SCIENCE MCQ - CLASS 10 (Completed)

CLASS X - SCIENCE
Objective Type Questions with Answers

Class X – Science (Objective type Questions)
CONTENTS
Chapter 1 – Chemical Reactions……………………………………….…….. 3
Chapter 2 – Acids, Base & Salts……………………………………………… 8
Chapter 3 – Metals and Non – Metals…………………………………….... 25
Chapter 4 – Carbon and its Compounds………….………….….………… 38
Chapter 5 – Periodic Classifications…………………………….………….. 47
Chapter 6 – Life Processes………………………………….…………….…. 67
Chapter 7 – Control and Coordination………………………….…………. 99
Chapter 8 – Reproduction…………………………………………………. 103
Chapter 9 – Heredity and Evolution……………………………………… 112
Chapter 10 – Light: Reflection and Refraction………….……..………… 131
Chapter 11 – Human Eye and the Colourful World…………..…….…… 136
Chapter 12 – Electricity……………………………………….….…….….. 148
Chapter 13 – Magnetic Effect of Current…………………….…….….…. 162
Chapter 14 – Sources of Energy…………………………………………… 167
Chapter 15 – Our Environment…………………………………………… 181
Chapter 16 – Management of Natural Resources………………………... 187
2
1. CHEMICAL REACTIONS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Reaction between calcium oxide and water is a ______________ reaction.
(a) endothermic reaction
(b) decomposition reaction
(c) exothermic reaction
(d) displacement reaction
2. The compound also known as blue vitriol is
(a) FeSO4.7H2O
(b) CuSO4.5H2O
(c) CaSO4.2H2O
(d) Na2CO3.10H2O
3. The chemical formula for lime is
(a) Ca(OH)2
(b) CaCO3
(c) CaO
(d) CaHCO3
4. The chemical formula for slaked lime is
(a) Ca(OH)2
(b) CaCO3
(c) CaO
(d) CaHCO3
5. The chemical formula of lead nitrate is:
(a) KNO3
(b) PbNO3
(c) K(NO3)2
(d) Pb(NO3)2
6. The reaction of water and quick lime is an example of
(a) combination reaction
(b) exothermic reaction
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
3
7. How many water molecules are present in a crystal of copper sulphate molecule?
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 2 (d) 3
8. How many water molecules are present in a crystal of ferrous sulphate molecule?
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 7 (d) 10
9. Which of the following is an endothermic reaction?
(a) CaCO3 heat CaO + CO2
(b) CaO + H2O Ca(OH)2
(c) C6H12O6 + O2 6CO2 + 6H2O
(d) None of these
10. What is the colour of FeSO4.7H2O?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) White
(d) Brown
11. What is the colour of CuSO4.5H2O?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) White
(d) Yellow
12. Four students used different ways of burning magnesium ribbon during an experiment as shown
below.
The correct way has been followed by student:
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV

4
13. The copper coin is dipped in blue coloured copper sulphate solution, the colour obtained after half
an hour is
(a) Reddish
(b) Brownish
(c) Colourless
(d) blue colour
14. When iron nail js kept in blue coloured copper sulphate solution, after a while the colour obtained
in the test tube for the solution is
(a) Blue
(b) Brown
(c) Green
(d) Red
15. On adding zinc granules to freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution a student observes that:
(a) a dull brown coating is formed
(b) a black coating is formed
(c) a greyish coating is formed
(d) no coating is formed.
16. A student strongly heats hydrated ferrous sulphate salt in a dry test tube. He would observe a:
(a) yellow residue
(b) brown residue
(c) light green residue
(d) white residue
17. A student while heating solid lead nitrate taken in a test tube would observe
(a) white residue of PbO2
(b) green residue of NO2
(c) yellow residue of PbO
(d) brown residue of NO
18. A student took solid quick lime in a china dish and added a small amount of water. He heard
(a) a popping sound
(b) a crackling sound
(c) a hissing sound
(d) no sound at all
5
19. The colour of the gas evolved on heating solid lead nitrate is
(a) Yellow
(b) Brown
(c) greenish-yellow
(d) green
20. When a cleaned iron nail is placed in copper sulphate solution, the colour of the solution changes to
(a) Blue
(b) Red
(c) pale violet
(d) pale green
21. When zinc granules are dipped in blue coloured copper sulphate solution, the colour of solution
obtained is
(a) blue
(b) yellow
(c) colourless
(d) brown
22. In the reaction of sodium sulphate and barium chloride the colour of the precipitate formed is
(a) Yellow
(b) Green
(c) White
(d) Black
23. An iron nail was dipped in a salt solution. After sometime a reddish brown deposition of the nail
was seen. The salt solution could be
(a) Silver nitrate
(b) Sodium sulphate
(c) Aluminium chloride
(d) Copper sulphate
24. The colour of the residue left in the test tube after heating ferrous sulphate which undergoes
decomposition is
(a) yellowish-brown
(b) black
(c) white
(d) grey
6
25. When ferrous sulphate is heated strongly name the gas evolved?
(a) SO2
(b) SO3
(c) Fe2O3
(d) SO2 and SO3
ANSWERS
1. c 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. d
6. c 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. b
11. a 12. c 13. d 14. c 15. c
16. b 17. c 18. b 19. b 20. d
21. c 22. c 23. d 24. a 25. d
7
2. ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS
1. The colour of neutral litmus solution is

(a) Red
(b) Blue
(c) Purple
(d) Yellow
2. Which of the following indicators is an olfactory indicator?
(a) Litmus
(b) Vanilla
(c) Turmeric
(d) Phenolphthalein
3. Which one is suitable method to find the accurate pH value?
(a) pH meter
(b) pH paper
(c) Universal indicator
(d) Litmus solution
4. Which one of the following statements is correct about universal indicator?
(a) It is a mixture of HCl and NaOH
(b) It is a mixture of many indicators
(c) It is a solution of phenolphthalein in alcohol
(d) It is a solution of phenolphthalein in water.
5. Which of the following properties are shown by dilute HCl?
(i) It turns blue litmus red
(ii) It turns red litmus blue
(iii) It reacts with zinc and a gas is evolved
(iv) It reacts with solid sodium carbonate to give brisk effervescence
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
8
6. A teacher gave two test tubes – one containing water and the other containing sodium hydroxide
solution to two students. Then he asked them to identify the test tube containing sodium hydroxide solution.
Which one of the following can be used for correctly identifying the test tube containing the solution of
sodium hydroxide?
(a) Blue litmus
(b) Red litmus
(c) Sodium carbonate solution
(d) Dilute HCl
7. Metallic oxides are ____________in nature, but non-metallic oxides are ___in nature. The
information in which alternative completes the given statement?
(a) neutral, acidic
(b) acidic, basic
(c) basic, neutral
(d) basic, acidic
8. When a drop of unknown solution X is placed on a strip of pH paper, a deep red colour is produced.
This sample is which one of these?
(a) NaOH
(b) HCl
(c) Water
(d) CH3COOH
9. A student tests a sample drinking water and reports its pH value as 6 at room temperature. Which one
of the following might have been added in water?
(a) Calcium chloride
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Sodium bicarbonate
(d) Bleaching powder
10. Solid sodium bicarbonate was placed on a strip of pH paper. The color of the strip
(a) turned red
(b) did not change
(c) turned green and slightly yellow
(d) turned pink
11. Four drops of red litmus solution were added to each of the following samples. Which one turns red
litmus blue?
(a) Alcohol
(b) Distilled water
(c) Sodium hydroxide sol
(d) HCl
9
12. The pH of which of the following samples cannot be found directly using pH paper?
(a) Lemon juice
(b) Dilute HCl
(c) Solid sodium bicarbonate
(d) Solution of a detergent.
13. Which of the following natural sources contains oxalic acid?
(a) lemon
(b) orange
(c) tomato
(d) tamarind
14. The acid found in an ant sting is
(a) acetic acid
(b) citric acid
(c) tartaric acid
(d) Methanoic acid
15. To relieve pain caused due to acidity, we can take
(a) sour milk
(b) lemon juice
(c) orange juice
(d) milk of magnesia
16. What are the products obtained when potassium sulphate reacts with barium iodide in an aqueous
medium?
(a) KI and BaSO4
(b) KI, Ba and SO2
(c) K, I2 and BaSO4
(d) K, Ba, I2 and SO2
17. Which of the following salts is basic in nature?
(a) NH4NO3
(b) Na2CO3
(c) Na2SO4
(d) NaCl
18. Which of the following salts has the minimum pH value?
(a) (NH4)2SO4
(b) NaHCO3
(c) K2SO4
(d) NaCl
10
19. You are given four unknown solutions I, II, III, and IV. The pH values of these solutions are found to
be 3, 7, 8, and 10 respectively. Among the given solutions, which solution has the highest hydrogen ion
concentration?
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
20. Which one of the following is required to identify the gas evolved when dilute hydrochloric acid reacts
with zinc metal?
(a) blue litmus paper
(b) red litmus paper
(c) a burning splinter
(d) lime water
21. Zinc reacts with an acid as well as with a base to liberate hydrogen. On the basis of this what should
be the nature of the zinc metal?
(a) Basic
(b) Acidic
(c) Amphoteric
(d) Neutral
22. When you test the solutions of sodium bicarbonate, sodium hydroxide, hydrochloric acid and acetic
acid with universal indicator, in which case would you get a red colour?
(a) Sodium bicarbonate
(b) Hydrochloric acid
(c) Sodium hydroxide
(d) Acetic acid
23. The pH of a sample of pure water is 7 at room temperature. What is its pH when a pinch of solid
sodium bicarbonate is dissolved in it?
(a) vary near to 7
(b) less than 7
(c) more than 7
(d) exactly 7
24. If an unknown solution turns blue litmus red, then the pH of the solution is more likely to be
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 7 (d) 4
25. What is the pH of a 0.00001 molar HCl solution?
(a) 1 (b) 9 (c) 5 (d) 4
11
26. There are alternate acid base theories that define an acid as any species that can
{hint: According to Bronsted-Lowry theory, an acid is any species that can donate a proton to another
species.}
(a) donate a proton
(b) donate an electron
(c) accept a proton
(d) accept an electron
27. What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube?
(i) The temperature of the solution increases
(ii) The temperature of the solution decreases
(iii) The temperature of the solution remains the same
(iv) Salt formation takes place
(a) only
(b) and (iii)
(c) and (iii)
(d) and (iv)
28. An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which of the following solution
would reverse the change?
(a) Baking powder
(b) Lime
(c) Ammonium hydroxide solution
(d) Hydrochloric acid
29. During the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas on a humid day, the gas is usually passed through the
guard tube containing calcium chloride. The role of calcium chloride taken in the guard tube is to
(a) absorb the evolved gas
(b) moisten the gas
(c) absorb moisture from the gas
(d) absorb Cl– ions from the evolved gas
30. Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH as 4, 1, 11, 7 and 9,
respectively, which solution is:
(a) Neutral
(b) strongly alkaline
(c) strongly acidic
(d) weakly acidic
(e) weakly alkaline
12
Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration.
31. WHO AM I?
(a) I am called antichlor and am used to remove excess chlorine from clothes when treated with
bleaching powder
(b) I am a product of gypsum and am used to making chalks and fire proof materials.
(c) I am a compound of calcium and can be used for disinfecting drinking water as well as for
decolorization.
(d) I give different smell in acid and base solution.
(e) I am an oxide capable of showing properties for both acids and base.
(f) I am a covalent compound and conducts electricity in aqueous medium.
(g) I am a salt of potassium hydroxide and nitric acid.
(h) I am the term used when a solid becomes liquid when exposed to moist air.
(i) I am derived from tomato and turn blue litmus into red.
32. The colour of methyl orange indicator in acidic medium is:
(a) Yellow
(b) Green
(c) Orange
(d) Red
33. The colour of phenolphthalein indicator in basic solution is:
(a) Yellow
(b) Green
(c) Pink
(d) Orange
34. What is the colour of methyl orange in alkaline medium?
(a) Orange
(b) Yellow
(c) Red
(d) Blue
35. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH will be:
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 10
36. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water Milky, the solution
contains:
(a) NaCl
(b) HCl
(c) LiCl
(d) KCl
13
37. Why is universal indicator a better one than litmus paper?
(a) Litmus paper can only be used for acids.
(b) Litmus paper can only be used for alkalis.
(c) Universal indicator goes green if something is neutral.
(d) Universal indicator is useful for all ranges of pH of the solution.
38. Water soluble bases are known as?
(a) Neutral
(b) Base
(c) Acid
(d) Alkali
39. Which one of the following pairs of substances when mixed together produces table salt?
(a) Sodium thiosulphate and sulpur dioxide
(b) Hydro chloric acid and sodium hydroxide
(c) Chlorine and oxygen
(d) Nitric acid and sodium hydrogen carbonate
40. What colour would hydrochloric acid (pH=1) turn universal indicator.
(a) Orange
(b) Purple
(c) Yellow
(d) Red
41. Which one of the following medicines is used for treating indigestion?
(a) Antibiotic
(b) Analgesic
(c) Antacid
(d) Antiseptic
42. If magnesium reacts with hydrochloric acid, what gas is produced?
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Chlorine
43. Which of the following is the most accurate way of representing neutralization?
(a) Acid + base → neutral solution
(b) Acid + base → salt + water
(c) Acid + base → sodium chloride + hydrogen
(d) Acid + base → acidic solution
14
44. Classify the following examples as acid, base or salt:
(a) Mg (OH)2 (b) HCl
(c) KCl (d) H3 PO4
(e) HBr (f) Al (OH)
(g) KNO2 (h) NaCl
(i) Na NO3 (j) Ba (OH)2
45. Fill in the following blanks:
(a) A ___________ taste is a characteristic property of all acids in aqueous solution.
(b) Acids react with some metals to produce ___________ gas.
(c) Aqueous acid solutions conduct electricity because they have
(d) Acid reacts with base to produce a and water.
(e) Acid turns methyl orange to colour.
(f) Bases tend to taste to feel
(g) Aqueous basic solutions conduct electricity because they have .
(h) Bases react with to produce a salt and
(i) Bases turn phenolphthalein to colour.
46. Match the following
(i) Plaster of Paris (a) CaOCl2

(ii) Gypsum (b) NaHCO3
(iii) Bleaching powder (c) Na2 CO3.10H2O
(iv) Baking soda (d) CaSO4. ½ H2O
(v) Washing soda (e) CaSO4. 2 H2O
47. Which of the following salts does not contain water of crystallization?
(a) Blue vitriol
(b) Baking soda
(c) Washing soda
(d) Gypsum
48. Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt of
(a) strong acid and strong base
(b) weak acid and weak base
(c) strong acid and weak base
(d) weak acid and strong base
49. Calcium phosphate is present in tooth enamel. Its nature is
(a) Basic (b) Acidic
(c) Neutral (d) Amphoteric
15
50. A sample of soil is mixed with water and allowed to settle. The clear supernatant solution turns the pH
paper yellowish-orange. Which of the following would change the colour of this pH paper to greenish-
blue?
(a) Lemon juice (b) Vinegar (c) Common salt (d) An antacid
51. Which of the following gives the correct increasing order of acidic strength?
(a) Water <Acetic acid <Hydrochloric acid
(b) Water <Hydrochloric acid <Acetic acid
(c) Acetic acid <Water <Hydrochloric acid
(d) Hydrochloric acid <Water <Acetic acid
52. If a few drops of a concentrated acid accidentally spills over the hand of a student, what should be done?
(a) Wash the hand with saline solution
(b) Wash the hand immediately with plenty of water and apply a paste of sodium hydrogen carbonate
(c) After washing with plenty of water apply solution of sodium hydroxide on the hand
(d) Neutralise the acid with a strong alkali
53. Sodium hydrogen carbonate when added to acetic acid evolves a gas. Which of the following statements
are true about the gas evolved?
(i) It turns lime water milky
(ii) It extinguishes a burning splinter
(iii) It dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide
(iv) It has a pungent odour
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
54. Common salt besides being used in kitchen can also be used as the raw material for making
(i) Washing soda
(ii) Bleaching powder
(iii) Baking soda
(iv) Slaked lime
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
16
55. One of the constituents of baking powder is sodium hydrogen carbonate, the other constituent is
(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Tartaric acid
(c) Acetic acid (d) Sulphuric acid
56. To protect tooth decay we are advised to brush our teeth regularly. The nature of the tooth paste
commonly used is
(a) Acidic
(b) Neutral
(c) Basic
(d) Corrosive
57. Which of the following statements is correct about an aqueous solution of an acid and of a base?
(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid
(ii) Higher the pH, weaker the acid
(iii) Lower the pH, stronger the base
(iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
58. The pH of the gastric juices released during digestion is
(a) Less than 7
(b) More than 7
(c) Equal to 7
(d) Equal to 0
59. Which of the following phenomena occur, when a small amount of acid is added to water?
(i) Ionisation
(ii) Neutralisation
(iii) Dilution
(iv) Salt formation
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
17
60. Which one of the following can be used as an acid–base indicator by a visually impaired student?
(a) Litmus
(b) Turmeric
(c) Vanilla essence
(d) Petunia leaves
61. Which of the following substance will not give carbon dioxide on treatment with dilute acid?
(a) Marble
(b) Limestone
(c) Baking soda
(d) Lime
62. Which of the following is acidic in nature?
(a) Lime juice
(b) Human blood
(c) Lime water
(d) Antacid
63. In an attempt to demonstrate electrical conductivity through an electrolyte, the following apparatus (see
below Figure) was set up. Which among the following statement(s) is (are) correct?
(i) Bulb will not glow because electrolyte is not acidic

(ii) Bulb will glow because NaOH is a strong base and furnishes ions for conduction.
(iii) Bulb will not glow because circuit is incomplete
(iv) Bulb will not glow because it depends upon the type of electrolytic solution
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iv) only
18
64. Which of the following is used for dissolution of gold?
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Nitric acid
(d) Aqua regia
65. Which of the following is not a mineral acid?
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Citric acid
(c) Sulphuric acid
(d) Nitric acid
66. Which among the following is not a base?
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) NH4OH
(d) C2H5 OH
67. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) All metal carbonates react with acid to give a salt, water and carbon dioxide
(b) All metal oxides react with water to give salt and acid
(c) Some metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen
(d) Some nonmetallic oxides react with water to form an acid
68. Which of the following is(are) true when HCl (g) is passed through water?
(i) It does not ionise in the solution as it is a covalent compound.
(ii) It ionises in the solution
(iii) It gives both hydrogen and hydroxyl ion in the solution
(iv) It forms hydronium ion in the solution due to the combination of hydrogen ion with water molecule
(a) (i) only
(b) (iii) only
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
69. Which of the following statements is true for acids?
(a) Bitter and change red litmus to blue
(b) Sour and change red litmus to blue
(c) Sour and change blue litmus to red
(d) Bitter and change blue litmus to red
19
70. Which of the following are present in a dilute aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid?
(a) H3O+ + Cl–
(b) H3O+ + OH–
(c) Cl– + OH–
(d) Unionized HCl
71. Identify the correct representation of reaction occurring during chloroalkali process
(a) 2NaCl(l) + 2H2O(l) →2NaOH(l) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
(b) 2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(aq) →2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) + H2 (g)
(c) 2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(l) →2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(aq) + H2 (aq)
(d) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O (l) →2NaOH (aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
72. In the following schematic diagram for the preparation of hydrogen gas as shown in below Figure, what
would happen if following changes are made?
(a) In place of zinc granules, same amount of zinc dust is taken in the test tube.
(b) Instead of dilute sulphuric acid, dilute hydrochloric acid is taken.
(c) In place of zinc, copper turnings are taken.
(d) Sodium hydroxide is taken in place of dilute sulphuric acid and the tube is heated
73. Identify the compound X on the basis of the reactions given below. Also, write the name and chemical
formulae of A, B and C.
74. A solution of a weak acid when mixed with a solution of a strong base forms:
(a) Acidic solution
(b) Basic solution
(c) Salt and Water
(d) Neutral solution.
20
75. An aqueous solution turns blue litmus solution red. Excess addition of which solution of the following
solution would reverse the change:
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Limewater
(c) Ammonium Hydroxide solution
(d) Hydrochloric Acid.
76. A substance that will not give carbon-dioxide on treatment with dilute acid is:
(a) Marble
(b) Lime stone
(c) Baking soda
(d) Limewater
77. Sodium Carbonate when added to acetic acid evolves a gas. Which of the following are true about the
gas evolved?
(i) It turns lime water milky
(ii) It puts out burning splinter
(iii) It dissolves in sodium hydroxide solution
(iv) It has pungent smell.
(a) 1&2
(b) 1,2 & 3
(c) 2, 3 & 4
(d) 1 & 4.
78. A solution turns red litmus blue; the pH is likely to be:
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 14
79. A 10 ml of solutions of NaOH is found to be completely neutralised by 8 ml. of a given solution of
HCl. If we take 20 ml. of the same solution of NaOH, the amount of HCl solution (the same solution as
before) required to neutralize it will be:
(a) 4 ml (b) 8 ml (c) 12 ml (d) 16 ml
80. Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt of:
(a) Strong acid and strong base
(b) Weak acid and weak base
(c) Strong acid and weak base
(d) Weak acid and strong base.
21
81. Common salt besides being used in kitchen can also be used as the raw material for making:
1) Hydrogen
2) Nitrogen
3) Chlorine
4) Slaked lime
(a) (1) and (2)
(b) (1), (2) and (4)
(c) (1) and (3)
(d) (1), (3) and (4)
82. You have four test tubes, A, B, C and D containing sodium carbonate, sodium chloride, lime water and
blue litmus solutions respectively. Out of these the material of which test tube / test tubes would be
suitable for the correct test of acetic acid / ethanoic acid.
(a) Only A (b) A and B (c) B and C (d) A and D.
83. An element common to all acids is
(a) Chlorine (b) Nitrogen (c) Oxygen (d) hydrogen
84. Bases on ionisation release
(a) Hydrogen ions
(b) Sodium ions
(c) Chlorine ions
(d) Hydroxide ions
85. In general, salts
(a) Are ionic compounds
(b) Contain hydrogen ions
86. When aqueous solutions of an acid and a base are mixed
(a) No reaction occurs
(b) A new acid and a new base are formed
(c) A salt and water are formed
(d) An acid and a salt are formed
87. When magnesium and hydrochloric acid react, they produce
(a) Oxygen and magnesium chloride
(b) Chlorine and magnesium oxide
(c) Hydrogen and magnesium chloride
(d) Hydrogen and magnesium
22
88. A student took two test tubes containing 2ml of dilute hydrochloric acid and added zinc granules to test
tube (A) and solid sodium carbonate to test tube (B) as shown below
The correct observation would be:

