Vision IAS CSP21T27S FLT4

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ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS

GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 3204 (2021)
Q 1.D
• An Ecotone describes an area that acts as a transition or boundary between two ecosystems. This
could be, for example, an area of marshland between a river and the riverbank, a clearing within a forest
or a much larger area such as the transition between Arctic Tundra and Forest biomes in Northern Siberia.
• As this area is inevitably Influenced by the two bordering ecosystems, it is, therefore, a consequence of
this that a higher density of organisms and variety of species can be found within an Ecotone. This
increase in biodiversity is referred to as the “edge effect”.
• An Ecotone can be formed naturally – through abiotic factors such as changes in soil composition – but
can also be created through the result of human interaction. Clearing of forest areas or irrigation are
examples of this.
• Ecotones are considered areas of great environmental importance. As well as providing an area for a large
number of species, they often experience an influx from animals looking to nest or searching for food.
They may also be considered a habitat of greater genetic diversity and serve as bridges of “gene flow”
from one population to another.
• Additionally, an Ecotone can act as a “buffer zone” protecting the neighbouring ecosystem from
possible environmental damage – i.e. a wetland area could absorb pollutants preventing them from
seeping into a river or estuary. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 2.A
• National Transit Pass System provides seamless issuance of transit pass. This system helps in monitoring
and keeping records of transit permits for inter-state and intra-state transportation of timber and bamboo
from private lands/government/private depot and other minor forest produce. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
• It was recently launched by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Hence, statement 2 is
not correct.
• Key features of National Transit Pass System
o It is a role-based and workflow-based application available as a desktop-based web portal as well as a
mobile application.
o Online registration and submission of the applications for Transit Permit (TP) or No Objection
Certificate (NOC) through web-portal and mobile app
o Online application for Species grown on private land which are exempted from transit pass regime
and Online application submission for Species grown on private land which are not exempted from
transit pass regime.
o Online generation of Transit Permit or NOC on the basis of the category of species.
o E-payment system: Payment can be made online through a mobile app/web portal.
• Key benefits of National Transit Pass System
o Expedite issuance of transit permits for timber, bamboo and other minor forest produce without
physically going to forest offices.
o Replace manual paper-based transit system by online transit system
o One permit for the whole of India for the transit of timber, bamboo and other minor forest produce
for ease of doing business.
o Seamless movement across state borders from origin to destination through the help of Mobile App.
o Prevent hardships of timber and bamboo producers, farmers and transporters in obtaining permits and
at forest check posts.
o Promotion of agroforestry activities.
o Saving of transportation cost and time which will benefit farmers and traders and will in turn help in
increasing farmer's income
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Q 3.B
• A satellite navigation system is a system that uses satellites to provide autonomous geo-spatial
positioning. It allows small electronic receivers to determine their location (longitude, latitude, and
altitude/elevation) to high precision (within a few centimeters to metres) using time signals transmitted
along a line of sight by radio from satellites.
• A satellite navigation system with global coverage may be termed a global navigation satellite system
(GNSS). At present, the United States' Global Positioning System (GPS), Russia's Global Navigation
Satellite System (GLONASS), China's BeiDou Navigation Satellite System (BDS) and the European
Union's Galileo are fully operational GNSSs.
• BeiDou is a Satellite Navigation System of China. It has total 22 Operational satellites in orbit and the
full constellation is scheduled to comprise 35 satellites. BeiDou has two separate constellations, BeiDou-1
and BeiDou-2. BeiDou-1 also known as first generation was a constellation of three satellites. It became
operational in year 2000 and offered limited coverage and navigation services, mainly for users in China
and neighboring regions. Beidou-1 was decommissioned at the end of 2012. Hence, pair 1 is not
correctly matched.
• GLObal NAvigation Satellite System or GLONASS is global navigation system of
Russia. GLONASS became operational in year 1993 with 12 satellites in 2 orbits at the height of 19,130
km. At present, there are total 27 satellites in orbit and all are operational. GLONASS is operated by
Russian Aerospace Defence Forces and is the Second alternative navigational system in operation. Hence,
pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Galileo is European Union’s GNSS constellation, which is being put together by the European
Space Agency, and the European GNSS Agency will operate it. Galileo is global navigation system
available for civilian and commercial use. The fully deployed Galileo system will consist of 30
operational satellites and 6 in-orbit spares. As of now 22 out of 30 satellites are in orbit. Galileo started
offering Early Operational Capability from 2016 and is expected to reach full operational capability by
2020. Hence, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
• The Quasi-Zenith Satellite System is the regional satellite navigation system from Japan which is
still under construction by the Satellite Positioning Research and Application Center, Japan. As per plans,
the QZSS constellation will have 7 satellites, out of which 4 are already in orbit. QZSS is expected to be
operational by the end of 2018, where it will provide highly precise and stable positioning services in the
Asia-Oceania region. QZSS will be compatible with GPS. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), which was later given the operational
name of NavIC or NAVigation with Indian Constellation, is the regional satellite navigation system
of India. Launched and operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), IRNSS covers India
and nearby regions extending up to 1,500 km.
Q 4.C
• Recent context: Recently, Boundary conflict and tension were observed along the Assam-Mizoram
border which had been since 1972, when Mizoram was carved out of Assam as a Union Territory and
then become full fledge State in 1987. During the time of independence, Assam was separate state in
Part-A of Indian constitution. Assam has had boundary issues with all its north-eastern neighbours, except
Manipur and Tripura that had existed as separate entities, The chronological order of the formation of
states after the state reorganisation of act, 1956 are:
• Nagaland in 1963, the State of Nagaland was formed by taking the Naga Hills and Tuensang area out
of the state of Assam.
• Initially, the 22nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1969) created Meghalaya as an ‘autonomous state’
or ‘sub-state’ within the state of Assam with its own legislature and council of ministers.
• In 1972, the political map of Northeast India underwent a major change. Thus, the two Union Territories
of Manipur and Tripura and the Sub-State of Meghalaya got full statehood by the North East
Reorganisation Act of 1972.
• In 1987, Union Territory of Mizoram was conferred the status of a full state as a sequel to the signing
of a memorandum of settlement (Mizoram Peace Accord) in 1986 between the Central government and
the Mizo National Front.
• In 1966, On the recommendation of the Shah Commission (1966), the State of Punjab was
bifurcated to create Haryana. The Punjabi- speaking areas were constituted into the unilingual state of
Punjab, the Hindi-speaking areas were constituted into the State of Haryana.

Q 5.A
• The concept of Public interest litigation originated and developed in USA in 1960s. However in India, In
India, the PIL was introduced in the early 1980s and Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer and Justice P.N. Bhagwati
are considered as the pioneers of the PIL.
• The Supreme Court has defined the PIL as “a legal action initiated in a court of law for the enforcement of
public interest or general interest in which the public or a class of the community have pecuniary interest
or some interest by which their legal rights or liabilities are affected. It is the power given to the public by
courts through judicial activism.
• However, Public interest litigation is not defined in any statute or in any act. It has been interpreted
by judges to consider the intent of public at large. Although, the main and only focus of such litigation
is only Public Interest there are various areas where a Public interest litigation can be filed. For e.g.
o Bonded labour matters
o Neglected children
o Non-payment of minimum wages to workers and exploitation of casual workers and complaints of
violation of Labour Laws (except in individual cases)
o Petitions against police for refusing to register a case, harassment by police and death in police
custody
o Petitions against atrocities on women, in particular harassment of bride, bride-burning, rape, murder,
kidnapping, etc. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• In order to extending the reach of PIL, the principle of locus standi (Only an aggrieved person can file
complaint against violation of his rights) is relaxed so that court can look into the grievances
complained on behalf of the poor, deprived, illiterate and the disabled who cannot vindicate the legal
wrong or legal injury caused to them for violation of any constitutional or legal right. Hence statement 2
is not correct.
• Who can file the PIL?
o The aggrieved person can himself file the PIL
o The court can itself take cognisance of the matter and proceed suo motu or cases can commence on
the petition of any public-spirited individual.
o Any person can apply to the court on behalf of those who are economically or physically unable to
raise their concern. However, it should be based on public interest not for the individual benefit.
o Any public spirited person even a foreigner (Foreigners who reside in India or visiting India on
visas also have certain constitutional and statutory rights) can file a PIL on behalf of others but
this is necessary that only the person who is filing a PIL should not get benefit. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
Q 6.B
• India has launched its own eco-label BEAMS (Beach Environment & Aesthetics Management
Services) under ICZM (Integrated Coastal Zone Management) project.
• BEAMS has been prepared over two years by the Society of Integrated Coastal Management
(SICOM) under MoEFCC.
• MoEFCC in pursuit of promoting its policies for sustainable development in coastal regions have
embarked upon a highly acclaimed program “BEAMS” (Beach Environment & Aesthetics Management
Services) under its ICZM (Integrated Coastal Zone Management) project. This is one of the several other
projects of ICZM that Govt of India is undertaking for the sustainable development of coastal regions,
striving for globally recognized and the coveted eco-label ‘Blue flag”. Hence option (b) is the correct
answer.
• The objective of BEAMS program is to abate pollution in coastal waters, promote sustainable
development of beach facilities, protect & conserve coastal ecosystems & natural resources, and
seriously challenge local authorities & stakeholders to strive and maintain high standards of cleanliness,
hygiene & safety for beachgoers in accordance with coastal environment & regulations. This program
promotes beach recreation in absolute harmony with nature.
Q 7.C
• The topography of Mizoram mostly consists of low, elongated hills of poorly consolidated
sedimentary rock that is easily and rapidly eroded, called molasses.
• Molasses basins are formed when a major ramp overthrust is active and the intact continent is flexed
down in front of the overriding mountain range, a foreland basin is formed by the flexure.
• Foreland basins usually exist as subsurface features that have been filled with debris eroded from the
advancing overthrust slice of crust. These deposits, called molasse, can, in turn, be folded and thrust over
one another shortly after they are deposited.
• Fold and thrust belts in such material, as found at the northern edge of the Alps or at the foot of most of
the Himalayas, are often narrow, composed of only one or two parallel folds and faults. Hence option (c)
is the correct answer.
Q 8.D
• In the beginning every religion is inspired by the spirit of reform, but eventually it succumb s to rituals
and ceremonies it originally denounced.
• Gradually the Buddhist monks were cut off from the mainstream of people's life; they gave up Pali, the
language of the people, and took to sanskrit, the language of the intellectuals. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• From the first century A.D. onwards, they practiced idol worship on a large scale and received
numerous offerings from devotees. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The rich offerings supplemented by generous royal grants to the Buddhist monasteries made the life of
monks easy. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Some of the monasteries such as Nalanda collected revenue from as many as 200 villages.
Q 9.A
• Article 72 and Article 161 of the Constitution empowers the President and governor respectively to
grant pardons to persons who have been tried and convicted of any offence.
• The pardoning power and its types of the President includes the following:
o Pardon: It means completely absolving the person of the crime and letting him go free. The
pardoned criminal will be like a normal citizen.
o Commutation: It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For example,
a death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment, which in turn may be commuted to a
simple imprisonment. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
o Remission: It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character. For example, a
sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous imprisonment for one
year. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
o Respite: It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some
special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender. Hence
pair 3 is not correctly matched.
o Reprieve: It means a delay allowed in the execution of a sentence, usually a death sentence, for a
guilty person to allow him some time to apply for Presidential Pardon or some other legal remedy
to prove his innocence or successful rehabilitation. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.
• It should be noted that pardoning power of Presidents is executive power and it extends to the offences
where:
o Punishment or sentence is for an offence against a Union Law.
o Punishment or sentence is by a court martial (military court); and
o Sentence is a sentence of death
o While Governor
§ can grant pardons to a convicted person to which the executive power of the State extends.
§ cannot pardon sentences inflicted by court martial (military courts)
§ cannot pardon death sentence. However, the governor can suspend, remit or commute a death
sentence
Q 10.B
• Cash Management Bills (CMBs) are short term bills issued by central government to meet its immediate
cash needs. The bills are issued by the RBI on behalf of the government. Hence the CMBs are short-
term money market instruments that help the government to meet its temporary cash flow
mismatches. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Following are the features of CMBs:
o CMBs have a maturity of less than 91 days.
o The CMBs have the generic character of Treasury Bills as the CMBs are issued at a discount and
redeemed at face value at maturity.
o CMBs are eligible as SLR securities. Investment in CMBs is also recognized as an eligible
investment in Government securities by banks for SLR purpose under Section 24 of the
Banking Regulation Act, 1949. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o CMBs were issued for the first time in 2010. The purpose of the mechanism is to enable the
government to get short term money. Another similar method for the government to get short term
money is Ways and Means Advances (WMA). Under WMA, the RBI gives temporary loan facilities
to the centre and state governments as a banker to the government for up to 90 days.
Q 11.C
• Indian Railways has commissioned the country’s first governmental Waste to Energy Plant at
Bhubaneswar in East Coast Railway.
o This Waste to Energy Plant works on a patented technology called POLYCRACK, is the first-of-its-
kind in Indian Railways and fourth in India.
o It is the world’s first patented heterogeneous catalytic process that converts multiple feedstocks into
hydrocarbon liquid fuels, gas, carbon and water. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Polycrack Plant can be fed with all types of Plastic, Petroleum sludge, Un-segregated MSW
(Municipal Solid Waste) with moisture up to 50%, E-Waste, Automobile fluff, Organic waste
including bamboo, garden waste etc., and Jatropha fruit and palm bunch. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
• FEATURES OF POLYCRACK TECHNOLOGY -
o The process is a closed-loop system and does not emit any hazardous pollutants into the
atmosphere. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o The combustible, non-condensed gases are re-used for providing energy to the entire system and thus,
the only emission comes from the combustion of gaseous fuels thereby making it self-reliant and also
bring down the operating cost.
o The emissions from the combustion are found to be much less than prescribed environmental norms.
o This process will produce energy in the form of Light Diesel Oil which is used to light furnaces.
o Pre-segregation of waste is not required to reform the waste. Waste, as collected, can be directly fed
into Polycrack. So biological decomposition not required. It has a high tolerance to moisture hence
drying of waste is not required.
o All constituents are converted into valuable energy thereby making it Zero Discharge Process.
o Operates around 450 degrees, making it a low-temperature process when compared with other
options.
o Low capital cost and low operating cost.
o A fully automated system requires minimum manpower.
Q 12.D
• Biotech-KISAN scheme is a farmer-centric scheme for farmers, developed by and with farmers
under the Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science and Technology. Hence, statement 2 is
not correct.
• It is a Pan-India program, following a hub-and-spoke model and stimulates entrepreneurship and
innovation in farmers and empowers women. The programme links available science and technology to
the farm by first understanding the problem of the local farmer and then providing scientific solutions to
those problems.
• Biotech-KISAN aims to link farmers, scientists and science institutions across the country in a
network that identifies and helps solve their problems in a cooperative manner. Hence, statement 1
is not correct.
• The Biotech- KISAN Hubs are expected to fulfil the technology requirement to generate agriculture and
bio-resource related jobs and better livelihood ensuring biotechnological benefits to small and marginal
farmers.
• Biotech-KISAN also has a unique feature to identify and promote local farm leadership in both genders.
Such leadership helps to develop science-based farming besides facilitating the transfer of knowledge.
• Currently, there are a total of eight Biotech-KISAN Hubs in different Agro-climatic Zones.
Q 13.C
• Mulching is referred to as a mixture of wet straw, leaves, and loose earth evenly spread on the
ground to protect the newly planted trees, shrubs, and their roots.
• Advantages of Mulching:
o Reduce soil and water erosion. Soil water conservation and erosion control are the most important
agriculture in dry regions. Mulching helps to Improve crop production in dryland areas.
o Improves soil water through runoff control, increases infiltration decreases evaporation, controls
weeds, and intercepts the impact of rain on the soil.
o Reduce soil salinity by reducing evaporation. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Mulching improves the soil structure.
o Mulching modifies the microclimate of the soil and the air in which the plant grows. Hence
statement 2 is correct.

o Improves the state of soil nutrients by adding organic matter, cationic nitration, and minerals
solubility.
o Temperature moderation through radiation shielding, heat conduction, and trapping.
o Mulch can facilitate fertilizer placement and reduce plant nutrient loss through leaching.
o Reduce the incidence of disease by protecting plant parts on the ground from splashes that carry the
soil.
o Reduce winter injuries by minimizing temperature variation.
o Mulches maintain a warm temperature even at night, allowing seeds to germinate quickly and for
young plants to quickly establish a strong root growth system. Improves seed germination. Early crop
maturity.
o Synthetic mulches play an important role in the soil solarization process.
o Opaque mulches prevent the germination of annual weeds from light.
o Reflective mulches will repel certain insects.
• Disadvantages of Mulching
o The removal and disposal of polyethene mulches remain important agronomic, economic, and
environmental constraints.
o Plastic fragments have been shown to release potentially carcinogenic phthalate acid esters in the soil,
where they can be absorbed by crops and pose a risk to human health when consumed.
o The plastic fragments left in the fields can also accumulate pesticides and other toxins applied to
crops. This is a risk to grazing sheep, goats, and other animals on crop stem due to its potential to
ingest plastic material or the chemicals that leak from it.
o When cotton crops are grown in soils contaminated with plastic, there is a risk of lint being
contaminated.
o Plastic mulching is not easy to retrieve and reuse.
o They are expensive to use in commercial production compared to organic mulches.
o Probability of “burning” or “scorching” young plants due to a high temperature of black film
o Difficulty in the application of top-dressed fertilizers.
o Reptile movement and rodent activities are experienced in some places as mulching
inadvertently facilitates an environment for increased activities of burrowing reptiles and
rodents. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
o Difficulty in movement of machinery.
Q 14.A
• Recent Context: In a rare complication, a few patients infected with Covid-19 have been found
suffering from a rare autoimmune disorder called Guillain Barre Syndrome (GBS).
• What is Guillain-Barré syndrome? Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a rare neurological disorder in
which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks part of its peripheral nervous system—the
network of nerves located outside of the brain and spinal cord. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Guillain-Barré syndrome can affect anyone. It can strike at any age (although it is more frequent in adults
and older people) and both sexes are equally prone to the disorder.
• What causes Guillain-Barré syndrome?
• The exact cause of GBS is not known. It is not contagious or inherited. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
• What they do know is that the affected person's immune system begins to attack the body itself. It is
thought that, at least in some cases, this immune attack is initiated to fight an infection and that some
chemicals on infecting bacteria and viruses resemble those on nerve cells, which, in turn, also become
targets of attack.
• What are the symptoms of GBS?
• Unexplained sensations often occur first, such as tingling in the feet or hands, or even pain (especially in
children), often starting in the legs or back. Children will also show symptoms with difficulty walking and
may refuse to walk. These sensations tend to disappear before the major, longer-term symptoms
appear. Weakness on both sides of the body is the major symptom that prompts most people to seek
medical attention. The weakness may first appear as difficulty climbing stairs or with walking.
• In addition to muscle weakness, symptoms may include: Difficulty with eye muscles and vision,
Difficulty swallowing, speaking, or chewing; Pricking or pins and needles sensations in the hands and
feet; Pain that can be severe, particularly at night; Coordination problems and unsteadiness; Abnormal
heart beat/rate or blood pressure; Problems with digestion and/or bladder control.

