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Sample
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Social Science
CBSE Class 10 (Term I )

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As per CBSE Sample Paper
Issued On 02 Sep 2021...

Sample
Papers
Social Science
CBSE Class 10 (Term I )

Author
Nandini Sharma

ARIHANT PRAKASHAN (School Division Series)


ARIHANT PRAKASHAN (School Division Series)
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Contents
þ One Day Revision 3-13
þ The Qualifiers 17-36
þ Latest CBSE Sample Paper 37-51

Sample Question Paper 1 52-64

Sample Question Paper 2 65-78

Sample Question Paper 3 79-91

Sample Question Paper 4 92-105

Sample Question Paper 5 106-118

Sample Question Paper 6 119-132

Sample Question Paper 7 133-145

Sample Question Paper 8 146-158

Sample Question Paper 9 159-171

Sample Question Paper 10 172-184

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Chapterwise Important MCQs
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Syllabus
Social Science (Standard) CBSE Class 10 (Term I )

S. No. Units Chapter No. of Marks


Periods
India and the Contemporary World - II
. Rise of Nationalism in Europe
Contemporary India II
. Resources and Development
. Water Resources
. Agriculture

Democratic Politics II
. Power Sharing
. Federalism

Economics
. Development
. Sectors of Indian Economy

Unit : India and the Contemporary l Land Resources


World II l Land Utilization
l Land Use Pattern in India
Section Events and Processes
l Land Degradation and
. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Conservation Measures
l The French Revolution and the Idea
l Soil as a Resource
of the Nation
l Classification of Soils
l The Making of Nationalism in Europe
l Soil Erosion and Soil Conservation
l The Age of Revolutions: -
l The Making of Germany and Italy
. Water Resources
l Visualizing the Nation l Water Scarcity and The Need for Water
l Nationalism and Imperialism Conservation and Management
l Multi-Purpose River Projects and
Unit : Contemporary India II Integrated Water Resources Management
. Resources and Development l Rainwater Harvesting
l Types of Resources Note: The theoretical aspect of chapter Water Resources to
be assessed in the Periodic Tests only and will not be evaluated
l Development of Resources
in Board Examination. However, the map items of this chapter
l Resource Planning in India as listed will be evaluated in Board Examination.
. Agriculture l Primary, Secondary and Tertiary
l Types of farming Sectors in India
l Cropping Pattern l Division of sectors as organized and
unorganized
l Major Crops
l Sectors in terms of ownership:
l Technological and Institutional Reforms
Public and Private Sectors
l Impact of Globalization on Agriculture

Unit : Democratic Politics II


. Power Sharing List of Map Items
l Case Studies of Belgium and Sri Lanka A. GEOGRAPHY
l Why power sharing is desirable Chapter : Resources and Development
l Forms of Power Sharing a. Major Soil Types

. Federalism Chapter : Water Resources Dams:


l What is Federalism a. Salal
l What make India a Federal Country b. Bhakra Nangal
l How is Federalism practiced c. Tehri
l Decentralization in India d. Rana Pratap Sagar
e. Sardar Sarovar
Unit : Economics f. Hirakud
. Development g. Nagarjuna Sagar
l What Development Promises - Different h. Tungabhadra
people different goals Note: The theoretical aspect of chapter Water Resources to
l Income and other goals be assessed in the Periodic Tests only and will not be
evaluated in Board Examination. However, the map items of
l National Development this chapter as listed above will be evaluated in Board
l How to compare different countries Examination.
or states
Chapter : Agriculture
l Income and other criteria
a. Major areas of Rice and Wheat
l Public Facilities
b. Largest Major producer
l Sustainability of development
States of Sugarcane, Tea,
. Sectors of the Indian Economy Coffee, Rubber, Cotton and
l Sectors of Economic Activities Jute
l Comparing the three sectors
MCQs Preparation Tips

Focus on Theory Learn to Identify Wrong Answers


MCQs can be formed from any part or The simplest trick is, observe the options
line of the chapter. So, strong command first and take out the least possible one
on theory will increase your chances to and repeat the process until you reach
solve objective questions correctly and the correct option.
quickly.
Analyze your Performance
Practice of Solving MCQs During the practice of MCQs you can
Cracking an MCQ-based examination identify your weak & strong
requires you to be familiar with the topics/chapter by analyzing of incorrect
question format, so continuous practice answers, in this way you will get an
will make you more efficient in solving awareness about your weaker topics.
MCQs
Practice through Sample Papers
Speed & Accuracy Solving more & more papers will make
In MCQ-based examination, you need you more efficient and smarter for
both speed and accuracy, if your exams. Solve lots of Sample Papers
accuracy is good but speed is slow then given in a good Sample Papers book.
you might attempt less questions
resulting in low score.

Attempting MCQs in Exams

1. Read the paper from beginning to by step solution is not required in


end & attempt those questions first in MCQ type questions, it is a waste of
which you are confident. Now move time, you will not get extra marks for
on to those questions which requires this
thinking and in last attempt those
4. Most of the time, you need not to
questions for which you need more
solve the MCQ completely to get the
attention.
correct option. You can start thinking
2. Read instructions of objective in reverse order and choose the best
questions carefully and find out what fit option.
is being asked,
5. As there is no negative marking for
a bit carelessness can lead you to
incorrect answers, so don't leave any
incorrect answer.
question unanswered. Use your
3. Tick/Write down the correct option guess if you have not exact idea
only while filling the OMR sheet. Step about the correct answer.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 3

ONE DAY
REVISION
Revise All the Chapters in a Day
Just Before the Examination...

UNIT 1 : INDIA AND THE CONTEMPORARY WORLD-II

● Rise of Nationalism in Europe


Concept of Nation State The Making of Nationalism in Europe
During the 19th century nationalism emerged as a force ● There were no nation-states in the mid-18th century
in Europe. It brought about sweeping changes in the Europe.
political and mental world of Europe which resulted in ● Germany, Italy and Switzerland were divided into

emergence of the nation-state. kingdoms, duchies and cantons whose rulers had
Frederic Sorrieu, a French artist drew a series of four their autonomous territories. They did not see
prints which depicted his dream of a world made up of themselves as sharing a collective unity or a common
‘Democratic and Social Republics’ in 1848. culture.
Aristocracy and the New Middle Class
The French Revolution ● Aristocracy, was a small group but it was the dominant
and the Idea of Nation class in the continent. They owned estates and
● The first idea of nationalism came with the French property.
Revolution in 1789. ● Due to industrialisation the new social groups of
● The French Revolutionaries introduced various working class and middle class population, including
measures and practices and introduced the ideas like, industrialists, businessmen, professionals came into
la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) existence.
amongst the French people.
Liberal Nationalism
● A centralised administrative system and a uniform law
● In the early 19th century, ideas of national unity were
for all citizens was introduced.
closely related to the ideology of liberalism.
Napoleonic Code ● For the new middle classes, liberalism meant freedom
● Napoleon had incorporated revolutionary principle by for individual and equality of all before law.
introducing the Civil Code of 1804, which was known ● In France, the right to vote and to get elected was
as Napoleonic Code. granted exclusively to persons who owned property.
ONE DAY REVISION

● This civil code removed all privileges based on birth, ● In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for the
established equality before law and secured the right freedom of markets and the abolition of state imposed
to property. It abolished the feudal system and freed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital.
peasants from serfdom and manorial dues. It ● In 1834, a Customs Union or Zollverein was formed by
simplified administrative divisions, removed guild
Prussia and accepted by most of the German state.
system, improved transport and communication
system, introduced standardised weights and ● The union abolished tariff barriers and reduced the
measures and common national currency. number of currencies from over thirty to two.
4 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

A New Conservatism After 1815 ● The conditions of the workers in town was extreme. In
● Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European 1845, there was a revolt of weavers in Silesia village
governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism. against the contractors.
● Conservatism stressed on the importance of tradition, ● In 1848, population of Paris revolted due to food
established institutions and customs and preferred shortage and widespread unemployment. Barricades
gradual development to quick change. were erected and Louis Philippe was forced to flee.
● The European powers like Britain, Russia, Prussia and
● As a result, a National Assembly proclaimed a republic
Austria who had collectively defeated Napoleon met at and granted suffrage to adult males above 21 and
Vienna and signed up the Treaty of Vienna in 1815. guaranteed them the right to work. National workshop
were set-up to provide employment.
The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor
Duke Metternich and they drew up the Treaty of ● It was because the contractors supplied raw material
Vienna of 1815. to weaver and reduced their payments.
● The major outcomes of the treaty are the Bourbon ● As a result, suffrage (right to vote) was granted to
dynasty restored power, France lost all the territories, males above 21 by the National Assembly. This gave
annexed by Napoleon and a series of states were set them the right to work.
up on the boundaries of France to prevent its 1848 : The Revolution of the Liberals
expansion in future. ● In Germany, Italy, Poland and Austro-Hungarian
● The main intention of Congress was to restore the empire demanded for constitutionalism with national
monarchies that has been overthrown by Napoleon unification. The liberal took advantage of the growing
and create a new conservative order in Europe. popular unrest to push their demands for the creation
The Revolutionaries of nation-state.
● The liberal nationalists opposed monarchial forms that ● In 1848 France, Germany, Italy, Poland etc demanded
had been established after Vienna Congress and fight for a nation state based on Constitution, freedom of the
for liberty and freedom. press and freedom of association.
● In Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini became a May Revolution
member of Secret Society and founded two ● On 18th May, 1848, 831 elected representatives
underground societies, viz, Young Italy and Young assembled in the Church of St Paul. They drafted a
Europe. Constitution for German nation. According to this
● He was described as ‘the most dangerous enemy of Constitution, the nation was to be headed by a
our social order’. monarchy under a parliamentary control.
● The highest position was offered to Friedrich Wilhelm
The Age of Revolution: 1830-1848
IV (King of Prussia), but he rejected it and joined other
● Liberalism and nationalism was associated with the monarchs to oppose the elected assembly.
revolution in many regions of Europe such as the ● The Parliament also lost its support as demands of
Italian and German states, the provinces of Ottoman
workers and artisans were ignored and the assembly
Empire, Ireland and Poland. These revolutions were
was disbanded.
led by liberal nationalists.
● The first upheaval took place in France in Issue of Political Rights to Women
July 1830. The Bourbon kings were overthrown by ● Women were not given any political rights so large
liberal revolutionaries, who installed Louis Philippe as number of women participated actively in the liberal
the constitutional monarch. movements to demand for their rights.
● There was a struggle for independence in Greece and ● They formed their own political associations, founded
the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised newspaper and took actively in political meeting and
Greece as an independent nation. demonstrations.

The Romantic Imagination The Making of Germany and Italy


ONE DAY REVISION

and National Feeling After 1848, nationalist sentiments were widespread in


● Romanticism was a cultural movement that tried to Germany and Italy which led to their unification.
create a sense of a shared collective heritage as a ● Otto von Bismarck aimed to achieve the unification

basis of a nation. with the help of Prussian army and bureaucracy.


● Some countries like Poland kept nationalist feeling alive
● Prussian victory in three wars with Austria, Denmark

through music and language. The clergies in Poland and France ended and completed the process of its
used Polish language for religious instruction. unification.
● Chief Minister Otto von Bismarck along with princes
Hunger, Hardship and Popular Revolt
● The 1830s were the years of great economic hardship in
of German states, representatives of the army,
Prussian ministers declared the new German Empire
Europe. There was enormous increase in population all
on 18th January, 1871. It was headed by Kaiser
over the Europe. William I of Prussia.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 5

● Newly formed state, Germany emphasised on modernising the ● Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the United
currency, banking, legal and judicial systems. Kingdom of Britain in 1801.
● Italy was divided into seven states of which only ● The symbols of the new Britain were the British

Sardinia-Piedmont was ruled by an Italian Princely state. flag (Union Jack), the National Anthem (God
● Giuseppe Mazzini, Count Camillo de Cavour, Giuseppe save our Nobel King) and the English language.
Garibaldi took responsibilities to unite Italy. Due to their effort
Visualising the Nation
Italy was united in 1861.
● Artists in the 18th and 19th century started to
● In 1861 Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed the king of
personify nations as female figures.
United Italy.
● These female figures became known as allegory
● The states of Tuscany, Modena, Parma and the Papal were
of nations, viz in France, Marianne was the
joined with Sardinia.
allegory and in Germany, Germania was the
● The final unification of Italy was achieved in 1871 and Rome allegory.
became a part of Sardinia.
The Strange Case of Britain
Nationalism and Imperialism
● A large part of the Balkans was under the
● There was no British nation prior to the 18th century.
controls of the Ottoman Empire.
● In 1688, England was established as a Nation-state. English ● Each European power i.e. Germany, Russia,
Parliament seized power from Monarchy.
England, Austro-Hungary wanted to extend their
● The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland control over the Balkans. This led to series of
resulted in the formation of the United Kingdom of Great war and finally the First World War.
Britain. By this Act, Scotland was incorporated in England.

UNIT 2 : CONTEMPORARY INDIA-II

● Resources and Development


Resource — Individual resources are owned privately by
Everything available in our environment that can be used individuals, e.g. plantation, pasture land,
to satisfy our needs, which is technologically accessible, farmland, etc.
— Community owned resources are equally
economically feasible and culturally acceptable can be
termed as resource. accessible to all the members of the community,
e.g. grazing ground, burial grounds, etc.
Types of Resource
— National resources are under the control of
Resources can be classified on the basis of origin, nation, e.g. canal, roadways, railways, etc.
exhaustibility, ownership and the status of development. — International resource are international
● On the basis of origin, resources are of two types,
institutions which regulate some resources like
viz., biotic resources and abiotic resources. the oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles
— Biotic resources are obtained from biosphere and
of the Exclusive Economic Zone belong to
have life, i.e.; human beings, livestock, flora and open ocean which cannot be used by
fauna, fisheries etc. any country without the permission of
— Abiotic resources are composed of non-living international institutions.
things, e.g. rocks and metals. ● On the basis of the status of development,
● On the basis of exhaustibility, resources are resources are potential, developed, stocks and
renewable and non-renewable. reserves.
ONE DAY REVISION

— Renewable resources can be renewed or — Potential resources are those resources which

reproduced by applying physical, chemical or are found in a region, but not yet have been
mechanical process e.g. solar energy, wind energy, utilised.
forest, water, wildlife, etc. — Developed resources are surveyed and their

— Non-renewable resources are formed through quality and quantity is determined for utilisation
long geological time period and cannot be renewed e.g. coal and petroleum.
easily, e.g. minerals, metals and fossil fuels. — Stock Material in the environment which have the

● On the basis of ownership, resources are individual, potential to satisfy human need but human being
community owned, national and international do not have appropriate technology to access
resources. these are known as stock, e.g. hydrogen in
water.
6 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

— Reserves are subset of stock which can used by Conservation of Resources


technical know-how, but their use has not been ● Resources are vital for any developmental activity. To
started, e.g. river water. overcome the problems of irrational consumption and
Development of Resources over-utilisation of resources, resource conservation at
various levels is important.
● Resources are vital for human survival and for
maintaining quality of life. But over utilisation of ● At international level, resource conservation was
resources has led to the serious global problems like advocated in 1968 at Club of Rome and in 1987, the
global warming, ozone layer depletion, environmental Brundtland Commission Report extensively
pollution and land degradation. mentioned the necessity of resources.
● An equal distribution of resources therefore, is Land Resources
essential for a sustained quality of life and global ● Land is a very important natural resource. It is limited,
peace. This can be achieved through sustainable
so, it needs to be used with careful planning.
development and resource planning.
● Indian’s geographical area compries of variety of relief
Sustainable Development features i.e. 43 per cent plain land area for agriculture
Sustainable economic development means and industries, 27 per cent plateau which source of
‘development should take place without damaging the mineral, fossil fuels and forest and 30 per cent of
environment, and development in the present, should mountains.
not compromise with the needs of the future
generations. Land Utilisation
Land resource are used for the many purposes such as
Rio De Janeiro Summit, 1992
Forests, Land not available for cultivation, Other
● The first International Earth Summit was held in Rio De
uncultivated land, Fallow lands, Net sown area.
Janeiro in June 1992.
● The summit addressed the problems of environmental
Land Use Pattern in India
protection and socio-economic development. ● The use of land is determined by physical factors like
climate, soil type, topography etc as well as human
Agenda 21 factors like population density, technological
● It is a declaration signed at the United Nations
capability and culture and traditions, etc.
Conference on Environment and Development ● Total geographical area of India is 3.28 million sq. km.
(UNCED) in 1992 at Rio De Janeiro, Brazil. Out of this, the land under permanent pasture has
● It aims to combat environmental damage, poverty,
decreased.
disease through global co-operation, etc. It also aims ● In India, land use data is available for only 93 per cent
that every local government should draw its own local of total area.
Agenda-21.
● Between 1960-61 and 2014-2015 major changes took
Resource Planning place in land use pattern in India. For example,
— Most of the other than current fallow lands are of
● Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious
use of resources. poor quality and their cost of cultivation is very
● Resource planning is essential for sustainable high. The pattern of net sown area varies greatly
development in India because some regions are rich from one state to another.
— Forest area in India is far lower than the desired
in one resources but are deficient in other resources.
33% of geographical area.
Resource Planning in India — Waste land includes rocky, arid and desert areas

● Complex process of resource planning in India is and land put to other non-agricultural uses
divided into three stages, e.g. identification and includes settlements, roads, railways, industry, etc.
inventory of resources, planning for resource
Land Degradation and
development, matching the resource development
ONE DAY REVISION

Conservation Measures
plans with overall national development plans.
● It is a common problem associated with land
● India has made concerted efforts for achieving the
resources which is accelerated today because of
goals of resources planning right from the First Five
human activities like deforestation, overgrazing and
Year Plan launched after Independence.
mining.
Resources and Colonisation ● Natural factors like water and wind cause erosion of
● Rich natural resources of colonies were the main
top soil.
attractions for foreign invaders. ● Mineral processing is also responsible for land
● Technological development of the colonising countries
degradation.
helped them to exploit resources of the colonised ● Measures to reduce land degradation are
regions. afforestation, controlled grazing, stabilisation of sand
dunes etc.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 7

Soil as a Resource Laterite Soils


● Soil is a living system and supports different types ● Laterite soil develops in tropical and sub-tropical climate

of living organisms. with alternative wet and dry season.


● It is the most important renewable natural resource. ● It is found mostly in Western Ghats region of

Classification of Soils Maharashtra, Odisha, some parts of West Bengal and


North-East regions.
On the basis of factors responsible for soil formation,
colour, thickness, texture, age, chemical and Arid Soils
● Arid Soil is found in dry areas. In some areas, common
physical properties, the soils of India are classified
as follows salt is obtained in this soil due to evaporation of water.
● It can be useful for cultivation only with suitable irrigation
Alluvial Soils
● It has been deposited by three important
methods as in case of Western Rajasthan.
Himalayan river systems i.e. the Indus, the Ganges Forest Soils
and the Brahmaputra. ● Forest soil is found in hilly and mountainous areas where

● Rich in potash, phosphoric acid and lime which are


sufficient rain forests are available.
ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat, etc. ● It is found in lower parts of valleys particularly on the river
Black Soils terraces.
● Black soil is also known as black cotton soil or Soil Erosion and Soil Conservation
regur soil.
Soil erosion is the removal of the soil cover and
● It is found in the Deccan trap (Basalt) region and is
subsequent washing down of top soil.
made up of lava flows. ● The process of soil formation and erosion go on
● It is well-known for their capacity in hold moisture.
simultaneously and there is a balance between the two
● Rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and process.
lime. ● The balance is disturbed due to natural and human

Red and Yellow Soils causes.


● It is red in colour due to diffusion of iron particles ● Erosion through wind, glacier and water are natural

into crystalline and metamorphic rocks in low causes.


rainfall areas of the Deccan plateau (Eastern and ● Human has contributed more towards soil erosion due to

Southern parts). deforestation, faulty methods of agriculture, overgrazing,


● It is found in parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh, construction and mining, etc.
Southern parts of Middle Ganga Plain and along ● Contour ploughing, terrace farming, strip cropping,

the piedmont zone of the Western Ghats. shelter belts can prevent soil erosion.

● Agriculture
Agriculture is a primary activity in which almost Cropping Pattern
two-third of India’s population is engaged. ● India has three cropping seasons such as Rabi,
Kharif and Zaid.
Types of Farming
● Some rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and
● There are various types of farming in India such as
mustard. Major kharif crops are paddy, maize, jowar,
primitive subsistence farming, intensive subsistence
bajra, tur, moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and
farming, commercial farming, plantations etc.
soyabean. Some zaid crops are watermelon,
● Primitive subsistence farming is carried out by the muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops.
small farmers with the help of primitive tools. ● A variety of food and non food crops are grown
ONE DAY REVISION

● Intensive subsistence farming is practised in areas indifferent parts of India. These depend upon the
where there is high population pressure on land. variations in soil, climate and cultivation practices.
● The agricultural practice on large scale by using
Major Crops
modern technology to earn good income from
agriculture is called Commercial Farming. ● Food crops include grains and leguminous crops like
● Commercial farming is done by using High Yielding rice, wheat, millets, maize, pulses.
Variety (HYV) seeds, good irrigation facilities, chemical ● Rice is the major staple food crop of a majority of the
fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides, etc. people in India. Wheat is the second most important
cereal crop.
8 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

● Jowar, bajra and ragi are the important millets grown Contribution of Agriculture to the National
in India. Maize is a crop which is used both as food Economy, Employment and Output
and fodder. India is the largest producer and ● As per a survey done in 2010-11 around 52% of the

consumer of pulses in the world. Indian population is dependent on agriculture for


● India is the largest producer and consumer of pulses sustenance.
in the world. ● When share of agriculture declines in GDP, it leads to a

Food Crops Other than Grains decline in other spheres of the economy.
● To improve Indian agriculture, the Government of India
● Other food crops are sugarcane, oilseeds, beverage

crops like tea, coffee and horticulture crops. made efforts to modernise agriculture. For this the
● Sugarcane is a tropical crop. Main oil seeds
government established Indian Council of Agricultural
Research (ICAR), agricultural universities, veterinary
produced in India are groundnut, mustard, coconut,
services and animal breeding centres, horticulture
sesamum, soyabean, castor seeds, cotton seeds,
development, research and development in the field of
linseed and sunflower.
meteorology and weather forecast.
● Tea and coffee are example of plantation crops.

● Horticulture crops include the cultivation of both Food Security


fruits and vegetables. Important vegetable produces ● The government has designed National Food Security
in India are pea, cauliflower, onion, cabbage, System to ensure the food security to every citizen.
tomato, brinjal and potato. Important fruits grow in ● It consists of two components

India are mango, orange, banana, pineapple, grape, — Buffer stock and
lichi, guava, apple pear, apricot, walnut, etc. — Public Distribution System (PDS)

Non-Food Crops ● Food Corporation of India (FCI) is responsible for

● Non-food crops include fibre crops like cotton, jute. procuring and stocking foodgrains, whereas,
● Rubber is also a non-food crop. Rubber is an distribution is ensured by Public Distribution System
important industrial raw material and mainly grown in (PDS).
Kerala. ● PDS is a programme whch provides foodgrains and

● Fibre Crops cotton, jute, hemp and natural silk are other essential ccommodities at subsidised prices in
the major fibre crops grown in India. rural and urban areas.
● Cotton is one of the major raw materials for cotton ● The primary objective of National Food Security are

textile industry. Its growth is good in drier parts of — Ensure availability of foodgrains to the common

deccan plateau. people at an affordable price.


● Jute is known as the golden fibre. It grows well in — Poor should have access to food.

well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains. — Growth in agricultural production.

— Fixing the support price for procurement of wheat


Technological and
and rice to maintain their stocks.
Institutional Reforms
● The Government of India in 1960s to 1970s Impact of Globalisation on Agriculture
introduced some agricultural reforms to improve ● Globalisation has also adversely impacted Indian

Indian agriculture like Green Revolution and White agriculture as the farmers in India are exposed to high
Revolution. competition from farmers of the developed countries.
● Major institutional reforms like land reforms and ● Our farmers are not able to compete with them on

collectivisation were introduced in India from the first prices of major commodities like rice, cotton, rubber,
Five Year Plan. tea, coffee, jute and spices.
● Government of India has initiated land development ● If India changes its cropping pattern i.e. if India imports
programmes and schemes like Kisan Credit Card cereals while exporting high value commodities, it
ONE DAY REVISION

(KCC), weather bulletins and programmes on radio will be following successful economics like Italy, Israel
and television, etc for the benefits of the farmers. and Chile.
● Government also announced Minimum Support ● Gene revolution and organic farming are new
Price (MSP), remunerative and procurement prices dimensions in Indian agriculture that is based on
for various agricultural products. innovative technology.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 9

UNIT 3 : DEMOCRATIC POLITICS-II

● Power Sharing
Power sharing among the three organs of state viz, Majoritarianism in Sri Lanka
Legislature, Executive and Judiciary is very ● The Sinhala community of Sri Lanka dominated the
important for proper functioning of the democracy. minority Tamil people and practised majoritarian policy.
Belgium ● In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the
only official language.
● Belgium is a small federal state in Western Europe
having complex ethnic composition. ● The government followed preferential policies that
favoured Sinhala applicants for university positions and
● The minority French speaking community (40%) was
government jobs.
relatively rich and powerful while the Dutch-speaking
community (59%) got the benefit of development ● The state protect and promote Buddhism.
and education much later. ● All these measures increased gradually the feeling of
● The capital of Belgium is Brussels, where 80% alienation among Sri Lankan Tamils.
people speak French, while 20% speak Dutch ● The Sri Lankan Tamils demanded regional autonomy
language. and equality of opportunity in securing education and
● The social disparity led to tensions between Dutch jobs and also to recognise Tamil as an official language.
and French speaking communities during the 1950s ● But their demand was repeatedly denied. By the 1980s
and 1960s. they organised many political organisation like LTTE
Accommodation in Belgium (Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam) and the conflict turned
into a Civil War.
● Between 1970s and 1993, the Constitution of
Belgium was amended four times. Why Power Sharing is Desirable?
● The Constitution suggests that the number of Dutch ● Power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of

and French speaking ministers shall be equal in the the political order. It reduces the possibility of conflict
Central Government of Belgium. between social groups. This is termed as Prudential
● The State Governments are not subordinate to the reason.
Central Government. ● Power sharing is the spirit of democracy, people have a

● Brussels has a separate government, in which both right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.
the Dutch and French-speaking people have equal This is termed as Moral reason.
representation. Forms of Power Sharing
● Apart from the State and Central Government, there is
● In modern democracy, power sharing arrangements can
a third kind of government; community government in
take many forms like horizontal distribution of power and
Belgium which has the power regarding cultural,
vertical distribution of power.
educational and language related issues.
● Horizontal distribution of power ensures that none of

Sri Lanka the organs, i.e. legislature, executive and judiciary can
Sri Lanka is an island nation in the Indian Ocean. It exercise unlimited power.
has a diverse population of about 2 crore people with ● In vertical division of power there are different levels of
74% Sinhala Speakers and 18% Tamil Speakers. government and the powers are divided among them. It
Tamils have two subgroups namely is also known as federal division of power. It is found
● Sri Lankan Tamils Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are both in India and Belgium but not in Sri Lanka.
● In Belgium, leaders took a different path of power
called Sri Lankan Tamils who constitute 13% of the
population and are concentrated in the North and sharing. After amending their Constitution, they
ONE DAY REVISION

East of Sri Lanka. developed the concept of community government apart


● Most of Sinhala Speaking people are Buddhist, from State and Central Government.
● Power is shared among different organs of government,
while most of the Tamils are Hindus or Muslims.
● Indian Tamils The Tamilians whose forefathers among governments at different levels, among different
came from India as plantation workers during social groups and can also be seen in the way political
colonial rule and settled in Sri Lanka are called parties, pressure groups and movements control or
Indian Tamils. They constitute 5% of the population. influence those in power.
10 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

● Federalism
What is Federalism? — The Union List contains subjects of national
● Federalism is a system of government in which the importance. Like defence, foreign affairs, banking,
power is divided between a central authority and communications and currency.
— State List contains subjects of state and local
various constituent units of the country.
● A federal system is distinct from a unitary system. importance. Like police, trade, commerce,
Unitary system has either one level of government or agriculture and irrigation.
— Concurrent List has subject of common interest
sub units which are subordinates to the Central
Government. to both the Union and the State Government. Like
education, forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption
Key Features of Federations and succession.
● There are two levels of government in a federation and ● The subjects which do not include in any three lists
both enjoy independent power of each other. and subjects like computer software that came up
● Different tiers of government govern the same citizens,
after the Constitution was made are known as
but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters Residuary subject. Only Union Government can
of legislation, taxation and administration. make laws on the residuary subjects.
● The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot
Power Sharing Between
be changed by one level of government. Union and State Governments
● The jurisdictions of the respective levels of
● Our Constitution determines the extent of the sharing
government are specified in the constitution. Thus, the
of power between Union and State Government and it
existence and authority of each level or tier of
is the basic structures of the Constitution.
government is constitutionally guaranteed.
● Any change to it has to be first passed by both the
● Judiciary prevents conflic t between centre and
Houses of Parliament with at least two thirds majority.
regional government in the exercise of their powers.
Then it has to be ratified by the legislatures of at least
● Sources of revenue for each level of government are
half of the total states.
clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy. ● The judiciary plays an important role in overseeing the
● The federal system has dual objectives, i.e., to
implementation of constitutional provision and
safeguard and promote unity of the country and also procedures.
to accommodates regional diversity. ● In case of any dispute about the division of powers,

Types of Federations the High Courts and the Supreme Court make a
● Federations are of two types: coming together decision.
federations and holding together federations. How is Federalism Practised?
● USA, Switzerland and Australia has formed a
Our Constitution did not give the status of national
federation of ‘coming together’ type while India, Spain
and Belgium by ‘holding together’ type. language to any language, though Hindi and English
● In coming together federations, all the constituent
were identified as the official language.
states usually have equal power and are strong Linguistic States
vis-a-vis the federal government. ● The creation of linguistic states was the first and a

● In holding together federations, the Central Government


major test for democratic politics in our country.
tends to be more powerful vis-a-vis the states. ● Some states were created not on the basis of

What Makes India a Federal Country? language but to recognise differences based on
culture, ethnicity or geography.
India is a federal country. The Constitution declared
India as a union of states. The Indian Union is based on Language Policy
ONE DAY REVISION

the principles of federalism. ● Language Policy was the second test for the Indian

Two-Tier System of Government federation to any language.


● The Indian Constitution did not give the status of
The Constitution originally provides a two-tier system of
national languages to any language.
government : the Union and the State Governments.
● Hindi was identified as the official language and
Three-Tier System of Government besides it there are 22 scheduled languages in the
● Later a third-tier of federalism in the form of
Indian Constitution.
Panchayats and Municipalities was added.
Centre-State Relations
— The Constitution clearly provided a three-fold
● Restructuring the Centre-State Relations is one more
distribution of legislative powers between the
Union Government and the State Government. It way in which federalism has been strengthened in
contains three lists. practice.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 11

● Since, no single party got a clear majority in the Lok ● Each village or group of villages has a Gram Panchayat
Sabha, major national parties had to enter into an which consists of several ward members (Panchs) and
alliance with many parties including several regional a President (Sarpanch).
parties, to form a government at the centre. ● Panchayat works under the supervision of Gram Sabha.

● It led to a new culture of power sharing and respect


● A few Gram Panchayats are grouped together to form

for the autonomy of State Governments. a Panchayat Samiti.


● To follow the true spirit of federalism, respect for
Zilla Parishad
diversity in our country is very necessary.
● All the Panchayat Samitis in a district together

Decentralisation in India constitute the Zilla (district) Parishad.


● When power is taken away from Central and State ● The Chairperson of Zilla Parishad is its political head.

government and given to local government, it is Municipalities


called decentralisation. ● Municipalities are set up in towns. In big cities
● Decentralisation was done so that a large number of
Municipal Corporations are set up. Both are controlled
problems could be settled at the local level. by elected bodies consisting people’s representatives.
Local Government ● Municipal chairperson is the political head of the

● The local government includes panchayats in villages municipality. In a Municipal Corporation, the head is
and municipalities in urban areas. known as Mayor.
● The local government includes panchayats in villages Constitutional Status
and municipalities in urban areas whose election is for Local Government
carried out by the State Election Commission. ● Constitutional status for local government has helped to

Panchayati Raj System deepen democracy in our country as well.


● But most state governments have not transferred
● In India rural local government is popularly known as

Panchayati Raj. significant powers to the local government.

UNIT 4 : ECONOMICS
● Development
Meaning of Development National Development
● Development refers to the all round ● It refers to the ability of a nation to improve standard of
development of a country such as freedom, living of its citizens.
participative involvement, economic equality, ● The individuals have different goals and their motive of
security, life with dignity and good standard of national development is also likely to different. Their goals
living. can also be conflicting.
● Development involves desires or aspirations
Comparison of Countries or States
about what would we like to do or how would
like to live. Countries are compared on the basis of income earned.
Different People and Different Goals Comparison Through National Income
● Different persons can have different ● Simple method for comparing development of different
developmental goals which may not be similar nations is total income or national income.
or may even be conflicting. ● However it does not provide clear idea about the
● Development for one may not be development development of a country because the population of each
country is different. So, we use average income or per
ONE DAY REVISION

for another. It may be destructive to other.


capita income to compare different countries.
Income and Other Goals
Comparison Through Per Capita Income
● Income is considered as the most important ● Average or per capita income is obtained by dividing the
component of development as it can be material
total income by the population of the country to compare
goods and services. different countries.
● Earning high income is a goal for development. ● World Bank Publishes World Development Report (WDR)
But it is not the only goal. Apart from income, every year to compare the nations and the basis of per
people also consider other goals for capita income.
development like equal treatment, freedom,
security and respect of others. Thus, for
● World Bank classifies countries on the basis of per capita
development they look at a mix of goals. income.
12 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

— Rich countries except middle East countries are ● Human Development Report (HDR) compares
called developed countries. countries based on three criterias, viz, Living Standard
— India is in category of low middle income country. (per capita income), Health Status (life expectancy)
and Educational levels of people (Literary rate and
Income and Other Criteria years of schooling).
● Human Development Index (HDI) is considered as
the best criteria to compare the level of development Sustainability of Development
in different countries. ● Overuse and excessive exploitation of natural
● Various aspects of developments are per capita resources for development has created the
income, infant mortality rate, literacy rate, net degradation of environment and forced us to think
attendance ratio of students in schools. about sustainable development. This means careful
use of resources so that they are available for the
Public Facilities future generation also.
● States where adequate public facilities are provided ● Some region of Punjab, Western Uttar Pradesh,
have more progress. Public facilities include good Central and South India overuse ground water which
basic health and educational facilities, good Public will create problem in future.
Distribution System (PDS). ● Scientists, economists, philosophers and social
● Body Mass Index (BMI) is an international standard scientists are working together to find ways of
used to determine whether an adult person is sustainable development.
undernourished or not.

● Sectors of Indian Economy


Sectors of Economic Activites ● Goods and services are of two types
— Final goods and services mean those goods and
● The activities which are undertaken with the objective to
earn money are called Economic activities. services that are directly consumed by the
● On the basis of nature of activity, primary, secondary consumers and are not meant for further
and tertiary are sectors of economic activities. production and processing.
— Intermediate goods and services mean those
Primary Sector goods and services that are used for further
● Primary sector includes activities which are associated production on processing.
with the extraction and production by directly using ● GDP is the sum of the value of final goods and
natural resources. services produced by these three sectors during a
● This includes agriculture, forestry, fishing, mining and particular year.
extraction of oil and gas. It is also called agricultural
and related sector. Historical Change in Sectors
In the initial stages of development, Primary sector
Secondary Sector becomes important for a country, later it is replaced by
● Secondary sector includes activities which are Secondary and finally by Tertiary.
associated with processing and manufacturing.
Whereas tertiary activities provide services. Primary, Secondary
● For example, Yarn and cloth weaving from cotton fibre, and Tertiary Sector in India
sugar or gur from sugarcane, etc. During last 40 years, Tertiary sector in India emerged as
● The development in secondary sector becomes an important sector as its contribution in GDP has
associated with different kinds of industries, thus it is increased to many folds.
called industrial sector. Rising Importance of the
ONE DAY REVISION

Tertiary Sector Tertiary Sector in Production


● Tertiary sector includes those activities which help in ● Tertiary sector has replaced the primary sectors as
the development of primary and secondary sectors. largest producing sector.
● For example, transport service, storage service, ● The main reasons for this are
communication banking service and so on. — Demands for basic services have increased like

hospitals, educational institutions, postal services,


Comparing the Three Sectors banks etc.
● These primary, secondary and tertiary activities are — Greater development in Primary and Secondary

interdependent on each other, as the goods and sectors has induced demand for service sector
services produced in one is used in the other sectors growth like transport, trade, storage etc.
also.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 13

— Due to globalisation, certain new services have ● These enterprises and registered by government and
entered Indian market like information technology follow the rules set by the government.
and communication technology.
Unorganised Sector
● However, not all of the service sector is growing ● This sector is characterised by small and scattered
equally. Services that employ highly skilled and
units which are unregistered and do not follow
educated people are growing.
government rules and regulations.
Employment of People in Different Sectors ● A large fraction of India’s working population is
● The data of 40 years i.e. 1977-78 to 2017-18 show’s engaged in unorganised sector. They are deprived of
that still the primary sector is the largest employer as various facilities enjoyed by organised sector such as
compared secondary and tertiary sectors. proper wages, healthy working conditions, etc.
● The share of employment for primary sector, Protection of Workers
secondary sector and tertiary sector is 44%, 25% in Unorganised Sector
and31% respectively. ● There are many groups of vulnerable people who
● Underemployment or disguised unemployment is need protection in the unorganised sector.
largely prevalent in India, particularly in agriculture. ● In rural areas farmers can be supported through
Creating More Employment adequate facilities for timely delivery of seeds,
agricultural inputs, credit, storage etc.
● Some important steps can be taken to reduce
unemployment. These are providing bank loans to the ● In urban areas the small scale industries can be
agriculturists, creating employment by constructing protected by governments support for procuring raw
dams, roads and canals. materials and marketing of output.
● Setting up small scale industries (rice, mill, dal mill, ● Protection and support to farmers and workers are
honey collection centres, food processing industries, necessary for economic and social development.
cold storage etc.), improvement in education, health
Sectors in Terms of Ownership
and tourism sector.
In terms of ownership, there are public and private
● To solve this problem, employment generation has
sectors.
always been a major goal of government. MGNREGA
2005 was one of the major steps taken in this regard. Public Sector
● Public sector enterprises are owned by government.
Division of Sectors as
Organised and Unorganised
● The public sector has welfare motive so it provides
essential goods and services at cheap prices to the
On the basis of the working conditions or how people are poor people.
employed, sectors of economy are divided into
organised and unorganised sectors. Private Sector
● Private sector enterprises are owned by individual and
Organised Sector
groups of individuals.
● It covers those enterprises or places of work where
● The private sector has profit motive.
workers are given regular employment.
ONE DAY REVISION
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 17

THE
QUALIFIERS
Chapterwise Set of MCQs to Check Preparation
Level of Each Chapter

UNIT 1 : INDIA AND THE CONTEMPORARY WORLD-II

Rise of Nationalism in Europe


1. Who was declared as the King of United Italy in 1861?
(a) Kaiser William I (b) Victor Emmanuel II
(c) Napoleon (d) Wolfe Tone

2. In which century Europe was seen to have an enormous increase in population?


(a) Mid 18th Century (b) Last half of 19th Century
(c) First half of 19th Century (d) Last half of 18th Century

3. Who led the famous expedition of the ‘Thousand to the South Italy’?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi (b) Count Camillo Cavour
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Kaiser William I

4. In which year entire Central Italian states were united with Piedmont?
(a) March 1859 (b) March 1860 (c) March 1861 (d) March 1862

5. Following image is the Frankfurt Parliament in the Church of St Paul. When this
Parliament convened in the church of St. Paul, who were admitted only as observers to
stand in the visitors gallery?
THE QUALIFIERS

(a) Women (b) Peasant class


(c) Non-propertied men (d) All of these
18 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

6. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.


