Social Science Question Bank

CBSE 2022
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Including Source Based Questions
CLASS 10
Term 1
Chapter-wise MCQ Bank
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MCQ Bank Social Science Class 10 Term 1
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Contents
CHAP 1. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 5-79
CHAP 2. Resources and Development 80-113
CHAP 3. Agriculture 114-157
CHAP 4. Power Sharing 158-192
CHAP 5. Federalism 193-239
CHAP 6. Development 240-290
CHAP 7. Sector of the Indian Economy 291-336
CHAP 8. Map 337-352
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Chap 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Page 1
Previous year questions and important

questions are repeated so that students
CHAPTER 1
can do more practice for these questions.
The Rise of Nationalism in Europe
1. When did the French Revolution started? 5. Which of the following revolution is called as the first
(a) 1789 expression of ‘Nationalism’ ?
(b) 1879 (a) French revolution
(c) 1880 (b) Russian revolution
(d) 1769 (c) Glorious revolution
(d) The revolution of liberals
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am101
2. In 1789, France was a full fledged territorial state

under the rule of ____ 6. Which of the following was NOT visualised by
(a) a federal republic Frederic Sorrieu in his first print of series of four
(b) an absolute monarch prints made up of ‘Democratic and social republic’ ?
(c) a democratic ruler (a) The people of America and Europe men and
women of all ages.
(d) None of these
(b) Social classes marching on a long train
(c) Offering homage to the statue of unity.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am102 (d) None of the above
3. A government or system of rule that has no restraints
on the powers exercised is called-
(a) Absolutist
(b) Utopian 7. Choose the correct nationality of the artist Frederic
(c) Democratic Sorrieu who visualised in his painting a society made
up of Democratic and Social Republic.
(d) Conservatist
(a) German
(b) Swiss
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am103 (c) French
(d) American
4. A ‘Utopian Society’ is --- Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am107

(a) A society under a benevolent monarchy
(b) A society that is unlikely to ever exist
(c) A society under the control of a chosen few wise
men 8. Sorrieu’s vision of society which is so idealistic that
is unlikely to exist is called _____
(d) A society under Parliamentary Democracy
(a) Utopian
(b) Absolutist
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am104 (c) Democratic
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Page 2 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Chap 1
(d) Conservatist a necessity because

(a) It ensures protection to all inhabitants.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am108 (b) It ensures liberty to all inhabitant citizens.
(c) It ensures Parliamentary form of government to
its inhabitants.
(d) It ensures jobs and good health to all its
Don’t take printout of this file because solution inhabitants.
is not given. You can purchase hard book from
Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/ Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am111
full solutions of all MCQs in print form.
To Purchase hard book click below or
whatsapp at 8905629969. 12. A _______ was one in which the majority of its
Purchase Hard Book citizens came to develop a common sense of identity
and shared history of descent.
(a) City-state
(b) Nation-state
9. Which one of the following statements is true about (c) Multinational-state
nation-states?
(d) Totalitarian-state
(a) Citizens share a common sense of shared identity
or history.
(b) Nation-state is a state ruled by one absolute Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am112
ruler.
(c) Commonness is forged through linguistic factor
only
13. As defined by Ernst Renan, a nation has to have
(d) Nation-states are directly ruled by the people
certain attributes. Which one of the following is not
and based on heterogenization of society.
among the stated attributes ?
(a) A long past of devotion
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am109 (b) A set of common objects of glorification
(c) A will to perform great deeds together
(d) A common language
10. Select the correct definition to define the term
‘Plebiscite’. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am113
(a) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which only the
female members of a region are asked to accept
or reject a proposal.
(b) Plebiscite is a direct vote by the male members of 14. When did the Greek struggle for independence begin?
a region are asked to accept or reject a proposal. (a) 1848
(c) Plebiscite is a direct vote by only a chosen few (b) 1842
from the total population of a particular region (c) 1821
to accept or reject a proposal. (d) 1896
(d) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which all the
citizens of a region are asked to accept or reject
a proposal. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am114
15. When did the war of independence begin in Greece?
(a) 1821
(b) 1815
11. Ernst Renan believed that the existence of nations is
(c) 1847

(d) 1849 (b) Karol Kurpinski

(c) Johann Gottfried
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am115 (d) Bourbon
16. Which English poet participated in the freedom
struggle movement in Greece?
(a) Lord Byron 21. Who were called Junkers of Prussia?
(b) Bourbon (a) prussia
(c) Metternich (b) Germans
(d) Philippe (c) large landowners
(d) army
17. Which Treaty recognised Greece as an independent

nation? 22. Who led the famous Expedition of the Thousand to
(a) Treaty of Constantinople South Italy?
(b) Treaty of Utrecht (a) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(c) Treaty of St. Louis (b) Mazzini
(d) Treaty of Peace and Amity (c) Metternich
(d) Ottoman
18. What is Romanticism?

(a) A cultural movement 23. What emphasised the notion of a united community
(b) Social movement enjoying equal rights under a constitution?
(c) Front movement (a) la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the
(d) Political movement citizen)
(b) French people in common
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am118 (c) French Flag
(d) France under Napoleon
19. Who popularised Mazurka in Poland?
(a) Delacroix
(b) Karol Kurpinski
(c) Johann Gottfried 24. What was the new name of the Estates General?
(d) Lord Byron (a) Federal Assembly
(b) States Assembly
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am119 (c) National Assembly
(d) Peoples Assembly
20. Who designed the cover of German almanac?
(a) Andreas Rebmann

25. Regional dialects were discouraged and ______, (b) King Louis Philippe
became the common language of the nation. (c) King Louis XVI
(a) English (d) Napoleon Bonaparte
(b) Polish language
(c) French
(d) Italian
30. Civil Code was introduced in the year of ___.
(a) 1809
(b) 1807
26. What actions were not taken in the name of the (c) 1805
nation during French revolution? (d) 1804
(a) Army was formed
(b) Social work was done
(c) Hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am130
commemorated, custom duties were abolished
(d) A centralised administrative system was
introduced
31. The Civil Code of 1804 in France is usually known
as-
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am126 (a) The French Revolutionary Code
(b) Napoleonic Code
(c) European Imperial Code
(d) The French Civil Code
27. The French revolutionaries declared that the mission
and destiny of the French nation was___
(a) To conquer the people of Europe Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am131
(b) To liberate the people of Europe from despotism.
(c) To strengthen absolute monarchies in all the
countries of Europe.
32. Which of the following reform/s was/were introduced
(d) To propagate the culture of France.
by Napoleon?
(a) Standardized system of weights and measures
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am127 (b) A common national currency
(c) Abolition of the feudal system
(d) All of the above
28. With the outbreak of the revolutionary wars, the
French armies began to carry the idea of _______ Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am132
abroad ?
(a) Revolution
(b) Napoleon
(c) Nationalism 33. Among which classes did the idea of national unity
following the abolition of aristocratic privileges
(d) Conservatism
gained popularity ?
(a) Aristocrats
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am128 (b) Peasants
(c) Liberal middle class
(d) None of the above
29. Who destroyed democracy in France through a
return to monarchy? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am133
(a) Duke Metternich

34. Which among the following best signifies the idea Prussia.
of liberal nationalism of nineteenth century Europe? (b) The union abolished the tariff barriers
(a) Emphasis on social justice (c) Reduced the number of currencies from thirty to
(b) State planned socio economic system three
(c) Freedom for individual and equality before law (d) An example of unified economic territory
(d) Supremacy of state oriented nationalism
39. For what purpose Vienna Congress was convened in

35. The term ‘Universal Suffrage’ means- 1815?
(a) The right to vote and get elected, granted only (a) To declare completion of German Unification.
to men. (b) To restore conservative regime in Europe
(b) The right to vote for all adults. (c) To declare war against France
(c) The right to vote and get elected, granted (d) To start the process of Italian unification
exclusively to property owning men.
(d) The right to vote and get elected, granted only
to educated men and women. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am139
40. Which of the following is not a feature or belief of
‘Conservatism’ ?
(a) Conservatives believe in established, traditional
36. What is the meaning of term liberalism in the institutions of state and policy
economic sphere? (b) Conservatives stressed the importance of
(a) Freedom for individual and equality before law tradition and preferred gradual development to
(b) State planned socio economic system quick change.
(c) Freedom of market and abolition of state imposed (c) Conservatives proposed to return to the society
restrictions on trade. of pre-revolutionary days and were against the
(d) All of the above ideas of modernisation to strengthen monarchy.
(d) Conservatives believed in the monarchy, church,
and other social hierarchies.
41. Who hosted the the congress at Vienna ?
(a) Louis Philippe
37. A custom union that was formed in 1834 at the (b) Giuseppe Mazzini
initiative of Prussia and joined by most of the
(c) Duke Metternich
German states was called-
(a) Zollverein (d) Johann Gottfried Herder
(b) Utopian
(c) Plebiscite Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am141
(d) All of these
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am137 42. Which of the following countries did not attend the
Congress of Vienna?
(a) Britain
(b) Russia
38. Which of the following was not the feature of the
(c) Switzerland
Zollverein?
(a) A custom union formed at the initiative of (d) Prussia

