Practice Test
PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS & ANSWERS - Order your manuals now

1)  Female Pelvic Medicine:  A 33-year-old multigravida patient presents complaining of dyspareunia and “feeling loose”
during intercourse.  Obstetrical history includes that of an episiotomy with a 4th-degree extension during her last delivery
several years ago.  Review of Systems include rare symptoms of stress urinary incontinence, but no complaints of fecal
incontinence.  Pelvic examination is significant for a widened genital hiatus, scarred posterior fourchette, positive dovetail
sign and a tender perineal body that is <0.3cm.  The most likely reason that the patient has no symptoms of fecal
incontinence is:

A. The external anal sphincter is mostly intact

B. The internal anal sphincter is mostly intact
C. The rectoanal inhibitory reflex is normal
D. The anorectal angle is less acute
E.  The dependency on the puborectalis muscle is increased 

2) REI:  A 17-year-old G0 presents to your office with secondary amenorrhea.   She menstruated for 4 years, but her last
menses was 11 months ago.   History and physical exam are otherwise unremarkable.  Laboratory testing reveals:

Prolactin 15 ng/mL (3 – 30)

TSH 2.1 mIU/L (0.4 – 4.5)
FSH 45 IU/L  (follicular phase 2.5 – 10)
Estrogen 20 pg/mL (follicular phase 19 -144)
HCG < 5 mIU/mL  (non-pregnant < 5)

        What is the cause of this patient’s amenorrhea?

A. hyperprolactinemia
B. hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
C. Mullerian Agenesis
D. ovarian failure
E. subclinical hypothyroidism

3) Obstetrics:  What is the most likely cause of infertility in a couple with normal HSG and monthly menses?

A. anovulation
B. luteal phase defect
C. male factor
D. tubal factor                             

4) Obstetrics:  A 27-year-old G1P0 presents for her first prenatal visit.  She is overall healthy and is an avid exerciser. 
She is worried about which activities and exercises she should avoid in pregnancy.   You inform her that she should avoid
all of the following activities in pregnancy except:

A. Basketball
B. Horseback riding
C. Hot yoga
D. Running or jogging
E. All of the above

5)    Obstetrics:  Trisomy results most often as a result of nondisjunction during which phase of the cell cycle?

A. Maternal meiosis I
B. Maternal meiosis II
C. Mitosis
D. Paternal meiosis I

6) GYN:  Which of the following is a risk factor for endometrial ablation failure?

A. Age older than 40

B. History of dyspareunia
C. Parity greater than 5
D. Prior use of oral contraceptives

7) OFFICE:  A 40-year-old African-American female presents for an annual exam with a blood pressure of 145/90.  The
patient returns the next week with a blood pressure of 155/95.  What is the best management choice?

A. Initiate antihypertensive therapy with ACE Inhibitor

B. Initiate antihypertensive therapy with Angiotensin Receptor Blocker (ARB).
C. Initiate antihypertensive therapy with hydrochlorothiazide
D. Recommend checking blood pressures at home
E. Recommend initiating lifestyle changes and recheck blood pressure in 2 months

8) GYN:  A 22-year-old patient has an 8 cm myoma.  Which is the least reason to operate?

A. Heavy menstrual bleeding

B. Infertility
C. Pelvic pain
D. Prolapsed fibroid

9) Urogyn:  A patient presents with pelvic pain associated with a change in her bowel habits.  Which of the following
characteristics meet the criteria to diagnose irritable bowel syndrome?

A. Pain for at least 3 days monthly with constipation and relief with defecation
B. Pain for less than a month which onset with constipation, but no change in the form of stool
C. Pain for 2 months which onset with constipation and increases with defecation
D. Pain for over 6 months which onset with increased stool frequency and pain increases with laxatives 

10) Gynecologic Oncology and Surgery:  Which tumor marker is characteristic of a granulosa cell tumor?