Column A Column B
(Year) (Important Events)
A. 1814-15 1. Period of Economic Crises in Europe
B. 1797 2. Victor Emmanuel II declared King of United Italy
C. 1830 3. Fall of Napoleon
D. 1861 4. The beginning of Napoleonic War

Choose the correct answer from the option given below


A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 1 2 4 3

7. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.


Column A Column B
A. Friedrich Wilhelm IV 1. Austrian Chancellor
B. Count Camillo de Cavour 2. Caliph
C. Ottoman Empire 3. Chief Minister of Sardinia-Piedmont
D. Duke Metternich 4. King of Prussia

Choose the correct answer from the option given below


A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 2 4 3 1

8. Identify the Emperor with the help of clues given below.


• Introduce the Civil Code of 1804
• Destroy democracy in France
• Removes all privileges based on birth, established equality before the law and
secured the right to property.
• Abolished the Feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.
(a) Carl Welcker (b) Louise Otto-Peters
(c) Napoleon (d) Kaiser William II

9. Identify the country with the help of the given clues whose incorporation was based on
following points.
• Country divided into Catholics and Protestants.
• A new nation was established through the propagation of a dominant English
culture.
• The symbol were the ‘Union Jack’, the National Anthem (God save our Noble King)
THE QUALIFIERS

and the English language.


• Older nation survived as subordinate partners in this Union.
(a) Incorporation of Ireland.
(b) Incorporation of Scotland in United Kingdom.
(c) Incorporation of Germany.
(d) Incorporation of Italy.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 19

10. Choose the correct option from the following.


List-I (Word) List-II (Meaning)
(a) Serfdom Napoleon Role
(b) Allegory An illiteral idea
(c) Conservatism German philosophy
(d) Suffrage The right to vote

11. Choose the incorrect pair from the options.


List-I (Ideology) List-II (Beliefs)
(a) Liberalism Freedom for Individual
(b) Conservatism Importance of Tradition
(c) Utopian vision Autocratic in Nature
(d) None of these

12. Read the following statements correctly and choose the correct statement.
I. The Treaty of Constantinople of 1832, recognised Greece as an Independent nation.
II. Italy was divided into 8 states in the middle of the 19th century.
III. The symbol of the new Britain were the British Flag ‘Union Jack’, the National
Anthem ‘God Saves our Noble King’ and the English language.
IV. Kaiser William I was declared the king of United Italy in 1808.
Options
(a) II and III (b) I and III (c) III and IV (d) I and II
Directions (Q. Nos. 13-15) In the question given below, there are two statements marked as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

13. Assertion (A) The Chancellor of Prussia and main architect for the unification of
Germany who believed in the policy of ‘Blood and Iron’ was Otto von Bismarck.
Reason (R) The ruler of Prussia during the unification of Germany was Kaiser William I.
14. Assertion (A) After Russian occupation in Poland, Polish language was forced out of
schools and Russian language was imposed in place of it.
Reason (R) The Clergies in Poland used Polish language for religious instruction and
used it as a weapon against the Russian dominance.
THE QUALIFIERS

15. Assertion (A) The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a
struggle for independence against the Greeks which began in 1831.
Reason (R) Greece was suffering under subjugation of the Ottoman Empire.

Answers
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d)
20 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

UNIT 2 : CONTEMPORARY INDIA-II

Resource and Development


1. Which among the following is the example of Potential Resource?
(a) Plantation (b) Ponds
(c) Wind energy (d) Petroleum

2. Irrational consumption and over-utilisation of resources may lead to ………


(a) socio-economic problems (b) environmental problems
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Urban development

3. In which year, the Club of Rome advocated resource conservation for the first time, at
the International level?
(a) 1968 (b) 1974
(c) 1987 (d) 1992

4. Where the first International Earth Summit held in 1992?


(a) Nairobi
(b) Rio De Janeiro
(c) Stockholm
(d) Johannesburg

5. Read the following pairs carefully and choose the correct one.
List-I List-II
(Example) (Resource)
(a) Fossil Fuels International Resource
(b) Wildlife Potential Resource
(c) Solar Energy Renewable Resource
(d) Water Developed Resource

6. Choose the correct pair from the following option.


List-I List-II
(Type of soil) (State where it found)
(a) Arid Soil Odisha
(b) Laterite Soil West Bengal
(c) Black Soil Rajasthan
(d) Forest Soil Madhya Pradesh

7. Identify the type of degradation with the help of given clues.


THE QUALIFIERS

I. Natural factors like wind and water cause erosion of top soil.
II. Mineral processing.
III. Deforestation, overgrazing and expansion of mining and quarrying operations.
IV. Industrial effluents
Options
(a) Water Degradation (b) Soil Degradation
(c) Air Degradation (d) Land Degradation
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 21

8. Identify the action plan with regard to Sustainable Development with the help of clues
given below.
• It is the declaration signed by world leaders in 1992.
• It was held at United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
(UNCED).
• It aims at achieving global, sustainable development.
• It was an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through global
co-operation and common interests.
Options
(a) Earth Summit
(b) Agenda 21
(c) Five Year Plan
(d) Our Common Future

9. Match the following options in Column I with those in Column II.


Column I Column II
A. Regur soil 1. Alluvial soil
B. Kankar 2. Black soil
C. Khadar soil 3. Laterite soil
D. Brick soil 4. Arid soil

Choose the correct option from the options given below


A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 2 4 1 3
10. Match the following options in Column I with those in Column II.
Column I Column II
(Cause of Land Degradation) (Areas where it occurred)
A. Overgrazing 1. Jharkhand
B. Industrialization 2. Punjab
C. Water logging 3. in all over India
D. Mining and quarrying 4. Maharashtra

Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 2 1 4 3

11. Read the following statement and choose the correct option.
I. The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as
THE QUALIFIERS

‘Soil erosion’.
II. The land becomes unfit for cultivation is known as ‘Sheet erosion’.
III. Sheet erosion is also caused due to defective methods of farming.
IV. Wind blows loose soil off flat or sloping land known as ‘wind erosion’.
Options
(a) Only II is correct (b) Only IV is correct
(c) I and III are correct (d) I and IV are correct
22 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

12. Look at the map carefully and answer the following questions.

Identify the type of soil which found in shaded region marcked as A.


(a) Alluvial Soil (b) Arid Soil
(c) Laterite Soil (d) Red and Yellow Soil
Directions (Q. Nos. 13-15) In the question given below, there are two statements marked as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

13. Assertion (A) Alluvial soil is loamy and permeable.


Reason (R) It does not develop cracks in the dry hot season.
14. Assertion (A) Human beings interact with nature through technology and create
institutions to accelerate their economic development.
Reason (R) Resources are essential for human development.
15. Assertion (A) Economic Development of a nation depends mainly on the richness,
development and management of resources.
Reason (R) Over-population results in over-exploitation of resources.
THE QUALIFIERS

Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (a)
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 23

Agriculture
1. In which of the following countries the ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is known as ‘Roca’?
(a) Brazil (b) Vietnam
(c) Venezuela (d) Mexico

2. In which of the following states, Green Revolution was most successful for growing
Rabi crops?
(a) Punjab and Tamil Nadu
(b) Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh
(c) Haryana and Kerala
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra

3. Which crop provides the raw material for Jaggery and Molasses?
(a) Wheat (b) Ragi (c) Sugarcane (d) Oil seeds

4. What is Humus?
(a) Topmost layer of soil
(b) Bottom-most layer of soil
(c) Middle layer of soil
(d) None of the above

5. Choose the correct pair from the following options.


List-I List-II
(Native Names) (States)
(a) Dipa Indonesia
(b) Conuco Mexico
(c) Roca Vietnam
(d) Milpa Central America

6. Match the following options in List I with those in List II.


List I (Fruits) List II (Areas where it grows)
A. Mango 1. Himachal Pradesh
B. Banana 2. West Bengal
C. Grape 3. Mizoram
D. Pear 4. Andhra Pradesh

Select the correct option.


A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 2 1 4 3
THE QUALIFIERS

7. Match the following options in List I with those in List II.


List I List II
A. Rubber 1. Major Crop
B. Cotton 2. Food Crop
C. Rice 3. Non-Food Crop
D. Coffee 4. Fibre Crop
24 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 3 4 1

8. Identify the movement with the help of the given clues.


• It was initiated to solve the problems of poor landless villagers through cooperative
form with government assistance.
• This movement was initiated by Vinoba Bhave.
Options
(a) Bhoodan Gramdan Movement
(b) Land Ceiling Act Movement
(c) Organic Farming Movement
(d) Green Revolution

9. Identify the crop with the help of the clues given below.
• They needs less moisture and survive even in dry conditions.
• Being leguminous crops, all these crops helps in restoring soil fertility.
• They are mostly grown in rotation with other crops.
• Major producing states of these crops in India are Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh,
Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Karnataka.
Options
(a) Pulses (b) Sugarcane
(c) Oil seed (d) Tea

10. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option.
I. India’s food security policy has a primary objectives to ensure availability of
foodgrains to the common people at very high price.
II. It has enabled the poor to have access to food.
III. Food Corporation of India (FCI) is responsible for procuring and stocking food grains.
IV. Public administration system is responsible for distribution.
Options
(a) Only I is correct
(b) I and III are correct
(c) II and IV are correct
(d) Only I is incorrect

11. Read the following statements and choose the correct options.
I. India’s varied climate and geography can be used to grow a wide range of high
value crops.
II. Due to growing population of India, farm sizes are getting smaller.
THE QUALIFIERS

III. The Government must not pursue a policy to make Indian farmers shift their
cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crop.
Options
(a) Only I (b) Both I and II
(c) Only III (d) Both II and III
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 25

12. Identify the state shown shaded as A in the which is the major producer of jute.

(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) West-Bengal


(c) Kerala (d) Karnataka
Directions (Q. Nos. 13-15) In the question given below, there are two statements marked as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

13. Assertion (A) Stagnation in agriculture will not lead to a decline in other spheres of the
economy having wider implications for society.
Reason (R) All three economic sectors are dependent on each other.
14. Assertion (A) The Government of India made concerted efforts to modernise agriculture.
Reason (R) Indian farmers are facing stagnation in production due to inferior
technology.
15. Assertion (A) Subsidy on fertilizers is decreased leading to increase in the cost of
production.
Reason (R) Subsidy is the discount on agricultural products.
THE QUALIFIERS

Answers
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c)

]
26 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

UNIT 3 : DEMOCRATIC POLITICS-II

Power Sharing
1. What was the major objective of LTTE in Sri Lanka?
(a) Establish autonomy for Buddhist people.
(b) Attain Independence for Christians.
(c) End Sinhala rule.
(d) Demand separate homeland for Tamils.

2. Choose the correct statement/s from the given options.


(i) Belgium and Sri Lanka are democracies.
(ii) In Belgium, leaders realised that the unity of the country is possible only by
respecting the feelings and interests of all the communities.
(iii) In Sri Lanka, majority community forced its domination over others and refused to
share its power.
(iv) Both Belgium and Sri Lanka dealt with the question of Power Sharing in a similar
manner.
Codes
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

3. Choose the correct statement/s from the given options.


(i) In Belgium, leaders realised that unity of the country is possible only by sharing of
power.
(ii) In Sri Lanka, the demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by Tamils has
been granted.
(iii) In Belgium, policy of accommodation was adopted.
(iv) In Sri Lanka, majority community forced its domination over others.
Codes
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (iii) and (iv)
(c) Both (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

4. Which of the following was not the provision of Belgium Constitution?


(a) Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French Speaking Ministers shall be
equal in the central government.
(b) Brussels have a separate government in which both communities will have equal
representation.
(c) The Community government has no power regarding culture, education and language.
(d) Some special laws require the support of majority of members from each linguistic
group.
THE QUALIFIERS

Directions (Q. Nos. 5-7) In the question given below, there are two statements marked as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 27

5. Assertion (A) In India, power is shared among different levels of the government.
Reason (R) This gives minority communities a fair share in power.
6. Assertion (A) The minority French Speaking community was relatively rich and powerful.
Reason (R) The social disparity led to tensions between Dutch and French Speaking
communities during the 1950’s and 1960’s.
7. Assertion (A) Power sharing is the spirit of democracy.
Reason (R) People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.
8. What does the given picture represent? Choose the correct option from the following:

(a) It refers to the problems of running a coalition government.


(b) It refers to the problems of common people.
(c) It refers to the problems of slow administration.
(d) It refers to the problems of anti-corruption movements within Germany.

9. What kinds of similarities are evident between Sri Lanka and Belgium?
(a) Both are non-democratic countries.
(b) Both are democratic countries.
(c) Both favoured majoritarianism.
(d) Both countries tried to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.

10. Imposing the will of majority community over others may look live an attractive option
in the short run, but in the long run, it underestimates the
(a) Economic interest of people (b) Political interest of the nation
(c) Unity of the nation (d) Social interest of people

11. What could have happened if the situation of Sri Lanka would have been adopted in
Belgium?
(a) It may lead to a messy partition of Belgium.
(b) Dutch community could take advantage of its numeric majority.
THE QUALIFIERS

(c) Dutch community could force its will on the French and German-speaking people.
(d) All of the above

12. Which of the following options is correct about a legitimate government?


(a) Citizens participate to acquire a stake in the system.
(b) Citizens have unequal rights.
(c) Citizens put pressure on the government.
(d) All of the above
28 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

13. Match the following.


List-I List-II
A. Separation of powers 1. Power shared among
governments at different levels.
B. Community 2. Power shared by two or more
Government political parties.
C. Coalition 3. Power shared by different social
Government groups.
D. Federal Government 4. Power shared among different
organs of the government.

Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4

14. Choose the correctly matched pair from the given options.
(a) Community Government- India (b) Unitary Government- Sri Lanka
(c) Majoritarian Measures- Belgium (d) Federal Government- Sri Lanka

15. Match the following.


List-I List-II
A. Brussels 1. Secular State
B. India 2. Majoritarianism
C. Sri Lanka 3. Dutch speaking people in majority.
D. Belgium 4. Dutch speaking people in minority.

Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 2 3 4

Answers
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a)
THE QUALIFIERS
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 29

Federalism
1. Which of the following Union Territories enjoy the powers of a state?
(a) Chandigarh (b) Lakshadweep
(c) Delhi (d) Daman and Diu

2. Choose the correct statement/s regarding Federalism from the given options.
(i) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens.
(ii) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified.
(iii) The fundamental provision of the Constitution can be unilaterally changed.
(iv) India is an example of coming together federation.
Codes
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)

3. Choose the correct statement/s with respect to residuary subjects from the given
options.
(i) Only state government has the power to legislate on these subjects.
(ii) Only Union government has the power to legislate on these subjects.
(iii) These subjects came up after the Constitution came into effect.
(iv) It includes subjects of national importance.
Codes
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)

4. Which of the following could be considered as the advantages of Federalism and


Decentralisation?
(a) It prevents government over-reach and takeovers.
(b) It allows different localities to adapt their policies to the needs and wishes of local
population.
(c) It prevents the state from being able to carry out its basic functions.
(d) It reduces the state government autonomy.
Directions (Q. Nos. 5 and 6) In the question given below, there are two statements marked as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

5. Assertion (A) Marriage in India is included in the concurrent list.


THE QUALIFIERS

Reason (R) Only the Union Government makes laws related to marriage.
6. Assertion (A) Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the government.
Reason (R) The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders helped our country avoid
the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.
30 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

7. Match the following.


List-I List-II
A. Rise of regional political parties 1. 1992
B. Boundaries of India were reorganised 2. 1990
C. Third-tier of government was introduced 3. 1947

Codes
A B C A B C
(a) 1 3 2 (b) 2 3 1
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 3 2 1

8. Following image shows that the states are pleading for more powers. What kind of
powers can the states be seen demanding here?

(a) To get more resources


(b) Power to run their governments independently
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Misuse of powers by the states.

9. Identify the merit/s of local government in India from the given options:
(a) Elections are held regularly, but Gram Sabhas are not held regularly.
(b) It has given more powers to the local government as compared to state government.
(c) It has deepened democracy in our country.
(d) They lack adequate resources and powers.

10. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) It is very difficult to make changes in the basic structure of the Indian
constitution.
Reason (R) Both the Houses have power to amend the constitution independently.
Codes
THE QUALIFIERS

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.


(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 31

11. Match the following.


List-I List-II
(Local Bodies) (Political Head)
A. Municipality 1. Mayor
B. Zila Parishad 2. Municipal Chairperson
C. Gram Panchayat 3. Chairperson
D. Municipal Corporation 4. Sarpanch

Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 1 3 4 2
12. Which of the following Indian states enjoys special powers under certain provisions of
Article 371 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Assam (b) Nagaland (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) All of these

13. In 1947, the boundaries of several old states of India were changed in order to create
new states. This was done ...............
(a) to ensure that people who speaks the same language lived in same state.
(b) to avoid communal clashes
(c) to please the political parties
(d) None of the above

14. According to the Indian Constitution, in which year English was to be ended as the
language for official purpose?
(a) 1950 (b) 1952
(c) 1965 (d) 1968

15. According to the State Panchayati Raj Acts which of the following local government
body must meet at least two to four times in a year?
(a) Gram Sabha (b) Panchayat Samiti
(c) Gram Panchayat (d) Mandal Samiti

Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a)

UNIT 4 : UNDERSTANDING ECONOMICS DEVELOPMENT

Development
THE QUALIFIERS

1. What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of a jobless youth?
(a) More days of work and better wages (b) More employment opportunities
(c) Better future prospects (d) Generation of high income

2. Identify the country where 500 tones of liquid toxic waste was dumped into open-air.
(a) USA (b) Africa
(c) Japan (d) China
32 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

3. Which of the following statement/s is correct related to the Per Capita Income of India?
(i) India comes in the category of Middle-Income Group.
(ii) India comes in the category of Low-Income Group.
(iii) India comes in the category of High-Income Group.
(iv) India comes in the category of Low-Middle Income Group.
Options
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) Only (iii) (d) Only (iv)
Directions (Q. Nos. 4-6) In the question given below, there are two statements marked as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
4. Assertion (A) World Bank publishes World Development Report every year to
compare the nations on the basis of per capita income.
Reason (R) Countries with per capita income of US $ 955 or less are termed as low income
countries.
5. Assertion (A) In many areas of India, children particularly girls are not able to achieve
secondary level schooling.
Reason (R) Government of India has not provided adequate facilities.
6. Assertion (A) Human Development Report published by UNDP is a narrow concept of
measuring human development.
Reason (R) It is based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and
per capita income.
7. Match the following.
List I List II
A. National Development 1. Only the monetary aspects.
B. Economic Development 2. Both monetary and non-monetary aspects.
C. Human Development 3. Comprehensive term including standard of
people, increase in per capita income, social
amenities, etc.

Codes
A B C A B C
(a) 1 3 2 (b) 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 (d) 3 2 1
THE QUALIFIERS

8. What does the Infant Mortality Rate indicates? Identify the correct option:
(a) The number of children born in a year.
(b) Literate population in the seven and above age.
(c) The number of children who die before the age of one year as a proportion of 1000 live
children.
(d) Average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 33

9. Which of the following statement/s is correct with regard to the World Development
Report published by the World Bank?
(i) It has classified the countries on the basis of Per Capita Income.
(ii) The countries have been categorised into rich and low income countries.
(iii) It helps to calculate the nutritional level of people.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Both (ii) and (iii)

10. When we divide the National Income of a country by its total population what we get?
Identify the correct option from the following:
(a) Per Capita Income (b) Gross Development Product
(c) Human Development Index (d) Total Income

11. Choose the correctly matched pair from the given options:
(a) Net Attendance Ratio- National Income divided by total income.
(b) World Bank- Classify the countries on per capita income.
(c) Sustainable development- To calculate the nutrition level.
(d) Body Mass Index- Caring for the needs of future generations.

12. Match the following.


List I List II
A. Highest Per Capita Income 1. Bihar
B. Highest Literacy Rate 2. Haryana
C. Highest Infant Mortality Rate 3. Kerala

Codes
A B C A B C
(a) 2 3 1 (b) 1 3 2
(c) 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 3

13. We have not inherited this Earth from our forefathers; we have borrowed it from our
children. Who said these words?
(a) Lester Brown (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) George Brown (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
14. Choose the incorrectly matched pair from the given options:
(a) A rural woman from a land-owning family-Regular job and high wages to increase her income.
(b) Prosperous farmers from Haryana- Availability of other sources of irrigation.
(c) Landless rural labourers- More days of work and better wages.
(d) Farmers who depend only on rain for growing crops- Assured higher support prices for
their crops.
THE QUALIFIERS

15. Suman is moderately thin as her weight is 40 kg and her height is 156 cm. Find out her
Body Mass Index (BMI) from the following options.
(a) 14.7 (b) 15.2 (c) 16.4 (d) 12.6

Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c)
34 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

Sectors of the Indian Economy


1. Why did the government shift its strategy from long term to short term programmes to
remove unemployment?
(a) Lack of Funds
(b) Large scale corruption
(c) Long term programs take long time to implement and results are also affected.
(d) Low response from the state governments.

2. Which of the following statements is correct regarding India?


(a) Tertiary sector contributes maximum to the GDP.
(b) India is basically a socialist economy.
(c) Distribution of income and wealth is quit equitable.
(d) None of the above
3. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Primary sector is the largest employer.
Reason (R) It includes all those occupations which are related to man’s natural
environment like farming, animal rearing, mining etc.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.

4. Choose the correctly matched pair from the given options:


(a) Organised Sector- Daily Labourer (b) Unorganised Sector- Bank officer
(c) Public Sector- Indian Railway (d) Private Sector- Post office

5. Match the following.


Column A Column B
A. Goods used up during the production process. 1. Economic Activities
B. Goods which are ready for use. 2. Intermediate Goods
C. Activities which contribute to the flow of goods 3. Gross Domestic Product
and services in an economy.
D. Value of all final goods and services produced in 4. Final Goods
a country during a particular year.

Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
THE QUALIFIERS

6. Match the following.


Column A Column B
A. Communication 1. Primary Sector
B. Forestry 2. Secondary Sector
C. Manufacturing car 3. Tertiary Sector
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 35

Codes
A B C A B C
(a) 1 3 2 (b) 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 2 3 1
7. In terms of the GDP, What is the share of the tertiary sector in 2013-14? Identify from
the given options.
(a) Between 20 % to 30%
(b) Between 30 % to 40 %
(c) Between 50 % to 60%
(d) More than 70 %

8. The table below shows the estimated number of workers in India in the organised and
unorganised sectors. Read the table carefully and answer the question given below.
Workers in different sectors (in millions)
Sector Organised Unorganised Total
Primary 2 210 242
Secondary 9 54 63
Tertiary 17 76 93
Total 28 370 398
Total Percentage 7% 93% 100%

How is the Tertiary sector different from other sectors of the economic activities?
(a) It does not provide or produce goods.
(b) Activities of the tertiary sector help in the development of secondary and primary
sectors.
(c) It forms the base for all other products that we subsequently make.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

9. In which sector the government owns most of the assets and provides all the services?
(a) Joint sector (b) Cooperative sector
(c) Private sector (d) Public sector
Directions (Q. Nos. 10-11) In the question given below, there are two statements marked as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
10. Assertion (A) Tertiary sector has emerged the largest producing sector of India.
THE QUALIFIERS

Reason (R) More than half of the workers in the country are working in the Primary
sector.
11. Assertion (A) The share of agriculture in the GDP is declining in India.
Reason (R) Agriculture sector is facing problems of unirrigated land, increasing debts,
seasonal employment etc.
12. Choose the incorrectly matched pair from the given options:
(a) Mailman- Tertiary Sector (b) Carpenter- Primary Sector
(c) Basket Weaver-Secondary Sector (d) Priest- Tertiary Sector
36 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

13. Read the following statements with regard to Unorganised sector and choose the
correct answer from the given options:
(i) Provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays and medical leaves.
(ii) Rules and regulations are not followed.
(iii) Employees are not even registered in the organisation.
(iv) Small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government.
Options
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
14. How employment can be created in semi-rural areas?
(a) By setting up of small and agro-based industries.
(b) By providing loans at high interest rates.
(c) By promoting provisions for self-employment.
(d) All of the above
15. Read the following statements that help to increase the income of the marginalised
groups in India. Choose the correct answer from the given options:
(i) Marginal farmers need to be supported through adequate facility for timely
delivery of seeds.
(ii) Marginal farmers must be provided with allowances by the Government.
(iii) Marginal farmers must be provided with agricultural inputs, storage facilities and
market outlets.
(iv) Marginal farmers must be provided with monetary credits at low interests.
Options
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Only (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) Both (iii) and (iv)

Answers
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c)
THE QUALIFIERS
37
CBSE Sample Paper English Language & Literature X (Term I)

Latest CBSE
SAMPLE PAPER
Latest Sample Question Paper for Class X (Term I)
Issued by CBSE on 2 Sept 2021

SOCIAL SCIENCE
Instructions
(i) The Question Paper contains four sections.
(ii) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(iii) Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
(iv) Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
(v) Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
(vi) All questions carry equal marks.
(vii) There is no negative marking.

Maximum Marks : 40
Roll No. Time allowed : 90 min

Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)
1. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Young Europe’ underground secret society
in Berne?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi (b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Count Cavour (d) Otto von Bismark
2. Which of the following was the result of the Act of Union, 1707?
(a) Unification of Germany
Latest CBSE SAMPLE PAPER

(b) Unification of the kingdom of Great Britain


(c) Unification of Italy
(d) Unification of Vietnam

3. Identify the correct statement with regard to the ‘Zollverein’ from the following options.
(a) It was a coalition of Prussian states formed to manage political alliances.
(b) Its aim was to bind the Prussia politically into an association.
(c) It was a Custom Union at the initiative of Prussia.
(d) It helped to awaken and raise national sentiment in Europe.

4. Which of the following countries were involved in the Three Wars with Prussia and
ended with victory and unification of Germany?
(a) Austria, Poland and France (b) Austria, Denmark and France
(c) Austria, Turkey and France (d) Austria, England and France
38 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

5. Identify the ideology under which people demanded freedom of markets in


early-nineteenth-century Europe.
(a) Romanticism (b) Liberalism
(c) Socialism (d) Rationalism

6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in
(a) Groundnut- Assam (b) Tea- Gujarat
(c) Coffee- Karnataka (d) Sugarcane-Chhattisgarh

7. The piece of land left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years is called
………… .
Choose the correct option
(a) Barren land (b) Forest land
(c) Grazing land (d) Fallow land

8. Which one of the following conferences was convened to discuss environmental


protection and socio-economic development at the global level in 1992?
(a) Kyoto Protocol
(b) Montreal Protocol
(c) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit
(d) World Summit on Sustainable Development

9. India has land under a variety of relief features. Which of the following features ensure
perennial flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects?
(a) Plains (b) Plateaus
(c) Islands (d) Mountains
10. Which one of the following human activities has contributed significantly in land
degradation?
(a) Deforestation (b) Crop rotation
(c) Shelter belts (d) Ploughing
11. Which one of the following countries adopted majoritarianism in their Constitution?
(a) Nepal (b) India
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh

12. Identify the significant reason of power sharing from the following options.
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(a) Reduces socio-economic conflicts


(b) Provides ethnic -cultural development
(c) Allows people to enjoy specific rights
(d) Restricts supremacy of one party

13. Apart from the Central and the State Government, Belgium has a third kind of
government as well. Identify this third kind of government from the following options
(a) Democratic Government (b) Socialist Government
(c) Community Government (d) Liberal Government

14. Which of the following countries is an example of ‘Coming Together Federation’?


(a) India (b) Sri Lanka
(c) USA (d) Belgium
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 39

15. Why is the power shared amongst different organs of government called as horizontal
distribution of power? Identify the correct reason.
(a) It gives judiciary more power than legislature and executive.
(b) It allows different organs of government to be placed at the same level.
(c) It gives representation to different ideologies at political level.
(d) It influences and coordinates in the decision-making process.

16. In India’s federal system, the Central and the State governments have the power to
legislate on all those subjects which are included in the
(a) Union List (b) State List
(c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary Subjects

17. Which of the following states of India enjoy special powers under Article 371A of the
Constitution of India?
(a) Nagaland (b) Rajasthan
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu

18. Which one the following is an example of Primary Sector activity?


(a) Baking (b) Outsourcing
(c) Farming (d) Banking

19. Which of the following measures the proportion of literate population in the seven and
above age group?
(a) Net Attendance Ratio (b) Enrolment Rate
(c) Literacy Rate (d) Drop out Ratio

20. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Average Income’?
(a) The total income of the country divided by its earning population.
(b) The total income of the country divided by its total population.
(c) The total income of all the residents of the country.
(d) The total income from the domestic and foreign sources.

21. Which one of the following best describes Human Development Index (HDI)?
(a) Improvement in science, information and technology
(b) Improvement in health, education and income
(c) Improvement in information and communication
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(d) Improvement in investment, finance and technology


22. Consequences of environmental
degradation do not respect national or state boundaries. Which of the following is the
essence of this statement?
(a) Economic Development (b) Human Development
(c) Sustainable Development (d) National Development
23. Which of the following examples fall under an organised sector?
(a) A daily wage labourer working for a contractor.
(b) An engineer getting all employment benefits.
(c) A cleaning staff in a private school.
(d) A tailor stitching clothes at his home.
40 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

24. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 states a guarantee
of minimum 100 days of employment per year. If government is unable to fulfil these
100 days of an employment, the government would have to
Choose the correct option
(a) Pay the compensation in lieu of these days.
(b) Provide another scheme for the same.
(c) Pay at least 1/3 per cent allowance.
(d) Provide health care as compensation.

Section-B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 Questions)
25. Following image is the personification of Germany commonly associated with the
Romantic Era and the Revolutions of 1848. Identify its name from among the following
options.

Options
(a) Marianna (b) Philip Viet (c) Germania (d) La Italia

26. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about Balkan nationalism?
(i) The Balkan region became part of the conflict because of the Ottoman Empire.
(ii) The region comprised of ethnic groups included Greeks, Serbs, Montenegro, etc.
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(iii) British and ethnic nationalities struggled to establish their identity.


Options
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) Only (ii) (d) Only (i)

27. Why did the weavers in Silesia revolt against contractors in 1845? Identify the
appropriate reason from the following options.
(a) Contractors did not pay their dues.
(b) Contractors appointed few on high posts.
(c) Contactors used government policies.
(d) Contractors gave them loans on high interests.
28. Identify the major aspect that helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain.
(a) In 1688, the monarch of Britain fought war with English Parliament.
(b) The Parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy.
(c) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Ireland and Wales.
(d) The formation of a nation-state in Britain was the result of many revolts.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 41

29. Identify the soil with the help of clues given below.
• Develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall.
• Is low in humus content.
• Found in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
(a) Forest soil (b) Yellow soil
(c) Black soil (d) Laterite soil

30. Which of the following categories of resources can we put Tidal energy in?
(a) Renewable resources (b) Non-renewable resources
(c) Actual resources (d) Potential resources

31. Consider the following statements on power sharing and select the answer using the
codes given below:
(i) It is good for democracy.
(ii) It creates harmony in different groups.
(iii) It brings transparency in the governance.
(iv) It brings socio-political competition among parties.
Codes
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
32. How does Judiciary act as an umpire in a federal nation?
(a) Judiciary rules over Centre and State.
(b) Centre and Judiciary work collectively.
(c) Courts can change structure of Constitution.
(d) Courts use the power to interpret the Constitution.
33. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A) Sri Lanka adopted Sinhala as the only official language of the state.
Reason (R) The Government of Sri Lanka wanted to foster their culture, language and
religion.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
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(c) A is true, but R is false.


(d) A is false, but R is true

34. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.
Column A Column B
A. Information Technology 1. Concurrent List
B. Police 2. Union List
C. Education 3. State List
D. Defence 4. Residuary Subjects

Choose the correct answer from the option given below


A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 2 1 3
42 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

35. Anita is appearing in an examination conducted for recruitment to Central


Government positions. In how many languages as mentioned in the 8th Schedule can
she opt to take the exam? Select the appropriate option.
(a) 18 (b) 21
(c) 22 (d) 25

36. Identify the administrative system of Indian Government with the help of the
following information.
• Power shared between Central and State Governments to Local Governments.
• It is called as a third tier of the Government.
• The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with them.
Select the appropriate option from the following.
(a) Federal system (b) Unitary Federal system
(c) Decentralised system (d) Unitary system

37. Which of the following options prove that India is a quasi-federal state?
(i) More powers with Centre
(ii) Residuary subjects with Centre
(iii) Equal subjects with Centre and States
(iv) Currency and Railways with Centre
Codes
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

38. Identify the correct statement/s about the theory of Federalism in the Indian
Constitution.
(i) The Constitution declared India as a Union of States.
(ii) Sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is
basic to the structure of the Constitution.
(iii) It is easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement.
(iv) The Parliament can on its own change this arrangement.
Codes
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
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39. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A) Human Development mentions how much socio-economic development
has happened in a country.
Reason (R) Comparison of national income of two countries explains Human
Development Index.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 43

40. Choose the correct option from the following.


List I (Example) List II (Sectors)

(a) Courier Tertiary Sector

(b) Fisherman Secondary Sector

(c) Carpenter Primary Sector

(d) Transporter Secondary Sector

41. Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate
answer from the given options.
Table for Comparison of Three Countries
Countries Monthly income of citizens in 2007 (in Rupees)
I II III IV V
Country A 9500 10500 9800 10000 10200
Country B 500 500 500 500 48000
Country C 5000 1000 15000 4000 5000

Rita is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different


countries after every three years of service. She has been given an opportunity to
choose any one out of the three countries mentioned in the table above as her next job
location. She calculates average income of all these countries as per the given data and
chooses to be transferred to Country A.
Identify the reason for which Rita has chosen country A.
(a) Most of its citizens are rich and stable. (b) Has most equitable distribution of income.
(c) National income of its citizens is higher. (d) Average income of its citizens is lower.

42. Vijay is undernourished as his weight is 45 kgs and his height is 1.78 meters. Find out
his Body Mass Index (BMI) from the following options.
(a) 12.6 (b) 13.5 (c) 14.7 (d) 15.2

43. A woman works at a sweet shop in her village on a contract basis and gets meagre
salary after working the entire day. She doesn’t get any holidays or paid leave, rather
her employer deducts her salary whenever she is absent from work. Find out in which
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of the following sectors she is working?


