Vo _. cee MODEL QUESTION PAPER Answer the questions 1-21 as per SNT-TC-1A 1. An NOT personnel may be reexamined and his certificate revokod or extended a) Alter maximum recertification interval of 3 years for Level ~ | and Level ~ Il and 6 years for professional Level ~ {Il —»@) At the discretion of the employer %) At the discretion of the Level ~ Il holder employed by the examiner 4d) None of the above 2. The current edition of SNT-TC-1A (1996) includes methods the latest being a) 10, visual and optical testing (VT) ) 10, vibration analysis ¢) 14, Infrared / thermal testing ——2@ 11. vibration analysis @)_ 10, infrared / thermal testing ‘The recommended initial training and experience levels for liquid penetrant , magnetic particle, ultrasonic and leak testing for Level ~ | and Level ~ Il is given below : Examination | Level Technique Training Hours | Experience in Method e fi : months MT 1 2 7 3 1 2 3 9 2 0: Et 1 per 1. U1 PCT __| 16 4 1 HOLT {12 5k Seanane 7 HOLT 8 4 i T MSL 40 \4 ae il eee 2a — 18 A candidate with high school background wishes to appear for level - Il surface NDT ~ "methods (liquid penetrant and magnetic particle) after working in a company for 15 months, During this period, the candidate works Ih the areas of LPT, MPT, RT, UT! and VT spending equal times in each of the techniques separately. “The company follows SNT-TC-1A as itis. The candidate is not eligible to appear since he has spent loss than 25 % of his time in each technique eectb) He is ellgible to appear since the experience he has meets the requirements as prescribed In SNT-TC-1A. ©) He is eligible to appear only in penetrant testing only d) He is eligible to appear in magnetic particle testing only ¢) He is eligible to appear provided the NDT level ~ Ill in the company permits him to do 80, 4. Acanditiate with adequate experince of 4 years In leak tasting only wishes to appear for Level — I! in bubble testing and helium leak testing methods. The ‘minimum number of training hours that he should have undergone is a) 2 for BT and 12 for HOLT b) 4 for BT and 8 for HOLT >) 6 for BT and 20 for HOLT @) Any of the above e) None of the above 5. If the candidate mentioned in the previous question wishes to apply for Level ~ IIt directly without appearing for Level ~ It ---~" >a) He can apply since he has adequate experience ») He cannot apply directly since his educational background is only high school and a NDT level - tll requires mit\imum graduate in engineering or science from a college echnical school L0) He can apply provided the written practice established by the company has such a yd provision Hos to ba clarified by the Training and Corlification dopartmnont of ASN None of the above . A candidate desires to attend Level ~ 1 in surface NDT method which includes Liquid Penetrant and magnetic particle technique. The minimum number of samples Fequired for the candidate to demonstrate the proficiency Is : One SS Two + Ten 4. Five 7. All the questions in the Level | and Level {I examinations : Must be made by the Level tI examiner himself only spb. May be compiled by the Level ll examiner ‘Must be compiled by the employer ‘Must be prepared by the national level society of NDT ee 8. Passing the ASNT Level Ill examination indicates that the successful applicant : —>(2) He has been tested by ASNT: ‘But'his employer is his certifyingagency and can certify him to Level Ill for the company based on the ASNT Level III result, provided that a provision for the same is. Incorporated in his written document b. Is of world standard in the method certified for c. Is accepted worldwide 4d. Is equivalent to level 3.6 as per CSWIP 9. Even after passing the Level Il ASNT examination, the employer may not certify the applicant to Level Ill > 2) The provision for accepting the ASNT Level Ill result is not. incorporated / inthe written procedure b. The inspecting surveyors do not agree ‘Le. The applicant is nota graduate . . The applicant is above §0 yoars of aga 10. The skills and knowledge required by a Level - {i In a given method Is best described by a. He shall have the skills and knowledge to perform calibrations and tests with prior written approval of Level - Il b. He shall have the skills and knowiedge to designate, perform calibrations, conduct tests, evaluate and documents results in accordance with procedures approved by Level - Ii cj He should have the skills and knowledge to designate, perform > _ calibration, conduct