A. AFP
B. CA 19-9
C. CA 125
D. Inhibin
E. LDH    

11) Gynecologic Oncology and Surgery:   ONC:  What genetic mutation has the highest risk of breast cancer?
A. BRCA-1
B. BRCA-2
C. FAP (Familial adenomatous polyposis)
D. HNPCC
E. Li Fraumeni

12)  Gynecologic Oncology and Surgery:   A 32-year-old patient comes in complaining of nipple discharge.  A light
green nipple discharge is elicited on exam.  No mass is palpated.  What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Breast abscess
B. Ductal carcinoma in situ
C. Ductal ectasia
D. Intraductal papilloma
E. Prolactinoma                    

13)  Gynecologic Oncology and Surgery:   A 68-year-old complains of vulvar pruritis. Colposcopy reveals several .5-1
cm lesions. Biopsy reveals vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) 3. The best treatment is:

A. Laser vaporization
B. Radical vulvectomy
C. Skinning vulvectomy
D. Topical 5-FU
E. Wide local excision        

14) Gynecologic Oncology and Surgery:  A 38-year-old G2P2 is BRCA-1 positive. What is the best way for her to lower
her risk of cancer?

A. Begin oral contraceptive pills

B. Begin tamoxifen daily
C. Perform BSO now
D. Plan hysterectomy and BSO at time of menopause
E. Schedule an MRI and Mammograms every 6 month              

Answer Key:

1. Answer: D - The anorectal angle is less acute

2. Answer: D – ovarian failure
3. Answer: C – male factor
4. Answer: D - Running or Jogging
5. Answer: A - Maternal meiosis I
6. Answer: C – Parity greater than 5
7. Answer: C - Initiate antihypertensive therapy with HCTZ
8. Answer: B – Infertility
9. Answer: A -  Pain for at least 3 days monthly with constipation and relief with defecation
10. Answer: D - Inhibin
11. Answer: A - BRCA - 1
12. Answer: C - Ductal Ectasia
13. Answer: A - Laser Vaporization     
14. Answer: C – Perform BSO now                                                    
 Next
Question 1. Which structure provides the major support to the uterus and cervix?

A Round ligaments

B Broad ligaments

C Cardinal ligaments

D Uterosacral ligaments

Ans=c

Question 2. Which nerve provides sensation to the skin over the suprapubic area?

A Superior hypogastric plexus

B Iliohypogastric nerve

C Ilioinguinal nerve

D Pudendal nerve

E Femoral nerve

Answ=B

Question 3. Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) has a constellation of possible symptoms. Which

of the following would NOT be expected?

A Abdominal bloating

B Weight loss

C Constipation

D Anxiety
 E Breast tenderness

Ans=B

Question 4. Which structure produces gonadotropins?

A Hypothalamus

B Anterior pituitary

C Posterior pituitary

D Ovaries

E Endometrium

Question 5. A 46-year-old, non-pregnant, morbidly obese woman presents with irregular

periods over the past 6 months. Which of the following represents the most appropriate
initial management in this setting

A Oral contraceptives

B Endometrial ablation

C Office hysteroscopy

D Dilation and curettage (D&C)

E Endometrial biopsy

Question 6. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?

A Prior history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

B Prior history of infertility

C Prior history of uterine fibroids

D Prior history of ectopic pregnancy

 E Prior history of tubal surgery

Question 7. A 24-year-old G1P0 presents to the office at 6 weeks gestation with a β human

chorionic gonadotropin (βhCG) 16,000 mIU/mL and mild left lower quadrant pain.
Transvaginal sonogram confirms the presence of an unruptured 3-cm ectopic pregnancy
without fetal cardiac motion. Which of the following is the best management option

A Methotrexate 30 mg/m2 intramuscularly

B Methotrexate 50 mg/m2 intramuscularly

C Culdocentesis

D Laparoscopic salpingostomy

E Repeat βhCG in 48 hours

Question 8. An 18-year-old G2P1 received intramuscular (IM) methotrexate on Monday for a

confirmed ectopic pregnancy with βhCG of 3,500 mIU/mL. She returns on Thursday with
additional pelvic discomfort and a βhCG of 4,100 mIU/mL. Which of the following
management options is most appropriate?

A Second dose of methotrexate

B Transvaginal sonogram

C Laparoscopic salpingostomy

D Repeat βhCG in 48 hours

E Repeat βhCG in 72 hours

Question 9. A 48-year-old woman presents to the office with a several year history of low
pelvic pain. Which of the following is the LEAST likely cause

A Interstitial cystitis

B Adenomyosis

C Ectopic pregnancy
 D Herniated disc

E Inflammatory bowel disease

Question 10. A patient presents with vulvar irritation and pruritis. Speculum examination
reveals a hyperemic, edematous, vaginal vault with odorless discharge. The pH is 4.0. What is
the MOST likely diagnosis?

A Bacterial vaginosis (BV)

B Candidiasis

C Trichomoniasis

D Gonococcal vaginitis

E Hydradenitis suppurativa

Question 1

A woman who is rhesus negative undergoes amniocentesis at 16 weeks.