(a) Rapid reaction in both test tubes
(b) Slow reaction in (A) and rapid reaction in (B)
(c) Rapid reaction in (A) but a slow reaction in (B)
(d) No reaction in any of the test tubes
89. Four students were asked by their teacher to arrange the set up I-IV as given below and identify the gas
evolved in each case, if any.
After observation, they arrived at the following inferences and recorded their observations in the form of a
table as given below:
STUDENT I II III IV
A H2 No gas CO2 H2
B CO2 H2 No gas CO2
C CO2 H2 H2 No gas
D No gas CO2 CO2 H2
Find which student recorded the correct observation.
23
ANSWERS
1 c 31 45 65 b
2 b (a) Sulphur Di-Oxide (a) Sour 66 d
3 c (b) Plaster Of Paris (b) Hydrogen 67 b
4 b (c) Bleaching Powder (c) Ions 68 c
5 b (d) Olfactor Indicator (d) Salt 69 c
6 b (e) Amphoteric Oxide (e) Red 70 a
7 d (f) Bitter 71 d
(f) Acetic Acid
8 b (g) Ions 72
(g) Potassium Nitrate
9 a (h) Acid, Water (a) Fast
(h) Hygroscopic
10 b (i) Pink (b) Hydrogen
(i) Oxalic Acid
11 c 46 (c) No Displacement
32 d
12 c 1. d
33 (d) Hydrogen
13 c c
2. e 73
14 d 34 b
3. a X NAOH
15 d 35 d
4. b A Sodium Zincate
16 a 36 b
5. c Sodium
17 b 37 d B
47 b Chloride
18 a 38 d
48 d C Sodium Acetate
19 a 39 b
49 a 74 b
20 c 40 d
50 d 75 c
21 c 41 c 51 a 76 d
22 b 42 a
23 c 52 b 77 b
43 b 53
24 d b 78 d
44 54 c 79 d
25 c
(a) Base 55 b 80 d
26 a
(b) Acid 56 c 81 c
27 d
(c) Salt 57 d 82 d
28 d
29 c (d) Acid 58 a 83 d
30 (e) Acid 59 b 84 d
A. 7 (f) Base 60 c 85 a
B. 11 (g) Salt 61 d 86 c
C. 1 (h) Salt 62 a 87 c
D. 4 (i) Salt 63 c 88 a
9 11<9<7<4<1 (j) Base 64 d 89 Student C
24
3. METALS AND NON METALS
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. What is the property of metals in their pure state having a shining surface called?
2. Name the property of metals that can be beaten into thin sheets.
3. Name the most malleable metals.
4. Name the property of metals that can be drawn into thin wires.
5. Name the most ductile metal.
6. Give examples for best conductors of heat.
7. Name two metals which are comparatively poor conductors of heat.
8. Why are metals said to be sonorous?
9. Name a metal and a non-metal which is a liquid at room temperature.
10. Name two metals that will melt when kept on your palm.
11. Diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon. Which elements are related to these allotropes?
12. Name the hardest natural substance.
13. A non-metal which is a conductor of electricity.
14. Give examples of metals which can be cut with a knife.
15. What kind of oxide is produced when metals and non-metals are dissolved in water?
16. Name the metals which produce amphoteric oxides.
17. Name the metal oxides that form alkalis in water.
18. Name the compound formed when copper is heated in air.
19. Why metals like sodium and potassium are immersed in kerosene oil?
20. Write the chemical equation for the reaction between Aluminium oxide and acid.
21. Aluminium oxide reacts with base to form sodium aluminate and water. Write chemical equation for
this reaction.
22. Why does sodium and potassium catch fire when react with water?
23. Write the chemical equation for the reaction of potassium metal with water.
24. Write the chemical equation for the reaction of sodium metal with water.
25. Why does calcium or magnesium float when they react with water?
26. Write the chemical equation for magnesium and calcium reacting with water
27. Name the metals whose surface get covered by thin layer of oxide on oxidation at ordinary temperature
28. A metal does not burn on heating but its filings burn vigorously when sprinkled in the flame of the
burner
29. Copper does not burn on heating, but it gets a coating of black coloured layer. Name the coating
25
30. Which metals does not react with at even high temperature.
31. Name the metals which react with cold water, hot water and steam.
32. Name the metals that do not react with water
33. Name a strong oxidizing agent which produces water on reactivity with most metals.
34. Name the only metal which produces H2 on reacting with nitric acid?
35. Complete the following:
Metal A + salt solution of B = ________________ + ___________________
36. What do you mean by ‗reactivity series‘?
37. Which gas is produced with dilute hydrochloric acid when it is added to a reactive metal?
38. Write the chemical reaction when iron reacts with dilute H2S04
39. What would you observe when zinc is added to a solution of iron III sulphate?
40. Write equation for the reaction of iron with steam
41. What are ionic compounds?
42. Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling point why?
43. Why do ionic compounds in the solid state do not conduct electricity?
44. Why do ionic compound conduct electricity in molten or aqueous state?
45. Write the electron dot structure for sodium, oxygen and magnesium
46. What are minerals?
47. What are ores?
48. Name the metals obtained in the free state
49. Name the metals found both in the combined state and the free state
50. Name the metals at the top of the activity series
51. Name the metals in the middle of the activity series
52. Why are ores of many metals are found in the oxide form:
53. What is gangue?
54. Name the ore of mercury
55. How are metals in the low activity series extracted?
56. Write the chemical equation for the extraction of metals in the low reactivity series
57. What chemical process is used for obtaining a metal from its oxide?
58. Metal sulphides and carbonates are converted into metal oxides. Why?
59. Define calcination.
60. Define roasting.
61. How are metal oxides reduced to their corresponding metals:
62. Name the process of obtaining metals from their compounds.
26
63. What is thermite reaction:
64. Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium, calcium, aluminium etc., to the respective
metals. Why?
65. Name two metals which will displace hydrogen from dilute acids and two metals which will
66. What are amphoteric oxides?
67. How are metals in the top of the activity series extracted?
68. Why is refining of metals necessary?
69. Name the metals which are electrolytically refined.
70. What is anode mud?
71. Name some metals which may corrode easily?
72. Why iron turn brown after exposing to moist air for a long time?
73. Copper gains a green coat when exposed to air why?
74. Silver becomes black after sometime when exposed to air, why?
75. List the condition necessary for corrosion?
76. Which metals do not corrode easily?
77. How is rusting of iron prevented?
78. What is galvanization?
79. Which is the best method of prevention of corrosion to improve the properties of metal?
80. Name the metals present in stainless steel.
81. How is iron made hard and strong?
82. What is an alloy?
83. How are alloys prepared?
84. Name the alloys of copper.
85. Name the alloy of zinc
86. Name the alloy of lead and tin
87. If one of the metals is mercury. What is its alloy?
88. What are the objectives of alloys?
89. Name the uses of the alloy solder
90. Define metallurgy
91. Define corrosion
92. In the electrolytic refining of a metal M, what would you take as the anode, the cathode and the
electrolyte
93. Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet it is used to make utensils for cooking why
94. Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewelry. Why?
27
95. What will be the action of SO2 gas on dry litmus paper and moist litmus paper
96. The bronze medals are made up of___________________
97. A greenish coating on copper utensils is due to the formation of___________________
98. Rusting takes place in ___________________ water.
99. Which gas is produced when Cinnabar is heated in the presence of oxygen?
100.An alloy is a mixture of ___________________
101.The impurities present in the ore is called ___________________
ASSERTION AND REASONING

In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose
the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(c) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
(d) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
Note – A: represents ‘assertion’ and R: represents ‘reason’
1. A: Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc.
R: Zinc is costlier than tin.
2. A: Copper is used to make hot water tanks but not steel.
R: Copper is a good conductor of heat than steel and it is fairly resistant to corrosion
3. A: Aluminium is called a self-protecting metal.
R: Aluminium reacts with atmospheric oxygen to form a very thin layer of aluminium oxide which is
sticky in nature.
4. A: Copper reacts with silver nitrate solution.
R: Copper is placed higher in the reactivity series than silver. Thus it can displace silver from silver
nitrate solution.
5. A: Gold cannot be alloyed.
R: Pure gold has a high melting point and is very soft. Thus the ornaments made from it do not keep
their shape.
6. A: Zinc is used in the galvanization of iron.
R: Iron is more reactive than zinc and so oxidation take place.
7. A: We apply paint on iron articles.
R: Iron articles get rusted when exposed to air.
28
8. A: Fe2O3 +2Al --- Al2O3+2 Fe
R: Due to lot of heat molten iron is formed.
9. A: Silver ornaments lose their shine when exposed to air.
R: Silver forms a green coating on its surface due to CO2
10. A: Sulphide ores are calcinated.
R: Sulphide ores are heated strongly in excess of air.
11. A: Sodium chloride has a high melting and boiling point.
R: Sodium and chloride ions held by weak inter ionic bond in its molecule.
12. A: In electrolytic refining, impure copper is taken as cathode and pure copper as anode.
R: Molten chlorides are used as electrolytes in refining of metals.
13. A: Na, K, Ca react with cold water.
R: They produce their respective hydroxides and hydrogen gas.
14. A: Sodium metal reacts violently with water.
R: It Floats on the surface of water and melts to form a silvery ball and disappears producing a
colourless gas
15. A: Zinc oxide is an amphoteric oxide.
R: It reacts with both acid and base to form salt and water

1. The colour of coating developed on a zinc rod on dipping it in a aqueous copper sulphate solution will
be
(a) Blue
(b) Brown
(c) White
(d) Green
2. When you place an iron nail in copper sulphate solution ,the reddish brown coating formed on the nail
is
(a) soft and dull
(b) hard and flaky
(c) smooth and shining
(d) rough and granular
3. Fe2O3 +Al ----- Al2O3+Fe. The reaction is an example of _______________
(a) combination reaction
(b) decomposition reaction
(c) displacement reaction
(d) double displacement reaction
29
4. To show experimentally that zinc is more reactive than copper ,the correct procedure is
(a) prepare copper sulphate solution and dip zinc strip in it
(b) prepare zinc sulphate solution and dip copper strip in it
(c) heat zinc and copper strips.
(d) add dilute nitric acid on both the strips
5. A colourless solution kept in a test tube could be
(a) Ferrous sulphate
(b) Copper sulphate
(c) Aluminium sulphate
(d) potassium permanganate
6. Reddish brown deposits observed on iron nails when these are kept in aqueous solution of copper
sulphate is that of
(a) Cu2O
(b) CuO
(c) Cu
(d) CuS
7. The blue colour of copper sulphate solution can be changed to pale green by immersing which of the
following rod in it.
(a) Iron
(b) Zinc
(c) Aluminium
(d) Silver
8. Zinc and copper metal used in the laboratory is available respectively in the form of
(a) Zn filings ,Cu turnings
(b) Zn strips, Cu pellets
(c) Zn granules, Cu turnings
(d) Zn pellets, Cu strips
9. An iron nail was kept immersed in aluminium sulphate solution, after about an hour it was observed
that
(a) The colourless solution changes to light green
(b) the solution becomes warm
(c) grey metal is deposited on the iron nail
(d) the solution remains colourless and no deposition is seen on the iron nail
30
10. 10ml of freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution was taken in each of the test tubes. Strips of copper
iron, zinc and aluminium were introduced, each metal zinc but not on the copper in a different test tube.
A black residue was obtained in two of them. The right pair of metals would be
(a) copper and zinc
(b) aluminium and copper
(c) iron and aluminium
(d) zinc and aluminium
11. Two beakers A and B contain iron sulphate solution. In the beaker A is placed a small piece of copper
and in the beaker B is placed a small piece of zinc. It is found that a grey deposit forms on the zinc but
not on the copper. It is concluded that
(a) zinc is most active metal followed by iron and copper
(b) zinc is most active metal followed by copper and then iron
(c) iron is most active metal followed by zinc and copper
(d) iron is most active metal followed by copper and then zinc
12. Some crystals of copper sulphate were dissolved in water. The colour of the solution would be
(a) Green (b) Red (c) Blue (d) Brown
13. On adding zinc granules to freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution, a student observes that
(a) a dull brown coating
(b) a black coating
(c) a greyish coating
(d) no coating
14. 4 Strips labeled as A, B, C and D have colours reddish brown, dark grey, blackish grey and silvery
white respectively. Which of this could be aluminium?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
15. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Copper is more reactive than zinc
(b) zinc is more reactive than copper
(c) copper and zinc are equally reactive
(d) zinc is less reactive than copper
16. A student puts one big iron nail each in four test tubes containing solutions of zinc sulphate, aluminium
sulphate, copper sulphate and iron sulphate. A reddish brown coating was observed only on the surface
of iron nail, which was put in the solution of
(a) zinc sulphate
(b) iron sulphate
(c) copper sulphate
(d) aluminium sulphate
31
17. When an aluminium strip is kept immersed in freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution taken in a test
tube, the change which is observed is
(a) the green solution slowly turns brown
(b) the lower end of the test tube becomes slightly warm.
(c) A colourless gas with a smell of burning sulphur is observed.
(d) light green solution changes to blue
18. Name the metal which is abundant in nature
(a) Aluminium
(b) Iron
(c) Zinc
(d) Carbon
19. Which is the most reactive metal in the reactivity series?
(a) Sodium
(b) Potassium
(c) Iron
(d) Calcium
20. Name the metal which can be cut with a knife.
(a) Calcium
(b) Iron
(c) Sodium
(d) Aluminium
21. Give an example of a metal which is a liquid at room temperature.
(a) Mercury
(b) Magnesium
(c) lead
(d) tin
22. Name a non-metal which is a liquid.
(a) Bromine
(b) Iodine
(c) Chlorine
(d) Sulphur
23. ___________ is an amphoteric oxide.
(a) calcium oxide
(b) Zinc oxide
(c) sodium oxide
(d) potassium oxide
32
24. The elements and compounds present in the earth‘s crust is called___________
(a) Ore
(b) Gangue
(c) anode mud
(d) minerals
25. ___________ is found in the free state
(a) Gold
(b) Sodium
(c) Potassium
(d) Calcium
26. Sodium chloride is an ___________ compound.
(a) Ionic
(b) Covalent
(c) coordinate
(d) none
27. ___________ reacts with nitric acid and forms hydrogen gas.
(a) Manganese
(b) Iron
(c) Sodium
(d) Calcium
28. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Mg>Al>Zn>Fe
(b) Mg >Al>Fe>Zn
(c) Al>Mg>Zn>Fe
(d) Mg >Zn>Al>Fe
29. Magnesium reacts with ___________ water
(a) Cold
(b) Hot
(c) Steam
(d) none
30. Non-metals which are lustrous and good conductor of electricity respectively are ______ and _______
(a) iodine, graphite
(b) iron, sulphur
(c) sulphur, graphite
(d) iodine, phosphorous
33
ANSWERS
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Metallic lustre
2. Malleability
3. Gold, silver, platinum
4. Ductility
5. Gold
6. Silver, copper
7. Lead and mercury
8. The property of metals producing a sound on striking a hard surface is called to be sonorous
9. Metal - Mercury, Non-metal - Bromine
10. Gallium, Caesium
11. Carbon
12. Diamond
13. Graphite
14. Lithium, sodium, potassium
15. Metals form basic oxide and amphoteric oxide, non-metals form acidic oxides and neutral oxides
16. Aluminium oxide, Zinc oxide
17. Sodium oxide, potassium oxide
18. Copper (11) oxide
Metals like sodium and potassium react so vigorously that they catch fire, if kept i8n the open. To protect
19.
them and to prevent accidental fires ,they are immersed in kerosene oil
20. Al2O3+6 HCl --- 2 AlCl3 +3H2O
21. Al2O3+2NaOH ---2 NaAlO2 + H2O
Potassium and sodium react violently and produce heat sufficient for the evolving hydrogen gas to catch
22.
fire
23. 2K+H2O --- 2KOH+H2+ heat
24. 2Na+H2O --- 2NaOH+H2+ heat
Calcium or magnesium react less violently with water and the heat produced is not sufficient for the
25.
evolved hydrogen to catch fire
Mg + 2H2O ---Mg (OH) 2+ H2
26.
Ca + 2H20 ---Ca (OH) 2 + H2
27. Magnesium, aluminium, zinc, lead
28. iron
29. Copper II oxide
30. Silver, gold
Metals with cold water – sodium, potassium and calcium
31. Metals with hot water – magnesium
Steam – aluminium, iron and zinc
34
32. Lead, copper, silver and gold
33. Nitric acid (HN03)
34. Manganese, magnesium
35. Salt solution of A + Metal B
36. A list of metals arranged in the order of their decreasing activities
37. Hydrogen gas
38. Fe + H2S04 --- FeS04 +H2
39. Iron sulphate which is pale green in colour changes to colourless and zinc metals becomes dull in colour
40. 3 Fe + 4H2O --- Fe3O4 + 2H2
The compounds formed by the transfer of electrons for a metal to a non-metal are known as ionic
41.
compounds or electrovalent compounds.
42. A considerable amount of energy is required to break the strong inter ionic attraction
43. Movement of ions in the solid state possible due to their rigid structure
Due to electrostatic forces of attraction between the charged ions are overcome due to heat. The ions move
44.
freely and conduct electricity
Sodium Na- 11 (2, 8, 1 )
45. Oxygen 0-8 (2,6)
Magnesium Mg -12 (2,8,2)
46. The elements or compounds, which occur naturally in the earth‘s crust are known as minerals.
47. Minerals from which metals can be profitably extracted are called ores.
48. Gold, silver, platinum, and copper
49. Copper, silver
50. Potassium, sodium, calcium, magnesium and aluminium
51. Zinc, iron and lead
52. Oxygen is a very reactive element and is very abundant on the earth.
53. Ore contaminated with large amounts of impurities such as soil, sand etc., called gangue
54. Cinnabar (HgS)
55. By roasting and refining
2HgS + 3O2 --- 2HgO + 2S02
56.
2HgO --- 2Hg +O2
57. Reduction process
58. It is easier to obtain a metal from its oxides are compared to its sulphides and carbonates
59. The process of changing the carbonate ores and its oxides by heating strongly in limited air
60. The process of converting sulphide ores into oxide by heating strongly in the presence of excess air
61. By using suitable reducing agents such as carbon
62. Reduction
Displacement reaction between iron III oxide and aluminium give molten iron used to join railway tracts or
63. cracked machine parts.
Fe2O3 + 2 Al --- 2 Fe + All2O3 + heat
64. These metals have more affinity for oxygen for carbon
35
65. Magnesium, zinc displaces hydrogen
66. Oxides which acts on both acid and base to give salt and water
67. Electrolytic reduction
The metals produced by various reduction processes are not very pure. They contain impurities which
68.
must be removed to obtain pure metals
69. Copper, zinc, tin, Nickel, silver and gold
The insoluble impurities settle down at the bottom of the anode during electrolyte refining of metals is
70.
called anode mud
71. Iron, copper, silver
72. Iron undergoes corrosion and oxidizes to form flaky iron oxide called rust.
73. Copper reacts with moist C02 and forms green basic copper carbonate
74. Silver reacts with sulphur in the air to form a coating of silver sulphide
75. Air and water
76. Gold and platinum
77. Painting, oiling, greasing, galvanizing and chrome plating, anodizing and making alloys.
78. A method of protecting steel or ion from rusting by coating them with a layer of zinc
79. Alloying
80. Iron, nickel, chromium
81. By mixing iron with a small amount of carbon dioxide
82. An alloy is a homogenous mixture of metals or metal with a non-metal
Alloys are prepared by first melting the primary metal and then dissolving the other element in definite
83.
proportion. It is then cooled to room temperature
84. Brass and bronze
85. Brass
86. Solder
87. Amalgam
88. Prevents corrosion, lasts long, low melting points, have high tensible strength, low electrical conductivity
89. Welding electrical wires together
90. Extraction of metals from their ores and then refining them for ore is known metallurgy
The surface of some metal such as iron is corroded when they are exposed to moist air for a long period of
91.
time. This phenomenon is known as corrosion
Anode - impure metal
92. Cathode – pure metal
Electrolyte – salt solution
93. Good conductor of heat
94. Ductile
On dry litmus paper, it shows no change.
95. On moist litmus paper, it changes blue to red because S02 is acidic in nature and moist.
Litmus paper contain water and so splitting of ions take place and acidic nature is shown
96. copper and tin
36
97. CuOH2,cUco3
98. Both ordinary and distilled water
99. SO2
100. metals and non-metals
101. Gangue
1. b 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. c
6. b 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. b
11. b 12. b 13. a 14. a 15. a
1. b 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. c
6. c 7. a 8. c 9. d 10. d
11. a 12. c 13. a 14. d 15. b
16. c 17. b 18. a 19. b 20. c
21. a 22. a 23. b 24. d 25. a
26. a 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. a
37
4. CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
1. Carbon exists in the atmosphere in the form of

(a) Only carbon monoxide
(b) Carbon monoxide in traces and carbon dioxide
(c) Only carbon dioxide
(d) Coal
2. Which of the following statements are usually correct for carbon compounds?
(i) They are good conductors of electricity
(ii) They are poor conductors of electricity
(iii) They have strong forces of attraction between their molecules
(iv) They do not have strong forces of attraction between their molecules
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
3. A molecule of ammonia (NH3) has
(a) Only single bonds
(b) Only double bonds
(c) Only triple bonds
(d) Two double bonds and one single bond
4. Buckminsterfullerene is an allotropic form of
(a) Phosphorus
(b) Sulphur
(c) Carbon
(d) Tin
5. Which of the following are correct structural isomers of C4H10?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
38
6. In the following reaction, alkaline KMnO4 acts as:

CH3–CH2–OH Alkaline KMnO4 + Heat CH3–COOH
(a) Reducing agent
(b) Oxidising agent
(c) Catalyst
(d) Dehydrating agent
7. Oils on treating with hydrogen in the presence of palladium or nickel catalyst form fats. This is an
example of
(a) Addition reaction
(b) Substitution reaction
(c) Displacement reaction
(d) Oxidation reaction
8. In which of the following compounds -OH is the functional group?
(a) Butanone
(b) Butanol
(c) Butanoic
(d) Butanal
9. The soap molecule has a
(a) Hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail
(b) Hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail
(c) Hydrophobic head and a hydrophobic tail
(d) Hydrophilic head and a hydrophilic tail
10. Which of the following is the correct representation of electron dot structure of nitrogen?
11. Structural formula of ethyne is
39
12. Identify the unsaturated compounds from the following
(i) Propane
(ii) Propene
(iii) Propyne
(iv) Chloropropane
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
13. Chlorine reacts with saturated hydrocarbons at room temperature in the
(a) absence of sunlight
(b) presence of sunlight
(c) presence of water
(d) presence of hydrochloric acid
14. In the soap micelles
(a) The ionic end of soap is on the surface of the cluster while the carbon chain is in the interior
of the cluster
(b) Ionic end of soap is in the interior of the cluster and the carbon chain is out of the cluster
(c) Both ionic end and carbon chain are in the interior of the cluster
(d) Both ionic end and carbon chain are on the exterior of the cluster
15. Pentane has the molecular formula C5H12. It has
(a) 5 covalent bonds
(b) 12 covalent bonds
(c) 16 covalent bonds
(d) 17 covalent bonds
16. Structural formula of benzene is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
40
17. Ethanol reacts with sodium and forms two products. These are
(a) Sodium ethanoate and hydrogen
(b) Sodium ethanoate and oxygen
(c) Sodium ethoxide and hydrogen
(d) Sodium ethoxide and oxygen
18. The correct structural formula of butanoic acid is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
19. Vinegar is a solution of:

(a) 50% - 60% acetic acid in alcohol
(b) 5% - 8% acetic acid in alcohol
(c) 5% - 8% acetic acid in water
(d) 50%- 60% acetic acid in water
20. Mineral acids are stronger acids than carboxylic acids because
(i) Mineral acids are completely ionised.
(ii) Carboxylic acids are completely ionized
(iii) Mineral acids are partially ionisedCarboxylic acids are partially ionized
(iv) Carboxylic acids are partially ionized
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
21. Carbon forms four covalent bonds by sharing its four valence electrons with four univalent atoms,
e.g. hydrogen. After the formation of four bonds, carbon attains the electronic configuration of
(a) Helium
(b) Neon
(c) Argon
(d) Krypton
41
22. The correct electron dot structure of a water molecule is
23. Which of the following is not a straight chain hydrocarbon?
24. Which among the following are unsaturated hydrocarbons?
(a) (i) and (iii)

(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
25. Which of the following does not belong to the same homologous series?
(a) CH4
(b) C2H6
(c) C3H8
(d) C4H8
42
26. The name of the compound, CH3 ─ CH2 ─ CHO is:
(a) Propanal
(b) Propanone
(c) Ethanol
(d) Ethanal
27. The heteroatoms present in CH3 ─ CH2 ─ O ─ CH2 ─ CH2Cl are:
(i) Oxygen
(ii) Carbon
(iii) Hydrogen
(iv) Chlorine
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
28. Which of the following represents saponification reaction?
29. The first member of alkyne homologous series is:

