion of their art, their round-the-year efforts are

also washed away, reducing their own worth.
D) They are the creators of the idols but at the end of the Puja, the
priests conducting the ceremony gain importance, not the artisans.
463)
What is the author's central concern in the passage?
A) Giving us a historical, political and aesthetic background to Durga

Puja.
B) Conveying to us the great feat achieved by Ranajit Ray's film where

he has focused on the idol makers.
C) To trace the trajectory of Durga Puja from reasons of its celebration

to the final immersion of the idols into water.

D) Subtly presenting a class struggle by pitting the elite and rich

upper-class Hindus against the poor artisans of Kumartuli who slave
throughout the year for the former's enjoyment.
E) Shedding light on the hitherto little known lives and works of the
Kumartuli artisans who create clay idols.
464-473)
Directions : Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions. Certain words are in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
It has been a year since I started using the Metro to travel to work.
Each day's 30-minute-long journey is more or less similar to the one
that preceded it. Rubbed smooth by routine, it passes by without my
ever being even conscious of it.
I don't pay attention to the world around me when I'm frisked at the
entrance by a bored security guard, pass my backpack through the
scanner, swipe my card to get past the turnstile, wait on the platform,
occasionally get screamed at by another guard for unknown reasons,
get into a ch, and then spend the next few minutes jostling for
comfort in the air-conditioned but crowded interior while ignoring the
announcements as I have my earphones plugged in. I daresay this is
the experience of my fellow commuters and, indeed, commuters in
public transport all over the world.
But every once in a while, the unexpected happens and this routine
unravels: I run into a person I haven't been in touch with for a while.

Pure happenstance that is reflected in my reaction and in the reaction

of the person in front of me. It begins with disbelief, which is only a
façade for our brains to hide behind as they dust off old memories
and try to remember something of this person they are suddenly
faced with. There is momentary panic if I can't remember a name,
followed by a flood of relief as I begin talking and realise that the
other person is equally clueless about my name. But sometimes, I
don't just remember names but also specific conversations we've had
in the past.
I drag these out into the open, blind to the possibility that the past
few years might have changed the way this person might feel about
the subject. If I can't recall shared conversations from the past, I bank
on the memories of shared acquaintances and friends to not let the
conversation peter away.
And for some reason that is hard to discern, I am at pains to keep the
conversation going. Perhaps it's the specter of the crowd around us.
They become more present, more solid, and I cannot help but think of
them as gleeful leavesdroppers. It doesn't help that I'm also nagged
by a feeling that the conversation is being timed. An invisible hour
glass hovers beside me, urging me to keep talking before one of us
has to disembark and break this tenuous connection that we have re-
established in the past few minutes.
Despite the hurried nature of these meetings, most of them are

welcome. Like a batch-mate from school that I had not seen in almost
a decade. In short order, we caught up on the lost years, from the
number of people we were still in touch with (not many) to the
number of fellow batch-mates who had ended up abroad for further

studies (too many). Then there was the junior from college when we
skipped all the pleasantries and delved right into the relative merits
and demerits about the latest Star Wars movie.
Some of the meetings go the other way. Like the time I met a distant
cousin. Used to seeing each other in family homes, weddings and
during festivals, we were shorn of a template within which to
modulate our interaction. It was probably the only time I found
myself wishing I had more relatives, only so I could ask after their
health.
Then there are the absolute worst, the times when I see a person I
have no intention of setting my eyes on again for as long as I live.
Fortunately, the list of such people is short, which makes me wonder
what the odds are for running into them in the metro.
And this raises the broader question at the heart of all these
meetings: what, really, are the odds of such happenstance? Low
enough that I never feel the need to brace myself for them. The metro
encourages this unpreparedness by giving me a sterile environment in
which to travel every day, cocooned in the middle of a crowd.
So, when I do end up meeting someone I know, it is a sensory

overload, driving home just how vast, strange, and deep human
connections can be. The Metro, in such cases, doesn't just connect
places. For better or worse, it connects people.