test, evaluate and documents results in accordance with procedures approved by Level - Ill : d. All of the above 11. The minimum education qualification requirements of a NDT Level ~ Ill are: a. College degree b. High school diploma ¢. Doctorate > @) None of the above 12, A company has in its NDT Level Il General written examination paper a total of 60 questions, One of the unsuccessful applicants contests this and says that this is illegal since even ASNT recommends 40 questions only. What is your decision ? . The company Is free to have 60 questions In the examination for Level II ASNT recommends 40 questions as a minimum number not a maximum The company is well within its rights if the number of questions is -” incorporated in its written procedure. 4. The unsuccessful applicant is justifigd 13. The procedure for the qualification and certification of NDT personnel in a company shall be :~——....5#. Developed by the Level - III personnel designated by employer and approved by the employer b) Developed by the employer and approved by a Level — Ill personnel designated by the employer ©. Developed by an outside agency engaged by the employer and approved by a Level - Il 4, Developed by the employer and approved by an Level ~ Ill designated by an outside agency €. Developed as per SNT-TC-1A by ASNT. 14. Which of the following cannot be a valid reason for termination of certification of a NOT Level tl employee 7 ——-»f2,) Promotion to a higher post within the same organization 8. Completion of three years afler intial certification ¢, Termination of service 4, Physical disability directly affecting the faculties necessary for the particular NDT function or method. 18.A certified NDT Level Il operative resigns from his job and joins another company, This new company can certify him to his original level (Lovel il) based on evidence of his earlier certification and proven documented experience without re-examination : a, The new compahy has managers whoa re from moral turpitude 2b; This procedure for re-certification is incorporated in its written procedure ©. The employee is willing to execute a service bond 4, The employee has no police record 16. private company in which the chief is an NDT Level ~ III wishes to appoint an NOT instructor. The minimum criteria required for the instructor is: a, Be a graduate of a two-year school of science, engineering, or NDT and have five years of experience as an-NDT Level Il, or equivalent, in the NDT method to be taught. . Have ten or more years of NDT experience as an NDT Level - Il, of equivalent, in the NOT method to be taught Possess a current ASNT NDT Level Ill certificate in the NDT method to be taught d. Have academic credentials at least equivalent to a B.S. in engineering, He 9 physical science, or technology, and possess adequate knowledge in the 4 . NDT method to be taught ver + 17-Automatic termination of certification ig recommended when the certified individual: ‘a 8, Temporarily assigned to a different job function b. Take a leave of absence greater than 90 days 5>f¢. Terminates employment with the employer where certified d. Achieve a higher level of certification18. Certification Is: =>~(a) Written testimony of qualification b. An authority to represent the employer . ©. Any proof, direct or indiroct, writton or axprossod about the ¢ tho person d. A proof of capability 19. Qualification is: _-392.) Demonstrated skill, training, knowledge and experience required to ~~” perform a specific job b. A certificate of merit c. Acader achievement with good extra curricular activities d. None of the above 20, A person has been certified in accordance with SNT-TC-1A 1992 by a NDT Level = lll personnel in a company as a Level in radiography and ultrasonics, During the ultrasonic testing and evaluation of welded joints, the customer wants him to evaluate and sign the final acceptance of NDE examination: a. No, as per SNT-TC-1A, 1992 the NDT Level - | personnel is required to perform the testing alone and is not supposed to evaluate the test results. b. Yes, a Level Ill personnal may delegate the powers to Level - | for i. evaluation of test results. ©, Yes, as per SNT-TC-1A is that the Level-| personnel may perform the + above function provided they are In accordance with written procedures and so documented in the employer's written procedure Rd. Both b and ¢ @, None of the above 24.[s it necessary that the personnel who operates a fibre optical borescope for Visual examination be qualified and certified ? 