What dose of anti D immunoglobulin should she receive immediately after the procedure?

A. 250 IU
B. 500IU
C. 1000IU
D. 1500IU
E. 2000IU

Question 2

You have just examined a 28-year-old primigravida in spontaneous labour. Examination findings
are 0/5 palpable per abdomen, cervix is 7 cm dilated, cephalic presentation, -1 station, anterior
fontanelle palpable with orbital ridges and nasal bridge felt anteriorly.

What is the presenting diameter of the fetus?

A. Mentovertical
B. Occipitofrontal
C. Submentobregmatic
D. Suboccipitobregmatic
E. Suboccipitofrontal

Question 3 

A 21-year-old woman, who is known to have beta thalassemia major, attends the clinic for
preconception counselling.

What is the most relevant initial pre-pregnancy investigation to predict maternal complications
of pregnancy?

A. Cardiac MRI
B. Chest X-Ray
C. ECG
D. Echocardiogram
E. Pulmonary function tests

Question 4

A 34-year-old woman attends for her booking in her third pregnancy. She had a caesarean
section in her first pregnancy 4 years ago and has had a successful vaginal birth after caesarean
section (VBAC) 2 years ago. She has a BMI OF 26.

What is the best predictor for a successful VBAC?

A. BMI of less than 30

B. Less than 35 years old
C. Previous vaginal birth
D. Short inter-pregnancy interval
E. Spontaneous onset of labour

Question 5 

You are asked to see a 21-year-old woman for preconceptual care. She was diagnosed with
generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy four years ago. This is poorly controlled. She is currently on
sodium valproate and levetiracetam.

What is the next step in her management?

A. Arrange MRI
B. Arrange an EEG
C. Commence aspirin 75 mg
D. Commence folic acid 5 mg
E. Review medication

Question 6

A 28-year-old woman attends the mental health antenatal clinic at 12 weeks for a booking
assessment. This is her first baby.

Which condition gives her the highest risk of puerperal psychosis?

A. Anorexia nervosa
B. Bipolar affective disorder
C. Moderate depression
D. Obsessive compulsive disorder
E. Recurrent anxiety

Question 7 

A woman has had a recent uncomplicated vaginal delivery but has developed a significant post-
partum pyrexia and tachycardia. She is thought to be allergic to penicillin. You suspect
puerperal sepsis and are keen to commence treatment prior to the investigations coming back.

What is the antibiotic regime of choice?

A. Cefuroxime
B. Clindamycin
C. Co-amoxiclav
D. Erythromycin
E. Metronidazole

Question 8

In order to help plan the capacity required for providing future maternity services you are asked
to design a study to establish the incidence of vaginal birth following previous caesarean
section. The study will require establishing the mode of delivery in women who have either had
only vaginal delivery or have had a caesarean section in at least one previous pregnancy. You
review the epidemiological study methods that may be appropriate for this type of study.

Which type of research study should you choose?

A. Case control
B. Cohort
C. Cross sectional
D. Ecological
E. Survey

Question 9

A woman has an instrumental delivery of a baby weighing 3950 g in her first pregnancy. A
Grade 3C tear of the anal sphincter is identified. An appropriate overlapping repair using 3/0
PDS is performed. Prior to discharge, she asks about the long-term risk of faecal or flatal
incontinence.

What percentage risk would you advise?

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
E. 50%

Question 10

A couple, both aged 32, wish to start a family. They have stopped using contraception and are
having regular sexual intercourse.

How likely are they to conceive within one year?

A. 70-74%
B. 75-79%
C. 80-84%
D. 85-89%
E. 90-94%
Obstetrics

A woman who is rhesus negative undergoes amniocentesis at 16 weeks.

What dose of anti D immunoglobulin should she receive immediately after

the procedure?

A. 250 IU

B. 500IU

C. 1000IU

D. 1500IU

E. 2000IU

Correct Response: A

Comments: Written by Alex Rees (12548) Reviewed DEC 13

Reference: Green top guideline 22, Rhesus D prophylaxis 2011

You have just examined a 28-year-old primigravida in spontaneous labour.

Examination findings are 0/5 palpable per abdomen, cervix is 7 cm dilated, cephalic

presentation, -1 station, anterior fontanelle palpable with orbital ridges and nasal

bridge felt anteriorly.