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am142 47. What were the consequences of the July revolution
of 1830 ?
(a) A constitutional monarchy with Louis Philippe
at its head was installed in France
43. Which of the following was not the objective of (b) Uprising in Brussels took place which led
Treaty of Vienna 1815 ? to Belgium breaking away from the United
(a) The Bourbon dynasty was restored to power. Kingdom of the Netherlands
(b) France lost the territories it had annexed under (c) Both a and b
Napoleon. (d) None of the above
(c) A series of states were set up on the boundaries
of France to prevent French expansion in future.
(d) The main intention was to restore the liberal
democratic order that had been overthrown by
Napoleon.
48. Which country is known as the Cradle of European
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am143 civilization?
(a) Belgium
(b) France
(c) Greece
44. Who among the following formed the secret society
(d) U.S.A
called ‘Young Italy’ ?
(a) Otto von Bismarck
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am148
(c) Metternich
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder
49. The Treaty which recognized Greece as an
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am144 independent nation-
(a) Treaty of Vienna 1815
(b) Treaty of Constantinople 1832
(c) Treaty of Warsaw 1814
45. The Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini was
(d) Treaty of Leipzig 1813
born at _________ in 1807 ?
(a) Genoa
(b) Carbonari Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am149
(c) Marseilles
(d) Berne
50. Which one of the following claimed that true German
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am145 culture was discovered among the common people-
das volk?
(a) Karol Karpinski
(b) Louis philippe
46. “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches (c) Lord Byron
cold.” Who among the following said this popular
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder
line?
(a) Giuseppe Mazzini
(b) Duke Metternich Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am150
(c) Otto Von Bismarck
(d) Giuseppe Garibaldi
51. Folk dancing like the polonaise and mazurka were
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am146 turned into nationalist symbols for national struggle

in which country? 56. Women were admitted to the Frankfurt parliament

(a) German in 1848 as _________.
(b) Russia (a) Full members
(c) Poland (b) Members with no voting rights
(d) Both b and c (c) Observers
(d) None of these
52. A romantic philosopher who celebrated national

struggles by turning folk dancing like the polonaise 57. Which among the following was the main reasons for
and mazurka into nationalist symbols. the weavers to revolt against contractors in Silesia,
(a) Karol Kurpinski in 1845?
(b) Eugene Delacroix (a) Contractors reduced their payments drastically.
(c) Johann Gottfried Herder (b) They stopped the supply of the raw material to
(d) Saint Paul them.
(c) They refuse to place orders for finished textiles.
(d) It was the wave of revolution.
53. Where was the frankfurt Parliament convened ?
(a) Hall of Mirrors
(b) Palace of Versailles 58. What happened to Poland at the end of 18th century.
(c) St Peter Church Select the correct option?
(a) Poland achieved independence at the end of the
(d) St Paul Church
18th century.
(b) Poland came totally under the control of Russia
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am153 and became part of Russia.
(c) Poland became the part of East Germany.
(d) Poland was partitioned at the end of the 18th
century by three Great Powers: Russia, Prussia
54. Which of the following states were ruled by Italian and Austria.
Princely house before the Unification of Italy?
(a) Sardinia-piedmont
(b) Lombardy Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am158
(c) Venetia
(d) Kingdom of two Sicilies
59. Who played the leading role in the unification of
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am154 Germany?
(a) German Emperor (formerly King of Prussia) —
Kaiser William I.
(b) Otto Von Bismarck (Prussian Chief Minister).
55. Who was known as ‘Bismarck of Italy’ ? (c) Johann Gottfried Herder — German philosopher.
(a) Garibaldi (d) Austrian Chancellor — Duke Metternich.
(b) Mazzini
(c) Cavour
(d) Metternich
Don’t take printout of this file because solution (d) All of the above

Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/ Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am163
whatsapp at 8905629969. 64. Which one of the following statement is false
regarding the Act of Union 1707?
Purchase Hard Book (a) It was an agreement between England and
Scotland
(b) It was an agreement between England and
60. Three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark, Ireland
Germany and France, ended in (c) It resulted in the formation of the ‘United
(a) Danish victory Kingdom of Great Britain’
(b) Prussian victory (d) It gave England control over Scotland
(c) French victory
(d) German victory Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am164
65. Who led the Catholic revolts against the British
Dominance over Ireland?
(a) Lord Byron
61. Who was proclaimed the emperor of Germany in
1871? (b) Ernest Renan
(a) Otto Von Bismarck (c) Wolfe Tone
(b) Victor Emmanuel II (d) None of the above
(c) Count Cavour
(d) Kaiser William I of Prussia Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am165
66. Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the United
Kingdom in_________.
(a) 1801
62. Who became the King of United Italy in 1861?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi (b) 1810
(b) Victor Emmanuel II (c) 1709
(c) Count Cavour (d) 1707
(d) Giuseppe Mazzini
67. When an abstract idea, for instance, greed, envy,

freedom, liberty is expressed through a person or a
63. Which one of the following was/were among the thing, it is known as _____.
symbol of the new Britain when a new ‘British (a) National Image
nation’ was forged through the propagation of a
dominant English culture? (b) Marianne
(a) Union Jack (c) Germania
(b) God save our noble king (d) Allegory
(c) English language

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am167 (b) Olive branch around the sword

(c) Broken chain
(d) All the above
68. Which of the following ideas was used by The French

revolution artists to portray female allegory? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am172
(a) Liberty
(b) Justice
(c) Republic
73. In visual representations, who wears a crown of oak
(d) All of these leaves?
(a) Marianne
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am168 (b) Germania
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
69. Which one of the following is not true about the

female allegory of France? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am173
(a) She was named Marianne
(b) She took part in the french revolution
(c) She was the symbol of national unity
74. The _____was a region of geographical and ethnic
(d) Here characteristic were drawn from those of variation comprising modern-day Romania, Bulgaria,
liberty, Justice and the republic Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-
Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am169 (a) Russia
(b) Slavs
(c) Balkans
(d) Das volk
70. Germany was unified in -
(a) 1870
(b) 1871 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am174
(c) 1872
(d) 1873
75. Slavs were the people who were the-
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am170 (a) Inhabitants of Romania, Bulgaria, Albania.
(b) Inhabitants of Greece, Macedonia, Croatia,
Bosnia-Herzegovina,
(c) Inhabitants of Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro
71. Select the characteristic of Marianne ? (d) All of the above
(a) The red cap, the tricolour and the cockade
(b) The sword, the broken chain and the Oak leaves
(c) The red cap, the broken chain and the sword
(d) All of these
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am171 76. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following-
(a) Otto Von Bismarck - Germany
(b) Napoleon - Spain
(c) Giuseppe Garibaldi - France
72. Which one of the following attributes stands for (d) Bourbon kings - Italy
‘Willingness to make peace’ ?
(a) Breastplate with eagle
77. In the print prepared by frédéric Sorrieu, a French (c) A return to a society of pre-revolutionary days
artist, the ‘Statue of Liberty’ ______ in the one (d) property and the family should be preserved.
hand _____ in the another ?
(a) Symbol of christianity and Bible
(b) Torch of Enlightenment and The Charter of the Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am181
Rights of Man.
(c) Flag and Constitution
(d) Traffic light and Rule book of traffic 82. Name the Italian revolutionary from Genoa.
(a) Metternich
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am177 (b) Johann Gottfried
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini
(d) None of these
78. Which country had been part of the ‘Ottoman

Empire’ since the 15th century? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am182
(a) Spain
(b) Greece
(c) France
83. Which language was spoken for purposes of diplomacy
(d) Germany in the mid 18th century in Europe?
(a) German
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am178 (b) English
(c) French
(d) Spanish
79. Which country became full-fledged territorial state

in Europe in the year 1789? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am183
(a) Germany
(b) France
(c) England
84. What was ‘Young Italy’ ?
(d) Spain (a) Vision of Italy
(b) Secret society
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am179 (c) National anthem of Italy
(d) None of these
80. When was the first clear expression of nationalism Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am184
noticed in Europe?
(a) 1787
(b) 1759
85. Treaty of Constantinople recognised .......... as an
(c) 1789
independent nation.
(d) 1769 (a) Greece
(b) Australia
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am180 (c) Italy
81. Which of the following did the European conservatives Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am185
not believe in?
(a) Traditional institution of state policy
(b) Strengthened monarchy
86. Which of the following did not play a role to develop

nationalist sentiments? 91. Which of the following was not a part of Napoleon’s
(a) Art defeat?
(b) Music (a) Russia
(c) Climate (b) Britain
(d) none of these (c) Austria
(d) Italy
87. Who was proclaimed the King of United Italy, in

1861? 92. Which newly designed flag was chosen to replace the
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi formal flag Royal Standard in France?
(b) Victor Emmanuel II (a) Union Jack
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini (b) Tricolour
(d) Cavour (c) White Saltire
(d) Red Cross
88. Liberal-nationalist mainly belong to which class?

(a) Elite class 93. Which of the following reforms made the whole
(b) Educated middle-class elite system in France more rational and efficient?
(c) Working class (a) Administrative reform
(d) Artisans (b) Social reform
(c) Economic reform
(d) Political reform
89. Where was the first upheaval took place in July,
1830?
(a) Italy 94. Who destroyed democracy in France?
(b) France (a) Adolf Hitler
(c) Germany (b) Mussolini
(d) Greece (c) Napolean Bonaparte
(d) Bismarck
90. The most serious source of nationalist tension in

Europe, after 1871, was an area called- 95. Which region is ruled over by ‘The Habsburg Empire’
(a) Ottoman ?
(b) Prussia (a) Austria-Hungary
(b) France-Netherlands
(c) Balkans
(c) Spain-Portugal
(d) Macedonia
(d) Scotland-Ireland
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am195 true German culture was to be discovered among the

(a) Common people
(b) Aristocratic
(c) Middle class elite
96. What was the main occupation in the mid 18th
(d) None of above
century in Europe?
(a) Trade and commerce
(b) Peasantry Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am200
(c) Craftmanship
101. The meaning of ‘Volksgeist’ is

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am196 (a) Common people
(b) Spirit of the nation
(c) Music
97. What was the main feature of the pattern of land (d) None of above
holding prevailing in the Eastern and Central
Europe? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am201
(a) Tenants
(b) Vast estates
(c) Small owners
(d) Landlords 102. Which of the following is the correct definition of
Conservatism?
(a) A direct vote by which all the people of region
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am197 are asked to accept or reject a proposal.
(b) A government that has no restraints on the
power exercised.
(c) A political philosophy that stressed the
98. Which country began to use language as a weapon of
importance of tradition, established customs and
national resistance?
institutions and preferred gradual development
(a) Poland
to quick change.
(b) Prussia
(d) It was a political association who founded a
(c) Hungary women’s journal.
(d) Austria
103. Who delivered a lecture at the University of

99. What major issue was criticised against by the liberal Sorbonne?
nationalists? (a) Ernst Renan
(a) freedom of the press (b) Frederick Sorrieu
(b) Preservation of the Church (c) Mazzini
(c) A modern army (d) Metternich
(d) Efficient bureaucracy
104. Which language was spoken by the aristocrats of

100. German philosopher, Johann Gottfried claimed that Europe in the eighteenth century ?
(a) French

(b) English 109. What is Zollverein?