2., No, because SNT-TC-1A does not cover that specific operation >'e.; Whether any NOT personnel should be qualified and certified depends solely upon the need of the employer and the need of the employer's customers or clients ©. Yes, because SNT-TC-1A required that all persorinel performing NDT be qualified and certified 4. Only if required by specific codes and standard Answer the questions 22-36 as per CP-189 22. The physical test for the personnel being certified : Must be conducted by the certified level IIl examiner May be conducted by a medical practitioner, by the level Ill examiner ) himself or by anyone appointed for this purpose by him¢. Must be conducted by an ophthalmologist d, Must be conducted by a Ph.D 23. The certifying authority for all levels Is : a. ASNT >, The employer of the concerned personnel The government d. The local NDT society 24. The minimum number of check points required in a level | practical examination is: a 5 fb) 10 ‘o! 15 ¢. 20 25. Candidates failing in an examination must wait for a minimum period of ~~ 2@) 30 days b. One calendar month ©. 100 days d. 6 months 26. Which of the following statements is not correct as per CP-189 7 ——~>a._ The NDT level Ill must be well versed with all other methods of NDT b. The NOT level Ill must have sufficient practical background in applicable materials fabrication and product technology ©. The NDT level Ill should be able to assist in establishing acceptance criteria where none are other available d. Allof the above 27. In the near vision test, CP-189 rocommonds that the applicant should be able to read at least the number lectures on the Jaeger chart a. v4 + 28. Aprocess of deter tation of a significance of a relevant indication Is : A. Interprotation Ab) Evaluation & Either interpretation or evaluation d. None of the above 29. As per CP-189, training the candidates for Level | or Ita. Is obligatory on the part of trainee b. Can be decided by employer ©) Shall be. approved by Level Ill ~~ 2d: Has to be conducted as par tho guidelines given in the document 30, A candidate has been examined by a Level Iil (outside agency) and Is certified to Levdl It in accordance with ASNT-SNT-TC-1A. The employer now wishes a certificate in accordance with CP-189 to the said employee and requests the Level Ill to issue a certificate. What should be done ? a. Since he is already certified, by Level III may issue a certificate directly b. He has to be re-examined and then only Level Ill can issue a certificate ©. His credentials need to be verified before issue of certificate and if found ©.K. a certificate may be Issued by Level Ill directly If the employer certification procedure is in line with CP-189, he can be \/ directly certified 31. The authority for administration and grading of examination for the level-! and Level =Il personnel is &) Employer b.’ NDT Levol-Iil with a valid Levellll certificate appointed by employer =e NDT Level-IIl with a valid Level-II! certificate in the methods appointed by employer 4. A person designated by the employer appointed ASNT Level-ill with a valid experience and training in the relevant NDT methods 32. The candidate desirous of being employed by an employer shall @. Pass the specific practical and demonstration examination administrated by the employer and the ASNT Level-IIl certificate holder b. Demonstrate proficiency in the relevant NOT methods, qualify in the specific practical and demonstration examinations administrated by tho employer ©. Pass specific , Practical , Demonstration and vision examination administrated by the employer or his designated represent: and ASNT Levelt exam Pass ASNT Lovel-lll examination and the employees specitic,practical, and demonstration examination £2) Any of the above. 