• What disorders are related to GBS?
• Guillain-Barré syndrome is one of several disorders involving weakness due to peripheral nerve damage
caused by the person’s immune system. While GBS comes on rapidly over days to weeks, and the person
usually recovers, other disorders develop slowly and can linger or recur.
• The most common type of GBS seen is the acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (AIDP). In
AIDP, the immune response damages the myelin coating and interferes with the transmission of nerve
signals. In two other types of Guillain-Barré syndrome, acute motor axonal neuropathy (AMAN) and
acute motor-sensory axonal neuropathy (AMSAN), the axons themselves are damaged by the immune
response.
• How is Guillain-Barré syndrome diagnosed?
• The initial signs and symptoms of GBS are varied and there are several disorders with similar
symptoms. Therefore, doctors may find it difficult to diagnose GBS in its earliest stages.
Q 15.B
• Though the term ‘secular’ was not initially mentioned in Indian constitution but later added through
42nd amendment 1976 .However, Indian Constitution has always been secular.
• The Western conception, of secularism means mutual exclusion of state and religion in order to
protect values such as individual freedom and citizenship rights of individual. The term ‘mutual
exclusion’ means this: both religion and state must stay away from the internal affairs of one another. The
state must not intervene in the domain of religion; religion likewise should not dictate state policy or
influence the conduct of the state. In other words, mutual exclusion means that religion and state must be
strictly separated
• On the other hand, the Indian concept of secularism departs from the western model in two ways and for
two different reasons
o Rights of Religious Groups: Indian Constitution grants rights to all religious communities such as
the right to establish and maintain their educational institutions. Freedom of religion in India means
the freedom of religion of both individuals and communities.
o State’s Power of Intervention: The state has power to interfere in the affairs of religion. Such
intervention was not always negative. The state could also help religious communities by giving
aid to educational institutions run by them.
• Thus, the state may help or hinder religious communities depending on which mode of action promotes
values such as freedom and equality. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
• Indian secularism deals not only with religious freedom of individuals but also with religious freedom
of minority communities. For e.g. an individual has the right to profess the religion of his or her choice.
Likewise, religious minorities also have a right to exist and to maintain their own culture and
educational institutions. It also restricts any form of intra-religious and inter-religious religious
domination. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• In Indian secularism, there is also room for compatibility with the idea of state-supported religious
reform. Thus, the Indian constitution bans untouchability. The Indian state has enacted several laws
abolishing child marriage and lifting the taboo on inter-caste marriages. Hence statement 3 is
correct
Q 16.C
• The major zones in a marine ecosystem are-
• Littoral: This is the seashore area extending between the highest high tide and lowest low tide levels.
Waves and tides have a maximum effect on this zone. This zone is sometimes exposed to air. Different
types of species like algae, starfish, crustaceans, etc. are found in this zone. It supports the growth of algae
and other sea animals Common animals found here includes snails, clams, barnacles, crustaceans, sea
cucumbers, sea urchins, etc.
• Neritic: This is a region shallow enough (up to 200 m depth) to support plants rooted in the seafloor. This
constitutes the edge of the continental shelf. This area is rich in the density and diversity of organisms
owing to the penetration of light to this depth of the sea and owing to the presence of nutrients washed
down from the land. Phytoplankton and zooplankton are abundant in this zone. Extensive communities of
giant kelps, different types of fishes, snails, whales, sea-otters, sea-snakes and large squids, are found in
this zone. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• Pelagic: This is the open area below the Neritic region. On the surface of this zone, various types of
phytoplankton are found. In addition, there is zooplankton along with shrimp and jellyfish, etc.

• Benthic: This forms the floor of the ocean. Production, in this zone, is limited by low nutrient supply.
Most of the organisms found here are luminescent. Rooted organisms are sea lilies, sponges, etc. Snails
and clams are embedded in the mud whereas starfish and sea urchins move on the surface.
Q 17.A
• It is an important folk music from the state of Manipur. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is a musical narration of the Battle of Khongjom fought between the Manipuris and the British in
April 1891. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Khongjom Parva narrators glorify the Manipuris soldiers who sacrificed their lives for the sake of
their motherland.
• Today the theme of singing Khongjom Parva includes the stories of Khamba and Thoibi, the
Ramayana, the Mahabharata and the exploits of the kings of Manipur.
• The singer uses only a Dholok while singing.
Q 18.D
• E.V. Ramasamy Naicker commonly known as Periyar was a social activist. He had studied Sanskrit
scriptures carefully. Later, he became a member of the Congress, only to leave it in disgust when he found
that at a feast organised by nationalists, seating arrangements followed caste distinction convinced that
untouchables had to fight for their dignity, Periyar founded the Self Respect Movement. He argued that
untouchables were the true upholders of an original Tamil and Dravidian culture which had been
subjugated by Brahmans. He was an outspoken critic of Hindu scriptures especially the Codes of
Manu, the Bhagavadgita and the Ramayana. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Satnami movement in Central India (forest regions of Chhattisgarh) was founded by
Ghasidas who worked among the leatherworkers and organised a movement to improve their social
status. The Satnamis questioned the notion of social and ritual hierarchy in two simultaneous ways: by
rejecting the Hindu gods and goddesses, and by rejecting the puja and purohit within the temple. The was
in line with the Bhakti tradition. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• In what is present day Kerala, a guru from Ezhava caste, Shri Narayan Guru, proclaimed the ideals of
unity for his people. He argued against treating people unequally on the basis of caste differences.
According to him, all humankind belonged to the same caste. One of his famous statements was: “oru
jati, oru matam, oru daivam manushyanu” (one caste, one religion, one god for humankind). Hence
• The non-Brahmin resentment took a political form, in 1916 in Madras city, with the formation of South
Indian Liberal Federation, known as the Justice Party, which claimed to represent the interests of all
non-Brahmins in the Madras Presidency including Muslims. Christians and Untouchables. The founders
of the organization were T.N. Nair, P. Tyagaraya Chetti and C. Natesa Mudaliar. The initial demand
of the Justice leaders for reserved seats in the Provincial Legislative Council was slowly extended to
include concessions in education, public appointments and nomination to local bodies. Hence statement
4 is correct.

Q 19.C
• Statement 1 is not correct: Local self-government was always a part of administration from Ancient to
Medieval India. The village as a unit of administration was seen in areas under the Rashtrakuta
empire also. But Chola empire provided a new impetus to local governance and decentralization of
power.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Ur was a general assembly of the village while Sabha was gathering of
adult men in the village. Ur was the general assembly of the village where local residents discussed their
matters without any formal rule or procedure. The Sabha or Mahasabha was the most popular assembly
where only the selected few and elders of the village took part and carried on the business by following a
regular procedure. It wielded a great authority in the administration of the rural areas.
• Statement 3 is correct: Sabha enjoyed huge autonomy and managed affairs of the village and also took
important decisions. It also coordinated with the committees in the village which looked into basic
administration of the village. The Sabha could settle new lands, exercise ownership rights over them.
It could also raise loans for the village and levy taxes.
Q 20.C
• Recent Context: At a recent UNSC meeting, convened under the Arria Formula (informally convened at
the request of a UNSC member), India reiterated that “For durable peace in Afghanistan, we have to put
an end to terrorist safe havens and sanctuaries operating across the Durand Line.
• An "Arria formula" meeting is an informal meeting of members of the United Nations Security
Council, which must be convened by a member of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) in order
for the meeting to take place. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
• Although derived from the formal meetings of the UNSC, the Arria formula distinguishes itself from
typical UNSC meetings due to its informal nature, which allows Arria formula meetings to have no
obligations to meet the official requirements of typical UNSC meetings. This means that while regular
meetings of the Security Council require the presence of all 15 members of the council, follow a formal
structure, and do not hear testimonies from non-members, individuals or non-governmental organisations.
Arria formula meetings allow individuals, organisations, non-state actors and high delegations (from
member states of the UN not represented on the Security Council) to engage in direct dialogue with
UNSC members in a legitimate and confidential setting.
• Notably, Arria formula meetings are presided over by a member of the UNSC, who acts as a facilitator of
discussion, rather than the President of the Security Council. Sometimes, the meetings are also held in
collaboration with states not on the council who think it would be beneficial to hear from specific
individuals, organisations or institutions.
Q 21.C
• Ministry of AYUSH and M/s Invest India will form a collaboration to set up a strategic policy unit
called “Strategic Policy & Facilitation Bureau (SPFB)” to facilitate planned and systematic growth
of the Ayush Sector. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
• This Bureau will support the Ministry in strategic and policy making initiatives that shall help pave the
way to reach the full potential of the Sector and stimulate growth and investment. At a time when the
Covid-19 pandemic is leaving indelible imprints in the health-seeking behaviours of people around the
world, such a strategy unit can be of immense support to the stake-holding groups of the Ayush Sector.
• The activities to be undertaken by the SPFB would include :
• Knowledge Creation and Management,
• Strategic & Policy-Making Support,
• State Policy Bench marking: Undertaking State Policy bench marking to formulate uniform
guidelines/regulations regarding AYUSH sector in India,
• Investment Facilitation: Follow up and facilitation of investment cases and MoUs, and coordination
among different Department, organisations and States.
• Issue Resolution: Invest India would work with companies and other institutions on issue resolution
across States and among various sub-sectors.
• Some of the Specific Deliverables of Bureau would include project monitoring for Inter-Ministerial
Groups, Skill Development Initiatives, setting up Strategic Intelligence Research Unit and initiating an
Innovation Program.
Q 22.B
• Myristica Swamp Treefrog: Myristica Swamp Treefrog, a rare arboreal species endemic to the
Western Ghats that bears the scientific name Mercurana myristicapalustris, has been recorded for the
first time north of the Shencottah gap in Vazhachal Reserve Forest in Thrissur. The frog was first
described in 2013 from the lowland Myristica swamps of Arippa, near Kulathupuzha Reserve Forest, in
the western foothills of Agasthyamalai. The current species was spotted 170 km north of Arippa. These
frogs are rare and elusive for the reason that they are arboreal and active only for a few weeks during their
breeding season. During this season, there is a large aggregation of males that descend from the high
canopy of the trees. The males vocalise in groups from the low perches in the swamps. They exhibit
unique breeding behaviour.
• Muraingrass: A new species of Indian Muraingrasses known for their ecological and economic
importance, such as fodder, have been spotted by scientists in Goa in the Western Ghats, one of the four
global biodiversity hotspots of India. The species has adapted to survive harsh conditions, low nutrient
availability, and blossoms every monsoon. Globally 85 species are known from Ischaemum, of which 61
species are exclusively found in India. The Western Ghats have 40 species with the highest concentration
of the genus.Ischaemum janarthanamii grows on low altitude lateritic plateaus in the outskirts of
Bhagwan Mahavir National Park, Goa. The vegetation is exposed to extreme climatic conditions like
desiccation in drier months and soils with low nutrient availability. However, withstanding these, the
species has adapted to survive harsh conditions and blossom every monsoon.
• Portulaca laljii: Botanists have discovered a new species of wild Sun Rose from the Eastern Ghats in
India. The new species, named Portulaca laljii, discovered from the Prakasam district of Andhra
Pradesh has unique features such as a tuberous root, no hair in its leaf axils, a reddish-pink flower,
prolate-shaped fruits, and copper brown seeds without lustre. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 23.A
• Balshastri Jambhekar (1812-1846) was a pioneer of social reform through journalism in Bombay; he
attacked brahminical orthodoxy and tried to reform popular Hinduism. He started the newspaper Darpan
in 1832. Known as the father of Marathi journalism, Jambhekar used the Darpan to awaken the people
to awareness of social reforms, such as widow remarriage, and to instil in the masses a scientific approach
to life. In 1840, He started Digdarshan which published articles on scientific subjects as well as
history. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Jyotirao Phule also known as Mahatma Phule, was a social activist, an anti caste reformer. His work is
related mainly to eradication of untouchability and caste system, emancipation and empowerment of
women, reform of Hindu family life. The Satyashodhak Samaj, an association Phule founded,
propagated caste equality. In 1873, Phule wrote a book named Gulamgiri, meaning slavery. Some ten
years before this, the American Civil War had been fought, leading to the end of slavery in America.
Phule dedicated his book to all those Americans who had fought to free slaves, thus establishing a link
between the conditions of the “lower” castes in India and the black slaves in America. Hence pair 2 is
correctly matched.
• In March 1924, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar founded Bahishkrit Hitkarni Sabha for the upliftment of
untouchables. Ambedkar started fortnightly Marathi newspaper ‘Bahishkrit Bharat’ in 1927, through
which he started educating the depressed classes, making them aware of their political rights and
relentlessly campaigned against untouchability. Ambedkar did not join the Congress movement and
concentrated on social reform for he believed that Congress protects the interests of the upper castes. In
December 1927 Ambedkar launched his first Mahad Satyagraha, to establish civic rights of the
untouchables to draw water from a Public tank called ‘Chawdar tank’ at Mahad. Hence pair 3 is not
correctly matched.
• Durgeshnandini is a Bengali historical romance novel written by Indian writer Bankim Chandra
Chatterjee in 1865. Durgeshnandini is the first Bengali novel written by Bankim Chandra. Although the
conservative critics mocked the lucidity of Bankim Chandra’s language, Durgeshnandini was highly
praised by most of the contemporary scholars and newspapers. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 24.D
• Recent Context: Recently Japan and Australia have signed a landmark defence deal in a bid to
counter China’s growing influence in the South China Sea and over the Pacific island nations.
Australia and Japan have reached in principle agreement on a landmark defence treaty that will
further deepen the countries’ strategic and security relationship. The Reciprocal Access Agreement
represents a pivotal moment in the history of Japan-Australia ties.
• Both countries share a Special Strategic Partnership and are deeply committed to working together in
support of a free, open, inclusive and stable Indo-Pacific.
• This agreement paves the way for a new chapter of advanced defence cooperation between two countries.