(a) Ethyne
(b) Ethene
(c) Propyne
(d) Methane
43
ANSWERS
1. c 2. d 3. a 4. c 5. a
6. b 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. d
11. a 12. d 13. b 14. a 15. c
16. c 17. c 18. d 19. c 20. a
21. b 22. c 23. d 24. c 25. d
26. a 27. d 28. d 29. a
EXPLANATION
1. Carbon exists only in the form of carbon dioxide gas (CO2) in air
2. Carbon having four valence electrons forms only covalent compounds which exhibit less
intermolecular attractions and do not have any free electrons to carry electric current. Therefore,
these are poor conductors of electricity.
3. Ammonia is a covalent molecule in which center nitrogen atom is bonded with three hydrogen
atoms through single covalent bond.
4. Buckminsterfullerene is an allotrope of carbon with 60 carbon atoms which are joined together
in a spherical shape.
5. Structural isomers have same molecular formula but different parent chain of carbon atoms in
the molecule.
6. KMnO4 acts as oxidizing agent as it oxidized CH3CH2OH to CH3COOH by addition of
oxygen atom.
7. It is hydrogenation reaction means addition of hydrogen to double bonds of unsaturated
compounds found in oil.
8. Compounds with –OH functional group are ended with suffix –ol.
C4H9 ─ OH (or) CH3 ─ CH2 ─ CH2 ─ CH2 ─ OH
9. A soap molecule contains a long hydrocarbon part and a small ionic part of – COONa group.
Hydrocarbon chain is hydrophobic or water repelling whereas ionic head is hydrophilic or
water attracting group.
44
10. Nitrogen molecule is a covalent molecule in which two nitrogen atoms are bonded through
triple covalent bond with one lone pair of electrons over each nitrogen atom.
11. General formula for alkyne is CnH2n − 2. There must be at least one triple bond between carbon
atoms. With two carbon atom, the possible structure would be H ─ C ≡ C ─ H.
12. Alkene and alkyne are unsaturated hydrocarbon as they have double and triple covalent bonds
between carbon atoms.
13. Chlorine shows photochemical substitution reactions with saturated hydrocarbons that occurs in the
presence of light
14. A micelle is a spherical aggregation of soap molecules in water in which hydrocarbon ends are
directed towards the centre and ionic ends are directed outwards.
15. Pentane contains four C-C bonds and twelve C-H covalent bonds.
16. Benzene is simplest aromatic compound with six carbon atoms and six H atoms. There are three
alternate pi bonds in ring of carbon atoms.
17. Ethanol (C2H5OH) reacts with sodium to form sodium ethoxide (C2H5ONa) along with liberation of
hydrogen gas. H5OH + 2Na → 2C2H5ONa + H2 ↑
18. Butanoic acid is a carboxylic acid with four carbon atom and one –COOH group at terminal.
19. Vinegar is a 5%-8% aqueous solution of acetic acid.
20. Mineral acids like nitric acid, sulphuric acid are stronger than carboxylic acid as they can ionize
100% in their solution.
21. Electronic configuration of carbon is 2, 4 hence it contains 4 valence electrons and after formation of
4 covalent bonds, it will get 4 more electrons through them so total would be 10 electrons that is
atomic number for Neon gas.
22. In water molecule, center oxygen atom contains two lone pairs of electrons and form two single
covalent bonds with two hydrogen atoms.
23. A branched chain hydrocarbon must contain some side chains which are bonded with parent carbon
chain.
24. Unsaturated hydrocarbons have multiple covalent bonds (double or triple bond) like alkene and
alkyne.
45
25. Successive members of same homologous series are differ by -CH2 unit. CH4, C2H6, C3H8 belong to
same series that is of alkane and differ by ─CH2 unit but C4H8 does not belong to this.
26. Compound contains three carbon atoms so prop- would be root word and – CHO functional group so
suffix will be –al. Hence name would be propane + al = propanal.
27. Atoms other than C and H in organic compound are called as heteroatoms.
28. Saponification reaction is reaction of ester with base like NaOH to form the parent alcohol and
sodium salt of carboxylic acid.
29. Alkyne is an organic compound with triple covalent bond between two carbon atoms therefore first
member of homologous series must have at least two carbon atoms with one triple bond that is ethyne
(CH ≡ CH).
46
5. PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
1. 14 elements after actinium is called
a) Lanthanides
b) Actinides
c) d-block elements
d) p-block elements
2. An element has an atomic number of 15 with which of the following elements will it show similar
chemical properties?
a) Be(4)
b) Ne(10)
c) N(7)
d) O((8)
3. The group number and period number respectively of an element with atomic number 8 is
a) 6, 2
b) 16, 2
c) 6, 8
d) 16, 4
4. An element belongs to period 2 and group 2 the number of valence electrons in the atoms of this
element is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 1
5. In the third period of the Periodic Table the element having smallest size is
a) Na
b) Ar
c) Cl
d) Si
6. Electronic configuration of Al+3 is
a) 2, 8, 3
b) 2, 8, 8
c) 2, 8
d) 2, 8, 8, 3
47
7. The increasing order of the atomic radii of elements Na, Rb, K, Mg is
a) Na < K < Mg < Rb
b) K < Na < Mg < Rb
c) Na < Mg < K < Rb
d) Mg < Na < K < Rb
8. Which of the following sets does not belong to a group?
a) Li, Na, K
b) B, C, N
c) B, Al, Ga
d) O, S, Se
9. An element with atomic number will form a basic oxide _________.
a) 7
b) 17
c) 14
d) 11
10. Element belonging to which of the following atomic numbers 11, 19, 14, 18, 23 belong to the same
period?
a) 11, 14, 23
b) 11, 18, 20
c) 11, 14, 18
d) 14, 19, 23
11. The correct order of the increasing radii of the elements Na, Si, Al and P is
a) Si, Al, P, Na
b) P, Si, Al, Na
c) Al, Si, P, Na
d) Al, P, Si, Na
12. Identify the group which is not a Döbereiner triad
a) Li, Na, K
b) Be, Mg, Cr
c) Ca, Sr, Ba
d) Cl, Br, I
13. Which is not true about noble gases?
a) They are non-metallic in nature
b) They exist in atomic form
c) They are radioactive in nature
d) Xenon is the most reactive among these
48
14. Which of the given elements A, B, C, D, and E with atomic number 3, 11, 15, 18, 19 respectively
belong to the same group
a) A, B, C
b) B, C, D
c) A, D, E
d) A, B, E
15. Identify the wrong sequence of the elements in a group
a) Ca, Sr, Ba
b) Cu, Au, Ag
c) N, P, As
d) Cl, Br, I
16. Two elements X and Y have – (i) X has 17 protons 18 neutrons (ii) Y has 17 protons and 20
neutrons Both X and Y are –
a) Isobars
b) Isotopes
c) Isotones
d) None of the above
17. Mendeleev predicted the existence of two elements and named them as eka-silicon and eka-
aluminium. Identify the elements which took their position at later stage
a) Si and Ge
b) Si and Ga
c) Ge and Ga
d) Si and Al
18. An element ‗X‘ is placed in group 13 and third period of the Periodic Table. It burns in oxygen to
form an oxide which is amphoteric in nature. Identify the chemical formula of its chloride
a) CCl4
b) BCl2
c) GaCl3
d) AlCl3
19. The element with atomic number 3 to 10 belongs to the second period. Identify the most
electropositive and most electronegative element.
a) F, Li
b) Li, F
c) Li, Ne
d) Ne, Li
49
20. In the Modern Periodic Table calcium (Z = 20) is surrounded by the elements with atomic numbers
12, 19, 21, and 38 which of the following will have physical and chemical properties resembling
calcium
a) 12, 20, 38
b) 12, 19, 20, 38
c) 19, 20, 38
d) 12, 19, 20
21. An element X (2, 8, 2) combines separately with (SO 4)2–and (PO4)3– radicals. The chemical
formulae of the compounds are
a) X 2SO4 : X3(PO4)2
b) XSO4 : X3(PO4)2
c) X(SO4)2 : X2(PO4)3
d) XSO4 : X3(PO4)3
22. Two elements X and Y belong to group 1 and 2 respectively in the same period. The formulae of
these oxides are
a) XO, YO
b) X 2O, YO
c) X 2O, Y2O
d) XO, YO 2
23. In the Modern Periodic Table, the metals among the first ten elements are—
a) Be, Na
b) Li, Be
c) Be, Li, Na
d) Li, Na
24. Which of the following has maximum non-metallic character?
a) F
b) Br
c) Cl
d) I
25. Arrange the following elements into the increasing order of their metallic character along a period.
a) S < Si < P < Al
b) S < P < Si < Al
c) Si < P < S < Al
d) Si < S < P < Al
50
26. Which of the following are not the characteristics of isotopes of an element? Isotopes of an element
a) show same atomic mass
b) show same atomic number
c) occupy same position in the Periodic Table
d) show same chemical properties
27. Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends when going from left
to right across the periods of periodic Table?
a) The elements become less metallic in nature.
b) The number of valence electrons increases.
c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
d) The oxides become more acidic
28. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which is a solid with a high melting point. X
would most likely be in the same group of the Periodic Table as
a) Na
b) Mg
c) Al
d) Si
29. Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends when going from left
to right across the periods of periodic table
a) The elements become less metallic in nature.
b) The number of valence electrons increases.
c) The atom loses their electrons more easily.
d) The oxides become more acidic
30. The element with no definite place in the periodic table is
a) Na
b) H
c) AI
d) Si
31. Which of the following is an inert gas?
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Argon
d) Hydrogen
51
32. According to Mendeleev's Periodic Law, the elements were arranged in the periodic table in the
order of
a) increasing atomic number
b) decreasing atomic number
c) increasing atomic masses
d) decreasing atomic masses
33. In Mendeleev‘s Periodic Table, gaps were left for the elements to be discovered later. Which of the
following elements found a place in the periodic table later?
a) Germanium
b) Chlorine
c) Oxygen
d) Silicon
34. Which of the following statement (s) about the Modern Periodic Table are incorrect
i) The elements in the Modern Periodic Table are arranged on the basis of their decreasing atomic
number
ii) The elements in the Modern Periodic Table are arranged on the basis of their increasing atomic
masses
iii) Isotopes are placed in adjoining group (s) in the Periodic Table
iv) The elements in the Modern Periodic Table are arranged on the basis of their increasing atomic
number
a) (i) only
b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
d) (iv) only
35. Which of the following statements about the Modern Periodic Table is correct:
a) It has 18 horizontal rows known as Periods
b) It has 7 vertical columns known as Periods
c) It has 18 vertical columns known as Groups
d) It has 7 horizontal rows known as Groups
36. Which of the given elements A, B, C, D and E with atomic number 2, 3, 7, 10 and 30 respectively
belong to the same period?
a) A, B, C
b) B, C, D
c) A, D, E
d) B, D, E
52
37. The elements A, B, C, D and E have atomic number 9, 11, 17, 12 and 13 respectively. Which pair
of elements belongs to the same group?
a) A and B
b) B and D
c) A and C
d) D and E
38. Where would you locate the element with electronic configuration 2, 8 in the Modern Periodic
Table?
a) Group 8
b) Group 2
c) Group 18
d) Group 10
39. An element which is an essential constituent of all organic compounds belongs to
a) group 1
b) group 14
c) group 15
d) group 16
40. Which of the following is the outermost shell for elements of period 2?
a) K shell
b) L shell
c) M shell
d) N shell
41. Which one of the following elements exhibit maximum number of valence electrons?
a) Na
b) Al
c) Si
d) P
42. Which of the following gives the correct increasing order of the atomic radii of O, F and N?
a) O, F, N
b) N, F, O
c) O, N, F
d) F, O, N
53
43. Which among the following elements has the largest atomic radii?
a) Na
b) Mg
c) K
d) Ca
44. Which of the following elements would lose an electron easily?
a) Mg
b) Na
c) K
d) Ca
45. Which of the following elements does not lose an electron easily?
a) Na
b) F
c) Mg
d) Al
46. Which of the following are the characteristics of isotopes of an element?
i) Isotopes of an element have same atomic masses
ii) Isotopes of an element have same atomic number
iii) Isotopes of an element show same physical properties
iv) Isotopes of an element show same chemical properties
a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
47. Arrange the following elements in the order of their decreasing metallic character Na, Si, Cl, Mg,
Al
a) Cl > Si >Al > Mg >Na
b) Na >Mg >Al >Si > Cl
c) Na > Al > Mg > Cl > Si
d) Al > Na> Si > Ca> Mg
48. Arrange the following elements in the order of their increasing nonmetallic character –
Li, O, C, Be, F
a) F < O < C < Be < Li
b) Li < Be < C < O< F
c) F < O < C < Be < Li
d) F < O < Be < C < Li
54
49. What type of oxide would Eka– aluminium form?
a) EO3
b) E3O2
c) E2O3
d) EO
50. Three elements B, Si and Ge are
a) metals
b) non-metals
c) metalloids
d) metal, non-metal and metalloid respectively
51. Which of the following elements will form an acidic oxide?
a) An element with atomic number 7
b) An element with atomic number 3
c) An element with atomic number 12
d) An element with atomic number 19
52. The element with atomic number 14 is hard and forms acidic oxide and a covalent halide. To which
of the following categories does the element belong?
a) Metal
b) Metalloid
c) Non-metal
d) Left-hand side element
53. Which one of the following does not increase while moving down the group of the periodic Table?
a) Atomic radius
b) Metallic character
c) Valence
d) Number of shells in an element
54. On moving from left to right in a period in the periodic table, the size of the atom
a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change appreciably
d) first decreases and then increases
55
55. Which of the following set of elements is written in order of their increasing metallic character?
a) Be Mg Ca
b) Na Li K
c) Mg Al Si
d) C O N
56. The property of an element in the periodic table depends on its, ________.
a) atomic size
b) atomic mass
c) electronic configuration
d) number of protons
57. An element has configuration 2, 8, 1. It belongs to,
a) 1 group and 3rd period
b) 3 group and 1st period
c) 1 group and 8th period
d) 17 group and 3rd period
58. The number of electrons in the valence shell is equal to its
a) atomic mass
b) group number
c) period number
d) atomic volume
59. The non-metallic element present in the third period other than sulphur and chlorine is
a) oxygen
b) fluorine
c) nitrogen
d) phosphorus
60. At the end of each period the valence shell is
a) incomplete
b) half filled
c) singly occupied
d) completely filled
56
61. The family of elements having seven electrons in the outermost shell is
a) alkali metals
b) alkaline earth metals
c) halogens
d) noble gases
62. Which of the following factors does not affect the metallic character of an element?
a) Atomic size
b) Ionisation potential
c) Electro negativity
d) Atomic radius
63. The family of elements to which potassium belongs is
a) alkali metals
c) halogens
d) noble gases
64. The modern periodic table is given by
a) Mendeleev
b) Einstein
c) Bohr
d) Mosley
65. Elements belonging to groups 1 to 17 are called
a) noble gases
b) normal elements
c) transition elements
d) inner transition elements
66. A liquid non-metal is
a) phosphorous
b) mercury
c) bromine
d) nitrogen
67. The first alkali metal is
a) hydrogen
b) lithium
c) sodium
d) francium
57
68. A purple coloured solid halogen is
a) chlorine
b) bromine
c) iodine
d) astatine
69. Lanthanides and actinides are also called
a) normal elements
b) transition elements
c) noble gases
d) inner transition elements
70. The family of elements to which calcium belongs is
a) alkali metals
c) halogens
d) noble gases
71. The least reactive element in group 17 is
a) fluorine
b) chlorine
c) bromine
d) iodine
72. The valency of chlorine with respect to oxygen is
a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7
73. The number of shells in the elements of 3rd period is __________
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
74. Four elements along a period have atomic number (11, 13, 16 and 17). The most metallic among
these has an atomic number of
a) 11
b) 12
c) 16
d) 17
58
75. Six elements A, B, C, D, E and F have the following atomic numbers (A = 12, B = 17, C = 18, D =
7, E = 9 and F = 11). Among these elements, the element, which belongs to the 3rd period and has
the highest ionisation potential, is
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) F
76. A factor that affects the ionisation potential of an element is
a) atomic size
b) electron affinity
c) electro-negativity
d) neutron
77. The element, which has the highest electron affinity in the 3rd period is
a) Na
b) Mg
c) Si
d) Cl
78. The element, which has zero electron affinity in the 3rd period is
a) Al
b) P
c) Ar
d) S
79. The statement that is not true about electron affinity is
a) It causes energy to be released
b) It causes energy to be absorbed
c) It is expressed in electron volts
d) It involves formation of an anion
80. Down a group, the electron affinity
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) increases and then decreases
59
81. Which one of the following depicts the correct representation of atomic radius(r)of an atom?
a) (i) and (ii)