33. A candidate after his initial certification undergoes vision examination for near distance after a certain time period (less than the recertification period) using a Jaeger number 1 test chart at a distance of 300 mm, The vision examination is administered by a personnel approved by an NOT Lavel ~ Iti designated by the ‘employer. Which of the following is true, a) His certificate shall expire if the vision examination b) His certificate shall be revoked by the employer if the period of vision examination exceeds 12 months°) His certificate would be valid only if he undergoes colour vision eo examination pee 3) His certificate would be suspended by the employer if the period of vision : examination exceeds 12 month e) All of the above 34 A procedure is A dotailed written practise for conducting a Non Destructive Test or Certifying personnel. The procedure shall be approved by the NDT Levelll in the applicable method, b. A detailed written instruction for conducting a Non Destructive Test or Certifying personnel . The procedure should be approved by the NDT Level-lll in the applicable method. ¢ A detailed written practise for conducting a Non Destructive Test or Certifying personnel . The procedure should be approved by the NOT Level-IIl in the applicable method. —— PU. A detailed written instruction «practise for conducting a Non Destructive Test of Certifying personnel . The procedure shall be approved by the NDT Level-lll In the applicable method, 35. All of the statements given below the one which Io falas Ie ———, Both SNT-TC-1A and ASNT CP-189-1996 are written practices which establish the minimum requirements for the qualification and certification of NDT personnel b, Both requires the employer to establish written practicelprocedures for the certification of NDT personnel In both it is employer to incorporate any additional requirements None of the above Both SNT-TC-1A and ASNT CP 189 ~1995 outline the minimum training , education and experience requirements for NDT personnel A cobalt-60 gamma-ray source has an approximate practical thickness limlt of: 2 % inches of steel or its equivalent 4 Inches of steel or its equivalent 9 inches of steel or its equivalent 11 inches of steel or its equivalent 37. The sensitivity requirement 2-2T represents : @ Penetrameter thickness 2* the specimen thickness with the required 4) Panotrameter holo 2 porcent of the specimen thicknoss fe, > Penetrameter thickness 2 percent of specimen thickness with the raquired penotramotor holo 2 x tho ponotramoter thicknoss 6. Ponotramotor thicknons 2 percont of the apncinien thicknane with the tequited penotrameter holo 2 percent of the specinion thleknoss b. Penetrameter thickness 2 percent of the specimen thickness with the required penetrameter hole 4 percent of the penetrameter thickness 38, Scattered radiation in radiography results in :a. No change in exposure time b. Increase in exposure time >) Reduced image quality ° I. Improved image quality 39, The most common method for magnetic particle examination of a weld is "a, Head shot method b._ Use of coil —2> (&) Use of prods in conjunction with dry powder He oQ Use of central conductor 40, Fine surface detects such as fatigue cracks on smooth parts which have been in service are best detected with magnetic particle inspection by use of * i. Dry magnetic patticles with direct current >i.) Wet magnetic particles with alternating current li" Ory magnetic particles with half wave rectified current |v, Wet magnetic particles with half wave rectified current 41. Which of the following grades of steel iends itself most favourably to the detection of faults by MPT : a. Highly alloyed steel os Non-alloyed steel ow C content ~ Slightly alloyed steet d. _Non-alloyed steel with a high C content 42, Some limitation of coil magnetization techniques are that : ——> ‘@) Coll must be of minimum diameter in relation to part SHE a b. The effective field is generally limited on either side of the coil oo ee ¢. Small diameter parts should be placed close to the coil d, High degree of skin effect 48. In eddy current testing of heat exchanger tubes, mulll frequency eddy current units are used : 18) To got higher sensitivity b. To improve the depth of penetration To minimize the effect of unwanted signals from tube supports a 4. To take advantage of natural frequency of test object 44.0.5 mm stee! plates are to be checked fof variation in thickness. ‘Which NOT ‘method will be most suitable 7 a. Radlographic b. Ultrasonic H ¢. Magnetic particle i ~=) Eddy current 45, The most widely used method for sorting of metallic part utilizes : Acoustic velocity measurement principles ~~ 6) Electromagnetic induction principles 6. Radioactive docay proportios Sound sensing properties 46. The penetration of eddy currents in a conductive matorial is decreased when’: a. Test frequency or conductivity of the specimen is decreased b, Test frequency is decreased or conductivity of the specimen is increased Test frequency, conductivity of the specimen, or permeability of the specimen is increased d. Permeability of the specimen is decreased 47. Which of the following conditions would be the most difficult to detect when eddy current testing a rod using an encircling coil 7 A short surface crack that has depth 10% of tho rod diameter 2¢b.2 A small inclusion in the center of the rod . AS% change in diameter 4d. A 10% change in conductivity 48. In leak testing by pressure drop method, the leak rate is given by the formula LR. = V.