(c) German (a) Custom union
(d) Spanish (b) Trade union
(c) Labor union
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am204 (d) Craft union
105. Which dynasty was restored in France after the fall
of Napoleon?
(a) Bourbon Dynasty 110. Which spirit was a driving-force to the European
(b) Maurya governments?
(c) Burmese (a) Conservatism
(d) Gonanda (b) Liberalism
(c) Nationalism
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am205 (d) Humanism
106. Which language was spoken by the aristocracy in
Galicia?
(a) Polish 111. Which country was set-up in the North after signing
(b) French the Treaty of Vienna in 1815?
(c) English (a) The kingdom of the Netherlands.
(d) German (b) Prussia
(c) Germany
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am206 (d) Europe
107. What did the idea of national unity symbolize in the
early-nineteenth century Europe?
(a) Liberalism 112. Which country was added to Piedmont into the
(b) Humanism South after the conclusion of the Treaty of Vienna
(c) Nationalism in 1815?
(d) Conservatism (a) Genoa
(b) Italy
(c) Germany
(d) France
108. What did the term ‘elle’ mean?
(a) A measure of cloth
(b) A measure of height
(c) A measure of crown 113. Which country was controlled by Austria during the
(d) A measure of food post-1815 period?
(a) Northern Italy
(b) Prussia
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am208 (c) Genoa
(d) France

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am213 118. Who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy?
(a) Kaiser William I
(b) Karol Kurpinski
(c) Cavour
114. What was the nature of the conservative regimes
(d) Otto von Bismarck
that established in 1815?
(a) Autocratic
(b) Subordinate Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am218
(c) Metternich
(d) Ernst Renan
119. Which act led to the establishment of the United
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am214 Kingdom of Great Britain?
(a) The Act of Union (1702)
(b) The Act of Union (1705)
(c) The Act of Union (1709)
115. Who described Mazzini as ‘the most dangerous
(d) The Act of Union (1707)
enemy of our social order’ ?
(a) Metternich
(b) Sorrieu Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am219
(c) Renan
(d) Ottoman
120. Which country was deeply divided between Catholic
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am215 and Protestant?
(a) Britain
(b) Italy
(c) Ireland
116. Who was the head of the constitutional monarchy
(d) France
that was installed by the liberal revolutionaries in
the aftermath of 1815?
(a) Louis Philippe. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am220
(b) Metternich
(c) Mazzini
(d) Ottoman
121. When was Ireland incorporated into the United
Kingdom of Britain?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am216 (a) 1818
(b) 1804
(c) 1809
(d) 1801
117. Which one of the seven Italian states was exclusively
ruled by the Italian princely house during the middle
of nineteenth century? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am221
(a) Austrian Habsburgs
(b) Britain
(c) Sardinia-Piedmont
122. Which of the following was not aim of the French
(d) Victor Emmanuel
revolutionaries?
(a) They will constitute the nation and shape its
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am217 destiny.
(b) Foundation of secular and democratic republic
(c) Drafting a formal constitution.
(d) Establishment of monarchy

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am222 127. Which countries defeated Napoleon in 1815?

(a) the United Kingdom, Russia, Austria, and
Prussia
(b) Russia, Austria, Paris and netheland
123. A form of monarchical government that (c) Netheland, the United Kingdom ,Austria, and
was centralised,militarised and repressive,is Prussia
called_____?
(d) None of these
(a) Absolutist
(b) Utopian
(c) Plebiscite Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am227
(d) Suffrage
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am223 128. Which ruler granted more freedom to the hungarians
in 1867?
(a) Andreas Rebmann
(b) Habsburg
124. Only for a brief period under the Jacobins did all (c) Karl Kaspar Fritz
_____enjoy suffrage.
(d) Ernst Renan
(a) women
(b) non-propertied men
(c) adult males Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am228
(d) children
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am224 129. The loosening of government controls is

called_____?
(a) Globalization
(b) Privatization
125. The Dream of Worldwide Democratic and Social (c) Liberalisation
Republics painting prepared by_____ complete
(d) Winnings
the sentence?
(a) Andreas Rebmann
(b) Frederic Sorrieu Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am229
(c) Karl Kaspar Fritz
(d) Ernst Renan
130. What did liberalism mean to the middle class in
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am225 Europe?
(a) End of aristocracy
(b) End of conservatism
(c) Freedom of the individual and equality of all
126. Which of the following is not feature of civil code of before law
1804?
(d) Universal adult franchise
(a) Feudal system was abolished.
(b) Equality before the law was established.
(c) Right to property was given. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am230
(d) Serfdoms and manorial dues was established.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am226 131. Which one of the following was not implemented
under the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
(a) Restoration of Bourbon dynasty
(b) Setting up series of states on the boundaries of

France (d) Switzerland

(c) Restoration of monarchies
(d) Diluting the German confederation of 39 states Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am235
136. The first great revolution which gave the clear idea
of nationalism abroad-
132. Who believed that the traditional institutions like (a) The Russian Revolution
the Monarchy and the Church should be preserved? (b) The French Revolution
(a) Conservatives (c) The American Revolution
(b) Liberals (d) India’s First War of Independence
(c) Revolutionaries
(d) Romantics Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am236
137. Which of the following statements about the ‘French
Revolution’ are correct?
133. The place where the priests and bishops were (1) After the end of the French Revolution it was
punished. proclaimed that it was the people who would
(a) Siberia henceforth constitute the nation and shape its
destiny.
(b) Tundra
(2) France will have a constitutional monarchy and
(c) Mongolia the new republic will be headed by a member of
(d) None of above the royal family.
(3) A centralised administrative system will be put
in place to formulate uniform laws for all citizens.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am233 (4) Imposition of internal custom duties and dues
will continue to exist in France.
(a) (2) and (3)
134. ‘Nationalism’, which emerged as a force in the late (b) (2) and (4)
19th century, means (c) (1) and (3)
(a) strong devotion for one’s own country and its (d) (3) and (4)
history and culture.
(b) strong devotion for one’s own country without
appreciation for other nations.
(c) strong love for one’s own country and hatred for
others.
(d) equally strong devotion for all the countries of 138. The French revolutionaries declared that the mission
the world. and destiny of the French nation was-
(a) to conquer the people of Europe.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am234 (b) to liberate the people of Europe from despotism.
(c) to strengthen absolute monarchies in all the
countries of Europe.
(d) to propagate the ideals of liberty, equality, and
135. Which of the following country did not attend the fraternity in every part of the world.
Congress of Vienna?
(a) Britain
(b) Russia
(c) Prussia

139. The Civil Code of 1804 in France is usually known (d)educated men and women.
as-
(a) The French Revolutionary Code
(b) Napoleonic Code
(c) European Imperial Code
(d) The French Civil Code
144. Which of the following is not a feature or belief of
‘Conservatism’ ?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am239 (a) Conservatives believe in established, traditional
institutions of state and policy.
(b) Conservatives stressed the importance of
140. The Napoleonic Code was exported to which of the tradition and preferred gradual develop¬ment to
following regions? quick change.
(a) England (c) Conservatives proposed to return to the society
(b) Spain of pre-revolutionary days and were against the
ideas of modernisation to strengthen monarchy.
(c) Regions under French control
(d) Conservatives believed in the monarchy, church,
(d) Poland
and other social hierarchies.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am240 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am244
141. The liberal nationalism stands for-

145. The Treaty of recognized Greece as an independent
(a) freedom for the individual and equality before
nation-
law.
(a) Vienna 1815
(b) preservation of autocracy and clerical privileges.
(b) Constantinople 1832
(c) freedom for only male members of society and
(c) Warsaw 1814
equality before law.
(d) Leipzig 1813
(d) freedom only for senior citizens.
146. What happened to Poland at the end of 18th century?

142. Who among the following formed the secret society
Select the correct option.
called ‘Young Italy’ ?
(a) Poland achieved independence at the end of the
18th century.
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(b) Poland came totally under the control of Russia
(c) Mettemich and became part of Russia.
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder (c) Poland became the part of East Germany.
(d) Poland was partitioned at the end of the 18th
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am242 century by three Great Powers: Russia,Prussia
and Austria.
143. Only for a brief period under the Jacobins

did_________ enjoy suffrage.
(a) All men.
(b) all adult males. 147. Who played the leading role in the unification of
(c) property owning men.