What is the presenting diameter of the fetus?

A. Mentovertical

B. Occipitofrontal

C. Submentobregmatic

D. Suboccipitobregmatic

E. Suboccipitofrontal

Correct Response: A

Comments: Any comments or feedback: Brow presentation. Largest diameter presenting

is mentovertical (13.5-14cm)

Reference: StratOG: Management of normal labour and

delivery: mechanisms of normal labour and delivery.

Written by L Shaw 137166, reviewed by sub-com May 2014

A 21-year-old woman, who is known to have beta thalassemia major, attends the clinic

for preconception counselling.

What is the most relevant initial pre-pregnancy investigation to predict

maternal complications of pregnancy?

A. Cardiac MRI

B. Chest X-Ray

C. ECG

D. Echocardiogram
E. Pulmonary function tests

Correct Response: D

Comments: Reference: Green Top Guideline No 66- 2014

Written by M Gorti 124369 reviewed sub-com May 2014

A 34-year-old woman attends for her booking in her third pregnancy. She had a

caesarean section in her first pregnancy 4 years ago and has had a successful vaginal

birth after caesarean section (VBAC) 2 years ago. She has a BMI OF 26.

What is the best predictor for a successful VBAC?

A. BMI of less than 30

B. Less than 35 years old

C. Previous vaginal birth

D. Short inter-pregnancy interval

E. Spontaneous onset of labour

Correct Response: C

Comments: Written by Tadala Saukila 130465

Reference: Birth after previous caesarean section, RCOG Greentop

Guideline 45,2007

Comments: This increases her chance of success (87-90%)

You are asked to see a 21-year-old woman for preconceptual care. She was diagnosed

with generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy four years ago. This is poorly controlled. She is

currently on sodium valproate and levetiracetam.

What is the next step in her management?

A. Arrange MRI

B. Arrange an EEG

C. Commence aspirin 75 mg

D. Commence folic acid 5 mg

E. Review medication

Correct Response: E

Comments: Reference: The Epilepsies: women of childbearing age with epilepsy. Nice CG

137 ch 13, Jan 2012

Written by Tadala Saukila 130465

Comments: Consider the risk of adverse effects of anti epileptics and use

the lowest effective dose for each AED, avoiding polytherapy if possible

A 28-year-old woman attends the mental health antenatal clinic at 12 weeks for a

booking assessment. This is her first baby.

Which condition gives her the highest risk of puerperal psychosis?

A. Anorexia nervosa

B. Bipolar affective disorder

C. Moderate depression

D. Obsessive compulsive disorder

E. Recurrent anxiety

Correct Response: B

Comments: Reference: TOG 2013

Written by Kathryn Jackson, 131897

Any comments or feedback: BPAD up to 1 in 2-4 risk. Rest are not at

increased risk of psychosis i.e. 1-2 per 1000

A woman has had a recent uncomplicated vaginal delivery but has developed a

significant post-partum pyrexia and tachycardia. She is thought to be allergic to

penicillin. You suspect puerperal sepsis and are keen to commence treatment prior to

the investigations coming back.

What is the antibiotic regime of choice?

A. Cefuroxime

B. Clindamycin

C. Co-amoxiclav

D. Erythromycin

E. Metronidazole

Correct Response: A

Comments: Written by Sean Hughes (12887) Reviewed DEC 13

Ref: RCOG guideline 64b2012

In order to help plan the capacity required for providing future maternity services you

are asked to design a study to establish the incidence of vaginal birth following

previous caesarean section. The study will require establishing the mode of delivery in

women who have either had only vaginal delivery or have had a caesarean section in at

least one previous pregnancy. You review the epidemiological study methods that may

be appropriate for this type of study.

Which type of research study should you choose?

A. Case control
B. Cohort

C. Cross sectional

D. Ecological

E. Survey

Correct Response: B

Comments: Any comments or feedback: The answer is cohort study. Cohort studies are

longitudinal and follow subjects with or without exposure to a certain

characteristic over time. The groups are then compared e.g. for the

development of a particular disease. Cohort studies can be used to measure

incidence rates and relative risks.

Reference: Feldman M, Casey K. Organising a research project from scratch,

BMJ 2000;325:S97

Written by A Patwardhan121401 reviewed by sub-com May 2014

A woman has an instrumental delivery of a baby weighing 3950 g in her first

pregnancy. A Grade 3C tear of the anal sphincter is identified. An appropriate

overlapping repair using 3/0 PDS is performed. Prior to discharge, she asks about the

long-term risk of faecal or flatal incontinence.