• The only other such agreement that Japan has struck with another country is with the United States 60
years ago.
• It will facilitate greater and more complex practical engagement between the Australian Defence
Force and the Japanese Self-Defense Forces, and enhance our inter-operability and cooperation. This
will also support joint involvement in broader multilateral exercises. Hence, option (d) is the correct
answer.
• It means Australia and Japan will have a clear framework for how our defence forces operate in each
other’s countries.
• From joint military training exercises through to natural disaster and humanitarian support, the RAA
establishes streamlined arrangements to support the deployment of defence forces more quickly and with
less administration.
Q 25.C
• Recently Central Council of Indian Medicine, a statutory body under the AYUSH Ministry issued a
gazette notification allowing postgraduate (PG) Ayurvedic practitioners to receive formal training for a
variety of general surgery. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Indian Medicine Central Council (Post Graduate Ayurveda Education) Amendment Regulations, 2020
amend the earlier issued Indian Medicine Central Council (Post Graduate Ayurveda Education)
Regulations, 2016,
• The amendment specifies 58 surgical procedure that need to be performed by only Shalya and
Shalakya Post Graduates after practically trained and does not allow Shalya and Shalakya Post
Graduates to take up any other types of surgery except those 58 mentioned surgery.
• However, Indian Medicine Central Council (Post Graduate Ayurveda Education) Regulations,
2016, already allows postgraduates students in Ayurveda undergoing ‘Shalya’ (general surgery) and
‘Shalakya’ (dealing with eye, ear, nose, throat, head and neck, oro-dentistry) to perform specified
surgical procedures. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Q 26.C
• The Strait of Hormuz, located between Oman and Iran, connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of
Oman and the Arabian Sea. The Strait of Hormuz is the world’s most important oil chokepoint because of
the large volumes of oil that flow through the strait. In 2018, its daily oil flow averaged 21 million barrels
per day (b/d), or the equivalent of about 21% of global petroleum liquids consumption.
• The Strait of Malacca or Straits of Malacca is a narrow stretch of water, 580 miles in length, between
the Malay Peninsula and the Indonesian island of Sumatra. As the main shipping channel between the
Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean, it is one of the most important shipping lanes in the world.
• Bering Strait, Russian Proliv Beringia, strait linking the Arctic Ocean with the Bering Sea and separating
the continents of Asia and North America at their closest point. Located between Alaska (USA) and
Russia, the Bering Strait is the only marine gateway between the icy Arctic and the Pacific Ocean. The
strait averages 98 to 164 feet (30 to 50 metres) in-depth and at its narrowest is about 53 miles (85 km)
wide.
o The Bering Strait may be narrow, but it’s teeming with wildlife—beluga whales, bowhead whales,
grey whales, walruses, polar bears, ringed, and ribbon seals.
o Each spring, one of the largest wildlife migrations on Earth passes through this narrow gateway to
reach the Arctic’s incredibly nutrient-rich and productive waters.
• Hence option © is the correct answer.

Q 27.C
• The Union Government is empowered to raise revenues through a range of levies known as tax, fee, cess
and surcharges.
o CESS: Cess is a form of tax charged/levied over and above the base tax liability of a taxpayer. A cess
is usually imposed additionally when the state or the central government looks to raise funds for
specific purposes. For example, the government levies an education cess to generate additional
revenue for funding primary, secondary, and higher education. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
o Cess is not a permanent source of revenue for the government, and it is discontinued when the
purpose levying it is fulfilled. It can be levied on both indirect and direct taxes.
o While all taxes go to the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI), cess may initially go to the CFI but has to
be used for the purpose for which it was collected. If the cess collected in a particular year goes
unspent, it cannot be allocated for other purposes. The amount gets carried over to the next year and
can only be used for the cause it was meant for.
o SURCHARGE: A surcharge is an extra fee, charge, or tax that is added on to the cost of a good or
service, beyond the initially quoted price. Often, a surcharge is added to an existing tax and is not
included in the stated price of the good or service. A surcharge is not imposed for any specific
purpose and it is the discretion of the Union government to utilize the proceeds of surcharges
for whichever purpose it deems fit. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The similarities between a cess and a surcharge are that both levies are exceptions under Article 270. The
revenues collected from both these sources are at the exclusive disposal of the Union Government.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 28.D
• The Joint Parliamentary committee (JPC) is an ad-hoc body which is set up for a given period of time
and is aimed at addressing a specific issue and dissolved after submission of its report to Parliament
• It also examines a particular bill presented before the Parliament or for the purpose of investigating cases
of financial irregularities in any government activity. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• A JPC is authorised to collect evidence in oral or written form or demand documents in connection with
the matter. The proceedings and findings of the committee are confidential, except in matters of public
interest. The Speaker has the final word in case of a dispute over calling for evidence. Hence statement 2
is correct.
• The committee’s members are decided by Parliament. The number of members can vary. There are twice
as many Lok Sabha members as the Rajya Sabha. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 29.C
• There are 22 official languages in India and they are covered under the 8th schedule of the Indian
Constitution.
• At present, The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages: - (1)
Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam,
(9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil,
(17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri. Hence only option 3
and 4 are correct.
• At the time of commencement of constitution there were 14 language were listed in the schedule
VIII.
• Later, Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and
Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added by 92
Amendment act, 2003.
• In 2003, A Committee was set up in under the Chairmanship of Shri Sitakant Mohapatra to evolve a set of
objective criteria for inclusion of more languages in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India, on
the basis of that there is more demand for inclusion of 38 more languages in the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution. Some of them are Angika, Bhojpuri, Bhotia, Pali, Bundelkhandi, Chhattisgarhi, English,
Khasi, Mizo, and Rajasthani. Hence option 1 and 2 are not correct.
Q 30.A
• Recent Context: Madrid principle could be applied to end the hostility between Armenia and Azerbaijan
• About Madrid principles: The Madrid Principles, last updated in 2009, are proposed peace settlements
of the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict. It has been proposed by the OSCE Minsk Group. As of 2020 the
OSCE Minsk Group is the only internationally agreed body to mediate the negotiations for the peaceful
resolution of the conflict. Madrid principles which were drawn from the Helsinki Final Act, provides for
the prohibition on the use of force, respect for territorial integrity, and recognition of the equal right to
self-determination. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• The recent military confrontation between Armenia and Azerbaijan, reflects the failure of the Minsk
Group of the Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE).
• What are the key guidelines stated in Madrid principles?
o The Madrid Principles envisaged the demilitarisation of Nagorno-Karabakh (the Armenian majority
region)
o It calls for the unconditional withdrawal of Armenian occupying forces from Azerbaijan.
o It also warrants the need to deploy international peacekeeping forces to monitor the Armenian
redeployment, immediately after the Peace Agreement came into force.
o It assures, “Right to return” for Internally displaced persons and refugees to their original place of
residence.
Q 31.A
Formatting/Recent Context/More precise explanation for the second statement.
• Recent Context- Hindalco (An Aluminium and Copper manufacturing company of India) became
the world’s first company to achieve 100 per cent red mud utilisation across three of its refineries.
Globally, 160 million tonnes of red mud is produced annually and stored in large tracts of land, which is a
serious industry challenge. Red Mud is used in cement-manufacturing. The waste of one industry being
used as an input material in another is an example of a circular economy and exemplifies the
sustainability-first approach.
• Red mud is a solid waste generated during the aluminium production by the Bayer process from bauxite. -
Red mud is composed of minerals such as hematite, gibbsite, calcite, quartz, goethite, diaspore, rutile,
kaolinite, etc.
• Its high alkalinity and heavy metal content with a pH of 10.5- 12.5 makes it extremely corrosive and
damaging to soil and life forms, and its disposal generates serious environmental problems. Hence,
• Red Mud may be transformed into useful products, such as adsorbents. -Given its high concentrations of
aluminium oxides, iron oxides, titanium oxides, silica oxides, and hydroxides, It may be developed as a
cheap adsorbent for the removal of various ions from aqueous solution and soils (e.g., metal and non-
metal ions, phenolic compounds, and dyes) and waste gas purification (sulfide and carbide). Hence,
• It can be used for the treatment of acidic soils and retaining certain nutrients, such as phosphorus in
agriculture. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 32.A
• Corporate Social Responsibility (“CSR”) was for the first time introduced as a statutory obligation for
companies by way of the Companies Act 2013. India is the first country in the world to mandate CSR
spending along with a framework to identify potential CSR activities.
• All companies with a net worth of Rs 500 crore or more, a turnover of Rs 1,000 crore or more, or a
net profit of Rs 5 crore or more, are required to spend 2 percent of their average profits of the
previous three years on CSR activities every year.
• The Act requires companies to set up a CSR committee that shall recommend a Corporate Social
Responsibility Policy to the Board of Directors and also monitor the same from time to time.
• Recently, the government amended various rules pertaining to the CSR regime:
o allowing corporates to undertake multi-year projects
o making registration compulsory for agencies implementing CSR activities on behalf of companies.
o non-compliance with CSR provisions has been decriminalized by shifting such offenses to
penalty regimes. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o companies having CSR obligations below Rs 50 lakhs have been exempted from constituting a CSR
Committee.
o a company is allowed to undertake its CSR implementation either by itself or through another
company established under Section 8 of the Companies Act, a registered public trust or a
registered society established (i) either by the company itself, or (ii) by the Central Government
or State Government. In addition to the above, a company may also take help of (i) any entity
established under an Act of Parliament or a State legislature, or (ii) a Section 8 company, registered
public trust or a registered society, not referred to above but having an established track record of
minimum three years, for its CSR implementation. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Under the amended Rule 7, the Board has been given the responsibility to ensure that administrative
overheads in relation to CSR do not exceed five percent of the total CSR expenditure of the company.
o The New Rules have added Rule 8(3) as per which companies having an average CSR obligation of
ten crore rupees or more in three immediately preceding financial years are required to undertake
impact assessment through an independent agency of their CSR projects.
• Pursuant to the New Rules, the CSR Committee has been given the task of formulating and
recommending to the Board an annual action plan in pursuance of its CSR policy. The aforesaid plan shall
include the following:
§ list of CSR projects to be undertaken under Schedule VII of the Companies Act;
§ manner of execution of such projects;
§ modalities of utilisation of funds and implementation schedules;
§ monitoring and reporting mechanism for the projects; and
§ details of need and impact assessment, if any, for the projects undertaken.
• The Board has also been given the power to alter the annual action plan in accordance with the CSR
Committee’s recommendation based on reasonable justification.
• Rule 9 of the New Rules require the Board to disclose the composition of the CSR Committee, CSR
Policy and Projects on their website for public access
Q 33.C
• Kangra painting is the pictorial art of Kangra, named after Kangra, Himachal Pradesh, a former
princely state, which patronized the art.
• It became prevalent with the fading of Basohli school of painting in mid-18th century, and soon produced
such a magnitude in paintings both in content as well as volume, that the Pahari painting school, came to
be known as Kangra paintings.
• By the mideighteenth century the Kangra artists developed a style which breathed a new spirit into
miniature painting.
• The source of inspiration was the Vaishnavite traditions. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Soft colours including cool blues and greens, and a lyrical treatment of themes distinguished Kangra
painting. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 34.A
• Recent Context - The Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW), or Nuke ban treaty, came
into force on 22 January 2021.
• About TPNW - It is a legally binding instrument aimed at total elimination of nuclear weapons,
under the aegis of the United Nations.