b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (iii) and (iv)
d) (i) and (iv)
82. Upto which element, the law of octaves was found to be applicable?
a) Oxygen
b) Calcium
c) Cobalt
d) Potassium
83. Which of the following statement(s) about the Modern Periodic Table are incorrect.
i) The elements in the Modern Periodic Table are arranged on the basis of their decreasing atomic
number.
ii) The elements in the Modern Periodic Table are arranged on the basis of their increasing atomic
masses.
iii) Isotopes are placed in adjoining group(s) in the Periodic Table.
iv) The elements in the Modern Periodic Table are arranged on the basis of their increasing atomic
number
a) Only (i)
b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
d) Only (iv)
60
84. Matter around us is present in the form of
a) elements
b) compounds
c) mixtures
d) all of the above
85. At present ___ elements are known to us.
a) 115
b) 116
c) 117
d) 118
86. Number of elements those are naturally occurring.
a) 92
b) 93
c) 94
d) 95
87. Dobereiner could identify only ______________triads from the elements known at that time
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six
88. It was assumed by Newlands that only ______________elements existed in nature and no more
elements would be discovered in the future.
a) 36
b) 46
c) 56
d) 66
89. Mendeleev was a ______________chemist
a) American
b) English
c) French
d) Russian
61
90. Periodic Law states that ‗the properties of elements are the periodic function of their
______________
a) atomic masses
b) structures
c) atomic weights
d) all of the above
91. Mendeléev‘s Periodic Table contains vertical columns called
a) groups
b) periods
c) intervals
d) none of the above
92. Following is (are) the noble gas (es).
a) Helium
b) Neon
c) Argon
d) All of the above
93. Mendeleev could not assign a correct position to ______________. This was the first limitation
a) Oxygen
b) Carbon
c) Hydrogen
d) Calcium
94. Henry Moseley showed that the ______________of an element is a more fundamental property
a) atomic number
b) atomic mass
c) structure
95. As per modern periodic law, ‗Properties of elements are a periodic function of their
______________
a) atomic number
b) atomic mass
c) structure
62
96. The atomic number gives us the number of ______________in the nucleus of an atom.
a) electrons
b) neutrons
c) protons
d) any of the above
97. The modern periodic table has ______________horizontal rows known as ‗periods‘
a) five
b) six
c) seven
d) eight
98. In modern periodic table, the elements present in any one group have the same number of
a) valence electrons
b) atomic weight
c) atomic mass
d) all of the above
99. Which of the following has maximum atomic size?
a) K
b) Ca
c) Al
d) P
100. The law of octaves was proposed by
a) Newland
b) Doberiener
c) Lother Meyer
d) Mendleeve
101. The number of periods in the long form of the periodic table is
a) 6
b) 7
c) 10
d) 18
102. Which of the following elements has maximum metallic character?
a) Li
b) N
c) Na
d) P
63
103. Which of the following is the most reactive halogen?
a) F
b) Cl
c) Br
d) I
104. Modem Periodic Law was given by
a) Joule
b) Moseley
c) Klechkosky
d) Meyer
105. In the Mendeleel's periodic table properties of the elements are the periodic function of their
a) atomic weight
b) atomic number
c) atomic volume
d) none of these
106. Which of the following did not find a place in Mendeleef's periodic table?
a) Fr
b) Na
c) Ce
d) CI
107. Law of octaves was given by
a) Meyer
b) Mendeleev
c) Moseley
d) Newland
108. Which one of the following elements exhibit maximum number of valence electrons?
a) Na
b) Al
c) Si
d) P
64
109. Which among the following elements has the largest atomic radii?
a) Na
b) Mg
c) K
d) Ca
110. An element has configuration 2, 8, 1. It belongs to, ______________
a) 1 group and 3rd period
b) 3 group and 1st period
c) 1 group and 8th period
d) 17 group and 3rd period
65
ANSWERS
1. b 2. c 3. a 4. a 5. b
6. c 7. c 8. b 9. d 10. c
11. b 12. b 13. c 14. b 15. b
16. b 17. c 18. d 19. b 20. a
21. b 22. b 23. d 24. a 25. b
26. a 27. c 28. b 29. c 30. b
31. c 32. c 33. c 34. b 35. c
36. b 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. b
41. d 42. d 43. c 44. c 45. b
46. b 47. b 48. c 49. c 50. c
51. a 52. b 53. c 54. b 55. a
56. c 57. a 58. b 59. d 60. d
61. c 62. c 63. a 64. d 65. b
66. c 67. b 68. c 69. d 70. b
71. d 72. d 73. c 74. a 75. c
76. a 77. b 78. c 79. b 80. b
81. b 82. b 83. d 84. d 85. a
86. a 87. a 88. d 89. a 90. a
91. a 92. d 93. c 94. a 95. a
96. c 97. a 98. c 99. a 100. a
101. b 102. c 103. a 104. b 105. a
106. a 107. d 108. d 109. c 110. a
66
6. LIFE PROCESSES
1. Life process that converts chemical energy into heat energy
a) Nutrition
b) Respiration
c) Digestion
d) Excretion
2. Energy rich foods are
a) Carbohydrates and fats
b) Proteins and mineral salts
c) Vitamins and minerals
d) Water and roughage
3. Pick out the incorrect statement
a) Organisms grow with time
b) Organisms must repair and maintain their structure
c) Movement of molecules does not take place among cells
d) Energy is essential for life processes
4. Loss of water from leaves will be less if stomata are
a) Only on lower surface
b) Only on upper surface
c) On both the surfaces
d) Scattered
5. Guard cells differ from epidermal cells in having
a) Vacuoles
b) Nucleus
c) Mitochondria
d) Chloroplasts
6. Transpiration occurs from
a) Stomata
b) Cuticle
c) Both of these
d) None of these
67
7. The process in which loss of water takes place in the form of water vapour through stomata is called
a) Transportation
b) Transpiration
c) Guttation
d) Translocation
8. The plant part that do not involve in exchange of gas is
a) Leaf
b) Flower
c) Root
d) Stem
9. Among the following group of plants, select the plant where you find stomata open at night and
close by day time
a) Epiphytes
b) Succulents
c) Mangroves
d) Hydrophytes
10. The force of water absorption affected by opening and closing of stomata is
a) Root pressure
b) Transpiration pull
c) Both of these
d) None of these
11. The transport of water to upper parts of the plants during night is due to
a) Root pressure
b) Transpiration
c) Translocation
d) Leaf pressure
12. The stain that is generally used in preparing a temporary mount of a leaf put to show stomata is
a) Safranin
b) Hematoxylin
c) Acetocarmine
d) Eosin
68
13. The principal transpiring organ of a plant is
a) Root
b) Stem
c) Flower
d) Leaf
14. Transpiration helps in
a) Temperature regulation
b) Maintaining upward movement of water
c) Wilting of leaves
d) Both a and b
15. The mounting material used in the preparation of a leaf peel is
a) Water
b) Glycerine
c) Wax
d) None of these
16. The type of leaf to be selected while preparing a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show stomata is
a) Turgid
b) Flaccid
c) Turbid
d) Flattened
17. Opening of stomata is influenced more by
a) Red light
b) Green light
c) Indigo light
d) Blue light
18. Plant groups in which sunken stomata are generally found are
a) Mesophytes
b) Epiphytes
c) Xerophytes
d) Hydrophytes
69
19. Xerophytes have drought tolerance as compared to mesophytes because of
a) Thick cuticle
b) Sunken stomata
c) Very less transpiration
d) d) All of these
20. Given below are the steps to be followed for performing starch test on a green leaf
(i) Boil the leaf in alcohol
(ii) Boil the leaf in water
(iii) Dip the leaf in iodine solution
(iv) Wash the leaf in water
The correct sequences of steps are
a) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii
b) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
c) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
d) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
21. The part of leaf commonly used for preparing the slide of stomata is
a) Leaf margin
b) Leaf apex
c) Leaf epidermis
d) Leaf petiole
22. Woody plants carry gaseous exchange through
a) Root hair
b) Stem hair
c) Lenticels
d) Epidermal cells
23. Roots of the plants absorb water from the soil through the process of
a) Diffusion
b) Transpiration
c) Osmosis
d) None of these
24. A student wanted to decolourise a leaf. He should boil the leaf in
a) Alcohol
b) Water
c) KOH solution
d) Glycerine
70
25. Nuclei can be seen clearly seen in a well prepared slide of epidermal peel of a leaf in the
a) Guard cells only
b) Epidermal cells only
c) Guard cells as well as epidermal cells
d) Stomata, guard cells and epidermal cells
26. While preparing good temporary mount of leaf peel to observe stomata, care should be taken to
avoid
a) Adding glycerine to the slide
b) Staining the peel with safranin
c) Having air bubbles in the slide
d) Using water to wash the slide
27. Photosynthesis takes place in the presence of
a) Water and sunlight
b) Oxygen and sunlight
c) CO2, water and sunlight
d) CO2 and O2
28. Oxygen liberated during photosynthesis comes from
a) Water
b) Chlorophyll
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Glucose
29. Choose the event that does not occur in photosynthesis
a) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
b) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
c) Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide
d) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy
30. Chlorophyll is present in
a) Intrathylakoid space
b) Thylakoid membrane
c) Intermembrane space
d) Inner membrane of envelope
71
31. When temperature increases, the rate of photosynthesis
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) First increases then decreases again
d) Remains the same
32. Before removing chlorophyll, the leaf is boiled in which one of the following solvent
a) Formalin
b) Water
c) Alcohol
d) Glycerine
33. The solution added to the leaf after boiling it in alcohol and then washing it with water is
a) Benedict‘s solution
b) Brine solution
c) I M sucrose solution
d) Iodine solution
34. Photosynthetic cells contain
a) Chlorophylls
b) Carotenoids
c) Xanthophylls
d) All of these
35. Find out the structure which is not present in chloroplast
a) Granum
b) Stroma
c) Cristae
d) Thylakoid
36. A leaf is boiled in alcohol before using iodine for starch test in order to
a) Dissolve starch
b) Dissolve chlorophyll
c) Soften the leaf
d) Make it react with iodine
72
37. In order to de-starch the leaves for an experiment to show that sunlight is necessary for
photosynthesis
a) Leaves are kept in alcohol and boiled in a water bath
b) Leaves are soaked in iodine for two hours
c) Plant with the leaves is kept in a dark room for 24 hours
d) Plant with the leaves exposed to light of a lamp, a night before the experiment
38. Autotrophic organisms include
a) Bacteria and virus
b) Bacteria and fungi
c) Green plants and some bacteria
d) Green plants and all bacteria
39. Select the incorrect statement about the autotrophs
a) They synthesise carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight and
chlorophyll
b) They store carbohydrates in the form of starch
c) They convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates in the absence of sunlight
d) They constitute the first trophic level
40. An example for autotrophic nutrition
a) Green plants
b) Fungi
c) Bacteria
d) Humans
41. The type of nutrition followed in organisms like Cuscuta, ticks, lice, leeches and tapeworm is
a) Saprotrophic
b) Parasitic
c) Autotrophic
d) Diffusion
42. The internal (cellular) energy reserve in autotrophs is
a) Glycogen
b) Protein
c) Starch
d) Fatty acid
73
43. Select the groups of organisms where food material is broken down outside the body and absorbed
a) Mushroom, green plants, amoeba
b) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
c) Paramecium, amoeba, cuscuta
d) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm
44. Select the correct statement
a) Heterotrophs do not synthesise their own food
b) Heterotrophs utilise solar energy for photosynthesis
c) Heterotrophs synthesise their own food
d) Heterotrophs are capable of converting carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates
45. A few drops of iodine solution were added to rice water. The solution turned blue-black in colour.
This indicated that rice water contains
a) Complex proteins
b) Simple proteins
c) Fats
d) Starch
46. The green colour of plants is due to the presence of
a) Chlorophyll
b) Carotene
c) Xanthophyll
d) Starch
47. In leaves, the food gets stored in the form of
a) Glucose
b) Fructose
c) Glycogen
d) Starch
48. Photosynthesis is a
a) Catabolic process
b) Parabolic process
c) Amphibolic process
d) Photochemical process
74
49. Select the appropriate equation which shows the summary of photosynthesis
a) 6CO2 + 12H2O C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O
b) 6CO2 + H2O + Sunlight C6H12O6 + O2 + 6H2O
c) 6CO2 + 12H2O + Chlorophyll + Sunlight C 6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O
d) 6CO2 + 12H2O + Chlorophyll + Sunlight C6H12O6 + 6CO2 + 6H2O
50. Materials like sucrose are transported into phloem by using energy from
a) ATP
b) NADP
c) ADP
d) Carbohydrates
51. The opening and closing of stomatal pore depends upon
a) Oxygen
b) Temperature
c) Water in guard cells
d) Concentration of CO2 in stomata
52. The mode of nutrition in which an organism derives its food from the body of another living
organism without killing it
a) Saprotrophic nutrition
b) Parasitic nutrition
c) Holozoic nutrition
d) Autrotrophic nutrition
53. The mode of nutrition found in fungi is
a) Saprotrophic nutrition
b) Parasitic nutrition
c) Holozoic nutrition
d) Autrotrophic nutrition
54. The organisms that absorbs nutrition with haustoria are
a) Carnivore
b) Herbivore
c) Parasite
d) Saprophyte
75
55. The food we eat gets converted into energy and stored in our body in the form of
a) Glucose
b) Glycogen
c) Glucagon
d) Starch
56. The process by which Amoeba obtains food is called
a) Phagocytosis
b) Assimilation
c) Diffusion
d) Absorption
57. Amoeba shows the following kind of nutrition
a) Autotrophic
b) Holozoic
c) Saprotrophic
d) Parasitic
58. Temporary finger like extension on amoeba are called
a) Cell membrane
b) Cilia
c) Pseudopodia
d) Cytopharynx
59. The process of taking food in the body is called as
a) Ingestion
b) Assimilation
c) Absorption
d) Digestion
60. The first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract is
a) Pepsin
b) Cellulase
c) Amylase
d) Trypsin
76
61. The part of the alimentary canal where food is finally digested
a) Stomach
b) Mouth cavity
c) Large intestine
d) Small intestine
62. Among the following, which is not considered as part of small intestine
a) Duodenum
b) Jejunum
c) Ileum
d) Rectum
63. Find out the correct sequence of parts in human alimentary canal
a) Mouth Oesophagus Stomach Small intestine Large intestine
b) Mouth Stomach Small intestine Oesophagus Large intestine
c) Mouth Oesophagus Stomach Large intestine Small intestine
d) Mouth Stomach Oesophagus Small intestine Large intestine
64. On seeing good food our mouth waters. This fluid is actually
a) Water
b) Hormone
c) Enzyme
65. If salivary amylase is lacking the saliva, the events that get affected in the mouth cavity will be
a) Proteins breaking down into amino acids
b) Starch breaking down into sugars
c) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
d) Absorption of vitamins
66. The inner lining of stomach is protected by one of the following from hydrochloric acid.
Choose the correct one.
a) Pepsin
b) Mucus
c) Salivary amylase
d) Bile
77
67. Movement of food through oesophagus is due to
a) Lubrication by saliva
b) Peristalsis
c) Gravitational pull
d) All the above
68. The group of organisms which has the longest small intestine are
a) Omnivores
b) Carnivores
c) Herbivores
d) Autotrophs
69. Bile juice is produced in
a) Gall bladder
b) Blood
c) Liver
d) Spleen
70. Chyme is
a) Digestive enzyme secreted by stomach
b) Hormone secreted by islets of Pancreas
c) Food which enters into intestine from stomach
d) Part of bile juice which stores in gall bladder
71. The role of bile during digestion is
a) Emulsification of fat
b) Digestion of fat
c) Absorption of fat
d) Assimilation of fat
72. Proteins after digestion are converted into
a) Carbohydrates
b) Small globules
c) Amino acids
d) Starch
73. The element used in the synthesis of proteins is
a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
78
74. The part of an alimentary canal receives bile from the liver is
a) Stomach
b) Small intestine
c) Large intestine
d) Oesophagus
75. A gland not associated with the alimentary canal is
a) Liver
b) Salivary glands
c) Pancreas
d) Adrenal
76. The nutrient that are chiefly digested in the stomach are
a) Carbohydrates
b) Proteins
c) Fats
d) Lipids
77. The part of the digestive system where no digestion takes place is
a) Ileum
b) Stomach
c) Mouth
d) Oesophagus
78. The enzyme Pepsin is inactive in stomach without the presence of
a) Nitric acid
b) Hydrochloric acid
c) Acetic acid
d) Butyric acid
79. Villi present on the inner lining of the intestinal wall
a) Secretes enzymes for digestion
b) Secretes hormones
c) Decreases the surface area for absorption
d) Increases the surface area for absorption
80. Choose the function of pancreatic juice from the following
a) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase carbohydrates
b) Trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase proteins
c) Trypsin and lipase digest fats
d) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase emulsified fats
79
81. Large intestine in man mainly carries out for
a) Absorption
b) Assimilation
c) Digestion of fats
d) Digestion of carbohydrates
82. The sphincter muscles that help in regulating the exit of food from stomach into the small intestine
is
a) Pyloric sphincter
b) Ileocecal sphincter
c) Cardiac sphincter
d) Anal sphincter
83. The exit of unabsorbed food material is regulated by
a) Pyloric sphincter
b) Anus
c) Small intestine
d) Anal sphincter
84. The fermentation of glucose by yeast normally yields
a) Alcohol, CO2 and 36 ATP
b) CO2, H2O and 36 ATP
c) Alcohol, CO2 and 2 ATP
d) Lactic acid, CO2 and 2 ATP
85. The organism that can live without oxygen of air is
a) Amoeba
b) Sheep
c) Yeast
d) Leech
86. When ATP is brokendown using water, energy is released which is equivalent to
a) 60.5 KJ/mol
b) 30.5 KJ/mol
c) 36.5 KJ/mol
d) None of these
80
87. Respiratory pigment in human body is
a) Chlorophyll
b) Water
c) Blood
d) Haemoglobin
88. Respiration is a process in which
a) Energy is stored in the form of ATP
b) Energy is released and stored in the form of ATP
c) Energy is used up
d) Energy is not released at all
89. A biochemical compound that readily combines with oxygen and distributes it throughout the
human body is
a) Water
b) Urea
c) Haemoglobin
d) Acetylcholine
90. Pick out the metal that is associated with haemoglobin
a) Aluminum
b) Iron
c) Potassium
d) Calcium
91. The breakdown of pyruvate to give CO2, water and energy takes place in
a) Chloroplast
b) Nucleus
c) Mitochondria
d) Cytoplasm
92. Products of anaerobic respiration in muscles are
a) Lactic acid and energy
b) Lactic acid, carbon dioxide and energy
c) Lactic acid, water, carbon dioxide and energy
d) Lactic acid, water and energy
81
93. During respiration exchange of gases take place in
a) Trachea an Larynx
b) Alveoli of Lungs
c) Alveoli and Throat
d) Throat and Larynx
94. During cellular respiration one molecule of glucose is first broken down into two molecules of
a) Acetic acid
b) Pyruvic acid
c) Lactic acid
95. The correct sequence of anaerobic reactions in yeast is
Cytoplasm Mitochondria
a) Glucose Pyruvate Ethanol + Carbon dioxide
Cytoplasm Cytoplasm
b) Glucose Pyruvate Lactic acid
c) Glucose Pyruvate Lactic acid
Cytoplasm Cytoplasm
d) Glucose Pyruvate Ethanol + Carbon dioxide
96. Select the most appropriate sequence for aerobic respiration

Mitochondria Cytoplasm
a) Glucose Pyruvate CO2 + H2O + Energy
b) Glucose Pyruvate CO2 + H2O + Energy
c) Glucose Pyruvate + Energy CO2 + H2O
d) Glucose Pyruvate + Energy CO2 + H2O + Energy
97. Cell organelle in which respiration occurs is

a) Chloroplast
b) Mitochondria
c) Golgi body
d) Lysosome
98. Lack of oxygen in muscles often leads to cramps among cricketers. This results due to
a) Conversion of pyruvate to ethanol
b) Conversion of pyruvate to glucose
c) Non conversion of glucose to pyruvate
d) Conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid
82
99. During deficiency of oxygen in tissues of human beings, pyruvic acid is converted into lactic acid
in the
a) Cytoplasm
b) Chloroplast
c) Mitochondria
d) Golgi body
100. A large quantity of one of the following is removed from our body by lungs
a) CO2 and H2O
b) CO2 only
c) H2O only
d) Ammonia
101. In respiration, air passes through
a) Pharynx Nasal cavity Larynx Trachea Bronchi Bronchioles
b) Nasal cavity Pharynx Larynx Trachea Bronchi Bronchioles
c) Larynx Nasal cavity Pharynx Trachea
d) Larynx Pharynx Trachea Lungs
102. Rings of cartilage present in the throat ensure that

a) Air is filtered
b) Air is at room temperature
c) Air passage does not collapse
d) Air is free of microbes
103. Select the statement that is true about respiration
(i) During inhalation, ribs move inward and diaphragm is raised
(ii) In the alveoli, exchange of gases takes place, (i.e.,) oxygen from alveolar air diffuses into
blood and carbon dioxide from blood into alveolar air
(iii) Haemoglobin has greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen
(iv) Alveoli increase surface area for exchange of gases
a) and (iv)
b) and (iii)
c) and (iii)
d) and (iv)
83
104. In normal expiration, the diaphragm is
a) Arched
b) Flattened
c) Perforated
105. The seeds used to show that CO2 is given out during respiration are
a) Dry seeds
b) Boiled seeds
c) Crushed seeds
d) Germinating seeds
106. During the respiration of germinating seeds, KOH is used to
a) Absorb carbon dioxide produced by the seeds
b) Absorb oxygen present in the flask
c) Absorb water vapour released by the seeds
d) Liberate oxygen to be used by the seeds
107. The chemical required to show that CO2 gas is released during respiration is
a) Potassium bicarbonate
b) Potassium dichromate
c) Potassium permanganate
d) Potassium hydroxide
108. Normal blood pressure (Systolic / Diastolic) is
a) 120/80 mm of Hg
b) 160/80 mm of Hg
c) 120/60 mm of Hg
d) 180/80 mm of Hg
109. Blood pressure is measured by an instrument called
a) Barometer
b) Sphygmomanometer
c) Photometer
d) Manometer
84
110. When air is blown from mouth into a test tube containing lime water, the lime water turns milky
due to the presence of
a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Water vapour
111. Among the following, which vertebrate group / groups heart does not pump oxygenated blood to
different parts of the body
a) Pisces and Amphibians
b) Amphibians and Reptiles
c) Amphibians only
d) Pisces only
112. Single circulation (i.e.,) blood flows through the heart only once during one cycle of passage
through the body, is exhibited by
a) Labeo, Chameleon, Salamander
b) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Anabas
c) Hyla, Rana, Draco
d) Whale, Dolphin, Turtle
113. Find out the correct statement about heart
(i) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from different parts of body while right atrium receives
deoxygenated blood from lungs
(ii) Left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to different body parts while right ventricle pumps
deoxygenated blood to lungs
(iii) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to right ventricle which sends it to different body parts
(iv) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body while left ventricle
pumps oxygenated blood to different parts of the body
a) (i)
b) (ii)
c) (ii) and (iv)
d) (i) and (iii)
85
114. Blood from the superior vena cava flows into
a) Right atrium
b) Right ventricle
c) Left atrium
d) Left ventricle
115. Right part of the human heart contains
a) Oxygenated blood
b) Mixed blood
c) Deoxygenated blood
d) No blood
116. The backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction will b prevented by
a) Valves in heart
b) Thick muscular walls of ventricles
c) Thin walls of atria
d) All of the above
117. One cell thick blood vessels are called
a) Arteries
b) Veins
c) Capillaries
d) Pulmonary artery
118. The vessels which carry blood away from heart to various organs of body
a) Veins
b) Arteries
c) Capillaries
d) Platelets
119. In a closed circulatory system, blood is completely enclosed within
a) Vessels
b) Heart
c) Skeleton
d) Sinuses
120. The correct pathway of blood in circulatory system is
a) Atria Ventricles Arteries Veins
b) Ventricles Atria Veins Arteries
c) Ventricles Veins Arteries Atria
d) Veins Ventricles Atria Arteries
86
121. The force that blood exerts against the wall of a vessel is called
a) Systolic pressure
b) Diastolic pressure
c) Blood pressure
d) None of these
122. Tissue fluid is also called as
a) Blood
b) Plasma
c) Lymph
d) Water
123. The blood leaving the tissues becomes richer in
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Water
c) Haemoglobin
d) Oxygen
124. The xylem in plants are responsible for
a) Transport of water
b) Transport of food
c) Transport of amino acids
d) Transport of oxygen
125. The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system for
a) Nutrition
b) Respiration
c) Excretion
d) Transportation
126. The dirty blood in our body gets filtered in
a) Lungs
b) Heart
c) Kidney
d) Ureter
87
127. Choose the correct path of urine in our body
a) Kidney Ureter Urethra Urinary bladder
b) Kidney Urinary bladder Urethra Ureter
c) Kidney Ureter Urinary bladder Urethra
d) Urinary bladder Kidney Ureter Urethra
128. The main function of the ureter is to
a) Control the pressure of urine in urinary bladder
b) Take urine from kidneys to urinary bladder
c) Filter blood and remove it to urine
d) Connect the parts of excretory system
129. The nutrient that is not selectively reabsorbed in nephron is
a) Glucose
b) Amino acids
c) Salts
d) Carbohydrates
130. The filtration units of kidneys are called
a) Ureter
b) Urethra
c) Neurons
d) Nephrons
131. Cell organelle that stores some waste material is
a) Chloroplast
b) Mitochondria
c) Vacuole
d) Nucleus
132. The largest amounts of nitrogen excreted from a mammalian body through
a) Breath
b) Sweat
c) Urine
d) Faeces
133. Artificial kidneys contain a number of tubes with a lining made of
a) Cell membrane
b) Capsule
c) Semi-permeable membrane
d) None of these
88
134. The process of an artificial kidney that is used to remove nitrogenous waste products from blood is
called
a) Excretion
b) Dialysis
c) Filtration
d) Absorption
135. Choose the forms in which most plants absorb nitrogen
i) Proteins ii) Nitrates and Nitrites iii) Urea iv) Atmospheric nitrogen
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (iii) and (iv)
d) (i) and (iv)
136. If kidney fails to reabsorb water, the tissues would
a) Remain unaffected
b) Shrink to shrivel
c) Absorb water from blood
d) Take more oxygen from blood
137. After wound or cut in a body blood coagulates through
a) WBC
b) RBC
c) Platelets
d) Plasma
138. When blood is forced into the artery, wave like expansion takes place is called
a) Heart beat
b) Pulse
c) Flow
d) Ticking
139. The excretory organ present in earthworm through which excretion takes place
a) Moist Skin
b) Nephridia
c) Both A and B
d) Only B
89
In the following questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read the statements
carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following.
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
140. Assertion: When air is passed through lime water, it turns milky
Reason : Air contains 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen
141. Assertion: Veins have thin walls to collect blood from different organs
Reason : Blood in veins are not under pressure
142. Assertion: Human being has a complex respiratory system
Reason : Human skin is impermeable to gases
143. Assertion: All proteins in our food are digested in small intestine only
Reason : The protein digesting enzymes are released into small intestine
144. Assertion: Human heart does not allow mixing of oxygen rich blood with Carbon dioxide rich
blood
Reason : Human heart has different chambers
145. Assertion: Plants lack excretory organs
Reason : Plants usually absorb essential nutrients
146. Assertion: In plants there is no need of specialized respiratory organs
Reason : Plants do not have great demands of gaseous exchange
147. Assertion: Aerobic respiration requires less energy as compared to anaerobic respiration
Reason : Mitochondria is the power of the cell
148. Assertion: In anaerobic respiration, one of the end product is alcohol
Reason : There is an incomplete breakdown of glucose
90
DIAGRAM BASED QUESTIONS:

149. In the following sketch of the stomatal apparatus, the parts I, II, III and IV were labeled
differently. Find the correct labeling out of the following.
a) (I) Guard cell, (II) Stoma, (III) Starch granule, (IV) Nucleus
b) (I) Cytoplasm, (II) Nucleus, (III) Stoma, (IV) Chloroplast
c) (I) Guard cell, (II) Starch granule, (III) Nucleus, (IV) Stoma
d) (I) Cytoplasm, (II) Chloroplast, (III) Stoma, (IV) Nucleus
150. Find out the correctly focussed epidermal peel of leaf mounted under high power
a) I b) II c) III d) IV
151. In an experiment on photosynthesis, a portion of a leaf from de-starched potted plant was covered
with opaque paper as shown below. ―A‖ shows a leaf covered with red strip, ―B‖ with green strip,
―C‖ with blue strip and ―D‖ with black strip. When the starch test was done on the leaves after 4
hours, the result showed no starch in
Red Green Blue Black
a) The portion covered with red, green and blue strips

b) The portion covered with green strip
c) The portion covered with black and blue strips
d) Any of the covered portions
91
152. A leaf from a de-starched plant is covered with black paper strip as shown below in X. Find the
leaf which shows result after 8 hours of starch test
a) C b) D c) B d) A
153. Observe the given diagram and answer the following questions
(i) Find X. Where X is a small test tube suspended inside the flask during experiment contains
a) Water
b) Lime water
c) Brine water
d) Concentrated KOH solution
(ii) The water level rises in the bent tube because
a) Germinating seeds consume all the oxygen and carbon dioxide
b) Germinating seeds consume oxygen and give out carbon dioxide which is absorbed by KOH
c) Carbon dioxide is given out by the germinating seeds
d) Seeds need water for germination
92
154. Find out the reason for not yielding the expected result from the diagram of experimental set-up
given below which demonstrates that ―CO2 is given out during respiration‖
a) The flask was not airtight

b) There was no KOH in a test tube in the flask
c) The delivery tube was dipped in water
d) The germinating seeds were not immersed in water
155. Observe the given diagram and answer the following question
To test the release of CO2 gas during respiration, the chemical used in test tube (Y) is
a) Lime
b) Lime water
c) Calcium carbonate
d) Marble
156. At levels of atmospheric O2 below 1%, the amount of CO2 released is relatively high. This is
probably because
a) The Krebs cycle is very active
b) O2 is being converted to H2O
c) Alcohol fermentation is occurring
d) Photosynthesis cannot function at night
93
157. Respiration occurs only in living cells like germinating seeds because
a) Living cells need ATP
b) Living cells have glucose
c) Living cells have O2
d) All of these
158. Find an equation to represent aerobic respiration.
a) C6H12O6 + 6O2 ——> 6CO2 + 6H2O + 38 ATP
b) C6H12O6 + 2O2 ——> 12CO2 + 6H2O + 32 ATP
c) C6H12O6 + 12O2 ——> 12CO2 + 12H2O + 30 ATP
d) 2C6H12O6 + 6O2 ——> 6CO2 + 6H2O + 28 ATP
159. At what time of the day do plants respire?
a) Plants respire only during night time
b) Plants respire all the time
c) Plants respire only during day time
d) Plants do only photosynthesis but not respiration
160. The material used to make connections of the set-up air-tight is
a) Vaseline (b) Oil (c) Wax (d) Glue
161. In plants, when the rate of photosynthesis equals the rate of respiration, it is called
a) Boiling point
b) Transpiration
c) Compensation point
d) Freezing point
162. Before setting up an experiment to show that seeds release carbon dioxide during respiration, the
seeds should be
a) Dried completely
b) Boiled to make them soft
c) Soaked in vinegar
d) Kept moist till they germinate
163. Principal waste product of metabolism in humans is ______________
164. _____________ are the solid bodies in fruits in which waste is stored.
165. In ____________, waste is removed by diffusion.
166. The thin double-walled sac enclosing the heart is called ______________
167. ___________ Node is present near the opening of superior and inferior vena cava.
168. _____________ are the lymphatic capillaries arising from the small intestine.
94
169. Given one word for the following:
a) I am secreted from the walls of stomach. I kill all the harmful germs present in food and
help my friend pepsin to work in acidic medium.
b) We are the biocatalysts. We enhance the rate of metabolic activities.
c) We push the food forward by rhythmic contraction.
d) Mechanism for moving the air in and out of the body.
e) Structure in plants to facilitate gaseous exchange.
f) Respiratory organ in aquatic organism.
170. The table below is designed to indicate the transport of certain substances in our body.
Fill in the blanks with suitable answers.
S.NO SUBSTANCE FROM TO
(i) _________ Lungs Whole body
(ii) Carbon dioxide _________ _________
(iii) Urea _________ _________
(iv) Digested carbohydrates Intestine _________
(v) _________ _________ Target organs
(vi) Heat _________ Whole body
171. Match the words of Column (A) with that of Column (B)
COLUMN (A) COLUMN (B)

a) Phloem (i) Excretion
b) Nephron (ii) Translocation of food
c) Veins (iii) Clotting of blood
d) Platelets (iv) Deoxygenated blood
172. Match Group (a) with Group (b)