464)
What does the author rely on to strike a conversation with someone
known he has met in the metro?
I. he talks about the ongoing trends and debates in the world around
II. he talks about the old conversations he had had with that person
III. he talks about the common acquaintances and friends
1) Only (I)
2) Only (III)
3) Both (I) and (II)
4) Both (II) and (III)
5) Both (I) and (III)
465)
Why did the author wish that he had more relatives?
A) so that he had more people to stay in touch with
B) so that he could enjoy the warmth of a big family
C) so that he had something to talk about with his cousin
D) so that he had learnt how to strike a conversation
E) All of the above

466)
What is the author's opinion about the kind of experience people get
when they travel in public transports?
I. different public transports offer different kind of experience to their

passengers
II. there is no different in the kind of experience public transports

offer to their passengers
III. different passengers receive different kind of experiences in the

same public transport
A) None of (I), (II) and (III)
B) Both (I) and (III)
C) Only (II)
D) Only (I)
E) Only (III)
467)
What can be concluded from the passage?
A) metro is the lifeline of the cities
B) having conversations with people can be tricky
C) we are continuously losing our personal connect with people
D) metro does more than connecting places
E) More than one of the above

468)
How is the author's bonding with his past school mates?
I. he is not in touch with the majority of them
II. he meets them once in a while but not frequently
III. he is in touch with most of them vie calls and emails
A) Only (I)
B) Only (II)
С) Only (III)
D) Both (II) and (III)
E) None of (I), (II) and (III)
469)
What made the author wonder about the odds of running into people
he would never like to meet?
I. limited number of such people
II. the fast pace of his life
III. the crowded scenes at metro stations
A) Both (II) and (III)
B) Only (I)
C) Both (I) and (II)
D) Only (III)
E) Only (II)
470)
What is the unexpected event which happens with the author once in
a while during his travel in the metro?
A) finding an old photograph at his office desk
B) an old acquaintance visiting him at home
C) losing his belongings while commuting
D) getting into an argument with a stranger over something trivial
E) running into someone he hasn't been in touch with for a while
471)
Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word Jostling as
used in the passage?
A) Scrambling
B) Delving
C) Amassing
D) Frisking
E) Supporting
472)
Which of the following is farthest in meaning from the word
Momentary as used in the passage?
A) Reluctant
B) Vibrant
C) Fragile
D) Preserved
E) Permanent
473)
Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word Sterile as
used in the passage?
A) Servile
B) Agile
C) Futile
D) Nimble
E) Flippant
474-480)
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions.
Just like human beings, nations too, have their own chequered stories
to tell. India's story has been particularly interesting: from a glorious
past to a tiresome colonial struggle to finally becoming an
independent, aspirational nation with the potential to become a
global superpower. In this eventful journey, the passing of the Right
to Education (RTE) Act has been one of the country's most defining
moments. Like all momentous decisions, the decision to bring about

this legislation was also the culmination of deep thought and earnest
attempts over a number of decades, to usher in universal education.
We have come a long way from 1910 when Gopal Krishna Gokhale
demanded 'Free and Compulsory Primary Education' in India to 2002
when the Article 21-A was inserted in the Constitution of India which
declared that "The State shall provide free and compulsory education
to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the
State may, by law, determine." The Act makes education a
fundamental right of every child between the ages of 6 and 14 years
and specifies minimum conditions or input criteria that have to be
met in all elementary schools. It mandates all private schools to
reserve 25 percent of seats, absolutely free of cost, for children
belonging to disadvantaged categories, which is to be reimbursed by
the State.
The RTE is placed at notch above similar legislation in many other

countries because free" education in the act does not merely mean
waiving off tuition fees. It excludes any charge that may hinder a
child's pursuit of her elementary education in a school of her choice.
Secondly, it looks at learning and education as a process and
prescribes quality principles for the same. Thirdly, by making it a
Fundamental Right, that is, by enshrining it in the fundamental law of
the land, it makes it the duty and obligation of the government
towards its people.
Qualitative improvement in education is a much-needed outcome for