Germany? (b) Ottoman empire

(a) German Emperor (formerly King of Prussia) — (c) German empire
Kaiser William I. (d) Habsburg rulers
(b) Otto Von Bismarck (Prussian Chief Minister).
(c) Johann Gottfried Herder — German philosopher.
(d) Austrian Chancellor — Duke Metternich.
152. The Act of Union of 1707 was between .................
and.......... .
(a) Poland, England
148. What helped in the formation of a nation-state in (b) England, Scotland
Britain? Select the correct option. (c) Scotland, Poland
(a) The formation of a nation-state in Britain was (d) Scotland, Germany
the result of a sudden upheaval.
(b) In 1688, the monarchy in Britain had seized the
power from English Parliament. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am252
(c) The parliament through a bloodless revolution
seized power from the monarchy which gradually
led to the emergence of a nation-state.
153. Jacob clubs were the .......... .
(d) The British nation was formed as a result of a
(a) Political Clubs
war with Scotland and Wales.
(b) Personal Clubs
(c) Thinkers Clubs
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am248 (d) temporary Clubs
149. Who was responsible for the unification of Germany?
(a) Count Cavour
(b) Bismarck
(c) Garibaldi 154. When conservative regimes were restored to power,
many liberal minded people went underground
because of the fear of .......... .
(a) minister
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am249 (b) king
(c) liberty
(d) Repression
150. The allegory of the German nation who wears a
crown of oak leaves was a- Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am254
(a) Marianne
(b) Union Jack
(c) Britannia
155. …….. the allegory represent the nation of France.
(d) Germania
(a) Marianne
(b) Germania
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am250 (c) Marianne,Bharat mata
(d) Germania, Marianne
151. A large part of Balkan region was under the control Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am255
of-
(a) Russian empire

156. ........ were the most serious nationalist tension in (c) Giuseppe Mazzini
Europe after 1871. (d) Napoleon
(a) Balkans
(b) Ottoman Empire
(c) European powers
(d) imperialism,
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am256 161. What was the political situation in France at the
time of french revolution?
(a) Democracy
(b) Republic
157. What was the major issue taken up by the liberal (c) Sovereign State
nationalists? (d) Absolute Monarchy
(a) freedom of press
(b) freedom of imotions
(c) freedom of unity
(d) freedom of press
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am257 162. What emphasised the notion of a united community

enjoying equal rights under a constitution?
(a) la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the
citizen)
158. Select the proclamation of the French Revolution. (b) French people in common
(a) the men would constitute the nation and shape (c) French Flag
its destiny (d) Idea of one nation state
(b) the people would constitute the nation and shape
its destiny
(c) the women would constitute the nation and
shape its destiny
(d) the kids would constitute the nation and shape
its destiny 163. How many colours did the new French flag have?
(a) two
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am258 (b) tricolour
(c) 4 colours
(d) single colour
159. Select the female allegory of the German nation.

(a) Marianne and Germania Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am263
(b) Marianne
(c) Germania
(d) none of these 164. By whom was the Estates General elected?
(a) men and women
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am259 (b) active citizens
(c) women
(d) senior citizens
160. He was described as ‘the most dangerous enemy of

our social order’ by Metternich.Who was he? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am264
(a) Lord Byron
(b) Garibaldi

165. What was the new name of the Estates General? (d) there was confusion and dissatisfaction in the air
(a) Federal Assembly
(b) States Assembly
(c) National Assembly
(d) Peoples Assembly
170. What was the purpose of the Jacobin clubs?

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am265 (a) to demoralise the people
(b) to speak against France
(c) to hold activities and campaigns
166. What actions were taken in the name of the nation? (d) to socialise among different races
(a) army was formed
(b) social work was done
(c) hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs
commemorated, custom duties were abolished
(d) regular meetings were held
171. What was the result of the activities and campaigns
held at the Jacobin clubs?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am266 (a) prepared the way for the French armies to move
to different countries
(b) they brought about unrest in the society
167. What type of an administrative system was set up? (c) they brought about crime and destruction
(a) Federal administrative system (d) there was immediate peace
(b) Centralised administrative system
(c) Regional administrative system Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am271
(d) Decentralised administrative system
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am267 172. Which countries did the French armies move into?
(a) Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and much of Italy
(b) Holland and Italy
168. What mission did the revolutionaries declare as the (c) Holland and Belgium
destiny to the French people? (d) Switzerland and Italy
(a) to liberate the peoples of Europe from despotism
- to help other peoples of Europe to become
nations. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am272
(b) to make a one nation state
(c) to become a democracy
(d) to become sovereign 173. What idea did the French armies carry abroad
through the revolutionary wars?
(a) Despotism
(b) Nationalism
(c) War Strategies
(d) Violence and bloodshed
169. What happened when the news of the events in
France reached the different cities of Europe?
(a) There was tumult Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am273
(b) the people did not know how to react
(c) students and other members of educated middle
classes began setting up Jacobin clubs 174. What did Napoleon do in the territory that was

under his control? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am278

(a) set about introducing many reforms
(b) set about war strategies
(c) worked for peace
179. What did the Civil Code of 1804 bring about?
(d) worked towards democratic ideas
(a) Right by birth to all facilities of state
(b) did away with all privileges based on birth,
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am274 established equality before the law and secured
the right to property.
(c) no right to property
(d) No right to equality
175. What type of rule was carried out in France during
Napoleon’s time?
(a) Federal rule Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am279
(b) Democracy
(c) Monarchy
(d) Republic
180. Which regions was the Civil Code exported to?
(a) Switzerland and Italy
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am275 (b) Italy and Germany
(c) Switzerland and Germany
(d) Dutch Republic, in Switzerland, in Italy and
Germany
176. Napoleon had, no doubt, destroyed …………...in
France.
(a) Monarchy Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am280
(b) Democracy
(c) Federal rule
(d) Sovereignty
181. What did Napoleon do in the rural areas of these
regions under French control.?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am276 (a) simplified administrative divisions, abolished the
feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom
and manorial due
(b) made administration strict
177. What did Napoleon do to make the system efficient (c) encouraged the feudal system
and rational in France?
(d) put taxes on the peasants
(a) in the administrative field he had incorporated
revolutionary principles
(b) brought about different reforms Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am281
(c) worked on military
(d) worked on the financial conditions
182. What changes did Napoleon bring about in the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am277 towns?
(a) guild restrictions were removed. Transport
and communication systems were improved.
Peasants, artisans, workers and new businessmen
178. What was the Civil Code of 1804 also known as? enjoyed a new-found freedom.
(a) the Administrative Code (b) Transport and communication systems were
(b) Code of Justice improved.
(c) the Napoleonic Code (c) Peasants, artisans, workers and new businessmen
(d) the National Code had to pay tax
(d) guild restrictions remained as they were

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am282 187. What is Suffrage?

(a) Right to property
(b) Right to Justice
(c) Right to vote
183. In mid-eighteenth-century Europe what was the
(d) Right to complain
status of Germany, Italy and Switzerland?
(a) they were divided into kingdoms, duchies and
cantons whose rulers had their autonomous Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am287
territories
(b) they were sovereign states
(c) they were democracies
188. In revolutionary France, the right to vote and to get
(d) they were republics
elected was granted exclusively to ………………….
(a) property-owning men
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am283 (b) all
(c) Men and women
(d) upper class
184. Which territories were included under the Habsburg
Empire? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am288
(a) Alpine regions – the Tyrol, Austria Hungry
and the Sudetenland , Bohemia, Lombardy and
Venetia
(b) Tyrol, Austria and the Sudetenland 189. A merchant travelling in 1833 from Hamburg to
(c) Bohemia, Lombardy and Venetia Nuremberg to sell his goods would have had to pass
through ……………….
(d) Sudetenland , Bohemia, Lombardy
(a) 11 customs barriers
(b) 6 custom barriers
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am284 (c) 7 custom barriers
(d) no custom barriers
185. When did Industrialisation take place in France and Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am289
parts of the German states?
(a) 18th century
(b) later 18th century
(c) nineteenth century 190. When was the custom union or zollverein formed at
the initiative of Prussia and joined by most of the
(d) mid 18th century
German states?
(a) 1836
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am285 (b) 1834
(c) 1837
(d) 1835
186. What is Liberalism?
(a) ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber, Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am290
meaning free- freedom for the individual and
equality of all before the law.
(b) end of autocracy
(c) equal rules for all 191. What did the customs union or zollverein do?
(a) abolished tax
(d) liberty to the upper classes
(b) abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number
of currencies from over thirty to two
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am286 (c) abolished tariff charges and reduced the

currencies to 5 196. What happened at the Treaty of Constantinople of

(d) only abolished tariff barriers 1832?
(a) revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off
(b) struggle for independence amongst the Greeks
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am291 began
(c) Greece was recognised as an independent nation
(d) European civilisation and mobilised public
192. When was Napoleon defeated? opinion to support its struggle against a Muslim
(a) 1815 empire
(b) 1820
(c) 1817 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am296
(d) 1821
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am292 197. In which year did Louis Philippe flee and the National
Assembly was proclaimed a Republic?
(a) 1846
(b) 1848
193. What was conservatism?
(c) 1845
(a) strict rules on the society
(d) 1847
(b) social norms became conservative
(c) monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies,
property and the family – should be preserved Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am297
(d) different norms for different classes
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am293 198. When Prussia took on the leadership of the movement
for national unification who was the chief architect of
the movement?
194. When did the Treaty of Vienna take place and who (b) Kaiser William I
were the participants?
(a) 1816, Britain, Russia, Prussia
(d) Metternich
(b) 1815, Britain, Russia, Prussia, Austria
(c) 1820, Britain and Russia
(d) 1817, Russia, Prussia, Austria Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am298
199. How many wars over seven years – with Austria,
Denmark and France – ended in Prussian victory
and completed the process of unification?
195. Who was Giuseppe Mazzini, what did he do? (a) four
(a) French revolutionary, formed groups (b) three
(b) British statesman, gave a speech (c) six
(c) Russian politician, wrote a book (d) two
(d) Italian Revolutionary, founded two underground
societies - Young Italy in Marseilles and Young
Europe in Berne and opposed monarchy Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am299
200. In January 1871 who was proclaimed German

Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles? (b) Second World War

(a) William II (c) Fall of the Ottomon Empire
(b) Otto von Bismarck (d) Integration of the Balkan States
(c) Kaiser William I
(d) Metternich
205. The allegory of the German nation who wears a
crown of oak leaves was a-
201. Who had sought to put together a coherent (a) Marianne
programme for a unitary Italian Republic in the (b) Union Jack
1830s ? (c) Britannia
(a) Metternich (d) Germania
(b) Otto von Bismarck
(d) Napoleon
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am301 Ans : (d) Germania
206. The first step introduced to unify Germany was

