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What is the NPV of the project (in Rs.) with a 3-year life and a
cost of Rs.32000 and a working capital requirement of Rs. 2500
generates cash flows of Rs.8000 in year 1 Rs.12000 in year 2 and
6 Rs.17000 in year 3. Discount rate is 5%.
What is the payback period (in years) for a project that costs Rs.
120000 and would yield after-tax cash flows of Rs. 20000 the 1st
year Rs. 22000 the second year Rs. 25000 the third year Rs.
27000 the fourth year Rs. 31000 the fifth year and Rs. 37000 the
16 sixth year.
A TOT Project with a 3-year life has following cash inflows: Year
1 - $5000 Year 2 - $10000 Year 3 - $15000 and needs an
investment of $10000. The cost of capital is 10%. What is the
NPV of the project under the LCM method if the sponsor opts to
28 repeat the project to match a 6-year life.
PI > 1 PI < 1
IRR XIRR
Project A Project B
848.23 3348.23
$5661.6 $4560.8
1111 9000
Fixes the responsibility of the
contractor to rectify the plant if it fails
to meet guaranteed performance
parameters and penalties or liquidation Helps the banker in clearly resolving
damages if the plant fails to meet disputes between shareholders once the
performance parameters. SPV starts getting profits.
4.75 4.08
Ignores cash flows beyond the first year Ignores time value of money
1.9 0.53
Capitalized Expensed
Project Cost Operation and Maintenance Cost
0.4 0.5
$24658 $23582
PI = 1 PI = 0 2
MIRR NPV 3
-1311.36 1118.64 1
$5830.9 $4925.8 1
10000 12345 3
Defines maintenance obligations that
will ensure that the project or the
facility is maintained as per the Details the equity and debt needed to fund a
industry best practices. project. 1
4.56 4.84 4
0.1 0.9 2
0.3 0.2 1
$26058 $25159 1
Swaps Forwards 2
₹ 848.23 848.234531907998
0.52631579 up factor =1/down factor
1/1.9
6 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3
14079.64
0.909091
0.826446
0.751315
2.486852 5661.632
NPV(B6,B
₹ 848.23
3:B5)+B2
$848.23
Year 1.1
0 1
8 1 0.909090909091
2 0.826446280992
3 0.751314800902
4 0.683013455365
5 0.620921323059
5661.632
NPV 14079.64
N -3
R 10%
5661.632 5661.63167371601
10 PI 0.9
Returns 11111
PV 9999.9
12345.5555555556
16 -120000
1 20000 20000
2 22000 42000
3 25000 67000
4 27000 94000
5 31000 125000 26000 10.06452 0.83871
37000 162000
28 Year 0 1 2 3 4 5
PV Factors 1 1 1 1 1
0.91 0.826446280992 0.751315 0.683013 0.620921
Calculate the project NPV without the option and add the estimate
Overall NPV = Project NPV (usual methods) - option cost + option value
§If the project is a success, the probability of which is 50% we will receive
§However, if the project is a failure with equal probability, we will receive
§The project’s expected NPV with the abandonment option is:
NPV = 50% x 393 + 50% x (-254) = $69.5
§The value of the option is:
Overall NPV = Project NPV – Option Cost + Option Value
$69.5 = – $71.35 + Net value of the abandonment optio
Net value of the abandonment option = $69.5 – (– $71.35)
-32000 1 -34500
8000 0.95 7600
12000 0.9 10800
17000 0.86 14620
-2500 0.86 -2150
₹ -6,290.94
6
15,000
15000.00
1
0.564474
8467.11
e rate)
0% we will receive $600 at the end of each of the three years in the net present value in
ity, we will receive $200 at the end of 1st year plus the salvage value of $650 at the end
ption is:
54) = $69.5
+ Option Value
bandonment option
$69.5 – (– $71.35) = $140.85
present value in this scenario will be $393.
$650 at the end of 1st year, and the NPV will be -$254.
CAPM Capital Asset Pricing Model
Rf = Government bond yield WACC = wt. d x cost of debt + wt. e x cost of equity + wt. p x
+
Beta BASIC CAPM CAPM = Rf + Beta x (Rm - Rf)
x Cost of equity
(Rm-Rf) CAPM (Capital Asset Pricing Model) = Risk fre
Unlevered Beta/Pure Beta/Asset Beta = Equity Beta or Levered Beta / (1+(1-Tax Rate) x (Debt/Equit
Unlevering the beta removes any beneficial or detrimental effects gained by adding debt to the
2. Relevering Beta - reintroduce the leverage risk
Relevered Beta/Project Beta = Unlevered Beta/Asset Beta x (1+(1-Tax Rate) x (Debt/Equity)) - All da
Amazon Flipkart
Tax Rate 25.0% 25.0%
Debt % 15.0% 30.0%
Equity % 85.0% 70.0%
Levered Beta 1.15 Ex: NSE/BSE/Financial Reporing Website/Yahoo Finance
Project Beta 1.34
Cost of Debt
Asset Pricing Model) = Risk free rate (Rf) + Beta x (Expected return from equity markets (Rm) - Rf)
Ind AS 116 - modifications ====> operating lease will be recorded on the balance sheet ----> lessee
Lessee
1. Operating lease - earlier he used to show an expense of 12,000 on P&L ----> lead to lower PAT
finance the car for you - loan on the balance sheet (providing you the financing for the car)
However, if this would have been an operating lease in earlier scenario (without the rule changes
the owner of the asset is the lessor
Lease income 12,000 12,000 12,000
(-) Depreciation 10,308 10,308 10,308
Net profit 1,692 1,692 1,692
sheet ----> lessee
ad to lower PAT
BS
P&L (Interest coverage ratios)
P&L
LEASE RECEIVABLES
5,075
5,075
Investment = $80
Value of investment opportunity = $100
180 UP FACTOR (u) = 1.8
100 DOWN FACTOR (d) = 0.6
60 True Probability of an up move = 50%
True Probability of a down move = 50%
Discount rate = 20%
Key thing - the risk has been incorporated in the denominator ( 1 / (1 + r)^n)
You can also factor in the risk in the numerator by using Risk Neutral Probability
Certainty equivalent models or risk neutral valuation
(50% x 180 + 50% x 60) / (1 + 20%) = 100 = (p x 180 + (1-p) x 60) / (1 + risk free rate)
p represents the risk neutral probability which may be different than true probabilities
For a scenario where there is a truncation of payoff - you will have to use risk neutral valuation