What percentage risk would you advise?

A. 10%

B. 20%

C. 30%

D. 40%

E. 50%
Correct Response: D

Comments: Reference: Obstetric pelvic floor and anal sphincter injuries. TOG 2012, vol

14, no: 4

Written by M Das 121517 reviewed sub-com May 2014

10

A couple, both aged 32, wish to start a family. They have stopped using contraception

and are having regular sexual intercourse.

How likely are they to conceive within one year?

A. 70-74%

B. 75-79%

C. 80-84%

D. 85-89%

E. 90-94%

Correct Response: D
1. The colour of amniotic fluid is___

A) Clear pale straw colour

B) Dark colour

C) Yellow colour

D) None

2. Aspiration of amniotic fluid for examination___

A) Polysynthesis

B) Hydrosynthesis

C) Amniocentesis

D) None

3. The umbilical cord otherwise known as___

A) Funis

B) Follopian tube

C) U-cord

D) Placenta

4. The white creamy substance on the fetus is called____

A) White coat

B) Milky patch

C) Vernix caseosa

D) None

5. The appearance of violet blue discoloration of the vaginal membrane after conception is
known as___

A) Hegar's sign

B) Osiander's sign

C) Quickening
D) Jacquemier's sign

6. The pregnant woman complains of numbness and "Pins and needles" in her fingers and
hands. the condition is called as?

A) Carpal tunnel syndrome

B) Vericosites

C) Pica

D) Heart burn

7. Pueperium period is

A) Soon after birth of baby

B) Soon after placental separation to 5 days

C) Soon after placental separation to 6 weeks

D) None of the above

8. The hormone oxytocin is secreted by

A) Uterus

B) Vagina

C) Overy

D) Posterior pituitory gland

9. Side effects of oral contraceptive pills___

A) Venous thrombosis

B) Htpertension

C) Impaired glucose tolerance

D) All of the above

10. The immunoglobulin that crosses the placental barrier____

A) IgG

B) IgM

C) IgA

D) None of the above

1. Which one of the following factors does NOT put a woman at increased risk of obstetric
complications?

(a) Both extremes of maternal age

(b) One previous Caesarean section

(c) A history of subfertility, with use of fertility drugs or assisted conception

(d) Family history of diabetes in a second-degree relativ

2. The statements below refer to booking visit investigations—which is true?

(a) An ultrasound scan between 11 and 13+6 weeks should be offered.

(b) Screening for infections implicated in preterm labour, e.g. Chlamydia and bacterial vaginosis,
are offered routinely.

(c) Best screening for chromosomal abnormalities includes AFP, oestriol and â-hCG as part of
the combined test.

(d) Blood grouping is not performed until 28 weeks.

3. The Physiological changes that occur during pregnancy is

(a) Increase of blood volume by 100%

(b) White blood cell

(c) Cardiac output 40% decrease

(d) Peripheral resistance 50% increase

4. Screening versus diagnostic tests: which of the following is true?

(a) A screening test is performed on women with a ‘high risk’ to confirm or refute the possibility
of a disorder

(b) A diagnostic test is available for all and gives a measure of the risk of being affected by a
particular disorder

(c) Specificity is the probability that a subject who is negative will not have the condition.

(d) Sensitivity is the proportion of subjects with the condition classified as screen positive for
the condition.

5. Which of the following is the Structural abnormalities identifiable as part of antenatal care:

(a) Preconceptual folic acid supplementation for 3 months (0.4 mg/day) reduces the incidence
of neural tube defects and should be taken by all women considering pregnancy.

(b) Diaphragmatic hernias rarely result in the fetus having pulmonary hypoplasia.

(c) Fetal hydrops is common

(d) Cardiac anomalies occur in 3% of pregnancies.

6. A number of terms relating to concerns regarding fetal well being is

(a) Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) can only be present if the fetus is small for dates

(b) Small for dates (small for gestational age, SGA)

(c) By definition, 10% of babies are below the tenth centile and 3% below the third, for a
particular gestation.

(d) None of the above

7. Which statement is appropriate regarding Ultrasound monitoring of twin pregnancy:

(a) All twins should have serial ultrasound scans, as a minimum at 28, 32 and 36 weeks

(b) In twin–twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) the ‘donor’ twin gets volume overload.
(c) In TTTS, the ‘recipient’ twin is volume depleted and develops anaemia, IUGR and
oligohydramnios

(d) Chorionicity is most accurately ascertained at the anomaly scan

8. Physiological change in the puerperium: which one of the following is false?

(a) Within 10 days the uterus is no longer palpable abdominally.