______.
202. …..is perhaps the most celebrated of Italian freedom
(a) Diet
fighters, (1807-82).
(a) Giuseppe Mazzini (b) Military alliances
(b) Metternich (c) Zollverein
(c) Otto von Bismarck (d) Carbonari
(d) Giuseppe Garibaldi
207. The Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini was

born in Genoa in the year___
203. Which area was the most serious source of nationalist
(a) 1805
tension in Europe after 1871?
(a) Southern Europe (b) 1806
(b) mid Europe (c) 1807
(c) Balkan States (d) 1808
(d) Eastern States
208. Which of the following is the term used for Bismark’s

policy?
204. Each power – Russia, Germany, England, Austro-
(a) steel and iron policy
Hungary – was keen on countering the hold of other
powers over the Balkans, this became one of the (b) Hand shake policy
major (c) Blood and Iron policy
reasons for ………… (d) golden goose policy
(a) First World War

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am308 213. What emerged as a force which brought about

sweeping changes in the political and material world
of Europe in the nineteenth century?
(a) The emergence of the nation state.
209. Members of the Jacobin club were known as (b) The multi-national dynastic empire.
_______. (c) Territorial state.
(a) Conservatives
(d) Absolute monarchy.
(b) Revolutionaries
(c) Terrorists
(d) Sans-culottes
214. What did the ideas of la patrie and le citoyen signify
in the French Revolution?
(a) The motherland and the children
210. What was the theme of the printings of Frederic (b) The fatherland and the citizens
Sorrieu? (c) The community and the citizens
(a) Democracy
(d) The state and the community
(b) Socialism
(c) Capitalism
215. The artisans, industrial workers and peasants
revolted against which one of the following in 1848,
Europe?
211. Which of the following is not true with reference to (a) Economic hardship
Napoleon? (b) Political unstability
(a) He introduced Napoleonic Code. (c) Monarchy
(b) He promoted democracy in France. (d) Revolutionary war
(c) He made the administrative system more rational
and efficient.
(d) The Napoleonic Code was exported to all the
regions under French control.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am311 216. The term ‘Liberalism’ is derived from the Latin root
liber, meaning
(a) free
(b) democratic
212. Which of the following was a part of the Napoleonic (c) capitalist
Code?
(d) socialist
1. The feudal system was abolished.
2. Guild restrictions were removed.
3. Weights and measures were standardised. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am316
4. A common national currency was introduced.
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 3 and 4 217. In 1834, a Custom Union or Zollverein was formed
at the initiative of ____and was joined by most of
(d) All the above
the German states.
(a) Russia
(b) Prussia 222. Who was Giuseppe Mazzini?

(c) England (a) Italian revolutionary.
(d) France (b) French revolutionary.
(c) Russian revolutionary.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am317 (d) Prussian revolutionary.
218. The basic aim of Zollverein was____
(a) to abolish Tariff barriers.
(b) to reunite Germany. 223. ____believed that God had intended nations to be
(c) to reunite Prussia. the natural units of mankind.
(d) to promote Democracy. (a) Hitler
(b) Napoleon
(d) Lenin
219. Which of the following countries did not participate
in the Treaty of Vienna?
(a) Britain
(b) Russia 224. Who among the following was described as ‘the
(c) Prussia most dangerous enemy of social order’ by Duke
(d) United States Metternich?
(a) Louis Philippe
(b) Karol Kurpinski
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am319 (c) Guiseppe Mazzini
(d) Johan Gottfried
220. Who headed the Vienna Congress of 1815? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am324

(a) The Austrian Chancellor Duke Mette.-nich.
(b) The German Chancellor Duke Metternich.
(c) The Australian Chancellor Duke Metternich.
(d) The French Chancellor Duke Metternich. 225. In which Year was the Vienna Congress held?
(a) 1815
(b) 1845
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am320 (c) 1885
(d) 1915
221. The main intention of the Treaty of Vienna 1815 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am325
was-
(a) to restore the monarchies that had been
overthrown by Napoleon, and to create a new
conservative order in Europe 226. Elle, the measuring unit in Germany was used to
(b) to promote democracy in Europe measure-
(c) to promote socialism in Europe (a) cloth
(d) to promote capitalism in Europe (b) thread
(c) land
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am321 (d) height

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am326 231. Who was Johann Gottfried?

(a) A German philosopher
(b) A German scientist
(c) A Russian scientist
227. Which of the following statement is true regarding
(d) A Russian philosopher
“Zollverein’ ?
(a) It was created to restore democracy.
(b) It was created to unify Germany. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am331
(c) It was created to abolish tarrif barriers.
(d) It was created to abolish autocracy.
232. The Frankfurt Parliament was convened in the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am327 Church of St. Paul in
(a) 1846
(b) 1847
(c) 1848
228. Who, among the following, hosted the Congress at
(d) 1849
Vietnam in 1815?
(a) King of Netherlands
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am332
(c) Duke Metternich
(d) Otto Von Bismark
233. Who was the Chief architect of the unification of the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am328 Germany?
(a) Chief Minister - William - I
(b) Chief Minister - Otto Von Bismarck
(c) Prime Minister - Otto Von Bismarck
229. Which of the given points did not define the term
(d) The King - William - I
‘Liberal Nationalism’ for the people of Europe in the
nineteenth century?
(a) Freedom for the individual and equality before Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am333
the law.
(b) Government by consent.
(c) End of autocracy and clerical privileges.
234. Which of the following treaty recognised Greece as
(d) Government empowered to violate the right to
an independent nation?
private property.
(a) Vienna Treaty of 1815
(b) Constantinople Treaty
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am329 (c) Diplomatic Treaty of Sardenia Piedmont
(d) None of these
230. The movement criticised the glorification of reason Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am334

and science and focused instead on emotions,
intuition and mystical feelings.
(a) Liberalism
(b) Nationalism 235. Which one of the following is true about the ‘Treaty
(c) Romanticism of Constantinople’ of 1832?
(a) It recognised Turkey as an independent nation.
(d) Spiritualism
(b) It recognised Greece as an independent nation.
(c) It recognised Germany as an independent nation.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am330 (d) It recognised France as an independence nation.

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am335 1861?

(a) Guiseppe Mazzini
(b) King Victor Emmanuel - II
(c) William - I
236. Who was proclaimed German Emperor after its
(d) Johann Gottfried
unification?
(a) The Prussian King - William - I
(b) The Russian King - William - I Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am340
(c) The Chief Minister of Otto Von Bismarck
(d) Lenin
241. Which of the following was the result of the Act of
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am336 Union 1707?
(a) United Kingdom of Irish
(b) United Kingdom of Scotland
(c) United Kingdom of America
237. Which of the following states was ruled by an Italian
(d) United Kingdom of Great Britain
Princely House?
(a) Sardinia - Piedmont
(b) Papal State Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am341
(c) Venetia
(d) Tuscany
242. Who amongst the following Italian Leaders was
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am337 neither a revolutionary nor a democrat?
(a) Mazzini
(b) Cavour
(c) Garibaldi
238. The process of the unification of the Italy was led by
(d) Victor Emmanuel-II
(a) Sardinia - Piedmont
(b) Papal State
(c) Venetia Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am342
(d) Tuscany
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am338 243. Who played the key role in unifying Germany?
(a) Friedrich Wilhelm - IV
(b) Otto Von Bismark
(c) Mattemich
239. Who was Cavour?
(d) Kaisar William - I
(a) He was the Chief Minister of Italy, during its
unification.
(b) He was the Chief Minister of Germany, during Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am343
its unification.
(c) He was the Chief Minister of France, during its
unification.
244. ____was a female allegory, which represented the
(d) He was the Chief Minister of Russia, during its
peoples nations in France.
unification.
(a) Germania
(b) Marianne
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am339 (c) Bharat Mata
240. Who was proclaimed the king of United Italy in Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am344
245. Which one of the following is true regarding how (b) Germany
the new artists depicted liberty during the French (c) Russia
Revolution? (d) Japan
(a) As a female figure with a torch of enlightenment
in one hand and the Charter of Rights of Man in
the other hand. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am349
(b) Blindfolded woman carrying a pair of weighing
scales.
(c) The gold red and black tricolour.
250. “True German Culture is to discovered among
(d) Rays of the rising sun.
common people”. Who said?
(a) Johann Gottfried Herder
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am345 (b) Napoleon
(c) Karl Kaspar Fritz
(d) Andreas Rebmann
246. Which of the following became the female allegory of
the German Nation? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am350
(a) Marianne
(b) Germania
(c) Britannia
251. Which of the following treaty which recognised
(d) Mazzini
Greece as an independent nation.
(a) The treaty of Constantinople of 1832
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am346 (b) Treaty of Tordesillas of 1494
(c) The Treaty of Paris of 1783
(d) The Congress of Vienna of 1815
247. What does a blind-folded woman carrying a pair of
weighing scales symbolize? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am351
(a) Peace
(b) Equality
(c) Justice
252. Select the event that mobilised nationalist feelings
(d) Liberty
among the educated elite across Europe in 1830-
1848?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am347 (a) Napoleonic wars
(b) series of republican revolts
(c) French Revolution
(d) The Greek War of Independence
248. The most serious source of nationalist tension in
Europe after 1871 the area was called ___
(a) Prussia Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am352
(b) Russia
(c) Balkans
(d) England
253. Who was Giuseppe Mazzini?
(a) German revolutionary
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am348 (b) Italian revolutionary
(c) French revolutionary
(d) Europeon revolutionary
249. Which of the following powers was not interested in
Balkan peninsula? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am353
(a) England