(dP/dT), If volume of the vessel (V) is 10 liters., drop of the pressure (P) is 0.36 kg/cm sq, and time taken for this pressure drop is two hours, Leak rate is : a, 30 cc/sec 7 1.8 cclse b ; 0.5 celsec e ee MED8x19 (4) ootsce R= 49. The purpose of performing a bubble leak test before performing a halogen diode sniffer test is to: @. Make it unnecessary to have qualified personnel for the halogen diode sniffer test b. Structurally overload the component or vessol being tosted before the halogen sniffer test ©. Pinpoint as many leaks as possible so they can be located faster during py the halogen diode sniffer test el x4 jate gross leaks that could cause background signals during the ~-? halogen sniffer test 50. The presence of small traces of halogen leak testing around plastios and rubber since a. Increases the emissioh of negative ionsb. Decreases the emission of positive ions (€) Increases the emission of positive ions. “pd Decreases the omission of negative ons 51. Whether it is the bubble detection, pressure change, halogen diode detector or the helium mass spectrometer, the fundamental principle on which the detection methods are based on : 4, Datomotile prone = afb, Gus oF tluld flow “¢, Mass spectrometer analysis d, Mean free paths of helium flow 52. Light hydrogenous material embedded in heavy metals like W.V.Pb may be conveniently detected by : a. X-radiography b, Gamma-radiography —--— At) Neutron radiography °°. Real time radiography ©. Ultrasonics 53. The most suited materials for shielding of thermal neutron is : a, Lead ), Tungsten Graphite |. Stee! 54.It is desired to radiography a highly radioactive fuel element with an activity in ‘excess of 1500 Ruhr by neutron radiography for the detection of the state of the fuel pellets inside. The most appropriate combination that would result is best possible Image on tha radiograph Is : a. Isotopic source with L/D 100, Gadolinium and D2/D4 films b. Reactor source with L/D 75, gadolinium and 02/D4 films 8, Isotopic source, L/D 100, dysprosium screens and D2/D4 films 74! Reactor source, L/D 100, dysprosium screens and D2/D4 films e. D2/D4 films 55. Monitoring of integral health of complete structure in a single fast test can be cartied out by ; a. Ultrasonic test b. Radiograph test 46." Acoustic emission test d. Eddy current test 58, For the detection of defects di luring walding the most appropriate typo of aonsor would be:Resonance type 150 KHz b. Broad band 1 MHz Resonance type 1 MHz @ High frequency 2 MHz e. A combination of broad band and intermediate band sensors 57. The minimum number of sensors required to accurately detect the source of acoustic emission during testing of a pressure vessel is : a. Two b Fou &. One -—2pd) Three ©. Five 58. Tho phenomenon in Acoustic omission during which the provious foad/prossiio, valuos is to ba oxcnedod for AE nignaln to bo generated during ratonting tn referred to as: a. Oynamic load effect 5) Kaiser effect c. Felicity effect 4d. Doppler effect e. None of the above 59. The most widely used photoconductive device for industrial applications is : . CCD ) Vidicon Orthicon |. Television Charlicon 60. The photographic films which can produce the finest detail is : a. Colour 400 ASA. b. Colour 100 ASA, JS Black and while 400 ABA syd.) Black and white 100 ASA €. Both b and d above 61. In scotopic mode, eye has the highest sensitivity to which of the following colours a. Blue —tH+ b. Green pe. Yellow 1) Red %, Orange 62. The range of magnification Ih convent al hand held magnitiers isa 2 pb 1 7. 18 X to 1500 x d. 15X to 15X ©. 