• It prevents countries from participating in any nuclear weapons-related activities, including development,
testing, possession, stockpile, use, or threat of use of nuclear weapons. Hence statement 1 and statement
2 are correct.
• It lists numerous prohibitions on the use of nuclear weapons, including undertakings to not develop, test,
produce, acquire, possess, stockpile, use or threaten to use nuclear weapons. It also prohibits the
deployment of nuclear weapons on national territory.
• It makes it obligatory for states to suppress any of the prohibited activities in its territory, compensate and
provide necessary assistance to persons affected by nuclear testing in any way, and also take remedial
action to undo environmental damage in areas under its jurisdiction which have been affected by the use
or testing of nuclear weapons.
• Why India opposes the TPNW?
• India has not signed the treaty. India has said it was not convinced that the treaty could address the
longstanding expectation for a comprehensive instrument on nuclear disarmament. India says it is
under no obligation to the provisions of the treaty since it never supported it. Hence statement 3 is
not correct.
• India also said that while New Delhi is committed to a nuclear-weapon-free world and supports an
internationally verifiable withdrawal of global nuclear weapons, “it doesn’t think the current treaty takes
into account the verification process”.
• Also, None of the 9 nuclear states have signed the TPNW.
• The provisions of the TPNW are not binding on non-signatories countries
Q 35.A
• Recent Context: Recently industry ministers of Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa (BRICS)
virtually convened the 5th BRICS Industry Minister’s Meeting. The objective of this meeting was to
discuss the implementation of the BRICS Partnership on New Industrial Revolution (PartNIR).
• Partnership on New Industrial Revolution (PartNIR): It is a programme of partnership among BRICS
nation that will focus on Maximising the opportunities arising from the fourth industrial revolution/New
Industrial Revolution. It was formed at the 10th BRICS summit in Johannesburg.
• The overarching objective of PartNIR is to deepen BRICS cooperation in the fields of digitalization,
industrialization and innovation. PartNIR aims to address the challenges and maximize the
opportunities arising from the Fourth Industrial Revolution (4IR) by strengthening policy co-ordination;
promoting human skill development in cutting edge technologies; sharing best practices in digitalization;
and initiating joint infrastructure projects. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 36.A
• The mineral nutrients move from the non-living to the living and then back to the non-living
components of the ecosystem in a more or less circular manner. This is known as biogeochemical
cycling (bio for the living, geo for atmosphere. water, rocks and soil and chemical for the elements and
processes involved). We generally call them nutrient or mineral cycles.
• Types of Biogeochemical Cycles: There are two basic types of biogeochemical cycles, gaseous and
sedimentary. In the gaseous type of biogeochemical cycle there is a prominent gaseous phase.
• Cycling of carbon and nitrogen represents gaseous biogeochemical cycles. In sedimentary cycles the
main reservoir is the lithosphere from which the nutrients are released largely by weathering of rocks. The
sedimentary cycle is exemplified by phosphorus and sulphur. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• When we describe biogeochemical cycle; we often say that a cycle is perfect or imperfect.
• A perfect nutrient cycle is one in which the nutrients are replaced as fast as they, are used up. Most
gaseous cycles arc generally considered perfect.
• In contrast, sedimentary cycles are considered relatively imperfect, as some nutrients are lost from
the cycle into the soil and sediments and become unavailable for immediate cycling i.e., there are
more stages in which short-term or long-term stagnation occurs. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Most significant of the stagnation stages is sedimentation in oceans and deep continental lakes. So if
portions of nutrients. such as phosphorus or sulphur are lost. they are unavailable to organisms for
comparatively, longer periods. Human beings have so speeded up the movement of many nutrients that
the cycles tend to become imperfect or rather acyclic resulting in too much of nutrients at once stay or too
little at another.
Q 37.C
• It is the process through which bacteria or other living organisms derive energy — from reactions
involving inorganic chemicals — typically in the absence of sunlight. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is the use of the energy released by chemical reactions (instead of the sun’s energy) to produce food.
• The process is also called carbon fixation, through which inorganic carbon is converted to organic
compounds by living organisms and stored as a form of energy.
• Chemosynthesis has a profound impact on the production and cycling of greenhouse gases such as
carbon dioxide, methane and nitrous oxide.
• Chemosynthetic organisms are widespread and highly diverse in terms of phylogeny, substrates used,
morphology, habitats, and metabolism. These organisms have the potential to account for more than
50% of ecosystem carbon fixation under certain conditions.
• In oceanic and inland waters, chemosynthesis is commonly measured as dark carbon fixation (i.e., the
formation of organic carbon from carbon dioxide in the dark). Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 38.D
• After the Chauri Chaura incident, the Congress Working Committee met at Bardoli in February 1922
and resolved to stop all activity that led to breaking of the law and to get down to constructive work. The
elemental lower-class upsurge called forth in many areas by the Non-Cooperation movement did not
subside immediately with the Bardoli retreat. But the most striking evidence of continued popular
militancy came from the ever-restive semitribal ‘Rampa’ region north of the Godavari. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.
• The Rampa rebellion represents a guerilla uprising in semitribal ‘Rampa’ region north of the
Godavari between August 1922 and May 1924 led by Alluri Sitarama Raju. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• The grievances of the tribals were the exploitation by moneylenders, and forest laws restricting shifting
cultivation and age-old grazing rights. Sitaramaraju had been inspired by Non-Cooperation Movement to
start village panchayats and a campaign against drink. The movement combined elements of ‘primitive
rebellion’ with modern nationalism.
• Sitarama Raju ‘spoke highly of Mr Gandhi’, but considered ‘that violence is necessary'. Raju also won the
grudging admiration of the British as a formidable guerilla tactician, who had armed his followers by
successful raids on police stations. Raju was captured in May 1924, was shot dead.
Q 39.C
• Recent Context: The states of Uttar Pradesh (UP) and Madhya Pradesh have promulgated anti conversion
legislations. They seek to regulate religious conversions and prohibit certain types of religious
conversions (including through marriages). Few other states, including Haryana and Karnataka, are also
planning to introduce a similar law.
• Right to Freedom of Religion is Fundamental Right guaranteed by Art 25 – 28 of the constitution. The
Constitution guarantees the freedom to profess, propagate, and practise religion, and allows all religious
sections to manage their own affairs in matters of religion; subject to public order, morality, and
health. Article 25 of constitution guarantees the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate one’s religion
and it does not include right to forceful religious conversions. The Supreme Court has held that a
person's right to choose a religion and marry is an intrinsic part of her meaningful
existence. Neither the State nor “patriarchal supremacy” can interfere in her decision. Hence statement 1
is correct.
• To date, there has been no central legislation restricting or regulating religious conversions. Hence
• In Ratilal Panachand Gandhi v. State of Bombay, the Supreme Court stated that Article 25 guarantees
every person (not only citizens) the freedom of conscience and right to freely profess, practise and
propagate religion imposed with certain restrictions by the State. These restrictions are:
o Public order, morality and health and other provisions of the Constitution (Clause 1 of Article 25).
o Laws relating to or restricting any economic, financial, political, or other secular activities associated
with religious practices. (Clause 2(a) of Article 25).
o Social welfare and reform that might interfere with religious practices.
Q 40.A
• About 98 per cent of the total crust of the earth is composed of eight elements like oxygen, silicon,
aluminium, iron, calcium, sodium, potassium and magnesium, and the rest is constituted by titanium,
hydrogen, phosphorous, manganese, sulphur, carbon, nickel and other elements.
• The elements in the earth’s crust are rarely found exclusively but are usually combined with other
elements to make various substances. These substances are recognised as minerals.
• Though the number of elements making up the lithosphere is limited they are combined in many different
ways to make up many varieties of minerals. There are at least 2,000 minerals that have been named and
identified in the earth crust, but almost all the commonly occurring ones are related to six major mineral
groups that are known as major rock-forming minerals.
• The basic source of all minerals is the hot magma in the interior of the earth. When magma cools,
crystals of minerals appear and a systematic series of minerals are formed in sequence to solidify so as to
form rocks. Minerals such as coal, petroleum and natural gas are organic substances found in solid, liquid
and gaseous forms respectively.
• Thus, a mineral is a naturally occurring organic and inorganic substance, having an orderly atomic
structure and a definite chemical composition and physical properties. A mineral is composed of two
or more elements. But, sometimes single element minerals like sulphur, copper, silver, gold, graphite
etc. are found. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 41.C
• In the 4th century B.C Panini systematized the rules governing Sanskrit and produced a grammer called
the Ashtadhyayi. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Suryasiddhanta is a book on astronomy, describes rules to calculate the motions of various planets and the
moon relative to various constellations, diameters of various planets, and calculates the orbits of various
astronomical bodies. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Brihatsamhita is a book by Varahamihira which stated that the moon rotates round the earth and the earth
rotates round the sun. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 42.C
• Rigvedic people were semi-nomadic, and their chief possessions consisted of cattle and horses.
• The terms for cow, bull and horse appear frequently in the Rig Veda.
• Cattle were considered to be synonymous with wealth, and a wealthy person was gomat. Hence option
(c) is correct.
Q 43.D
• Recently, the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) and the Goa University (GU) have
successfully synthesized gold nanoparticles (GNPs) using psychro tolerant Antarctic bacteria in a non-
toxic, low-cost, and eco-friendly way.
• Nanoparticles (NPs) have a wide variety of potential applications in the fields of biomedical, optical, and
electronics research. Metallic NPs have been efficiently exploited for biomedical applications and among
them, GNPs are found to be effective in biomedical research.
• Application of GNPs:
o GNPs can be used as a composite therapeutic agent in clinical trials, especially in anti-cancer,
anti-viral, anti-diabetic, and cholesterol-lowering drugs.
o GNPs are melted at much lower temperatures (300 °C) than bulk gold (1064 °C). NPs have been
found to impart various desirable properties to different day-to-day products. For example, GNPs are
found to have greater solar radiation absorbing ability than conventional bulk gold, which
makes them a better candidate for use in the photovoltaic cell manufacturing industry.
o GNPs have unique optical properties too. For example, particles above 100 nm show blue or violet
color in the water, while the color becomes wine red in 100 nm gold colloidal particles. They can thus
be used for therapeutic imaging.
o GNPs also have unique physicochemical properties. Their biocompatibility, high surface area,
stability, and nontoxicity make them suitable for various applications in therapeutic use including
detection and diagnosis of diseases, bio-labeling, and targeted drug delivery.
o As nano-carriers, GNPs are capable of transferring various drugs made out of peptides, proteins,
plasmid DNAs, small interfering RNAs, and chemotherapeutic agents to target diseased cells of the
human body.
o GNPs are also found to be useful in the electronics industry. Scientists have constructed a
transistor known as NOMFET (Nanoparticle Organic Memory Field-Effect Transistor) by
embedding.
• Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q 44.C
• Early marriage was common in British India. As early as the 18th and nineteenth century, efforts have
been made to curb infant or child marriage. Reformers like Raja Rammohun Roy, Ishwar Chandra
Vidyasagar, Jyotiba Phule and others in the nineteenth and early twentieth century opposed child
marriage.
• In 1929, the Child Marriage Restraint Act was passed (popularly known as the Sarda Act) and the
minimum age for marriage for girls and boys was fixed at 14 years and 17 years respectively. The Act
was made applicable to all Indians. The act was introduced by the then legislator Har Bilas Sarda. Hence
option (c) is the correct answer.
• The latest amendment (in 1978) has raised the minimum age for marriage for boys and girls to 18 years
and 21 years, respectively.
Q 45.C
• The Government of India (GOI) has been supporting participation in Mega Science Projects. These
projects appeal to the scientific curiosity of researchers in search of answers to some of the important
questions facing the world of science and are of interest to a large scientific community from within the
country and outside.
• The Mega Science Projects are very large in terms of outlays and the complexity involved, making it
necessary for a user group, institution or even individual countries to join hands with other
similarly interested partners. Implementation of such projects involves multi-institutional teams,
including possible international collaboration.
• The Mega Science Vision (MSV)-2035 exercise has been undertaken by the Office of the Principal
Scientific Adviser to the GOI. The support to projects has now become necessary in fields of research
due to the need for experimentation, collection, and analysis of data on large scale.
• The Year 2035 has been chosen keeping in view the timelines of similar exercises undertaken elsewhere
in the world and the expected lifetime of the utilization of major global facilities in which India is
involved at the present time. The MSV-2035 Exercise has begun in the right earnest and will result in
Road-Map Documents in the said areas after widespread national stakeholder consultations.
Q 46.B
• An autoimmune disease is a condition in which the immune system mistakenly attacks one's body.
The immune system normally guards against germs like bacteria and viruses. When it senses these
foreign invaders, it sends out an army of fighter cells to attack them. Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Normally, the immune system can tell the difference between foreign cells and its own cells. In an
autoimmune disease, the immune system mistakes part of your body, like joints or skin, as foreign. It
releases proteins called autoantibodies that attack healthy cells.
• Some autoimmune diseases target only one organ. Type 1 diabetes damages the pancreas. Other diseases,
like systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), affect the whole body.
• Leukopenia is a condition where a person has a reduced number of white blood cells. This increases the
risk of infections.
• Leukemia is a blood cancer caused by a rise in the number of white blood cells in your body. Those white
blood cells crowd out the red blood cells and platelets that your body needs to be healthy.
• Immunosuppression is a reduction of the activation of the immune system.
Q 47.C
• The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an
independent intergovernmental body established by States to strengthen the science-policy interface for
biodiversity and ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long-term
human well-being and sustainable development. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It was established in Panama City, on 21 April 2012 by 94 Governments. It is not a United Nations body.
• However, at the request of the IPBES Plenary and with the authorization of the UNEP Governing Council
in 2013, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES.
IPBES currently has over 134 member States. All States Members of the United Nations are eligible for
IPBES membership but not all UN states are its members.
• A large number of NGOs, organizations, conventions and civil society groupings also participate in the
formal IPBES process as observers. The work of IPBES can be broadly grouped into four complementary
areas:
• Assessments: On specific themes (e.g. “Pollinators, Pollination and Food Production”); methodological
issues (e.g. “Scenarios and Modelling); and at both the regional and global levels (e.g. “Global
Assessment of Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services”).
• Policy Support: Identifying policy-relevant tools and methodologies, facilitating their use, and catalyzing
their further development.
• Building Capacity & Knowledge: Identifying and meeting the priority capacity, knowledge and data
needs of our member states, experts and stakeholders for the conservation and sustainable use of
biodiversity.
• Communications & Outreach: Ensuring the widest reach and impact of our work.
• IPBES currently has over 134 member States. A large number of NGOs, organizations, conventions and
civil society groupings also participate in the formal IPBES process as observers, with several thousand
individual stakeholders, ranging from scientific experts to representatives of academic and research
institutions, local communities and the private sector, contributing to and benefiting from our work.
• India is its member since its inception in 2012. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 48.B
• A limited liability partnership (LLP) is a partnership in which some or all partners (depending on the
jurisdiction) have limited liabilities. It therefore can exhibit elements of partnerships and corporations.
• LLP is an alternative corporate business form that gives the benefits of limited liability of a company and
the flexibility of a partnership. The LLP can continue its existence irrespective of changes in partners. It is
capable of entering into contracts and holding property in its own name.
• The LLP is a separate legal entity, is liable to the full extent of its assets but the liability of the partners is
limited to their agreed contribution in the LLP.
• Further, no partner is liable on account of the independent or un-authorized actions of other partners, thus
individual partners are shielded from joint liability created by another partner’s wrongful business
decisions or misconduct.
• Advantages of LLP: LLP form is a form of business model which:
o is organized and operates on the basis of an agreement.
o provides flexibility without imposing detailed legal and procedural requirements
o enables professional/technical expertise and initiative to combine with financial risk-taking capacity
in an innovative and efficient manner
• Difference between LLP & "traditional partnership firm":
o Under “traditional partnership firm”, every partner is liable, jointly with all the other partners and also
severally for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner.
o Under LLP structure, the liability of the partner is limited to his agreed contribution. Further,
no partner is liable on account of the independent or un-authorized acts of other partners, thus
allowing individual partners to be shielded from joint liability created by another partner’s
wrongful acts or misconduct. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Difference between LLP & a Company:
o A basic difference between an LLP and a joint-stock company lies in that the internal governance
structure of a company is regulated by statute (i.e. Companies Act, 1956) whereas for an LLP it would
be by a contractual agreement between partners.
o The management-ownership divide inherent in a company is not there in a limited liability
partnership.
o The greatest advantage which LLP offers is the flexibility to do business. Instead of being bound
by legal provisions, LLP's are free to create their own rules of management, which was not
possible in case of companies. Thus LLP will have more flexibility as compared to a
company. LLP will have lesser compliance requirements as compared to a company. Hence,
Q 49.C
• A seismic gap is a section of a fault that has produced earthquakes in the past but is in a dormant state
presently. For some seismic gaps, no earthquakes have been observed historically, but it is believed that
the fault segment is capable of producing earthquakes on some other basis, such as plate-motion
information or strain measurements. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Of the total energy released in earthquakes, 12 per cent comes from intermediate earthquakes—that is,
quakes with a focal depth ranging from about 60 to 300 km. About 3 per cent of the total energy comes
from deeper earthquakes. The frequency of occurrence falls off rapidly with increasing focal depth in the
intermediate range. Below intermediate-depth, the distribution is fairly uniform until the greatest focal
depths, of about 700 km (430 miles), are approached.
• The deeper-focus earthquakes commonly occur in patterns called Benioff zones that dip into the
Earth, indicating the presence of a subducting slab. Dip angles of these slabs average about 45°, with
some shallower and others nearly vertical. Benioff zones coincide with tectonically active island arcs
such as Japan, Vanuatu, Tonga, and the Aleutians, and they are normally but not always associated
with deep ocean trenches such as those along the South American Andes. Exceptions to this rule include
Romania and the Hindu Kush mountain system. Benioff zones are found in subduction zones that form by
the collision of two crustal plates of dissimilar density and thickness, for example, an oceanic plate and a
continental plate. The heavier (thinner) crust of the oceanic plate is subducted under the lighter and much
thicker crust of the continental plate. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 50.D
• Hydrogen (H2) is an alternative fuel that can be produced from diverse domestic resources.
o It is abundant in our environment and it is stored in water (H2O), hydrocarbons (such as methane,
CH4), and other organic matter.
o Hydrogen is an energy carrier that can be used to store, move, and deliver energy produced from other
sources.
o Hydrogen with its abundance, high energy density, better combustion characteristics, non-polluting
nature etc. has vast advantages over conventional fuels.
• Advantages of hydrogen-based energy:
• Reduced imports: Hydrogen as an efficient fuel helps to reduce crude oil import and its use as feedstock
for ammonia production reduces India’s fertilizer imports.
o India is the world’s third-largest consumer of oil, for which country has to depend heavily on oil
imports.
• Non-polluting & decarbonising: The use of hydrogen can reduce the CO2 related emissions
significantly at the point of use and if green hydrogen is used then there is the capability to decarbonize
the entire value chain, enabling reduced emissions and climate change threats.
o Hydrogen fuel cell leaves only water vapour and heat as emissions and releases no greenhouse gasses.
• Abundance: Hydrogen can be produced locally from numerous sources like methane, gasoline,
biomass, coal or water.
• High efficiency: Hydrogen is an efficient energy source, which means that an automobile that utilizes
hydrogen energy travels more miles than one with an equal amount of gasoline.
• High energy density: Hydrogen has the highest energy per mass of any fuel, it is 120 MJ/kg, almost
three times more than diesel or gasoline.
• Address energy requirement: Hydrogen can provide linkages between energy supply and demand, in
both a centralized or decentralized manner, thereby enhancing the overall energy system flexibility.
• Application of hydrogen:
• Fuel cell: Hydrogen fuel cell systems are used for generating electricity, in vehicular applications (Fuel
cell cars, buses, etc.) and portable devices (Laptops, phones, etc.)
o A fuel cell is a device that generates electricity by a chemical reaction. An electrolyte (membrane)
carries electrically charged particles from one electrode to the other (anode and cathode), as well as
uses catalysts to speed up the reactions and produce electricity at the electrodes.
o Only water vapour and heat are emissions from the fuel cell.
• Direct fuel in internal combustion (IC) engine vehicles:
o Hydrogen is used as an energy carrier directly in IC engines and turbines in place of fossil fuels
or as a blended mixture with fossil fuels.
o E.g. H-CNG, is hydrogen-enriched compressed natural gas up to 30%, with better power output, 4%
more fuel economy and 70% more reduction in carbon monoxide emissions than CNG.
• Chemical industries, Fertilizer industries, refineries:
o Hydrogen is used as a raw material in the fertilizer, chemical and petroleum refining industries as it is
a fundamental building block for the manufacture of ammonia.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 51.A
• The Charter Act of 1833 was a significant constitutional instrument defining the scope and authority of
the East India Company. The liberal and utilitarian philosophy of Bentham was made popular by the
provisions of this Act.
• Following were the important provisions:
o The English East India Company ceased to be a commercial agency in India. In other words, it
would function hereafter as the political agent for the Crown.
o The Governor-General of Fort William was hereafter called ‘the Governor- General of India’.
Thus, William Bentinck was the first Governor-General of India’.
o A Law Member was appointed to the Governor-General’s Council. T. B. Macaulay was the first
Law Member of the Governor-General-in-Council.
o The Act categorically stated ‘that no native of India, nor any natural born subject of His Majesty,
should be disabled from holding any place, office, or employment, by reason of his religion,
place of birth, descent or colour”. It was this enactment which laid the foundation for
the Indianisation of public services.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 52.D
• Primarily, issues made by an Indian company can be classified as Public and Rights issues.
o Public issue: When an issue / offer of shares or convertible securities is made to new investors for
becoming part of shareholders’ family of the issuer it is called a public issue. Public issue can be
further classified into Initial public offer (IPO) and Further public offer (FPO).
§ Initial public offer (IPO): When an unlisted company makes either a fresh issue of shares or
convertible securities or offers its existing shares or convertible securities for sale or both for the
first time to the public, it is called an IPO. This paves way for listing and trading of the issuer’s
shares or convertible securities on the Stock Exchanges.
§ Further public offer (FPO) or Follow on offer: When an already listed company makes either a
fresh issue of shares or convertible securities to the public or an offer for sale to the public, it is
called an FPO.
o Rights issue (RI): When an issue of shares or convertible securities is made by an issuer to its
existing shareholders as on a particular date fixed by the issuer (i.e. record date), it is called a rights
issue. The rights are offered in a particular ratio to the number of shares or convertible securities held
as on the record date.
• Indian primary market ushered in an era of free pricing in 1992. SEBI does not play any role in price
fixation. The issuer in consultation with the merchant banker on the basis of market demand
decides the price.
• The offer document contains full disclosures of the parameters which are taken in to account by Merchant
Banker and the issuer for deciding the price. The Parameters include EPS, PE multiple, return on net
worth and comparison of these parameters with peer group companies.
• Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
Q 53.B
• A group of westerners led by Madame H.P. Blavatsky and Colonel M.S. Olcott, who were inspired by
Indian thought and culture, founded the Theosophical Society in New York City, United States in 1875.
In 1882, they shifted their headquarters to Adyar, on the outskirts of Madras (at that time) in India. The
Society accepted the Hindu beliefs in reincarnation and karma, and drew inspiration from the
philosophy of the Upanishads and samkhya, yoga and Vedanta schools of thought. Hence statement 1 is
not correct.
• In 1890, when an eleven-year-old Phulamani Bai died while having sexual intercourse with her much
older husband, the Parsi social reformer Behramji Malabari supported the Age of Consent Act,
1891 to raise the age of a girl's eligibility for marriage. Tilak however, opposed the bill on the grounds
that these bills, if passed, would amount to interference in the religious affairs of a group of Indians by a
foreign government. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Radhakant Deb founded the Dharma Sabha in 1830. As an orthodox society, it stood for the
preservation of the status quo in socio-religious matters, opposing even the abolition of sati. However, it
favoured the promotion of Western education, even for girls. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• The Prarthana Samaj was founded in 1867 in Bombay by Dr. Atmaram Pandurang. It was an off-
shoot of Brahmo Samaj. It was a reform movement within Hinduism and concentrated on social reforms
like inter-dining, inter-marriage, widow remarriage and uplift of women and depressed classes. Justice
M.G. Ranade and R.G. Bhandarkar joined it in 1870 and infused new strength to it.
• Arya Samaj is a monotheistic Indian Hindu reform movement that promotes values and practices based
on the belief in the infallible authority of the Vedas. The samaj was founded by Maharishi Dayanand
Saraswati in April 1875. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Q 54.B
• The Qualified Foreign Investor (QFI) is sub-category of Foreign Portfolio Investor and shall include
individuals, groups or associations, resident in a country that is a member of Financial Action Task Force
(FATF) or a country that is a member of a group which is a member of FATF and a country that is a
signatory to International Organization of Securities Commission’s (IOSCO) Multilateral Memorandum
of Understanding (MMOU).
• QFI scheme was introduced by the Government of India in consultation with RBI and SEBI in the year
2011. The objective of enabling QFIs is to deepen and infuse more foreign funds in the Indian capital
market and to reduce market volatility as individuals are considered to be long term investors, as
compared to institutional investors.
• QFIs are allowed to make investments in the following instruments by opening a demat account in any of
the SEBI approved Qualified Depository Participant (QDP):
o Equity and Debt schemes of Indian mutual funds,
o Equity shares listed on recognized stock exchanges,
o Equity shares offered through public offers
o Corporate bonds listed/to be listed on recognized stock exchanges
o G-Securities, T-Bills and Commercial Papers. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The total shareholding by a QFI cannot exceed five per cent of the paid-up equity capital of any
company at any point of time. Further, the aggregate shareholding of all QFIs shall not exceed ten
percent of the paid-up equity capital of the company at any point of time. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
• QFIs access to equity market is expected to broad base the market while enhancing the capital flows into
India. More importantly, since QFIs are the diversified set of heterogeneous investors, QFIs participation
is expected to help dampen the volatility in Indian equity market that arises due to sudden inflows or off-
loading done by FIIs. The direct participation route offered through the QFI scheme was expected to
reduce the transaction cost and complexity hitherto persisting due to large number of intermediaries. It
would also bring in better transparency while reducing the need for using participatory notes route
Q 55.B
• Recently, the latest readings of the Nomura India Normalization Index (NINI) suggested the impact of
Covid-19 on Indian Economy and the K-Shaped Recovery through which the Indian Economy is
recovering.
• K-shaped recovery happens after a nation suffers a recession. In this recovery, one segment of the
economy begins to climb back upward while another segment continues to suffer. K shaped recovery talks
about a troubling, divergent economic future where the economy rebounds unevenly.
• Implications of the K shaped recovery:
o Households at the bottom have experienced a permanent loss of income in the forms of jobs and
wage cuts, this will be a recurring drag on demand if the labour market does not heal faster.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
o To the extent that Covid has triggered an effective income transfer from the poor to the rich, this will
be demand-impeding because the poor have a higher marginal propensity to consume (i.e. they tend to
spend-instead of saving) a much higher proportion of their income.
o If Covid-19 reduces competition or increases the inequality of incomes and opportunities, it could
impinge on trend growth in developing economies by hurting productivity and tightening political
economy constraints.
Q 56.A
• Peer-to-peer (P2P) lending enables individuals to obtain loans directly from other individuals, cutting out
the financial institution. It is a form of crowdfunding used to raise unsecured loans which are re-paid
with interest. It utilises an online platform that serves as a link between borrowers and lenders. Hence,
• The borrower could be an individual or a legal person (such as a company). Further, the interest rate could
be determined by the platform or agreed to by the borrower and the lender.
• RBI vide a Notification in 2017, enabled P2P entities as Non-Banking Financial Company
(NBFC). However, an existing NBFC will not be able to operate as an NBFC-P2P. Hence, statement 2 is
not correct.
• As per the Notification, P2P lending platform shall mean the business of providing under a contract, the
service of loan facilitation, via online medium or otherwise, to the participants who have entered into an
arrangement with that platform to lend on it or to avail of loan facilitation services provided by it.
• RBI’s Master Directions for peer to peer (P2P) lending platforms provide a framework for the registration
and functioning of NBFC-P2Ps in India. They specify the process and eligibility criteria for registration of
such platforms and also state that such lending platforms cannot be operated without obtaining a
Certificate of Registration from the RBI.
Q 57.A
• An air mass is a large volume of air in the atmosphere that is mostly uniform in temperature and
moisture. Air masses can extend thousands of kilometres across the surface of the Earth and can reach
from ground level to the stratosphere—16 kilometres (10 miles) into the atmosphere.
• Air masses form over large surfaces with uniform temperatures and humidity, called source
regions.
• Low wind speeds let air remain stationary long enough to take on the features of the source region,
such as heat or cold. When winds move air masses, they carry their weather conditions (heat or cold, dry
or moist) from the source region to a new region. When the air mass reaches a new region, it might clash
with another air mass that has a different temperature and humidity. This can create a severe storm.
• Meteorologists identify air masses according to where they form over the Earth. There are four
categories for air masses: arctic, tropical, polar, and equatorial. Arctic air masses form in the Arctic
region and are very cold. Tropical air masses form in low-latitude areas and are moderately warm. Polar
air masses take shape in high-latitude regions and are cold. Equatorial air masses develop near the Equator
and are warm.
• Air masses are also identified based on whether they form over land or over water. Maritime air masses
form over the water and are humid. Continental air masses form over land and are dry.
• Therefore, an air mass that develops over northern Canada is called a continental polar air mass and is
cold and dry. One that forms over the Indian Ocean is called a maritime tropical air mass and is warm and
humid. Hence air masses are developed in areas having consistent high or low pressure for a
considerable period of time.
• Therefore variations in temperature and humidity over large surface areas will not favour the
development of airmasses. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• Air masses are classified on weather maps using two or three letters.
o A lowercase letter describes the amount of moisture in the air mass: m for maritime (moist) and c for
continental (dry).
o An uppercase letter describes the heat of the air mass: E for equatorial, T for tropical, M for monsoon,
P for polar, A for Arctic or Antarctic, and S for superior—a unique situation with dry air formed by a
powerful downward motion of the atmosphere.
o A lowercase letter describes the relationship between the air mass and the earth: k signifies that the air
mass is colder than the ground below it, while w describes an air mass that is warmer than the ground
below it. Air masses are separated from each other by boundaries called fronts.
Q 58.C
• Akbar Instituted a new religion called as Din-I-illahi.But there is a little evidence to show that Akbar
inrended to promulgate a new religion.
• Abul Fazl and Badayuni used the word "Tauhid-i-illahi",which literakly means "Divine Monotheism"
• The word "din", which means Faith was not applied to it till 80 years later.
• "Tauhid-i-illahi" was really an order of sufistic type.
• Those who are willing to join and were approved by emperor were allowed to become members. Hence,
• Sunday was fixed as day of initiation, in which the novice places his head at feet of his emperor and
emperor gives him the formula called as "shast" in sufi language.
• Except the initiation ceremony, there were no rituals, no places of worships, no religious books, no
priests. Hence, statement 1 is correct and 2 is not correct.
• The initiates were to abstain from meat as far as possible and give alms.
• Only a few leading nobles including Birbal, joined it.
• It virtually died with Akbar, but the practice of enrolling "Murids" (disciples) and giving them
shast continued under Jahangir too.
Q 59.C
• Considered the most beautiful duck in the world, the Mandarin duck, or the (Aix galericulata) was
recently spotted floating in the Maguri-Motapung beel (or wetland) in Assam’s Tinsukia district.
• It is a small exotic-looking duck found at lakes and parks, native to East Asia, but has established feral
populations throughout Western Europe. The migratory duck breeds in Russia, Korea, Japan and
northeastern parts of China. It now has established populations in Western Europe and America too.
• Male is very ornate with big orangey "sail fins" on the back, streaked orangey cheeks, and a small red
bill with a whitish tip. The Female has narrow white spectacles on a shaggy grey head, bold pale dappled
spots along flanks, and pale bill tip.
• The duck, however, rarely visits India as it does not fall in its usual migratory route. There are only a
handful of recorded sightings here. It was recorded in 1902 in the Dibru river in the Rongagora area in
Tinsukia. More recently, it was sighted in Manipur’s Loktak Lake in 2013, and in Saatvoini Beel in
Manas National Park and Tiger Reserve in Assam’s Baksa district 2014.
• The Maguri Motapung wetland — an Important Bird Area as declared by the Bombay Natural History
Society — is located close to the Dibru Saikhowa National Park in Upper Assam. Hence option (c) is the
correct answer.
Q 60.D
• Recent Context - The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has capped the amount of
trans fatty acids (TFA) in oils and fats.
• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has capped the amount of trans fatty
acids (TFA) in oils and fats to 3% for 2021 and 2% by 2022 from the current permissible limit of
5% through an amendment to the Food Safety and Standards (Prohibition and Restriction on
Sales) Regulations. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The FSSAI notified the amendment on December 29, 2020. The revised regulation applies to edible
refined oils, vanaspati (partially hydrogenated oils), margarine, bakery shortenings, and other mediums of
cooking such as vegetable fat spreads and mixed fat spreads.
• Trans Fatty Acid (TFA) - Trans fats are a type of unsaturated fatty acids. It can be classified as naturally
occurring or industrially produced.
• Naturally occurring trans fats – or ruminant trans-fatty acids (rTFAs) - are produced by the gut bacteria of
ruminant animals and found in small amounts in the food products from these animals.
• Industrially produced trans fats (Artificial TFAs) are formed when fats and oils are modified by the use of
industrial processing techniques. Artificial TFAs are formed when hydrogen is made to react with the oil
to produce fats (process of partial hydrogenation). During the process, oil is hardened, which improves its
commercial appeal by enhancing its sensory profile and texture and increasing its shelf life and tolerance
to repeated heating.
• Concerns - Its consumption increases the risk of developing heart disease, stroke, hypertension and other
cardiovascular disorders. TFAs not only raise total cholesterol levels but also reduce the good cholesterol
(HDL), which helps to protect us against heart disease.
• Permissible limits of TFA
• WHO recommends that total TFA intake be limited to less than 1% of total energy intake in a
day. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• WHO plans to eliminate industrially-produced trans-fat from the global food supply by 2023.
• Indian measures to tackle TFA
• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) launched two initiatives for reducing
consumption of trans fat i.e. Eat Right Movement and Heart Attack Rewind mass media campaign.
• Eat Right Movement: Launched in 2018, the programme is built on two broad pillars of ‘Eat Healthy’ and
‘Eat Safe’. It aims to cut down on salt, sugar and oil consumption by 30% in three years.
• Heart Attack Rewind: It is a 30-second public service announcement which was broadcasted in 17
languages on social media platforms. The objective of the campaign was to warn citizens about the health
hazards of consuming trans fats and offer strategies to avoid them through healthier alternatives.
Q 61.D
• The Ministry of Railways has issued and approved a new iron-ore policy governing the allocation of
rakes and transportation of iron-ore. This new policy has been named Iron-ore Policy 2021 and
shall come into effect from February 10, 2021. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The aim of the policy is to attune it to the present-day needs of customers and assure them that Indian
Railways is fully committed to meet the complete requirement of transportation of iron ore customers
and provide total logistics support to steel industry to meet the competitive challenges domestically
and globally. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The production of steel is critically dependent on the transportation of iron and other raw materials. The
policy sets down clear guidelines on how to fully meet the requirement of customers by leveraging
infrastructure facilities available at loading and unloading ends to the fullest.
• Important highlights of the new policy are:
o Categorization of Priority of movement of Iron Ore has now been based on the availability of Railway
infrastructure developed by the customer for loading/unloading and the nature of movement between
various types of sidings with a view to maximize iron-ore movement by rail.
o Higher priority given to movement of iron-ore traffic for domestic manufacturing activity.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Within domestic movement of iron-ore traffic, priority preference given to Steel /Pig Iron/Sponge
Iron/pellet/sinter plant owning customers.