254. Who was not the chief architect of the unification Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am358
of Italy?
(b) Cavour
(c) William I 259. What was Sorrieu’s dream?
(a) A world made up of ‘democratic and social
(d) Victor Emmanuel II
republic’
(b) A world made up of ‘socialism and communism’
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am354 (c) A world made up of ‘hereditary monarchs’
(d) A world made up of ‘dictators and feudal lords’
255. Who did not contribute in the unification of Italy? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am359
(a) Garibaldi
(b) Cavour
(c) Mussolini
260. By early 19th century, which of the following
European country had already become a nation
state?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am355 (a) Italy
(b) Germany
(c) Switzerland
(d) Poland
256. What wast the National Anthem of New Brtain?
(a) The Star-Spangled Banner
(b) Lift Every Voice and Sing Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am360
(c) Hail to Thee in the Victor’s Crown
(d) God Save Our Noble King
261. The Statue of Liberty was installed in -
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am356 (a) London
(b) Paris
(c) Berlin
(d) New York
257. Female allegories were invented by artists in the
nineteenth century to represent the nation.____
wears a crown of oak leaves. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am361
(a) Garibaldi
(b) Germania
(c) Mussolini
262. Ernst Renan belonged to -
(d) Marianne
(a) Austria
(b) Germany
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am357 (c) France
(d) Australia
258. In his series of four prints, which of the following Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am362
big European countries has not been depicted by the
French artist, Frederic Sorrieu -
(a) Switzerland
(b) England 263. Which of these countries led the procession as
(c) Germany depicted by Sorrieu -
(a) Russia and Germany
(d) Spain

(b) The United States and Switzerland Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am367

(c) England and Spain
(d) Denmark and Portugal
268. What name was given to the Estate General in

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am363 France?
(a) The French Congress
(b) National Assembly
(c) The Council Elders
264. French Revolution -
(a) was the first clear-cut expression of nationalism (d) Advisory Body of citizens
(b) was the first attempt to unite all the nations of
Europe Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am368
(c) was the handiwork of Napoleon Bonaparte
(d) was an attempt to root out capitalism from
France
269. After the French Revolution, a common language
adopted for the whole nation which was -
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am364 (a) spoken and written in the southern region
(b) spoken and written in the northern region
(c) spoken and written in Paris
265. French Revolution led to - (d) spoken and written in western region
(a) the transfer of sovereignty from French nobility
to monarchy Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am369
(b) the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to
a body of French citizens
(c) the transfer of power from the French citizens to
a dictator 270. Andreas Rebmann was a
(d) special privileges to the French elite (a) British journalist
(b) French journalist
(c) German journalist
(d) Austrian journalist
266. The mission and destiny of the French nation as
declared by the revolutionaries was -
(a) to make France the leader of Europe
(b) to make France miltarily strong 271. Industrialisation in Europe began first of all in___
(c) to unite the people of Europe in one nation (a) Germany
(d) to liberate the people of Europe from despotism (b) France
(c) England
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am366 (d) Prussia
267. The Civil Code of 1804 is usually known as -
(a) The Hitler Code
(b) The Churchill Code 272. Napoleon lost the battle of Leipzig in -
(c) The Napoleonic Code (a) 1809
(d) The Bismark Code (b) 1813
(c) 1814

(d) 1815 (b) Educated middle classes

(c) Industrialists
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am372 (d) Priests of the Catholic Church
273. In revolutionary France, the right to vote was granted
to -
(a) All male citizens 278. Which event mobilised nationalist feelings among the
(b) All adult male citizens educated elite across Europe?
(c) All male and female adult citizens (a) The Vienna Peace Settlement 1814-15
(d) All property-owning men (b) Union of England and Scotland, 1789
(c) The Greek War of Independence (1827-32)
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am373 (d) Unification of Italy
274. Zollverein formed in 1834 by the German state was
(a) a revolutionary body
(b) a club of German elites 279. The English poet who organised funds and later
(c) a customs union went to fight in the Greek War of Independence was -
(d) a state duty (a) Shelley
(b) Keats
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am374 (c) Lord Byron
(d) Lord Tennyson
275. As per Napoleonic code the status of women was
that of -
(a) an adult
(b) a minor 280. Grimm Brothers contributed to the nation-building
(c) a slave of Germany through -
(d) a housewife (a) operas and music
(b) song
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am375 (c) folktales
(d) dance
276. Duke Metternich was the Chancellor of -
(a) Austria
(b) Germany
(c) Denmark 281. Delacroix was -
(d) France (a) a German Romantic painter
(b) a British Romantic painter
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am376 (c) an Italian Romantic painter
(d) A French Romantic painter
277. Revolution of liberalism in Europe was led by -
(a) Nobility

282. Karol Kurpinski celebrated the national struggle (c) 831

through - (d) 861
(a) operas and music
(b) folktales
(c) language
(d) folk poetry
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am382 287. Otto von Bismarck was the Prime Minister of -
(a) Hanover
(b) Habsburg
(c) Italy
283. The country that prohibited the use of Polish in (d) Prussia
Poland was -
(a) Germany
(b) Italy Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am387
(c) France
(d) Russia
288. The Kingdom of Two Sicilies was located in -
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am383 (a) North Italy
(b) South Italy
(c) Eastern Italy
(d) Western Italy
284. Food shortage and widespread unemployment
brought the population of Paris out on the roads in
the year - Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am388
(a) 1728
(b) 1788
(c) 1848
289. The last to be united with Italy was -
(d) 1884 (a) Tuscany
(b) Modena
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am384 (c) The Papal State
(d) Parma
285. Weavers in Silesia led a revolt against contractors Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am389

in -
(a) 1825
(b) 1835
290. Countries involved in the Seven Year war (1856-63)
(c) 1845
were -
(d) 1855 (a) Russia, Germany, Austria and Spain
(b) Austria, Denmark, France and Prussia
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am385 (c) Britain, Russia, Italy and Germany
(d) Turkey, Spain, Austria and France
286. The number of elected representatives who took part Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am390
in the Frankfurt parliament convened in the Church
of St. Paul on 18 May 1848 was -
(a) 721
(b) 791 291. Ireland was incorporated into the United Kingdom

in - 296. Marianne is the allegory of -

(a) 1701 (a) Germany
(b) 1751 (b) Italy
(c) 1781 (c) France
(d) 1801 (d) Canada
292. The Act of Union (1707) was struck between 297. Broken Chains are a symbol of -
(a) England and France (a) being freed
(b) Ireland and England (b) protest
(c) England and Scotland (c) adventure
(d) Russia and Germany (d) aggression
293. Union Jack is the national flag of - 298. Crown of Oak leaves signifies -
(a) Ireland (a) Willingness to make peace
(b) United Kingdom (b) Readiness to fight
(c) Germany (c) Heroism
(d) Canada (d) Beginning of a new era
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(1864), Austria (1866) and France (1870-71) to unify
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Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am394 299. Rays of the rising sun signify -

(a) beginning of a new era
(b) victory
295. Which was not an obstacle in the way of the Italian (c) hope and trust
unification - (d) good days ahead
(a) Division of Italy into weak states
(b) Alien rule
(c) Congress of Vienna
(d) Opposition of Germany
300. Pick out the odd one out - Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am404

(a) Germania
(b) Bharat Mata
(c) Flag of Liberty
305. Which country stood for the first political experiment
(d) Marianna
in liberal democracy in Europe?
(a) Germany
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am400 (b) Italy
(c) France
(d) England
301. Which area does not constitute the Balkans-
(a) Romania Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am405
(b) Belgium
(c) Bosnia
(d) Serbia
306. Which customs union was formed by Prussia to
abolish tariff barriers?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am401 (a) Elle
(b) Zollverein
(c) European Economic Union
(d) La Patrie
302. Name of European power which was not keen on
countering the hold of other powers over the Balkans
was - Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am406
(a) Russia
(b) England
(c) USA
307. What sort of regimes were set-up in 1815 in Europe?
(d) Germany
(a) Autocratic
(b) Democratic
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am402 (c) Monarchical
(d) Liberal
303. The cover of German almanac was designed by which Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am407
of the following journalist?
(a) Frederic Sorrieu
(b) Ernest Sorbonne
(c) Andreas Rebmann 308. Which one of the following is not true about the
female allegory of France?
(d) Karl Kaspar Fritz
(a) She was named Marianne
(b) She took part in the French Revolution
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am403 (c) She was a symbol of national unity
(d) Her characteristics were drawn from those of
Liberty and Republic
304. Which one of the following is true about the ‘Treaty
of Constantinople’ of 1832? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am408
(a) It recognized Turkey as an independent nation
(b) It recognized Greece as an independent nation
(c) It recognized Germany as an independent nation
309. Which of the following countries was not part of
(d) It recognized France as an independent nation
the four European powers that collectively defeated

Napoleon? 314. The Germans under the leadership of ____built

(a) Austria their German Empire.
(b) Prussia (a) Prussia
(c) Spain (b) Austria
(d) Britain (c) Greek
(d) None of these
310. Who among the following did not contribute in the

Unification of Italy? 315. A treaty was signed in London in 1827, by -
(a) Mazzine (a) Great Britain
(b) Cavour (b) France
(c) Garibaldi (c) Russia
(d) Otto von Bismarck (d) All of these
311. Which area was known as the powder keg of Europe? 316. After the release of Giuseppo Mazzini from prison he
(a) Ottoman Empire found a new organisation called -
(b) Italy (a) National Italy
(c) Balkans (b) Young Italy
(d) Germany (c) United Italy
(d) Organised Italy
312. Modern form of nationalism received its greatest

boost during the - 317. The combined forces of Prussia and Austria defeated
(a) Early middle age -
(b) French Revolution (a) France
(c) American Revolution (b) Denmark
(d) None of these (c) Russia
(d) None of these
313. The French Revolution required the citizen to speak -

(a) Latine 318. Which two countries had a common ruler King
(b) French Francis Joseph - Dual monarchy?
(c) English (a) Austria - Hungary
(d) None of these (b) Austria - France
(c) France - Russia
(d) France - Hungary

319. The Polish State was divided and partitioned among 324. In the Frankfurt parliament, on which date a
the constitution was drafted?
(a) Russians, Germans and Prussians (a) 8 May 1848
(b) Germans, Austrians and Prussians (b) 18 May 1848
(c) Russians, Prussians and Austrians (c) 18 June 1840
(d) None of these (d) 11 August 1848
320. The civil code of 1804 - usually known as - 325. In which year was Treaty of Vienna signed?
(a) The Bismarck Code (a) 1811
(b) The Napoleonic Code (b) 1810
(c) The National Code (c) 1815
(d) The Social Code (d) 1812
321. When Napolean invaded Italy? 326. Unification of Germany took place between which
(a) 1781 period?
(b) 1782 (a) 1860 to 1871
(c) 1797 (b) 1870 to 1871
(d) 1789 (c) 1856 to 1871
(d) 1866 to 1871
322. When there were revolution of all over Europe?