(b) The internal os of the cervix is closed by 3 days

(c) Menstruation is usually delayed by lactation, but occurs at about 6 weeks if the woman is
not lactating.

(d) Bleeding usually stops within 10 days

9. The changes that occur during physiology of lactation is

(a) Prolactin from the posterior pituitary gland stimulates milk secretion

(b) Rapid declines in oestrogen and progesterone levels occur after birth.

(c) Oxytocin from the anterior pituitary gland stimulates ejection in response to nipple sucking

(d) None of the above

10. Postnatal contraception is usually started within?

(a) Contraception is usually started 1-2 weeks after delivery

(b) Contraception is usually started 3–4 weeks after delivery

(c) Contraception is usually started 4–6 weeks after delivery

(d) Contraception is usually started 7–8 weeks after delivery

11. Which of the statement is Maternal mortality:

(a) Maternal death is death of a woman during pregnancy or within 42 days of its cessation,
from any cause related to or aggravated by pregnancy or its management, but not from
accidental or incidental causes.

(b) Late maternal death is when a woman dies from similar causes, but specifically in the third
trimester
(c) ‘Direct’ deaths result from obstetric complications

(d) ‘Incidental’ deaths are those that would have occurred irrespective of pregnancy

12. Consent and confidentiality: which three of the following are true?

(a) Minor risks need not be discussed. Major risks must be discussed even if they are rare

(b) The doctor has a moral, professional, contractual and legal duty to maintain patient
confidentiality.

(c) Details can be disclosed to a close relative, without the patients consent.

(d) Confidentiality can be breached in exceptional circumstances where the health and safety of
others would otherwise be at risk.

13. Which of the following is third generation intrauterine device

(a) Cu-7

(b) CuT 200

(c) CuT 380A

(d) progestasert

14. The protective effects of breast milk are known to be associated with

(a) IgM antibodies

(b) Lysozyme

(c) Mast cells

(d) IgA antibodies

15. In a woman using an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) an intrauterine pregnancy

occurs and the IUCD threads are visible, what is the reason to recommend removal of the
device

(a) to prevent the risk of subsequent septic abortion and preterm labour

(b) to prevent congenital abnormality of the newborn

(c) to prevent postpartum haemorrhage

(d) to prevent perforation

16. Methods of prenatal testing for congenital abnormalities is:

(a) Nuchal translucency (the space between skin and soft tissue overlying the cervical spine),
measured between 11 and 13+6 weeks, is a screening test for chromosomal abnormalities such
as trisomy 21

(b) When the fetus has an open neural tube defect (NTD), maternal serum AFP levels are
usually raised. As such, this can be used as a diagnostic test for NTD.

(c) Amniocentesis is safer than CVS before 12 weeks

(d) None of the above

17. The following are the changes that occurs in the uterus during pregnancy except

(a) uterine cavity enlarges by 500-1000 times

(b) body of the uterus enlages more than the fundus

(c) utero-placentak blood flow increases to about 500-600 ml/min

(d) during braxton Hicks contraction, there is stagnation of blood in the intervillus space