(a) Primary Sector (b) Service Sector
(c) Organised Sector (d) Unorganised Sector

44. According to 2017-2018 data, the share of different sectors in employment (percentage)
in India was
(i) Primary Sector - 44% (ii) Secondary Sector - 25%
(iii) Tertiary Sector - 31%
Out of the three sectors, why did the ratio of employment in Primary Sector high?
Select the most suitable option from the following:
(a) Workers in the Primary Sector are underemployed.
(b) Low job opportunities in Secondary Sector.
(c) Efforts of labour are not equivalent in all the sectors.
(d) Outsourcing of job opportunities in Secondary Sector.
44 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

45. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A) Crude oil reserves in the entire world are depleting, we need to find a
sustainable substitute for it.
Reason (R) Oil and petrol prices are increasing day by day.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

46. A man is employed on a food processing farm where he has to do a lot of manual
work. His wife and daughter also help him in his work on the farm every day. Which
type of employment is this an example?
(a) Under unemployment
(b) Seasonal employment
(c) Over employment
(d) Cyclical employment

Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions
in this Section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section.)
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
Grimms’ Fairy Tales is a familiar name in Germany. The brothers Jacob and Wilhelm Grimm
were born in the German city of Hanau. While both of them studied law, they soon developed
an interest in collecting old folktales. They spent six years travelling from village to village,
talking to people and writing down fairy tales, which were handed down through the
generations. These were popular both among children and adults. In 1812, they published
their first collection of tales. Subsequently, both the brothers became active in liberal politics,
especially the movement for freedom of the press. In the meantime, they also published a
33-volume dictionary of the German language.
The Grimm brothers also saw French domination as a threat to German culture and believed
that the folktales they had collected were expressions of a pure and authentic German spirit.
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They considered their projects of collecting folktales and developing the German language as
part of the wider effort to oppose French domination and create a German national identity.
47. Why did the Grimm brothers give the tales a readable form without changing their
folkloric character? Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) The collection enjoyed wide distribution in Germany.
(b) It became a model for the collecting of fantasy tales.
(c) It formed the basis for the science of the language.
(d) People easily accepted their written adventurous tales.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 45

48. The impact of literary contributions of Grimm brothers was widespread. Identify the
best suitable option depicting the same from the following:
(a) Development of cities and towns (b) Setting up of new political parties
(c) Promotion of ethnic belonging (d) Emergence of socialist ideology

49. Fill in the blank from the given options


The work of the Grimm Brothers influenced and inspired people to collect tales. They
believed in a spirit of ……… and considered it essential for the reflection of national
identity.
(a) Culturalism (b) Conservatism
(c) Extremism (d) Liberalism

50. Why the foreign domination was considered a threat to nation building? Select the best
suitable option from the following in reference to the context.
(a) Exploitation of natural resources
(b) Erosion of native values and ethos
(c) Violence and mass killing of people
(d) Spread of new diseases in the country

51. How were the Germans able to connect with their culture? With reference to the above
context, infer the appropriate option.
(a) Through the feeling of formal way of communication.
(b) Through the feeling of oneness as European community.
(c) Through the feeling of collective belonging among nationals.
(d) Through the feeling of coherence in reference to mannerism.
52. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A) Regimes of 1815 did not tolerate criticism and dissent.
Reason (R) Conservative regimes were autocratic.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
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Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
There has been a gradual shift from cultivation of food crops to cultivation of fruits,
vegetables, oil-seeds and industrial crops. This has led to the reduction in net sown
area under cereals and pulses. With the growing population of India, the declining
food production puts a big question mark over the country’s future food security.
The competition for land between non-agricultural uses such as housing etc. and
agriculture has resulted in reduction in the net sown area. The productivity of land has
started showing a declining trend. Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once
showed dramatic results, are now being held responsible for degrading the soils.
Periodic scarcity of water has led to reduction in area under irrigation. Inefficient water
management has led to water logging and salinity.
46 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

53. One can infer from the above given information that marginal and small farmers have
been pushed out of cultivation. Which one of the following is the prominent cause?
(a) Food and fruit crops are expensive in market.
(b) Shift to multifarious crops according to demand.
(c) Periodic scarcity of water in many regions.
(d) Soil degradation and extensive Green Revolution.

54. Read the following statements and find the correct from the given options:
(i) Indian farmers are diversifying their cropping pattern.
(ii) They are shifting production from cereals to fruits, vegetables, etc.
(iii) Jute is in high demand in the Indian market.
Codes
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (iii) (d) Only (ii)

55. According to the information given above, there has been reduction in the net sown
area under cereals and pulses. Identify the reason.
(a) Lack of markets to sell cereals and pulses.
(b) Earn more income from non-agricultural sector.
(c) Need of huge labour in cultivating cereals and pulses.
(d) Availability of more profits from commercial crops.

56. “Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once showed dramatic results, are now
being held responsible for degrading the soil.” Infer the positive effects of these inputs
noticed earlier from the following statements.
(a) These inputs have shown increased outputs and productivity.
(b) These are integral to the process of reducing agrarian losses.
(c) These inputs can cut the amount of harvestable produce.
(d) These are the leading causes of mortality and health problems.

57. There are states in India which are using fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides at
excessive level to increase their agricultural production. Identify the states which are at
prominent level from the following options.
(a) Karnataka and Kerala
(b) Haryana and Punjab
(c) Punjab and Gujarat
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(d) Haryana and Telangana

58. Food production provides the base for food security and is a key determinant of food
availability. Why is this trend shifting towards industrial crops? Choose the correct
option in reference to the context.
(a) To improve the land use pattern.
(b) To use intensive farming techniques.
(c) To improve the fertility of soil.
(d) To fetch more income and high earnings.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 47

SECTION D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)
Directions (Q. No. 59-60) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the
help of specified information.

59. On the political map of India, A is marked as a Dam. Identify it from the following
options.
(a) Salal (b) Bhakra-Nangal
(c) Tehri (d) Rana Pratap Sagar

60. On the same map, is also marked as a major Tea cultivating state. Identify it from the
following options.
(a) Assam (b) Punjab
(c) Bihar (d) Gujarat
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Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (a)
48 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (b) Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini 1992. In June 1992, more than 100 heads of
founded two underground societies, Young different countries met in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil
Italy in Marseilles and Young Europe in for the first International Earth Summit.
Berne, whose members were like minded This conference discussed urgent problems of
people from Poland, France, Italy and the environmental protection and socio- economic
German states. development at the global level.
2. (b) The Act of Union (1707) between England 9. (d) India has land under a variety of relief
and Scotland resulted in the formation of the features, viz, mountains, plateaus, plains and
‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’. It meant islands. In our country about 30 per cent of land
that England was able to impose its influence is mountainous. This land ensures perennial
on Scotland. flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism
3. (c) In 1834, a custom union known as and ecological aspects.
Zollverein was formed at the initiative of 10. (a) Deforestation due to urbanisation, mining etc
Prussia. Most of the German states joined in have contributed significantly in land
this union. It abolished tariff barriers and degradation of our country.
reduced the number of currencies from over
11. (c) After independence, Sri Lanka adopted a
thirty to two.
series of majoritarian measures to establish
4. (b) Prussia took the leadership of the Sinhala supremacy. Majoritarianism is a belief
movement for national unification under the that the majority community should be able to
leadership of Otto von Bismarck. Three wars rule a country in whichever way it wants, by
over seven years with Austria, Denmark and disregarding the wishes and needs of the
France ended in Prussian victory. It minority.
completed the process of unification of 12. (a) Social conflict often leads to violence and
Germany. political instability. Power sharing is a good way
5. (b) In early nineteenth century Europe, to ensure the stability of political order and it
people believed in liberalism as they wanted reduces socio-economic conflicts.
freedom of markets and the abolition of 13. (c) Apart from central and state government,
restrictions imposed by state on the Belgium has ‘community government’. It has the
movement of goods and capital. power regarding cultural, educational and
6. (c) India is known for its good quality of language-related issues.
coffee, i.e. Arabic variety of Yemen. Its 14. (c) USA is an example of ‘coming together’
cultivation is confined to the Nilgiri in federation where independent states come
Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. together on their own to form a bigger unit, so
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7. (d) Option (d) is correct : It is one of the that by uniting sovereignty and retaining
process of land utilisation. identity, they can increase their security.
Land is left uncultivated due to the following 15. (b) In the horizontal distribution of power,
reasons power is shared among different organs of
(i) To allow it to store organic matter and government, such as the legislature, executive
recover the fertility of the soil. When and judiciary at the same level to exercise
land is left uncultivated, the nutrients in different powers.
the soil are allowed to accumulate. 16. (c) Both the Union and State Government can
(ii) To serve the purpose of disrupting the make laws on the subjects (education, forest,
life cycle of the pests and insects that trade unions, marriage, adoption and succession)
harm the plants by removing the host mentioned in the Concurrent List.
plants for a period of time. 17. (a) Article 371 A states that no act of parliament
8. (c) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit convened to would apply to Nagaland in matter relating to
discuss environmental protection and socio religious or social practices of Nagas. The
economic development at the global level in Legistative Assembly of Nagaland must pass a
resolution for an act to be applicable to the state.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 49

18. (c) When we produce a good by exploiting revolution. It was the result of a
natural resources, it is an activity of the long-drawn-out process where the English
primary sector. Thus, farming is considered as Parliament had seized power from the
an example of primary sector activity. monarchy in 1688.
19. (c) Literacy rate measures the proportion of 29. (d) Laterite soil develops under tropical and
literate population of our country in the 7 and sub-tropical climate with alternate wet and dry
above age group. season and this humus rich soil is particularly
20. (b) Average income of a country is derived found in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala
when the total income of a country is divided and Tamil Nadu.
by its total population and it is also known as 30. (a) Renewable resources can be reproduced by
Per Capita Income. physical, chemical or mechanical processes,
21. (b) Human Development Report published by e.g. solar, wind, tidal energy etc. Hence option
UNDP compares countries based on the (a) is correct.
educational levels of the people, their health 31. (a) Power sharing reduces the possibility of
status and Per Capita Income. conflict between social groups and ensures the
22. (c) Environmental degradation is not an issue stability of political order.
of a particular region or nation. Our future is Hence, power sharing is necessary for
linked together thus scientists, economists and maintaining social harmony and peace among
philosophers work together for the sustainable different groups. It brings transparency in the
development of the earth. Hence, option (c) is government by making it good for democracy.
correct. 32. (d) Courts have the power to interpret the
23. (b) Organised sector follows all the rules and constitution and the powers of different levels
regulation which includes all the benefits for of governments, i.e. Central and State
the employee. Hence, an engineer getting Government. Judiciary acts as an empire if
employment benefits is the correct answer. dispute arises between different levels of
24. (a) According to MGNREGA, if the government by settling the issue to maintain
government fails in its duty to provide the federal structure of the nation.
employment, it will give unemployment 33. (a) By adopting the majoritarian policy (a belief
allowances to the people. So, option (a) is the that the majority community should be able to
correct answer. rule a country in whichever way it wants by
25. (c) Germania became the allegory (abstract disregarding the wishes and needs of the
idea which is expressed through a person) of minority), Sri Lanka passed an Act in 1956
the German nation. which recognised Sinhala as official language
by disregarding Tamil. It followed the
26. (a) The Balkan was region of geographical and preferential policies to foster their culture,
ethnic variations (Greeks, Serbs, Montenegro language and religion. Thus, both Assertion
etc). A large part of Balkans was under the and Reason statements justify each other.
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control of the Ottoman empire, so the Hence, option (a) is correct.


disintegration of the Ottoman empire made
this region explosive. Thus, statements I and II 34. Union List It includes subjects of national
are correct. importance such as defence, foreign affairs,
banking, communications and currency.
Balkan states were fiercely jealous about each
other and all hoped to gain more power. So, State List It contains subjects of state and local
statement III is not correct. importance such as information technology,
police, trade commerce, agriculture and
27. (a) The weavers in Silesia revolted against the irrigation.
contractions in 1845, as the contractors
supplied them raw material but drastically Concurrent List It includes subjects of
reduced their payments. common interest to both the Union
Government as well as the State Governments,
28. (b) The formation of the nation-state in Britain such as education, forest, trade unions,
was not the result of a sudden upheaval or marriage, adoption and succession.
50 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

35. (c) There are 22 Languages in the Eighth 42. (a) The Body Mass Index (BMI) can be
Schedule of the Indian Constitution. calculated by dividing the weight in Kg by the
Thus, Anita can opt any of the twenty-two square of the height.
languages for her examination. 43. (d) In unorganised sector, employees do not
36. (c) When power is taken away from Central get opportunities and job security. So the
and State Governments and given to local women works at a sweet shop does not get any
government, it is known as decentralisation. holidays on paid leave and other facilities.
This local self government is the third tier of Thus, the woman is working in an unorganised
the democracy which tackles large number of sector.
problems and issues at the local level. Hence 44. (a) In India, more than half of the workers are
option (c) is correct. working in the primary sector, mainly in
37. (b) India is considered as a quasi-federal state agriculture, producing only a quarter of the
as it includes subjects of national importance GDP. There are more people in agriculture
(currency, railways, banking etc). Union List, than required. So, even if we move a few
gives the power to Union Government to people out, the production will not be affected.
legislate on ‘residuary’ subjects thus gives Hence, in other words, we can say that
more power to the centre. workers in primary sector are underemployed.

38. (a) The constitution declared India as a Union 45. (b) Crude oil reserves is becoming scarce and
of States as States are sovereign in their the countries need to resolve the issue as most
prescribed legislative field and their executive of the production tasks are depended on crude
power is co-extensive with their legislative oil. It is obvious that the demand for oil will
powers. Thus, it is clear that the power of the increase in future as the world population is
states are not coordinate with the Union. increasing. Thus, there is a need to find a
sustainable substitute to it as indiscriminate
The sharing of power between the Union exploitation of resources is the main reason
government and the State Government is basic behind crude oil depletion.
to the structure of our constitution. It is not
easy to make changes to this power sharing On the other hand, oil and petrol prices are
arrangement. The Parliament cannot on its increasing day by day. Hence, both assertion
own change the arrangement. Thus, the and reason statements are true but the reason
statements I and II are correct and the is not the correct explanation of assertion.
statement III and IV are incorrect. 46. (a) In disguised employment, people are
39. (c) Human Development Index compares apparently working but all of them are made
countries based on the educational levels of the to work less than their potential. Here the
people, their health status and Per Capita wife and daughter of the man help him in his
Income. Thus, the statement (A) is true. But the work. But the work does not need three people
statement (R) is incorrect as Human to work. This is called disguised
Development Index does not compare the unemployment.
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national income of two countries. 47. (a) The Grim Brothers travelled six years in
40. (a) The activities of tertiary sectors help in the different villages of Germany and realised
development of the primary and secondary that the fairly tales are very popular among
sectors. These activities do not produce a good the German people. So, they published the
but they are an aid or a support for the folk tales without changing their folkloric
production process, e.g. transport, storage, character.
communication, banking etc. Thus, courier is 48. (c) The Grim Brothers believed that the
an activity of tertiary sector. folktale they collected were expressions of a
41. (b) Equitable distribution of income ensures pure and authentic German spirit. Thus, it
distributing welfare to ensure fairness and suggested the promotion of ethnic belonging
allowing members of the economy to have the of the German.
same opportunity to accumulate wealth. Here, 49. (a) Collecting and recording folk culture was
Rita found that country A has most equitable essential to the project of nation building.
distribution of income, thus, she has chosen Thus, culturalism is essential for the reflection
this country. of national identity.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 51

50. (b) Foreign domination aggravates the erosion Due to its high cost, Jute is losing market to
of national values and ethos. After Russian synthetic fibre. Thus, the statement III is also
occupation, the Polish language was forced out incorrect.
of schools and Russian language was impossed 55. (d) Due to more profits in commercial crops
everywhere. Hence, option (b) is correct. rather than the cereals and pulses, farmers are
51. (c) From the above context, it is clear that more interested to cultivate commercial crops
through the feeling of collective belonging in their lands.
among nationals i.e. collection of local folkolre, 56. (a) During Green Revolution by using
German can able to connect with their own fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, farmers
culture. got huge profit by large scale of production.
52. (a) The conservative regimes set up in 1815 57. (b) Green Revolution led to a large scale food
were autocratic as they didn’t tolerate criticism grain production in Punjab, Haryana and Uttar
and dissent and attacked the activities that Pradesh.
questioned the legitimacy of autocratic
governments. They further imposed 58. (d) Change in cropping pattern from cereals to
censorship laws to control what was said in high value crops will fetch more income and
newspaper, books, plays and songs. Here high profit for the farmers. Thus, the trend has
statement (R) correctly explains statement (A). shifted towards industrial crops.

53. (d) Due to Green Revolution and overuse of 59. (b) Bhakra dam is on the Sutlej river in Punjab.
pesticides i.e. chemicals, soil has degraded Nangal dam is another dam in Punjab down
which forced to push out the marginal and stream of Bhakra dam. They are two separate
small farmers. dams but together they are called
Bhakra-Nangal Dam.
54. (a) Indian farmers continue growing food
grains in their smaller lands. They should 60. (a) The state of Assam is one of the largest
diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to tea-growing region by production in India. Tea
high-value crops. Thus, the statements I and II is cultivated in the valley of Brahmaputra river.
are incorrect.

Latest CBSE SAMPLE PAPER


52
CBSE Sample Paper English Class X (Term I)

SAMPLE PAPER 1
SOCIAL SCIENCE
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class X (Term I) Examination

Instructions
(i) The Question Paper contains four sections.
(ii) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(iii) Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
(vi) Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
(v) Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
(vi) Each question carries 0.80 mark.
(vii) There is no negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 40
Roll No. Time allowed : 3 hours

Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)
1. Which among the following was incorporated in England with the Act of Union 1707?
(a) Scotland (b) Northern Ireland
(c) Wales (d) Ireland

2. Who were admitted in the Frankfurt Parliament as observers?


(a) Men (b) Clergy (c) Women (d) Children

3. Identify the reason why Otto Von Bismarck is considered as the chief architect of
German Unification. Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) He granted autonomy to Prussia with conservatives.
(b) He allianced with Italy and France for the unification process.
(c) He carried out the nation-building process with the army and bureaucracy.
(d) He carried along with Liberalist and Romantic scholars for cultural movement.
SAMPLE PAPER 1

4. Which of the following countries Louis Philippe had fled to?


(a) Austria (b) England
(c) Belgium (d) Holland

5. Identify the ideology under which European governments were driven by following
the defeat of Napoleon in 1815.
(a) Liberalism (b) Conservatism
(c) Imperialism (d) Globalisation
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 53

6. Choose the incorrectly matched pair.


(a) Alluvial soil — It is suitable for growing paddy, wheat, sugarcane, etc.
(b) Black soil — It is found in Deccan trap region.
(c) Laterite soil — It is suitable for growing cotton.
(d) Red soil — It is red in colour due to diffusion of iron particles into
crystalline and metamorphic rocks.

7. ....... is an equatorial crop but under special conditions, it is also grown in tropical and
sub-tropical areas.
(a) Rubber (b) Cotton
(c) Jute (d) Tea

8. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Agenda 21?


(a) Agenda 21 is an outcome of the United Nations Conference on Environment and
Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992.
(b) It is a comprehensive blueprint of action to be taken in every area in which humans
directly affect the environment.
(c) The number 21 refers to an agenda for the 21st century.
(d) All of the above

9. Continuous use of land over a long period of time without taking appropriate
measures to conserve and manage it.
Which of the following is the outcome as per the given statement?
(a) Gully erosion
(b) Fallow land
(c) Land degradation
(d) Soil erosion

10. Which among the following crops is grown during the Zaid season?
(a) Groundnut (b) Soybean
(c) Mustard (d) Muskmelon

11. A system of ‘checks and balances’ is another name for which one of the following
power-sharing arrangements?
(a) Power sharing among different social groups.
(b) Vertical division of power shared among different levels of government.
(c) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different organs of the government.
(d) Power sharing in the form of political parties, pressure groups and governments.

12. In Belgium, how the tensions between the linguistic communities were controlled?
Identify the reason from the given options.
(a) By an agreement made between the majority and minority groups.
SAMPLE PAPER 1

(b) By accepting a federal style of government.


(c) By making amendments to the Constitution of Belgium.
(d) By the minority group accepting the dominance of the majority groups.

13. Identify the reason why power sharing arrangement is ideal in nature.
(a) It gives equal powers to all the organs of the government.
(b) It gives unlimited power to some organs of the government.
(c) It maintain balance of power among various organs of the government.
(d) It gives equal power to all political parties.
54 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

14. Which of the following countries is an example of ‘unitary form of government’?


(a) India (b) Belgium
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Australia

15. States such as Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram enjoy special
powers under certain provisions of the Constitution of India (Article 371), under which
context do they get these provisions?
(a) Their historical circumstances
(b) Special provisions for agriculture
(c) Protection of land rights of indeginous people
(d) Both (a) and (c)

16. In India’s federal system, any changes in the power sharing arrangement can be done
by which of the following method?
(a) By simple majority in both the Houses of Parliament.
(b) By clear majority in both the Houses of Parliament.
(c) By two-third majority in both the Houses of Parliament and passes by at least half of the
total state legislatures.
(d) None of the above

17. Which of the following regions did not become part of Indian Union in August, 1947?
(a) Assam (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Goa (d) Punjab

18. Which of the following goods are included in estimating the value of GDP?
(a) Industrial goods (b) Agricultural goods
(c) Final goods (d) Commercial goods

19. Why should an individual be worried about underemployment? Identify the reason by
choosing a correct option.
(i) It reduces the earning capacity of a person.
(ii) It results in poor standard of living.
(iii) It leads to poverty.
(iv) It helps in human development.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (iv)

20. Which of the following indicators is not used to calculate Human Development Index
(HDI)?
(a) Life expectancy (b) Education
(c) Per Capita Income (d) Social inequality
SAMPLE PAPER 1

21. Which of the following is considered to be one of the most important attributes for
development?
(a) Per Capita Income (b) Average Literacy Level
(c) Health Status of People (d) Safety

22. “Suppose the average income of a country is not getting increased over time but the
records of the national income shows a rise.” What does this situation signify?
(a) Fall in resources (b) Increase in population
(c) Increase in poverty (d) Decrease in population
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 55

23. Which of the following types of activities are covered in the secondary sector?
(a) It generates services rather than goods.
(b) Natural products are changed through manufacturing.
(c) Goods are produced by exploiting natural resources.
(d) It includes agriculture, forestry and dairy

24. Employment figures of a country are based on data collected from 5-yearly survey on
employment and unemployment. Which organisation conducts this survey?
(a) NSSO—National Sample Survey Organisation
(b) NREGA 2005—National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
(c) ILO — International Labour Organisation
(d) UNDP- United Nation Development Programme

Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 Questions)
25. The Constitution declared India as a Union of States. The Indian Union is based on the
principles of federalism. What does the given image reflects?

(a) It shows the supreme authority of state governments.


(b) It shows Central Government is undermining the spirit of federalism.
(c) It shows inequality in distribution of powers.
(d) None of the above

26. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about Napoleon?


(i) He introduced Napoleonic code.
(ii) He promoted democracy in France.
(iii) He made the administrative system more rational and efficient.
(iv) The Napoleonic code was exported to all the regions under French control.
Codes
SAMPLE PAPER 1

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)


(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)

27. Why was the Treaty of Vienna drawn up in 1815? Identify the appropriate reason from
the following options.
(a) To divide the German confederation of 39 states.
(b) To restore the monarchies.
(c) To abolish Tariff barriers.
(d) All of the above
56 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

28. Which one of the following attributes stands for ‘willingness to make peace’? Identify
from the given options.
(a) Broken chains (b) Breastplate with eagle
(c) Olive branch around the sword (d) Crown of oak leaves

29. Identify the soil with the help of clues given below.
• It is found in the deccan trap and is made up of lava flows.
• It develops deep cracks during the hot summer, which develops in aeration of the soil.
(a) Forest soil (b) Black soil (c) Laterite soil (d) Yellow soil

30. Thermal electricity comes under which of the following catogaries of resources?
(a) Renewable Resources (b) Non-Renewable Resources
(c) Potential Resources (d) Developed Resources

31. Consider the following statements on Zila Prishad and select the answer using the codes.
(i) Zila Parishad is the lowest tier of the Panchayati Raj System.
(ii) Zila Parishad coordinates the activities of all the Block Samitis.
(iii) Most members of the Zila Parishad are elected.
(iv) Zila Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the Zila Parishad.
Options
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

32. How decentralisation has benefitted the Indian federation?


(a) It made the governance process easy at the local level.
(b) It encouraged people’s participation in the decision-making process.
(c) By fulfilling the needs and aspirations of diverse group of people in an effective manner.
(d) All of the above

33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Power sharing is desirable in a democracy.
Reason (R) Power sharing helps in reducing the chances of conflict between different
social groups and ensures stability of the political system.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

34. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.
SAMPLE PAPER 1

Column A Column B
A. Banking 1. Concurrent List
B. Irrigation 2. Union List
C. Education 3. State List

Choose the correct answer from the option given below.


A B C A B C
(a) 2 3 1 (b) 3 1 2
(c) 1 3 2 (d) 2 1 3
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 57

35. Geeta was elected as Sarpanch in 1995 from a reserved seat but in 2000, the village
people rewarded her for her admirable work by electing her again. All this has been
possible due to which of the following government initiatives? Select the appropriate
option.
(a) Constitutional status was accorded to the local government institutions.
(b) Equality of opportunity is being promoted by the government.
(c) Efficient and people-friendly administration.
(d) All of the above

36. Identify the federation which is an example of ‘pooling sovereignty and retaining
identity’.
(a) India (b) Canada
(c) United Kingdom (d) USA

37. In which of the following lists of the Indian Constitution is the subject of education and
forests included?
(i) Union List (ii) Concurrent List
(iii) State List (iv) Residuary Subjects
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) Only (iv)

38. Identify the correct statement/s from the given options.


(i) In a federation, the power of the federal and provincial governments are clearly
demarcated.
(ii) India is a federation because the powers of the Union and State Governments are
specified in the constitution and they have exclusive jurisdiction on their respective
subjects.
(iii) Sri Lanka is a federation because the country is divided into provinces.
(iv) India is no longer a federation because some powers of the states have been
devolved to the local government bodies.
Codes
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Sustainable development is essential for economic growth of the
countries.
Reason (R) Sustainable development ensures that environment friendly measures are
adopted for carrying out production process.
SAMPLE PAPER 1

Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
58 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

40. Choose the correct option from the following


List I List II
(a) Unorganised Sector It is controlled by the government.
(b) Organised Sector Provides job security and paid leaves etc.
(c) Public Sector Ownership of assests is in the hands of
individual.
(d) Private Sector Government owns most of the assets and
provides all the services.

41. Assume that there are 100 families in a town, the average per capita income of these
families is ` 10,000 and the average per capita income of 50 of these families is ` 5000.
The average per capita income of the remaining families is ........
(a) 5,000 (b) 10,000
(c) 15,000 (d) 20,000

42. In a village, students between the ages of 6 to 10 years are not attending schools as they
go to the farms to help their parents. What does it show?
(a) Low Human Development Index (b) Fall in Per Capita Income
(c) Rise in Per Capital Income (d) Low Net Attendance Ratio

43. An economy is best understood when we study its components or sectors. Sectoral
classification can be done on the basis of several criteria. Which of the following is/are
correct about the secondary sector?
(a) It covers the activities in which natural products are changed into other forms.
(b) Here some process of manufacturing is essential.
(c) It is also known as manufacturing sector.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

44. Study the given table and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer.
Organised Sector Unorganised Sector Total
No. of Workers 4,00,000 10,00,000 14,00,000
Income 32,000 million 28,000 million 60,000 million

The number of employee in unorganised sector is more than organised sector. In


unorganised sector less resources are used to generate large number of employees.
Find out the ways for generating more employment in the city rather than in
unorganised sector by the government.
(a) Providing cheap agricultural credit (b) Increasing vocational education courses
(c) Investing money in transportation (d) Providing work incentives
SAMPLE PAPER 1

45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Rabi crops are sown at the start of the winter and harvested in spring.
Reason (R) Rabi crops are grown in Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, etc.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 59

46. Read the information below and select the correct option.
The developed countries have gone through historic changes in the economic sector as
the economic activities had gradually shifted from primary to secondary to tertiary
sector. Now service sector has become the most important sector. The shifting of
economic activities does not mean complete elimination of previous sectors, but the
importance and dominance of next sector is increased. History of developed countries
indicates that:
(a) There is pecduction of goods and services in the three sectors.
(b) There has been a major shift from secondary to tertiary sector.
(c) Most of the employed people in developed countries are employed in tertiary sector.
(d) Primary sector has become the most important sector of the economy.

Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions
in the section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section.)
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of
conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and
society – like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should
be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of
pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that
modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could
make state power more effective and strong. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a
dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic
monarchies of Europe.
47. Fill in the blanks from the given option.
In which of the following was Napolean was defeated? Choose the appropriate answer
from the option given below.
(a) Crimean War (b) Battle of Waterloo
(c) Seven Weeks’ War (d) None of these

48. Group of powers collectively defeated Napoleon? Choose the correct option from the
following.
(a) England, France, Italy, Russia (b) England, Austria, Spain, Russia
(c) Austria, Prussia, Russia, Britain (d) Britain, Prussia, Russia, Italy

49. Which of the following statements correctly describes about European conservative
ideology?
SAMPLE PAPER 1

(a) Preservation of believes introduced by Napoleon.


(b) Preservation of two sects of Christianity.
(c) Preservation of socialist ideology in economic sphere.
(d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society.

50. Conservatism most often appealed to members of which social groups? Identify the
best suitable option.
(a) Workers and artisans (b) Monarchs, aristocrats and clergy
(c) Upper and lower middle class (d) All of the above
60 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

51. Find the incorrect option with reference to the above context.
(a) Conservative regimes set up in 1815 were democratic in nature.
(b) Conservatives wanted to preserve the traditional institutions.
(c) Conservatives didn’t propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days.
(d) Modernisation could strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy.

52. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
(i) In 1815, European Government were driven by a spirit of conservatism.
(ii) In 1815, Napolean was defeated by Germany and America.
(iii) In 1815, Bourbon dynasty restore the power.
Codes
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) All of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance in a
country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are
regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources.
There are some regions which can be considered self sufficient in terms of the availability of
resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources. For
example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and
coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources but lacks in
infrastructural development. The State of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind
energy but lacks in water resources. The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the
rest of the country. It has very rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure
and some vital minerals. This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state,
regional and local levels.
Resource planning is a complex process which involves
(i) identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This
involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and
measurement of the resources.
(ii) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and
institutional set up for implementing resource development plans.
(iii) Matching the resource development plan.
53. …………… of the resources is not essential for a developed region, choose the correct
option given below.
(a) Utilisation (b) Availability (c) Valuation (d) None of the above

54. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
SAMPLE PAPER 1

Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) The State of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy
but lacks in water resources.
Reason (R) The Cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 61

55. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
(i) Jharkhand is rich in coal deposit.
(ii) Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy.
(iii) Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii) (c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these

56. Which of the following is involved in resource planning?


(a) Evolving a planning structure with suitable technology.
(b) Matching the resource development plans.
(c) Identifications and Inventory of resource across the regions.
(d) All of the above

57. Why Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country?
(a) Because of deficient of water (b) Poor infrastructure
(c) Deficient of solve vital minerals (d) All of these

58. Why resource planning is essential for sustainable existence? Identify the reason from
the given options.
(a) As resources are limited and unevenly distributed over the country.
(b) It will help to reduce wastage of resources.
(c) It is a moral duty of people to maintain environmental balance.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Section-D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-60) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the
help of specified information.

A
B
SAMPLE PAPER 1

59. In the given map a crop growing area/region has been marked as ‘A’. Identify the crop
and choose the correct option.
(a) Tea (b) Coffee (c) Rubber (d) Sugarcane
60. In the given map a crop growing area/region has been marked as ‘B’. Identify the soil
and choose the correct option.
(a) Arid/Desert soil (b) Laterite soil (c) Black soil (d) Red soil
OMR SHEET SP 1
Roll No.

Student Name Sub Code.

Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid gel & fountain pens for filling the sheets.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.

1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60

Check Your Performance


Total Questions: Total Correct Questions
Score Percentage = × 100
Total Correct Questions: Total Questions

Less than 60% > Average (Revise the Chapters again)


If Your Score is Greater than 60% but less than 75% > Good (Do more practice)
Above 75% > Excellent (Keep it on)
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 63

Answers
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (a)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (a) The Act of Union (1707) between These special provisions are especially enjoyed
England and Scotland resulted in the in relation to the protection of land rights of
formation of the United Kingdom of Great indigenous peoples, their culture and also
Britain. By this Act, Scotland was incorporated preferential employment in government
in England. services.
3. (c) Otto von Bismarck was considered as the 16. (c) Sharing of power between the Union
chief architect of German unification because Government and the State governments is
he carried out the nation building process with basic to the structure of the Constitution. It is
the help of the Prussian army and bureaucracy. not easy to make changes to this power sharing
Three wars over seven years-with Austria, arrangement. The Parliament cannot on its
Denmark and France-ended in Prussian own change this arrangement.
victory and completed the process of
In India’s ‘federal system’ any change to it has
unification.
to be first passed by both the Houses of
8. (d) Agenda 21 is a declaration signed at the Parliament with at least two-thirds majority.
United Nations Conference on Environment Then, it has to be ratified by the legislatures of
and Development (UNCED) in 1992 at Rio De at least half of the total States.
Janeiro, Brazil. It aims to combat
environmental damage, poverty, disease 24. (a) The National Sample Survey Organisation
through global co-operation, etc. (NSSO) has been conducting nationwide
sample surveys on various socio-economic
It also aims that every local government aspects since 1950.
should draw its own local Agenda 21. It is a
comprehensive blueprint of action to be taken 27. (b) The Treaty of Vienna drawn up in 1815 to
in every area in which humans directly affect restore the monarchies. The objective of Treaty
the environment and the number 21 refers to of Vienna was to undo most of the changes
an agenda for the 21st century. which had come in Europe during the
Napoleonic wars.
11. (c) A system of ‘checks and balances’ is another
name of Horizontal division of power. Under 28. (c) An Olive branch symbolises peace and
the Horizontal division of power, power is the sword symbolises readiness to light
shared among different organs of the but together an olive branch around the
government such as legislature, executive and sword symbolises willingness to make
judiciary. peace.
It specifies the concept of checks and balances 30. (b) Thermal electricity comes under
SAMPLE PAPER 1

in order to check the unlimited powers of the non-renewable resources. Non-renewable are
different organs. the sources that cannot be renewed and are
available in limited quantities.
15. (d) In India, some states such as Assam,
Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Examples include coal, nuclear, oil, and natural
Mizoram enjoy special powers under certain gas. As thermal electricity cannot be renewed
provisions of the Constitution of India (Article if used once, it is a non-renewable source of
371) due to their peculiar and historical energy.
circumstances.
64 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

31. (d) The highest tier of the Panchayati Raj Different tiers of government govern the same
System in rural areas is the Zila Parishad. The citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction
Zila Parishad coordinates the activities of all in specific matters of legislation, taxation and
the Block Samitis in the whole district. All the administration.
Panchayat Samitis in a district together 39. (a) Sustainable development is important for
constitute the Zila (District) Parishad. economic growth because it involves judicious
Most of the members of Zila Parishad are use of resources which leads to economic
either elected members of the Lok Sabha, growth by reducing wastage.
MLA’s of that district or some other officials at 41. (c) Total income of 100 families
district level bodies. The Chairperson of the = ` 10,000 ´ 100
Zila Parishad is its political head.
= ` 10,00,000
33. (a) Power sharing is desirable in a
democracy because it helps to reduce the Total income of 50 families = ` 50 ´ 5000
possibility of conflicts among social groups. = ` 25,0000
Power sharing is a good way to ensure the Total income of rest of the 50 families
stability of political order as social conflict
most often leads to violence and political = ` (10 ,00 ,000 - 2 ,50 ,000 )
instability. = ` 7,50,000
35. (a) Geeta was elected as Sarpanch in 1995 from Average income of 50 remaining families
a reserved seat but in 2000, the village people 7 ,50 ,000
=` = ` 15,000
rewarded her for admirable work by electing 50
her again. All these has been possible due to
45. (b) The reason for successful Rabi crops in
constitutional status being provided to the
winter months is due to the Western temperate
Local Government institutions.
cyclones that causes rainfall in December-
36. (d) This type of ‘coming together’ federations January. These crops are grown in Punjab,
includes the USA, Switzerland and Australia. Haryana, Himachal Pradesh etc. Hence, both
In this first category of federations, all the statements are true, but (R) is not the correct
Constituent States usually have equal power explanation of (A).
and are strong vis-à-vis the federal
50. (b) Conservatism most often appealed to those
government.
groups content with the status of monarchs,
38. (a) The Constitution originally provided for a aristocrats and clergy. Instead of groups such
two-tier system of government, the Union as workers and the middle class which wanted
Government or what we call the Central change and reforms.
Government, representing the Union of India
55. (d) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya
and the State governments. Later, a third tier
Pradesh, rich in coal and minerals deposits.
of federalism was added in the form of
Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and
Panchayats and Municipalities.
wind energy and Arunachal Pradesh has
In a federation, the power of the federal and abundance of water.
provincial governments are clearly demarcated.
SAMPLE PAPER 1
65
CBSE Sample Paper English Language & Literature X (Term I)

SAMPLE PAPER 2
SOCIAL SCIENCE
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class X (Term I) Examination

Instructions
(i) The Question Paper contains four sections.
(ii) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(iii) Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
(vi) Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
(v) Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
(vi) Each question carries 0.80 mark.
(vii) There is no negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 40
Roll No. Time allowed : 3 hours

Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)
1. Vienna Congress was convened in 1815 for what purpose?
(a) To declare completion of German Unification.
(b) To restore conservative regime in Europe.
(c) To declare war against France.
(d) To start the process of Italian unification.
2. Which of the following is true with reference to Romanticism?
(a) Freedom of markets (b) Concept of government by consent
(c) Cultural movement (d) Freedom of the individual

3. Identify the first step introduced to unify Germany from the following options.
(a) Military alliances (b) Zollverein
(c) Political alliances (d) Carbonari
SAMPLE PAPER 2

4. Which among the following claimed that true German culture was discovered among
the common people?
(a) Louis Philippe (b) Johann Gottfried Herder
(c) Karol Karpinski (d) Carl Welcker

5. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option.


In Galicia the aristocracy spoke ………… .
(a) Magyar (b) French
(c) Russian (d) Polish
66 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

6. Choose the incorrect pair from the given options.


(a) Tamil Nadu- Mango (b) Orange- Nagpur
(c) Pineapple- Meghalaya (d) Grape- Maharashtra

7. Choose the feature which is not associated with Arid soils.


(a) These soils become cultivable after proper irrigation.
(b) The lower horizon of the soil is occupied by Kankar nodules.
(c) These soils develop a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and
metamorphic rocks.
(d) In some areas the salt content is very high and common salt is obtained from these soils.

8. Which of the following is not a measure of soil conservation?


(a) Strip Cropping (b) Shelter Belts
(c) Terrace Cultivation (d) Overdrawing of groundwater

9. In which of the following state deforestation due to mining have caused severe land
degradation?
(a) Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh (b) Gujarat and Rajasthan
(c) Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh (d) All of these

10. Which among the following is/are the example of Biotic Resources?
(a) Human being (b) Livestock
(c) Fisheries (d) All of these
11. Which of the following is not a Majoritarian measure?
(a) Preferential policies to favour Sinhala community in jobs.
(b) A new Constitution to protect and promote Buddhism.
(c) Granting of citizenship to Sri Lankan Tamils.
(d) All of the above

12. In dealing with power sharing, which one of the following statements is not correct
about democracy?
(a) People are the source of all political power.
(b) In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society.
(c) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is not possible to take quick
decisions and enforce them.
(d) In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self-governance.