o With the aim to facilitate ‘Ease of doing business’ scrutiny of documentation by Railways has been
removed.
o Customers now desirous of moving their traffic under any priority will have to give undertaking that
they have procured, transported and utilized materials as per rules and regulations of Central and State
Governments.
• Iron-ore is the second most important stream of traffic of Railways and along with steel accounts for
nearly 17% (53.81 Million Tonne of Steel & 153.35 Million Tonne of Iron ore) of total 1210 Million
Tonne freight loading of IR in 2019-20. The new Iron-ore Policy, 2021 issued by Ministry of Railways is
expected to have positive impact on the steel industry, provide powerful impetus to the core sector of the
economy and boost country’s economic growth.
Q 62.D
• Oilseed crops are the second most important determinant of agricultural economy, next only to cereals
within the segment of field crops. The self-sufficiency in oilseeds attained through the “Yellow
Revolution” during the early 1990s, could not be sustained beyond a short period. Despite being the fifth
largest oilseed crop-producing country in the world, India is also one of the largest importers of vegetable
oils today.
• The country has to rely on imports to meet the gap between demand and supply. Import of edible oil is
under Open General License. In order to harmonize the interests of farmers, processors and consumers
and at the same time, regulate the large import of edible oils to the extent possible, the import duty
structure on edible oils is reviewed from time to time.
• India is heavily dependent on imports to meet its edible oil requirements and the largest importer of
vegetable oils in the world (15% share) followed by China & the USA. Of imported edible oils, the
share of palm oil is about 60% followed by soybean oil with a share of 25% and sunflower (12%).
• In order to ensure the availability of edible oil in the country, the export of edible oil has been banned
w.e.f. 17.03.2008, which was extended from time to time. With effect from 06.02.2015, the export of rice
bran oil in bulk has been permitted. With effect from 27.03.2017, the export of groundnut oil, sesame oil,
soyabean oil and maize (corn) oil has been permitted. At present, the export of all varieties of edible
oils is free, except mustard oil. Export of mustard oil in branded consumer packs of up to 5 Kgs is
permitted with a Minimum Export Price of USD 900 per MT.
Q 63.D
• What Are Seagrasses?
• Even though seagrasses and seaweeds look superficially similar, they are very different
organisms. Seagrasses belong to a group of plants called monocotyledons that include grasses, lilies and
palms. Like their relatives, seagrasses have leaves, roots and veins, and produce flowers and seeds. In
contrast, seaweeds (algae) are much simpler organisms. They have no flowers or veins, and their holdfasts
simply attach to the bottom and are generally not specialized to take in nutrients. Hence statement 1 is
not correct.
• Where Are Seagrasses Found?
• Seagrasses grow in salty and brackish (semi-salty) waters around the world, typically along gently
sloping, protected coastlines. Because they depend on light for photosynthesis, they are most commonly
found in shallow depths where light levels are high. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Growth & Reproduction
• Seagrasses grow both vertically and horizontally—their blades reach upwards and their roots down and
sideways—to capture sunlight and nutrients from the water and sediment. They spread by two methods:
asexual clonal growth and sexual reproduction.
• Ecosystem Benefits
• Seagrasses are often called foundation plant species or ecosystem engineers because they modify their
environments to create unique habitats. These modifications not only make coastal habitats more suitable
for the seagrasses themselves but also have important effects on other animals and provide ecological
functions and a variety of services for humans.
• Seagrasses have been used by humans for over 10,000 years. They've been used to fertilize fields, insulate
houses, weave furniture, thatch roofs, make bandages, and fill mattresses and even car seats. But it's what
they do in their native habitat that has the biggest benefits for humans and the ocean. Seagrasses support
commercial fisheries and biodiversity, clean the surrounding water and help take carbon dioxide out of the
atmosphere.