India to remain competitive in the global sphere. This would require
education policy to acknowledge that quality spans on a wide range of

aspects ranging from the size of the school system, financial
capabilities, strength of teachers' unions, existing teacher capabilities
and variability in performance across the State. It also needs to
account for transparency in decision-making within the State. These
intricacies inform the implementation of interventions for an
educational transformation to be successful.
The Central and State Governments should partner with international

agencies for providing technical strengthening support in the
education sector. international development partners like the World
Bank, DFID, ADB, etc.not only contribute through additional funding
but also bring in their rich international experience and practical
knowledge of best practices. These same organisations could also
contribute by designing tailor-made technical assistance and capacity
building programmes.
474)
As per the passage, what does 'free education' imply as per the RTE?
А) It means providing free education by waiving tuition fees.
B) It means to impart elementary education by excluding tuition fees

as well as any charge that may hinder a child's pursuit of her
elementary education in a school of her choice.
C) It means to provide education by privatising the elementary

education.

D) It means providing free education to the middle class of the

country.
E) Both (a) and (c)
475)
As per the passage, how international agencies can contribute to
strengthening the education sector in India?
1. By providing additional funding.
2. By bringing in their rich international experience and practical

knowledge of best practices.
3. By designing tailor-made technical assistance and capacity building

programmes.
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 2 and 3
C) Only 1 and 3
D) Only 2
E) All 1, 2 and 3
476)
As per the passage, how qualitative improvement in education can be
achieved in India?
1. By acknowledging that quality spans on a wide range of aspects

ranging from the size of the school to variability in performance
across the states.
2. By forging partnerships with developed countries.
3. By ensuring transparency in decision-making within the State.
А) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 2 and 3
C) Only 1 and 3
D) Only 3
E) All 1,2 and 3
477)
As per the passage, which of the following is/ are the feature/(s) of
the Right to education act(article 21-A)?
A) The state shall provide free and compulsory education to all

children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the
State may, by law, determine.
B) It makes education a legal right.
c) It mandates all government schools to reserve 25 percent of seats,

absolutely free of cost, for children belonging to disadvantaged
categories, which is to be reimbursed by the state.
D) Both (a) and (b)
E) All (a), (b) and (c)

478)
As per the passage, which of the following event is referred to as one
of India's most defining moments?
A) Amendments in Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan
B) Passing of the Right to Education Act
C) Legislation on Right to information act
D) Quashing of Right to property
E) India getting freedom.
479)
Which of the following words is closest in meaning to the word 'usher'
as used in the passage?
A) Discord
B) Accompany
C) Deliberation
D) Revert
E) Astute
480)
Which of the following word is opposite in the meaning of 'REQUIRE'
as used in the passage?
A) Aspire
B) Inspire
C) Inessential
D) Jovial
E) Casual
Passage
India is a great country, and Indian can be proud of. It has an ancient
and rich heritage. The Hindu scripts – the Upanishads, the
Bhagvadgita, the Vedas and the great epics – the Mahabharata and
the Ramayana – teach how a man should conduct himself in all
situations, at all places and at all times. Indians are spread all over the
world and viewed in the right perspective, and Indian has all the traits
of a perfect individual. But then, he is not in the limelight
internationally. Be it in academics, politics, statesmanship or sports.
Globally his identity does not reverberate as that of the European,
American, Japanese and Chinese. Economists harp on the lack of
competitive among the Indian businessmen. There is no distinct
“Indian management” which could become a “benchmark” like that of
American management /Japanese management. The Indian’s deed do
not get highlighted. An Indian is definitely not inferior, but is not
among the best.
The main problem has been the country’s population, lack of
education among the masses and wrong prioritisation in tackling the
economic issues.
481. An Indian is proud of his country because it has

a) A very large population

b) Democratic form of Govt.