13. Which of the following reason of power sharing stress that the power sharing will
bring out better outcomes?
(a) Moral (b) Political (c) Prudential (d) Legitimate

14. Which of the following is a merit of the local government in India?


SAMPLE PAPER 2

(a) It has uprooted the democracy at local level in our country.


(b) It has deepened the democracy in our country.
(c) It has failed in conducting regular elections of local bodies.
(d) None of the above

15. Identify the political reason/s behind the conflicts in Sri Lanka.
(a) Failure of non-government organisations
(b) Preferential policies of the government
(c) Absence of representation for weaker sections
(d) Unwillingness of political parties to resolve conflicts
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 67

16. Which of the following measure/s were adopted by the government under
comprehensive land development programme?
(a) Institutional and Technical reforms
(b) Crop Insurance
(c) Establishment of Gramin Banks and Cooperative societies
(d) All of the above

17. Kisan Credit Card Scheme was introduced in which of the following year?
(a) 1991 (b) 1993
(c) 1996 (d) 1998

18. Which of the following is not a feature of commercial farming?


(a) It is used in areas of high population.
(b) Plantation is also a type of commercial agriculture.
(c) Most of the production is sold in the market.
(d) Higher doses of modern inputs like HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, insecticides and
pesticides are used to increase production.

19. The activities involved in tourism like guide, hotels, travel, food, etc are included in
which sector of the economy?
(a) Public sector (b) Tertiary sector
(c) Unorganised sector (d) Primary sector

20. The sum of the total production of all goods and services in the three sectors are
combinedly called as
(a) NDP (b) GNI
(c) GDP (d) NI

21. Which of the following crop is related to zaid crop?


(a) Watermelon (b) Paddy
(c) Maize (d) Bajra

22. The small and scattered units largely outside government control are in ……… .
(a) Public sector (b) Secondary sector
(c) Private sector (d) Primary sector

23. NREGA (National Rural Employment Guarantee Act) was renamed after.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Indira Gandhi (d) Rajiv Gandhi

24. If more number of children in an area fall in the BMI range of 15.5 to 17.5, then what
does it show?
(a) Good health
SAMPLE PAPER 2

(b) Nutritional deficiency


(c) Good standard of living
(d) Better medical facilities
68 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 Questions)
25. Coalition Government is formed by the two or more Political Parties.
Which of the following options best signifies this image related to coalition?

(a) Coalition government is a new form of Government in India.


(b) The ruling party and the opposition party form the coalition government.
(c) In the coalition government the leader decides every rule.
(d) The leader of the coalition keeps the partners of the government satisfied.

26. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about the features of the economic
situation which existed in Europe?
(i) Migration of population from rural to urban regions.
(ii) Small producers had to face stiff competition from England.
(iii) Industrial Revolution became more advanced in most countries of Europe.
(iv) Number of job seekers exceeded the employment opportunities.
Options
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) Both (iii) and (iv)

27. What does Liberalism stands in economic sphere? Choose the correct option from the
following:
(a) Freedom of markets.
(b) Control over markets.
(c) Imposition of restriction on the movement of goods across territories.
(d) Heavy tax imposition on goods and services.

28. Identify the vision of a society that is too ideal to actually exist.
SAMPLE PAPER 2

(a) Absolutist (b) Monarchy


(c) Utopian (d) Autocratic

29. Identify the crop with the help of the clues given below.
• This crop is used as both food and fodder.
• It requires temperature from 21°C to 27°C.
• It is a kharif crop which grows well in old alluvial soil.
(a) Millets (b) Maize
(c) Wheat (d) Pulses
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 69

30. Which one of the following term is used to identify the old and new alluvial
respectively?
(a) Khadar and Tarai (b) Tarai and Bangar
(c) Bangar and Khadar (d) Tarai and Duars

31. Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India. Identify those
which hold true for decentralisation after 1992.
A. Local governments did not have any power or resources of their own.
B. It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government
bodies.
C. The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local
government bodies.
D. No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes
and other backward classes.
(a) B and C (b) A and C (c) A and D (d) B and D

32. Which one of the following is the leguminous crop?


(a) Millets (b) Pulses
(c) Maize (d) Sugarcane

33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Rubber is grown in tropical and sub-tropical areas.
Reason (R) It requires moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 100cm and
temperature above 50°C.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

34. Match the following.


List-I List-II
A. Majoritarian 1. Division based on shared culture.
B. Prudential 2. Conflict between opposing groups.
C. Ethnic 3. A belief that let majority community to rule a country.
D. Civil War 4. Calculation of gains and losses.

Codes
A B C D A B C D
SAMPLE PAPER 2

(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 2 1 3

35. Why there is an enormous pressure on agricultural land in India? Choose the correct
option.
(a) High density of population.
(b) Land holding size is very small.
(c) Farmers are unable to afford right techniques of farming.
(d) Lack of technology with the small farmers.
70 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

36. Identify the Power Sharing system with the help of the following information.
• Power is shared among different organs of the government.
• All the organs of the government are placed at the same level.
• It specifies the concept of checks and balances.
Select the appropriate option from the following.
(a) Community Government (b) Vertical Division of Power
(c) Horizontal Division of Power (d) Unitary form of Government
37. Identify the correct statement/s about the Civil War of Sri Lanka?
(i) Sri Lankan Tamils caused struggles because their demands of autonomous state
were disapproved.
(ii) It caused a lot of bloodshed among the civilians and the military.
(iii) It ended in 2009.
(iv) It was fought between Sri Lankan Muslim Tamils and Buddhist Sinhalese.
Options
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

38. Identify the correct meaning of ‘custom barrier’ from the given options.
(i) It is a measure of limiting trade across borders of different cities and principalities.
(ii) It is a tax collected at airports to boost exports.
(iii) It is physical barrier between two cities.
(iv) It helps to decrease the price of the products.
Options
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) Only (i)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) Both (iii) and (iv)

39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Government needs to pay attention to aspects of human development
such as availability of safe drinking water, housing facilities for the poor, food and
nutrition.
Reason (R) Private sector can offer development in terms of providing welfare facilities
like construction of dam.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
SAMPLE PAPER 2

40. Choose the correct pair from the following.


List I
(Soils)
(a) Black Soils West Bengal
(b) Forest Soils Ladakh
(c) Arid Soils Karnataka
(d) Red and Yellow soils Gujarat
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 71

41. Analyse the information given below and choose the correct option.
Laxmi owning about three hectares of unirrigated land dependent only on rain and
growing crops like jowar and arhar. All seven members of her family work in the field
throughout the year. You will see that everyone is working, none remains idle, but in
actual fact their labour effort gets divided. Each one is doing some work but no one is
fully employed.
(a) Overemployment (b) Seasonal unemployment
(c) Disguised unemployment (d) Both (a) and (c)
42. Which of the following statement/s held that workers are exploited in the unorganised
sector? Identify the correct option.
(i) There are no fixed number of working hours.
(ii) They do not get other allowances apart from the daily wages.
(iii) They can be asked to leave the job at any time.
(iv) Workers are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and
regulations.
Codes
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (iv)
43. Job of a teacher comes under which of the following sectors?
(a) Primary Sector (b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector (d) Industrial Sector
44. According to the Human Development Report of UNDP, 2018, the HDI ranking of
countries are mentioned below.
Column A Column B
A. Sri Lanka 1. 76
B. India 2. 130
C. Pakistan 3. 150
D. Nepal 4. 149

Why India ranks low in Human Development Index despite of its huge size and
population? Select the most suitable options from the following.
(a) Less investment in social infrastructure.
(b) Gender Inequality is still prevalent.
(c) Increasing Income Inequalities among different sections of the society.
(d) All of the above

45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
SAMPLE PAPER 2

Assertion (A) There is a need for protection and support of the workers in the
unorganised sector.
Reason (R) Workers in an unorganised sector get paid really less and are heavily exploited.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
72 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

46. The goods that are used as raw materials for further production are known as
(a) Consumer goods (b) Final goods
(c) Intermediate goods (d) Material goods

Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions
in the section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section)
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up
the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come
about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed
during the French Revolution, was restored to power and France lost the territories it had
annexed under Napoleon. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent
French expansion in future. Thus, the kingdom of the Netherlands, which included Belgium,
was set up in the North and Genoa was added to Piedmont in the South.
47. What was France's largest fear at the Congress of Vienna? Select the best suitable
option from the following in reference to the context.
(a) Losing French Colonies (b) War with the United States
(c) The Rise of Prussian Power (d) Britain's Challenge

48. Which one of the following was not implemented under the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
(a) Restoration of Bourbon Dynasty.
(b) Setting up series of states on the boundaries of France.
(c) Restoration of monarchies.
(d) Diluting the German Confederation of 39 states.

49. Assertion (A) By the settlement of Vienna, Belgium was annexed to Holland to set up a
powerful state in North-East border of France.
Reason (R) The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

50. Why was the Treaty of Vienna drawn up in 1815? Which one of the following is the
prominent cause?
(a) To abolish tariff barriers.
SAMPLE PAPER 2

(b) To divide the German Confederation of 39 states.


(c) To restore the monarchies.
(d) None of the above

51. Which of the following is not the result of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
(a) France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
(b) Poland was given to Russia.
(c) Prussia was handed over to England.
(d) None of the above
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 73

52. Which of the following is/are the guiding principles of the Congress of Vienna?
(a) Balance of power (b) Principle of legitimacy
(c) Principle of fraternity (d) Both (a) and (b)

Directions (Q). Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
In this sense, federations are contrasted with unitary governments. Under the unitary system,
either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the Central
Government. The Central Government can pass on orders to the provincial or the local
government. But in a federal system, the Central Government cannot order the state
government to do something. State government has powers of its own for which it is not
answerable to the Central Government. Both these governments are separately answerable to
the people.
53. In what sense federations are contrasted with unitary governments?
(a) Powers in the federations are not concentrated in single hands but distributed among
the units.
(b) Powers in the federations are concentrated in single hands i.e. the Union Government.
(c) In a federation, constitution is flexible in nature.
(d) In a federation, there is uniformity of laws.

54. Which among the following is/are the features of the Federal State?
(a) The powers of the Central and State Governments are clearly laid down.
(b) It may become despotic when the rulers are not faithful as there is no check upon the
exercise of these unlimited powers.
(c) It has an unwritten constitution.
(d) Constitution may be rigid or flexible.

55. Read the following statements and find the correct option from the given codes.
(i) In a Federal government, the constitution is supreme.
(ii) In a Federal government, the constitution may be written or unwritten.
(iii) In a Unitary government, there is no division of powers between centre and states.
(iv) Legislature may be bicameral or unicameral in unitary government.
Options
(a) Only (ii) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these

56. Which of the following is a unitary state? Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) United States (b) France (c) Nigeria (d) Venezuela

57. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the Unitary government?
SAMPLE PAPER 2

(a) The power of the Union (Parliament) to legislate on the matter included in the State List.
(b) The sub-units of the government are subordinate to the Central Government.
(c) There are two or more tiers of the government.
(d) Unitary Government has Independent Judiciary

58. Identify the benefits of unitary system from the given options.
(a) Government that can more easily promote national unity.
(b) Government that can easily work towards the common good.
(c) Government that can more easily be held accountable by its citizens.
(d) All of the above
74 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

Section-D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-60) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the
help of specified information.

59. Identify the state which is marked as ‘A’ where Tehri Dam is located.
(a) Maharashtra (b) Uttarakhand
(c) Assam (d) West Bengal

60. Which of the following crop is cultivated in the area which is marked as ‘B’.
(a) Rubber cultivation (b) Wheat cultivation
(c) Tea cultivation (d) Coffee cultivation
SAMPLE PAPER 2
OMR SHEET SP 2
Roll No.

Student Name Sub Code.

Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid gel & fountain pens for filling the sheets.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.

1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60

Check Your Performance


Total Questions: Total Correct Questions
Score Percentage = × 100
Total Correct Questions: Total Questions

Less than 60% > Average (Revise the Chapters again)


If Your Score is Greater than 60% but less than 75% > Good (Do more practice)
Above 75% > Excellent (Keep it on)
76 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

Answers
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (a)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (b) Vienna Congress was convened in 1815 to includes Panchayats in villages and
restore conservative regime in Europe. The Municipalities in urban areas. Some of the
main intention of the Vienna Congress was to merits of local government in India are
restore the monarchies that had been • Constitutional status for local government
overthrown by Napoleon and create a new has helped to deepen democracy in our
conservative order in Europe. Conservative country.
regimes that were set up in 1815 were • It has also increased women’s representation
autocratic. and voice in our democracy.
2. (c) Romanticism was as cultural movement. It • This allows people to directly participate in
is also known as the Romantic era was an decision-making. As local people have better
artistic, literary, musical and intellectual ideas and knowledge about the local
movement that originated in Europe towards problems.
the end of the 18th century, and in most areas
15. (b) The political reason behind the conflicts of
was at its peak in the approximate period from
Sri Lanka is the preferential policies of the
1800 to 1890.
government that favoured a particular section
5. (d) The aristocratic class of Galicia was of society i.e. the Sinhala’s. They were given
majorly Polish speaking. Eastern and preferences in university as well as in
Central Europe was divided into multiple government jobs. As per the 1956 act, Sinhala
autocratic monarchies where ethnically and was recognised as the official language,
culturally diverse people resided. They disregarding the Tamil language.
spoke different languages and didn’t share a
Another government measure further
sense of collective identity. The aristocratic
promoted Buddhism in the state.
class of Bohemia spoke German
predominantly. 16. (d) A Comprehensive Land Development
Programme was introduced during 1980’s and
6. (a) Mango is majorly grown in the states of
1990’s. This programme included both
Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana,
institutional and technical reforms. Some of the
Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal.
other reforms and benefits for the farmers
7. (c) Arid soil is found in dry areas. In some under this programme are discussed below
areas, common salt is obtained in this soil due
(i) Kisan Credit Card scheme for giving easy
to evaporation of water. It is sandy in texture,
and cheap loans to small farmers.
red to brown in colour and saline in nature.
(ii) Special weather bulletins and agricultural
SAMPLE PAPER 2

8. (d) Overdrawing of groundwater is not a programmes for farmers were introduced


method of soil conservation. Soil conservation through radio and television channels.
is the prevention of loss of the topmost layer of
the soil from erosion or prevention of reduced (iii) Government also announced Minimum
fertility caused by over usage, acidification or Support Price, remunerative and
other soil contamination. procurement prices for various agricultural
products.
Some of the soil conservation methods are strip
(iv) Provision for crop insurance against
cropping, shelter belts, terrace cultivation.
drought, flood, cyclone, fire and disease,
14. (b) The third-tier of the government is called establishment of grameen banks,
local government. This local government
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 77

cooperative societies and banks for state- imposed restrictions on the movement of
providing loan facilities. goods and capital. During the 19th Century
18. (a) The agricultural practice on large scale by this was a strong demand of the emerging
using modern technology to earn good income middle classes.
from agriculture is called commercial farming. 31. (a) A major step towards decentralisation was
It is used in areas of high population. taken in 1992 when the constitution was
20. (c) The sum of the total production of all goods amended to make the third-tier of democracy
and services in the three sectors in a particular more powerful and effective. The provisions
year are combinedly called as Gross Domestic made in the constitution for effective local
Product (GDP). It shows the total production government are
in a country. • It is constitutionally mandatory to hold
regular elections to local government bodies.
21. (a) Watermelon, cucumber vegetables and
• Seats are reserved in the elected bodies and
fodder crops are the types of Zaid crop. These
the executive heads of these institutions for
crops are sown between Rabi and Kharif
the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and
season (March-June)
Other Backward Classes, besides women.
22. (c) The small and scattered units that are • At least one-third of all positions are
outside the government control are in the reserved for women.
private and unorganised sector. The private
sector is controlled by private individuals. It is 33. (c) Rubber is mainly an equatorial crop, but
also mostly unorganised as there is no fixed under special conditions it is also grown in
and regular employment and the units are also tropical areas. It requires moist and humid
not registered by the government. climate with rainfall of more than 200 cm and
temperature above 25° C. It is an important
24. (b) The Body Mass Index shows the measure industrial raw material that supports many
of body fat based on weight and height. It industries. Hence, statement ‘A’ is true and ‘R’
shows if a person is healthy or not. BMI <18.5 is false.
(less than 18.5) is considered unhealthy and
36. (c) Power is shared among different organs of
having nutritional deficiency. So, if more
government, such as the legislature, executive
number of children is falling in the BMI of 15.5
and judiciary. This is called horizontal
to 17.5, then it means lack of proper diet which
distribution of power because it allows
is leading to nutritional deficiency.
different organs of government placed at the
25. (c) In the coalition government the leader same level to exercise different powers and it
decides every rule best signifies the given specifies the concept of check and balances.
image. Coalition government is formed by the
37. (d) The Civil War in Sri Lanka was fought
coming together of two or more political
between the two communities-Sri Lankan
parties. Usually, partners in a coalition form of
Tamils and Buddhist Sinhala population. This
political alliance adopt a common programme
Civil war resulted in the killing of thousands
for governance.
of people of both the communities. It also
26. (c) The features of the economic situation caused great impact to the social, cultural and
which existed in Europe were -migration of economic life of the country.
population from rural to urban regions, small Many families were forced to leave the country
producers had to face stiff competition from as refugees and many lost their livelihood. This
England and no. of Job seekers exceeded the civil war came to an end in 2009.
employment opportunities. Developments in
SAMPLE PAPER 2

19th-century Europe are bounded by two great 39. (c) Private sector is based on profit- making
events. The French Revolution broke out in and thus it cannot contribute towards
1789, and its effects reverberated throughout development and growth of the people. It
much of Europe for many decades. cannot offer development in terms of
providing welfare facilities like construction of
Industrial revolution became more advanced dams. Public sector on the other hand is owned
in most countries of Europe, was not a feature by the government, can fulfill that
of the economic situation which existed in responsibility in the form of developing
Europe. infrastructure, supporting farmers, providing
27. (a) In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for healthcare facilities, etc. Hence ‘A’ is true and
the freedom of markets and the abolition of ‘R’ is false.
78 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

43. (c) The tertiary sector is also called as service changes which had come in Europe during
sector the highest GDP contributing sector in the Napoleonic wars. Some of the steps taken
present days. This sector also includes essential by the Treaty of Vienna are as follows
services that may not directly help in the (i) The Bourbon dynasty which had been
production of goods. For example, Teachers, deposed during the French Revolution
Doctors, etc. was restored to power.
44. (d) India ranks low in HDI despite of its huge (ii) A series of states were set up on the
size and population because of boundaries of France to prevent French
• Less investment in social infrastructure in the expansion in the future.
country. 53. (a) Federal governments are contrasted with
• In India gender inequality is still prevalent. unitary governments as the powers in the
• Increasing income inequalities among federation are not concentrated in single
different sections of the society. hands but distributed among the units.
45. (a) The workers of the unorganised sector are 55. (c) Federal Government is a dual form of
often exploited and not paid fair wages. Their government. In the federal government the
earnings are low and not regular. These jobs are constitution is supreme. It has to or more
not secure and have no other benefits and they levels/tiers of government.
also face social discrimination. Thus, there is a Unitary Government is single government. It
need for measures to be adopted related to their has no division of powers between centre
protection and support. Hence, both and state. The Unitary Government has
statementare true and ‘R’ is the correct written or unwritten constitution. The
explanation of ‘A’. legislature may be bicameral or unicameral in
46. (c) The goods that are used as raw materials for Unitary Government.
further production (final goods) are known as 57. (c) Under the unitary system, either there is
intermediate goods. Final goods are those goods only one level of government or the sub-units
that are manufactured to be consumed directly are subordinate to the Central Government.
by consumer. The Central Government can pass on orders
50. (c) The Treaty of Vienna drawn up in 1815 to the provincial or the local government.
to restore the monarchies. The Treaty of Vienna Hence, option (c) is not correct regarding the
of 1815, its objective was to undo most of the unitary government.
SAMPLE PAPER 2
79
CBSE Sample Paper English Language & Literature X (Term I)

SAMPLE PAPER 3
SOCIAL SCIENCE
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class X (Term I) Examination

Instructions
(i) The Question Paper contains four sections.
(ii) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(iii) Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
(vi) Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
(v) Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
(vi) Each question carries 0.80 mark.
(vii) There is no negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 40
Roll No. Time allowed : 3 hours

Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)
1. Which of the following statements is true about the process of unification of Britain?
(a) The unification was based on attack and conquer plan by the King of England.
(b) The process was a political struggle.
(c) The unification was achieved through political and social subjugation of various
ethnicities by the English.
(d) The process was a result of thirty year long war between people of different ethnicities in
which only the English remained unscathed.

2. Identify the correct statements regarding the Act of Union.


(i) It was signed in 1707.
(ii) It was signed between England and Scotland.
(iii) It resulted in the establishment of democracy in Scotland.
(iv) It resulted in the formation of United Kingdom of Great Britain.
SAMPLE PAPER 3

Codes
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

3. Identify the revolutionary, with the help of statements given below.


(i) He was an Italian revolutionary.
(ii) He founded two secret societies Young Italy in Marseilles and Young Europe in
Bern.
(iii) Metternich described him as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’.
80 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

Choose the correct option.


(a) Giuseppe Mazzini (b) Karol Kurpinski
(c) Louis Philippe (d) Giuseppe Garibaldi

4. What happened to Poland at the end of 18th century? Which of the following statement
is correct?
(a) Poland achieved independence at the end of the 18th century.
(b) Poland came totally under the control of Russia and became part of Russia.
(c) Poland became the part of East Germany.
(d) Poland was partitioned at the end of the 18th century by three Great Powers: Russia,
Prussia and Austria.

5. Identify who were referred as Junkers in Prussia.


(a) Military officials (b) Aristocratic Nobles
(c) Large landowners (d) Factory owners

6. Choose the incorrect pair.


(a) Greek Struggle for Independence begins : 1707
(b) William I, the Prussian King : 1871
(c) The Act of Union : 1707
(d) Ireland was incorporated into United Kingdom : 1801

7. Ground water over use is particularly found in which of the following states?
(a) Gujarat and Rajasthan (b) Punjab and Western UP
(c) Nagaland and Assam (d) Himachal and Uttarakhand

8. Which of the following erosions destroy the subsoil?


(a) Wind erosion (b) Sheet erosion (c) Tree erosion (d) Gully erosion

9. Red soil looks yellow when it occurs in ………… .


(a) oxidated form (b) hydrated form
(c) degraded form (d) original form

10. Which country ranks first in tea production in the world?


(a) Brazil (b) India (c) Sri Lanka (d) China

11. Which among the following is known as a system of checks and balances?
(a) The Supreme Court Judges can check the powers of the High Court Judges.
(b) The President of India appoints the Prime Minister and further the Prime Minister checks
the Powers of the President.
(c) The judges are appointed by the executive and further judges can check the functioning
of executive or laws made by the legislature.
(d) All of the above
SAMPLE PAPER 3

12. Which of the following is not a subject of the Union List?


(a) Foreign affairs (b) Law and order
(c) Currency (d) Banking

13. Identify the correct meaning of Tyranny.


(a) Government by a single or multiple rulers with few powers.
(b) Government by multiple rulers.
(c) Government by a single or multiple rulers with absolute powers.
(d) Government by single rulers.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 81

14. Why decentralisation is an essential feature of democracy?


(a) People learn to take decisions at lower level.
(b) People learn to participate in a democratic manner.
(c) People learn to be more vigilant.
(d) All of the above

15. Belgium shares its border with how many European countries?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five

16. Who among the following is appointed as an officer of Municipal corporation?


(a) Sarpanch (b) Ward Commissioner
(c) Mukhiya (d) Mayor

17. What percentage of India’s cropped area is covered by oilseeds?


(a) 2% (b) 12% (c) 21% (d) 22%

18. Which of the following soil is suitable for cultivation of cashew nuts?
(a) Alluvial soil (b) Red Laterite soil (c) Black soil (d) Red soil

19. Which one of the following oilseed in India is grown in both Rabi and Kharif seasons?
(a) Groundnut (b) Mustard (c) Castor seed (d) Coconut

20. How GDP is calculated?


(a) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during last three years
provides the total production of the sector for that year.
(b) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year
provides the total production of sector for that year and the sum of production in the
three sectors.
(c) The value of intermediate goods and services produced in each sector during a particular
year and the sum of production in the three sectors.
(d) The value of intermediate goods and services produced in each sector during a particular
year provides the approximate production of the sector for that year.

21. Where will you find the disguised unemployment the most? Select the correct option.
(a) Factory workers
(b) Among agricultural workers working on self-owned farm lands.
(c) Private company owners and employees.
(d) Government officials

22. Tertiary sector has replaced the primary sector as the largest producing sector. There
are hindrances in the development of tertiary or service sector. Identify the hindrances
from the given options.
(i) Inadequate Infrastructure
SAMPLE PAPER 3

(ii) Unfair competition in the Telecom sector


(iii) Financial services
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these

23. Transfer of property other than agricultural land comes under which of the following
lists?
(a) Union List (b) State List
(c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary Subjects
82 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

24. What are the challenges faced by the Indian farmers at present?
(a) Decreased subsidy on fertilizers leads to higher cost of production and reduction in
import duties on farmer’s produce.
(b) Nature of monsoon affects crop production.
(c) International competition and reduction in public investment in irrigation, power
infrastructure and other inputs.
(d) All of the above

Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 Questions)
25. Following is the image of crop cultivation which is used both as food and fodder. It is a
Kharif crop which requires temperature between 21°C to 27°C and grows well in old
alluvial soil. Identify the crop from the given options.

(a) Wheat (b) Maize (c) Bajra (d) Rice

26. Which of the following statement option (s) is/are correct about the nation of Poland?
(i) Poland was partitioned in the 18th century.
(ii) Poland was ruled by Russia and Polish language was used as a weapon of struggle
against Russian Dominance.
(iii) With the end of Poland, the sentiments of nationalism among the Polish people
ended as well.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii) (c) Only (iii) (d) Both (ii) and (iii)

27. In which area the most serious source of nationalist tension in South-Eastern Europe
after 1871?
(a) Denmark (b) Austria (c) Balkans (d) Hungary
SAMPLE PAPER 3

28. Identify the major revolution which emerged due to economic reasons?
(a) The Liberal Revolution (b) Germany’s War with Austria
(c) Greek War of Independence (d) Revolution of Silesians Weavers

29. Identify the following crop with the help of given clues.
(i) The Arabica variety initially brought from Yemen is produced in the country.
(ii) Its cultivation was introduced on the Baba Budan Hills.
(iii) It is cultivated in Nilgiri in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
(a) Tea (b) Coffee (c) Rubber (d) Millets
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 83

30. Which group of crops can be classified under the classification of millets?
(a) Urad and Arhar (b) Maize and Wheat
(c) Bajra and Ragi (d) Sesamum and Groundnut

31. Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India. Identify those
which hold true for decentralisation after 1992?
(i) Local governments did not have any power or resources of their own.
(ii) It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government
bodies.
(iii) The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local
Government bodies.
(iv) No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes
and Other Backward Classes.
Options
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (iii) and (iv) (d) Both (i) and (iv)
32. Which period saw the rise of regional political parties in many states of India?
(a) Period before 1970 (b) Period after 1980
(c) Period after 1990 (d) Period after 2000

33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Regional governments can withdraw power from the Central Government.
Reason (R) Regional governments were given constitutional powers that were no longer
dependent on the Central Government.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

34. Match the following.


List I List II
A. Community Resource 1. Solar Energy
B. Renewable Resource 2. Public Parks
C. Non- Renewable Resource 3. Ocean
D. International Resource 4. Coal

Codes
A B C D A B C D
SAMPLE PAPER 3

(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
35. Annette studies in a Dutch medium school in the Northern region of Belgium. Many
French speaking students in her school want the medium of instruction to be French.
Her parents approach towards the respective government to realise the desire of the
child. What could be the measure Belgian government will adopt in such a situation?
(a) Majoritarian measures (b) Policy of accommodation
(c) Despotic measures (d) All of these
84 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

36. Identify the community with the help of following information.


• They form a majority in Belgium.
• They do not speak French.
• They are concentrated in Flemish region.
(a) Dutch speaking community (b) German speaking community
(c) Spanish speaking community (d) Portuguese speaking community
37. Which of the following features are common to Indian and Belgian form of power?
(i) Power is shared among governments at different levels.
(ii) Power is shared among different organs of government.
(iii) Power is shared among different social groups.
(iv) Power is shared among different parties and takes the form of competition.
Options
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
38. Identify the correct statement/s about Unitary form of government.
(i) There is either only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the
central government.
(ii) The central government can pass on orders to the provincial government.
(iii) Laws made by the centre are equally enforced in rest of the states without
territorial distinction.
(iv) The powers of state governments are guaranteed by the Constitution.
Options
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (iv)

39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Pulses are grown in rotation with other crops.
Reason (R) It helps in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
40. Choose the correct option from the following.
List I List II
(a) Farmers who depend only on rain for More days of work and better wages.
growing crops.
(b) An Adivasi from Narmada Valley To fulfil livelihood
(c) Prosperous farmers from Punjab. Regular wages
SAMPLE PAPER 3

(d) Landless rural labourers Higher support prices for their crops.

41. Read the following data carefully and select the appropriate answer from the given
options.
State Infant Mortality Rate per Literacy Rate % Net Attendance Ratio (Per 100
1,000 live births (2017) 2017-18 persons) secondary stage
(age 14 and 15 years) 2017-18
Haryana 30 82 61
Kerala 10 94 83
Bihar 35 62 43
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 85

Why Bihar has High Infant Mortality Rate as compared to other states? Identify the
reason from the given options.
(a) Due to lack of health facilities
(b) Due to lack of education facilities
(c) Low guidance
(d) Both (a) and (b)

42. Which of the following criteria is common in the assessment of development in the
reports of the World Bank and UNDP?
(a) Health status (b) Gold Reserves
(c) Per Capita Income (d) Educational Levels
43. Vikram is overweight as his weight is 85 kg and his height is 180 cm. Find out his Body
Mass Index (BMI) from the following options.
(a) 26.2 kg/m 2 (b) 18.6 kg/m 2
(c) 29.2 kg/m 2 (d) 14.7 kg/m 2

44. Identify the sector


• Sector is categorised based on ownership of activities.
• Private individuals and companies own most of the assets.
• Main driving force of this sector is profit.
(a) Public sector (b) Private sector
(c) Social Service sector (d) None of these
45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen
democracy in our country.
Reason (R) Most state governments have not transferred significant powers to local
governments.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
46. Which among the following sectors has become the most important sector in terms of
share of the total production in developed countries?
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector (d) Private sector

Section C
SAMPLE PAPER 3

Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
Within the wide swath of territory that came under his control, Napoleon set about
introducing many of the reforms that he had already introduced in France. Through a return
to Monarchy Napoleon had, no doubt, destroyed democracy in France, but in the
administrative field he had incorporated revolutionary principles in order to make the whole
system more rational and efficient. The Civil Code of 1804 usually known as the Napoleonic
Code- did away with all privileges based on birth, established equality before the law and
secured the right to property. This code was exported to the regions under French control.
86 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

In the Dutch republic, in Switzerland, in Italy and Germany, Napoleon simplified


administrative divisions, abolished the Feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom and
manorial dues.
47. What changes did Napoleon introduce to make the administrative system more
efficient in the territories ruled by him? Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) He established the Civil Code in 1804 also known as Napoleonic Code.
(b) He simplified administrative divisions, abolished the Feudal system and freed peasants
from serfdom and manorial dues.
(c) Transport and Communication systems were improved.
(d) All of the above

48. What type of administrative system was set up under Napoleon? Identify the best
suitable options.
(a) Federal Administrative System (b) Centralised Administrative System
(c) Regional Administrative System (d) Decentralised Administrative System

49. What did the Civil Code of 1804 bring about? Select the best suitable option from the
following.
(a) Established Equality before law
(b) Abolished privileges based on birth
(c) Abolished Right to Property
(d) Both (a) and (b)

50. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) In the areas conquered by Napoleon, the reactions of the local
population were mixed.
Reason (R) Increased taxation, censorship, etc. outweight the advantages of
administrative changes.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

51. The Feudal system was based on control of which of the following?
(a) Land (b) The Church (c) Monarch (d) Crops

52. The Napoleonic code was exported to which of the followig region? Infer the
appropriate option.
(a) England (b) Spain
SAMPLE PAPER 3

(c) Poland (d) Regions under French control

Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
Suppose for the present that a particular country is quite developed. We would certainly like
this level of development to go up further or at least be maintained for future generations.
This is obviously desirable. However, since the second half of the twentieth century a number
of scientists have been warning that the present type and levels, of development are not
sustainable.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 87

Groundwater is an example of renewable resources. These resources are replenished by nature


as in the case of crops and plants. However, even these resources may be overused. For
example, in the case of groundwater. If we use more than what is being replenished by rain
then we would be overusing this resources.
Non-renewable resources are those which will get exhausted after a few years of use. We have
a fixed stock on earth which cannot be replenished. We do discover new resources that we did
not know of earlier. New sources in this way add to the stock. However, over time, even this
will get exhausted.
53. Which of the following statement relates to sustainable development?
(a) Cutting trees for construction of dams
(b) Groundwater depletion
(c) Rise in literacy level
(d) More reliance on renewable sources

54. A country finds that it has vast mineral reserves but uses it unmindfully and exhausts
its resources within 50 years. What does it show?
(a) Country lacks sustainable development
(b) Rise in average income
(c) Exhaustion of renewable resources
(d) Environmental degradation

55. In the process of national development which of the following gets affected negatively?
(a) Economic development (b) Environment
(c) Poverty (d) Renewable resources

56. Which of the following statement is not true?


(a) We should search alternative sources of fuel.
(b) Rising income is indicator of sustainable development.
(c) Countries overuse their resources.
(d) Both (a) and (c)

57. Modern concept of sustainable development focuses more on ………… .


(a) Economic development (b) Social development
(c) Environmental protection (d) All of these

58. Consider the following statements related to sustainability.


(i) It refers to a process or state that can be maintained indefinitely.
(ii) Natural Resources must use in ways that do not create ecological debts by over
exploiting the carrying and productive capacity of the Earth.
(iii) A minimum necessary condition for sustainability is the maintenance of the total
natural capital stock at or above the current level.
SAMPLE PAPER 3

Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
88 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

Section D
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-60) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the
help of specified information.

59. Identify the dam marked as ‘A’ which is located in the Union Territory of Jammu and
Kashmir.
(a) Bhakra Nangal Dam (b) Salal Dam
(c) Rana Pratap Sagar Dam (d) Hirakud Dam

60. In the given map a crop growing region/area has been marked as ‘B’. Identify the crop
and choose the correct option.
(a) Bajra (b) Jowar
(c) Ragi (d) Rice
SAMPLE PAPER 3
OMR SHEET SP 3
Roll No.

Student Name Sub Code.

Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid gel & fountain pens for filling the sheets.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.