GROUP (A) GROUP (B)
a) Autotrophic nutrition (i) Leech
b) Heterotrophic nutrition (ii) Paramecium
c) Parasitic nutrition (iii) Deer
d) Digestion in food vacuoles (iv) Green plant
95
173. Match the terms in Column (A) with those in Column (B)
COLUMN (A) COLUMN (B)

a) Trypsin (i) Pancreas
b) Amylase (ii) Liver
c) Bile (iii) Gastric glands
d) Pepsin (iv) Saliva
174. Match the animals in Column I with their respiratory organs in Column II
COLUMN I COLUMN II
ANIMALS RESPIRATORY ORGANS
(i) Fish a) Moist cuticle
(ii) Birds b) Gills
(iii) Aquatic Arthropods c) Lungs
(iv) Earthworm d) Trachea
175. Match the terms in Column I with Column II

COLUMN I COLUMN II
REGIONS OF DIGESTIVE SYSTEM DIGESTIVE JUICES
(i) Mouth a) Pancreatic juice

(ii) Stomach b) Intestinal juice
(iii) Duodenum c) Gastric juice
(iv) Small intestine d) Saliva
96
ANSWERS
1. b 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. d
6. c 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. b
11. a 12. a 13. d 14. d 15. b
16. a 17. d 18. c 19. d 20. d
21. c 22. c 23. c 24. a 25. c
26. c 27. c 28. a 29. c 30. b
31. c 32. c 33. d 34. d 35. c
36. b 37. c 38. c 39. c 40. a
41. b 42. c 43. b 44. a 45. d
46. a 47. d 48. d 49. c 50. a
51. c 52. b 53. a 54. c 55. b
56. a 57. b 58. c 59. a 60. c
61. d 62. d 63. a 64. c 65. b
66. b 67. b 68. c 69. c 70. c
71. a 72. c 73. c 74. b 75. d
76. b 77. d 78. b 79. d 80. d
81. a 82. a 83. d 84. c 85. c
86. b 87. d 88. b 89. c 90. b
91. c 92. a 93. b 94. b 95. d
96. d 97. b 98. d 99. a 100. a
101. b 102. c 103. d 104. a 105. d
106. a 107. d 108. a 109. b 110. b
111. d 112. b 113. c 114. a 115. c
116. a 117. c 118. b 119. b 120. a
121. c 122. c 123. a 124. a 125. c
126. c 127. c 128. b 129. d 130. d
131. c 132. c 133. c 134. b 135. b
136. b 137. c 138. b 139. c
97
140. b 141. a 142. b 143. d 144. a

145. b 146. a 147. d 148. a
DIAGRAM BASED & MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
149. b 150. c 151. d 152. c 153. (i) d (ii) b
154. b 155. b 156. c 157. d 158. a 159. b
160. a 161. c 162. d
ONE WORD ANSWERS
163. Water 164. Raphides 165. Kidney 166. Pericardium 167. Sino-Auricular 168. Lacteals
ONE WORD ANSWERS & MATCH THE FOLLOWING
169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175.

a) HCL a) Gills a) ii a) iv a) i (i) b (i) d
b) Enzymes b) Oxygen b) i b) iii b) iv (ii) c (ii) c
c) Peristalsis c) Whole Body, Lungs c) iv c) i c) ii (iii) d (iii)
a
d) Breathing d) Liver, Kidney d) iii d) ii d) iii (iv) a (iv) b
e) Stomata e) Liver, Endocrine Glands
f) Tissues
98
7. CONTROL AND COORDINATION
1. A human hormone reducing blood flow to the digestive system and skin during stress is
(a) Thyroxin
(b) Adrenaline
(c) Growth hormone
(d) Insulin
2. Hormone associated with gonads
(a) Testosterone
(b) Estrogen
(c) Auxin
(d) Both (A) and (B)
3. Name the hormone which controls the basal metabolic rate in animals
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Aldosterone
(d) Oxytocin
4. _______is responsible for maintaining biological clock of body
(a) Pineal
(b) Kidney
(c) Thyroid
(d) Adrenal
5. Deficiency of ______cause dwarfism
(a) GH
(b) FSH
(c) LH
(d) All of these
6. A person consuming sea food is least likely to develop
(a) Diabetese
(b) Goiter
(c) Both A and B
(d) Heart Diseases
99
7. A patient of diabetes is not producing
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Adrenaline
8. Growth hormone is produced by
(a) Adrenal
(b) Pituitary
(c) Pancreas
(d) Thyroid
9. Which of the following gland is unpaired?
(a) Adrenal
(b) Testis
(c) Pituitary
(d) Ovary
10. Which of the following is commonly known as ‗birth hormone‘?
(a) Prolactin
(b) Oxytocin
(c) ADH
(d) FSH
ANSWER IN WORD OR SENTENCE
11. What is phytohormone?

12. What is synapse?
13. Which is the largest part of the brain?
14. Name the hormone which is injected to a diabetic patient.
15. What substance that accelerate the growth in the stem?
100
ASSERTION – REASONING
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
16. Assertion: The use of iodized salt is advisable.
Reason: Iodine is essential for the synthesis of thyroxin hormone in thyroid gland.
17. Assertion: Auxin and Gibberellins are responsible for the growth of plant.
Reason: They are phytohormone.
18. Assertion: Cerebrum is the largest part in our brain.
Reason: Cerebellum maintains the posture and equilibrium of the body
19. Assertion: Neuron is the functional unit of nervous tissue.
Reason: Cell body maintains growth of the cell.
20. Assertion: Reflex Action occurs in brain and spinal cord.
Reason: They are voluntary action.
FILL IN THE BLANKS
21. ___________ is the hormones that triggers the fall of mature leaves and fruits from plants.
22. The cells in our body that can be over a foot long are ___________
23. The gland that plays a role in ―fight‘ or ‗flight‘ response is ___________
24. ___________ receptors detect taste while ___________ receptors detect smell.
25. The movement of plant part in response to certain chemicals is called ___________
101
ANSWERS
1. b 2. d 3. c 4. a 5. a
6. b 7. a 8. b 9. c 10. b
ANSWER IN WORD OR SENTENCE
11. The hormones secreted by plants are known as phytohormones.

12. The gap between two neurons is known as synapse.
13. Cerebrum
14. Insulin
15. Auxin
ASSERTION – REASONING
16. a 17. a 18. b 19. b 20. c
FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Abscissic acid
2. Nerve cell
3. Adrenal gland
4. Gustatory, Olfactory
5. Chemotropism
102
8. REPRODUCTION
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Why do organisms reproduce?

2. Why do organisms look similar?
3. Is reproduction a life process?
4. Which part of a cell contains information for inheritance of features in the form of DNA molecules?
5. Which food component in a cell is responsible for altered body design?
6. Why are two cells similar but not identical?
7. What is variation?
8. What is the importance of variation?
9. Name a unicellular and a multicellular organism which reproduces by budding.
10. ____________ is a protozoan in which binary fission occurs in a definite orientation.
11. What is the basis for evolution?
12. Name the mode of reproduction if an organism simply split into two equal halves?
13. How do malarial parasites reproduce?
14. What is the dark green filamental structure present on the surface of water? How does it reproduce?
15. How is it possible in some organisms, new individual organisms form from their body parts if they
are cut into parts?
16. A bud develops as an outgrowth at one specific site due to repeated cell division. The same develop
into tiny individual. Name the process and the organism where it takes place.
17. Name the method of reproduction in which a new plant grows from the leaf or stem or root.
18. How can we raise plants which have lost the capacity to produce seeds?
19. Name the non-reproductive part of rhizopus.
20. What is sporangium? What is its function?
21. How do bryophyllum reproduce?
22. Name the type of reproduction in which
i. Single parent is involved
ii. Two parents involved
23. The process of fertilization helps in the re-establishment of the number of
24. Name the large non-motile germ cell which stores food.
25. Name the smaller motile germ cell of human being.
26. What are unisexual flowers?
27. What are bisexual flowers?
103
28. What is pollination?
29. What are the agents of pollination?
30. What are the two types of pollination?
31. What are the parts of a seed?
32. What is germination?
33. What is stamen?
34. What does a stamen consist of?
35. What is pistil?
36. What are the parts of a pistil?
37. How many ovum are found in each ovule?
38. Which part of the flower turns into (i) seed (ii) Fruit?
39. What will happen to the petals, sepals, stamen, style and stigma of a flower after fertilization?
40. What is meant by calyx?
41. What do you mean by corolla?
42. Give examples of monocot and dicot seeds.
43. What are the various parts of human male reproductive system?
44. What is the role of testis?
45. What is the function of testosterone?
46. What is vas deferens?
47. Name the structure which cover testis.
48. Name the common passage of urine and sperm.
49. What is sperm?
50. What are the parts of a sperm?
51. Which part of sperm possesses genetic material?
52. Name the hormones secreted by ovaries.
53. What is ovulation?
54. What is the opening of uterus called?
55. Which is the site of fertilization in human body?
56. Why does uterus become thick and spongy?
57. How is the waste produced by an embryo eliminated?
58. What is gestation period?
59. What is implantation?
60. What is parturition?
61. What are sexually transmitted diseases?
104
62. Name the types of contraceptive methods.
63. Name the methods of contraception in which physical barrier are used.
64. Name the surgical methods of contraception.
65. Expand IUCD
66. What are AIDS and Warts?
67. Name any two bacterial disease spread through sexual act.
68. How can we prevent release of egg from the ovaries?
69. How can we control population?
70. Why is sex determination prohibited?
71. Why is it using of copper T not advisable?
72. The rates of __________ and ________in a given population determine its size.
73. Why male – female sex ratio is is irregular?

1. The two oviducts in a human female unite into an elastic bag like is known as
(a) Vagina
(b) Uterus
(c) Fallopian tube
(d) Cervix
2. Which of the following disease is transmitted sexually?
(a) Kala azar
(b) Jaundice
(c) Cholera
(d) Syphilis
3. Which of the following is a contraceptive?
(a) Copper t
(b) Condom
(c) Diaphragm
(d) All of these
4. When an animal is cut into pieces and each piece grows into a complex organism. What is the process?
(a) Stock
(b) Scion
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
105
5. Which is the portion on which grafting is done it provides the roots?
(a) Stock
(b) Scion
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
6. Where does fertilization occur in human females?
(a) Uterus
(b) Cervix
(c) Oviduct
(d) None of these
7. Growing foetus derive nutrition from mother‘s blood through
(a) Uterus
(b) Fallopian tube
(c) Placenta
(d) Cervix
8. What is the puberty age in human males?
(a) 8-10
(b) 10-12
(c) 12-14
(d) 14-16
9. Fruits are formed from
(a) Stamen
(b) Stigma
(c) Ovary
(d) Ovule
10. IUCD is for
(a) Vegetative propagation
(b) Contraception
(c) Increasing fertility
(d) Avoiding miscarriage
106
Two statements are given - one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled reason (R). Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes a, b, c, d.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. A: Reproduction is not a life process
R: Reproduction is not necessary to maintain life of an Individual
2. A: Reproduction involves DNA copying.
R: DNA contains blue prints of the body design.
3. A: amoeba reproduces by binary fission
R: amoeba is a multicellular organism
4. A: regeneration is not the same as reproduction
R: most organisms would not normally depend on being cut up to be able to reproduce.
5. A: plants can be raised through vegetative propagation
R: all the plants have lost the capacity to produce seeds
6. A: during cell division two cells formed are similar but not identical
R: the process of DNA copying will have some variation each time.
7. A: some flowers are bisexual and some are bisexual
R: all the flowers contain both male and female reproductive parts
8. A: A tube grows out of the pollen grain and travels through the style to reach the ovary
R: so that male germ cell can fuse with female gamete
9. A: There are some changes in appearance and behavior in teenagers.
R: all the changes are aspects of the sexual maturation of the body.
10. A: If the egg is not fertilized, it lives for about one day.
R: placenta is a disc like tissue which helps to transport food and oxygen from the mother to the
embryo.
11. A: condom is used to prevent transmission of many diseases.
R: The sexual act has the potential to lead to pregnancy.
12. A: population is controlled by using contraceptive methods.
R: Expanding population makes it harder to improve everybody‘s standard of living
107
13. A: Implantations of zygote take place in uterus
R: ovaries release matured egg into the fallopian tube
14. A: male reproductive system is located outside the abdominal cavity.
R: Sperm formation requires lower temperature than the normal body temperature.
15. A: Pre natal sex determination is prohibited
R: to avoid female foeticide
108
ANSWERS
1. Organisms reproduce to create more individuals like themselves.
2. Organisms look similar because the blue prints of their body designs are similar.
3. No, because reproduction is not necessary to maintain the life of an individual organism.
4. Chromosomes
5. Different proteins are made due to error occur during DNA copying.
6. Different proteins are made due to error occur during DNA copying.
7. Difference in the body design is called variation.
Different types of variations will show different advantages for the organisms. (Or) the inbuilt tendency
8.
for variation during reproduction forms the basis of evolution.
9. Yeast is a unicellular organism and hydra is a multicellular organism reproduces by budding.
10. leishmania
11. The inbuilt tendency for variation during reproduction forms the basis of evolution.
12. Binary fission
13. Multiple fission
14. Algae, which reproduces by fragmentation
It is possible in some organisms, new individual organisms form from their body parts if they are cut into
15.
parts because of the presence of regenerative cells.
16. Hydra/ budding
17. Vegetative propagation
18. Vegetative propagation
19. Hyphae
A structure in which spores are covered by spore case is called sporangium. It protect the spores until the
20.
organism attain favourable condition to reproduce.
21. Bryophyllum reproduce by budding in leaves
i. Asexual reproduction
22.
ii. sexual reproduction
23. Chromosomes and the DNA content in new generation.
24. Female gamete (ovum/ egg)
25. Male gamete (Sperm)
26. Flowers which contain either stamen or pistil are called unisexual flowers. Example: papaya, watermelon
27. Flowers which contain both stamen and pistil are called bisexual flowers. Example : hibiscus, mustard
28. Transfer of pollen grains in flowers is known as pollination
29. Wind, water and insects
30. Self-pollination and cross pollination
31. Cotyledon, plumule and radicle
109
32. Growth of new plants from seeds under favourable conditons
33. Male reproductive organ of a flower
34. Filament and anther
35. Female reproductive organ of a flower
36. Stigma, style and ovary
37. One ovum is found in each ovule
38. Ovule turns into seed and ovary turns into fruit
39. All the parts will fall off
40. Sepals are collectively called calyx
41. Petals are collectively called corolla
 Monocot seeds - rice, wheat
42.
 Dicot seeds - ground nut, peas
43. A pair of testis, a pair of vas deferens, prostrate glands, seminal vesicles, penis
44. Form sperms, secretes testosterone hormone
45. Regulates the production of sperms and brings about secondary sexual characters in male
46. Sperm duct which carry sperms from the testis
47. Scrotum
48. Urethra
49. Sperm is a male germ cell
50. Head (contain genetic material ) and a tail ( helps in movement)
51. Head of sperm possess genetic material
52. Oestrogen, progesterone
53. Release of matured egg from the ovary into oviduct
54. cervix
55. Fallopian tube
56. To receive embryo and nourish it.
57. The waste produced by an embryo eliminated through placenta to mothers body
The development of embryo inside the uterus for approximately nine month period is called gestation
58.
period
59. Placing of embryo in the uterine wall is called implantation
60. Childs birth take place after rhythmic contraction and relaxation of uterus is called parturition
61. Diseases spread through sex organs are called sexually transmitted disease.( STDs)
62. Physical barrier, chemical method and surgical method
63. Condom in male and copper T in female
64. Vasectomy ( vas deferens in male is blocked) and tubectomy ( fallopian tube in female is blocked)
110
65. Intra uterine contraceptive device
66. Sexually transmitted viral diseases
67. Syphilis, gonorrohea
68. changing hormonal balance by taking oral pills
69. By using contraceptive methods
70. To avoid female foeticide
71. Placing copper T irritates the uterus and also sometime bleeding occurs
72. Birth and death
73. Due to female foeticide
1. b 2. d 3. d 4. d 5. a
6. c 7. c 8. c 9. c 10. b
1. a 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. c
6. a 7. c 8. a 9. a 10. b
11. d 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. a
111
9. HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
1. Which of the following is a totally impossible outcome of Mendel‘s Experiment (cross breeding pure
breed tall and short pea plants)?
a) 3 tall 1 short plant
b) 24 tall and 8 short plants
c) 8 tall and 0 short plants
d) 4 tall plants and 1 medium-height plant
2. Which one of the following is not one of the direct conclusions that can be drawn from Mendel‘s
experiment?
a) Only one parental trait is expressed
b) Two copies of each trait is inherited in sexually reproducing organism
c) For recessive trait to be expressed, both copies should be identical
d) Natural selection can alter frequency of an inherited trait
3. Which one is a possible progeny in F2 generation of pure bred tall plant with round seed and short plant
with wrinkled seeds?
a) Tall plant with round seeds
b) Tall plant with wrinkled seeds
c) Short plant with round seed
d) All of the above
4. A section of DNA providing information for one protein is called _____________
a) Nucleus
b) Chromosomes
c) Trait
d) Gene
5. Which of the following is controlled by genes? (i) Weight of a person (ii) Height of a person.
a) only 1 (i)
b) only (ii)
c) both (i) and (ii)
d) Sometimes (i) and sometimes (ii)
112
6. Which one of the following is present in the nucleus?
a) Gene
b) DNA
c) Chromosomes
d) All of these
7. Amongst which of the following animals, sex of the offspring not genetically determined?
a) Humans
b) Snails
c) Birds
d) Dogs
8. What is the probability that a human progeny will be a boy?
a) 50%
b) 56%
c) 47.34%
d) It varies
9. Who have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes?
a) Girls only
b) Boys only
c) Both girls and boys
d) It depends on many other factors
10. There is an inbuilt tendency of variation during reproduction because of– (i) Errors in DNA copying (ii)
Sexual reproduction
a) only (i)
b) only (ii)
d) none of them
11. Which one of the following gives a survival advantage and thus alters frequency of inherited trait. (i)
Natural selection (ii) genetic drift
a) only (i)
b) only (ii)
d) none of these
113
12. If we breed a group of squirrels and surgically remove their tails, then amongst the progeny of these
tailless squirrels –
a) All have no tail
b) All have a tail
c) Some of them have tails
d) Cannot be determined
13. With whom we associate theory of evolution?
a) Charles Darwin
b) Mendel
c) Stanley Miller
d) Harold Urey
14. Formation of 2 independent species due to genetic drift, geographical isolation, natural selection is
specifically referred as –
a) Evolution
b) Classification
c) Speciation
d) Reproduction
15. Which of the following can be called a characteristic?
a) Plants can photosynthesis
b) We have 2 eyes
c) Mango tree is multicellular
d) All of these
16. If A and B have n characteristics common while A and C have n/2 characteristics common, then which
of the two organisms are more closely related?
a) A and C
b) A and B
c) Characteristics need to be known
d) None of these
17. Homologous organs have
a) Same structure, same function
b) Different structure, different function
c) Same structure, different function
d) Same function, different structure
114
18. Analogous organs have
a) Same structure, same function
b) Different structure, different function
c) Same structure, different function
d) Same function, different structure
19. Fossils help
a) To study evolution
b) To understand climatic conditions in past
c) For a hierarchy of organisms (classification)
d) They help in all the above
20. How can we know how old fossils are?
a) Fossils found closer to surface are recent than those found much below
b) Detecting ratios of isotopes
c) Studying its characteristics
d) All of these
21. Which one of the following strongly indicates that bird and dinosaurs are closely related?
a) They both have feathers
b) They both respire
c) They both reproduce
d) They both have eyes
22. Wild cabbage is being cultivated for thousands of years and humans have generated broccoli,
cauliflower, kala etc. from it. This is an example of
a) Natural selection
b) Genetic drift
c) Geographic isolation
d) Artificial selection
23. Organism A recently came into existence while B was formed millions of years ago. What does this
indicate? (i) A is more efficient than B (ii) A is more complex than B
a) Only (i)
b) Only (ii)
c) Both (i) and (ii)
d) Either (i) or (ii)
115
24. Exchange of genetic material takes place in
a) vegetative reproduction
b) asexual reproduction
c) sexual reproduction
d) budding
25. Two pink coloured flowers on crossing resulted in 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white flowers progeny. The
nature of the cross will be
a) Double fertilisation
b) Self pollination
c) cross fertilisation
d) no fertilisation
26. A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short pea plant (tt) resulted in progeny that were all tall plants
because
a) tallness is the dominant trait
b) shortness is the dominant trait
c) tallness is the recessive trait
d) height of pea plant is not governed by gene ‗T‘ or ‗t‘
27. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a) For every hormone there is a gene
b) For every protein there is a gene
c) For production of every enzyme there is a gene
d) For every molecule of fat there is a gene
28. If a round, green seeded pea plant (RR yy) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow seeded pea plant, (rr YY)
the seeds produced in F1 generation are
a) round and yellow
b) round and green
c) wrinkled and green
d) wrinkled and yellow
29. In human males all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. This/these unpaired chromosome
is/are (i) large chromosome (ii) small chromosome (iii) Y-chromosome (iv) X-chromosome
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (iii) only
c) (iii) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)
116
30. The maleness of a child is determined by
a) the X chromosome in the zygote
b) the Y chromosome in zygote
c) the cytoplasm of germ cell which determines the sex
d) sex is determined by chance
31. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a
a) boy
b) girl
c) X- chromosome does not determine the sex of a child
d) either boy or girl
32. Select the incorrect statement
a) Frequency of certain genes in a population change over several generations resulting in
evolution
b) Reduction in weight of the organism due to starvation is genetically controlled
c) Low weight parents can have heavy weight progeny
d) Traits which are not inherited over generations do not cause evolution
33. New species may be formed if
i) DNA undergoes significant changes in germ cells
ii) chromosome number changes in the gamete
iii) there is no change in the genetic material
iv) mating does not take place
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i) and (iii)
c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
34. Two pea plants one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds
produce F1 progeny that have round, yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are selfed, the F2 progeny
will have new combination of characters. Choose the new combination from the following
i) Round, yellow ii) Round, green iii) Wrinkled, yellow iv) Wrinkled, green
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i) and (iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (i) and (iii)
117
35. A basket of vegetables contains carrot, potato, radish and tomato. Which of them represent the correct
homologous structures?
a) Carrot and potato
b) Carrot and tomato
c) Radish and carrot
d) Radish and potato
36. Select the correct statement
a) Tendril of a pea plant and phylloclade of Opuntia are homologous
b) Tendril of a pea plant and phylloclade of Opuntia are analogous
c) Wings of birds and limbs of lizards are analogous
d) Wings of birds and wings of bat are homologous
37. If the fossil of an organism is found in the deeper layers of earth, then we can predict that
a) the extinction of organism has occurred recently
b) the extinction of organism has occurred thousands of years ago
c) the fossil position in the layers of earth is not related to its time of extinction
d) time of extinction cannot be determined
38. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to variation?
a) All variations in a species have equal chance of survival
b) Change in genetic composition results in variation
c) Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis of evolutionary processes
d) Variation is minimum in asexual reproduction
39. A trait in an organism is influenced by
a) paternal DNA only
b) maternal DNA only
c) both maternal and paternal DNA
d) neither by paternal nor by maternal DNA
40. Select the group which shares maximum number of common characters
a) two individuals of a species
b) two species of a genus
c) two genera of a family
d) two genera of two families
118
41. According to the evolutionary theory, formation of a new species is generally due to
a) sudden creation by nature
b) accumulation of variations over several generations
c) clones formed during asexual reproduction
d) movement of individuals from one habitat to another
42. From the list given below, select the character which can be acquired but not inherited
a) colour of eye
b) colour of skin
c) size of body
d) nature of hair
43. The two versions of a trait (character) which are brought in by the male and female gametes are situated
on
a) copies of the same chromosome
b) two different chromosomes
c) sex chromosomes
d) any chromosome
44. Select the statements that describe characteristics of genes
i) genes are specific sequence of bases in a DNA molecule
ii) a gene does not code for proteins
iii) individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome
iv) each chromosome has only one gene
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)
45. In peas, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plants to short
plants in F2 is
a) 1 : 3
b) 3 : 1
c) 1 : 1
d) 2 : 1
119
46. The number of pair (s) of sex chromosomes in the zygote of humans is
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
47. The theory of evolution of species by natural selection was given by
a) Mendel
b) Darwin
c) Morgan
d) Lamarck
48. Some dinosaurs had feathers although they could not fly but birds have feathers that help them to fly. In
the context of evolution this means that
a) reptiles have evolved from birds
b) there is no evolutionary connection between reptiles and birds
c) feathers are homologous structures in both the organisms
d) birds have evolved from reptiles
49. Select the group which shares the maximum number of common characters:
a) Two individuals of a species
b) Two species of a genus
c) Two genera of a family
d) Two genera of two families
50. A trait in an organism is influenced by:
a) Paternal ONA only
b) Maternal DNA only
c) Both maternal and paternal DNA
d) Neither paternal, nor maternal DNA
51. In human males all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. This /these unpaired chromosome
is/are:
i) Large chromosome ii) Small chromosome
iii) Y chromosome iv) X chromosome
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (iii) only
c) (iii) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)
120
52. The sex of a child is determined by which of the following?
a) The length of the mother's pregnancy
b) The length of time between ovulation and copulation
c) The presence of an X chromosome in an ovum
d) The presence of a Y chromosome in a sperm
53. zygote which has inherited an X chromosome from the father will develop into :
a) Baby boy
b) Baby girl
c) Adult
d) Either boy or girl
54. New species may be formed if
a) DNA undergoes significant changes in germ cells
b) chromosome number changes in the gamete
c) there is no change in the genetic material
d) mating does not take place
produce F1 progeny that have round, yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are selfed, the F2 progeny
will have new combination of characters. Choose the new combination from the following:
a) Round, yellow
b) Round, green
c) Wrinkled, yellow
d) Wrinkled, green
56. In human males all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. This/these unpaired chromosome
is/are
a) Large chromosome
b) small chromosome
c) Y - chromosome
d) X – chromosome
57. Select the statements that describe characteristics of genes
a) genes are specific sequence of bases in a DNA molecule
b) a gene does not code for proteins
c) in individuals of a given species, a specific gene located on a particular chromosome
d) each chromosome has only one gene
121
58. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding tall pea plants bearing violet flowers with short pea
plants bearing white flowers. The progeny all bore violet flowers, but almost half of them were short.
This suggests that the genetic makeup of the tall parent can be depicted as
a) TTWW
b) TTww
c) TtWW
d) TtWw
59. An example of homologous organs is
a) our arm and a dog‘s fore-leg
b) our teeth and an elephant‘s tusks
c) potato and runners of grass
d) all of the above
60. In evolutionary terms, we have more in common with
a) a Chinese school-boy
b) a chimpanzee
c) a spider
d) a bacterium
a) two genera of two families
c) two genera of a family
d) two individuals of a species
produce F1 progeny having round, yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are selfed, the F2 progeny
will have the following combination of characters
a) 15:1
b) 9:3:3:1
c) 9:3:4
d) 12:3:1
63. Some dinosaurs had feathers although they could not fly but birds have fathers that help them to fly. In
the context of evolution this means that –
a) reptiles have evolved from birds
b) there is no evolutionary connection between reptiles and birds
c) feathers are homologous structure in both the organisms
d) Birds have evolved from reptiles
122
64. Which of the following scientist gave the principles of inheritance?
a) Mendel
b) Griffin
c) Johanssen
d) Watson and crick
65. Which of the following is not correct
66. According to the evolutionary theory formation of a new species occurs generally due to-
a) Sudden creation by nature
d) Movement of individuals from one habitat to another
67. Two pink colored flowers on crossing results in 1red, 2pink and 1white flower progeny. The nature of
the cross is –
a) cross fertilization
b) self-pollination
c) double fertilization
d) no fertilization
68. A basket of vegetable contains carrot, potato, radish, and tomato. Which of them represent the correct
homologous structure
a) carrot and potato
b) carrot and tomato
c) radish and carrot
d) radish and potato
69. Mendel proposed that every character is controlled by
a) one factor
b) two factors
c) one chromosome
d) two chromosomes
123
d) For every type of fat there is a gene
71. The ratio of each phenotype of the seeds of pea plants in the F2 generation is 9:3:3:1, it is known as:
a) Tetra hybrid ratio
b) Monohybrid ratio
c) Dihybrid ratio
d) Tri hybrid ratio
72. When two parents are crossed, the offspring are referred to as :
a) Recessive
b) Test cross
c) F1 generation
d) F2 generation
73. Mendel used for his experiments on heredity:
a) Papaya plants
b) Potato plants
c) Pea plants
d) Pear plants
74. The human animal which has an XY pair of chromosomes is called:
a) Male
b) hybrid
c) Female
d) Doomed
75. The science of heredity is known as:
a) Biology
b) Embryology
c) Genetics
d) Biochemistry
124
76. A gene is a:
a) Hybrid
b) Heritable trait
c) Pure breed
d) Part of a chromosome that transmits a trait
77. A normal cell of human body contains 23 pairs of chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in a sex
cell (Sperm or ovum) of a human being is most likely to be:
a) 46
b) 23
c) 21
d) 42
78. In order to ensure that he had pure-breeding plants for his experiments, Mendel:
a) Cross-fertilized each variety with each other
b) Let each variety self-fertilize for several generations
c) Removed the female parts of the plants
d) Removed the male parts of the plants
79. In the human blood grouping, the four basic blood types are type A, type B, type AB, and type 0. The
blood proteins A and B are:
a) Simple dominant recessive traits
b) Incomplete dominant traits
c) Co-dominant traits
d) Sex-linked traits
80. plant with two 'small' genes breeds with a plant with two 'tall' genes to produce:
a) Small plants and tall plants in the ratio 1:3
b) All small plants
c) All tall plants
d) Tall plants and small plants in the ratio 3:1
81. A pregnant woman has an equal chance of her baby being blood group A or blood group AB. Which
one of the following shows the possible genotypes of the woman and the father of her child?
a) IAIA and IB IO
b) IA IB and IB IO
c) IA IO and IB IO
d) IA IB and IA IO
125
82. The palisade cells of a species of plant contain 28 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will there
be in each gamete produced by the plant?
a) 56
b) 28
c) 14
d) 4
83. Which of the following may be used to obtain an F2 generation?
a) Allowing flowers a parent plant to be self-pollinated
b) Allowing flowers on an F1plant to be self-pollinated
c) Cross-pollinating an F1 plant with a parent plant
d) Cross-pollinating two parent plants
84. The following results were obtained by a scientist who crossed the F1 generation of pure-breeding
parents for round and wrinkled seeds.
Dominant trait - Round seeds
Recessive trait -Wrinkled seeds
No. of F2 offspring -7524
From these results, it can be concluded that the actual number of round seeds he obtained was:
a) 1881
b) 22572
c) 2508
d) 5643
85. The visible characteristic in an organism is known as:
a) Prototype
b) stereotype
c) Phenotype
d) Genotype
86. The exchange of genetic material takes place in:
a) Vegetative reproduction
b) Asexual reproduction
c) Sexual reproduction
d) Budding
126
87. The number of pair(s) of sex chromosomes in the zygote of humans is:
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
88. In peas, a pure tall plant (IT) is crossed with a pure short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plants to pure
short plants in F2 generation will be:
a) 1 : 3
b) 3 : 1
c) 1 : 1
d) 2 : 1
on:
a) Copies of the same chromosome
b) Sex chromosomes
c) Two different chromosomes
d) Any chromosomes
because
92. From the list given below, select the character which can be acquired but not inherited:
a) colour of eye
b) colour of skin
c) size of body
d) nature of hair
127
93. A trait in a organism is influenced by
a) paternal DNA only
b) maternal DNA only
c) both maternal and paternal DNA
d) neither by paternal nor by maternal DNA
a) two individual of a species
c) two genes of a family
d) two genera of two families
95. According to the evolutionary theory, formation of a new species is generally due to
a) sudden creation by nature
d) movement of individuals from one habitat to another
on
a) copies of the same chromosome
b) two different chromosome
c) sex chromosomes
d) any chromosome
97. Two pink coloured flowers on crossing resulted in 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white flower progeny. The nature
of the cross will be
a) double fertilisation
b) self pollination
c) cross fertilisation
d) no fertilisation
because
128
99. The rules of ___ determine the process by which traits and characteristics are reliably inherited
a) heredity
b) reproduction
c) generation
100. The earliest members of the human species, Homo sapiens can be traced from
a) West Asia
b) Australia
c) East Asia
d) Africa
101. Following has (have) been used for studying human evolution
a) excavating
b) time dating
c) determining DNA sequences
d) all of the above
102. Following is (are) descended from wild cabbage
a) red cabbage
b) broccoli
c) cauliflower
d) all of the above
103. Following have four limbs
a) mammals
b) amphibians
c) reptiles
d) all of the above
104. The preserved traces of living organisms are called
a) fossils
b) species
c) non-living materials
105. The frequency of certain genes in a population changed over generations. This is the essence of the
idea of ____________ .
a) revolution
b) evolution
c) reproduction
d) production
129
ANSWERS
1. d 2. d 3. d 4. d 5. b
6. d 7. b 8. a 9. a 10. b
11. a 12. b 13. a 14. c 15. d
16. c 17. c 18. d 19. d 20. d
21. a 22. d 23. c 24. c 25. c
26. a 27. d 28. a 29. c 30. b
31. b 32. b 33. a 34. b 35. c
36. d 37. b 38. a 39. c 40. a
41. b 42. c 43. a 44. b 45. b
46. a 47. b 48. d 49. a 50. c
51. c 52. d 53. b 54. a 55. d
56. c 57. a 58. c 59. b 60. a
61. d 62. b 63. d 64. a 65. d
66. b 67. a 68. c 69. b 70. d
71. c 72. c 73. c 74. a 75. c
76. d 77. b 78. b 79. c 80. c
81. a 82. c 83. a 84. d 85. c
86. c 87. a 88. c 89. a 90. a
91. d 92. c 93. c 94. a 95. b
96. a 97. c 98. a 99. a 100. d
101. d 102. d 103. d 104. a 105. b
130
10. LIGHT – REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
1. Parallel rays, from the top of a distant tree, incident on a concave mirror, form an image on the
screen. The correct diagram showing the image is
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
2. In an experiment to trace the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab, four
students tabulated their observations as given below.
Which student performed the experiment most correctly?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
131
3. For the refraction through a rectangular glass slab the diagram is given below.
The angle of incidence, angle of emergence and angle of refraction are respectively.
(a) X,P,M (b) X,M,P (c) Y,M,P (d) Y,N,P
4. A student determined the focal length of a device ‗X‘ by focusing a distant object on the screen as
shown in the following diagram.
Select the correct option.