(a) 1842 327. Giuseppe Mazzini became a member of the secret
(b) 1849 society. What was it known as?
(c) 1837 (a) Red shirts
(d) 1848 (b) British nation
(c) Carbonari
(d) Bismarck
323. What did the French revolutionaries aim for?
(a) Fraternity
(b) Liberty 328. What was the significance of the treaty of
(c) Equal rights for all Constantinople in Greek history?
(a) It recognised Greece as an independent nation

(b) It gave the people of Greece immense power 333. What did the conservatives want? Select the correct
(c) It suppressed the people of Greece option.
(d) It created several hurdles for the people of Greece (a) Preserve the monarchy and the Church
(b) Establish democratic set-up
(c) Root out old established beliefs
329. What did Das Volk stand for?
(a) Democracy
(b) Factory workers
(c) Common people 334. What were the large landowners of Prussia known
(d) Slum dwellers as ...........
(a) Kulaks
(b) Pykars
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am429 (c) Mahantas
(d) Junkers
330. What does La patrie mean? Select the correct option. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am434
(a) The citizen
(b) The motherland
(c) The fatherland
(d) The country 335. Match the column A and column B and choose the
correct option.
Column A Column B
A Giuseppe 1. Ruler of an Italian princely
Mazzini house
B King Victor 2. Revolutionary who tried to
331. The group of countries that collectively defeated Emmanuel unify Italy
Napolean was II
(a) Britain, Russia, Germany and Austria
C Chief 3. led an army of volunteers
(b) Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria
Minister to Rome to fight the last
(c) Russia, Prussia, Austria and France Cavour obstacle to the unification
(d) Britain, France, Austria and Prussia of Italy, the Papal States
where a French garrison
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am431 was stationed.
D Giuseppe 4. Through a tactful
Garibaldi diplomatic alliance with
France he succeeded in
332. What did Germania symbolise? Select the correct defeating the Austrian
option. forces in 1859
(a) French nation
(b) German nation (a) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4
(c) British nation (b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3
(d) None of the above (c) A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4
(d) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

336. Choose the correct option from column A and Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am438
column B -
Column A Column B
A Broken I. Symbol of the German 339. Match the columns and choose correct option.
chains empire – strength
B Breastplate II. Readiness to fight Column- I Column- II
with eagle A. Das volk p. Large landowner of
C Sword III. Being freed Prussia
D Rays of the IV. Beginning of a new era B. Junker q. Symbol of an abstract idea
rising sun C. Allegory r. Awareness of women’s
right
(a) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
D. Feminist s. Common people
(b) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
(c) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV (a) A " r; B " s; C " q; D " p
(d) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III (b) A " q; B " s; C " p; D " r
(c) A " s; B " p; C " q; D " r
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am436 (d) A " q; B " r; C " s; D " p
337. Match column A and column B and choose the
correct option.
340. Match the columns and choose correct option.
Column A Column B
A. Absolutist 1. A vision of society Column -I Column -II
B. Utopian 2. A form of government A. 1797 p. Vienna Peace Settlement
C. Plebiscite 3. A system of direct vote B. 1814 q. Invasion of Italy
D. Suffrage 4. A system of holding C. 1821 r. Revolution in Europe
election D. 1848 s. Struggle for Independence in
Greek.
(a) A - 2, B - 3, C - 1, D - 4
(b) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1 (a) A " s, B " r, C " p, D " q
(c) A - 3, B - 1, C - 2, D - 4 (b) A " r, B " s, C " p, D " q
(d) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4 (c) A " q, B " r, C " p, D " s
(d) A " q, B " p, C " s, D " r
338. Choose the incorrect matched option from column

A and B 341. Match the columns and choose correct option.
Column A Column B
Column- I Column- II
(a) Frederic Sorrieu A british artist
A. 1859-70 p. Battle of Leipzig
(b) Wolfe Tone Struggled for Ireland
B. 1866-71 q. Slav nationalism
(c) Lord Byron An english poet
C. 1905 r. Unification of Italy
(d) Karol Karpinski A polish music
composer D. 1813 s. Unification of Germany

(a) A " s, B " p, C " q, D " r Revolution’ are correct?

1. After the end of the French Revolution it was
(b) A " q, B " p, C " s, D " r
proclaimed that it was the people who would
(c) A " r, B " s, C " q, D " p henceforth constitute the nation and shape its
(d) A " q, B " r, C " s, D " p destiny.
2. France will have a monarchy and will be headed
by a member of the royal family.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am441 3. A centralised administrative system will be put
in place to formulate uniform laws for all citizens.
4. Imposition of internal custom duties and dues
will continue to exist in France.
342. Match the columns and choose correct option. (a) 2 and 3
Column- I Column- II (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
A. 1832 p. Greek war of Independence
(d) 3 and 4
B. 1821 q. Treaty of Constantinople
C. 1834 r. Napolean Civil Code
D. 1804 s. Zollverein
(a) A " s, B " r, C " p, D " q
(b) A " q, B " p, C " s, D " r 345. Which of the following is not associated with the
(c) A " r, B " s, C " p, D " q revolt of 1848 in Paris?
(d) A " q, B " r, C " s, D " p 1. Small producers in towns were often faced with
stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-
made goods from England.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am442 2. Food shortages and widespread unemployment
brought the population of Paris out on the roads.
3. National Assembly proclaimed a constitutional
monarchy, granted suffrage to all adult males
343. Match the columns and choose correct option. above 21.
4. Men and women of the liberal middle classes
Column- I Column- II combined their demands for constitutionalism
A. Louise Otto p. King of Piedmont with national unification.
Peters (a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
B. Carl Welcker q. Member of Frankfurt
Parliament (c) 3 and 4
(d) Only 4
C. Victor r. Prussian Chancellor
Emmanuel II
D. Otto Von s. Founder of Feminist Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am445
Bismarck Political Association
(a) A " s, B " q, C " p, D " (r)
(b) A " q, B " p, C " s, D " r 346. Which of the following is associated with the
(c) A " r, B " s, C " p, D " q ‘Revolution of the liberals 1848’ ?
1. Unlike the revolt of poors in france it was led by
(d) A " s, B " r, C " q, D " p educated middle class in Ottoman empire.
2. Men and women of the liberal middle classes
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am443 combined their demands for constitutionalism
with national unification
3. Demands for the creation of a nation-state on
parliamentary principles – a constitution,freedom
344. Which of the following statements about the ‘French of the press and freedom of association.
(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
(d) Only 3
350. Consider the following statements -

347. With reference to the cause of Silesian Weavers 1. Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic
consider the following statements-- regions.
1. The cause of the silesian weavers uprising was 2. A large part of Balkans was free from the
the contractors cheating on the weavers. Ottomon empire.
2. The contractors who supplied the weavers raw 3. The dismembering of Ottomon empire with
materials and gave order for finished materials its Balkan states became a scene of big power
reduced the payments of the weavers. rivalry.
Which one of the above statement(s) is/are correct? 4. Balkan states were jealous of each other.
(a) 1 only Which of the above statements are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1, 3 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
348. With reference to unification of Italy consider the

following statements. 351. Consider the following statements -
1. Cavour who led the movement to unify the 1. French revolutionaries adopted ideas of la partic
regions of Italy was neither a revolutionary nor a and le citoyen.
democrat. 2. Revolutionaries replaced the standard royal flag
2. After the unification of Italy, the Habsburg by the new French tricolour flag.
rulers had more autonomy to the Hungarians 3. Composed new hymns for Commemorate
Which one of the above statement(s) is/are correct? Martyrs.
(a) 1 only 4. Formulated unequal laws for different classes of
(b) 2 only the society.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am448 (d) 2, 3 and 4
349. Consider the following statements -
1. During 1789 paintings of females appeared as
symbols of liberty.
2. Female figure in France was named as Marianne. 352. Consider the following statements -
3. Germania was depicted by Kaiser William I. 1. Treaty of Vienna was made by the Big five.
4. The idea behind Marianne was to represent the 2. Power of Monarchies had been overthrown in
French nation as people’s nation. this treaty.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? 3. A series of strong states were set up on the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 boundaries of France to prevent expansion.
(b) 2 and 3 4. Russia was given a part of Poland and Prussia