1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60

Check Your Performance


Total Questions: Total Correct Questions
Score Percentage = × 100
Total Correct Questions: Total Questions

Less than 60% > Average (Revise the Chapters again)


If Your Score is Greater than 60% but less than 75% > Good (Do more practice)
Above 75% > Excellent (Keep it on)
90 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

Answers
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (c)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (c) The Unification of Britain was achieved need uniform policies on these matters
through political and social subjugation of throughout the country. Thus, option (b) is not
various ethnicities by the English. English a subject of the Union List.
suppressed the Irish and Scottish ethnic iden 13. (c) Tyranny is a government by a single or
tities through its political, social and territorial multiple rulers with absolute power. Tyranny
supremacy and forced them in a Union. is an autocratic form of rule in which one
2. (d) The Act of Union between England and individual exercised power without any legal
Scotland passed in 1707 and was known as the restraint. Giving absolute powers in the hands
Treaty of Union is the name given to the of an individual can lead to tyrannical or
agreement that led to the creation of Great despotic form of government.
Britain, the political Union of the Kingdom of 15. (c) Belgium shares its border with four
England and the Kingdom of Scotland. countries i.e. France, Netherlands, Germany
The Acts of Union, passed by the English and and Luxembourg.
Scottish Parliaments in 1707, led to the creation 18. (b) Red Laterite soil is found in Kerala, Tamil
of the United Kingdom of Great Britain on 1st Nadu and Andhra Pradesh and it is suitable
May of that year. for growing cashew nuts.
5. (c) The Junkers were members of the landed 19. (c) Castor seed is grown in both Rabi and
nobility in Prussia. They owned great estates Kharif seasons. Castor seed is the source of
that were maintained and worked by peasants castor oil, which has a wide variety of uses.
with few rights. Castor is an important non-edible oilseed crop
6. (a) The Greek struggle that began in 1821, and is grown especially in arid and semi-arid
followed by the war of independence, was the region.
second of the national revolutions in the 21. (b) Disguised unemployment is mostly found
Balkans. The Greek War of Independence was among agricultural workers working on
a successful war by the Greeks who won indep self-owned small farm lands. All family works
endence for Greece from the Ottoman Empire. on these lands despite their size and this is why
7. (b) Groundwater over use is particularly found the productivity of these workers is less.
in agriculturally prosperous regions of Punjab, 22. (d) Sector which includes trade, transport,
Western Uttar Pradesh hard rock plateau areas banking, communication and services is known
of Central and South India. as Tertiary sector. Tertiary sector mainly deals
In India, nearly one-third of the country is with services. Hence, tertiary sector is also
overusing its groundwater reserves.
SAMPLE PAPER 3

known as service sector of the economy. Service


8. (d) Gully erosions destroy the subsoil. It is the sector is the largest contributor to GDP in India.
erosion process whereby water concentrates in Following are the hindrances in the
narrow channels and over short periods development of service sector
removes the soil. It occurs when water flowing (i) Inadequate infrastructure
down through clayey soil makes deep channels (ii) Financial services
called gullies. This makes land unfit for (iii) Unfair competition in the telecom sector.
cultivation and is known as bad land.
26. (b) Poland was partitioned at the end of the
12. (b) Union List includes subjects of national 18th century by the Great Powers-Russia,
importance like defence, foreign affairs, Prussia and Austria. Even though Poland no
banking, communication and currency as we
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 91

longer existed as an independent territory, Height in cm


43. (a) Body Mass Index (BMI) =
national feelings were kept alive through Weight in kg
music and language by its artists and 180
= = 26.2 kg/m 2
revolutionaries. 85
27. (c) The Balkans was a region of geographical 45. Constitutional status for local government has
and ethnic variation comprising modern-day helped to deepen democracy in our country as
Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, it has widened the scope of political
Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, participation in the decision making process.
Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro. The spread of Thus, here assertion didn’t justify the reason as
ideas of romantic nationalism in the Balkans the given reason is one of the drawbacks of
together with the disintegration of the Ottoman local governance in our country.
Empire made this region very explosive.
46. (a) In case of most developed and developing
28. (d) Silesian weavers in 1845 revolted against countries, production in all sectors has grown
their contractors because despite ordering but tertiary sector has grown the most due to
them and supplying them with raw materials, reasons like more development and
they had reduced their payments drastically. improvement in lifestyle. It employs a very
Thus, option (d) is correct. large number of people in the world.
33. (d) In the case of Belgium, regional 50. (a) Here, both Assertion and Reason
governments were given constitutional powers statements justify each other. As in the areas
and they were not dependent on the central conquered the reactions of the local
government. As the Belgian leaders took a populations to French rule were miked. In
different path. They recognised the existence of many places such as Holland and Switzerland,
regional differences and cultural diversities. French armies were welcomed as harbingers of
Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their liberty. But later the initial enthusiasm soon
constitution four times so as to work out an turned into a hostility and it became clear that
arrangement that would enable everyone to the new administrative arrangements didn’t go
live together within the same country. Thus, hand in hand with political freedom. Changes
given assertion is incorrect. like increased taxation, censorship, forced
consoription into the French armies outweigh
36. (a) Belgium’s 59 % population lives in the
the advantages of the administrative changes.
Flemish Region and speaks Dutch language.
Thus, option (a) is correct.
They form a majority community in Belgium.
53. (d) More reliance on renewable resources
39. (a) Pulses are the important source of protein relates to sustainable development when more
and minerals that are also known as poor number of renewable resources are used than
man’s meat. Pulses need less soil moisture and non-renewable resources, then there is less
can survive in dry conditions. All the pulses environmental degradation as renewable
except arhar have the ability to fix nitrogen resources are comparatively cleaner forms of
and restore the soil fertility. They are grown in fuel. This promotes sustainable development.
crop rotation so that the soil gets its nutrient
back. Hence, both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are correct and R 54. (a) It shows country lacks sustainable
development. If a country exhausts its
is the correct explanation of A.
resources within 50 years then it means that it
40. (b) For an Adivasi, a guaranteed livelihood is using up resources at a very fast pace. There
will be his/her most prioritised developmental will be no sustainable development then.
goal because in tribal areas, permanent 55. (b) Environment; in the process of
SAMPLE PAPER 3

employment opportunities are rarely available development, the environment of an area gets
for adivasis to earn their livelihood. They affected negatively. Developmental activities
cultivate and obtain food through slash and undertaken by humans lead to environmental
burn agriculture. pollution, degradation and loss of natural
41. (b) Infant Mortality Rate can be substantially resources. Therefore, environment gets
reduced only by improvements in the life and negatively affected.
health of the majority. This is due to the fact 56. (d) Rising income does not mean that there is
that almost all the health and non-health sustainable development. It may mean the
components of a community contribute to the opposite. By using resources on a large scale, the
morbidity and mortality of its children to a income of the people may rise but it may lead to
certain extent. over exploitation of the natural resources.
92
CBSE Sample Paper English Class X (Term I)

SAMPLE PAPER 4
SOCIAL SCIENCE
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class X (Term I) Examination

Instructions
(i) The Question Paper contains four sections.
(ii) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(iii) Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
(vi) Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
(v) Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
(vi) Each question carries 0.80 mark.
(vii) There is no negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 40
Roll No. Time allowed : 3 hours

Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)
1. Which nation was identifiable in the revolutionary tricolour in Sorrieu’s utopian
Vision?
(a) Italy (b) Germany
(c) France (d) Britain

2. The Young Italy Movement was related to which of the following?


(a) Freedom of Italy from the subjugating rule of the Ottoman rulers.
(b) A mission to educate the Youth of Italy.
(c) A mission to hold elections in Italy for the first time.
(d) Unification of Italy since it was divided into various states.

3. Why did the Frankfurt Parliament fail to achieve its goal? Identify from the given
options.
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(a) Women were excluded from the membership.


(b) Did not have the support of Peasants.
(c) Kaiser William refused to accept the crown and opposed the assembly.
(d) None of the above

4. Why Ernst Renan believed that the existence of nations is a necessity?


(a) As it ensures protection of all inhabitants.
(b) As it ensures liberty to all inhabitant citizens.
(c) As it ensures Parliamentary form of government to its inhabitants.
(d) As it ensures jobs and good health to all its inhabitants.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 93

5. Why a large number of people were hostile to the Napoleonic Code? Identify the
correct reason from the given options.
(a) It destroyed special privileges of the rulers.
(b) Administrative changes didn’t go hand in hand with political freedom.
(c) It was not suitable for all.
(d) It stood for the abolition of trade restrictions.

6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in
(a) Ragi- Punjab (b) Maize- Uttar Pradesh
(c) Coffee- Jammu and Kashmir (d) Jowar- Kerala

7. Coffee cultivation was first introduced in ………… .


(a) Himalayas (b) Baba Budan Hill
(c) Garo Hills (d) Aravali Hills

8. Which of the following soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos
and Terai?
(a) Black Soil (b) Alluvial Soil
(c) Laterite Soil (d) Red Soil

9. How will diversification of Indian cropping pattern help?


(i) It will attract investment from people. (ii) It will replenish fertility of the soil.
(iii) It will save the environment. (iv) It will supply nitrogen to the soil.
(v) It will increase incomes.
Codes
(a) (i), (iii) and (v) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii), (iv) and (v) (d) (i), (iv) and (v)

10. Which of the following is not a feature of unorganised sector?


(a) Small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government.
(b) Rules and regulations are not followed.
(c) Jobs here are high paid and often regular.
(d) No provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays and medical leave.

11. Who has the power to legislate on ‘Residuary’ subjects?


(a) Municipalities (b) Union Government
(c) State Government (d) Both (b) and (c)

12. What happened if there is a clash between the laws made by the Centre and a state on
a subject in a Concurrent List?
(a) The State law prevails.
(b) The Central law prevails.
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(c) The Supreme Court has to intervene to decide.


(d) Both the laws prevail within their respective jurisdictions.

13. In democracy, power is not shared with which of the following?


(a) People who live in the democracy (b) Leaders of the government
(c) Social Groups (d) Neighbouring countries

14. Identify the main objective of the Panchayati Raj System.


(a) Rural development (b) Decentralised democracy
(c) Distribution of powers (d) Represent rural people
94 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

15. Tamilians during 1980’s formed various political organisations. Identify the reason
from the given options.
(a) Their demand for separate state was denied.
(b) Their demand for separate election to provinces populated by the Tamils was denied.
(c) Their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly
denied.
(d) All of the above

16. Federal power-sharing is more effective nowadays. Identify the reason from the given
options.
(a) States today are more conscious of their rights.
(b) It is the age of coalition governments at the Centre.
(c) Centre today depends more on states.
(d) There are more powerful leaders at the state level.

17. Power sharing is one of the foundational principles on which democratic rule it is
based upon. Choose the correct option which justifies the given statement.
(a) The system of checks and balances.
(b) The separation of power at different levels.
(c) A Kind of balancing power.
(d) The spirit of democracy.

18. Which of the following is a demerit of using average income as a measure of


development?
(a) Average income fails to indicate the economic stability of a country.
(b) Calculation of Average income is a tedious process.
(c) Average income does not indicate disparity in income level.
(d) Average income is always lower than the actual income of people.

19. Which among the following is a correct method to tackle the problem of
underemployment in a country?
(a) The government should provide unemployment benefits to citizens.
(b) Identify, promote and locate industries and services where a large number of people can
be employed.
(c) The government should close down industries with lower employment levels.
(d) The government should focus on developing jobs in the unorganised sector as most of
the people are employed in unorganised sector.

20. What kinds of workers are employed in the tertiary sector?


(a) Unskilled (b) Only skilled
(c) Semi-skilled (d) Both skilled and semi-skilled
SAMPLE PAPER 4

21. Which among the following is not a feature of an underdeveloped country?


(a) Agriculture as the major occupation (b) High technological development
(c) Mass poverty (d) Mass illiteracy

22. Which of the following is not a measure of sustainable development?


(a) Using natural resources properly and scientifically.
(b) Preventing infectious diseases.
(c) Reducing pollution or environmental degradation.
(d) Adopting measures to check global warming.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 95

23. Which sector acts as an aid or support to the other sectors in the economy?
(a) Primary Sector (b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector (d) Allied Sector

24. Which of the following does not relate to tertiary sector?


(a) Health services (b) Financial services
(c) Banking (d) Petroleum refining

Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 Questions)
25. Following image depicts the fear of repression which drove many liberal-nationalists
underground. Which of the following event is marked as per the given image? Identify.

(a) Signing of Treaty of Vienna (b) Founding of Young Europe in Berne, 1833
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini unifying Italy (d) William I unifying Germany

26. Which of the following options is correct about Giuseppe Garibaldi?


(i) He was the Chief Minister of Italy.
(ii) He was the King of Sardinia-Piedmont.
(iii) He was a revolutionary who established Young Italy and Young Europe secret
societies.
(iv) He was a freedom fighter who helped Cavour to unify Italy.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
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(c) Both (iii) and (iv) (d) Only (iv)

27. Why did most ‘conservative regimes’ impose censorship laws to control printed
material associated with the French Revolution in 1815? Identify the appropriate
reason from the following options.
(a) Because conservative regimes were autocratic and wanted to preserve traditional
institutions like church, monarchy and social hierarchies.
(b) Because freedom of press would lead to wide circulation of revolutionary ideas.
(c) Because conservative regimes were against the liberal notions.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
96 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

28. Which among the following is considered as an outcome/s of Non-sharing of power in


a state?
(a) Peace among all the communities.
(b) Negation of the very spirit of democracy.
(c) Political stability.
(d) Both (a) and (c)

29. Identify the crop with the help of clues given below.
(i) It is a staple food crop of a majority of the people of India.
(ii) It is a Kharif crop which requires high temperature, high humidity with high
annual rainfall of above 100 cm.
(a) Pulses (b) Rice
(c) Wheat (d) Maize

30. What is the arrangement of soil in different layers or horizons known as? Identify the
correct option.
(a) Soil composition (b) Soil texture
(c) Soil erosion (d) Soil profile

31. Consider the following statements regarding pulses as a crop and select the answer
using the codes given below.
(i) Pulses are grown both in Kharif and Rabi crops.
(ii) Pulses require intensive and excessive irrigation facilities.
(iii) Pulses are grown in rotation to replenish fertility of the soil.
(iv) Pulses are leguminous crops.
Codes
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Only (ii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) Both (iii) and (iv)

32. What happened when the news of the events in France reached the different cities of
Europe?
(a) People favoured these events.
(b) People did not know how to react.
(c) Students and other members of educated middle classes began setting up Jacobin clubs.
(d) There was confusion and dissatisfaction among the people.

33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Although judges are appointed by the Executive, they can check
functioning of the executive or laws made by the Legislatures.
Reason (R) Judges are superior and more experienced than the Executive.
SAMPLE PAPER 4

Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 97

34. Match the following states with the type of slash and burn agriculture.
List-I
List-II
(Types of Slash and
(States)
Burn Agriculture)
A. Khil 1. Odisha
B. Kuruwa 2. Himalaya Belt
C. Koman 3. Madhya Pradesh
D. Bewar 4. Jharkhand
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 3 2 1

35. In which part of Sri Lanka, political organisations started the demand for the creation
of an independent Tamil Eelum by 1980’s?
(a) Northern Parts (b) Eastern Parts
(c) Western Parts (d) Both (a) and (b)

36. When was the boundary of several old states were changed for the first time after the
Independence?
(a) 1947 (b) 1950
(c) 1953 (d) 1967

37. What features of democracy could be realised with linguistic reorganisation of the
states? Choose the correct option.
(i) Recognition and accommodation of diversities.
(ii) Inception of isolationist tendencies.
(iii) Fear of linguistic division of the country.
(iv) Equal respect to all social groups.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Both (iii) and (iv) (d) Both (i) and (iv)

38. Consider the following statements regarding the sources of revenue in a Federal
system?
(i) States are provided with unlimited financial powers.
(ii) States are dependent for revenue on the Central Government.
(iii) The Central Government has no financial autonomy.
(iv) The sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified in the
Constitution of India to ensure its financial autonomy.
SAMPLE PAPER 4

Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (iv)

39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Suppose the literacy rate in a state is 78% and the net attendance ratio in
secondary stage is 47%.
Reason (R) More than half of the students are going to other states for elementary
education.
98 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

40. Choose the correct option from the following.


List-I
(a) Liberalism Customs Union.
(b) French Revolution Individual Freedom and Equality before law.
(c) Zollverein Transfer of sovereignty from monarch to the
French citizens.
(d) Act of Union Formation of United Kingdom.

41. Read the given table and answer the following question.
Some comparative data on Haryana, Kerala and Bihar
Infant Mortality Rate Net Attendance Ratio (per 100
Literacy Rate %
State per 1000 live births persons) secondary stage (age 14
2011
(2017) and 15 years) 2013-2014
Haryana 30 82 61
Kerala 10 94 83
Bihar 35 62 43

As per the data, the literacy rate is highest in Kerala while the infant mortality rate is
highest in Bihar. What does it show?
(a) Most of the people living in Kerala and Bihar have good living conditions.
(b) Both Bihar and Kerala lack basic necessities of life.
(c) The standard of living is better in Kerala as compared to Bihar.
(d) The standard of living is better in Bihar as compared to Kerala.

42. Identify the sector from the given information.


(i) Activities which are included in this sector are undertaken by directly using
natural resources.
(ii) This sector employs most number of people.
(a) Tertiary Sector (b) Primary Sector
(c) Secondary Sector (d) Public Sector

43. Iqbal along with five other members of his family worked as a farmer and produced 50
tons of wheat. Due to some dispute in the family, two members opted out of family
SAMPLE PAPER 4

business, but still remaining members of the family are able to produce 50 tons of wheat.
Can you identify which type of unemployment the members of the family are facing?
(a) Seasonal employment (b) Disguised employment
(c) Over employment (d) Cyclical employment
44. How one can generate employment opportunities in urban areas?
(a) Increase vocational education.
(b) Improve local and inter-city transportation facilities.
(c) Increase reservations in jobs.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 99

45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Economic development of a nation depends mainly on the richness,
development and management of resources.
Reason (R) Over-population results in over-exploitation of resources.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

46. Why the Tertiary sector is becoming an important sector in India? Identify the reason
from the given options.
(a) Because it provides basic services to the people.
(b) Because basic facilities like public transportation, health comes under public sector.
(c) Because it works on profit maximisation.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions
in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section.)
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
Each power-Russia, Germany, England, Austro-Hungary was keen on countering the
hold of other powers over the Balkans, and extending its own control over the area.
This led to a series of wars in the region and finally the First World War. Nationalism,
aligned with imperialism, led Europe to disaster in 1914. But meanwhile, many
countries in the world which had been colonised by the European powers in the 19th
Century began to oppose imperial domination. The anti-imperial movements that
developed everywhere were nationalist, in the sense that they all struggled to form
independent nation-states and were inspired by a sense of collective national unity,
forged in confrontation with imperialism. European ideas of Nationalism were
nowhere replicated, for people everywhere developed their own specific variety of
Nationalism. But the idea that societies should be organised into ‘nation-states’ came to
be accepted as natural and universal.
47. Nationalism which emerged as a force in the late 19th Century means which of the
following?
(a) Strong devotion for one’s own country without appreciation for other nations.
(b) Strong devotion for one’s own country and its history and culture.
SAMPLE PAPER 4

(c) Strong patriotism for one’s own country and hatred for others.
(d) Equally strong devotion for all the countries of the world.

48. The power struggle in Europe by the big powers in the late 19th Century led to
what outcomes?
(a) A series of wars in the region and finally the First World War in 1914.
(b) Opposition to imperial domination in the colonies.
(c) The idea that societies should be organised into nation states.
(d) All of the above
100 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

49. Why do European nations colonise other nations? Identify the reason from the given
options.
(i) Need for raw materials (ii) Desire to learn about other cultures
(iii) Surplus of manufactured goods (iv) Fear of Asian dominance
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (iii) and (iv) (d) Both (ii) and (iv)

50. In general late 19th century imperialism ………… .


(a) Involved complete independent entrepreneurial activity by merchants and traders.
(b) It was built entirely on trade.
(c) It gave rise to new patterns of settlement and social discipline.
(d) None of the above

51. By the late 19th century nationhood was linked to which of the following?
(a) Economic power (b) Political dominance
(c) Empire building (d) All of these

52. Which statement best expresses the motive for the 19th Century European
Imperialism?
(a) Imperialism would benefit the economies of the colonial powers.
(b) European nations would benefit from some aspects of the conquered nations culture.
(c) European leaders believed imperialism was an effective method of reducing the
number of wars.
(d) Livig space was needed for the excess population in Western Europe.
Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
India is an agriculturally important country. Two-thirds of its population is engaged in
agricultural activities. Agriculture is a primary activity, which produces most of the food
that we consume. Besides food grains, it also produces raw material for various industries.
Moreover, some agricultural products like tea, coffee, spices, etc. are also exported.
Agriculture is an age-old economic activity in our country. Over these years,
cultivation methods have changed significantly depending upon the characteristics of
physical environment, technological know-how and socio-cultural practices. Farming
varies from subsistence to commercial type.
53. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) India is an agriculturally important country.
Reason (R) India has vast fertile plains for agriculture and economic activities.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
SAMPLE PAPER 4

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
54. Why is most of the population engaged in agricultural activities? Identify the
reason from given options.
(a) People are poor here.
(b) India doesn’t have sufficient resources to establish industries.
(c) India is a populous country so demand for food is increasing.
(d) All of the above
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 101

55. Why primary sector is important for a country like India? Choose the appropriate
reason from the given options.
(a) Primary sector contributes a high share to the GDP of India.
(b) It is the most labour absorbing sector of Indian economy e.g. agriculture.
(c) It covers agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry etc. all these contribute to the Indian
economy.
(d) All of the above
56. Which of the following industries is based on agricultural raw material? Choose
the correct option.
(a) Textiles industry (b) Sugar industry
(c) Vegetable oil industry (d) All of these
57. Tea and coffee come under which type of farming? Identify from the given options.
(a) Intensive Subsistence Farming (b) Primitive Subsistence Farming
(c) Plantation Farming (d) None of these

58. Agricultural cultivation methods undergo a change with time. Identify the factor
which is responsible for such a change.
(a) Variation in crops (b) Seasonal changes
(c) Development of technology (d) Government intervention

Section D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-60) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the
help of specified information.

B
SAMPLE PAPER 4

59. In the given map a crop growing region/area has been marked as ‘A’. Identify the crop
and choose the correct option.
(a) Tea (b) Coffee (c) Wheat (d) Rubber
60. Which of the following dams is depicted by ‘B’ in the given map?
(a) Salal Dam (b) Tehri Dam
(c) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam (d) Tungabhadra Dam
OMR SHEET SP 4
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by the software.
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1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60

Check Your Performance


Total Questions: Total Correct Questions
Score Percentage = × 100
Total Correct Questions: Total Questions

Less than 60% > Average (Revise the Chapters again)


If Your Score is Greater than 60% but less than 75% > Good (Do more practice)
Above 75% > Excellent (Keep it on)
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 103

Answers
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (c)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (c) The France was identifiable in the 9. (a) The diversification of Indian cropping will
revolutionary tricolour in Sorrieu’s Utopian help in several ways like.
Vision. Fredric Sorrieu was a French artist (i) It will attract investment from people.
who prepared a series of four prints
(ii) It will save the environment.
visualising his dream of a world made up of
‘democratic and social republics’. (iii) It will increase incomes of people.
In Sorrieu’s Utopian Vision, the people of the 11. (b) Union Government has the power to
world are grouped as distinct nations, legislate on these residuary subjects. The
identifiable through their flags and national subjects which are not included in any three
costumes, marching towards the Statue of lists and subjects like computer software that
Liberty. came up after the Constitution was made are
2. (d) The Young Italy Movement was related to known as residuary subjects.
the unification of Italy as it was divided into 13. (d) In a democracy, power is not shared with
various principalities and each was ruled by a neighbouring countries as in a sovereign
different ruler. To unify it, the Young Italy country; no external country can influence it in
Movement was instituted by Giuseppe making any decision.
Mazzini and joined by Garibaldi. 14. (b) Decentralised democracy is the main
3. (c) Frankfurt Parliament fail to achieve its goal objective of the Panchayati Raj System.
because Kaiser William refused to accept the Panchayati Raj System in India aims to build
crown and opposed the assembly. This led the democracy at the grass roots level.
opposition of aristocracy and military to 16. (b) After 1990, India saw the rise of regional
become stronger, the social basis of Parliament political parties. This was the beginning of the
eroded. era of coalition government at the centre. Since,
5. (b) A large number of people were hostile to no single party got a clear majority in the Lok
the Napoleonic code as it became clear that the Sabha, the major national parties had to enter
new administrative arrangements did not go into an alliance with many parties. This
hand in hand with political freedom. includes several regional parties to form a
Increased taxation, censorship, forced government at the Centre. This led to a new
conscription into the French armies required culture of power-sharing.
to conquer the rest of Europe, all these issues 17. (d) Power sharing is the spirit of democracy
outweigh the advantages of the administartive because it is one of the foundational principles
SAMPLE PAPER 4

changes. on which the concept of democratic rule is


7. (b) Coffee cultivation was first introduced in based. In a democracy, the people have a right
Baba Budan Hills. Its cultivation is confined to to be consulted on how they should be
the Nilgiri in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil governed and all the citizens tend to have the
Nadu. same political and legal rights.
8. (b) Alluvial soil is mostly found in river 18. (c) In the method of using average income or
valleys of the Northern Plains as well as it is per capita income  the income of a country is
more common in the piedmont plains that are divided by the total population which gives the
at the foothills such as Duars, Chos and Terai. average income of a country.  The limitation in
104 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

using per capita income as an indicator of 26. (d) Giuseppe Garibaldi was the most celebrated
development can be explained as below Italian revolutionary and freedom fighter. He
(i) It does not tell anything about the helped the Chief Minister Cavour to unify Italy
distribution of income. There might be a through wars and alliances.
concentration of a maximum part of 27. (d) Most ‘conservative regimes’ imposed
wealth in the hands of a few. A poor censorship laws to control printed material
society with equal distribution of wealth is associated with the French Revolution in 1815
better than a richer country with unequal because these states were autocratic and thus,
distribution of income. wanted to preserve the traditional institutions
(ii) The per capita income does not take into of state and society like the monarchy, church,
consideration various facilities which etc.
influence the quality of life, such as, It was observed by the Conservatives that
education, health facilities. Freedom of press, if given then it would lead to
(iii) It is affected by the size of the population. wide circulation of revolutionary ideas. So,
Per capita income will be low even if the censorship was imposed.
national income is high, but the country 32. (c) When the news of the events in France
has a large population. reached the different cities of Europe, students
19. (b) To tackle the problem underemployment and other members of educated middle classes
industries and services should be identified, began setting up Jacobin clubs. Their activities
promoted and located in semi-rural areas and campaigns prepared the way for the
where a large number of people may be French armies which moved into Holland,
employed. Belgium, Switzerland and much of Italy in the
1790s.
20. (d) Tertiary sector in India employs many
different kinds of people. It employs highly 33. (c) This is a system of checks and balances
skilled and educated workers and also a where each organ of the government can check
number of semi-skilled workers engaged in and balance each other’s powers and
services such as small shopkeepers, repair responsibility. Judges and executives are placed
persons, etc. parallel to each other as per the Indian
21. (b) Any underdeveloped country does not Constitution. Hence, Assertion is true and
have access to high technology because of its Reason given is not true.
economic inadequacy.
34. (b) Primitive subsistence farming is also
22. (b) Preventing infectious diseases is not a known as Slash and Burn agriculture. It is
feature of an underdeveloped country. Three known by different names in India and the
pillars or measures for sustainable world. Like in Jharkhand it is known as
development are namely: “Economic Kuruwa while in the Himalayan belt it is
Development, Social Development and called Khil. Koman in Odisha and Bewar in
Environmental Protection”. Madhya Pradesh.
23. (c) Tertiary sector’s activities help in the 35. (d) In Northern and Eastern Parts of Sri Lanka,
development of the primary and secondary political organisations started the demand for
sectors. By itself, economic activities in tertiary the creation of an independent Tamil Eelum by
sector do not produce goods but they are an 1980’s as it constitutes the majority of Sri
aid or a support for the production. Lankan Tamils. Here, the regional autonomy of
SAMPLE PAPER 4

24. (d) Petroleum refining forms a part of secon- this region was their main demand.
dary sector’s activities, since, it is industry 37. (d) Recognition and accommodation of
related. Service activities are included in diversities and social divisions help to maintain
tertiary sector. Tertiary sector is also known as peace in the nation. This is one of the features
service sector, since, it deals with all types of of democracy that gave equal respect to all
services. For example, health and financial diversities.
services are included in the service sector.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 105

39. (c) Net Attendance Ratio is the total number achieved. They appear employed but they are
of children of age group 14 and 15 years not employed to their free potential.
attending school as a percentage of total
45. (a) Economic development of a nation is mainly
number of children in the same age group.
dependent on factors like richness,
If the students were going to other states for
development and management of resources.
higher education, the total students available
Over-population is one of the major cause of
in the state would go down and the net
over-exploitation of resources. Hence, both
attendance ratio would not be so low. The low
statement A and R true and R is also correct
net attendance ratio is indicative of students
explanation of A.
dropping out of elementary school. Hence, A
is true and Reason given for it is not correct. 46. (d) Tertiary sector is becoming an important
sector in India because it provides basic services
43. (b) Here, disguised employment is faced by
like public transportation, medical facilities,
the family members. This is because people
electricity, banking, etc. that comes under the
are employed in a work where their effort gets
control of government or public sector. Hence,
divided and not much productivity is
it is becoming an important sector.

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106
CBSE Sample Paper English Class X (Term I)

SAMPLE PAPER 5
SOCIAL SCIENCE
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class X (Term I) Examination

Instructions
(i) The Question Paper contains four sections.
(ii) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(iii) Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
(vi) Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
(v) Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
(vi) Each question carries 0.80 mark.
(vii) There is no negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 40
Roll No. Time allowed : 3 hours

Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)
1. Which of the following major issue of conservative regime 1815 was criticised by the
Liberal nationalists?
(a) Preservation of Private Property (b) Abolition of Aristocratic privileges
(c) Censorship laws to control the Press (d) Preservation of the Church

2. Kaiser William-I belonged to which of the following countries?


(a) Austria (b) Denmark (c) Prussia (d) France

3. Which among the following factors strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe?
Identify from the given options.
(a) Modern army (b) Abolition of feudalism and serfdom
(c) Efficient bureaucracy (d) All of these

4. Why did women and non-propertied men organise opposition movements throughout
SAMPLE PAPER 5

the 18th and early 19th century?


(a) Demanding for property
(b) Demanding equal political rights
(c) Demanding membership in Jacobian club
(d) Demanding equal distribution of wealth

5. Who led the Protest movement against the Protestants in Ireland?


(a) Giuseppe Mazzini (b) Wolfe Tone
(c) Giuseppe Garibaldi (d) Count Camillo Cavour
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 107

6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in
(a) Groundnut- Punjab (b) Jute- Maharashtra
(c) Cotton- Gujarat (d) Sugarcane- Assam

7. ………… is recognised as a powerful supplement in inventing new hybrid varieties of


seeds.
(a) Genetic Engineering (b) White Revolution
(c) Green Revolution (d) Globalisations

8. Which among the following statement is true regarding renewable resources?


(a) Renewable resources are replenished by the nature over a period of time.
(b) Renewable resources are available only in the developed nations.
(c) Renewable resources are in abundance.
(d) Renewable resources are fixed and they are bound to get exhausted.

9. Who was declared as a spiritual heir of Gandhiji?


(a) Subhash Chandra Bose (b) Vinoba Bhave
(c) Sardar Patel (d) Jawaharlal Nehru

10. Which oil seeds can be grown both in Rabi and Kharif Seasons?
(a) Castor seeds (b) Soybean
(c) Sesamum (d) Cotton seeds

11. Which among the following was not a demand of Sri Lankan Tamils?
(a) Regional Autonomy
(b) Reservation of seats in the Parliament
(c) Equality of opportunity in jobs
(d) Recognition of Tamil as an official language

12. Why did the Dutch speaking community resent the French speaking community?
(a) They were in minority.
(b) French community was different in terms of religious practices.
(c) They were the majority community.
(d) French community was in minority but it still enjoyed all the benefits for their welfare
despite being rich.
13. Who elects the members of the Gram Panchayat?
(a) The Presiding officer (b) The Gram Panchayat
(c) The Gram Sabha (d) The Nyaya Panchayat
14. When power is divided between higher and lower levels of government, then it is
known as what?
(a) Horizontal division of power sharing
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(b) Vertical division of power sharing


(c) Unitary division of power sharing
(d) None of the above
15. Which of the following was the main reason responsible for the killing of thousands of
people in Sri Lanka? Identify from the given options.
(a) Cold War between Sinhala and Tamil speaking population.
(b) Civil War between Sinhala and Tamil speaking population.
(c) Cultural riots between Sinhala and Tamil Speaking population
(d) None of the above
108 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

16. Which among the following countries is an example of federal form of government?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Egypt
(c) Australia (d) England

17. Which of the following subjects falls under the Concurrent List?
(a) Defense (b) Agriculture
(c) Currency (d) Marriage

18. Which among the following is a developmental goal for the landless rural labourer?
(a) To educate their children
(b) More days of work and better wages
(c) To get basic facilities
(d) None of the above

19. Which of the following statement is correct about developmental goals?


(a) They are the same for all the citizens of a country.
(b) These goals do not matter to the citizens.
(c) They are different and sometimes even contradictory for different groups and people.
(d) There are no developmental goals.

20. The Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on
which of the following factors?
(a) National Income
(b) Public Distribution system
(c) Per-capita Income
(d) Gross Domestic Product

21. Which of the following services rise rapidly?


(a) Banking and Trade
(b) Software companies
(c) Information and Communication Technology
(d) Education

22. In spite of low income, which sector gives employment to huge labour force in India?
(a) Primary (b) Public
(c) Organised (d) Secondary

23. There are thousands of casual workers in the service sector in urban areas who search
for daily employment. They are employed as painters, plumbers, repair persons and
other odd jobs. Many of them don’t find work every day. The problem of
underemployment occurs …………… .
(a) when people are not willing to work.
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(b) when people are working slowly.


(c) when people are working less than what they are capable of doing.
(d) when people are not paid for their jobs.

24. Which of the following economic activity does not come under the Primary sector?
(a) Fishing (b) Farming
(c) Banking (d) Mining
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 109

Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 Questions)
25. Followng image shows new laws that were made in Russia in 2005 giving powers to its
President. During the same time the US President visited Russia.
Study the given picture and answer the following question.

Which among the following statements appropriately describes the given picture?
(a) Democracy can help in division of powers.
(b) Concentration of power under one centre undermines the concept of democracy.
(c) Despotic rulers do not leave much scope for power sharing.
(d) Concentration of powers in one hand helps to make quick decisions.

26. Which of the following statements about the ‘French Revolution’ are correct?
(i) After the end of the French Revolution it was proclaimed that it was the people
who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
(ii) France will have a constitutional monarchy and the new republic will be headed by
a member of the royal family.
(iii) A centralised administrative system will be put in place to formulate uniform laws
for all citisens.
(iv) Imposition of internal custom duties and dues will continue to exist in France.
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)

27. Who among the following was described as the most dangerous enemy of social order
by Duke Metternich?
(a) Louis Philippe (b) Karol Kurpinski
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Garibaldi

28. On which of the following subjects can both the Union as well as the State
SAMPLE PAPER 5

governments make laws?


(a) Communications (b) Defense
(c) Trade Unions (d) Agriculture

29. Identify the crop with the help of given clues


• It is a tropical as well as a sub-tropical crop.
• It grows well in hot and humid climate.
• A temperature of 21°C to 27°C and an annual rainfall between 75cm and 100cm.
(a) Oil seeds (b) Sugarcane (c) Tea (d) Coffee
110 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

30. Which is the main food crop of the Eastern and Southern part of India?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat
(c) Maize (d) Sugarcane

31. Which among the following is correct about the Indian Federal System?
(i)The Parliament cannot make changes to the power-sharing arrangement.
(ii)It is not easy to make changes to the power sharing arrangement.
(iii)It has to be ratified by the Legislatures of at least half of the total states.
(iv) Any change to it has to be first passed by both the Houses of the Parliament with at
least two-thirds majority.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these

32. Identify the leading figure of ‘conservatism’ in Europe from the given options.
(a) Johann Gottfried Herder
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Lord Byron
(d) Duke Metternich

33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) India is a holding together Federation.
Reason (R) All the states have equal powers and are strong as Union Government.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

34. Match the following.


List I List II
A. Community Government 1. USA
B. Unitary System of Government 2. Belgium
C. Coming Together Federation 3. India
D. Holding Together Federation 4. Sri Lanka

Choose the correct answer from the given options:


A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
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(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 1 3 2 4

35.The French Revolutionaries declared that the mission and destiny of the French nation
was ………… . Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) to conquer the people of Europe
(b) to liberate the people of Europe from despotism
(c) to strengthen absolute monarchies in all the countries of Europe
(d) to propagate the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in every part of the world
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 111

36. The Constitution of India divided the powers among which of the following?
(a) Between centre and states in three lists.
(b) Between centre and states in two lists.
(c) Listed the powers of the states and left the undefined powers to the state.
(d) Specified the powers of the states and left the residuary powers with the centre.

37. Which of the following federal principles are found in the Indian federation?
(i) Equal representation of states in the Second House of Parliament.
(ii) Bicameral Legislature at federal level.
(iii) Double citizenship.
(iv) Independent and Impartial judiciary.
Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)

38. Mark the correct features of ‘Holding Together Federation’ from the given options.
(a) State exercise equal powers with the Union.
(b) Central government is more powerful than the states.
(c) The jurisdictions of the respective levels of the government are not mentioned in the
Constitution.
(d) State tends to be more powerful than the central government.

39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a
sustained quality of life and global peace.
Reason (R) They promote equality among classes.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

40. Identify the incorrect option.


(a) Disguised unemployment – More people working than actually needed
(b) Unemployment – Not getting jobs at a particular time of the year
(c) Underemployed – Not employed according to skill or education
(d) Labour effort- the hard work done by a labour to earn income

41. Study the following table and answer the question that follows.
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Reserves 2017 Number of Years Reserves


Region/Country
(Thousand Millions Barrels) will last
Middle East 808 70
United States of America 50 10.5
World 1697 50.2

For how many years will the reserves of crude oil last in Middle East, if they continue
extracting it at the present rate?
(a) 50 years (b) 100 years
(c) 70 years (d) 60 years
112 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

42. Which of the following examples does not fall under unorganised sector?
(a) A farmer irrigating his field.
(b) A daily wage labourer working for a contractor.
(c) A doctor in a hospital treating a patient.
(d) A handloom weaver working on a loom in her house.

43. Which of the following statement is correct with respect to Public Sector?
(a) Government owns the asset. (b) Big companies own the asset.
(c) A group of people owns the asset. (d) All of these

44. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a
struggle for independence against the Greeks which began in 1831.
Reason (R) Greece was suffering under subjugation of the Ottoman Empire.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

45. Which one among the following workers are not very productive in tertiary sector?
(a) Educated and trained professionals (b) Repair persons and daily wage-earners
(c) People in defense services (d) People working in health centers and hospitals

46. How would you calculate Body Mass Index?


(a) Dividing the weight by the square of the height.
(b) Dividing the height by weight.
(c) Dividing the weight by height.
(d) Adding height to the weight of the person.

Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions
in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section.)
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
Conservative regimes set up in 1815 were autocratic. They did not tolerate criticism and
dissent, and sought to curb activities that questioned the legitimacy of autocratic
governments. Most of them imposed censorship laws to control what was said in
newspapers, books, plays and songs and reflected the ideas of liberty and freedom
SAMPLE PAPER 5

associated with the French Revolution. The memory of the French Revolution nonetheless
continued to inspire liberals. One of the major issues taken up by the liberal-nationalists,
who criticised the new conservative order, was freedom of the press.
47. Why all the new regimes set up in 1815, were autocratic in nature? Identify the reason
from the given options.
(a) They did not tolerate criticism and dissent.
(b) They imposed censorship laws to control what was said in newspapers, plays, songs, etc.
(c) They curbed activities which questioned their legitimacy.
(d) All of the above
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 113

48. Repression of liberal revolutionaries after 1815 in Europe led to what? Identify the
correct option from the following.
(i) Armies being trained by the revolutionaries.
(ii) All revolutionaries were trained to overthrow Monarchy.
(iii) Secret societies were formed in many European states to train revolutionaries and
spread their ideas.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (iii) (d) Both (ii) and (iii)

49. Fill in the blank by choosing appropriate option.


Conservatives did not believe in establishing and preserving ………… .
(a) the Monarchy (b) the Democracy
(c) social hierarchies (d) traditional institutions of state

50. Which of the following was not a demand of the liberals? Identify from the given
options.
(a) Representative Government (b) Autocratic Government
(c) Freedom of Markets (d) Inviolability of Private property

51. Of what opinion Conservatives believed in? Choose the correct option from the
following.
(a) Monarchies were dangerous for the nation-state.
(b) Feudalism should be restored.
(c) Monarchy and church should be preserved.
(d) Pre-revolution administration should be re-established.