18. Number of antenatal visits during pregnancy should be minimum

(a) 4 times

(b) 8 times

(c) 12 times

(d) 16 times

19. Gestational age is evaluated from

(a) calculation from LMP

(b) height of the uterus

(c) counting from the date of ovulation

(d) counting from the date of fertilization

20. Absolute ( positive ) signs of pregnancy are

(a) abdominal enlargemet

(b) braxton Hicks contraction

(c) ballottement

(d) audible FHS

21. The celient feature of Braxton Hicks contraction

(a) regular & infrequent

(b) regular & spasmodic

(c) irregular & painless

(d) irregular & infrequent

22. Recommended approximate requirement of calcium for women weighing 50 kg during

second half of pregnancy is

(a) 400mg

(b) 600mg

(c) 800mg

(d) 1000mg

23. Induction of labour is less likely to be successful in all except

(a) Preterm pregnancy

(b) Elderly primigravida

(c) Prolonged retention pof IUD fetus

(d) Bishop’s score > 5

24. The process by which a viable product of conception is expelled by the mother is called

(a) Labour
(b) Presentation

(c) Attitude

(d) denominator

25. The following are the physilogic changes during late pregnancy except

(a) blood volume is increased

(b) cardiac output is increased

(c) arterial PO2 is decreased

(d) tidal volume is increased

26. The fully mature ovum measures about

(a) 120 microns

(b) 130 microns

(c) 140 microns

(d) 150 microns

27. Morula (12-16 cell stage )enters the uterine cavity on

(a) 2nd day

(b) 3rd day

(c) 4th day

(d) 5th day

28. Volume of blood in a mature placenta approximates

(a) 300ml

(b) 500ml

(c) 700ml

(d) 1000ml
29. The amniotic fluid is completely changed and replaced in every

(a) 2 hours

(b) 3 hours

(c) 4 hours

(d) 5 hours

30. The peak level of serum beta HCG in normal pregnancy is found between

(a) 7-7 weeks

(b) 8-10 weeks

(c) 12-16 weeks

(d) 37-40 weeks

31. Intrauterine pressure is highest in

(a) first stage of labour

(b) second stage of labour

(c) third stage of labour

(d) fourth stage of labour

32. Contraction stress test is used to detect

(a) Hydramnios

(b) fetal hypoxia

(c) placenta previa

(d) head compression

33. Study of fetal parts in first trimester is best done with least radiation hazard

(a) X- ra

(b) y (b) Pelvimetry

(c) C.Tscan

(d) Ultrasound

34. Jacquemier’s sign is

(a) bluish discolouration of vagina in early pregnancy

(b) softening of cervix

(c) regular painless contractions of garvid uterus

(d) nausea & vomiting in early pregnancy

35. The total calorie requirement during preganancy is

(a) 2500kcal

(b) 3000kcal

(c) 3500kcal

(d) 4000kcal

36. The moment in pregnancy when the pregnant woman starts to feel or perceive fetal
movements is called

(a) Lightening

(b) Quickening

(c) Flexion

(d) attitude

37. The vaccines contraindicated during preganacy

(a) Rubella

(b) Measles

(c) mumps

(d) all of the above

38. Causes of hydramnios are all except

(a) Anecephaly
(b) spina fida

(c) dabetes mellitus

(d) hypothyroidism

39. Pregnancies should be strongly discontinued in a woman who has

(a) atrial septal defect

(b) patent ductus arteriosus

(c) eisenmenger syndrome

(d) rheumatic mitral stenosis

40. Regarding fetal moitoring by cardiotocography

(a) a sinusoidal FHR pattern is almost always associated with fetal hypoxia

(b) fetuses with congenital abnormalities always exhibit abnormal FHR patterns

(c) deceleration in the second stage is always pathological

(d) decreased base line variability may be due to drugs .

41. The karyotype of a patient with androgen sensitivity syndrome is

(a) 46XX

(b) 46XY

(c) 47XXY

(d) 45XO

42. The best period of gestation to catty out chorion villous biopsy for prenatal diagnosis is

(a) 8-10 weeks

(b) 10-12 weeks

(c) 12-14 weeks

(d) 14-16 weeks

43. All are the high risk pregnancies associated with macrosomia except

(a) maternal obesity

(b) prolonged pregnancy

(c) previous history of large infant

(d) short stature

44. Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 18 weeks of
gestation with past history of delivering baby with down’s syndrome ?

(a) triple screen test

(b) amniocentesis

(c) chorionic villous biopsy

(d) ultrsonography

45. The first stage of labour is said to be completed

(a) when the membrane rupture

(b) when the cervix fully dilated(10cm)

(c) when active phase of albour begins

(d) with the appearance of bearing down efforts

46. The first step to be done when head of the baby is delivered

(a) clearing the air passage

(b) placing the baby on a tray

(c) apgar rating

(d) clamping the umbilical cord

47. The average blood volume loss during normal delivery is approximately

(a) 700ml

(b) 500ml
(c) 250ml

(d) 100ml

48. When the maximum diameter of the head stretches the vulval outlet without any recession
of the head even after the contraction is over is called

(a) Quickening

(b) Crowning

(c) lightnening

(d) descending

49. The duration of second stage of labour in primigravida mother is

(a) 12-14 hours

(b) 14-16 hours

(c) 16-18 hours

(d) 18-20 hours

50. Delivery of the head controlled by one hand

(a) to maintain flexion

(b) to prevent early extension of the head

(c) to prevent perineal and vulval tears

(d) all the above