• Key Services
• Modification of the Physical Environment
• Seagrasses are known as the "lungs of the sea" because one square meter of seagrass can generate 10
litres of oxygen every day through photosynthesis. Seagrass leaves also absorb nutrients and slow the
flow of water, capturing sand, dirt and silt particles. Their roots trap and stabilize the sediment, which
not only helps improve water clarity and quality but also reduces erosion and buffers coastlines against
storms.
• Creation of Living Habitat
• Seagrasses are often called nursery habitats because the leafy underwater canopy they create provides
shelter for small invertebrates (like crabs and shrimp and other types of crustaceans), small fish and
juveniles of larger fish species. Many species of algae and microalgae (such as diatoms), bacteria and
invertebrates grow as “epiphytes” directly on living seagrass leaves, much like lichens and Spanish moss
grows on trees. Other invertebrates grow nestled between the blades or in the sediments—such as
sponges, clams, polychaete worms and sea anemones.
• The accumulation of smaller organisms amongst and on the seagrass blades, as well as the seagrass itself,
attracts bigger animals. As a result, seagrasses can be home to many types of fish, sharks, turtles, marine
mammals (dugongs and manatees), molluscs (octopus, squid, cuttlefish, snails, bivalves), sponges,
crustaceans (shrimp, crabs, copepods, isopods and amphipods) polychaete worms, sea urchins and sea
anemones.
• Blue Carbon
• Atmospheric carbon is captured by coastal mangroves, seagrasses and salt marshes at a rate five
times faster than tropical forests.
• Seagrasses are capable of capturing and storing a large amount of carbon from the atmosphere. Similar to
how trees take carbon from the air to build their trunks, seagrasses take carbon from the water to build
their leaves and roots.
• Seagrass in India:
• In India, seagrass is found at a shallow depth of 10m due to the turbidity of water along the coasts.
Seagrass beds are found all across the Indian coast along with Andaman & Nicobar Islands and
Lakshadweep Islands.
• The largest seagrass bed in the country is in the Gulf of Mannar and Palk Bay. These were once
abundant in the Gulf of Mannar region but are now threatened. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 64.D
• The Bhakti Movement in Maharashtra (Maharashtra Dharma) The Bhakti cult in Maharashtra centred
around the shrine of Vithoba or Vitthal the presiding diety of Pandharpur. Who was regarded as a
manifestation of Krishna. This movement is also known as the Pandharpur movement. Hence statement 1
is correct.
• The Pandharpur movement led to the development of Marathi literature, modification of caste
exclusiveness, sanctification of family life, elevation of the status of women, spread of the spirit of
humaneness and toleration, subordination of ritual to love and faith, and limitation of the excesses of
polytheism.
• The Bhakti movement in Maharashtra is broadly divided into two sects. The first school of mystics is
known as Varakaris, or the mild devotees of God Viththala of Pandharpur, and the second as
Dharakaris, the devotee of God Rama.
• Jnaneswara, Namadeva, Ekanatha, Tukarama were the famous bhakti saints of the region. Their
compositions were called "Abhangas" which means "unending", are the devotional poems sung in
praise of the god Vithoba. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Gnanadeva was the founder of the Bhakti Movement in Maharashtra in the thirteenth century. It was
called Maharashtra dharma. He was the founder of the Bhakti Movement in Maharashtra in the 13th
century. Also known as Sant Dnyaneshwar. He wrote Gnaneswari a commentary of Bhagavad Gita.
• Tukaram, a contemporary of Sivaji. He was responsible for creating a background for Maratha
nationalism. He opposed all social distinctions. Tukaram was part of the egalitarian, personalized Varkari
devotionalism tradition. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 65.A
• Some of the famous supreme court cases and its verdicts are:
• Navtej Johar vs the Union of India case: In this case, Supreme court decriminalised homosexuality by
striking off parts of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) which were held violative of
Fundamental Rights of LGBTQ Community. Hence pair (1) is correctly matched.
• Anuradha Bhasin Vs Union of India: It directed that the freedom of speech and expression and also
freedom of trade and commerce through the medium of the internet are constitutionally protected
rights under Articles 19(1)(a) and Articles 19(1)(g), respectively. Hence pair (2) is correctly
matched.
• Rambabu Singh Thakur Vs Sunil Arora and others: the Supreme Court directed that all political
parties to publish the details of criminal antecedents of their candidates in the Lok Sabha and
Assembly polls within 48 hours of selection of the candidate or within two weeks of nomination,
whichever is earlier. It was recently implemented by the election commission in its directives.
• The Secretary, Ministry of Defence v Babita Puniya and others: Permanent Commission should be
granted to women in the army regardless of their service, in all the ten streams where the Union
Government has already taken a decision to grant Short Service Commission to women. The Court also
held that absolute exclusion of women from command assignments is against Article 14 of the
Constitution and unjustified. Therefore, the policy that women will be given only "staff appointments"
was held to be unenforceable by the Court.
• Common Cause v. Union of India: The concept of 'ex post facto' Environmental Clearance (EC) is
against the fundamental principles of environmental jurisprudence. Under the Prathvi Raj Chouhan
vs Union of India Case the Supreme Court on February 10, 2020 upheld the constitutional validity of
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act of 2018, which was
enacted to nullify the effects of the March 20, 2018 judgment of the SC which had diluted the provisions
of the Act. Hence pair (3) is not correctly matched.
Q 66.C
• Under Cabinet Mission Plan, a proposal was envisaged for setting up an Interim Government, which
would remain in office till a new government was elected on the basis of the new Constitution framed by
the Constituent Assembly. Consequently, elections were held in July 1946 for the formation of a
Constituent Assembly. An Interim Government was formed under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru on
2 September 1946. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Clement Attlee, the then British prime minister, announced on February 20, 1947 declaring the British
intention of leaving the Indian subcontinent.
• Main Points of Attlee’s Statement
o A deadline of June 30, 1948 was fixed for transfer of power even if the Indian politicians had not
agreed by that time on the constitution.
o The British would relinquish power either to some form of central government.
o British powers and obligations vis-a-vis the princely states would lapse with transfer of power, but
these would not be transferred to any successor government in British India. Hence statement 1 is
not correct.
• After extensive consultation Lord Mountbatten put forth the plan of partition of India on 3 June 1947.
The Congress and the Muslim League ultimately approved the Mountbatten Plan.
• The British Government accorded formal approval to the Mountbatten Plan by enacting the Indian
Independence Act on 18 July 1947. The salient features of this Act were:
o The partition of the country into India and Pakistan would come into effect from 15 August 1947.
o The British Government would transfer all powers to these two Dominions.
o A Boundary Commission would demarcate the boundaries of the provinces of the Punjab and
Bengal. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o The Act provided for the transfer of power to the Constituent Assemblies of the two Dominions,
which will have full authority to frame their respective Constitutions.
Q 67.C
• Recent Context - Government of India has taken a decision to monitor the performance of 29 select
Global Indices to drive reforms and growth in the country. The 29 global indices, published by 19
international agencies, have been assigned to 18 nodal ministries and departments of the Government of
India.
• About Global Indices to Drive Reforms and Growth (GIRG) exercise - NITI Aayog is the nodal
agency for the Multi Dimension Poverty Index (MPI). It has been assigned the responsibility of
leveraging the monitoring mechanism of the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) to drive
reforms.
• Global MPI is part of Government of India’s decision to monitor the performance of the country in 29
select Global Indices.
• The objective of the “Global Indices to Drive Reforms and Growth (GIRG)” exercise is to fulfil the need
to measure and monitor India’s performance on various important social and economic parameters and
enable the utilisation of these Indices as tools for self-improvement, bring about reforms in policies, while
improving last-mile implementation of government schemes.
• About Global Multidimensional Poverty Index - Global MPI is an international measure of
multidimensional poverty covering 107 developing countries.
• It was first developed in 2010 by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and United
Nations Development Programme (UNDP) for UNDP’s Human Development Reports
• Global MPI is computed by scoring each surveyed household on 10 parameters based on -nutrition, child
mortality, years of schooling, school attendance, cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity,
housing and household assets.
• According to Global MPI 2020, India is 62nd among 107 countries with an MPI score of 0.123.
Q 68.A
• Recent Context: Recently a team of CBI officers probing the alleged rape and murder of a Dalit girl
in Hathras, Uttar Pradesh conducted a brain electrical oscillation signature profiling (BEOSP) test
on the accused at the Gandhinagar-based Forensic Science Laboratory (FSL). Founded in 1974, the
Gujarat state FSL in Gandhinagar is India’s premier laboratory for forensic sciences and technical
investigation.
• Brain Electrical Oscillation Signature Profiling (BEOSP) also known as brain fingerprinting is a
neuro psychological method of interrogation in which the accused’s participation in the crime is
investigated by studying their brain’s response.
• The BEOSP test is carried out via a process known as electroencephalogram, conducted to study the
electrical behaviour of the human brain. Electroencephalography is an electrophysiological monitoring
method to record electrical activity of the brain. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Under this test, the consent of the accused is first taken and they are then made to wear caps with dozens
of electrodes attached to them. The accused are then shown visuals or played audio clips related to the
crime to check if there is any triggering of neurons in their brains which then generate brainwaves. The
test results are then studied to determine the participation of the accused in a crime.
• What differentiates a BEOSP test from a polygraph or a lie detector?
o The BEOSP procedure does not involve a question answer session with the accused and is rather a
neuro psychological study of their brain. In a polygraph test, the accused person’s physiological
indicators are taken into account which include blood pressure, pulse rate, respiration and skin
conductivity. However experts say that while a person might be able to control their pulse rate and BP
even in times of distress, a BEOSP test offers a much more credible result. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
Q 69.B
• Wastewater undergoes treatment depending upon the purpose for which it is treated. Therefore treatment
of water has two procedures:
• Primary Treatment for removal of gross impurities involves four stages:
o Sedimentation: The wastewater undergoes the physical treatment in which the water is first of all
stored in large basins. Storing the water for a long time in reservoirs, settles gradually sand particles,
clay, silt and other suspended material at the bottom.
o Coagulation or Flocculation: In this process, the sedimented water is subjected to a chemical
process. A coagulant such as aluminium sulphate or alum is added to the water. Fine particles are
removed by promoting their agglomeration or flocculation in the presence of the coagulant. The
coagulant reacts with water and forms a bulky precipitate. The agglomerated particles, known as
floccules, are again separated by sedimentation or filtration. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
o Filtration: It is a physicochemical process for separating suspended and colloidal impurities from
water by passing it through a barrier of sands matrix of fibrous material or coal particles. This process
removes micro-organisms as well as the remaining floc particles.
o Disinfection: The water which undergoes the above three processes is not totally free from micro-
organisms. In order to get rid of the micro-organisms, chlorine or bleaching powder is added to the
water to disinfect it. Sometimes disinfection is carried out by using ultra-violet light, ozolae or silver
ions.
• Secondary Treatment of Water: Water treated by primary treatment is not fit for drinking. Therefore, it
undergoes the process of secondary treatment. The secondary treatment has the following two steps:
o Softening: The hard water has cations of calcium and magnesium. To soften water, Lime and Soda
ash are added to the water to precipitate calcium and magnesium ions as carbonates. The precipitate is
then filtered out. The water so treated goes through a porous cations exchanger in which water
becomes cation free.
o Aeration: In order to make the water fit for drinking some amount of oxygen is forced into it.
Aeration of water is carried, out by forcing air through the water in the form of air bubbles. This
process adds oxygen and other gases and reduces the content of carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulphide
in the water.
Q 70.B
• An important drawback of commercial policy or the import tariff policy is the problem of inverted duty
structure prevailing in different industries. Inverted duty structure is a situation where import duty on
finished goods is low compared to the import duty on raw materials that are used in the production
of such finished goods. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• When the import duty on raw materials is high, it will be more difficult to produce the concerned good
domestically at a competitive price. Several industries depend on imported raw materials and components.
• High tax on the raw materials compels them to raise price. On the other hand, foreign finished goods will
be coming at a reduced price because of low tax advantage. In conclusion, manufactured goods by the
domestic industry become uncompetitive against imported finished goods. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
• The disadvantage of the inverted duty structure increases with the increased use of imported raw
materials. An inverted duty structure discourages domestic value addition.
• Sometimes inverted duty structure also results from various Government Schemes where import duty
reduction is provided (Nil Duty Project Imports, certain Defence purchases). Imports get the benefit of
reduced duties/nil duty but for the same schemes, domestic manufacturers are not given equivalent
exemptions. This creates unfavourable conditions for local manufacturers
• For India, there are several examples of inverted duty structure especially after the signing of the India-
ASEAN FTA.
Q 71.B
• Ocean currents are like river flow in oceans. They represent a regular volume of water in a definite path
and direction.
• Ocean currents are influenced by two types of forces namely:
o primary forces that initiate the movement of water;
o secondary forces that influence the currents to flow.
o The primary forces that influence the currents are (i) heating by solar energy; (ii) wind; (iii) gravity;
(iv) Coriolis force. Heating by solar energy causes the water to expand. That is why near the equator
the ocean water is about 8 cm higher in level than in the middle latitudes. This causes a very slight
gradient and water tends to flow down the slope.
o Wind blowing on the surface of the ocean pushes the water to move. Friction between the wind and
the water surface affects the movement of the water body in its course. Gravity tends to pull the water
down the pile and create gradient variation. The Coriolis force intervenes and causes the water to
move to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. These large
accumulations of water and the flow around them are called Gyres. These produce large circular
currents in all the ocean basins.
• Characteristics of Ocean Currents:
o Currents are referred to by their “drift”. Usually, the currents are strongest near the surface and
may attain speeds over five knots. At depths, currents are generally slow with speeds less than 0.5
knots. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o The speed of the current is referred to as the 'drift' of the current. Drift is measured in terms of
knots. The strength of a current refers to the speed of the current. A fast current is considered
strong. A current is usually strongest at the surface and decreases in strength (speed) with depth.
Most currents have speeds less than or equal to 5 knots.

• Types of Ocean Currents-
o The ocean currents may be classified based on their depth as surface currents and deep water
currents:
o surface currents constitute about 10 per cent of all the water in the ocean, these waters are the upper
400 m of the ocean;
o deep water currents make up the other 90 per cent of the ocean water. These waters move around
the ocean basins due to variations in density and gravity. Deep waters sink into the deep ocean basins
at high latitudes, where the temperatures are cold enough to cause the density to increase. Hence
o Ocean currents can also be classified based on temperature: as cold currents and warm
currents:
o cold currents bring cold water into warm water areas. These currents are usually found on the west
coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes (true in both hemispheres) and on the east coast
in the higher latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere;
o warm currents bring warm water into cold water areas and are usually observed on the east coast of
continents in the low and middle latitudes (true in both hemispheres). In the northern hemisphere, they
are found on the west coasts of continents in high latitudes.
Q 72.C
• Revolutionaries of northern Indian began their reorganisation under the leadership of Sachindranath
Sanhya, Jogest Chatterjee and Ramprasad Bhismil. In October 1924, they met at Kanpur and founded
the Hindustan Republic Association (HRA) and set out the objective of organising an armed revolution
against colonial rule and establishing a Federal Republic of the United States of India with a government
elected on the basis of adult franchise.
• To finance their organisation, the HRA leaders decided to organise dacoities against the government. On
9th August, 1925, ten revolutionaries held up the 8-Down rain from Saharanpur to Lucknow at
Kakori and looted its official Cash. A large number of HRA leaders were tried in the Kakori Conspiracy
case.
• Chittagong armoury raid was an attempt on 18 April 1930 to raid the armoury of police and auxiliary
forces from the Chittagong armoury in the Bengal Presidency of British India by armed Indian
independence fighters led by Surya Sen.
• Lala Lajpat Rai was died in October, 1928 due to lathi blows received during a lathi charge on an anti-
Simon Commission procession. The HSRA vowed to avenge Rai's death. Bhagat Singh, Azad and
Rajguru shot dead Saunders, the police official responsible for the lathicharge in Lahore in December,
1928,
• Hence the correct order is 2-3-4-1.
Q 73.D
• The reign of Harsha is historically important on account of the visit of the Chinese pilgrim Hsuan Tsang,
who left China in AD 629 and travelled all the way to India.
• The pilgrim spent many years in Harsha’s court and travelled widely in India.
• The Chinese account shows that brahmanas and kshatriyas are reported to have led a simple life, but
the nobles and priests led a luxurious life. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Buddhists were divided into 18 sects in the time of the Chinese pilgrim. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
• The old centres of Buddhism had fallen on bad days.
• The most famous centre was Nalanda, which maintained a great Buddhist university meant for Buddhist
monks.
• It is said to have had as many as 10,000 students, all monks.
• They were taught Buddhist philosophy of the Mahayana school.
• According to Hsuan Tsang, the monastery at Nalanda was supported from the revenues of 100
villages. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 74.A
• Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Security headed by Prime Minister gave its approval for a National
Security Directive on the Telecommunication Sector (NSDTS) that will impact the digital and telecom
ecosystem in the country.
• The NSDTS is aimed at preserving the integrity of the supply chain under which the government
will declare a list of trusted sources and trusted products for installation in the country’s telecom
networks. There will also be a list of designated sources from where no procurement is to be
made. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The methodology to designate trusted products will be devised by the designated authority, the
National Cyber Security Coordinator of India, and the list of the trusted source and product
decided on the basis of approval by a committee headed by the Deputy National Security
Adviser and having representation from the relevant ministries, industry bodies and independent
experts. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The directive will apply to new deployment and does not compel the telecom providers to mandatorily
replace the existing equipment or alter the annual maintenance contracts. The present directive does not
envisage mandatory replacement of the existing equipment already inducted in the network. Hence,
Q 75.B
• SMART system
o SMART is a missile assisted release of lightweight anti-submarine torpedo system for anti-
submarine warfare (ASW) operations far beyond torpedo range. Hence pair 3 is correctly
matched.
o The SMART system comprises a mechanism by which the torpedo is launched from a supersonic
missile system with modifications that would take the torpedo to a far longer range than its
own. For example, a torpedo with a range of a few kilometres can be sent a distance to the tune of
1000 km by the missile system from where the torpedo is launched.
o SMART when launched from warship or a truck- based coastal battery, takes off like a regular
supersonic missile. It covers most of its flight in the air at lower altitudes with two-way data link from
the warship or an airborne submarine target detect...
• Shaurya Missile:
o Shaurya is a land variant of short-range nuclear-capable Submarine Launched Ballistic Missile
(SLBM) K-15 Sagarika, which has a range of at least 750 kilometers. It is capable of carrying
payloads of 200 kg to 1000 kg. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
o It is a surface-to-surface tactical missile.
o These ballistic missiles belong to the K missile family - codenamed after late Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam -
which are launched from Arihant class of nuclear submarines.
o Shaurya, like many of modern missiles, is a canister-based system, which means that it is stored and
operated from specially designed compartments. The missile is less vulnerable to anti-ballistic missile
defence systems due to its high maneuverability.
• SANT Missile:
o Stand-off Anti-tank (SANT) Missile developed by the Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) for the Indian Air Force (IAF) and will have both Lock-on After Launch and
Lock-on Before Launch capability. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
Q 76.D
• The fundamental rights (FRs) are enshrined in Part III of Indian constitution from Article 12 to
Article 35.
• Most of them are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those
against the State’s action and against the action of private individuals.
• Fundamental rights are binding both on the State and private individuals are:
o The provision of Article 15 (2) says that no citizen shall be subjected to any disability, liability,
restriction or condition on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth with
regard to
(a) access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment; or
(b) the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, road and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly
by State funds or dedicated to the use of general public. This provision prohibits discrimination
both by the State and private individuals
• Right against untouchability: Article 17 abolishes ‘untouchability’ and fits practice in any form is
forbidden the enforcement of any disability arising out of Untouchability shall be punishable offence in
accordance with law. Hence option (1) is correct
• Right against human Traffic and Forced Labour: Article 23 (1) Traffic in human beings and
begar and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall
be an offence punishable in accordance with law. Hence option (3) is correct.