52. To which of the following class liberal-nationalists belonged to? Identify from the given
options.
(a) Artisans (b) Elite class
(c) Educated middle class Elite (d) Lower middle class

Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
Potential Resources Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised.
For example, the Western parts of India particularly Rajasthan and Gujarat have
enormous potential for the development of wind and solar energy, but so far these
have not been developed properly.
Developed Resources Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity
have been determined for utilisation. The development of resources depends on
technology and level of their feasibility.
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Stock Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs
but human beings do not have the appropriate technology to access these, are included
among stock. For example, water is a compound of two gases; hydrogen and oxygen.
Hydrogen can be used as a rich source of energy. But we do not have advanced
technical ‘know-how’ to use it for this purpose. Hence, it can be considered as stock.
53. Potential and development resources are categories under which type of resources?
(a) On the basis of origin (b) On the basis of exhaustibility
(c) On the basis of ownership (d) On the basis of status of development
114 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

54. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Rajasthan and Gujarat have enormous potential for the development of
wind and solar energy.
Reason (R) Both the states have good percentage of barren land.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

55. If a person knows about the presence of a resource in abundance at a place but is not
able to harness it due to lack of technical know-how or any other problem then that
resource would be known as which of the following resources?
(a) Abiotic resource
(b) International resource
(c) Community owned resource
(d) Stock resource

56. There are some regions of India where availability of resources is sufficient, but in
some regions, there are acute shortage of important resources. Identify which of the
following region is deficient in water resources.
(a) Jharkhand (b) Rajasthan
(c) Ladakh (d) Arunachal Pradesh

57. Coal, natural gas, petroleum, water etc are examples of which type of given resources?
Identify from the given options
(a) Potential resources
(b) Community owned resources
(c) Developed resources
(d) Biotic resources

58. Which are the main factors that determine creation of a resource? Identify the correct
options.
(a) Nature and technology
(b) Nature and human beings
(c) Nature, human beings and technology
(d) Technology and human beings
SAMPLE PAPER 5
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 115

Section D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-60) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the
help of specified information.

59. Identify the type of soil marked as ‘A’ and choose the correct option.
(a) Alluvial soil (b) Black soil
(c) Red soil (d) Laterite soil

60. In the given map a crop growing area/region has been marked as ‘B’. Identify the crop
and choose the correct option.
(a) Tea (b) Rubber
(c) Sugarcane (d) Coffee
SAMPLE PAPER 5
OMR SHEET SP 5
Roll No.

Student Name Sub Code.

Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid gel & fountain pens for filling the sheets.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.

1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60

Check Your Performance


Total Questions: Total Correct Questions
Score Percentage = × 100
Total Correct Questions: Total Questions

Less than 60% > Average (Revise the Chapters again)


If Your Score is Greater than 60% but less than 75% > Good (Do more practice)
Above 75% > Excellent (Keep it on)
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 117

Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (c)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (c) A censorship law to control the press was 6. (c) Major cotton-producing states of India are
the major issue criticised by the Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh,
liberal-nationalists. Liberal nationalism is a Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil
form of nationalism identified by political Nadu, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.
philosophers who believe in traditional liberal 8. (a) Renewable resources can be replenished or
values of freedom, tolerance, equality and reproduced easily, at a rate comparable or
individual rights. Their other major issues were faster than its rate of consumption by humans.
preservation of the church, a modern army, Some of them (sunlight, air, wind, tides,
efficient bureaucracy. hydroelectricity) are continuously available
2. (c) Kaiser William-I belonged to Prussia. The and their quantity is not affected by human
German unification process was completed consumption.
after Prussia won wars with Austria, Denmark, 9. (b) Vinoba Bhave was declared as a spiritual
and France over seven years time. In January heir of Gandhiji. He followed the ideals of
1871, the Prussian king, William I, was Gandhiji, undertook a padyatra (journey on
proclaimed the German Emperor in a ceremony foot) to spread Gandhiji’s message over the
held at Versailles. whole of India.
3. (d) Autocracy is a system of government in 10. (a) Castor seed is grown both as Rabi and
which supreme political power to direct all the Kharif crop. Castor seed is the major source of
activities of the state are concentrated in the castor oil that has numerous uses. It is a vital
hands of one person. The belief that abolition of non-edible oil seed crop which is particularly
feudalism and serfdom, replacing it with a grown in arid and semi-arid regions. It is
modern army, an efficient bureaucracy and a harvested in winters from October to
strong economy could strengthen the autocratic December and is harvested in summers in the
monarchies of Europe. months of April to June.
4. (b) During early 18th and 19th century’s 11. (b) The three demands of Sri Lankan Tamils
women and non-propertied men organised were
opposition movements, demanding equal
political rights. In France, the right to vote and (i) Recognition of Tamil as an official
to get elected was granted exclusively to language.
persons who owned property. Men without (ii) Provision of Regional Autonomy.
properties and women were excluded from this (iii) Equality of opportunity in securing
right. education and jobs.
SAMPLE PAPER 5

5. (b) Wolfe Tone led the protest against the 12. (d) The Dutch speaking community was
Protestants in Ireland. It was a country deeply insecure of the favours received by the French
divided between Catholics and Protestants. The minority community, despite the latter being
English helped the Protestants of Ireland to affluent and powerful.
establish their dominance over a largely
15. (b) The main reason responsible for the killing
Catholic country. Catholic revolts against
of thousands of people in Sri Lanka is the civil
British dominance were suppressed.
war between Sinhala and Tamil speaking
After a failed revolt led by Wolfe Tone and his population. It also caused great impact to the
United Irishmen (1798), Ireland was forcibly social, cultural and economic life of the
incorporated into the United Kingdom in 1801. country.
118 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

19. (c) Different persons can have different distribution of resources has become essential
developmental goals and what may be for a sustained quality of life and global peace.
development for one may not be development Hence, Assertion is true, but statement R is
for the other person. It may even be destructive false.
for the other.
40. (b) Option (b) is incorrect as unemployment is
22. (a) Primary sector is the sector which absorbs a situation in which people are willing to
the large labour force in India. This sector is work but they do not get employment. It is
prevalent in the rural areas. Even though there not related to any particular time of the year.
is low income in this sector but people have not
much option. Therefore they work in the 44. (d) The growth of revolutionary nationalism in
primary sector of the economy. Europe sparked off struggle for independence
amongst the Greeks which began in 1821.
25. (b) The very idea of democracy is against the
Greece fought for independence against the
concept of concentration of power. Hence,
concentration of power under one centre Ottoman Empire and won the same in 1832. As
undermines the concept of democracy. The Greece was suffering under subjugation of the
picture explains how the US and the Russian Ottoman Empire. Hence, Assertion (A) is false
President have given them more powers in and statement ‘R’ is true.
having a final say with regard to any policy 47. (d) Most conservative regimes imposed
decision and are controlling the democratic censorship laws to control printed material
regimes of their respective country. associated with the French Revolution in 1815
27. Giuseppe Mazzini was described as the most because these states were autocratic. These
dangerous enemy of social order by Duke regimes wanted to preserve the traditional
Metternich. Mazzini’s relentless opposition to institutions of the state and the society like the
monarchy, the church and social hierarchies,
monarchy and his vision of democratic
etc. If freedom of press was given then it would
republics frightened the conservatives that is
have led to wide circulation of revolutionary
the reason he was described as the most
ideas. So, censorship was imposed.
dangerous enemy of social order.
53. (d) The potential and developed resources are
28. (c) Trade Unions are a part of a Concurrent List.
categorised on the basis of status of
Thus, on a Concurrent List, both the State and
development. On the basis of the status of
Central Governments can make laws.
development, resources are classified into
33. (c) India is an example of Holding-together four groups. They are potential, developed,
Federations. Here, the Central government tends stock and reserve of the resources.
to be more powerful vis-à-vis the states. A large
54. (a) Rajasthan and Gujarat have good potential
country decides to divide its power between the
for developing solar and wind energy as there
constituent states and the National government.
is lot of barren land on which solar plants and
Hence, Statement ‘A’ is true, but ‘R’ is false.
wind mills can be installed. This is one of the
37. (c) Federalism is a system of government in reasons why the solar and wind farms can be
which the power is divided between a central established in Rajasthan and Gujarat.
authority and constituent political units. Therefore, R is the correct explanation of A.
Federal features of the Indian Constitution are 55. (a) Stock resources are those resources which
(i) Bicameralism at Federal level have the potential to satisfy human needs but
(ii) Independent and Impartial Judiciary human beings do not have appropriate
technology to access these resources. For
(iii) Division of powers
example, water is a compound of two gases,
SAMPLE PAPER 5

(iv) Written Constitution hydrogen and oxygen. Hydrogen can be used


(v) Supremacy of the Constitution. as a rich source of energy. But we do not have
38. (b) Central Government is more powerful than technical ‘know-how’ to use it for this
the states. Examples are India, Spain. Holding purpose. Hence, it can be considered as stock.
together federation is nothing but the division 57. (c) Developed resources are those resources
of powers between the states of the country and whose exact quantity is known and their
Central Government of that country. method of extraction is also developed. Coal,
39. (c) If there was no equitable distribution, petroleum, natural gas, water are potential
resources will not be evenly spread among resources as their occurrences and quantities
people and inequalities will increase leading to are known and they are extracted and used by
unrest and chaos. Hence, an equitable human beings presently.
119
CBSE Sample Paper English Language & Literature X (Term I)

SAMPLE PAPER 6
SOCIAL SCIENCE
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class X (Term I) Examination

Instructions
(i) The Question Paper contains four sections.
(ii) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(iii) Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
(vi) Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
(v) Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
(vi) Each question carries 0.80 mark.
(vii) There is no negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 40
Roll No. Time allowed : 3 hours

Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)
1. What was the significance of the treaty of Constantinople in Greek history?
(a) It created several hurdles for the people of Greece.
(b) It recognised Greece as an independent nation.
(c) It suppressed the people of Greece.
(d) It provided people with immense powers.

2. Which of the following terms is used for a direct vote by which all the people of a
region are asked to accept or reject a proposal?
(a) General Will (b) Referendum
(c) Plebiscite (d) General decision

3. The French nation was represented by which Female Allegory? Identify from the given
options.
SAMPLE PAPER 6

(a) Liberty (b) Germania


(c) Marianne (d) Britannia

4. Which region in the Habsburg Empire had a largely German speaking aristocracy?
(a) Venetia (b) Bohemia
(c) Lombardy (d) Sudetenland

5. What was the purpose of the Jacobian club? Identify from the given options.
(a) To speak against France (b) To hold activities and campaigns
(c) To socialise among different races (d) They worked for war strategies.
120 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

6. Choose the incorrect pair regarding the names of Primitive Subsistence Farming from
the given options.
(a) Brazil- Roca (b) Mexico- Masole
(c) Indonesia- Ladang (d) Vietnam-Ray

7. This soil is also found in the Eastern coastal plains in the deltas of Mahanadi,
Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri rivers. It is ………… .
(a) Black soil (b) Alluvial soil
(c) Red soil (d) Laterite soil

8. Which of the following is an important measure to ensure sustained quality of life?


(a) Planned use of Resources (b) Limited use of Resources
(c) Regeneration of Resources (d) Accumulation of Resources

9. Which of the following option defines the Exclusive Economic Zone?


(a) A coastal region of a country
(b) A submarine mountain
(c) An area of the sea in which a sovereign state has special rights regarding the exploration
and use of marine resources.
(d) None of the above

10. National and international resources are categories under which type of resources?
(a) On the basis of origin (b) On the basis of exhaustibility
(c) On the basis of ownership (d) On the basis of status of development

11. A field given to a farmer on lease for crop cultivation. It is an example of which of the
following type of resource?
(a) Individual resources (b) Community resource
(c) National resource (d) International resource

12. On what principles power sharing is based upon? Identify from the given options.
(a) Sovereignty (b) Concentration of powers
(c) Distribution of powers (d) None of the above

13. Which of the following is not an institution of Rural Local Government?


(a) Panchayat (b) Zila Parishad
(c) Municipal Corporation (d) Gram Sabha

14. What is the proportion of Tamilians in the total population of Sri Lanka?
(a) 18% (b) 20%
(c) 25% (d) 30%

15. Which of the following statement is correct about the power-sharing arrangements in
SAMPLE PAPER 6

Sri Lanka and Belgium? Identify from the given options.


(a) In Sri Lanka, policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of
Tamil-speaking minority.
(b) In Belgium, the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their domination over
the French-speaking minority.
(c) Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power-sharing to protect their
interests.
(d) Transformation of Belgium from a unitary government to a federal one prevented the
division of country on linguistic lines.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 121

16. Which among the following institution plays an important role in overseeing the
implementation of constitutional provisions and procedures?
(a) Union government (b) State government
(c) Judiciary (d) Local government

17. By whom the Community Government in Belgium is elected?


(a) The French community
(b) Community leaders
(c) Citizens of the whole country
(d) People belonging to one language community

18. Which of the following is not a component of Human Development Index?


(a) Per Capita Income (b) Life Expectancy
(c) Literacy Rate (d) Poverty Rate

19. Which of the following statement is true regarding Globalization?


(a) Globaliation is a relatively new phenomenon.
(b) Globalisation has helped change the face of Indian agriculture.
(c) Indian resources attracted British merchants for the Barter system.
(d) Indian spices were transported across the world with the help of Globalisation.

20. Which among the following countries was not a United Nation-state when Frederic
Sorrieu’s painted?
(a) Switzerland (b) Germany
(c) Ireland (d) None of these

21. Why does Kerala have a low Infant Mortality Rate? Identify the reason from the given
options.
(a) Adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities.
(b) Because it mainly concentrates on Human Resource Development.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Due to sustainable policies.

22. Which of the following is an example of Rabi crop?


(a) Groundnut (b) Linseed
(c) Sesamum (d) Rice

23. Which of the following types of activities are covered in the secondary sector?
(a) It generates services rather than goods.
(b) Natural products are changed through manufacturing.
(c) Goods are produced by exploiting natural resources.
(d) It includes agriculture, forestry and dairy.
SAMPLE PAPER 6

24. When conservative regimes were restored to power, many liberal minded people went
underground because of the fear of …………… .
(a) Repression (b) Liberty
(c) Autonomy (d) Constraint
122 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 Questions)
25. In 1860, the artist Lorenz Clasen was commissioned to paint this image. The inscription
on Germania’s sword reads. ‘The German sword protects the German Rhine.’
Which of the following option best signifies the idea behind this image? Identify.

(a) It was a response to French sabre rattling about recapturing French territory across the
Rhine.
(b) It was used as an example of classical themes for overtly political reasons in 19th century
Germany.
(c) It signifies the readiness to fight.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

26. What did Conservatives focus on at the Congress of Vienna? Select the appropriate
option.
(i) To establish socialism in Europe.
(ii) To introduce democracy in France.
(iii) To re-establish peace and stability in Europe.
(iv) To set up new Parliament in Austria.
Options
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (iii) (d) Both (iii) and (iv)

27. What changes came in the wake of French Revolution? Identify from the appropriate
reason from the given options.
(a) The Political and Constitutional changes came in the wake of the French Revolution.
SAMPLE PAPER 6

(b) The Social and Economic changes came in the wake of the French Revolution.
(c) The Linguistic and Cultural changes came in the wake of the French Revolution.
(d) The Social and Cultural changes came in the wake of the French Revolution.

28. Which type of government is one where citizens acquires a stake in the system through
participation?
(a) Accountable Government
(b) Legitimate Government
(c) Unconstitutional Government
(d) Unauthorised Government
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 123

29. Identify the crop with the help of clues given below.
• It grows well on sandy soil and shallow black soils.
• It is majorly grown in Rajasthdan, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat and
Haryana.
(a) Bajra (b) Wheat (c) Rice (d) Soybean

30. In which of the following states Black Soil is found?


(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan (d) Jharkhand

31. Consider the following statements about the geographical conditions required for the
growth of Tea crops in India and select the answer using the codes given below
(i) Tea is a labour intensive industry.
(ii) It requires warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year.
(iii) It is a beverage crop introduced by the British in India.
(iv) It grows well in tropical as well as sub-tropical climates.
Options
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) Only (iv)

32. Why there is a need to give space to diverse social groups in the administration of a
democratic country?
(a) To avoid majoritaranism
(b) To avoid accumulation of power in the hands of a particular social group
(c) To bring inequality among the social groups.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reson (R). Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Belgium managed to accommodate its diversities.
Reason (R) It took care of the interests of both French and Dutch speaking
communities.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

34. Match the following.


List I List II
SAMPLE PAPER 6

A. Gram Sabha 1. Gram Panchayats group together to form this unit.


B. Gram Panchayat 2. Mandals in a district together constitute it.
C. Zila Parishad 3. It reviews the performance of the Gram Panchayat.
D. Mandals 4. Decision-making body for the entire village.

Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 1 3 4 2
124 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

35. Which of the following is the major problem of Indian Agriculture? Identify from the
given options.
(a) Indian Agriculture employs most people in India.
(b) Indian Agriculture takes place on small farm holdings which are not lucrative.
(c) Indian agriculture is the backbone of the Indian Economy.
(d) Indian Agriculture produces Rice, Pulses, Wheat and Sugarcane.

36. Identify the type of society with the help of following information.
• There is no significant ethnic differences and share common culture.
• A society that has similar kinds of people.
Select the appropriate option from the following
(a) Heterogeneous Society (b) Homogeneous Society
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Tribal Society

37. Which of the following options helps the local-government to deepen democracy in India?
(i) Constitutional status for local-self government.
(ii) It inculcates habit of democratic participation.
(iii) Parliamentary bills for the local-self government.
Options
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (iii) (d) Both (i) and (ii)

38. Identify the correct reason/s which led to a gap between the Sinhala and Tamil
Communities.
(i) No Buddhist Sinhala leader was sensitive towards the Tamil language and culture.
(ii) Tamils felt that the Constitution and government policies denied them equal
political rights.
(iii) Government supported Tamilians in getting job and other opportunities.
Options
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Only (iii)

39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Following the defeat of Napoleon, European governments were driven
by a spirit of liberalism.
Reason (R) Mazzini was a member of the secret society called Carbonari.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
SAMPLE PAPER 6

(c) A is true, but R is false.


(d) A is false, but R is true.

40. Choose the correct option from the following.


List I (Subjects) List I (Lists)
(a) Police Union List
(b) Marriage Concurrent List
(c) Computer Software State List
(d) Banking Residuary Subjects
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 125

41. Read the given data which gives the estimate of reserves of crude oil.
Reserves (2017) Number of Years Reserves
Region/Country
(Thousand Million Barrels) will last
Middle East 808 70
United States of America 50 10.5
World 1697 50.2

Select the correct option which defines how it is essential for the development process
of a country?
(a) Reserves of Crude oil are going to last for 50 years and more.
(b) Crude oil is the major source of energy for agricultural and industrial development.
(c) If prices of crude oil increase then this becomes a burden for all.
(d) Middle East and USA may face energy crises in future due to exhaustion of crude oil.

42. For a healthy adult, the Body Mass Index should be in the range of which of the
following?
(a) 11.51- 18 (b) 18.5-24.9
(c) 25-30 (d) None of these

43. Development is possible without the overuse of resources. In this context choose the
correct option which describes the importance of sustainable development.
(a) It helps in maintaining ecological balance.
(b) It promotes efficient use of natural resources.
(c) It lays emphasis on quality of life.
(d) All of the above

44. If the population of India in 2019 was around 1.36 trillion with a GDP of $ 2.72 trillion.
Calculate the Per Capita of India and choose the correct option from the following:
(a) $ 1000 (b) $ 2000 (c) $ 2500 (d) $ 3000

45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Leela works five days a week receives her salary on the last day of each
month and gets medical benefits from her firm.
Reason (R) Leela is working in an organised sector.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
SAMPLE PAPER 6

46. What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of a native craftsman? Identify
from the given options.
(a) More days of work and better wages.
(b) More demand for local and handmade goods
(c) Expansion of rural economy
(d) All of the above
126 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions
in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section)
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
The model of the nation or the nation-state, some scholars have argued, is Great
Britain. In Britain the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden
upheaval or revolution. It was the result of the long-drawn-out process. There was no
British nation prior to the eighteenth century. The primary identities of the people who
inhabited the British Isles were ethnic ones-such as English, Welsh, Scot or Irish. All of
these ethnic groups had their own cultural and political traditions. But as the English
nation steadily grew in wealth, importance and power, it was able to extend its
influence over the other nations of the islands. The English Parliament, which had
seized power from the monarchy in 1688 at the end of a protracted conflict, was the
instrument through which a nation-state, with England at its centre, came to be forged.
47. Which of the following statement is correct about the process of Unification of Britain?
Identify with reference to the above context.
(a) The process was a result of thirty year long war between people of different ethnicities in
which only the English remained unscathed.
(b) The process was a political struggle.
(c) The unification was achieved through political and social subjugation of various
ethnicities by the English.
(d) The unification was based on attack and conquer plan by the King of England.

48. Find the correct statement/s related to England. Select the best suitable option from the
following.
(i) England was a powerful nation and its world domination was the basis of the
nation’s pride.
(ii) England and Scotland together suppressed Ireland to bring it under their union.
(iii) England was economically very strong and brought Scotland under its debt.
(iv) The United Kingdom of Great Britain was forged through an act in 1807 and it
joined England and Scotland.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (iv)

49. England was a ………… Kingdom before the English Parliament snatched powers in
1688.
(a) Republican (b) Monarchial
SAMPLE PAPER 6

(c) Totalitarian (d) Directly ruled

50. Under the British dominance, Scotland suffered due to which of the following reasons?
Identify from the given options.
(a) Systematic suppression of its cultural and political institutions.
(b) The Catholics of Scottish Highlands were ruthlessly suppressed and lost independence.
(c) Denial to speak their Gaelic language or wear their national dress.
(d) All of the above
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 127

51. United Kingdom of Great Britain came into existence in which of the following years?
(a) 1789 (b) 1798 (c) 1707 (d) 1801

52. In which year did the English Parliament seize power from the British monarchy?
(a) 1512 (b) 1688 (c) 1789 (d) 1866
Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly of workers in small-scale industry,
casual workers in construction, trade and transport etc. and those who work as street vendors,
head load workers, garment markers, rag pickers etc. Small-scale industry also needs
government’s support for procuring raw material and marketing of output. The casual
workers in both rural and urban areas need to be protected.
We also find that majority of workers from scheduled castes, tribes and backward
communities find themselves in the unorganised sector. Besides getting the irregular and low
paid work, these workers also face social discrimination. Protection and support to the
unorganised sector workers is thus necessary for both economic and social development.
53. Hariya works in a rice mill and has to work for 12 hours a day. He is not allowed to
take any paid leaves. Hariya is working in which of the following sectors?
(a) Unorganised sector (b) Organised Sector
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
54. Which of the following factor make post offices an organised sector? Identify from the
given options.
(a) Government ownership (b) Job security
(c) Employee benefits (d) All of these
55. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Since the 1990’s, it is also common to see a large number of workers
losing their jobs in the organised sector.
Reason (R) Organised factories are closed due to heavy competition with multinational
companies.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
56. Besides giving timely income, what benefit people in organised sector get?
(a) Job security (b) Insurance (c) Overtime (d) Dignity
SAMPLE PAPER 6

57. In the Unorganised sector, which of the following does not happen? Identify the
incorrect statement from the given options.
(i) Workers are dismissed by the employers at their whims.
(ii) Workers are provided with health care benefits.
(iii) Workers are not provided with service benefits.
(iv) Workers are paid low wages.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Only (iii) (d) Only (iv)
128 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

58. Which of the following sectors/industries need government’s support for procuring
raw material and marketing of output? Identify from the given options.
(a) Public Sector (b) Unorganised Sector
(c) Organised Sector (d) Small-scale Industry

Section D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)
On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified
information.

59. Identify the dam which is marked as ‘A’ in the given political map of India.
(a) Salal Dam (b) Rana Pratap Sagar Dam
(c) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam (d) Hirakud Dam

60. Identify the major Jute producing states which is marked as ‘B’ in the given political
map of India.
(a) Meghalaya and Bihar (b) Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Gujarat and Rajasthan (d) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
SAMPLE PAPER 6
OMR SHEET SP 6
Roll No.

Student Name Sub Code.

Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid gel & fountain pens for filling the sheets.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.

1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60

Check Your Performance


Total Questions: Total Correct Questions
Score Percentage = × 100
Total Correct Questions: Total Questions

Less than 60% > Average (Revise the Chapters again)


If Your Score is Greater than 60% but less than 75% > Good (Do more practice)
Above 75% > Excellent (Keep it on)
130 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

Answers
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (d)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (a)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (b) In constantinople treaty, Greece was 11. (c) A field given to a farmer on lease for crop
defined as an independent kingdom. The cultivation is termed as a national resource of a
Treaty of Constantinople was the product of country. The field is part of land that falls within
the Constantinople Conference which the geographical boundary of a particular
opened in February 1832. It was participated country. Therefore, it is regarded as a national
by the Great Powers (Britain, France and resource.
Russia) on the one hand and the Ottoman 12. (c) Distribution of powers keep check on the
Empire on the other. functional authorities and keep every organ
6. (b) In Mexico, Primitive Subsistence Farming within checks and balances and ensure that
is known as Milpa whereas in Indonesia it is given power is exercised in the best interests of
known with a name of Ladang. In Brazil it is people and nation. Thus, Power sharing in any
known as Roca and in Vietnam it is called as system is essential to prevent the misuse of the
Ray. authority or power by concentrating in any one
organ, department or person.
7. (b) Alluvial soil is also found in Eastern
coastal plains especially in the deltas of 13. (c) Municipal Corporations are set up in big
cities so they are not a part of Rural Local
Peninsular Rivers i.e. Mahanadi, Krishna,
Govern- ment. This body is controlled by the
Godavari and Kaveri. It is the most
elected bodies consisting of people’s
widespread soil in India, which has been
representatives.
deposited by three important Himalayan
river systems i.e. the Indus, the Ganges and 14. (a) The proportion of Tamilians in Sri Lanka's
the Brahmaputra. total population is about 18%. The major social
groups of Sri Lanka are Sinhalese (major ruling
8. (a) An equal distribution of resources is
community) and Srilankan Tamils (majority
essential for a sustained quality of life and
group in Northern territories of Sri Lanka). After
global peace otherwise our planet will be in
Independence, Sinhalese followed several
danger. This can be achieved through
Majoritarian measures to establish Sinhalese
sustainable development and resource
supremacy.
planning.
18. (d) In the HDI, the level of human development
9. (c) The exclusive economic zone is an area of
is conceptualised as having three components
the sea in which a sovereign state has special
that are health, education, and economic
rights regarding the exploration and use of
conditions. Thus, poverty rate is not a
marine resources. This zone gives the benefit
component of HDI.
to the countries to explore their mineral
SAMPLE PAPER 6

wealth and fuels under the sea. 20. (b) Germany was not a United-Nation State
when Fredric Sorrieu painted in 1848. In
10. (c) On the basis of ownership, resources are
Sorrieu’s painting, nations were represented
categorised as national and international
through a group of citizens bearing their
resources. Some resources belong to a
respective nation’s symbols. Germany was
particular nation such as rivers, mountains,
shown reaching towards the Statue of Liberty as
bridges, railway lines etc. Some resources do
a nation but the country was comprised of a
not belong to any particular country such as
group of divided German-speaking
sea and ocean. These are international
principalities in 1848. Germany has attained the
resources.
status of a United Nation state in 1871.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 131

26. (c) The main focus of the Conservatives at the • Tamils felt alienated as the Constitution
Congress of Vienna was to re-establish peace and the government policies denied them
and stability in Europe. equal political rights.
29. (a) Bajra grows well on sandy soils and shallow • There was no representative or political
black soil. Major Bajra producing States were: leader from a Sinhala community that
Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat were sensitive towards Tamil language
and Haryana. and culture.
30. (b) Black soil is mainly found in Gujarat and 39. (d) Following the defeat of Napoleon,
Maharashtra. This soil is considered good for European governments were driven by a
cotton crop i.e. why it is also known as ‘black spirit of conservatism. Conservatives
cotton soil’ or ‘regur soil’. This soil is well known believed that established traditional
for their capacity to hold moisture. institutions of state and society like the
Monarchy, the Church, Social Hierarchies,
32. (d) It is necessary to give space to diverse social
property and the family should be preserved.
groups in the administration of a country to
avoid majoritarianism, accumulation of power in
the hands of a particular social group which Mazzini was a member of the secret society
would lead to social conflicts. called Carbonari. Hence, the given assertion
33. (a) Belgium accommodated its diverse is false and reason is correct.
population by working out an arrangement 42. (b) BMI stands for Body Mass Index. It is
which suited the needs of various communities. calculated by dividing the weight of a person
It was achieved through the following ways in kilograms (kgs) by the square of his/her
• Though the Dutch were in majority in the height in metres. It is an indicator of the level
country, the French and Dutch speaking of nourishment in adults. For a healthy adult,
population was given equal representation in the Body Mass Index should be in the range
the Central government. of 18.5 – 24.9.
• Community government looked after 44. (b) Per Capita Income = Total Income
educational and language issues which was
Total Population = 2.72 trillion
elected by the major linguistic groups.
1.36 trillion = $2000
Thus, here assertion explains the reason
correctly. 45. (a) From the given assertion it becomes clear
that Leela works in an organised sector. The
36. (b) Homogeneous society is a kind of society
firms in organised sector are registered by
which shares a common language, ethnicity and
the government and have to follow its rules
culture. For example, Japan and South Korea.
and regulations which are given in various
37. (d) Local government is the best way to realise laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum
one important principle of democracy, namely Wages Act, Payment of Gratuity Act, etc.
local self-government. It has helped to deepen
democracy in India as it has given a 47. (c) English suppressed the Irish and Scottish
constitutional status to them in 1992 to make the ethnic identities through its political, social
third tier of democracy more powerful and and territorial supremacy and forced them in
effective. Another reason is that it has a Union. Thus, the Unification of Britain was
encouraged local level participation in the achieved through political and social
decision-making which helps to inculcate a habit subjugation of various ethnicities by the
of democratic participation. English.
SAMPLE PAPER 6

38. (c) Following were the reasons responsible for 48. (a) England was a powerful nation and its
the gap between the Sinhala and Tamil world domination was on the basis of the
Communities in Sri Lanka nation’s pride. It had conquered and brought
• Policy of Majoritarinism was followed by the under its imperial control almost
Government of Sri Lanka which only favoured three-fourth of the countries in the world.
the interests of Buddhist Sinhala Community. This boosted its confidence and made it feel
superior enough to subjugate others.
132 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

49. (b) England was a monarchial Kingdom ruled 55. (a) Since the 1990’s, it has been evident that a
by the King who gained the position by large number of workers are losing their jobs
heredity. It is still ruled by a royal family after in the organised sector. The reason behind this
it became a nation-state. Although, it’s real is heavy competition among the multinational
powers are vested with the Parliament. companies with organised sector factories that
51. (c) The Act of Union (1707) between England resulted into closure of organised sector
and Scotland resulted in the formation of the factories and rising unemployment. Thus, here
United Kingdom of Great Britain. By this act, assertion explains the reason correctly.
Scotland was incorporated in England. 56. (a) People working in the organised sector get
53. (a) Hariya’s working hour is more than the fixed job security. They are employed on a
norm of 8 hours. There are no paid leaves or permanent basis. They do not have the fear of
other benefits like medical, pension etc. This losing their jobs suddenly. Other benefits like
means that he is employed in the unorganised insurance, dignity and overtime may or may
sector. not be given.

54. (d) Organised sector is where there is fixed 58. (d) The unorganised sector is characterised by
term of employment, benefits are given to small scattered units which are largely outside
employees and are registered under the control of the government. There is no
government. Post office is an organised sector provision of overtime, paid leave, holidays,
as this sector is in the government control and leave due to sickness, etc. Employment is also
rules are followed properly. not secure.
SAMPLE PAPER 6
133
CBSE Sample Paper English Language & Literature X (Term I)

SAMPLE PAPER 7
SOCIAL SCIENCE
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class X (Term I) Examination

Instructions
(i) The Question Paper contains four sections.
(ii) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(iii) Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
(vi) Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
(v) Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
(vi) Each question carries 0.80 mark.
(vii) There is no negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 40
Roll No. Time allowed : 3 hours

Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)
1. Which of the following is a correct definition of custom barrier?
(a) It is a measure of limiting trade across borders of different cities and principalities.
(b) It is a physical barrier between two cities.
(c) It is a tax collected at railway stations to boost exports.
(d) Custom duties decreased the price of products.

2. Why 1830’s was of great economic hardship in Europe? Identify the correct option from
the following.
(a) Industrial Revolution had created less economic opportunities than expected.
(b) Workers were on the strike hence industries were closed.
(c) Population had risen exponentially and job opportunities were less.
(d) Aristocratic class had snatched the jobs of the workers.
SAMPLE PAPER 7

3. Who founded the revolutionary militia ‘Red Shirt’?


(a) Wilson (b) Tsar Alexander II
(c) Giuseppe Garibaldi (d) Duke Metternich

4. Which of the following was not a condition of Italy before unification?


(a) Political fragmentation
(b) Italy was divided into seven states.
(c) Italy was dominated by UK in 1801.
(d) Italians were scattered over several dynastic rulers.
134 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

5. What did the women do to extend their political rights? Identify from the given
options.
(a) They had formed their own political association.
(b) They had taken part in political meetings and demonstrations.
(c) They had published newspapers.
(d) All of the above

6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in.
(a) Rubber- Assam (b) Pulses- Uttar Pradesh
(c) Jowar- Punjab (d) Rice- West Bengal

7. The First International Earth Summit adopted Agenda 21 to ………… .


Choose the correct option.
(a) Conserve resources (b) Support human activities
(c) Achieve sustainable development (d) Meet future requirements

8. Which of the following statement is correct about Subsistence Farming?


(a) Farmers use mechanised tools and machines.
(b) Farmers use high doses of biochemical inputs.
(c) Farmers use chemical fertilizers, insecticides and pesticides.
(d) Farmers use simple and basic tools and irrigation methods.

9. Why in states like Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in
a year?
(a) These states receive heavy rainfall.
(b) These states have suitable climate for the growth of paddy.
(c) The consumption rate is very high in these states.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

10. Which is the most important plantation crop grown in Karnataka?


(a) Tea (b) Coffee
(c) Rice (d) Banana

11. Why did the Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles in Sri Lanka? Identify
the correct option.
(a) For the recognition of Tamil as an official language.
(b) For regional autonomy.
(c) For equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs.
(d) All of the above

12. In what sense Federations are contrasted with unitary form of government? Identify
the correct option.
SAMPLE PAPER 7

(a) Powers in the federations are not concentrated in single hands but distributed among the
units.
(b) In a federation, the central government can pass orders to the provincial or local
government in an effective manner as compared to Unitary government.
(c) In a federation, state governments are answerable to the central government for every
decision.
(d) In a federation, state government powers are in the hands of central government.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 135

13. Power can be shared in modern democracies among which of the following bodies?
(a) Different organs of the government (b) Governments at different levels
(c) Different social groups (d) All of these

14. Who presides over the meetings of Municipal Corporations?


(a) District Magistrate (b) Mayor
(c) Deputy Mayor (d) Governor

15. Which of the following institutions has been created in each state to conduct Panchayat
and Municipal elections?
(a) State Election Commission (b) Local Election Commission
(c) Regional Election Commission (d) Town Area Committee

16. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the Panchayat Samiti in India?
(a) Panchayat Samiti at the block level is an advisory body.
(b) Panchayat Samiti at the block level is an administrative body.
(c) Panchayat Samiti at the block level is a consultant committee.
(d) Panchayat Samiti at the block level is a coordinating and supervisory authority.

17. How many countries in the world have adopted Federal Political System? Identify the
correct option.
(a) 23 (b) 25 (c) 33 (d) 45

18. Which of the following is a solution to prevent groundwater overuse?


(a) Use river water for domestic usage (b) Rainwater harvesting
(c) No usage of groundwater (d) All of these

19. Which of the following countries is the largest producer of Horticulture crops?
(a) India (b) China (c) Sri Lanka (d) Japan

20. Basic services like health, education and infrastructure usually comes under public
sector. The reason is …………… .
(a) It need better management (b) It require timely updation
(c) It require equal and quality distribution (d) These are profit earning areas

21. Which of the following measures were taken by the Government under
Comprehensive land development programme?
(a) Institutional and Technical Reforms
(b) Crop Insurance against drought, flood, etc.
(c) Establishment of Grameen Banks and Cooperative Societies.
(d) All of the above

22. Barley, peas, gram, wheat and mustard are examples of which of the following
SAMPLE PAPER 7

cropping season?
(a) Kharif season (b) Zaid Season (c) Rabi season (d) All of these

23. Which sector of activities can be the most commonly found in semi-rural areas?
(a) Tertiary sector (b) Primary sector
(c) Secondary sector (d) Both (a) and (b)

24. How much percentage of forest area is desired in a geographical area to maintain
ecological balance as outlined in the National Forest Policy?
(a) 25% (b) 33% (c) 35% (d) 45%
136 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions)
25. Following image represents the Republic of France and became popular in 1850.
Identify the given image by choosing the correct option.

(a) Caricature of Otto van Bismarck (b) Picture of Germania


(c) Postage Stamp with a picture of Marianne (d) A poster of Marianne

26. Which of the following option/s is/are correct regarding the various developments
which happened in the wake of the fleeing of Louis Philippe in the year 1848?
(i) National Assembly was proclaimed a republic.
(ii) National Workshops were set-up to provide employment.
(iii) Suffrage to all women.
(iv) Right to work was guaranteed
Options
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)

27. Which of the following terms best describes the situation when an abstract idea like
greed or envy is expressed through a person or a thing?
(a) Suffrage (b) Allegory
(c) Alliance (d) Treaty

28. Which of the following powers was not interested in Balkan region? Identify from the
given options.
(a) England (b) Germany (c) Japan (d) Russia

29. Identify the crop with the help of given clues.


• These crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer
from April to June.
SAMPLE PAPER 7

• Examples of these crops include wheat, barley, etc.