2Xto 15x 63. The Inspector's vision should be examined at distance of __and_ for near and far vision are: a. 200mm and 2m b, 400 mm and 4 m 300 mm and 3 m d. 300mm and § m 64. The frequency of a transducer is primarily a function of + a. The excitation voltage The thickness of the crystal ¢, The pulse repetition frequency of the instrument 1 The acevo coupling factor between thes cryntal, thes bachmg, satel and the wear faco 65. During ultrasonic testing of a round forging a considerable loss in back wall was observed without any defect echo, This could be due to : pa. Insufficient couplant b. Course grains ¢. Piping at the center of the bar d. All of the above e. aand bonly 66. A change in echo amplitude from 10% of full screen height (FSH) to 60% FSH is a change of, : a. 2008 b. 6B me —— > 148 4d. 9.5dB 87. An echo from an isolated porosity Is rather low relative to its size because : , Porosity is filled with air a >. Porosity is generally round in shape and the reflected sound beam diverges sc, Surface of porosity is normally very smooth d. All of the above 68. An ultrasonic flaw detector is calibrated in 100 mm range, The range will reduce ita. The frequency of the probe is reduced b. The size of the probe is reduced 3-0, The longitudinal wave probe is replaced by a shear wave probe 77d, Allof the above 69. In fluorescent penetrant inspection, which of the following conditions could adversely affect the efficiency of inspection ? a. High ambient visible light b. Penetrant contamination on the work bench ¢. Contaminated developer A All of the above 70, The term used to define the period of time in which the test part is covered with penetrant is a, Waiting time b. Soak time (drain time) 2}. Penetration time (dwell time) d. Bleed-in-time e. Capillary time 71, To compare and evaluate the quality of penetrant systems, the most suited method is : a. Aluminium comparator block . Meniscus spot test kit 5. Nickel-Chrome test panel kit d. Specimens with natural flaws @. Manufacturers recommendation 72. \t is desired to detect very tight fatigue cracks in a turbine blade. The best combination of penetrant systam and dwoll tima would be : Solvent removable visible dye + 10 min dwell time Solvent removable fluorescent dye + 40 min dwell time Solvent removable visible dye + 40 min dwell time |. Solvent removable fluorescent dye + 15 min dwell time ~----/>@. Post emulsifiable fluorescont dye + 10 min dwell time pose 73, The law that can be used to determine the maximum wavelength of infrared radiation being emitted by a body at a particular temperature is : a. Stefan Boltzman law —-yb. Weins displacement law . Planck's law 4. Kirchoff's:law ©. Infrared law 74, Of all the defects that are encountered in the manufacture of composite materials, infrared imaging is best suited fbr the detection of :a. Resin rich and starved regions b. Impact damage ©. Delaminations d. bandd ~—pe. all of the above 76. Thermal imaging is carried out in the interiors of a well insulated house during winter. In one of the locations it is observed that a dark green patch is observed, if blue represents the coldest and white represents the hottest spot In a thermal image, then : 2 to this There is a emissivity variation in the area which can give indication a ©. There Is excess insulation in the region ¢. There is loss of insulation in the region D4. aandc above ©. Data given is insufficient to make any proper evaluation 76. Microwaves can datect : “>. Inclusions in thick non-conducting ceramic body b. Porosity in thick metal castings c. Laminations in‘metallic plate 4. Cracks in weld-metal 77. The major difference between Ultrasonic Testing and Acoustic Emission is that : Sa. The former is repeatable but the latter is not b. The former requires couplants but the latter does not ¢. Both the above points 4. Neither of the above points 78, Which of the following processes Is carrled at the lowest temperature 7 a, Brazing ~->eb. Soldering ©. Shielded metal are welding d. Electron beam welding 79. n carbon steel, carbon Is increased trom 0.2 % to 0.4 %. This will result in: 3a. Improved tensile strength “ b. Improved toughness ¢. Improved weldability d, Allof the above €. None of the above 80. Excessive stress concentration do not usually occur : a. Atnotchesb. Where varlable residual stresses are present ©. If the loading Is applied at location not designed for them J. When changes in cross-section are gradual —> 9 9 81 A bar that fs 26 cm long, 4 em wide and 2 cm thick is subjected to tensile load of 20,000 kgs along the length of the bar. The tensile stress within the bar is : v 25 kg cm? 800 kg/cm? 25 kg/ mm?