• Prohibition of Employment of Children in Factories: Article 24 bars child below the age of
fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous
employment. Hence option (2) is correct.
• When the rights that are available against the State’s action only are violated by the private individuals,
there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies
Q 77.D
• After consolidating their position in India, the Delhi Sultans introduced reforms in the land revenue
administration. The lands were classified into three categories:
o Iqta land – lands assigned to officials as iqtas instead of payment for their services.
o Khalisa land – land under the direct control of the Sultan and the revenues collected were spent for
the maintenance of royal court and royal household.
o Inam land – land assigned or granted to religious leaders or religious institutions. Hence pair 1 is
correctly matched.
• The provinces under the Delhi Sultanate were called iqtas. The governors of the provinces were called the
muqtis. They were to maintain law and order and collect the land revenue. The provinces were divided
into shiqs and the next division was pargana. The shiq was under the control of shiqdar. The pargana
comprising a number of villages was headed by amil. He also acted as the revenue officer and tax
collector. The village remained the basic unit of the administration. The village headman was known
as muqaddam or chaudhri. The village accountant was called patwari. Hence pairs 2 and 3 are
correctly matched.
Q 78.B
• Recent context: Recently, the Ministry for Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC)
has released Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) of 146 national parks and wildlife
sanctuaries (NP&WLS) in the country. Jaldapara national park (West Bengal), Raiganj wildlife
sanctuary (West Bengal), Sainj Wildlife Sanctuary (Himachal Pradesh), Tirthan wildlife sanctuary
(Himachal Pradesh) and Great Himalayan national park (Himachal Pradesh) have been declared as top-
five national parks and wildlife sanctuaries in India. Turtle Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttar Pradesh was the
worst performer in the Management Effectiveness Evaluation Report. Jaldapara National Park-
Situated at foothills of Eastern Himalayas in northern West Bengal on the bank of river Torsa. The park is
a connecting link between other protected areas, viz. Buxa Tiger Reserve and Gorumara National Park. It
is a part of the Eastern Dooars Elephant Reserve. Major fauna: Asiatic one-horned rhinoceros, Royal
Bengal Tiger, Elephants, Deer, Hog Deer etc.
• Sainj Wildlife Sanctuary: Located in Himachal Pradesh, it was part of the Great Himalayan National
Park, now bifurcated into a new wildlife sanctuary.
• Turtle wildlife sanctuary: The ‘Kachhua’ or Turtle Wildlife Sanctuary (TWS), the world’s only
protected area dedicated to freshwater turtles. The Turtle Wildlife Sanctuary is a 7 km river stretch
starting from upstream Ramnagar fort to Malviya bridge in the state of Uttar Pradesh. The city of Varanasi
lies on the western bank of the sanctuary. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• Management Effectiveness Evaluation Report: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change,
released Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) of 146 National Park and Wildlife Sanctuaries in
the Country. At present, India has a network of 903 Protected Areas in the country covering about 5% of
the total geographic area of the country. In order to assess the efficacy of Protected Areas, evaluation of
management effectiveness is required, India also has 70% of the global tiger population, 70% of Asiatic
lions and more than 60% of leopards global population. Hence, in order to assess the efficacy of protected
areas, evaluation of management effectiveness is required
• The results of the present assessment are encouraging with an overall mean MEE score of 62.01% which
is higher than the global mean of 56%.
Q 79.C
• Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is the principal source of industrial statistics in India providing
information on important characteristics of the registered manufacturing sector.
• ASI is considered as the most comprehensive and reliable source of organised manufacturing sector data
providing disaggregated industry-specific details of production, investment, employment and costs. It
does not cover unorganised or unregistered or informal sector enterprises.
• ASI is the main survey conducted by the Central Statistics Office (CSO) Industrial Statistics (IS)
wing. It ensures timely dissemination of statistical information to asses and evaluate the dynamics in
composition, growth and structure of the organized manufacturing sector.
• Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) vs Index of Industrial Production
o The Industrial Output data is captured and monitored, primarily, through two statistical activities:
§ Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) on an annual basis;
§ Index of Industrial Production (IIP) on a monthly basis.
o The ASI is conducted under the Collection of Statistics Act, since 1959, to obtain comprehensive and
detailed statistics of the industrial sector with the objective of estimating the contribution of registered
manufacturing industries as a whole to the national income. The IIP is compiled on the basis of data
sourced from 14 ministries/ administrative departments. Data for IIP are collected by various source
agencies under different Acts/statutes. Data received then undergo scrutiny and validation before
finalisation. The output figures for compilation of IIP are authenticated by respective line Ministries/
departments and the ASI data is based on actual book of accounts and other documents maintained by
registered factories.
Q 80.D
• A quantum computer is a computer design which uses the principles of quantum physics to increase the
computational power beyond what is attainable by a traditional computer. Quantum computers have been
built on the small scale and work continues to upgrade them to more practical models.
• Computers function by storing data in a binary number format, which result in a series of 1s & 0s retained
in electronic components such as transistors. Each component of computer memory is called a bit and can
be manipulated through the steps of Boolean logic so that the bits change, based upon the algorithms
applied by the computer program, between the 1 and 0 modes.
• A quantum computer, on the other hand, would store information as either a 1, 0, or a quantum
superposition of the two states. Such a "quantum bit," called a qubit, allows for far greater flexibility than
the binary system.
• Exascale computing is used for computers capable of one billion calculations per second.
• Memocomputer is used for a computer that works by mimicking the human brain.
Q 81.A
• Hira Vijaya Suri was the Supreme leader of "Tapa gaccha‟ branch of Svetambara sect. He was born at
the ancient town of Palanpur of Gujarat. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Under the discipleship of Vijayadeva Suri, he received the status of an "acharya‟ in 1554.
• In 1556 he succeeded his master and became the head of the Jain community.
• As Akbar was always eager to meet the high personalities of different religions, sent a farman to
Shahabuddin Khan, the Governor of Gujarat, asking him to request the jaina monk to visit Agra to meet
him.
• During the jain monk's stay at mughal court, Akbar conferred the title of Jagad Guru (world leader) on
Hiravijaya Suri. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• After four years of his stay at the Mughal Court, Hiravijaya Suri took leave from the emperor and went
back to Gujarat in 1558, leaving behind his pupil Shantichandra at the Court.
Q 82.C
• The National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA) Chandra X-Ray Center (CXC) has
unveiled a new ‘sonification’ project that transforms data from astronomical images into audio.
• Data Sonification refers to the use of sound values to represent real data. It is the auditory version of
data visualisation. In NASA’s Chandra (sonification) project, for instance, data is represented using a
number of musical notes. The birth of a star, a cloud of dust or even a black hole can be ‘heard’ as a high-
or low-pitched sound. Hence, option (c) is correct.
• The sonification project was led by the Chandra X-ray Center in collaboration with NASA’s Universe of
Learning Program (UoL), which aims to “incorporate NASA science content into the learning
environment effectively and efficiently for learners of all ages”.
• Over the years, NASA has been working towards making data about space accessible for a larger
audience. Sonification projects like this allow audiences - including visually-impaired communities - to
experience space through data.
Q 83.B
• Lonar Lake is a lagoon in the Buldhana district of Maharashtra state.
• This wetland on the Deccan Plateau is an endorheic or closed basin, almost circular in shape, formed by
a meteorite impact onto the basalt bedrock. The Site includes the lake as well as escarpments, which form
the crater walls, and forested zones. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The lake is high in salinity and alkalinity, as the lack of an outflow leads to a concentration of minerals as
the lake water evaporates. Specialized micro-organisms such as anaerobes, cyanobacteria and
phytoplankton survive in this harsh chemical environment.
• Outside the lake, there is considerable diversity of plant and animal life, like springs which help feed the
lake provide a source of freshwater. Lonar Lake has been declared as a Wildlife Sanctuary for the
conservation and conservation of Lonar lake. Lonar Lake is a notified National Geo-heritage Monument.
Its water is alkaline. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Recently the water of Lonar Lake in the Buldhana district of Maharashtra turned into pink
colour recently, thus arousing the curiosity of lakhs of people including the scientists. Reportedly, it has
turned out that the pink colour can be attributed due to the Haloarchaea microbes present in the salty
water. Haloarchaea is a bacteria culture that creates pink pigment and exists in saline water.
• Nandur Madhameshwar and Lonar lake are two Ramsar sites from Maharashtra. Hence statement 1 is
not correct.
Q 84.C
• The Government of India subsidizes fertilizers to ensure that fertilizers are easily available to farmers and
the county remains self-sufficient in agriculture. The same has been achieved largely by controlling the
price of fertilizer and the amount of production.
• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, chaired by Prime Minister gives approval for fixation
of Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) rates for Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) Fertilizers.
• NBS is applicable for Di Ammonium Phosphate, Muriate of Potash (MOP), Mono Ammonium
Phosphate, Triple Super Phosphate, 12 grades of complex fertilizers and Ammonium Sulphate,
which were covered under the earlier Concession Scheme for Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) fertilizers
up to 31st March 2010 and Single Super Phosphate (SSP). Primary nutrients, namely Nitrogen 'N',
Phosphate 'P' and Potash 'K' and nutrient Sulphur 'S' contained in the fertilizers mentioned above are
eligible for NBS.
• An Inter-Ministerial Committee (IMC) has been constituted with Secretary (Fertilizers) as
Chairperson and Joint Secretary level representatives of Department of Agriculture & Cooperation
(DAC), Department of Expenditure (DOE), NITI Aayog and Department of Agricultural Research
and Education (DARE). This Committee recommends per nutrient subsidy for 'N', 'P', 'K' and
'S' before the start of the financial year for decision by the Government (Department of Fertilizers). The
IMC also recommends a per tonne additional subsidy on fortified subsidized fertilizers carrying secondary
(other than 'S') and micro-nutrients. The Committee considers and recommends the inclusion of new
fertilizers under the subsidy regime based on the application of manufacturers/ importers and its need
appraisal by the Indian Council for Agricultural Research (ICAR), for decision by the Government.
• Department of Fertilizers releases 85% (90% with Bank Guarantee) 'On Account' payment of subsidy
month-wise to the manufacturers/ importers of P&K fertilizers (SSP) based on receipt of fertilizers in the
districts/States.
Q 85.A
• Cultural traditions from various regions of the country reflect the rich diversity of Regional Music of
India. Each region has its own particular style which showcases the culture and traditions of that particular
region.
• Rasiya Geet, Uttar Pradesh: The rich tradition of singing Rasiya Geet flourished in Braj which is the
sacred land of Lord Krishna’s charming leelas from time immemorial. This is not confined to any
particular festival, but is closely woven into the very fabric of daily life and day to day chores of its
people. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Pankhida, Rajasthan: Sung by the peasants of Rajasthan while doing work in the fields, the peasants
sing and speak while playing algoza and manjira. The literal meaning of the word ‘Pankhida’ is lover.
• Pandavani, Chhattisgarh: In Pandavani, tales from Mahabharata are sung as a ballad and one or two
episodes are chosen for the night’s performance.
• Mando, Goa: Goan regional music is a treasury of the traditional music of the Indian subcontinent.
Mando, the finest creation of Goan song is a slow verse and refrain composition dealing with love,
tragedy and both social injustice and political resistance during Portuguese presence in Goa.
• Laman, Himachal Pradesh: In Laman a group of girls sing a stanza and a group of boys give reply in the
song. This continues for hours. Interesting is that the girls singing on one of the peaks of the hill seldom
see the faces of the boys singing on another peak. In between is the hill which echoes their love song.
Most of these songs are sung especially in Kullu Valley.

• Daskathia, Odisha: Daskathia is a form of ballad singing prevalent in Odisha. Daskathia is a name
derived from a unique musical instrument called “Kathi” or “Ram Tali”, wooden clappers used during the
presentation. The performance is a form of worship and offering on behalf of the “Das”, the
devotee. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Burrakatha, Andhra Pradesh: Burrakatha is a highly dramatic form of ballad. A bottle shaped drum
(tambura) is played by the main performer while reciting a story. The ballad singers, like stage actor, wear
make up and a highly stylised costume. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
Q 86.A
• Certification marks on a commercial product are usually called a mark of validity or an assurance
of the fact that the manufacturer has tested the product and it has ensured that it meets the given
quality standard.
• It also helps to specify the location of the origin, materials of construction, mode of production,
characteristics of the good etc.
• Some of these marks are mandatory while some are advisory.
• A certification mark certifies the nature or origin of the goods or the services to which it has been applied.
• Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), which comes under the aegis of the International Organisation for
Standardisation (ISO standards), govern all the industrial standardization and industrial product
certifications in India. It is thus a national standards organization of India.
• BIS Hallmark:
o The BIS hallmark is a hallmarking system for the sale of precious metal like gold and silver jewellery
in India which certify the purity of the metal.
o It verifies that the jewellery conforms to the standards which are set by the Bureau of Indian
Standards.
• ECO Mark:
o The Government of India has instituted a scheme for labelling environment-friendly products to be
known as ECO Mark. The scheme is being administered by the Bureau of Indian Standards. The
Eco mark Scheme covers various product categories like Soaps and Detergents, Paints, Food Items,
lubricating oils, Packaging materials/Package, Architectural Paints and Powder Coatings, Batteries,
Electrical and electronic goods, Food Additives, Wood Substitutes, Cosmetics, Aerosols and
Propellants, Plastic Products, Textiles, Fire-extinguisher, Leather and Coir & Coir Products
o The Scheme is being operated on a national basis and provides certification and labelling for
household and other consumer products which meet certain environmental criteria along with quality
requirements prescribed in relevant Indian Standards for the product.
• FPO Mark:
o In India, all processed and packaged fruit products are mandated to be certified with FPO Mark. Food
process order or FPO mark is issued by the Ministry of Food Processing Industry which also
develops the standards for this mark. The mark was named after the law called Fruit Products offer.
FPO certification in India is effective since 1955 but became mandatory only in 2006 after the Food
Safety and Standards Act. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 87.C
• Recently, Government approved the updation of the National Population Register (NPR) along with the
House listing phase of Census 2021 during April to September 2020 but currently exercise was postponed
indefinitely until further orders on March 25 due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
• About National Population Register(NPR)
• It is a Register of usual residents of the country which is being prepared at the local (Village/sub-
Town), sub-District, District, State and National level under provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955 and
the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
• It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR. A usual resident is defined for
the purposes of NPR as a person who has resided in a local area for the past 6 months or more or a
person who intends to reside in that area for the next 6 months or more. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• The database collected under NPR would contain demographic as well as biometric particulars. Hence
• The data for NPR was collected in 2010 along with the houselisting phase of Census of India
2011 then updated in 2015. Now it has been decided to update the NPR along with the Houselisting
phase of Census 2021 during April to September 2020 in all the States/UTs except Assam. Hence
• Additional Information:
o Census is legally backed by the Census Act, 1948, the NPR is a mechanism outlined in a set
of rules framed under the Citizenship Act, 1955.
o Section 14A was inserted in the Citizenship Act, 1955, in 2004, providing for the compulsory
registration of every citizen of India and the issue of a “national identity card” to him or her. It also
said the Central government may maintain a “National Register of Indian Citizens”.
• The Registrar General India shall act as the “National Registration Authority” (and will function as the
Registrar General of Citizen Registration). Incidentally, the Registrar General is also the country’s Census
Commissioner.
Q 88.C
• Credit-deposit ratio, popularly CD ratio, is the ratio of how much a bank lends out of the deposits it has
mobilized. This ratio conveys how much of each rupee of the deposit is going towards credit markets.
o Credit -Deposit Ratio = (Total bank credit)/Aggregate Deposits (Demand + Time Deposits).
• Higher growth in credit deposit ratio suggests credit growth is rising quickly, which could lead to
excessive risks and leveraging on the borrowers side. In the case of banks, it could imply that there will be
a rise in NPAs when the economic cycle reverses. This ratio serves as a useful measure to understand the
systemic risks in the economy.
• RBI does not stipulate a minimum or maximum level for the ratio, but a very low ratio indicates banks are
not making full use of their resources. Alternatively, a high ratio indicates more reliance on deposits for
lending and likely pressure on resources.
• In 2020, the credit-deposit (CD) ratio has consistently declined from 75% levels in January to 71.3% in
December. Falling CD ratio is an indicator of excess liquidity because of higher deposits with the
banking system and the lack of alternatives in credit markets.
• Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Q 89.A
• The powers of the LG of Puducherry are different from the ones of the LG of Delhi.
• The LG of Delhi has “Executive Functions” that allow him to exercise his powers in matters connected to
public order, police and land “in consultation with the Chief Minister, if it is so provided under any order
issued by the President under Article 239 of the Constitution”. Simply put, the LG of Delhi enjoys greater
powers than the LG of Puducherry. The LG of Puducherry has no such “Executive Functions or powers”.
Puducherry legislative assembly deals with all these matters. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 provides for a Legislative Assembly of Pondicherry, with a
Council of Ministers to govern the “Union Territory of Pondicherry”. It states that the UT will be
administered by the President of India through an Administrator (Lieutenant Governor).
• LG of Delhi is guided by the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991, the
Transaction of Business of the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Rules, 1993, and Union
Territories Act, 1963. Thus the LG of Delhi enjoys greater powers than the LG of Puducherry. LG of
Puducherry is guided mostly by the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 and provisions under it.
Thus it’s power are limited. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Articles 239 and 239AA of the Constitution, as well as the Government of National Capital Territory of
Delhi Act, 1991, clearly underline that Delhi is a UT, where the Centre, whose eyes and ears are the LG,
has a much more prominent role than in Puducherry. Article 239AA imposes several restrictions on the
legislature of Delhi.
• Under the constitutional scheme, the Delhi Assembly has the power to legislate on all subjects except law
and order and land. The Puducherry Assembly can legislate on any issue under the Concurrent and State
Lists.
Q 90.B
• Recent Context – The Supreme Court Judgement upholding the validity of SC/ST Amendment Act
2008 is particularly notable because of its enlightening discussion on the Constitutional concept of
"fraternity".
• About the Concept of Fraternity: - The term Fraternity was not part of the Objective resolution. However
it was mentioned in the Preamble to signify the need for fraternal concord in India. The idea of
Fraternity is poignantly embedded through the provisions of Part III. It assures true equality, where
the state treats all alike, assures the benefits of growth and prosperity to all, with equal liberties to all, and
guarantees that every citizen treats every other citizen alike. The Articles 15, 17 and 24 promotes the ideal