c) Ancient and rich heritage
d) Highest literacy
482. An Indian has good traits. But he is

a) Popular in international circles
b) Not known in international circles
c) Not well read
d) A lover of freedom
483. Among Indian businessmen, there is no

a) Positive thinking
b) Co-operation
c) Money
d) Competitiveness
484. The main problem has been the country’s

a) Economic planning execution and competitiveness
b) Population, lack of education and wrong priorities
c) Health and hygiene and ancient heritage
d) Game and sports and politics
485. An Indian is
a) Among the best
b) Among the worst
c) Among the inferior
d) Among the mediocre
Directions (486-490): The Following questions have two blanks, each
blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of

words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a
whole.
486. The raging __________ over the issue has __________ the media
as well as the politicians into warring camps.
(a) saga, compelled
(b) debate, divided
(c) concern, ignited
(d) dust, gathered
(e) dilemma, sensitised
487. The flexibility of the distance learning system is __________ in

designing courses which are socially __________ and technically
up-to-date.
(a) helpful, relevant
(b) basically, viable
(c) providing, feasible
(d) informative, wide
(e) supportive, challenging
488. _________after Darwin put forth his theory of evolution, his

cousin Sir Francis Galton began to ________the implications.
(a) Soon, bring down
(b) Only, take up
(c) Not, write down
(d) Shortly, draw out
(e) Nearly, think about
489. __________ means of communication must be used to

__________ the message of gender equality.
(a) Subtle, spread
(b) Sufficient, create
(c) Proper, aware
(d) Distinct, avoid
(e) Efficient, avails

490. Archaeology is a poor profession; only ____ sums are available

for excavating sites and even more ____ amounts for preserving the
excavations.
(a) paltry, meager
(b) miniscule, substantial
(c) average, augmented
(d) judicious, penurious
(e) modest, generous
Directions (491-495): In each of the following sentences there are two

blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words
denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c) ,(d) and (e). Find out which pair of
words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same
sequence to make the sentence grammatically correct and
meaningfully complete.
491. Leisure musT be spent carefully and __________ only, otherwise

the devil will take the ________ of you.
(a) positively, care
(b) constructively, better
(c) pro-actively, though
(d) objectively, energy
(e) purposefully, measure
492. Nothing is impossible in the world of politics. States which were

_________ foes and had their deadly missiles pointed at each other
find themselves ________ in military alliances.
(a) implacable, partners
(b) intense, joining
(c) deadly, approaching
(d) known, soliciting
(e) enviable, grouping
493. Inferring attitudes from expressed opinion has many_______.

People may______ their attitude and express socially acceptable
opinions.
(a) limitations, conceal
(b) advantages, show
(c) drawbacks, support

(d) benefits, avoid
(e) reasons, acknowledge
494. We should move towards a system where the banks can_______

capital in the market with _______ safeguard so that they continue to
be public sector banks.
(a) improve, proper
(b) strengthen, durable
(c) raise, adequate
(d) stimulate, effective
(e) provide, delicate
495. Governments in India seem to delight in arbitrary censorship

under the ________ of _________ the public.
(a) garb, upholding
(b)pretext, protecting
(c) context, strengthening
(d) command, authorising
(e) guise, winning
496. Directions (11-15): In each of the questions given below a

sentence is given with one blank. Below each sentence FOUR words
are given out of which two can fit the sentence. Five options are given
with various combinations of these words. You must choose the
combination with the correct set of words which can fit in the given
sentence.
Q11. The Trump administration worked to move ahead on its top
__________ priority.
(A)Diplomatic
(B)Rough
(C) Consular
(D)Obsessed
(a) A-B
(b) B-C
(c) A-D
(d) A-C
(e) B-D
497. The high level of asset prices today ____________the earlier

trend in house prices.
(A)Mockeries
(B)Mirrors
(C)Reflects
(D)Refracts
(a) C-D
(b) B-C
(c) A-D
(d) A-C
(e) B-D
498. The rights of a citizen who has not been charged with a criminal
act ought to be ____________ at all costs.
(A)Marred
(B)Protected
(C)Sabotaged
(D)Safeguarded
(a) B-D
(b) A-D
(c) A-B
(d) A-C
(e) B-C
499. Some laws are considered to be harmful to economic growth as

they breed ____________.
(A)Inadequacy
(B)Artifice
(C)Ingenuity
(D)Inefficiency
(a) A-B
(b) B-C
(c) A-D
(d) A-C
(e) B-D

500. The _______________ over the proposed Foreign Ministers’

meeting has brought setback to India-Pakistan ties.
(A)Concord
(B)Acrimony
(C)Animosity
(D)Amenity
(a) B-C
(b) A-B
(c) B-D
(d) A-C
(e) C-D
SBI Clerk & LIC AAO 3 Months BATCH

Medium -
English
WHEN
 Starting from Monday 1st March 2021.