* 100 kg/ cm? ase peo 82. Typically the highest quality of steel is produced In : , An open hearth furnace b, A Bessemer furnace c. A basic oxygen furnace wen 3d. An electric furnace a. The tensile strength of material b. The creep properties of a material ~~ 36. The fatigue strength of a material d. The youngs modulus of a material 84. A sampling plan for carrying out NOT is worked out on the basis an AOQL 6%, That means : pA There is a probability that in the remaining lot 6% of the parts may not “meet the quality requirements b. That there will definitely be 6% defective in the remaining lot &. The NDT is carried out only on 6% of the lot d. NDT will ensure that 6% of the lot will meet the quality requirements. 85. Which of the following may be performed to help prevent corrosion ? a. Electroplating b, Cathodic protection ©. Anodizing 3. Allof the above 86. Brass is an alloy of copper and a. Tin pb. Zine ‘c. Nickel 4. Silicon 87. Cheapest alloying for increasing strength and hardness of steel isManganese Carbon Nickel Chromium 88 Which of the following discontinuities could be classified as a service induced discontinuity 7 wD B. Fatigue crack b, Porosity ¢. Machining tear dé. Lap 89. Which of the following properties cannot be derived from stress strain curve ? a. Yield strength . b, Ultimate tensile strength c. Toughness 9d. % reduction in area 80. Which of the following can be produced only with powder metallurgy ? a. Cemented carbide cutting tools b. Tungsten filaments for incandescent lamps ©. Crane hooks d. None of the above >. Only a and b 91. Which of the following has the least ductility 7 a. Ahot rolled steel b. A.cold rolled and annealed aluminium sheet ~—pe. Gray cast iron d. Normalized steel casting 92. Change in the crystal structure of metal with temperature Is known as B- Allotropic transformation b. Phase transformation ¢. Spheroidal transformation d. Eutectic transformation 93, Chromium is a cepa. Ferrite stabilizer b. Austenite stabilizer © Mattonelte stablilzer d. None of the above ‘94, Full annealing Is usually carried out to : a, Decrease hardness1080 dlucllly c, Relieve stress >4. Both a and b above 95. Tempering of steels after quenching usually results into a. Reduction in hardness values b. Improved toughness ‘c. Lower strength pf. All of the above 96. In welding, properties of weld material will change depending on : Cooling rate Weld edge preparation Composition of filler wire All of the above 22. aand only nese 97. To prevent formation of center-tine crack in 304 grade austenitic stainless steels welds, one may recommed ; a. Increasing in preheat temperature ». Slow cooling after welding in asbestos cover 6, Welding consumables with minimum 3% ferrite 4, Welding consumables with no ferrite 98. There can be greater chances of encountering cold cracl of heat affected zone of low alloy steel weldments when : @. Welding heat input is high b. Hydrogen level of welding consumables is very low ©, Welding is done without preheat =-b. Weldabilily of steel plates to work out the suitable welding ¢. Distortion problem in the welded joints d. None of tho above 402. The process in which moulds are made by dipping way patterns in coramic nlurrion and thon firing theny Is populatly khown as | 8. Centrifugal casting 4 Shell moulding osc. tuvantment casting d. Gravity dio casting 103. The shrinkage defect in the casting can be avoided by : a. Providing exothermic sleeves at vulnerable points t ~-~ >b. By providing adequate risering ¢. By minimizing the change in sections 4, Allof the above i fe, None of the above prove feeding 104, Cold heading is a process generally employed for the manufacture of : a. Forging of critical components b. Large gear banks ~~ 36. Rivets, wood screws etc, 4. Hollow forgings 105, Which of the following are not aimed at in cold-working ? a, Improved mechanical properties b, Better size control ©. Bright surface 28. Thicker gauges 106. Hot rolling of steel is carried out at about : a. 1250 degree C >>. 800 degree C c. 500 degree C d, Room temperature 107. A shaft having diameter of 20 +. 0,008 mm Is to be inspected which Instrument will be suitable for this ? A vernier caliper Amicrometer A dial micrometer Any of the above es 108. Notched bar testing is carried out to fina, Fatigue strength b, Creep strength ©. Shear strength ted. Effect of shock loading @, Botha anda 109, Which of the following will be more safe approach in design ? 