of fraternity. The idea of Fraternity find vision in the French and American constitutions and charters of
independence.
• The idea of fraternity also finds mention in Art. 51A(e), where it is the duty of every citizen “to
promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending
religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practice derogatory to the dignity of
women”. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 91.A
• About SERB – SUPRA scheme - Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) has developed a
scheme that seeks to explore new scientific breakthroughs, with long-term impact on our fundamental
scientific understanding, and offer disruptive technologies at the cutting edge.
• SERB-SUPRA (Scientific and Useful Profound Research Advancement) is a scheme beyond normal
core grants and purposefully designed for high quality proposals consisting of new hypothesis or
challenge existing ones, and provide 'out-of-box' solutions. Transformative and disruptive research
concepts based on innovative and unproven hypothesis, possessing a high degree of uncertainty, yet
having conviction to produce a lasting impact across discipline boundaries qualify for support under
SERB-SUPRA. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Most important measures of this scheme are:
o Quantum of advances (incremental and short terms gains are strongly discouraged).
o Extent of disruption in fundamental understanding or impact on outstanding research grand
challenges: new areas, new concepts, new products, new disruptive technologies.
o Ability of research outcomes in enhancing scientific knowledge of the cutting-edge at the
international level and/or emergence of critical technologies.
o Global impact, outstanding publications, advancement of science.
• The SUPRA scheme provides research support to an individual researcher or a group of researchers
working in a recognized academic institution or national laboratory or in other recognized R & D
institutions in India. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 92.D
• Recent Context - CURIE initiative of the Department of Science and Technology (DST) is enhancing
research facilities in women universities.
• About CURIE initiative –CURIE stands for Consolidation of University Research for Innovation &
Excellence in Women Universities. It was started in the year 2008-09.
• It is an initiative of Department of Science and Technology, Ministry of Science and Technology. Hence
• It aims to support women universities for improving R&D infrastructure and enhance research
facilities. Research facilities in 8 women universities have been enhanced with support from the CURIE
initiative. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• CURIE support resulted in a significant increase of student enrolment at undergraduate, postgraduate, and
Ph.D. levels in CURIE supported Universities. It has also enhanced the number of NET/GATE qualified
students. Extramural funding has also been increased due to the presence of sophisticated labs, which
resulted in publications in high impact factor journals.
• CURIE-AI facility initiative have been started in the year 2019. DST established an Artificial Intelligence
lab in 6 CURIE beneficiary universities with the goal of fostering AI innovations and set up AI-friendly
infrastructure to prepare skilled manpower for AI-based jobs in the future. This facility is exposing
women students from these universities to different AI tools and will improve the employability of
women in this upcoming sector.
• The Department of Science and Technology (DST) is implementing ‘Knowledge Involvement in Research
Advancement through Nurturing (KIRAN)’ Scheme to provide various career opportunities for women
scientists and technologists. It is primarily aimed to bring gender parity in the Science & Technology
sector by inducting more women talent in the research & development domain through various
programmes. CURIE & CURIE-AI facility of the Department under the KIRAN scheme, including other
schemes, empowers women in science and technology.
Q 93.D
• Recent Context – Recently, India has been elected to three subsidiary bodies of ECOSOC.
• India has been elected to three subsidiary body of ECOSOC. They are:
o Commission on the status of Women – It is the principal global intergovernmental body exclusively
dedicated to the promotion of gender equality and the empowerment of women. It was established in
June 1946 as a functional commission of the Economic and Social Council.
o Commission on Population and Development – It assists ECOSOC in the implementation of the
Programme of Action of the International Conference on Population and Development.
o Committee for Programme and Coordination (CPC) – It is the main subsidiary organ of the
ECOSOC and the UN’s General Assembly for planning, programming and coordination.
• About ECOSOC
• It is the principal body for coordination, policy review, policy dialogue and recommendations on
economic, social and environmental issues, as well as implementation of internationally agreed
development goals. ECOSOC coordinates economic, social, and related work of the fourteen United
Nations specialized agencies, functional commissions and five regional commissions. It serves as the
central forum for discussing international economic and social issues, and for formulating policy
recommendations addressed to Member States and the United Nations system. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• It has 54 members, elected by the General Assembly for overlapping three-year terms. Hence statement 2
is correct.
• It coordinates the work of the 14 UN specialized agencies, ten functional commissions and five regional
commissions, receives reports from nine UN funds and programmes and issues policy recommendations
to the UN system and to member states.
• Few important bodies under the purview of ECOSOC:
o International labour Organization (ILO)
o Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
o United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
o World Health Organization (WHO)
o Bretton Woods Twins (World Bank Group and International Monetary Fund)
o United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF)
o Apart from these there are various Functional and Regional Commissions, Standing Committees, Ad
Hoc and Expert Bodies as well.
• Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 94.B
• In 1923, the British Government in pursuance of their declared policy of associating Indians with every
branch of administration constituted a Commission under the Chairmanship of Lord Lee to inquire into
the organisation and general conditions of services and also the methods of recruitment for
Europeans as well as Indians. It came to be known as Royal Commission on the Superior Civil Services
in India. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• The Lee Commission recommended that
o the secretary of state should continue to recruit the ICS, the Indian Forest Service, etc.;
o the recruitments for the transferred fields like education and civil medical service be
made by provincial governments;
o direct recruitment to ICS on basis of 50:50 parity between the Europeans and the Indians be
reached in 15 years;
o a Public Service Commission be immediately established (as laid down in the Government of India
Act, 1919).
Q 95.B
• The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) under the Jal Shakti Ministry recently issued the latest
guidelines to regulate the extraction of groundwater.
• Provisions under the new guidelines:
• No objection certificate (NoC): It is mandatory for new and existing industries, group housing
societies, infrastructure projects, mining projects and bulk water suppliers abstracting groundwater to
get a no-objection certificate (NOC) for withdrawal of groundwater.
• Over exploited areas: NoCs in ‘over-exploited’ areas will only be granted to micro, small and medium
enterprises (MSME).
o Over-exploited’ areas as those where the groundwater development is more than 100%, that is, the
annual groundwater consumption is more than its recharge, according to the Central Ground Water
Board(CGWB).
• Exemption from getting NoC: The guidelines have exempted 5 categories from getting a no-
objection certificate:
o individual domestic consumers in both rural and urban areas for drinking water and domestic uses.
o rural drinking water supply schemes;
o Armed Forces Establishments and Central Armed Police Forces establishments in both rural and
urban areas;
o agricultural activities;
o micro and small enterprises drawing groundwater less than 10 cubic m/day. Hence option (b) is the
correct answer.
• Residential societies will have to install sewage treatment plants (STPs) for getting NOCs if their
groundwater requirement is more than 20 cubic m /day.
o Under the condition, water from STPs will be utilised for toilet flushing, car washing, gardening, etc
• Annual water audits: It makes annual water audits compulsory for industrial users apart from mandating
impact assessment for granting no-objection certificates (NOCs) for groundwater extraction.
• Protection of Wetland Areas: Projects falling within 500 m. from the periphery of demarcated wetland
areas shall mandatorily submit a detailed proposal indicating that any groundwater abstraction by the
project proponent does not affect the protected wetland areas.
o Furthermore, before seeking permission from CGWA, the projects shall take consent/approval from
the appropriate Wetland Authorities to establish their projects in the area.
• Environmental Compensation: Extraction of groundwater for commercial use by industries,
infrastructure units and mining projects without a valid NOC will be considered illegal and they will be
liable to pay Environmental Compensation for groundwater extracted.
o The minimum compensation will be at least Rs 1 lakh.
• Penalty: Non-compliance of NOC conditions may attract a penalty between Rs 50,000 and Rs 10 lakh.
o Guidelines authorise district authorities to take enforcement measures like sealing of abstraction
structures and prosecuting those violating the NOC conditions.
• Groundwater usage in India
• India uses the most groundwater in the world, extracting 253 bcm (billion cubic metres) per year. This
is approximately 25% of the global groundwater extraction.
• Out of the total 6,881 assessment units, 17% have been categorised as ‘over-exploited’, 5% as ‘critical’,
14% as ‘semicritical’ units and 63% as ‘safe’.
o Majority of the over-exploited units are concentrated in parts of Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, western UP,
Rajasthan, Gujarat, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Tamil Nadu.
• According to the country’s minor irrigation census 2013-14, 87.86% of groundwater wells are owned by
marginal, small and semi-medium farmers having landholding up to four hectares.
Q 96.D
• A Sanitary landfill is a way of disposing of refuse on land without creating nuisances or hazards to
public health or safety. The waste is packed and dumped at the site and is covered with earth daily
to prevent insects or rodents from entering the landfill.
• The waste disposal is carried out with minimal environmental damage and in areas already spoiled or in
need of restoration.
• The sanitary landfill system of disposing of the waste is essentially a biological method. The waste
undergoes the following five phases:
o During the first phase of operation, aerobic bacteria deplete the available oxygen and as a result the
temperature increases.
o In the second phase, anaerobic conditions become established and hydrogen and carbon dioxide are
evolved.
o Phase three establishes a population of bacteria and the beginning of the methanogenic activity.
o In the fourth phase, the methanogenic activities become stabilised.
o The fifth phase depletes the organic matter, and the system returns to an aerobic state.
• The advantages of a sanitary landfill as opposed to open dumping are:
o It is free from air pollution from burning.
o The health problems are minimised since flies, rats and other pests cannot breed in the landfill
because of the covered wastes.
o It is mostly free of fire hazards. Last year fire broke out at Sonsoddo sanitary landfill in Goa. Hence
option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 97.B
• The Vijayanagara kings competed with contemporary rulers – including the Sultans of the Deccan and the
Gajapati rulers of Orissa – for control of the fertile river valleys and the resources generated by lucrative
overseas trade.
• The rulers of Vijayanagara, who called themselves rayas. In the popular traditions of Vijayanagara,
the Deccan Sultans are termed as ashvapati or lord of horses and the rayas are called narapati or lord
of men. Gajapati literally means lord of elephants. This was the name of a ruling lineage that was very
powerful in Orissa in the fifteenth century. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• As warfare during these times depended upon effective cavalry, the import of horses from Arabia and
Central Asia was very important for rival kingdoms. This trade was initially controlled by Arab traders.
Local communities of merchants known as kudirai chettis or horse merchants also participated in these
exchanges. From 1498 other actors appeared on the scene. These were the Portuguese, who arrived on the
west coast of the subcontinent and attempted to establish trading and military stations. Their superior
military technology, especially the use of muskets, enabled them to become important players in the
tangled politics of the period. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 98.B
• Red Soils are derived from granites, gneisses and other metamorphic rocks. These are formed under well-
drained conditions. The soil is found along the piedmont zone of the Western Ghat, a long stretch of area
is occupied by red loamy soil. Yellow and red soils are also found in parts of Orissa and Chhattisgarh and
in the southern parts of the middle Ganga plain. They encircle the black cotton soil zone. The soil
develops a reddish colour due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It looks
yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form. Often, their upper layer is red and the lower layer is yellow.
The texture of the soil varies from sand to clay and loam. The soil has a porous and friable structure. They
are generally poor in nitrogen, phosphorous and humus. These soils are airy and need irrigation for
cultivation. The soil is locally called ‘Chalka’ in Andhra Pradesh.
• Alluvial soils are widespread in the northern plains and the river valleys. They are depositional soils,
transported and deposited by rivers and streams. The alluvial soils vary in nature from sandy loam to
clay. They are generally rich in potash but poor in phosphorous.
• These soils are black in colour and are also known as regur soils. Black soil is ideal for growing cotton
and is also known as black cotton soil. It is believed that climatic condition along with the parent rock
material is the important factors for the formation of black soil. This type of soil is typical of the Deccan
trap (Basalt) region spread over the northwest Deccan plateau and is made up of lava flows. These soils
are generally poor in phosphoric contents.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 99.B
• The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled
areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
Mizoram. As these areas are inhabited by ‘aboriginals’ who are socially and economically rather
backward, and special efforts need to be made to improve their condition.
• Some of the features of administration contained in the Fifth Schedule are
o It is the President who is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He can also
increase or decrease its area alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh
orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state
concerned. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o The governor is empowered to organise and re-organise the autonomous districts (Under Schedule
VI).
o However, governor is assigned certain responsibilities to administrate scheduled areas
§ The governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of Parliament or the state
legislature does not apply to a scheduled area or apply with specified modifications and
exceptions. Hence statement 2 is correct.
§ He can also make regulations for the peace and good government of a scheduled area after
consulting the tribes advisory council ( It is established in schedule areas for the betterment and
participation of schedule tribes)
§ governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas. He has to submit a report to the
president regarding the administration of such areas, annually or whenever so required by the
president

Q 100.D
• Cordillera is a system or group of parallel mountain ranges together with the intervening plateaux
and other features, especially in the Andes or the Rockies. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
• Cordilleras are an extensive feature in the Americas and Eurasia. In North America, the Rocky
Mountains, the Sierra Nevadas, and the mountains between them are collectively known as the
Cordilleras, and the entire area has been termed the Cordilleran region.
• The term Cordillera is used with a directional modifier (e.g., Cordillera Oriental) to differentiate the
various chains of the Andes Mountains as they extend through Colombia, Venezuela, Bolivia, and other
countries in South America.
• Although cordilleras exist all over the world, in North America, “the Cordilleras” indicate the massive
mountain ranges in the western part of the continent. The Cordilleras extend from Canada all the way to
the Isthmus of Panama.
• The Sierra Madre mountain system is part of the Cordilleras. The Sierra Madre stretch from the
southwestern United States to Honduras. The Sierra Madre includes many high volcanoes (up to 5,636
meters, or 18,500 feet) that stretch across Mexico south of the cities of Guadalajara and Mexico City.
• Volcanic mountain ranges in Guatemala, Honduras, Nicaragua, Costa Rica, and Panama are also
considered part of the Cordilleras. Volcanic eruptions and earthquakes occur frequently in this
region. Volcanic activity can destroy towns and cities. It also contributes to the rich, fertile soils of the
region.
• Some of the Earth’s youngest mountains are in the Cascade Range of the U.S. states of Washington,
Oregon, and California. Some peaks began to form only about a million years ago—a blink of an eye in
Earth’s long history. The mountains include temperate rain forest—a biome unique to the area. The
temperate rain forest receives an incredible amount of precipitation, between 254 to 508 centimeters (100
to 200 inches) annually. However, its cool winters and mild summers promote the growth of mosses,
ferns, fungi, and lichens.
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