(a) Device ‗X‘ is a concave mirror and distance ‗d‘ is its focal length
(b) Device ‗X‘ is a concave mirror and distance ‗d‘ is its radius of curvature
(c) Device ‗X‘ is a convex lens and distance ‗d‘ is its radius of curvature
(d) Device ‗X‘ is a convex lens and distance ‗d‘ is its focal length
5. Image formed by plane mirror is _______________
(a) Real and erect
(b) Real and inverted
(c) Virtual and erect
(d) Virtual and inverted
132
6. A concave mirror gives real, inverted and same size image if the object is placed at
_______________
(a) At F
(b) At infinity
(c) At C
(d) Beyond C
7. The full length image of a distant tall building can be seen by using
(a) concave mirror
(b) convex mirror
(c) concave lens
(d) convex lens
8. If the magnification of a lens has positive value , the image is
(a) Real
(b) virtual and erect
(c) inverted
(d) none of these
9. The power of the lens is +2.5D. Its focal length in cm will be
(a) + 40
(b) – 40
(c) + 80
(d) – 80
10. The magnification produced by a rear view mirror that is used in the vehicles is
(a) less than 1
(b) more than 1
(c) equal to 1
(d) less than 1 or more than 1
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING
11. What is the magnification of images formed by the plane mirror?

12. Define focal length of a spherical mirror.
13. Define absolute refractive index.
14. Give two uses of concave mirror.
15. A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water, Does the light ray bend
towards or away from the normal?
133
FILL IN THE BLANKS
16. The mirror used in construction of shaving glass is_____________

17. Velocity of light in air is _____________
18. Focal length of the lens is 50cm, its Power is _____________
19. A concave mirror gives virtual, and enlarged image of the object when the object is
_____________
20. In optics an object which has higher refractive index is called _____________
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
21. Assertion: The mirrors used in searchlights are concave spherical.

Reason: In concave spherical mirror the image formed is always virtual.
22. Assertion: Light travels faster in glass than in air.
Reason: Glass is denser than air
23. Assertion: For observing traffic at back, the driver mirror is convex mirror.
Reason: A convex mirror has larger field of view has plane mirror.
24. Assertion: Refractive index has no units.
Reason: The refractive index is the ratio of two dissimilar units.
25. Assertion: The height of the object is always positive
Reason: The object is always placed above the principal axis in the upward direction.
134
ANSWERS
1. c 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. c
6. c 7. b 8. b 9. a 10. a
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING
11. One. (object size is equal to image size)
12. The distance between pole and focus point is called focal length.
13. Refractive index of a medium with respect to vacuum is called the absolute refractive index
14. concave mirror is used in torch light, solar furnace
15. Light rays bends towards the normal
FILL IN THE BLANKS

16. concave 17. 3x108 m/s 18. 2D 19. between P and F 20. Denser medium
21. c 22. d 23. a 24. a 25. a
135
11. HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD
1. A human eye can focus objects at different distances by adjusting the focal length of the eye lens.
This is due to
(a) Persistence of vision
(b) Near sightedness
(c) Accommodation
(d) Far sightedness
2. The human eye forms the image of an object at its
(a) Cornea
(b) Iris
(c) Pupil
(d) Retina
3. The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is about
(a) 25m
(b) 2.5cm
(c) 25cm
(d) 2.5m.
4. The change in focal length of an eye is caused by the action of
(a) Pupil
(b) Retina
(c) Ciliary muscles
(d) Iris.
5. The nature of the eye lens is
(a) Always convex
(b) Always concave
(c) Sometimes convex and other times concave
(d) Cannot say.
6. The cells which enable us to distinguish different colours are
(a) Rod shaped
(b) Cone shaped
(c) Both rod and cone shaped
(d) None of these.
136
7. How much refraction occurs in the ray passing through a prism?
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
8. Angle of deviation is given by
(a) d = i +e – A
(b) d = i – e + A
(c) d = A – i + e
(d) None of these.
9. For an equilateral prism the angle of the prism is
(a) 600
(b) 450
(c) 400
(d) None of these.
10. A glass prism has
(a) 6 rectangular surfaces
(b) 4 rectangular surfaces
(c) 2 triangular bases and 3 rectangular surfaces
(d) None of the above.
11. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens
of power
(a) + 0.5 D (b) – 0.5 (c) + 0.2 D (d) – 0.2
12. A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in different orientations. A narrow beam of white light is
incident on the prism as shown in below Figure. In which of the following cases, after dispersion, the third
colour from the top corresponds to the colour of the sky?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
137
13. At noon the sun appears white as
(a) Light is least scattered
(b) All the colours of the white light are scattered away
(c) Blue colour is scattered the most
(d) Red colour is scattered the most
14. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?
(a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion
(b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
(c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection
(d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection
15. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric
(a) Dispersion of light by water droplets
(b) Refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
(c) Scattering of light by dust particles
(d) Internal reflection of light by clouds
16. The clear sky appears blue because
(a) Blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere
(b) Ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere
(c) Violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colours by the atmosphere
(d) Light of all other colours is scattered more than the violet and blue colour lights by the
atmosphere
17. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of light of different colours
of white light in air?
(a) Red light moves fastest
(b) Blue light moves faster than green light
(c) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed
(d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and the violet light
18. The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These can be easily seen
from a distance because among all other colours, the red light
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog
(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog
(d) moves fastest in air
138
19. Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish appearance of the sun at
sunrise or sunset?
(a) Dispersion of light
(b) Scattering of light
(c) Total internal reflection of light
(d) Reflection of light from the earth
20. The bluish colour of water in deep sea is due to
(a) The presence of algae and other plants found in water
(b) Reflection of sky in water
(c) Scattering of light
(d) Absorption of light by the sea
21. When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the
(a) Crystalline lens
(b) Outer surface of the cornea
(c) Iris
(d) Pupil
22. The focal length of the eye lens increases when eye muscles
(a) Are relaxed and lens becomes thinner
(b) Contract and lens becomes thicker
(c) Are relaxed and lens becomes thicker
(d) Contract and lens becomes thinner
23. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly
(b) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly
(c) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
(d) A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant objects clearly
24. When we enter a dark room coming from outside, immediately the things inside the room do not
appear clear to our eyes. This is because
(a) Pupils do not open at all in the dark
(b) Pupils take time to adjust.
(c) Light travels slower in a dark room.
(d) Pupils open very quickly in the dark.
139
25. The phenomena of light responsible for the working of the human eye is
(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) Power of accommodation
(d) Persistence of vision
26. How many times does a ray of light bend on passing through a prism?
(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) None of these
27. Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset are explained on the basis of
(a) Dispersion of light
(b) Scattering of light
(c) Tyndall effect
(d) Atmospheric refraction.
28. Which phenomenon is not explained on scattering of light?
(a) Red colour of danger signals
(b) Blue colour of the sky
(c) White colour of clouds
(d) Advanced sun rise
29. The splitting of white light into its constituent colours is called
(a) Rainbow
(b) Atmospheric refraction
(c) Dispersion of light
(d) None of these.
30. In a prism which colour deviated most
(a) Red
(b) Blue
(c) Green
(d) Violet
31. Astigmatism can be corrected by
(a) Concave lens
(b) Convex lens
(c) Double convex lens
(d) Cylindrical lens
140
32. A liquid present between cornea and lens
(a) Aqueous humour
(b) Vitreous humour
(c) Water
(d) None of these
33. The space between eye lens and the retina is filled with liquid called
(a) Aqueous humour
(b) Vitreous humour
(c) Water
(d) None of these
34. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly
(b) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly
(c) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
(d) A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant objects clearly
35. At the point of blind spot there are no
(a) Cones
(b) Rods
(c) Cones and rods
(d) None of these
36. A boy is wearing glasses and says that he cannot see the object kept at distance without glasses. He
is suffering from
(a) Myopia
(b) Cataract
(c) Hypermetropia
(d) Presbyopia
37. When looking at a distant object, the ciliary muscles of the eye are
(a) Relaxed
(b) Contracted
(c) Strained
(d) Both a and b
141
38. The danger signals are red in colour
(a) Least absorbed by fog or smoke
(b) Strongly absorbed by fog and smoke
(c) Least scattered by fog or smoke
(d) Strongly scattered by fog or smoke
39. The amount of light entering the human light is controlled by
(a) Ciliary muscles
(b) Pupil
(c) cornea
(d) Iris
40. If the earth had no atmosphere then the sky would have appeared
(a) Blue
(b) Red
(c) Bright
(d) Dark
41. The persistence of vision of human eye is
(a) 1/10th of a second
(b) 1/16th of a second
(c) 1/6th of a second
(d) 1/18th of a second
42. The colour of the scattered light depends on
(a) Size of the scattered particles
(b) Reflected light
(c) Reflected colour of light
(d) Intensity of light
43. What happens when white light is passed from air to glass prism
(a) Bends away from normal
(b) Bends towards normal
(c) Passes un deviated
(d) Reflects back
44. Which of the following is used to correct the eye defect presbyopia?
(a) Convex lens
(b) Concave lens
(c) Prismatic lens
(d) Bi-focal lens
142
45. Which light is easily scattered?
(a) Long wave length light
(b) Short wavelength light
(c) Sunlight
(d) Coherent light
46. At noon, sun appears white as
(a) Light is least scattered
(b) All the colours of the white light are scattered the most
(c) Blue colour is scattered the most
(d) Red colour is scattered the most
47. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?
(a) Reflection, dispersion and refraction
(b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
(c) Refraction, dispersion, and internal reflection
(d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection
48. In the eye, the position of the image on the retina is adjusted by changing the
(a) Diameter of the pupil
(b) Position of the lens
(c) Focal length of the eye lens
(d) Size of the eye ball
49. On entering a glass prism, sun‘s rays are
(a) Deviated and dispersed
(b) Deviated but not dispersed
(c) Dispersed but not deviated
(d) Neither deviated nor dispersed
50. Write the relation between angle of the prism, angle of deviation, angle of incidence and angle of
emergence
(a) A+ e = I + D
(b) A + D = I + e
(c) A + i = D + e
(d) A – D = I – e
143
ONE WORD ANSWERS
51. At the point of blind spot there no ___________ and ___________
52. The fluid present between the cornea and the pupil is called___________
53. The fluid present between the pupil and the retina is called___________
54. The rear part of the eye where the light entering the eye is focused is calledthe ___________
55. The eye lens can change its focal length by changing its thickness with the help of ___________
56. Defect hypermetropia can be corrected by using ___________ lens.
57. Defect myopia can be corrected by using ___________ lens.
58. For a person suffering from hypermetropia, the image of the object is formed ___________ the
retina.
59. For a person suffering from myopia, the image of the object is formed ___________ the Retina.
60. In order to correct astigmatism we can use ___________ lens.
61. The Retina contains about ___________ number of rod cells that receive light signals.
62. The Retina contains about ___________ number of cones cells that see colour.
63. The band of 7 colours formed when white light is passed through the prism is called ___________
64. The process of spitting of white light into its seven constituent colours is called ___________
65. Recombination of seven colours of dispersed white light into white light again is also called
_______
66. Sometimes you see a person reading the newspaper by placing it far away from his eyes, he is
having ___________ defect.
67. Sometimes you see a person reading the newspaper by placing it very close to his eyes, he is having
___________ defect.
68. ___________ Colour has longer wavelength.
69. ___________ Colour has shorter wave length.
70. The scattering of light depends inversely upon the ___________ power of the wavelength.
71. ___________ is a defect of the eye in which a membrane covers the eye lens.
72. ___________ is the lack of ability to distinguish between colours.
73. For a normal eye, the far point is ___________
74. For a normal human eye, of an adult, the near point is about ___________
75. ___________ is a muscular coloured diaphragm in our eyes.
144
MATCH THE COLUMN A WITH COLUMN B
76.
COLUMN A COLUMN B
(a) Cornea (i) Controls the size of the pupil
(b) Iris (ii) Light sensitive screen
(c) Retina (iii) Allows the light
(d) Pupil (iv) Adjust the focal length
(e) Ciliary muscles (v) Controls the amount of light
77.
COLUMN A COLUMN B
(a) Concave lens (i) Astigmatism
(b) Convex lens (ii) Myopia
(c) Bifocal lens (iii) Hypermetropia
(d) Cylindrical lens (iv) Presbyopia
(e) Concave lens (v) Astigmatism
78.
COLUMN A COLUMN B
(a) Twinkling of stars (i) Longer wavelength
(b) Rainbow (ii) Scattering of sunlight
(c) Blue colour of the sky (iii) Dispersion
(d) Danger signals are red (iv) Atmospheric refraction
79.
COLUMN A COLUMN B
(a) Red (i) Scattered least
(b) Violet (ii) Deviated least
(c) Blue (iii) Deviated most
80.
COLUMN A COLUMN B
(a) Retina (i) Crystalline double convex lens
(b) Blind spot (ii) Cones and rods
(c) Eye lens (iii) Coloured pigments
(d) Iris (iv) Flexible
(e) Ciliary muscle (v) Does not contain cones and rods
145
NAME THE FOLLOWING
81. Identify the diagram; name the defect how can it be corrected?
82. Name the phenomenon
83. Name the defect
84. Complete the diagram
85. Mark the parts
146
ANSWERS
1. c 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. a
6. b 7. d 8. a 9. a 10. c
11. b 12. b 13. a 14. c 15. b
16. c 17. c 18. b 19. b 20. c
21. b 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. b
26. b 27. c 28. d 29. c 30. d
31. d 32. a 33. b 34. c 35. c
36. a 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. d
41. c 42. a 43. b 44. d 45. a
46. a 47. c 48. c 49. a 50. b
ONE WORD ANSWERS

51. Cones & Rods 52. Aqueous Humour 53. Vitreous Humour 54. Retina 55. Ciliary Muscle
56. Convex Lens 57. Concave Lens 58. Infront 59. Behind 60. Cylindrical Lens
61. 125 Million 62. 7 Million 63. Spectrum 64. Dispersion 65. Recomposes
66. Hypermetropia 67. Myopia 68. Red 69. Violet 70. Fourth
71. Cataract 72. Colour Blindness 73. Infinity 74. 25 Cm 75. Iris
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
76. 77. 78. 79. 80.