4a, Factor of safety should be 1 b. Factor of safety 4 on ultimate strength Factor of safety 4 on elastic limit d. Any of the above depending on the type of material 110. A limitation of the acoustic emission applied to metal is that it is not immediately repeatable can only find defects that break the surface requires vessel to be taken out of service for the test Fequires personnel to be close to vessels at high pressures 141. Atypical source mechanism of acoustic omission is: Grack growth movement of dislocations, matrix cracking in fibre relnforced plastics all of the above 112, One of the major differences in the acoustic emission NOT method compared to most other NDT method is that @ acoustic emission relies on visual interpretation of data b computers are used exclusively for analysis pe acoustic emission directly detects the growth of flaws d transducers are used to gather data the amount of light available at the inspection surface is refered to as -and is measured in « @ luminous flux, Lumens b color temperature , degrees kelvin be luminance, Lamberts d color , nonometers 114. The depth of field of a magnifying system is a the ratio of distances of objects in focus at the same time “>> * the maximum range of distances in focus at the same time ““c 14.5 times the aperture 4 1.8 times the field of viewQ.6 “CP- 189° Documentation of certificates is responsibility of A) Employer B) ASNT Level III of the employer C) Any designated representative of the employer D) Any of above ‘The NDT personnel Shall be recertified when A) Three years have passed for Level { or IZ / 1?” B) Five years have passed for Level IIT é C) ‘The ASNT Level III certification expires for Level III 3 ' D) All of above B) A and B only ‘In a "Closed Book" Examination A) No xeference material is to be used a B) ASME or relevant published codes may be used 3 C) Any reference material approved and supplied by employer may be used D) All of above may be used E) None of above Determination of the significance of a relevant indication is called as A) Inspection B) Assessment 2 Sasctwl €) Interpretation i D) None of above Different ways of doing a Test, such as contact Ultrasonic Testing or Immersion Ultrasonic Testing are called test A) Methods B) Techniques C) Types D) All of above E) None of above A Trainee shall work with A) any certified person B) any certified person so designated by the company Level IE C) Any person nominated by the employer if it is written so in the! written practice! D) None of above A practical check list A) must be in a written format B) is needed for Level I & Level II examinations only C) should have minimum 10 check points D) All of above A candidate was examined for visual The test was conducted by a certified optometrists and contained following information. Test Chart : Jaeger Illumination + 500 Lux Eye chart Distance : 10" Candidate wore contact lenses during examination. Test result : Left eye i Jaeger 1 Right eye: Jaeger 2 As the company Level IIT would you approve the candidate ? cont...Qul2 QB Qu14 Q.15 A) Yes B) No, because eye vision must be Jaeger 1 in both eyes C) No, because contact lenses are not acceptable D) You wotild net accept the test for some other reason Who can work as an NDT Instructor ? A) . Any specialised person such as a metallurgist, welding engineer ete who’ are nominated by the company Level II B). Only ASNT Level IIT personnel C) Only the company Level III D) Instructers certified or authorised by ASNT D) None of above Practical Examination is to be done for. Level II certification. The candidate will be using three different techniques. How many test samples he must be examined on ? A) two B) four C) six D) None of above ‘The Level 1 and II examinations must be A) Prepared by a Level IIL B) Administered by a Level Il ©) Graded by a Level IIT D) All of above E) None of above When a certified individual has not carried out any inspection for more than 15 months, in the method qualified in, the employer A) May suspend his certificate B) must suspend his certificate C). must revoke his certificate D) may consider that certificate as lapsed ‘The Level HT practical examination A) may include procedure writing and practical test y B) must include procedure writing and practical test ©) must include procedure writing and practical test and reporting. D) None of above A company has hired an ASNT Level II individual, Prior to his Examination and formal approval he shall be classified as a A) Traihee B) Level I C) Level 11 D) None of above ‘To receive credit for training hours the candidate must A) Have documental proof of class attendance B) Have documented proof of having performed practical tests C) Have documented proof of education D) None of above E) Only A and B