(a) Rabi crops (b) Kharif crops
(c) Zaid crops (d) Cash crops

30. Why paddy has recently become an important crop in Punjab and Haryana? Identify
the reason from the given options.
(a) Farm sizes in these states are typically large.
(b) These states have extensive irrigation facilities.
(c) These states practice farming based on scientific methods.
(d) All of the above
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 137

31. Consider the following statements with respect to Residuary subjects and select the
answer using the codes given below.
(i) It includes subjects of national importance.
(ii) These subjects came up after the Constitution came into effect.
(iii) Only Union Government has the power to legislate on these subjects.
Options
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these

32. How Panchayati Raj establishes true democracy?


(a) It restores power to the only place where power belongs in a democracy in the hands of
the people.
(b) Giving power to Panchayats is also a way to reduce corruption and increase
administrative efficiency.
(c) It helps to make country corruption free.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Constitutional provisions are necessary for the success of federalism.
Reason (R) The spirit of federalism, respect for diversity and desire for living together
became a shared ideal in our country.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

34. Which among the following was chosen as the headquarters of the European Union?
(a) London (b) Brussels
(c) Zurich (d) Frankfurt

35. Match the following items given in Column (A) with those in Column (B).
Column A (Crops) Column B (Areas)
A. Sugarcane 1. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
B. Rice 2. Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
C. Millets 3. Bihar and Punjab
D. Maize 4. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar

Codes
SAMPLE PAPER 7

A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 4 1 3

36. Which of the following reasons of Power sharing stress that power sharing will bring
out better outcomes? Identify the correct option:
(a) Moral (b) Prudential
(c) Legitimate (d) Political
138 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

37. Which of the following statement/s is correct pertaining to the tenure of Panchayat?
(i) The tenure of Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of its first meeting.
(ii) The tenure of Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of declaration of
election results.
(iii) The tenure of Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of taking oath of office
by the elected members.
(iv) The tenure of Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of notification for the
conduct of elections to the Panchayat.
Options
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii) (c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (iv)
38. Which of the following states violently demanded the use of English language for
official purpose? Identify from the given options.
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Karnataka (d) Andhra Pradesh

39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) A state has a per capita income of ` 2,25,000 per annum. The infant
mortality rate in the state is 62%. So, the state can’t be considered a developed state.
Reason (R) There are medical facilities in the state, but people fail to take their children
to the hospital on time.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
40. Find the incorrect pair from the given lists.
List I List II
(a) Frederic Sorrieu A French Artist
(b) Bismarck Unification of Germany
(c) Lord Byron An English Poet
(d) Karol Karpinski A Scottish Music Composer

41. Read the data given in the following table and answer the given question.
Monthly income of citizens
Country
Group I Group II Group III Group IV Group V Average income
Country A 9000 10000 8000 11000 12500 ?
Country B 5000 4000 6800 5050 29650 ?
SAMPLE PAPER 7

Country C 2000 1600 3500 3000 10000 ?

Which country has more equitable distribution of income?


(a) Country A (b) Country B
(c) Country C (d) Both Country A and Country B
42. Raman’s weight is 79kgs and his height is 1.54 meters. In which category can we place
him from the following options?
(a) Underweight (b) Normal weight
(c) Overweight (d) Obesity
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 139

43. Which among the following options is called as intermediate goods?


(a) Goods and services that finally reach to the consumers.
(b) Goods and services that intermediately reach to the consumers.
(c) Goods that are used in the production of final goods and services.
(d) Goods that are used initially to produce a material.

44. Which of the following is correct option for classification on the basis of nature of activity?
(a) Organised and Unorganised sector.
(b) Primary sector, Secondary sector and Tertiary sector
(c) Public and Private sector
(d) Agriculture and Industrial sector

45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Human beings interact with nature through technology and create
institutions to accelerate their economic development.
Reason (R) Resources are essential for human development.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
46. A man is employed on a corn farm where he does not have much manual work. He
solely works on the farm every day. Of which type of employment is this an example?
(a) Disguised Employment (b) Seasonal Employment
(c) Over Employment (d) Cyclical Employment

Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions
in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section)
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year
provides the total production of the sector for that year. And the sum of production in the
three sectors gives what is called the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country. It is the
value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year. GDP
shows how big the economy is. In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken
by a central government ministry. This Ministry, with the help of various government
departments of all the Indian States and Union Territories, collects information relating to total
volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP.
SAMPLE PAPER 7

47. Which of the following is considered essential for calculating Gross Domestic Product
of a country? Identify the correct option.
(a) Value of all goods and service (b) Value of final goods and intermediate service
(c) Value of final goods and service (d) Value of intermediate goods and final service

48. When people from villages come to urban areas in search of work then there is ……… .
(a) shift from secondary to service sector (b) shift primary to secondary sector
(c) shift from primary to tertiary sector (d) Both (b) and (c)
140 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

49. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Rakesh is an educated and skilled worker who earns a high monthly
salary as he is employed in a private bank in a city.
Reason (R) All service sectors in India are growing extremely well and each individual
is engaged in any kind of tertiary activity earns a high income.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

50. Which of the following should be added to find out the GDP of a country?
(a) Buying of flour to make biscuits (b) Sale of jute to jute mills
(c) Payment made to doctor (d) All of these

51. The value of which work is added in the calculation of GDP?


(a) Housewives' works (b) A teacher teaching his own child
(c) The value of resale of old shares (d) Construction of new house by an artisan

52. The task of measuring GDP is undertaken by which of the following level of
government?
(a) Central Government (b) State Government
(c) Local Government (d) Both (a) and (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
It was among the educated, liberal middle classes that ideas of national unity following the
abolition of aristocratic privileges gained popularity.
Ideas of national unity in early-19th century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of
liberalism. The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber, meaning free. For the new
middle classes liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the
law. Politically, it emphasised the concept of government by consent. Since the French
Revolution, liberalism had stood for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution
and representative government through Parliament. Nineteenth century liberals also stressed
the inviolability of private property.
Yet, equality before the law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage. You will recall
that in revolutionary France, which marked the first political experiment in liberal democracy,
the right to vote and to get elected was granted exclusively to property-owning men.
53. Which of the following does not stand for liberalism?
SAMPLE PAPER 7

(a) Equality before the law (b) Government by consent


(c) Freedom of the Individual (d) The citizen should not have right to property
54. Which country is considered as the pioneer of liberal democracy?
(a) Italy (b) Germany
(c) France (d) Poland

55. Which of the following is true with respect to the 19th century spirit of nationalism?
(a) Universal suffrage (b) End of autocracy
(c) Right to vote to all sections of the society (d) Both (a) and (b)
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 141

56. Which of the following feature of liberalism is not true as per the French Revolution?
(a) Representative government (b) End of clerical privileges
(c) Unified economy (d) End of autocracy
57. Which was a major result of the French Revolution? Identify from the given options.
(i) The king was restored to unlimited power.
(ii) The clergy dominated government.
(iii) The middle class gained political influence.
(iv) The tax burden was carried by the lower classes.
Codes
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Only (iii) (c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) Both (iii) (iv)
58. What does liberalism stand in the economic sphere? Select the best suitable option with
reference to the above context.
(a) Freedom of markets
(b) Control over markets
(c) Heavily taking goods sold in the markets
(d) Imposition of restrictions on the movement of goods across territories

Section D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-60) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the
help of specified information.

B
SAMPLE PAPER 7

59. In the given map a region/area has been marked as ‘A’. Identify the dam located in the
region and choose the correct option.
(a) Rana Pratap Sagar dam (b) Bhakra Nangal dam
(c) Tungabhadra dam (d) Hirakund dam
60. In the given map a crop growing region/area has been marked as ‘B’. Identify the crop
and choose the correct option.
(a) Jute (b) Cotton (c) Rubber (d) Sugarcane
OMR SHEET SP 7
Roll No.

Student Name Sub Code.

Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid gel & fountain pens for filling the sheets.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.

1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60

Check Your Performance


Total Questions: Total Correct Questions
Score Percentage = × 100
Total Correct Questions: Total Questions

Less than 60% > Average (Revise the Chapters again)


If Your Score is Greater than 60% but less than 75% > Good (Do more practice)
Above 75% > Excellent (Keep it on)
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 143

Answers
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (c)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (a) Custom barrier is a measure of limiting type of farming is carried out by the small
trade across borders of different cities and farmers on small patches of land with the help
principalities. Custom barrier is a limiting of primitive tools. Land productivity is low as
influence or limit placed upon trade or the farmer does not use fertilizers or other
business to regulate it. modern inputs.
3. (c) Giuseppe Garibaldi founded the 10. (b) Karnataka is the major producer of Coffee.
revolutionary militia ‘Red Shirt’. Other areas of coffee plantation include Nilgiri
In 1854, he supported Victor Emmanuel II in Hills in Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
his efforts to unify the Italian states. In 1860, 11. (d) The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties
Garibaldi led the famous Expedition of the and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an
Thousand to South Italy. Fresh volunteers kept official language, for regional autonomy and
joining through the course of the campaign, till equality of opportunity in securing education
their numbers grew to about 30,000. They were and jobs.
popularly known as Red Shirts. 12. (a) Federations are contrasted with unitary
4. (c) Italy was not dominated by UK in 1801. governments on several basis like
Conditions of Italy before its unification are • In the Unitary system, either there is only
discussed below one level of government or the sub-units are
• It was fragmented into several political subordinate to the central government. But
units. in a federal system, the central government
• Italians were scattered over several dynastic cannot order the state to do something.
states as well as the multi-national Habsburg Powers in the federations are not
Empire. concentrated in single hands but it is
• During the middle of the 19th century, Italy distributed among different units.
was divided into seven states. • State government has powers of its own for
• The Italian language had not acquired one which it is not answerable to the central
common form. It still had many regional and government. Both these governments are
local variations. separately answerable to the people.

6. (b) Major pulse producing states in India are 13. (d) In modern democracies, power sharing
Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, arrangements can take many forms that are
Maharashtra and Karnataka. discussed below
SAMPLE PAPER 7

• Power is shared among different organs of


7. The First International Earth Summit adopted
government, such as the legislature,
Agenda 21 to achieve sustainable
executive and judiciary.
development. Agenda 21 is a declaration
• Power can be shared among governments at
signed at the United Nations Conference on
Environment and Development (UNCED) in different levels – a general government for
1992. It aims to combat environmental damage, the entire country and governments at the
poverty, disease through global co-operation, provincial or regional level.
etc. • Power may also be shared among different
social groups, such as the religious and
8. (d) In Subsistence Farming, farmers use simple
linguistic groups.
and basic tools and irrigation methods. This
144 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

14. (b) Mayor presides over the meetings of • National Workshop were set up to provide
Municipal Corporations. He/she is the head of employment.
the Municipal Corporation. The Mayor is the 29. (a) Rabi crops are sown in winter from October
first citizen of the city and is elected by the to December and harvested in summer from
members of Municipal Corporation for the April to June. Some of the important Rabi crops
tenure of five years. are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard.
16. (d) A Panchayat Samiti at the block level in 33. (b) Constitutional provisions are necessary for
India is only a coordinating and supervisory the success of federalism but these are not
authority. Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRI) is a sufficient. If the Federal experiment has
system of rural local government in India. PRI succeeded in India, it is not merely because of
was constitutionalised in 1992 to build the clearly laid out constitutional provisions.
democracy at the grassroots level and was The real success of federalism in India can be
entrusted with the task of rural development attributed to the nature of democratic politics
in the country. in our country.
17. (b) There are only 25 of the world’s 193 This ensured that the spirit of federalism,
countries that have federal political systems. respect for diversity and desire for living
20. (c) Basic services like health, education and together became a shared ideal in our country.
infrastructure usually come under public Hence, both assertion and reason are true but
sector as these services require equal and reason is not the correct explanation of
quality distribution. Activities under these assertion.
services are the primary responsibility of the 39. (c) Here, the assertion is true while the reason
government so that the poor section of the is false because if the parents are earning well
society is also benefitted. and medical facilities are available, then they
21. (d) In the 1980’s and 1990’s, a comprehensive would definitely take their child for timely
treatment. Also, some parents may fail to do
land development programme was initiated,
so; it is further responsible for high infant
which included both institutional and technical
mortality rate.
reforms. Provision for crop insurance against
drought, flood, cyclone, fire and disease, 40. (d) Karol Karpinski was a Polish music
establishment of Grameen Banks, cooperative composer. He celebrated the national struggle
societies and banks for loan facilities to the of Poland through his operas and music,
farmers at lower interests were some turning folk dances like the polonaise and
important steps in this direction. mazurka into nationalist symbols.

22. (c) Barley, peas, gram, wheat and mustard are 45. (a) Resources help us develop economically
examples of Rabi cropping season. Rabi crops and they are essential for human development.
are sown in winter from October to December All economic activities are dependent on
and harvested in summer from April to June. resources. Hence, it is through institutions like
factories, organisations, etc. that humans are
24. (b) Forest area in the country is far lower than able to exploit and use natural resources.
the desired 33% of geographical area, as it was
47. (c) In the calculation of the GDP of a country,
outlined in the National Forest Policy (1952). It
only the value of final goods and services are
was considered essential for maintenance of
added. Value of intermediate goods i.e. the
the ecological balance. goods or services that acts as a raw material is
26. (a) In 1848, population of Paris revolted due to not added.
SAMPLE PAPER 7

food shortage and widespread unemployment. 48. (d) Both (b) and (c) statements are correct.
Barricades were erected and Louis Philippe People in the rural areas are mostly engaged in
was forced to flee. As a result, various agriculture and related activities like animal
developments took place in the wake of the husbandry, fishing, forestry, mining etc.
fleeing of Louis Philippe that are:
• A National Assembly was proclaimed a
All these activities are classified under primary
activity. When these people come to the cities
republic and granted suffrage to the adult
then they take up small jobs either in the
males above 21 years and guaranteed them
secondary sector or tertiary sector.
the right to work.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 145

49. In India, entire service sector is not growing But giving fees to a doctor is a final service and
equally well. Service sector in India employs hence it should be added in the calculation of
many different kinds of people. At one end, the GDP.
there are limited number of services that 51. (d) The value of the construction of a new
employ skilled and educated workers. On the house is added in the calculation of the GDP
other hand, there are very large number of because it is a new production work in the
workers who are engaged in services like economy.
small shopkeepers, repair persons, etc. These
people barely manage to earn a living and yet 57. (b) One of the major results of the French
they perform these services because no Revolution is that the middle class has gained
alternative opportunities are available to political influence. French Revolution led to the
them. Hence, the given reason didn’t justify establishment of a democratic government for
the assertion. the first time in Europe. Feudalism as an
institution was buried by the Revolution and
50. (c) Payment made to a doctor should be added the Church and the clergy were brought under
to find out the GDP of a country. In the GDP, state control.
the value of only final goods is added
otherwise that will lead to a problem of 58. (a) In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for
double counting. Buying of flour by a biscuit the freedom of markets and the abolition of
factory or buying of raw jute by a jute mill is state-imposed restrictions on the movement of
part of the raw material. These are goods and capital. During the 19th century, this
intermediate goods since further production was a strong demand of the emerging middle
on them is needed. classes.

SAMPLE PAPER 7
146
CBSE Sample Paper English Class X (Term I)

SAMPLE PAPER 8
SOCIAL SCIENCE
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class X (Term I) Examination

Instructions
(i) The Question Paper contains four sections.
(ii) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(iii) Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
(vi) Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
(v) Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
(vi) Each question carries 0.80 mark.
(vii) There is no negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 40
Roll No. Time allowed : 3 hours

Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)
1. Who ruled France in 1830’s and was forced to flee after unemployment caused workers
to revolt on roads?
(a) King Emmanuel II (b) King William I
(c) King Louis Philippe (d) King Wilhelm

2. The main purpose of the Congress of Vienna (1815) was related to which of the
following?
(a) Return Europe to the conditions that existed before the French Revolution.
(b) Establish strategies needed to rebuild Turkey's economy.
(c) Create a European Court of Justice.
(d) Promote the ideas of the French Revolution.

3. The Polish state Poland was partitioned among which of the following countries?
SAMPLE PAPER 8

(a) Russia, Germany and Prussia (b) Germany, Austria and Prussia
(c) Russia, Prussia and Austria (d) None of these

4. What does Liberalism meant to the new middle classes?


(a) Economic freedom
(b) Freedom of the individual and equality of all before law
(c) End of aristocracy
(d) New political rights
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 147

5. Identify the inhabitants of Balkan region from the given options.


(a) Welsh (b) Scot
(c) Slavs (d) Irish

6. Find the incorrect pair.


(a) Biotic resources On the basis of origin
(b) Continuous resources Renewable resources
(c) Renewable resources On the basis of status of development
(d) Non- renewable resources On the basis of exhaustibility

7. Metals, rocks, water, air, soil, sunlight and minerals etc come in the category of ……… .
(a) Biotic resources (b) Abiotic resources
(c) Community owned resources (d) Individual resources

8. Red soil is mostly found in which of the following regions?


(a) Upper Ganga Plains
(b) Parts of Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Eastern and Southern part of Deccan Plateau
(d) Piedmont Zone of Western Ghats

9. Tea in Assam is a plantation crop, while Rice in Odisha is an example of which type of
crop?
(a) Primitive Subsistence Crop (b) Commercial Crop
(c) Subsistence Crop (d) Plantation Crop

10. An oilseed grown in India which accounts for almost half of the major oilseeds
produced in the country. Identify from the given options.
(a) Coconut (b) Groundnut
(c) Castor (d) Mustard

11. Which among the following language is not recognised in the Eighth Schedule of the
Indian Constitution?
(a) Sanskrit (b) Kashmiri
(c) English (d) Sindhi

12. Which of the following states were made to recognise differences based on language or
ethnicity?
(a) Bihar (b) Goa
(c) Rajasthan (d) Nagaland

13. Which of the following is not a feature of Indian Federation? Identify from the given
options.
(a) Written Constitution (b) Dual Citizenship
SAMPLE PAPER 8

(c) Supremacy of the Constitution (d) Distribution of Powers

14. Which of the following ways help to strengthen federalism in India?


(a) Efficient Administration (b) Strong Union Government
(c) Restructuring of Centre-State Relations (d) None of these

15. In which year the amendment in the Indian Constitution was made that led the third
tier of democracy more effective and powerful?
(a) 1990 (b) 1992
(c) 1994 (d) 1995
148 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

16. What led to a new culture of power sharing and respect for the autonomy of state
government in India after 1990?
(a) Rise of National Parties
(b) Rise of common programmes
(c) Promotion of majoritarian measures
(d) Formation of coalition governments

17. If power is not shared then it will result into which of the following outcomes?
(a) Peace among all the communities.
(b) Tyranny of the majority and oppression of the minority.
(c) Negation of the very spirit of democracy.
(d) Both (b) and (c)

18. Which of the following processes are involved in the Resource planning process?
Identify the correct option.
(a) Evolving a planning structure with suitable technology.
(b) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country.
(c) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.
(d) All of the above

19. Which of the following crops requires moist and humid climate with rainfall of more
than 200 cm and temperature above 25 degree Celsius? Identify the correct option.
(a) Jute (b) Rice
(c) Rubber (d) Wheat

20. It is a food security programme under which government provide food grains and
other essential items to the poor at an affordable price. Which of the following term is
highlighted in the given statement?
(a) Food for Work Programme (b) Public Distribution System
(c) Green Revolution (d) Both (a) and (b)

21. Which among the following is responsible for land degradation?


(a) Mineral processing (b) Afforestation
(c) Industrialisation (d) Both (a) and (c)

22. Identify the region in which ‘Lichi and Guava’ are mainly found.
(a) Mizoram and Maharashtra (b) Meghalaya and Mizoram
(c) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar (d) Telangana and Andhra Pradesh

23. Which of the following is an example of cultivable wasteland?


(a) Gross Cropped Area (b) Barren Wasteland
(c) Current Fallow Land (d) Uncultivable Land
SAMPLE PAPER 8

24. Which of the following is true about non-renewable resources?


(a) These are found in abundance on the earth.
(b) These can be replenished after 2-3 years.
(c) These resource may further be divided into continuous or flow.
(d) These resources take millions of years in their formation.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 149

Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 Questions)
25. Following image is a caricature of which personality in the German Reichstag
(Parliament) from Figaro, Vienna. Identify.

(a) King Victor Emmanuel II (b) Otto von Bismarck


(c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Giuseppe Garibaldi

26. Why was Otto von Bismarck considered as the chief architect of German unification?
Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) He alliance with Italy and France for unification process.
(b) He carried out the nation- building process with Army and the Bureaucracy.
(c) He carried along with Liberalist and Romantic scholars for cultural movement.
(d) He granted autonomy to Prussia with Conservatives.

27. Who was appointed as the head of Constitutional Monarchy in France by liberals after
the July Upheaval of 1830? Identify from the given options.
(a) Louis Philippe (b) William I
(c) Friedrich Wilhelm IV (d) Otto von Bismarck

28. In which year the Habsburg rulers granted more autonomy to the Hungarians?
(a) 1850 (b) 1857
(c) 1867 (d) 1868

29. Identify the soil with the help of given clues


• It is acidic in nature.
• It is rich in Iron.
• It is found in Hills summits of Eastern, Western Ghats and Assam Hills.
(a) Red soil (b) Laterite soil
SAMPLE PAPER 8

(c) Black soil (d) Alluvial soil

30. Which of the following resources are renewable but excessively used?
(a) Air (b) Solar Energy
(c) Wind Energy (d) Trees
150 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

31. Read the following statements and choose the correct code.
A. In a federation, the powers of the federal and provincial governments are clearly
demarcated.
B. India is a federation because the powers of the Union and State Governments are
specified in the Constitution and they have exclusive jurisdiction on their
respective subjects.
C. Sri Lanka is a federation because the country is divided into provinces.
D. India is no longer a federation because some powers of the states have been
devolved to the local government bodies.
Codes
(a) Only A (b) Both A and B
(c) Only C (d) Both C and D

32. What kind of change took place in 1993 in Belgium? Identify the correct option.
(a) The Constitutional Powers were taken away from regional governments and were given
to the Central government.
(b) The regional governments were given constitutional powers that were no longer
dependent on the Central government.
(c) The regional governments were given constitutional powers that were co-dependent
with Central government.
(d) The Constitutional powers were completely taken away from the Central government
and were given to the majority community.

33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (A) Community Government in Belgium is elected by one language
community.
Reason (R) Community Government helped in resolving conflict between different
linguistic groups.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

34. Match the following.


List I List II
A. Highest Per Capita Income 1. Bihar
B. Highest Literacy Rate 2. Haryana
C. Highest Infant Mortality Rate 3. Kerala
SAMPLE PAPER 8

Codes
A B C A B C
(a) 2 3 1 (b) 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 (d) 2 1 3

35. What kind of difficulties is evident in the local self-government? Identify the correct
option from the given options.
(i) Increased women’s participation.
(ii) Gram Sabhas are not held regularly.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 151

(iii) Lack of adequate resources provided to the rural level government.


(iv) Elections are held regularly at the local level.
(v) State governments have not transferred significant powers to the local
governments.
Options
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (v) (d) (iii), (iv) and (v)

36. Identify the local government body of Indian federal system with the help of following
information.
• Acts as a link between the Panchayat and the Block Samitis.
• Advises the State government on the working of the Panchayati Raj system.
Select the appropriate option from the following:
(a) Gram Sabha (b) Block Samiti
(c) Zila Parishad (d) Municipal Corporation

37. Pokharan, the place where India conducted its nuclear tests, lies in Rajasthan. Suppose
the Government of Rajasthan was opposed to the Central Government’s nuclear policy,
could it prevent the Government of India from conducting the nuclear tests? Identify
the reason from the given options.
(a) Yes, the state government could prevent it as Defence is a subject of State List.
(b) No, the state government could not prevent the Central government from conducting the
nuclear tests because ‘Defence’ is the subject of Union List and nuclear tests are the part
of the Defence.
(c) Yes, the state government could prevent it as conducting nuclear tests is a subject of
Concurrent List.
(d) No, the state government could not prevent the Central government as conducting
nuclear tests in any state is legally valid.

38. Which of the following soils supports the crop of Bajra?


(a) Red soil (b) Alluvial soil (c) Black soil (d) Yellow soil

39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (A) GDP (Gross Domestic Product) shows how big the economy is.
Reason (R) GDP of a country is the value of all intermediate goods and services
produced within a country during a particular year.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
SAMPLE PAPER 8

(d) A is false, but R is true.

40. Choose the correctly matched option.


List I List II
(a) Sinhala-speakers 80 %
(b) Tamil- speakers 18%
(c) Dutch-speakers 74%
(d) French- speakers 20%
152 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

41. Analyse the table given below and answer the question that follows.
The source shows a database of workers employed in different sectors (in millions)
Sector Unorganised Organised Total
Primary 200 2 202
Secondary 50 5 55
Tertiary 80 20 100
Total 330 27 357
Total in % 100%

Calculate the percentage of people in an organised sector.


(a) 10% (b) 9.6%
(c) 7.6% (d) 8.4%

42. Ram weight is 98 kgs and his height is 165 cm. Find out his Body Mass Index (BMI)
from the following options:
(a) 18.5 (b) 15.2
(c) 36.0 (d) 25.0

43. Which of the following provision makes NREGA as the Right to Work?
(a) Increase in land productivity has been given preference.
(b) If the government fails to provide employment, it will give unemployment allowance.
(c) This Act has been spread to all the districts in the country.
(d) All of the above

44. Which of the following types of activities are covered in the Secondary sector?
(a) Goods are produced by exploiting natural resources.
(b) It includes agriculture, forestry and dairy.
(c) Natural products are changed through manufacturing.
(d) It generates services rather than goods.

45. Which of the following would be an ideal goal for the multinational company?
(i) More Money.
(ii) To get rid of its waste without having to pay for its disposal.
(iii) More Profit.
(iv) More Employees.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

46. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct code.
SAMPLE PAPER 8

Assertion (A) In a democracy, people are the source of all political power.
Reason (R) This is because democracy is rule of the people, for the people, by the
people.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 153

Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions
in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section)
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. France, as
you would remember, was a full-fledged territorial state in 1789 under the rule of an absolute
monarch. The political and constitutional changes that came in the wake of the French
Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens.
The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation
and shape its destiny. From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various
measures and practices that could create a sense of collective identity amongst the French
people. The ideas la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (The citizen) emphasised the notion of
a united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution. A new French flag, the
tricolour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard. The Estates General was elected by
the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly. New hymns were composed,
oaths taken and martyrs commemorated, all in the name of the nation. A centralised
administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within
its territory. Internal customs duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights
and measures was adopted. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken
and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation.
47. What were the effects of the political and constitutional changes after the French
Revolution?
(a) Transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens.
(b) Transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to the French Government.
(c) Transfer of sovereignty from a body of French citizens to the monarchy.
(d) Transfer of sovereignty from the body of the French citizens to the French Constitution.
48. Which of the following is an example of an unlimited government? Identify from the
given option.
(a) Absolute Monarchy (b) Constitutional Monarchy
(c) Anarchy (d) Democracy

49. Which system formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory? Choose the
correct option.
(i) Centralised Administrative System (ii) Decentralised Administrative System
(iii) La patrie and Le citoyen (iv) Constitutional Monarchy
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Only (iii) (d) Only (iv)
SAMPLE PAPER 8

50. Who was elected by the body of active citizens? Choose the correct option.
(a) La Patrie (b) La citoyen
(c) Jacobians (d) The Estates General

51. Why were the Regional dialects discouraged? Identify the reason from the given options.
(a) To bring sovereignty to a body of French citizens.
(b) To create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people.
(c) To replace the former royal standard.
(d) To commemorate the martyrs.
154 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

52. Who were the backbone of the revolutionary movement in France?


(a) Clergy (b) Peasants
(c) Nobles (d) Workers and Artisans
Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
How is it that the average person in Haryana has more income than the average person in
Kerala but lags behind in these crucial areas? The reason is — money in your pocket cannot
buy all the goods and services that you may need to live well. So, income by itself is not a
completely adequate indicator of material goods and services that citizens are able to use. For
example, normally, your money cannot buy you a pollution-free environment or ensure that
you get unadulterated medicines, unless you can afford to shift to a community that already
has all these things. Money may also not be able to protect you from infectious diseases,
unless the whole of your community takes preventive steps.
Actually for many of the important things in life the best way, also the cheapest way, is to
provide these goods and services collectively. Just think – will it be cheaper to have collective
security for the whole locality or for each house to have its own security staff? What if no one,
other than you, in your village or locality is interested in studying? Would you be able to
study? Not unless your parents could afford to send you to some private school elsewhere. So
you are actually able to study because many other children also want to study and because
many people believe that the government should open schools and provide other facilities so
that all children have a chance to study. Even now, in many areas, children, particularly girls,
are not able to go to high school because the government/ society has not provided adequate
facilities.
53. Find the correct match from the following. High infant mortality rate, High income,
High public facilities.
(a) Haryana High public facilities
(b) Kerala High infant mortality rate
(c) Bihar High literacy rate
(d) Haryana High income

54. Arun who is a farmer has sent his son to a city to get his higher studies. Why do you
think he prefers to send him so far from his house?
(a) No security in his village. (b) Lack of money or income.
(c) Lack of good institutes in his village. (d) None of these

55. Which among the following is considered as public service or facilities? Choose the
correct option.
(a) Income (b) Access to public places
(c) Government schools (d) Both (b) and (c)
SAMPLE PAPER 8

56. Which of the following is incorrect statement/s about money?


(i) Money can be used to buy health facilities.
(ii) Money is needed for pollution free atmosphere.
(iii) Good education can be purchased through money.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) Both (i) and (iii)
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 155

57. Apart from good health, what is needed for earning adequate income?
(a) Education (b) Skill
(c) Employment opportunity (d) All of these

58. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (A) A high average income is not indicative of the overall or human
development in a country.
Reason (R) Average income does not cover indicators like level of literacy rate, health
facilities in a country.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

Section D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-60) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the
help of specified information.

59. In the given map a region/area has been marked as ‘A’. Identify the dam located in the
SAMPLE PAPER 8

region and choose the correct option.


(a) Salal Dam (b) Tehri Dam
(c) Tungabhadra Dam (d) Hirakud Dam

60. In the given map a region/area has been marked as ‘B’. Identify the soil of this region
and choose the correct option.
(a) Red and Yellow soil (b) Laterite soil
(c) Alluvial soil (d) Forest and Mountainous soil
OMR SHEET SP 8
Roll No.

Student Name Sub Code.

Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid gel & fountain pens for filling the sheets.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.

1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60

Check Your Performance


Total Questions: Total Correct Questions
Score Percentage = × 100
Total Correct Questions: Total Questions

Less than 60% > Average (Revise the Chapters again)


If Your Score is Greater than 60% but less than 75% > Good (Do more practice)
Above 75% > Excellent (Keep it on)
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 157

Answers
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (d)
51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (d)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (c) King Louis Philippe had to flee when the 11. (c) English is the language which is the official
revolutions started getting more frequent and language of a state but is still not recognised in
violent in nature. He ruled France till 1848. the 8th Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. (a) The main purpose of the Congress of The Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution
Vienna (1815) was to return Europe to the includes 22 languages. These languages have
conditions that existed before the French been adopted as the official languages by most
Revolution. It wanted to restore the of the states.
monarchies that had been overthrown by 12. (d) Some states were not created on the basis of
Napoleon and create a new conservative order language. They were recognised by differences
in Europe. based on culture, ethnicity and geography.
3. (c) On 15th August, 1772, Russia, Prussia and These included states like Nagaland,
Austria signed a treaty that partitioned Poland. Uttarakhand and Jharkhand.
The partitions were conducted by the 13. (b) The feature of dual citizenship is not a
Habsburg Monarchy, the Kingdom of Prussia feature of Indian federation. In India, only single
and the Russian Empire, which divided up the citizenship is available to the citizens. Federal
Commonwealth lands among themselves features of Indian federation comprises of
progressively in the process of territorial • Government at two or more levels- centre,
seizures and annexations. states and local level.
6. (c) Renewable resources are those resources • Division of powers between the Centre and
that can be easily replenished or refilled. They states as per the three lists given in the
can be classified on the basis of exhaustibility. Indian Constitution.
But on the basis of status of development, • The Constitution provides for an
resources can be classified into potential, independent and integrated judiciary.
developed, stock or reserve resources.
17. (d) If power is not shared among the
7. (b) Abiotic resources are the resources that are governments then it will result into tyranny of
natural but do not have life in them. Metals, the majority and oppression of the minority
rocks, water, air, soil, sunlight and minerals all community as well as it will negate the very
come in the category of abiotic resources. spirit of democracy in a democratic system.
8. (d) Yellow and Red soils are also found in 21. (d) Some of the causes of land degradation
parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Southern parts include Mining and Quarrying, water logging
of the middle Ganga Plain and along the due to over irrigation, overgrazing, Mineral
SAMPLE PAPER 8

Piedmont Zone of Western Ghats. processing, Industrialisation causing


9. (c) Rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and retardation of water infiltration into the soil.
Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a subsistence crop. 33. (a) The Belgium citizens elect the community
In Odisha, the soil is mostly loamy or sandy government in Belgium. Community
and rice cannot be grown on a large extent that government is elected by people belonging to
is the reason rice is only a subsistence crop. one language community – Dutch, French and
10. (b) Groundnut is a Kharif crop and accounts German-speaking – no matter where they live.
for about half of the major oilseeds produced This government has the power regarding
in the country. cultural, educational and language-related
issues.
158 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

Power may also be shared among different The French revolutionaries discouraged regional
social groups such as the religious and dialect and encouraged the use of
linguistic groups. French language as the common language of the
This method is used to give minority nation.
communities a fair share in power. 52. (d) The working class that includes Artisans and
35. (c) There are many difficulties that are workers were considered as the backbone of the
evident at the local level governance like revolutionary movement in France. The course
• Elections are held regularly but Gram of European history was changed with the
Sabhas are not conducted regularly. incident when working class radicals stormed
• Most State governments have not the Bastille Prison on 4th July, 1789.
transferred significant powers to the local This even is considered as the beginning of the
governments nor they have given adequate French Revolution and the demise of a system
resources. of rule by hereditary monarchies throughout
39. (c) GDP is the total sum of the values of all Europe.
final goods and services produced by all 53. (d) Haryana- high income is the correct match.
sectors within a country during a particular There is no adequate public facilities in
year. It indicates how developed and Haryana, the state of Kerala has low infant
successful an economy is. Hence, Assertion mortality rate and in Bihar, the literacy level is
(A) is true, but R is not correct. not high.
40. (b) Sri Lanka has a diverse population with 54. (c) Lack of good institutions; there is lack of
74% Sinhala-speakers and 18% public facilities as provision of good educational
Tamil-speakers. On the other hand, in facilities is public facility that should be
Belgium, out of the total population of the provided by the state. If children have to go to
country, 59% live in the Flemish region and other places to study then there is lack of public
speak Dutch language. Other 40% people live facilities.
in the Wallonia region and speak French. 55. (d) Access to public places like parks, roads,
x footpaths, beaches, railway stations, bus
41. (c) Percentage of x = ´ 100
Total terminus etc. are the public facilities that are
27 provided by the government. Provision of
= ´ 100
357 school is also a public facility provided by the
state.
= 7.6% (Approximately)
56. (b) Money is needed for a pollution free
46. (a) The people are the basic source of power
environment is an incorrect statement. In order
within a democracy. Democracy is defined as
to have pollution free environment, money is
the government of the people, by the people
not needed. In rural areas, in forest areas and
and for the people. The citizens of a nation
mountains wherever there is not much
hold the ultimate power it is their collective
exploitation of natural resources, there the
voice that dictates government decisions.
pollution is relatively cleaner.
Citizens grant political power to their
leaders through elections. Thus, both 57. (d) The things needed to earn adequate income
Assertion and Reason statements justify each is good health, proper education, some kind of
other. professional training or skill and an opportunity
to earn.
47. (a) Political and Constitutional changes after
SAMPLE PAPER 8

French Revolution ended the absolute In India, many educated and qualified people
monarchy. It transferred power to a body of do not find employment because there is no
the French citizens. It proclaimed that proper employment opportunity.
henceforth people would constitute the 58. (a) Here, both assertion explains reason as
nation and shape its destiny. higher average income is not the only indicator
of human development in a country. Factors like
51. (b) The Regional dialects were discouraged to
level of literacy rate, health facilities and public
create a sense of collective identity amongst
facilities are also important.
the French people. Language was a great
unifying factor.
159
CBSE Sample Paper English Language & Literature X (Term I)

SAMPLE PAPER 9
SOCIAL SCIENCE
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class X (Term I) Examination

Instructions
(i) The Question Paper contains four sections.
(ii) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(iii) Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
(vi) Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
(v) Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
(vi) Each question carries 0.80 mark.
(vii) There is no negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 40
Roll No. Time allowed : 3 hours

Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)
1. Which of the following statement is correct about the German Confederation?
(a) Did not include Austria and Prussia.
(b) Included non-German territories in Poland and Hungary.
(c) Was a loose organisation of thirty-nine states.
(d) Had real executive power.

2. Cavour prepared for the first conflict between Italy and Austria by diplomatic
agreements with which of the following countries?
(a) France (b) Russia
(c) Britain (d) Prussia

3. The July Revolution took place in which of the following years? Identify from the given
options.
SAMPLE PAPER 9

(a) 1815 (b) 1826


(c) 1830 (d) 1832

4. How did the Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe?


(a) With the restoration of Bourbon Dynasty.
(b) Laying out the balance of power between all the great powers in Europe.
(c) By giving power to the German confederation.
(d) Austria was not given control of Northern Italy.
160 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

5. How the new artists depicted liberty during the French Revolution? Choose the correct
option from the following.
(a) As a female figure with a torch of enlightenment in one hand and the charter of rights of
man in the other hand.
(b) Rays of the Rising Sun.
(c) Blindfolded woman carrying a pair of weighing scales.
(d) The gold red and black tricolour flag.

6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops which are grown in Laterite soil.
(a) Rubber and Sugarcane (b) Tea and Coffee
(c) Barley and Grain (d) Cotton and Jute

7. Tea, coffee, banana, ………… and rubber are a major crop which comes under
…………… .
(a) Sugarcane, shifting agriculture (b) Sugarcane, plantation farming
(c) Bajra, shifting agriculture (d) Wheat, horticulture

8. Identify the major producer state of Rubber from the given options.
(a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra
(c) Assam (d) Jammu and Kashmir

9. An oil reserve has been discovered in an Ocean. The oil reserve is 20 km from the coast
of India. Classify the oil reserve.
(a) Abiotic Resource (b) Community Owned Resource
(c) International Resource (d) National Resource

10. What is common between the land degradation caused in Jharkhand and Odisha?
(a) The subsoil in these areas is very thin.
(b) Their resources are completely exhausted due to land degradation.
(c) It is caused by mining in both places.
(d) It is caused due to deforestation in both places.