(a) iii (a) ii (a) iv (a) ii (a) ii
(b) i (b) iii (b) iii (b) iii (b) v
(c) ii (c) iv (c) ii (c) i (c) i
(d) v (d) i (d) i (d) iii
(e) iv (e) iv
NAME THE FOLLOWING

81. Myopia concave lens of suitable power
82. Dispersion V – R
83. Dispersion
84. White light
1. Retina
2. Iris
85.
3. Pupil
4. Convex lens
147
12. ELECTRICITY
1. The unit of charge is
(a) Ampere
(b) Coulomb
(c) Farad
(d) Volt
2. A body can be negatively charged
(a) Giving electrons to it
(b) removing some electrons from it
(c) giving some protons to it
(d) removing some neutrons from it
3. _____________ is the amount of charge flowing through a particular area of cross section of a
conductor in unit time.
(a) Charge
(b) electric current
(c) potential
(d) Energy
4. The SI unit of electric current is
(a) Ohm
(b) Volt
(c) Ampere
(d) Coulomb
5. One ampere is equal to
(a) 1 C/s
(b) 1Cx1s
(c) 1Jx1C
(d) 1J/C
6. Volt is the SI unit of
(a) potential difference
(b) current
(c) resistance
(d) charge
148
7. No current flows between two charged bodies when connected , if they have same
(a) Capacity
(b) potential
(c) charge
(d) none
8. The surface of the earth is taken to be at
(a) infinite potential
(b) negative potential
(c) positive potential
(d) zero potential
9. Which is bigger: a coulomb of charge or the charge of an electron?
(a) Coulomb of charge
(b) Charge of an electron
(c) Both are same
(d) None
10. How many electrons are equals to 1 coulomb?
(a) 6.25 x 1016
(b) 6.25 x 1017
(c) 6.25 x 1018
(d) 6.25 x 1019
11. ___________between two points in an electric circuit carrying some current as the work done to move
a unit charge from one point to the other.
(a) Electric current.
(b) electric charge
(c) potential difference
(d) electric power
12. The SI unit of potential difference
(a) Ohm
(b) Volt
(c) Ampere
(d) Coulomb
13. What is the work done in moving a charge of Q coulomb against a potential difference of V volt?
(a) Q/V
(b) QV
(c) Q+V
(d) Q-V
149
14. What is the instrument used to measure potential difference across a circuit?
(a) Ammeter
(b) Voltmeter
(c) Galvanometer
(d) All
15. The device used for measuring current is
(a) Galvanometer
(b) ammeter
(c) voltmeter
(d) potentiometer
16. A continuous and closed path of an electric current is called an
(a) electric diagram
(b) electric circuit
(c) electric ray diagram
(d) all
17. The direction of electric current is taken as _______________ to the direction of the flow of electrons.
(a) Same
(b) Opposite
(c) Both
(d) None
18. represents _______________ in an electric circuit.
(a) electric resistor
(b) electric cell
(c) variable resistant
(d) voltmeter
19. represents _______________ in an electric circuit.
(b) electric ell
(c) plug key
(d) voltmeter
20. Or represents _______________ in an electric circuit.
(b) electric cell
(c) variable resistance
(d) voltmeter
150
21. represents _______________ in an electric circuit
(a) wire crossing with joint
(b) electric cell
(c) variable resistance
(d) wire crossing without joint
22. or represents _______________ in an electric circuit.

(a) Electric bulb
(b) Electric cell
(c) Variable resistance
(d) Electric resistor
23. The SI unit of resistance is
(a) Volt
(b) Ohm
(c) Ampere
(d) Watt
24. A device used to change the resistance of a circuit is _______________.
(a) Ammeter
(b) Voltmeter
(c) Rheostat
(d) Galvanometer
25. The resistances R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the combination is
(a) R1 + R2
(b) R1 – R2
(c)
(d)
26. Three resistances of 4Ω, 5 Ω and 20 Ω are connected in parallel. Their combined resistance is
(a) 2 Ω
(b) 4 Ω
(c) 5 Ω
(d) 20 Ω
151
27. Three resistances of 1 Ω each are connected to form a triangle. The resistance between any two
terminals is
(a) 3 Ω (b) 1/2 Ω (c) 2/3 Ω (d) 3/2 Ω
28. The electrical appliances in the houses are connected with each other in
(a) Parallel
(b) Series
(c) a combination of series and parallel circuits
(d) none
29. Three resistors of resistances R1, R2 and R3 are connected in series. If I is the current passing through
R1
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 1:3 (d) 1:4
30. State which of the following is correct?
(a) Joule = Coulomb x volt
(b) Joule = Coulomb/volt
(c) Joule = Volt/ampere
(d) Joule = ampere/volt
31. When a current of I ampere is passed through a resistor of R ohm for t seconds, then the amount of heat
produced is
(a) H = I2Rt Cal
(b) H = I2Rt Kcal
(c) H = I2Rt joule
(d) H = I2Rt/4.18 joule
32. A _______________ consists of a piece of wire made of metal or an alloy (37% lead, 63% tin).
(a) Fuse
(b) Resistor
(c) Electric plug
(d) Switch
33. How is fuse connected to the electric device?
(a) Series
(b) Parallel
(c) Both
(d) None
34. What is the current rating for the circuit used for bulbs, fans, etc?
(a) 5 A
(b) 10 A
(c) 15 A
(d) 20 A
152
35. Which electrical component protects from short circuiting?
(a) Fuse
(b) Resistor
(c) Electric plug
(d) Switch
36. Electric power is given by
(a) P = V/I
(b) P = I/V
(c) P = I/VI
(d) P = VI
37. Watt is the unit of
(a) Electric current
(b) Electric energy
(c) Electric power
(d) Potential difference
38. Kilowatt hour is the unit of
(a) Electric power
(b) Electric resistance
(c) Electric potential
(d) Electric energy
39. The SI unit of electric power is
(a) Coulomb
(b) Ampere
(c) Joule
(d) Watt
40. The practical unit of electrical energy
(a) Watt
(b) Kilowatt
(c) Kilowatt hour
(d) Kilo Joule
41. How many joules are there in 1 kilowatt hour?
(a) 3.6 x 103
(b) 3.6 x 104
(c) 3.6 x 105
(d) 3.6 x 106
153
42. A smell heating element connected to a 10 V battery draws a current of 5 A. How much electric power
is supplied to the heater?
(a) 15 W (b) 25 W (c) 2 W (d) 50 W
43. A cell, a resistor, a key and an ammeter are arranged as shown in the circuit diagrams. The current
recorded in the ammeter will be:
(i) (ii) (iii)
(a) maximum in (i)

(b) maximum in (ii)
(c) maximum in (iii)
(d) the same in all the cases
44. In the following circuits, heat produced in the resistor or combination of resistors connected to a 12 V
battery will be:
(i) (ii) (iii)
(a) same in all cases

(b) minimum in case (i)
(c) maximum in case (ii)
(d) maximum in case (iii)
45. Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire depends upon:
(a) its length
(b) its thickness
(c) its shape
(d) nature of the material
154
46. A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb. Number of electrons passing through a
cross-section of the filament in 16 seconds would be roughly:
(a) 1020 (b) 1010 (c) 1018 (d) 1023
47. Identify the circuit, the diagrams given below, in which the electrical components have been properly
connected
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv)

48. What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of (1/5) Ω?
(a) (1/5) Ω
(b) 10 Ω
(c) 5 Ω
(d) 1 Ω
49. What is the minimum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of (1/5) Ω?
(a) (1/5) Ω
(b) (1/25) Ω
(c) (1/10) Ω
(d) 25 Ω
50. The proper representation of series combination of cells, for obtaining maximum potential is
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv)
155
51. Which of the following represents voltage?
(a) Work done/Current x Time
(b) Work done x Charge
(c) Work done x Time/Current
(d) Work done x Charge x Time
52. A cylindrical conductor of length l and uniform area of cross-section A has resistance R. Another
conductor of length 2 l and resistance R of the same material has area of cross-section:
(a) A/2
(b) 3 A/2
(c) 2 A
(d) 3 A
53. A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graphs of three samples of nichrome wire with
resistances R1, R2 and R3 respectively. Which of the following is true?
(a) R1 = R2 = R3
(b) R1 > R2 > R3
(c) R3 > R2 > R1
(d) R2 > R3 > R1
54. If the current I through a resistor is increased by 100% (assume that temperature remains unchanged),
the increase in power dissipated will be:
(a) 100%
(b) 200%
(c) 300%
(d) 400%
55. The resistivity does not change if:
(a) the material is changed
(b) the temperature is changed
(c) the shape of the resistor is changed
(d) both material and temperature are changed
156
56. In an electrical circuit three incandescent bulbs A, B and C of rating 40 W, 60 W and 100 W
respectively are connected in parallel to an electric source. Which of the following is likely to happen
regarding their brightness?
(a) brightness of all the bulbs will be the same.
(b) brightness of bulb A will be the maximum
(c) brightness of bulb B will be more than that of A
(d) brightness of bulb C will be less than that of B
57. In an electrical circuit, two resistors of 2 Ω and 4 Ω respectively are connected in series to a 6 V
battery. The heat dissipated by the 4 Ω resistor in 5 s will be:
(a) 5 J (b) 10 J (c) 20 J (d) 30 J
58. An electric kettle consumes 1 kW of electric power when operated at 220 V. A fuse-wire of what
rating must be used for it?
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A (c) 4 A (d) 5 A
59. Two resistors of resistances 2 Ω and 4 Ω when connected to a battery will have:
(a) same current flowing through them when connected in parallel
(b) same current flowing through them when connected in series
(c) same potential difference across them when connected in series
(d) different potential differences across them when connected in parallel
60. Unit of electric power may also be expressed as:
(a) volt ampere
(b) kilowatt hour
(c) watt second
(d) joule second
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
61. Assertion: The connecting wires are made of copper.
Reason: Copper has very high electrical conductivity.
157
62. Assertion: The resistance of a given mass of copper wire is inversely proportional to the square of
length.
Reason: When a copper wire of given mass is stretched to increase its length, its cross-sectional area
also decreases.
63. Assertion: In series combination of 200 W, 100 W and 25 W bulbs, the bulb of 200 W bulb shine
most brightly.
Reason: 25 W has maximum resistance and so p.d. across it is maximum.
64. Assertion: Electric current flow from a body at 15 V to 10 V.
Reason: Electric current flow from a body at higher potential to lower potential.
65. Assertion: The total potential in system of resistors connected in series is equal to the sum of the
individuals‘ potentials across each resistor.
Reason: The total current in system of resistors connected in parallel is equal to the sum of the
individuals‘ currents moving through each resistor.
66. Assertion: According to Joules law of heating, the head produced in a resistor increases with the
magnitude of current, resistance and time.
Reason: According to Joules law of heating, the heat produced in a resistor is directly proportional to
the square of the current for a given resistance.
67. Assertion: A fuse used in electric circuit has high resistance and low melting point.
Reason: During the flow of any unduly high electric current the fuse wire melts and protects the
circuits and appliances
68. Assertion: In domestic electric circuits, the wires in the supply, usually with read insulation cover, is
called live wire (or positive)
Reason: Another wire, with black insulation, is called neutral wire (or negative)
69. Assertion: In domestic electric circuits, metallic body is connected to the earth wire, which provides a
low-resistance conducting path for the current.
Reason: It ensures that any leakage of current to the metallic body of the appliance keep its potential
to that of the earth, and the user may not get a severe electric shock.
70. Assertion: The commercial unit of electrical energy is kilowatt hour.
Reason: The SI unit of power is volt.
71. Assertion: The phenomenon of the conduction of electricity through electrolytes and chemical
decomposition is called cracking.
Reason: The phenomenon of the conduction of electricity through electrolytes and chemical
decomposition is called electrolysis.
158
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
72. The direction of electric current is taken as opposite to the direction of the flow of _______
73. When one coulomb of charge flows in one second across any cross section of a conductor, the current
in it is one _______
74. The potential difference between two points in a current carrying conductor when 1 joule of work is
done to move a charge of 1 coulomb from one point to the other is
75. The amount of work done if a body is given a charge Q coulomb raise its potential by V volt is ______
76. Positive charges move from _______to _______potential regions. Electrons, being negatively charged,
move from lower to higher potential regions.
77. The electric potential of a charge at infinity is _______
78. Charges will move in a conductor if there is a _______across their end.
79. _______states that at constant temperature the steady current (I) flowing through a conductor is directly
proportional to the potential difference (V) between its ends.
80. The mathematical formula to calculate resistance is _______
81. The property of a conductor to resist the flow of charges through it is called _______
82. Any material which has some resistance is called a _______
83. The resistance of an air gap is _______
84. The resistance of a closed plug-key is _______
85. If the resistors are connected to end to end, then we say that the resistors are connected in _______
86. _______is same for all the resistors connected in series.
87. V1, V2 and V3 are the respective potential differences across the ends of the three resistors connected in
series. The total potential difference across the combination of the resistors is _______
88. R1, R2 and R3 are the three resistors connected in series. The total resistance of the combination of
resistors is _______
89. Three resistors of resistances 5 ohm, 10 ohm and 15 ohm are connected in series. The effective
resistance of the combination is _______
159
90. In a circuit, two resistors of 5 Ω and 10 Ω are connected in series. The ratio of current passing through
each resistor is _______
91. If more than one resistances are connected between two points, then we say that the resistances are
connected in _______
92. _______is same for all the resistors connected in parallel combination.
93. The ratio of potential difference across the two resistors connected in parallel is equal to _______
94. I1, I2, and I3 are the respective currents passing through the three resistances connected in parallel. The
total current entering in or going out of the circuit is _______
95. R1 and R2 are the two resistances connected in parallel. The total resistance of the combination of
resistors is _______
96. 1 kW = _______W
97. 1 kWh = _______J
98. An ammeter is connected in _______in a circuit.
99. Voltmeter is connected in _______in a circuit.
100. The resistance of the conductor becomes _______when its area of cross section is increased.
160
ANSWERS
1. b 2. a 3. b 4. c
5. a 6. a 7. b 8. d
9. a 10. c 11. c 12. b
13. b 14. b 15. b 16. b
17. b 18. b 19. c 20. c
21. d 22. a 23. b 24. c
25. c 26. a 27. c 28. a
29. a 30. a 31. c 32. a
33. a 34. a 35. a 36. d
37. c 38. d 39. d 40. c
41. d 42. d 43. d 44. d
45. d 46. a 47. b 48. d
49. b 50. a 51. a 52. c
53. c 54. c 55. c 56. c
57. c 58. d 59. b 60. a
61. a 62. d 63. d 64. a
65. b 66. a 67. a 68. b
69. a 70. c 71. d 72. electrons
73. ampere 74. 1 volt 75. VQ 76. higher, lower
77. zero 78. Potential difference 79. Ohm’s law 80. R= V/I
81. Resistance 82. Resistor 83. Infinity 84. Zero
85. Series 86. current 87. V = V1 + V2 + V3 88. Rtotal = R1 +R2 + R3
89. 5 + 10 + 15 = 30 ohm 90. 1:1 91. parallel 92. potential difference
93. 1:1 94. I = I1 + I2 + I3 95. R1R2/R1+R2 96. 1000W
97. 3.6 x 106 J 98. series 99. Parallel 100. Decreases
161
13. MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
1. Inside the magnet, the field lines moves
a) from north to south
b) from south to north
c) away from south pole
d) away from north pole
2. By which instrument, the presence of magnetic field be determined?
a) Magnetic needle
b) Ammeter
c) Galvanometer
d) Voltmeter
3. The pattern of the magnetic field produced by the straight current carrying conductor is
a) in the direction opposite to the current
b) in the direction parallel to the wire
c) circular around the wire
d) in the same direction of current
4. The strength of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor is
a) Inversely proportional to the current but directly proportional to the square of the distance from
wire.
b) Directly proportional to the current and inversely proportional to the distance from wire.
c) Directly proportional to the distance and inversely proportional to the current.
d) Directly proportional to the current but inversely proportional to the square of the distance from
wire.
5. The nature of magnetic field line passing through the centre of current carrying circular loop is
a) circular
b) ellipse
c) parabolic
d) straight line
6. The factors on which one magnetic field strength produced by current carrying solenoid depends on
a) Magnitude of current
b) Number of turns
c) Nature of core material
d) All of the above
162
7. A soft iron bar is introduced inside the current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid
a) will increase
b) will remains the same
c) will decrease
d) will become zero.
8. Direction of rotation of a coil in electric motor is determined by
a) Fleming‘s right hand rule
b) Fleming‘s left hand rule
c) Faraday law of electromagnetic inductors
9. In an electric motor, to make the coil rotating continuously in the same direction, current is reversed in
the coil after every half rotation by a device called
a) carbon brush
b) commutator
c) slip ring
d) armature
10. The instrument used to detect the electric current in the circuit is known as
a) Galvanometer
b) Ammeter
c) Voltmeter
d) Odometer.
11. We can induce the current in a coil by
a) moving the coil in a magnetic field
b) by changing the magnetic field around it
c) by changing the orientation of the coil in the magnetic field
d) All the above.
12. A magnet is moved towards a coil (i) quickly (ii) slowly. The induced potential difference
a) more in (i) than in (ii) case
b) more in (ii) than in (i) case
c) in both
d) can‘t say
163
13. A.C generator works on the principle of
a) force experienced by a conductor in magnetic field
b) electromagnetic induction
c) electrostatic
d) force experienced by a charged particle in electric field
14. Fleming‘s left hand rule and right hand rule are used in
a) Generator and electric motor
b) Electric motor and generator
c) any rule can be used for any rule
d) both are applicable for generator and motor.
15. Earth wire carries
a) Current
b) Voltage
c) No current
d) None of the above.
16. The main advantage of AC power transmission over DC power transmission over long distance is
a) AC transmit without much loss of energy
b) less insulation problem
c) less problem of instability
d) easy transformation
17. Which are the characteristics of fuse element?
a) High conductivity
b) Low melting point
c) Do not burn due to oxidation
d) All of the above.
18. The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short circuiting or
overloading is
a) Earthing
b) Use of fuse
c) Use of stabilizers
d) Use of electric meter
164
19. Who has stated the Right Hand Thumb Rule?
a) Orested
b) Fleming
c) Maxwell
d) Einstein
20. To convert an AC generator into DC generator
a) split ring type commutator must be used
b) slip rings and brushes must be used
c) a stronger magnetic field has to be used
d) a rectangular wire loop has to be used.
21. The strength of magnetic field inside a long current carrying straight solenoid is
a) more at the ends than at the centre
b) minimum in the middle
c) same at all points
d) found to increase from one end to other.
22. What should be the core of an electromagnet?
a) soft iron
b) hard iron
c) rusted iron
d) none of the above.
23. Overloading is due to
a) Insulation of wire is damaged
b) fault in the appliances
c) accidental hike in supply voltage
d) All the above.
24. Which of the following factors affect the strength of force experience by a current carrying conductor
in a uniform magnetic field?
a) magnetic field strength
b) magnitude of current in a conductor
c) length of the conductor within magnetic field
165
ANSWERS
1. b 2. a 3. c 4. b 5. a
6. d 7. d 8. b 9. b 10. a
11. a 12. a 13. b 14. b 15. c
16. a 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. a
21. b 22. a 23. d 24. d
166
14. SOURCES OF ENERGY
1. The main constituent of CNG is
a) Butane
b) Methane
c) Ethane
d) Propane
2. In the given flow chart of energy conversion during hydroelectric power generation, fill in the box
with appropriate answer
a) Dynamo
b) insulator
c) semi-conductors
d) Conductors
3. A solar cooker may not cook food if
a) Interior of the box and the container of food are perfectly shining.
b) Glass sheet over the box is not closed.
c) Solar cooker is placed in the shade.
d) All the above
4. Radiations which are harmful to the living organisms are
a) Infrared radiation.
b) Ultraviolet radiations
c) Visible radiation
d) micro waves
5. Solar cells are made of
a) Metals
b) insulator
c) semi-conductors
d) none of these
167
6. Which of the following is not a bio mass energy source?
a) Gobar gas
b) Coal
c) Wood
d) Nuclear energy
7. Which of following are more environments friendly?
a) Burning of coal
b) burning of fire wood
c) Burning of charcoal
d) Burning of diesel
8. Major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is to
a) Split heavy nucleus
b) sustain nuclear reactions
c) Convert nuclear energy into electricity
d) dispose of nuclear waste
9. Fusion reaction is also known as
a) chemical reaction
b) elastic scattering
c) thermo nuclear reaction
d) photo nuclear reaction
10. India exploded her first underground nuclear device at
a) Ranchi
b) Kota
c) Jaipur
d) Pokhran
11. Although charcoal is a clean and deter source of heat energy yet it cannot be used as a domestic fuel
because it
a) cause environmental pollution
b) produce less heat energy
c) cannot be stored easily
d) is expensive fuel
168
12. A solar water heater cannot be used to get hot water on
a) a sunny day
b) a cloudy day
c) a hot day
d) a windy day
13. Choose the incorrect statement regarding wind power.
a) It is readily and abundantly available at every place of the earth free of cost.
b) It is eco-friendly and does not produce any kind of environmental pollution.
c) It is a renewable source as air itself is a renewable and inexhaustible resource
d) It is a cheap source of energy, as it does not involve any costly investment
14. Choose the correct statement: An ideal source of energy must be:
a) Economical and easily accessible
b) Smoke/pollution free, able to produce huge amount of heat and energy on burning
c) Easy to store and transport
d) All the above.
15. Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the following is not
ultimately derived from the Sun‘s energy?
a) Geothermal energy
b) Wind energy
c) Nuclear energy
d) Bio-mass
16. On what basis would you classify energy sources as
a) Renewable and non-renewable
b) Exhaustible and inexhaustible
c) Renewable and exhaustible
d) options (a) and (b)
17. In thermal power plant, heat energy is converted into
a) Light energy
b) Electrical energy
c) Sound energy
d) Potential energy
169
18. Storage of water in reservoirs for hydro power plants cause socio-economic problems besides
a) Air pollution
b) Destruction of large eco systems
c) Water pollution
d) Sound pollution
19. Hydro Power Plants utilize the potential energy of water stored at a height by
a) Changing potential energy to kinetic energy of flowing (falling) water and then converting it to
electrical energy
b) Changing potential energy to heat energy of water and then converting it to electrical energy
c) Changing potential energy to gravitational energy of water and then converting it to electrical
energy
d) There is no interchange of energy takes place
20. Oxides of Carbon, Nitrogen and Sulphur released on burning of fossils fuels are harmful because
a) They are acidic oxides and can cause acid rains.
b) They cause noise pollution
c) They cause sound problem
d) They cause vision disorder
21. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Ozone
d) Methane
22. Minimum wind speed required for moving turbines is: Minimum wind speed required for moving
turbines is:
a) >24 Km/h
b) >15 Km/h
c) >12 Km/h
d) >9 Km/h
23. Power plants based on geothermal energy are found in:
a) South Africa
b) New Zealand
c) Zimbabwe
d) Denmark
170
24. Wood, coal, energy of flowing water and wind are considered to be:
a) Conventional sources of energy
b) Unconventional sources of energy
c) Renewable sources of energy
d) Non-renewable sources of energy
25. Kinetic energy of moving air or winds in coastal or hilly areas is harnessed to do mechanical work or
generate electricity by using:
a) Wind MillsWind Mills
b) Generators
c) Electric Motors
d) Shafts
26. Which of the following is not correct about the construction of solar cookers or solar heaters?
a) Black surface absorb more heat as compared to white objects.
b) Spherical reflecting surfaces can be utilized to concentrate solar energy.
c) Covering with a glass plate cause increase in temperature by green house effect.
d) Black surface do not absorb any heat.
27. The material which is used in making solar cell is
a) Aluminum
b) Carbon
c) Silicon
d) Iron
28. Ocean-Thermal-energy conversion plants operate if
a) Water on the surface of oceans is cold
b) Temperature difference between the water at surface and water at depths up to 2 km is at least
293 K or 20o C
c) Temperature difference between the water at surface and water at depths up to 2 km is around
100oC
d) It is independent of temperature difference between the water at surface and water at depths
29. Which of the following is not a form of energy?
a) Mechanical energy
b) Heat Energy
c) Muscular Energy
d) Frictional energy
171
30. Pollution caused by burning of fossil fuels can be controlled to some extent
a) By increasing the efficiency of the combustion process.
b) By using fans in the vehicles
c) By increasing their cost.
d) Banning the use of fossils fuels
31. Fossil fuels are considered to be non-renewable sources of energy because
a) They are produced underground and become costly to extract.
b) They take millions of years to be produced though used in a little time
c) They produce a lot of smoke
d) They are less efficient fuels
32. What is the full form of OTEC?
a) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion
b) Ocean Thermal Energy Current
c) One time energy
d) Ocean thermal energy concurrent
33. What kind of mirror is used in a solar cooker?
a) Concave mirror
b) convex mirror
c) plane mirror
d) None of these
34. Advantage of wind energy:
a) Renewable
b) Inexhaustible
c) pollution free/no residue
d) all the above
35. Name the device that converts the kinetic energy of flowing water into mechanical energy
a) Turbine
b) Metals
c) insulator
d) semi-conductors
172
36. What is the maximum temperature attainable in case of box type solar cooker?
a) 500F to 1000 F
b) 100 F to 250 F
c) 150 F to 400F
d) 300 F to 500 F
37. Name the device which converts solar energy directly into electricity.
a) Solar cooker
b) Solar cells
c) Solar furnace
d) semi-conductors
38. What is the full form of OTE?
a) Ocean thermal energy
b) O.T.Emerge
c) on track energy
d) One time energy
39. Name the ultimate source of fossil fuel
a) Coal
b) Petrol
c) Bio-gas
d) Sun
40. Two acidic oxides released on burning fossil fuels
a) Nitrogen oxides and Sulphur oxides
b) Sulphur oxides and Magnesium oxide
c) Carbon di oxide and Sulphur oxides
d) Carbon di oxide and Nitrogen oxides
41. Which gas is released by anaerobic decomposition of submerged vegetation in dams?
a) Coal gas
b) Petrol gas
c) Bio-gas
d) Methane
42. Name the radiations that are most dangerous for human beings?
a) alpha
b) beta
c) gamma
d) IR rays
173
43. Name any two non-conventional sources of energy
a) Coal and Petrol
b) wind and tidal
c) Bio-gas and methane
d) solar and methane
44. What is the chemical name of marsh gas?
a) Coal gas
b) Petrol gas
c) Bio-gas
d) Methane
45. Name a renewable source of energy
a) Coal
b) Petrol
c) Bio-gas
d) Wind
46. Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy?
a) Solar
b) Coal
c) Bio-mass
d) Wind
47. Which isotope of uranium is used in nuclear fission in nuclear reactors?
a) Uranium-234
b) Uranium-235
c) Uranium-238
d) Uranium-92
48. Name one place in India where a wind energy power station has been established.
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Maharashtra
c) Rajasthan
d) Kerala
49. What kind of energy is possessed by water stored in dams?
a) Kinetic energy
b) Potential energy
c) Mechanical energy
d) Wind energy
174
50. What is the use of glass sheet cover in solar heating device?
a) Cook food
b) Preserve vessel
c) Trap heat
d) Work as cover.
51. Why are the inner walls and bottom of the box-type solar cookers painted black?
a) Preserve food
b) gives colour
c) absorb heat
d) rust proof
52. Which material is used for connecting the solar cells in a solar panel?
a) Sulphur
b) copper
c) mercury
d) Aluminium
53. Which of the following sources of electricity involves more running expenses?
a) Thermal power station
b) Hydro power station
c) solar cells
d) Geothermal source
54. Around 25% of our country‘s energy requirement is met by
a) Hydro Power Plants
b) Geothermal Energy
c) Natural Gas
d) Thermal Power Plant
55. Hydro-power Plants convert the potential energy of falling water into
a) Geothermal energy
b) Electricity
c) Natural Gas
d) atomic energy
175
56. Choose the incorrect statement regarding wind power:
a) It is expected to harness wind power to minimum in open space.
b) The potential energy content of wind blowing at high altitudes is the source of wind power.
c) Wind hitting at the blades of a windmill causes them to rotate. The rotation thus achieved can be
utilized further
d) One possible method of utilizing the energy of rotational motion of the blades of a windmill is
to run the turbine of an electric generator
57. Acid rain happens because:
a) sun leads to heating of upper layer of atmosphere.
b) burning of fossil fuels release oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere.
c) electrical charges are produced due to friction amongst clouds. earth atmosphere contains acids.
d) earth atmosphere contains acids.
58. In a hydro power plant
a) potential energy possessed by stored water is converted into electricity.
b) kinetic energy possessed by stored water is converted into potential energy.
c) electricity is extracted from water.
d) water is converted into steam to produce electricity.
59. Which one of the following forms of energy leads to least environmental pollution in the process of its
harnessing and utilization?
a) nuclear energy
b) thermal energy
c) solar energy
d) geothermal energy
60. Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy?
a) Wood
b) Sun
c) fossil fuels
d) wind
61. Ocean thermal energy is due to
a) energy stored by waves in the ocean
b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean
c) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean
d) tides arising out in the ocean
176
62. The major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is how to:
a) split nuclei
b) sustain the reaction
c) dispose of spent fuel safely
d) convert nuclear energy into electrical energy
63. Which is the ultimate source of energy?
a) Water
b) Sun
c) uranium
d) fossil fuels
64. The main constituent of biogas is
a) Methane
b) carbon dioxide
c) hydrogen
d) hydrogen sulphide
65. The power generated in a windmill:
a) is more in rainy season since damp air would mean more air mass hitting the blades
b) depends on the height of the tower
c) depends on wind velocity
d) can be increased by planting tall trees close to the tower
66. Choose the correct statement:
a) Sun can be taken as an inexhaustible source of energy.
b) There is infinite storage of fossil fuel inside the earth
c) Hydro and wind energy plants are non-polluting sources of energy
d) Waste from a nuclear power plant can be easily disposed of
67. Which part of the solar cooker is responsible for greenhouse effect?
a) Coating with black colour inside the box
b) Mirror
c) glass sheet.
d) outer cover of the solar cooker
177
68. In a hydroelectric power plant more electrical power can be generated if water falls from a greater
height because:
a) its temperature increases.
b) larger amount of potential energy is converted into kinetic energy.
c) the electricity content water increases with height.
d) more water molecules dissociate into ions.
69. Choose the incorrect statement:
a) We are encouraged to plant more trees so as to ensure clean environment and also provide bio-
mass fuel.
b) Gobar-gas is produced when crops, vegetable wastes etc., decompose in the absence of oxygen.
c) The main ingredient of bio-gas is ethane and it gives a lot of smoke and also produces a lot of
residual ash
d) Bio-mass is a renewable source of energy
70. Fuel used in thermal power plants is
a) water
b) uranium
c) biomass
d) fossil fuels
71. The most nuclear fuel used in the world is________________
a) Thorium – 232
b) Uranium – 238
c) Uranium – 235
d) Plutonium – 239
72. Energy is released from fossil fuels when they are___________________
a) Pumped
b) Cooled
c) Burned
d) Pressurized
73. In the production of wave energy which form of energy is used?
a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Solar energy
d) Wind energy
178
74. A tidal barrage is a barrier built over a___________________
a) River bed
b) River estuary
c) River end
d) River starting
75. In hydroelectricity power_________________
a) Kinetic energy is transferred to potential
b) Potential energy is transferred to kinetic
c) Solar energy is transferred to wind energy
d) Wind energy is transferred to solar energy
76. How many forms of fossil fuels are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
77. Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained by________________
a) Biomass
b) Fossil fuels
c) Sun
d) Wind
78. Trapped heat inside the earth is known as_______________
a) Heat energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Geothermal energy
d) Thermal energy
179
ANSWERS
1. b 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. a
6. d 7. c 8. d 9. c 10. d
11. d 12. b 13. d 14. d 15. c
16. d 17. b 18. b 19. a 20. a
21. d 22. b 23. d 24. c 25. a
26. d 27. c 28. b 29. d 30. a
31. b 32. a 33. a 34. d 35. a
36. c 37. b 38. a 39. d 40. a
41. d 42. c 43. b 44. d 45. d
46. b 47. b 48. a 49. b 50. c
51. c 52. b 53. a 54. a 55. b
56. b 57. b 58. b 59. c 60. c
61. b 62. c 63. b 64. a 65. c
66. c 67. c 68. b 69. c 70. d
71. c 72. c 73. b 74. b 75. b
76. c 77. c 78. c
180
15. OUR ENVIRONMENT
1. In a food chain , the first trophic level is always occupied by
(a) Carnivores
(b) Detritivores
(c) Herbivores
(d) Producers
2. Identify the biotic factors of an ecosystem from the following
(a) Temperature , rain fall , soil
(b) Plants , animals and microorganisms
(c) Temperature , microbes and rainfall
(d) plants , animals and soil
3. In the given food chain, suppose the amount of energy at fourth trophic leel is 2kJ, what will be the
energy available at the producer level?
(a) 2 kJ
(b) 20 kJ
(c) 200 kJ
(d) 2000 kJ
4. In an ecosystem , 10 % 0f energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the net is in the
form of
(a) Heat energy
(b) Light energy
(c) Chemical energy
(d) mechanical energy
5. One organism may be the food for many organism will constitute the
(a) Food chain
(b) Food web
(c) food pyramid
(d) food trophic level
6. Food chain in an ecosystem is always
(a) Bi directional
(b) uni directional
(c) Multi directional
(d) no specific direction
181
7. The limitation of number of trophic levels in a food chain is due to
(a) Sufficient food supply
(b) decrease in energy level at higher trophic level
(c) Increase in energy level at higher trophic level
(d) supply of water
8. Which group of organisms constitute food chain
(a) grass, deer, lion, wolf
(b) plankton, grass hopper, fish, man
(c) grass, snake, tiger, wolf
(d) grass, grass hopper, tiger, wolf
9. The percentage of solar radiation absorb by all the green plants for the process of
(a) 10 %
(b) 100%
(c) 9%
(d) 1 %
10. What will happen if frog is missing in the food chain given below?
Grass Grass hopper Frog Snake
(a) population of grass increases and grass hopper decreases
(b) Population of snake increases and grass hopper decreases
(c) Population of grass hopper increases and population of snake decreases
(d) population of grass hopper decreases and snake increases
11. The accumulation of chemicals at various trophic levels in a food chain is known as
(a) Chemical magnification
(b) Physical magnification
(c) bio magnification
(d) Eutrophication
12. The existence of decomposers is essential in the biosphere because
(a) Replenishment of nutrients in the soil naturally
(b) Helps in removing the biodegradable wastes from the environment
(c) Helps in breaking complex organic matter into simpler inorganic matter
(d) all of the above
182
13. Which is the pond ecosystem?
(a) Phytoplankton Zooplankton Snail Fish King Fisher
(b) Phytoplankton Snail Zooplankton Fish King Fisher
(c) Plants Fish King Fisher
(d) Plants King Fisher Fish
14.
In the above pyramid tigers occupy