 Ended on 31st May 2021.
 Total 13 Weeks
What includes
 Daily 120 questions for practice.

Quantative
Aptitude
•50 question
English
•20 question
Reasoning
•50 question
Total = 70 days X 120 question = 8400
question
Subject – wise question separation

4 Data
Interpretation
(20 question)
5 Quadratioc 10 Arithmetic
Equation questions
Quantative
Aptitude
5 Approxiation
10 Number
or
Series
simplification

4 puzzle (20
question)
5 5 coding -
Alphanumeric decoding
questions questions
Reasoning
5 Syllogism 5 Inequality
questions questions
10
Miscellaneous
(Ranking /
Direction /
Blood Relation)

 Total 10 Full length Mock Test

Each Test includes all 3 section i.e.
Reasoning, Aptitude and English.
 Test pattern
S. Subject Question Marks Timing
No.
1 Reasoning 35 35 20
Minutes
2 Numerical 35 35 20
Aptitude Minutes
3 English Language 30 30 20
Minutes
 Total Test = 10 Tests

Test Schedule
Date Test
3 April 1st Test
4 April 2nd Test
10 April 3rd Test
11 April 4th Test
17 April 5th Test
18 April 6th Test
24 April 7th Test
25 April 8th Test
1 May 9th Test
2 May 10th Test

Why we start this initiative?

As we know that notification of SBI Clerk and LIC AAO is
coming very soon. SBI Clerk and LIC AAO is a good
opportunity for getting jobs into banking sector and
insurance sector respectively.
As we know that competition for banking exams is
increasing day by day because lot more new students
joining this field due to its certainity of banking exams.
If you want to clear these exam, you need to very good
marks in this prelims exam. With the help of our new
initiative; we will help you to get more marks in prelims
exams.
Is It Paid?
Yes, It is paid.
But we try to fix minimum charges as we can for it. As it
contains 70 days 120 question each day contents and 10
Prelims mock test, after that it is price only for
PRICE : 150 + 50 ( Five E – Books )

{Five E – Book = 500 ×5 = 2500 Practice Questions And
Answers}
{ Weekly Special Offer = 10 % Discount }
Price = Rs. 180 (Join Batch )

SBI Clerk E - Book (III)

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SBI Clerk E – Book 3

Directions (1 – 5) Read the given information carefully and answer the

There were eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H lives in an eight

Note: The formula to calculate the strike rate is (number of runs

Q1. How many balls were faced by D?

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a. F- 30runs – 8th floor

Q5. F faced scored how many runs?

There were seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U and V likes different

Q6. S reads which of the following subject?

There were eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sitting in a

Q11. G likes which of the following colour?

Q12. Which of the following combination is true?

a. Third to the left

There were eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sitting in a

Q16. Who among the following likes Kholi?

c. The one who likes ABde

a. Second to the left

There were eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H lives in an eight

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Q21. G’s favourite team has scored how many runs?

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There were seven friends M, N, O, P, Q, R and S goes to shopping

Q26. Who likes Banana?

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A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were captains of different cricket teams

Q31. D has won how many matches?

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Q36. A likes which of the following colour?

a. The one who likes pink colour

a. Third to the left

There were eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H lives in an eight

Q41. Who among the following like tennis?

e. More than four

There were seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U and V like different books

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Q46. P read on which of the following day?

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were sitting around a circular

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Q51. E likes which of the following country?

a. Second to the left

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There were eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sitting in a

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Q56. Which of the following combination is true?

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a. Third to the left

There were eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H lives in an eight

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Q61. G likes which of the following colour?

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There were seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U and V goes to club on

Q66. Which of the following combination is true?

There were eight family members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sitting in

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Q71. Who is daughter in law of E?

a. Second to the left

There were eight friends A, B, C, D, F, G and H sitting in a straight

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Q76. Who among the following sit at the extreme ends?