11. Which of the following characteristics is true about Bangar soil?


(a) It is the most fertile alluvial soil.
(b) It is a new alluvial.
(c) It has higher concentration of Kanker nodules than the Khadar nodules.
(d) It has smaller particles than Khadar soil.

12. What percentage of land in India consists of fertile plains?


(a) 38% (b) 43% (c) 46% (d) 61%

13. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the sources of revenue in a
federal form of system?
SAMPLE PAPER 9

(a) The Centre has no financial autonomy.


(b) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified in the constitution
to ensure its financial autonomy.
(c) States are dependent for revenue on the Central Government.
(d) States have no financial powers.

14. Australia is an example of which type of federation?


(a) Holding-together (b) Coming-together
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Can’t say
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 161

15. Which of the following is a major hurdle that the local government faces in India?
(a) Villagers do not trust them properly.
(b) States do not give them much power.
(c) Elections are held regularly.
(d) There is no one to contest elections.

16. The state government has powers of its own for which …………… .
(a) It is answerable to the people.
(b) It is answerable to the regional and local governments.
(c) It is answerable to the Central Government.
(d) It is answerable to the elite members of the society.

17. In which of the following years the regional governments were given constitutional
powers in Belgium?
(a) 1991 (b) 1992
(c) 1993 (d) 1994

18. Here are three reactions to the language policy followed in India. Which of the
following holds true in the case of India?
(i) The policy of accommodation has strengthened national unity.
(ii) Language based states have divided us by making everyone conscious of their
language.
(iii) The language policy has only helped to consolidate the dominance of English over
all other languages.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Only (iii) (d) All of these

19. In which of the following states groundwater overuse is particularly found?


(a) Gujarat and Rajasthan (b) Nagaland and Assam
(c) Punjab and Western UP (d) Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand

20. Which of the following term is defined as the average expected length of life of a
person at the time of the birth?
(a) Birth Rate (b) Life Expectancy
(c) Life Span (d) Mortality Rate

21. Which type of agriculture practice is famous in North-Eastern states like Assam,
Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland?
(a) Slash and Burn farming (b) Commercial farming
(c) Jhumming (d) Subsistence farming

22. Which of the following objectives is not mentioned in the MNREGA 2005?
SAMPLE PAPER 9

(a) To give at least 100 days of guaranteed work in rural areas.


(b) It is required to provide employment within 10 km of an applicant’s home and to pay
maximum wages.
(c) If government fails in its duty to provide employment, it will give unemployment
allowances to the people.
(d) To implement ‘Right to work’.

23. In which state of India ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is called ‘pamlou’?
(a) Meghalaya (b) Manipur
(c) Mizoram (d) Nagaland
162 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

24. Identify the term which is used for the average income of a person.
(a) Total Income (b) Per Capita Income
(c) Gross Income (d) National Income

Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions)
25. In the given image, the courier of Rhineland loses all that he has on his way home from
Leipzig. Study the picture and answer the question that follows.

Who is represented as a postman? Identify from the given options.


(a) Napoleon Bonaparte (b) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(c) Otto von Bismarck (d) Giuseppe Mazzini

26. Which of the following option/s is/are correct about Nation-states?


(i) Citizens share a common sense of shared identity or history.
(ii) Nation-state is a state ruled by one absolute ruler.
(iii) Commonness is forged through linguistic factor only.
(iv) Nation-states are directly ruled by people based on hetrogenisation of society.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (iv) (d) Both (iii) and (iv)

27. Which of the following incidents mobilised nationalist feelings among the educated
elite class across Europe?
(a) German Unification (b) Greek War of Independence
(c) Unification of Italy (d) Unification of Britain
SAMPLE PAPER 9

28. Which among the following statements is/are correct about plantations?
(i) The plantations have a large area and they are usually found in areas of low
density of population.
(ii) It is capital intensive.
(iii) The plantation farming has been an agricultural practice primarily in tropical and
sub-tropical regions.
Select the correct codes from the options given below.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 163

29. Who was proclaimed as the ruler of United Italy in 1861? Identify from the given
options.
(a) King Wilhelm IV (b) Kaiser William I
(c) Victor Emmanuel II (d) Cavour
30. Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India. Identify those
which hold true for decentralisation after 1992.
(i) Local governments did not have any power or resources of their own.
(ii) It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government
bodies.
(iii) The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local
government bodies.
(iv) No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes
and other backward classes.
Codes
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)

31. What do the saints, angels and Christ symbolise in the Utopian vision?
(a) Equality among the people (b) Fraternity among the people
(c) Resentment among the nations (d) Freedom of nations

32. Which of the following language was spoken for purposes of diplomacy in the
mid-18th Century in Europe?
(a) German (b) English (c) French (d) Spanish

33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Serfdom and bonded labour were abolished in Habsburg dominion and
Russia.
Reason (R) Monarchs had realised that revolution could be resisted only by granting
concessions to the liberal nationalist rebels.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

34. In commercial farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. Identify which state the
given crops belong to
Crops States
SAMPLE PAPER 9

A. Sugarcane 1. Assam
B. Coffee 2. Uttar Pradesh
C. Tea 3. Kerala
D. Rubber 4. Karnataka

Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
164 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

35. Which of the following farming practice depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of
the soil and suitability of other environmental conditions?
(a) Commercial farming (b) Intensive subsistence farming
(c) Plantation farming (d) Primitive subsistence farming

36. States such as Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram enjoy special
powers under certain provisions of the Constitution of India (Article 371), under which
context do they get these provisions?
(i) Trade and commerce
(ii) Protection of land rights of indigenous people
(iii) Special provisions for agriculture
(iv) For defence purposes
Codes
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii)
(d) Both (iii) and (iv)

37. Identify the region/area of India with the help of the following information.
• The Central Government has special powers in running these areas.
• These areas are too small to become an independent state.
Select the appropriate option from the following.
(a) Towns (b) Union Territories
(c) District (d) City

38. Identify the correct statements/s regarding the age of revolutions.


(i) Growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for
independence amongst the Greeks which began in 1821.
(ii) Nationalists in Greece got support from other Greeks living in exile and also from
many West Europeans.
(iii) Poets and artists mobilised public opinion to support its struggle against a Muslim
Empire.
(iv) The Treaty of Constantinople of 1830 recognised Greece as an independent nation.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (iv)

39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Regional governments can withdraw power from the Central
SAMPLE PAPER 9

Government.
Reason (R) Regional governments were given constitutional powers that were no
longer dependent on the Central Government.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 165

40. Choose the correct option from the following.


Column A Column B
(a) Potential Resources Solar Energy
(b) Stock Resources Wind Energy
(c) Individual Resources Hydrogen
(d) Renewable Resources Pond

41. Read the given data and calculate the average income of the family.
Member 1 Member 2 Member 3 Member 4
Income (in Rs.) 7000 8000 10000 15000

(a) 8000 (b) 9000 (c) 10000 (d) 12000

42. Which among the following activities can be included in the Primary sector?
(a) Giving loans to the farmer. (b) Providing storage facility for the grains.
(c) Cultivating sugarcane. (d) Making sugar from sugarcane.

43. Under which economic sector does the production of a community through the natural
process come?
(a) Public sector (b) Primary sector (c) Secondary sector (d) Tertiary sector

44. According to the Human Development Report of UNDP, 2018, the HDI ranking of
countries are mentioned below.
Column A Column B
Sri Lanka 76
India 130
Pakistan 150
Nepal 149

Why Sri Lanka has a better rank than India in Human Development Report for 2018?
Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) The per capita income of Sri Lanka is higher than in India.
(b) Sri Lanka has low population as compared to India.
(c) The literacy ratio i.e. enrolment ratio in all levels of schools in Sri Lanka is comparatively
better than India.
(d) Both (a) and (c)

45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit
SAMPLE PAPER 9

of the nation was popularised.


Reason (R) Recording these forms of folk culture was essential to the project of
nation-building.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
166 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

46. Read the information given below and select the correct option.
The production of goods and services in all the three sectors is done on a large scale.
The three sectors involve a very large number of people working under them. To assess
the level of development in an economy, it is important to compare and contrast the
production and level of employment of these sectors. Not all sectors contribute equally.
One sector generally plays a dominant role. The contribution of each sector can be
accessed on the basis of GDP and changes in the sectors over the years.
Primary sector has become important for this reason
(a) This sector contributes about 25% to the GDP of India.
(b) It ensures security of employment.
(c) Only final goods and services are to be considered while calculating GDP.
(d) It provides cheap loans to the self-employed people.

Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions
in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section)
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
They seek things that are most important for them, i.e., that which can fulfill their aspirations
or desires. In fact, at times, two persons or groups of persons may seek things which are
conflicting. A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother and that he also
shares in the household work. Her brother may not like this. Similarly, to get more electricity,
industrialists may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of
people who are displaced – such as tribals. They might resent this and may prefer small check
dams or tanks to irrigate their land. So, two things are quite clear: one, different persons can
have different developmental goals and two, what may be development for one may not be
development for the other. It may even be destructive for the other.
47. Which among the following is the development goal of a middle income person?
(a) Increase in real income (b) Reduction in poverty
(c) Women empowerment (d) Right to education

48. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Development involves thinking about the ways in which we can work
towards achieving goals of holistic growth.
Reason (R) Holistic growth is economic growth.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
SAMPLE PAPER 9

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

49. If more number of women gets employment how it will change the society?
(a) Dignity of women in the household
(b) Reduction in gender inequality
(c) More income in the household
(d) All of these
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 167

50. Pick out the cause that enhances the development goal of an industrialist.
(a) Preventing the planting of trees
(b) Protest against building dams
(c) Good working atmosphere
(d) Need of factories and power supply

51. Which of the following should be the goal of an uneducated youth?


(a) Learn skill (b) Get educated
(c) Get employment (d) Both (a) and (b)

52. Which of the following statements is correct about developmental goals?


(a) They are same for all the citizens of a country.
(b) They are different and sometimes even contradictory for different groups and people.
(c) There are no developmental goals for poor people.
(d) Developmental goals do not matter.
Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
All these government measures, coming one after the other, gradually increased the feeling of
alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of the major political parties led
by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders were sensitive to their language and culture. They felt that the
constitution and between the Sinhala and Tamil communities strained over time. The Sri
Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official
language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs.
But their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly
denied. By 1980’s several political organisations were formed demanding an independent
Tamil Eelum (state) in Northern and Eastern parts of Sri Lanka. The distrust between the two
communities turned into widespread conflict. It soon turned into a Civil War. As a result,
thousands of people of both the communities have been killed. Many families were forced to
leave the country as refugees and many more lost their livelihoods.
53. What was the most serious demand of the Sri Lankan Tamils which resulted in a Civil
War in Sri Lanka? Choose the correct statement/s from the given options:
(i) Reservation of Jobs for Tamils.
(ii) Recognition of Tamil as an official language.
(iii) Creation of an Independent Tamil Eelum.
(iv) Creation of Federation with autonomy to Tamils.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (iii) (d) Only (iv)
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54. Which form of government is prevalent in Sri Lanka? Identify from the given options.
(a) Federal Government (b) Unitary Government
(c) Community Government (d) None of these

55. What kinds of measures were adopted by the Government of Sri Lanka? Identify from
the given options.
(a) Communitarian (b) Majoritarian
(c) Democratic (d) Political
168 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

56. Tamilians during 1980’s formed several political organisations. Identify the reason
behind this from the given options.
(a) Their demand for separate state was denied.
(b) Their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly
denied.
(c) Their demand for separate election to provinces populated by the Tamils was denied.
(d) None of the above

57. What is the Political reason behind the conflicts in Sri Lanka? Choose the correct option.
(a) Failure of non-government organisations.
(b) Absence of minority representation.
(c) Preferential policies of the government.
(d) Unwillingness of parties to resolve conflicts.

58. Which of the following measures does not establish Sinhala supremacy in Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhala is the only official language.
(b) Preferential policies for government jobs.
(c) Equal political rights to Sri Lankan Tamils.
(d) The state shall protect and foster Buddhism.

Section D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-60) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the
help of specified information.

A
SAMPLE PAPER 9

59. In the given map a crop growing region/area has been marked as ‘A’. Identify the crop
and choose the correct option.
(a) Wheat (b) Rubber
(c) Jute (d) Tea

60. In the given map a region/area has been marked as ‘B’. Identify the dam located in the
region and choose the correct option.
(a) Sardar Sarovar Dam (b) Hirakud Dam
(c) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam (d) Bhakra Nangal Dam
OMR SHEET SP 9
Roll No.

Student Name Sub Code.

Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid gel & fountain pens for filling the sheets.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.

1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60

Check Your Performance


Total Questions: Total Correct Questions
Score Percentage = × 100
Total Correct Questions: Total Questions

Less than 60% > Average (Revise the Chapters again)


If Your Score is Greater than 60% but less than 75% > Good (Do more practice)
Above 75% > Excellent (Keep it on)
170 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

Answers
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (d)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (d)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (c) German Confederation was an organisation regularly and enthusiastically, Gram Sabhas
of 39 German states, established by the are not held regularly.
Congress of Vienna in 1815 to replace the Most state governments have not transferred
destroyed Holy Roman Empire. It was a loose significant powers to the local governments,
political association, formed for mutual nor have they given adequate resources. These
defense, with no central executive or judiciary. are the basic difficulties of the local
Delegates met in a federal assembly dominated government bodies.
by Austria.
22. (b) MNREGA 2005 is a law passed by the
2. (a) Count Camillo Cavour entered into an central government implementing ‘Right to
alliance with France and succeeded in work’ in 625 districts of India. Under
defeating Austrian forces in 1859. He led the MNREGA 2005, all those who are able to and
movement to unify the regions of Italy. He was are in need of work in rural areas are
neither a revolutionary nor a democrat.
guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year
3. (c) The July Revolution came into existence in by the government.
1830. It started an uprising in Brussels, which
If the government fails in its duty to provide
led to Belgium separating away from the
employment, it will give an unemployment
United Kingdom of the Netherlands.
allowances to the people. Here, option (b) is
4. (b) The Congress of Vienna ensured peace in not a correct objective of MNREGA 2005.
Europe by laying out the balance of power
24. (b) The average income of a person in a
between all the great powers in Europe. The
country is known as per capita income. It is
Congress of Vienna dissolved the Napoleonic
calculated by dividing the total income of the
world and attempted to restore the monarchies
country with its total population. On the other
Napoleon had overthrown.
hand, total income of a person is the sum of all
10. (c) Both Jharkhand and Odisha are rich in sources in a particular time period i.e. monthly
minerals and mining is done heavily at these or annually.
places. Post mining activities, these areas are
Whereas, the value of total goods and services
abandoned.
produced within a country in a year is called
13. (b) Sources of revenue for each level of National Income of a country.
government are clearly specified in the Indian
25. (a) Napoleon Bonaparte in this picture is
Constitution to ensure its financial autonomy.
shown as a postman on his way back to France
14. (b) Australia is an example of coming-together
SAMPLE PAPER 9

after he lost the Battle of Leipzig in 1813. Each


federation. When Independent states come letter dropping out of his bag shows the names
together on their own to form a bigger unit, so of the territories he lost after this battle.
that by pooling sovereignty and retaining
identity they can increase their security, the 26. (a) Nation-states is a form of state that
type of federation is called coming together emerged in Europe during 19th Century. A
type of federation. Another example of this nation-state comprises of citizens as well as
federation is USA. rulers who share a common past, history of
struggles or descent among themselves.
15. (b) The major hurdle faced by the local Common language is not the only factor that
government is that the states do not give them binds citizens in a nation-state.
much power. While elections are held
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 171

The commonness is forged through united dance. Hence, the idea of nation was spread
struggles as a nation, through the actions of the among the community through art and music.
leaders and local heroes etc. They are based on Recording these forms of folk was essential too
homogenisation of society. for nation-building. Hence, both statement are
27. (b) Greek War of Independence is the incident true, but R is not the correct explanations A.
which mobilised nationalist feelings among the 47. (a) The goal of a middle class person is to
educated elite class across Europe. increase the real income so that he is able to
30. (a) A major step towards decentralisation was buy more goods and services for his family.
taken in 1992. The Constitution was amended 48. (c) Here the given assertion is true but reason
to make the third-tier of democracy more is incorrect because development is much more
powerful and effective. than economic growth.
Some of the conditions under this amendment 49. (b) When more number of women go outside
were their homes to earn a living then the social
• It is constitutionally mandatory to hold outlook will change. This will help to bring
regular elections to local government gender equality in the society. Rise in the
bodies. dignity of women and in family income is the
• At least one-third of all positions are positive change in the family and not in the
reserved for women. society.
• The State Governments are required to share 50. (d) The development goal of an industrialist is
some powers and revenue with local to open more factories so that more profit
government bodies. could be earned. Factories have machines that
33. (a) To curb repression and threats of run on power so proper and regular power
revolution, autocratic monarchies of Europe supply is also a development goal of an
began to introduce changes and concessions to industrialist.
lure the rebels. Thus, both serfdom and 53. (c) By 1980s several political organisations
bonded labour were abolished and they were were formed demanding an independent
treated in a better way. Tamil Eelum (state) in Northern and Eastern
parts of Sri Lanka. The distrust between the
39. (d) Powers given to the regional governments
two communities turned into widespread
could be withdrawn by the Central
conflict. It soon turned into a civil war. As a
Government. The change that took place in
result thousands of people of both the
1993 was that the regional governments were
communities have been killed.
given constitutional powers that were no
longer dependent on the Central Government. 54. (b) Sri Lanka has Unitary Form of Government
Thus, Belgium shifted from a unitary to a in which states are in subjugation to the center.
federal form of government. It has semi presidential government system
where two executives are present i.e. President
41. (c) Average income of the family.
along side with the Prime Minister and the
7000 + 8000 + 10000 + 15000 = 40,000 Cabinet.
Sum of income = 40,000 55. (b) The democratically elected government in
Sum of Units Sri Lanka adopted a series of Majoritarian
Average = measures after its independence in 1948. It
Number of Units
adopted Majoritarinism to establish Sinhala
40000 supremacy.
SAMPLE PAPER 9

= 10 ,000
4
57. (c) The political reason behind the conflicts in
45. (b) It was easier to spread the idea of Sri Lanka is the preferential policies of the
nationalism among illiterate people or government which only favours the Sinhala
common masses through folk songs, music and Community.
172
CBSE Sample Paper English Class X (Term I)

SAMPLE PAPER 10
SOCIAL SCIENCE
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class X (Term I) Examination

Instructions
(i) The Question Paper contains four sections.
(ii) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(iii) Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
(vi) Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
(v) Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
(vi) Each question carries 0.80 mark.
(vii) There is no negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 40
Roll No. Time allowed : 3 hours

Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)
1. The Young Italy Movement was related to which of the following aspects?
(a) Freedom of Italy from the subjugating rule of Ottoman rulers.
(b) A mission to educate the Youth of Italy.
(c) A mission to hold elections in Italy for the first time.
(d) Unification of Italy since it was divided into various states.

2. Why did the initial enthusiasm of French people fade away gradually about the Civil
Code?
(a) Accepted only by the elite class.
(b) Due to increased taxation and censorship
(c) Restrictions on Freedom
(d) Both (b) and (c)

3. Identify the newly designed flag which was chosen to replace the formal flag ‘Royal
SAMPLE PAPER 10

Standard’ in France?
(a) Red Cross (b) Tricolour (c) White Saltier (d) Union Jack

4. What were the effects of revolutionary upheaval in France in 1830?


(a) The Bourbon dynasty, which was restored in 1815, was overthrown by liberal
revolutionaries.
(b) Civil Code was implemented in France.
(c) An agreement was signed between France and England.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 173

5. Identify the class who owned estates in the countryside and also town-houses.
(a) Peasant Class (b) Nobility Class
(c) Aristocratic Class (d) Clergy

6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the soil and their areas.
(a) Red Laterite Soil West Bengal
(b) Arid Soil Kerala
(c) Yellow and Red Soil Chhattisgarh
(d) Alluvial Soil Madhya Pradesh

7. India’s territorial water extends up to a distance of ………… .


(a) 22.5 Nautical Miles (b) 12 Nautical Miles
(c) 19.2 Nautical Miles (d) 200 Nautical Miles

8. Which of the following was the major objective of Agenda 21?


(a) It aims at achieving global sustainable development.
(b) Every local government should have its own local Agenda 21 to combat Environmental
Degradation.
(c) It is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty and disease through global
cooperation on common interests.
(d) All political leaders should come forward for the cause of Environment.

9. With people being made the decision-makers by the Madhya Pradesh government, 2.9
million hectares or about 1 per cent of India’s land area are being greened across the
state through which of the following method?
(a) Waste Management (b) Watershed Management
(c) Rainwater Harvesting (d) None of these

10. Which among the following farmers need to be supported through adequate facilities
for seeds, agricultural inputs, credit, etc?
(a) Small and marginal farmers (b) Landless agricultural farmer
(c) Prosperous farmers (d) All of these

11. Which of the following types of ethnic diversities is found in Lebanon?


(a) Caste divisions (b) Regional divisions
(c) Religious divisions (d) Gender divisions

12. Which among the following language is spoken by the majority of our population?
(a) English (b) Hindi (c) Bengali (d) Punjabi

13. Which of the following is an objective of Federal system?


(a) To accommodate new territories.
(b) To safeguard and promote unity of the country.
SAMPLE PAPER 10

(c) To filter people belonging to one caste or ethnic groups.


(d) To reject regional diversity.

14. Which among the following is not one of the principles of democracy?
(a) People are the source of all political power.
(b) People are ruled through various institutions
(c) State governments are not as powerful as the central government and work under their
thumb.
(d) Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies.
174 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

15. Which of the following countries emerged as an Independent state in 1948?


(a) Belgium (b) Sri Lanka
(c) India (d) France

16. Why was the States Reorganisation Commission formed? Identify the correct reason.
(a) To provide more autonomy at the local level.
(b) To recommend creation of states in India on the basis of different languages.
(c) To share an agreement between states and people to live together.
(d) To provide special provisions according to states specification.

17. Which group of countries follows the Unitary System?


(a) France, Germany and India
(b) United Arab Emirates, China and Sri Lanka
(c) Belgium, India and Spain
(d) U.S.A., Japan and Spain

18. What is the purpose of publishing the HDR for the UNDP?
(a) To tell how to adjust inequalities
(b) To measure how development has improved human life.
(c) To emphasizes the importance of individuals and their ability to unleash their maximum
potential.
(d) All of the above

19. Which of the following way can be used to help the vulnerable sections?
(a) They should be offered clothes
(b) They should be provided with food security allowances.
(c) They should be offered greater, safer and varied opportunities to work.
(d) They should be provided with minimum education.

20. Which of the following will be the aspiration of a working woman?


(a) To have a safe and secure work environment at the office.
(b) To have better technologies that can store data easily.
(c) To have good job opportunities where her education can be made use of.
(d) To have a fully functioning day care facilities in the office premises.

21. Which of the following takes place in the primary sector?


(a) Processing of natural resources
(b) Extraction of natural resources
(c) Transporting of natural resources
(d) Selling of natural products

22. Development is possible without the overuse of resources. In this context, choose the
SAMPLE PAPER 10

correct option which describes the importance of sustainable development.


(a) It helps in maintaining ecological balance.
(b) It lays emphasis on quality of life.
(c) It promotes an efficient use of natural resources.
(d) All of the above

23. Which activity is termed as activity of tertiary sector?


(a) Wheat production (b) Mobile production
(c) Construction of a dam (d) Fishing
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 175

24. What proportion of the country is over using their groundwater reserves?
(a) One-fourth (b) One-eighth
(c) One-third (d) One-tenth

Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 Questions)
25. The given image depicts the ‘Planting of Tree of Liberty’ painted by Karl Fritz. In
which country is the scene taking place? Identify from the given options.

(a) Leipzig, Germany (b) Frankfurt, Germany


(c) Paris, France (d) Zweibrücken, Germany

26. Which of the following option/s is/are correct about the Female allegory of France?
(i) She was named Marianne.
(ii) She took part in the French Revolution.
(iii) She was a symbol of National Unity.
(iv) Her characteristic were drawn from those of liberty and the Republic.
Options
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)

27. Which country had been a part of the ‘Ottoman Empire’ since the 15th century?
Identify from the following options:
(a) Spain (b) Greece
(c) France (d) Germany

28. Identify the personality who was an Austrian Chancellor.


(a) Duke Metternich (b) Giuseppe Mazzini
SAMPLE PAPER 10

(c) Louis Philippe (d) Johann Gottfried

29. Identify the crop with the help of clues given below
• High temperature is required during the time of growth.
• Grows well on well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains where soils are renewed
every year.
(a) Rubber (b) Cotton
(c) Jute (d) Coffee
176 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

30. Which type of soil is most suitable for growing the crop of Cashew Nuts?
(a) Alluvial Soil (b) Red Laterite Soil
(c) Arid Soil (d) Black Soil

31. Consider the following statements about Holding-Together Federation.


(i) A large country divides its power between constituent states and the national
government.
(ii) The Central government tends to be more powerful vis-à-vis the states.
(iii) The Central government and the state always seem to have equal powers.
(iv) Constituent states have unequal powers.
Codes
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) Only (iv)

32. Which of the following is/are the aspects of an ideal federal system?
(a) Agreement between the states and people to live together.
(b) Mutual trust
(c) Accommodates regional diversity
(d) All of the above

33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a
sustained quality of life and global peace.
Reason (R) They promote equality among classes.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

34. Match the following.


List I List II
A. Brussels has a separate government in 1. Accepted equal representation in Brussels.
which
B. Belgian leaders between 1970 and 1993 2. In a legitimate government.
C. French-speaking people 3. Dutch and French speaking people have equal
representation.
D. Citizens acquire a stake in the system 4. Amended their constitution four times.
through participation
SAMPLE PAPER 10

Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 2 1 4 3
35. Which among the following is not a scheduled language of India?
(a) Santhali (b) Sanskrit
(c) Angika (d) Sindhi
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 177

36. Identify the administrative body of Indian Federal system with the help of the
following information.
• It is a forum to discuss local governance and development.
• All the decisions are taken through this and no decision is official and valid without
the consent of this body at the village level.
Select the appropriate option from the following.
(a) Block Samiti (b) Gram Sabha
(c) Zila Parishad (d) Municipality
37. Which of the following can be considered a form of sharing of powers between the
governments?
(i) Division of Powers between the Chief Minister and Governor.
(ii) Division of Powers between Central and State legislatures.
(iii) Power sharing between Union and the States through lists of subjects.
(iv) Power division between Bureaucracy and Executive.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iv) (d) Both (ii) and (iii)
38. Identify the correct statement/s about the power sharing arrangement in Belgium.
(i) Belgian government adopted communism.
(ii) Belgian government amended their constitution four times.
(iii) In Belgium, policy of accommodation was adopted.
(iv) Dutch people were given favours in jobs by the Belgian government.
Options
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (iii) and (iv) (d) Both (i) and (iv)

39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) After the end of Civil War, Lebanon’s leaders came together and agreed
to some basic rules for power sharing among different communities.
Reason (R) This was a temporary arrangement to stop the civil war.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

40. Choose the correctly matched pair.


SAMPLE PAPER 10

(i) Belgium- Linguistically variant populations


(ii) India- Racially variant populations
(iii) Sri Lanka- Religiously variant populations
(iv) Lebanon-Linguistically variant populations
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 3 and 4
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of these
178 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

41. Analyse the table given below and answer the question that follows.
The source shows a database of workers employed in different sectors (in millions)
Sector Unorganised Organised Total
Primary 240 2 242
Secondary 54 9 63
Tertiary 76 17 93
Total 370 28 398
Total in % 100%

Reena is working as an accountant in a company where she receives poor working


conditions especially in terms of wages which is much below than in the formal sector.
What percentage of Tertiary sector workers in India is employed in Unorganised Sector
according to the table?
(a) 71.2% (b) 80%
(c) 81.7% (d) 91.7%

42. If BMI is less than 18.5 then the person would be considered as which of the following?
(a) Over weight (b) Under nourished
(c) Under weight (d) Malnourished

43. Anubha has taken a loan of 10 Lakh at an interest of 5 percent, from the bank in which
she is working. Anubha works in which sector of the economy?
(a) Primary (b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary (d) All of these

44. Identify the sector which includes activities like services offered by the professionals.
(a) Primary sector (b) Tertiary sector
(c) Secondary sector (d) Unorganised sector

45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Increase in population and industrialisation lead to increased use for
fossil fuels.
Reason (R) Overuse of conventional energy resources has resulted in the phenomenon
of Green house effect.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
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46. In which sector is seasonal and disguised unemployment most prevalent in India?
(a) Primary or agricultural sector (b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector (d) Public sector
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 179

Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions
in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section.)
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
Wheat This is the second most important cereal crop. It is the main food crop, in North
and North-Western part of the country. This Rabi crop requires a cool growing season and a
bright sunshine at the time of ripening. It requires 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall evenly
distributed over the growing season. There are two important wheat-growing zones in the
country – the Ganga-Satluj plains in the North-West and black soil region of the Deccan. The
major wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar
and Rajasthan.
47. Wheat is the second most important cereal crop in India after which of the following
crops? Select the best suitable option from the following.
(a) Maize (b) Paddy (c) Sugarcane (d) Pulses

48. What kind of geographical conditions are required for the growth of wheat? Choose
the correct option from the following.
(a) 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall (b) Bright sunshine at the time of ripening.
(c) A cool growing season (d) All of these

49. Which among the following is also a Rabi crop like wheat? Choose the correct option.
(a) Paddy (b) Mustard
(c) Maize (d) Bajra

50. Which type of soil is required for wheat production? Identify from the following
options.
(a) Sandy soil (b) Clayey soil
(c) Loamy soil (d) Both (b) and (c)
51. Read the following statements and choose the incorrect option from the given options.
(i) Wheat is the second most important cereal crop.
(ii) It provides food to people residing in the North and North-Western part of the
country.
(iii) Bright sunshine at the time of ripening is important for this crop.
(iv) The major wheat-producing states are Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Andhra Pradesh.
Options
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (iii) (d) Only (iv)
52. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
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Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Wheat is the main food crop in the North and North-Western India.
Reason (R) There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country the Ganga
Satluj plains in the North-West and Black soil region on the Deccan.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
180 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
Other Romantics such as the German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder (1744-1803)
claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people-das volk. It
was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation
(volksgeist) was popularised. So, collecting and recording these forms of folk culture was
essential to the project of nation-building. The emphasis on vernacular language and the
collection of local folklore was not just to recover an ancient national spirit, but also to carry
the modern nationalist message to large audiences who were mostly illiterate.
53. Which among the following statement best describes the Romantic Movement?
Identify from the given options.
(a) It was about the emotions of patriotism towards one’s state.
(b) It was a cultural movement which sought to develop nationalist sentiments.
(c) It was a literary movement to focus on vernacular languages.
(d) Both (b) and (c)

54. Who among the following celebrated nationalism through opera music? Identify from
the given options.
(a) Grimm Brothers (b) Mazzini
(c) Karol Karpinski (d) Garibaldi

55. Why was it necessary to give emphasis on vernacular language and the collection of
local folklore? Choose the best suitable option from the following.
(a) To recover an ancient national spirit.
(b) To carry the modern nationalist message to large audiences.
(c) For Territorial expansion
(d) Both (a) and (b)

56. Romantic poets and artists …………… .


(a) Criticised the glorification of reason and science.
(b) Focused on intuition, emotions and mystical feelings.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) To popularise the spirit of nation

57. Volksgeist is the spirit of nation that consist of which of the following?
(a) It consist of intellectual traits that define nations.
(b) It consist of moral traits that define nations.
(c) It consist of cultural traits that define nations.
(d) All of the above

58. Who among the following philosophers claimed that true German culture was to be
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discovered among the common people? Identify from the given options:
(a) Johann Gottfried (b) William I
(c) Victor Emmaneul II (d) Giuseppe Mazzini
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 181

Section D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)
On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified
information.

‘A’

59. In the given map a major producer of a crop has been marked as ‘A’. Identify the crop
and choose the correct option.
(a) Punjab- Wheat (b) Punjab - Tea
(c) Himachal Pradesh- Wheat (d) Himachal Pradesh- Tea
60. In the given map a major producer of a crop has been marked as ‘B’. Identify the crop
and choose the correct option.
(a) Karnataka-Wheat (b) Karnataka- Rice
(c) Tamil Nadu- Rice (d) Tamil Nadu- Wheat SAMPLE PAPER 10
OMR SHEET SP 10
Roll No.

Student Name Sub Code.

Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid gel & fountain pens for filling the sheets.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.

1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60

Check Your Performance


Total Questions: Total Correct Questions
Score Percentage = × 100
Total Correct Questions: Total Questions

Less than 60% > Average (Revise the Chapters again)


If Your Score is Greater than 60% but less than 75% > Good (Do more practice)
Above 75% > Excellent (Keep it on)
CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I) 183

Answers
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (d)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (c)

EXPLANATIONS
2. (d) The four factors which seemed to outweigh 16. (b) The States Reorganisation Commission
the advantages of the administrative changes was formed in 1954 to recommend creation of
brought through the Civil Code are states in India on the basis of different
(i) Increased taxation on people. languages.
(ii) Strict censorship on printing media and 18. (b) The main purpose of publishing the
books. Human Development Report (HDR) for the
(iii) Forced conscription into the French Armies UNDP is to measure how development has
to satisfy its imperialist ambition. improved human life.
(iv) Restriction on Freedom. Human Development Report is an annual
report published by United Nations
4. (a) The effects of revolutionary upheaval in
Development Programme (UNDP)
France in 1830 were as follows
which compares countries based on their
• The Bourbon Dynasty that had been ruling
educational level, health status and per capita
the region was deposed. income.
• In place of Bourbon dynasty, constitutional
19. (c) Vulnerable sections can be helped if they
monarchy was set up with Louis Philippe as
are offered greater, safer and varied
its head.
opportunities to work. These sections are
• Belgium was freed of United Kingdom of
mostly engaged in the unorganised sector
Netherlands through an uprising.
thus, they must be supported through
5. (c) Aristocratic class was a dominant class in adequate facilities.
Europe and was rich since they owned their
21. (b) Extraction of natural resources takes place
fields and others cultivated these fields for
in the primary sector. Mining of minerals or
them. They were numerically small. Nobility or
agriculture involves extraction of natural
the ruler class did not own farmlands and the
resources. It is related to nature, hence
peasant class cultivated the fields of aristocrats.
classified under primary sector.
They were tenants and did not own the lands
upon which they worked hard. 26. (c) French Allegory Marianne was a
11. (c) The Orthodox Christian and Sunni Muslim symbolical figure which represented the
are the two religious communities which were country of France. She was not a human but a
ethnically diverse from one another are found symbol and hence she didn’t take part in the
in Lebanon. Hence, in Lebanon religious French Revolution.
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divisions are found as a type of ethnic 29. (c) Jute grows well on well-drained fertile
diversities. soils in the flood plains where soils are
12. (b) No one language is the mother tongue of the renewed every year. High temperature is
majority of our population. Hindi is the mother required during the time of growth. West
tongue of only 41% Indians which is less than Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Odisha and Meghalaya
the 50 % of our total population. are the major jute producing states.
13. (b) A federal system has a most important 30. (b) Red Laterite Soil is the most suitable soil
objective which is to work for the unity and for the growth of Cashew nuts. Thus, option
territorial integrity of the country to keep it (b) is correct.
safe.
184 CBSE Sample Paper Social Science Class 10th (Term I)

35. (c) Angika is not a scheduled language of 43. (c) Tertiary Sector, irrespective of the fact that
India. There are 22 languages which are Anubha is taking a loan or not, she is working
recognised as Scheduled Languages by the in a bank. This means that Anubha is engaged
Constitution in the Eighth Schedule. Sanskrit, inthe tertiary sector which is also called the
Sindhi and Santhali are all included in this list. service sector. Insurance, trade, transport,
37. (d) Division of powers between the Centre and communication etc. are part of the tertiary
the State can be called Federal division of sector.
powers or Vertical division of powers. Thus, 45. (a) Here Both Assertion and Reason statements
division of powers between Central and State justify each other. Due to increase in
legislatures as well as power sharing between population and industrialisation there is a high
Union and State through lists of subjects is demand of fossil fuels and further it has led to
considered as a form of sharing of powers overuse of these conventional resources that
between the governments. has resulted in the phenomenon of Green
39. (c) After the end of Civil War, Lebanon’s house effect. These conventional resources will
get exhausted after years of use.
leaders came together and agreed to some
basic rules for power sharing arrangement so 48. (d) The geographical conditions required for
as to avoid any future possibilities of ethnic the growth of wheat includes
conflicts. This power sharing arrangement • It requires a cool growing season and bright
made sure that both the religious sects were sunshine at the time of ripening.
represented in the government. This was • It requires an annual rainfall of 50-70 cm
basically encouraged to ensure that the evenly distributed during the growing
interests of none of the communities would be season.
neglected. Thus, this was not a temporary 53. (b) Romanticism was a cultural movement
arrangement adopted by the leaders to stop the where nationalistic sentiments were explored
Civil War. and evoked. Ideas of liberty, patriotism and
40. (c) Belgium has Dutch and French speaking love for the nation were spread wide through
populations hence they are linguistically literature and art in this movement.
variant in nature. Sri Lanka has a religiously 55. (d) It was necessary to give emphasis on
variant population as it houses Buddhists, vernacular language and the collection of local
Hindus and Muslims. India has religiously and folklore not just to recover an ancient national
linguistically variant populations. spirit, but also to carry the modern nationalist
41. (c) Percentage of tertiary sector workers message to large audiences who were mostly
employed in unorganised sector illiterate.
No. of employees in unorganised sector 56. (c) Romantic artists and poets generally
= ´ 100
Total no. of employees in tertiary sector criticised the glorification of reason and science
and focused instead on emotions, intuition and
Total number of employees in tertiary sector
mystical feelings.
= 17 + 76 = 93
57. (d) Volksgeist is the spirit of nation which is a
% of employed in unorganised sector
76 set of intellectual, moral and cultural traits that
= ´ 100 = 817
. % define nations.
93
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