(a) Producers
(b) Primary consumer
(c) Secondary consumer
(d) Tertiary consumer
15. The chemical which is mainly responsible for the depletion of ozone layer
(a) AFC
(b) H2S
(c) CFC
(d) CCl4
16. Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain
(a) decrease in energy at higher trophic levels
(b) Deficiency of food supply
(c) supply of chemicals
(d) availability of solar input
183
17. The decomposers in an ecosystem
(a) Convert solar energy in to chemical energy
(b) Produce their own food
(c) convert complex organic compounds into simple inorganic compounds
(d) Convert simple inorganic compounds into complex organic compound
18. Minimata a disease caused due to
(a) land pollution
(b) Air pollution
(c) Bio magnification
(d) water pollution
19. Why do we see greater number of individuals at the lower trophic level?
(a) Because they are plant eaters
(b) because they are Producers
(c) because they are carnivores
(d) because they are decomposers
20. From the given diagram state which statement is TRUE.
(a) Picture A represents food web

(b) Picture B represents food chain
(c) Picture A represents pond ecosystem
(d) Picture A represents Food chain and Picture B represents Food web respectively
21. An aquarium need to be cleaned frequently but a pond need not be cleaned
(a) because pond has decomposers in it so it will be cleaned naturally
(b) because there is a pond cleaner in it
(c) Because it is exposed sun light
(d) Because of rich iodine content
184
22. The consequences of ozone depletion are
(a) Greenhouse effect and global warming
(b) Cataract and skin cancer
(c) Bio magnification and eutrophication
(d) acid rain fall and pollution
23. The element which is highly responsible for destruction of ozone molecule is
(a) Fluorine
(b) Chlorine
(c) Methane
(d) Carbon
24. Non-biodegradable wastes can be disposed by
(a) Decomposition
(b) throwing into water bodies
(c) buried under the soil
(d) Incineration
25. The component that is required for the conversion of O 2 into O3
(a) X – rays
(b) UV –rays
(c) infra – red rays
(d) α – rays
26. Depletion of oxygen in the water is called
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Respiration
(c) Eutrophication
(d) Bio magnification
27. Bio degradable wastes can be decomposed by decomposers because
(a) they use enzymes for their life processes
(b) they use hormones for their life processes
(c) they use oxygen for their life processes
(d) They do not use enzymes for their life processes
185
ANSWERS
1. d 2. b 3. d 4. c 5. b
6. b 7. b 8. a 9. d 10. c
11. c 12. d 13. a 14. d 15. c
16. a 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. d
21. a 22. b 23. b 24. d 25. b
26. c 27. a
186
16. MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES

1. Taj Mahal in Agra is said to be suffering from ‗marble cancer‘. Which of the following statements
correctly define marble cancer?
a) Formation of fungus on the walls of Taj Mahal.
b) Corrosion of marble by acid rain.
c) Formation of perforations in Taj Mahal
d) Yellowing of marble by soot particles.
2. Which of the following steps should be taken to reduce SO2 and NO2 pollutants in the air?
a) Increase the use of fossil fuels
b) Deforestation
c) Installation of catalytic converters in the vehicles.
d) Use petrol run vehicles for converting short distances.
3. In winter season , visibility reduces in heavily polluted cities due to the
a) Formation of smog
b) Reduction in O3
c) Excess of burnt hydrocarbons
d) Formation of CO2
4. Formation of CO2 With reference to the table given below, answer the following question.
2011
S/NO Name of the city State
SO2 NO2 PM10
1 Delhi U.T 6 61 222
2 Chennai Tamil Nadu 9 24 92
3 Hyderabad Andra Pradesh 5 28 74
4 Melappuram Kerala 2 5 30
5 Raipur Chhattisgargh 15 42 310
4.1. Which state will not experience smog?

a) U.T
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Raipur
d) Kerala
187
4.2. Which city will likely to have acid rain fall?

a) Chennai
b) Andra Pradesh
c) Melappuram
d) Delhi
4.3. Identify the state which has more of unburnt hydrocarbon particles in air
a) Chhattisgargh
b) U.T
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Kerala
4.4. Find out the reason why the people of Raipur are most likely to suffer from respiratory diseases?
a) Concentration of suspended particulate matter is higher than the required amount
b) Concentration of NO2 and SO2 is less than the required amount
c) Concentration of NO2 and suspended particulate matter is less than the required amount
d) Concentration of NO2 and SO2 is very high.
5. Which of the following statements is correct about bio mass?
a) It converts chemical energy into kinetic energy.
b) It is a renewable form of energy.
c) It is the inorganic matter used as a fuel.
d) It is an organic matter produced by plants and animals.
6. Acid rain occurs because
a) The sun leads to heat the upper layer of the atmosphere.
b) Burning of fossil fuels releases oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere.
c) The earth‘s atmosphere contains acids.
d) Electrical charges are reproduced due to friction among the clouds.
7. What is the pH level at which rain is called acid rain
a) Below 5.6
b) Above 5.6
c) Below 7
d) Below 6.5
188
8. The most rapidly dwindling natural resource is in the world is
a) Water
b) Forests
c) Soil
d) Sunlight.
9. The most appropriate definition of a natural resource is that it is a substance / commodity that is
a) Present only on land.
b) A gift of nature which is very useful to mankind
c) A man made substance placed in nature
d) Available only in the forests.
10. The main cause for abundant coliform bacteria in the river Ganga is
a) immersion of ashes
b) Disposal of sewage
c) Washing of clothes
d) Discharge of effluents from the factories
11. The pH of water sample collected from a river was found to be acidic in the range of 3.5 to 4.5. On the
bank of the river were several factories that were discharging effluents into the river. The effluents of
which one of the following factories is most likely cause for lowering the pH of river ware?
a) Soap and detergent industry
b) Plast5ic cup manufacturing industry
c) lead battery manufacturing industry
d) Alcohol distillery.
12. Given below are a few statements related to biodiversity. Pick those that correctly describe the concept
of biodiversity
i) Biodiversity refers to the different species of flora and fauna present in an area.
ii) Biodiversity refers to only the flora of a given area.
iii) Biodiversity is greater in a forest
iv) Biodiversity refers to the total number of individuals of a particular species living in an area.
a) I) and ii)
b) ii) and iv)
c) i) and iii)
d) ii) and iii)
189
13. Among the statements given below, select the ones that correctly describe the concept of sustainable
development.
i) Planned growth with minimum damage in the environment.
ii) Growth irrespective of the extent of damage caused to the environment
iii) Stopping all developmental work to conserve the environment.
iv) Growth that is acceptable to all the stake holders.
a) i and iv b) ii and iii c) ii and iv d) iii only.
14. In our country, vast tracts of forests are cleared and an economically important crop is cultivated. This
practice promotes
a) Biodiversity in the area
b) Monoculture in the area.
c) Growth of natural forest.
d) Preserving natural ecosystem the area.
15. A successful forest conservation strategy should involve
a) Protection of animals at the highest trophic levels.
b) Protection of consumers only
c) Protection of herbivores only.
d) Comprehensive programme to protect all the physical and biological components.
16. The important message conveyed by the ‗ Chipko Movement‘ is
a) To involve the community in forest conservation efforts.
b) To ignore the community in forest conservation efforts.
c) To cut down trees for the developmental processes.
d) Government agencies have unquestionable right to cut down trees in the forests
17. In our country, there are attempts to increase the height of the several existing dams like Tehri and
Almati dams across Narmada River.
Choose the correct statements among the following that are a consequence of raising the height of dams:
i) Terrestrial flora and fauna of the area is destroyed completely.
ii) Dislocation of people and domestic animals living in the area.
iii) Valuable agricultural land may be permanently lost.
iv) It will generate permanent employment for people.
a) i and ii b) i , ii and iii c) ii and iv d) i , iii and iv
18. Arabari forests of Bengal is dominated by
a) Teak
b) Sal
c) Bamboo
d) Mangrove
190
19. Opposition to the construction of large dams is due to
a) Social problems
b) Economic problems
c) Environments problems
20. Eris and Kulhs are ancient structures that are example for
a) Grain storage
b) Wood storage
c) Water harvesting system
d) Soil conservation.
21. The ancient water harvesting system practiced in Maharashtra is
a) Bundhis
b) Bandharas
c) Kattas
d) Ahars
Indira Gandhi canal Canal has brought greenary considerable areas of
a) Rajasthan
b) Gujarat
c) Madya Pradesh
d) Himachal Pradesh
22. The water harvesting structures are mainly
a) Circular
b) Rectangular Shaped
c) crescent shaped
d) Square shaped
23. Think over the relative advantage of eco – friendliness of the following
i) Using personal vehicle
ii) Using LED bulbs
iii) Wearing extra sweater during cold days
iv) Taking a bus.
a) i and ii
b) i and iii
c) ii and iii
d) ii , iii and iv
191
24. It is important to make check dams across the flooded gullies because they
i) They hold water for irrigation
ii) Hold water and prevent soil erosion
iii) Recharge ground water level
iv) Hold water permanently.
a) i and iv
b) ii and iii
c) iii and iv
d) ii and iv
ANSWERS
1. b 2. c 3. a 4.1. c 4.2. d
4.3. a 4.4 a 5. d 6. b 7. a
8. b 9. d 10. c 11. c 12. c
13. a 14. d 15. d 16. a 17. d
18. b 19. d 20. c 21. b 22. a
23. c 24. d 25. b
192

SCIENCE MCQ - CLASS 10 (Completed)

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

SCIENCE MCQ - CLASS 10 (Completed)

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

CLASS X - SCIENCE

Objective Type Questions with Answers

Chapter 1 – Chemical Reactions……………………………………….…….. 3

Chapter 2 – Acids, Base & Salts……………………………………………… 8

Chapter 3 – Metals and Non – Metals…………………………………….... 25

Chapter 4 – Carbon and its Compounds………….………….….………… 38

Chapter 5 – Periodic Classifications…………………………….………….. 47

Chapter 6 – Life Processes………………………………….…………….…. 67

Chapter 7 – Control and Coordination………………………….…………. 99

Chapter 8 – Reproduction…………………………………………………. 103

Chapter 9 – Heredity and Evolution……………………………………… 112

Chapter 10 – Light: Reflection and Refraction………….……..………… 131

Chapter 11 – Human Eye and the Colourful World…………..…….…… 136

Chapter 12 – Electricity……………………………………….….…….….. 148

Chapter 13 – Magnetic Effect of Current…………………….…….….…. 162

Chapter 14 – Sources of Energy…………………………………………… 167

Chapter 15 – Our Environment…………………………………………… 181

Chapter 16 – Management of Natural Resources………………………... 187

(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV

11. a 12. c 13. d 14. c 15. c

16. b 17. c 18. b 19. b 20. d

21. c 22. c 23. d 24. a 25. d

2. ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

1. The colour of neutral litmus solution is

(i) Plaster of Paris (a) CaOCl2

(i) Bulb will not glow because electrolyte is not acidic

The correct observation would be:

Find which student recorded the correct observation.

ASSERTION AND REASONING

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

ASSERTION AND REASONING

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Carbon exists in the atmosphere in the form of

6. In the following reaction, alkaline KMnO4 acts as:

11. Structural formula of ethyne is

19. Vinegar is a solution of:

23. Which of the following is not a straight chain hydrocarbon?

24. Which among the following are unsaturated hydrocarbons?

(a) (i) and (iii)

29. The first member of alkyne homologous series is:

11. a 12. d 13. b 14. a 15. c

16. c 17. c 18. d 19. c 20. a

21. b 22. c 23. d 24. c 25. d

26. a 27. d 28. d 29. a

a) (i) and (ii)

11. b 12. b 13. c 14. b 15. b

16. b 17. c 18. d 19. b 20. a

21. b 22. b 23. d 24. a 25. b

26. a 27. c 28. b 29. c 30. b

31. c 32. c 33. c 34. b 35. c

36. b 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. b

41. d 42. d 43. c 44. c 45. b

46. b 47. b 48. c 49. c 50. c

51. a 52. b 53. c 54. b 55. a

56. c 57. a 58. b 59. d 60. d

61. c 62. c 63. a 64. d 65. b

66. c 67. b 68. c 69. d 70. b

71. d 72. d 73. c 74. a 75. c

76. a 77. b 78. c 79. b 80. b

81. b 82. b 83. d 84. d 85. a

86. a 87. a 88. d 89. a 90. a

91. a 92. d 93. c 94. a 95. a