was given a part of Saxony. Denmark and France – ended in Prussian victory
Which of the above statements are correct? and completed the process of unification.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 3. In January 1871, the Prussian king, Friedrich
(b) 1 and 4 Wilhelm IV, was proclaimed German Emperor
(c) 2 and 3 in a ceremony held at Versailles.
(a) Only 1
(d) 1, 3 and 4
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am452 (d) None of the above
353. Which of the following event is associated with the
Frankfurt parliament convened in the Church of St
Paul?
1. 831 elected representatives drafted a constitution 356. Assertion (A) : Most conservatives did not propose a
for a German nation to be headed by a monarchy return to the society of pre-revolutionary days.
subject to a parliament. Reason (R) : They realised that modernisation could
2. Friedrich Wilhelm IV, King of Prussia, he weaken traditional institutions like the monarchy.
rejected it and joined other monarchs to oppose (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
the elected assembly. explanation of A.
3. The troops were called in and the assembly was (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
forced to disband explanation of A.
(a) Only 1 (c) A is true but R is false.
(b) Only 3 (d) Both A and R are false.
(c) 2 and 3
(d) all of these
357. Assertion (A) : The growth of revolutionary
nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for
354. Who were involved in the repression of the liberal independence amongst the Greeks which began in
initiative for nation building in Germany in 1848? 1821.
1. The monarchy Reason (R): Greece was suffering under subjugation
2. The military of the Ottoman Empire.
3. Junkers of Prussia (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
4. Women groups explanation of A.
(a) 1 and 4 (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(b) 1 and 2 explanation of A.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) A is true but R is false.
(d) All of the above (d) Both A and R are false.
355. Which of the statement is not correct with respect to 358. Assertion (A) : In Britain the formation of the
the German unification? nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval
1. Otto von Bismarck, was the architect of or revolution.
unification process carried out with the help of Reason (R) : The first clear expression of nationalism
the Prussian army and bureaucracy. came with the French Revolution in 1789.
2. Three wars over seven years – with Austria, (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (d) Both A and R are false.
explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
362. Assertion (A) : The Balkan area became an area of
intense conflict.
Reason (R) : The Balkan states were fiercely jealous
359. Assertion (A) : The issue of extending political rights of each other and each hoped to gain more territory
to women was a controversial one within the liberal at the expense of the others.
movement. Codes:
Reason (R) : Women were considered more superior (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
and independent of men by the society, because of explanation of A.
their enthusiastic performance in liberal movement. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
explanation of A.
363. Assertion (A) : Italy was divided into seven states,
of which only one was ruled by an Italian princely
house.
360. Assertion (A) : Serfdom and bonded labour were Reason (R) : The north was under the domination of
abolished in Habsburg dominion and Russia. the Bourbon kings of Spain.
Reason (R): Monarchs had realised that revolution (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
could be resisted only by granting concessions to explanation of A.
liberal nationalist rebels. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
364. Assertion (A) : Germany, Italy and Switzerland were
divided into kingdoms, duchies and cantons whose
rulers had their autonomous territories.
361. Assertion (A) : King Victor Emmanuel II tried to Reason (R) :They were closely bound to each other
unify the Italian states through war. inspite of their autonomous rule.
Reason (R) : In the eyes of the ruling elites of this (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
region, a unified Italy offered them the possibility of explanation of A.
economic development and political dominance. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (d) A is false but R is true
explanation of A.

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am464 368. Assertion (A) : The Scottish Highlanders were

forbidden to speak their Gaelic language or wear
their national dress, and large numbers were forcibly
driven out of their homeland.
365. Assertion (A) : Giuseppe Mazzini worked with the Reason (R) : The English helped the Protestants of
conservatives for the monarchy. Ireland to establish their dominance over
Reason (R) : Italy had to continue to be a patchwork a largely Catholic country.
of small states and kingdoms. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false. (d) Both A and R are false.
369. Assertion (A) : On 18 May 1848, 831 elected

366. Assertion (A) : Culture played an important role in representatives revolted in the Frankfurt parliament.
creating the idea of the nation. Reason (R) :The elected representatives revolted
Reason (R) : Weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against the issue of extending political rights to
against contractors who supplied raw material and women.
gave them orders for finished textiles but drastically (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
reduced their payments. explanation of A.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A. explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (c) A is true but R is false.
explanation of A. (d) Both A and R are false.
370. Identify the personality-
• He was an English poet, peer and politician.
367. Assertion (A) : From the very beginning, the French • He organised funds and later went to fight in
revolutionaries introduced various measures and the war.
practices like the idea of la patrie and le citoyen. • He died of fever in 1824.
Reason (R) : This was done to create a sense of • He fought on behalf of the Greeks against the
collective identity amongst the French people. Ottoman empire.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) Lord Byron
explanation of A. (b) Napoleon
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (c) Friedrich
explanation of A. (d) Metternich
371. Identify the personality-
• Two female allegories of France and German.

• They stood as personifications of the ‘Republic’ town houses.

and ‘Liberty’. • They spoke French for purposes of diplomacy
• These allegories remind the public of the national and in high society.
symbol of unity and to persuade them to identify • Their families were often connected by ties of
with it. marriage.
• They were portrayed that they game the abstract (a) Liberals middle class
idea of a nation in a concrete form. (b) Aristocrats
(a) Germania and Artistia (c) 3rd Estate
(b) Germania and Christia (d) Nationalists
(c) Marianne and Germania
(d) Marianne and Christia
375. Identify the group of people who had -
• Commitment to oppose monarchical forms that
372. Identify the personality- had been established after the Vienna Congress
• He was a French philosopher. • Willingness to to fight for liberty and freedom.
• He insisted on social capital. • They saw the creation of nation-states as a
• According to him, nations are not formed by necessary part of this struggle for freedom.
common language, race and religion. (a) Conservatives
• According to him liberty would be lost if there (b) Liberal nationalist
was only one law and only one master. (c) Revolutionaries
(a) Renan
(b) Atto Von Bismarck
(c) Carl Wekker
(d) Carbonari Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am475
376. Identify the personality -
• She was a political activist.
• She was an elected member of Frankfurt
373. Identify the event- parliament.
• The first clear expression of nationalism in • She founded a political association who was
France. feminist in nature.
• The transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy • She founded a women’s journal.
to a body of French citizen. (a) Otto Peter
• A new French Flag, the tricolour was chosen to (b) Carl Welcker
replace the former royal standards (c) Frederic sorrien
• The liberation of the people of Europe from
(d) Guiseppe Mazzini
despotism.
(a) Unification of Germany
(b) Greek struggle for independence Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am476
(c) French Revolution 1789
(d) Revolutions in Europe
377. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am473 and select correct option.
1. Frederic Sorrieu prepared a series of 4 paintings.
2. French Revolution.
3. Napoleon was defeated.
374. Identify the class 4. Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed the king of
• They owned states in the countryside and also united Italy.

(a) 3, 4, 1, 2 381. Arrange the following events of German unification

(b) 2, 3, 1, 4 in increasing order of their date of occurrence
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 1 Friedrich Wilhelm IV rejected the demand of all
German national assembly
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1
2. The Frankfurt parliament convened in the
Church of St Paul.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am477 3. Kaiser William I of Prussia was proclaimed as
the new German emperor.
4. Three wars over 7 years with Austria, Denmark
and France was fought.
378. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence (a) (1) - (2) - (3) - (4)
and select correct option. (b) (4) - (3) - (2) - (1)
1. Fall of Napoleon. (c) (2) - (1) - (4) - (3)
2. Napoleon invades Italy. (d) (3) - (2) - (1) - (4)
3. The defeat of Napoleon by Britain, Russia.
4. Napoleon lost the battle of Leipzig.
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am481
(b) 2, 4, 3, 1
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3
(d) 2, 1, 3, 4
382. Complete the following table with the correct
information regarding congress of Vienna.
Name of Held in Hosted Main Objective
Meeting (year) by
Congress of A - ? B-? To settle the lost
379. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence Vienna peace in Europe
and select correct option.
(a) A-1834, B-Otto von Bismarck
1. Unification of Germany.
2. Acts of Union. (b) A-1830, B-The Bourbon kings
3. Unification of Italy. (c) A-1824, B-Lord Byron
4. Vienna Peace Settlement. (d) A-1815, B-Austrian chancellor duke Metternich
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am479 information-
Column A Column B
380. Arrange the following events of world history in A-? Giuseppe Mazzine
increasing order of their date of occurrence King of united Italy in 1861 B-?
1. Unification of Italy
(a) A-Austrian chancellor, B-Lord Byron
2. Vienna Peace Settlement
3. Napoleon wars begin (b) A-Australian chancellor, B-Napoleon
4. Unification of Germany (c) A-President of Prussia, B-Otto von Bismarck
(a) (1) - (2) - (3) - (4) (d) A-Italian Politician,B-Emmanuel - II.
(b) (4) - (3) - (2) - (1)
(c) (2) - (1) - (3) - (4) Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am483
(d) (3) - (2) - (1) - (4)
384. Complete the following table with correct information (d) Resentment against nations
regarding Acts of Union-
Name of Year Leads to the Passed by the Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am485
Act creation of parliament of
Acts of 1707 A - ? B-?
Union
(a) A-Unification of Germany, B-England and Italy 386. Study the picture and answer the following question -
(b) A-Unification of Italy., B-Scotland and Germany
(c) A-The Act of Union, B-England and Scotland
(d) A-Vienna Peace Settlement, B-Scotland and
Italy
Don’t Take Printout of This File because solution

whatsapp at 8905629969.
Purchase Hard Book
Who designed the cover of German almanac?
(b) Andreas Rebmann
(d) Napoleon
385. In the above picture of sorrien’s utopian vision, the Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am486
saints, angle and Christ symbolise-
387. Consider these statements about the Image given

below
(a) Equality among people

(b) Fraternity among nations 1. Title of this caricature is “The Club of Thinkers”.
(c) Freedom of nations 2. he plaque on the left bears the inscription: ‘The

most important question of today’s meeting: Empire.

How long will thinking be allowed to us?” (d) A map expressing the British ambitions of
3. This was a caricature of meeting called by contouring the world.
liberals.
4. This caricature was created in 1820.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am488
(a) A. 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
389. Choose the correct statement about the image given
(d) 1 , 2 and 4 bellow.
Don’t Take Printout of This File because solution

full solutions of all MCQs in print form. (a) This image was painted by artist Lorenz Clasen.
To Purchase hard book click below or (b) This image was painted by artist Julius Hübner
whatsapp at 8905629969. (c) Germania guarding the Rhine was the title of
this painting.
Purchase Hard Book (d) Philip Veit, was the artist who have made this
painting.
388. Which of the following aspect best signifies this 390. Study the picture and answer the following question -
image?
(a) A map explaining the sea routes used in 18th

century by Europeans
Each letter dropping out of Napoleon’s bag bears-
(b) A map celebrating the British Empire. (a) The names of the territories he lost.
(c) A map showcasing the importance of British (b) The names of the territories he conquered.

(c) The names of his soldiers. (a) Napoleon

(d) The names of those who had these letters. (b) Hübner
(c) Delacroix
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am490 (d) Lorenz Clasen
391. Who is shown in this picture sitting on knees?
393. Which of the following aspect best signifies this

image?

(b) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(c) Victor Emmanuel II (a) Round table conference at London
(d) Cavour (b) Constituent Assembly of India
(c) The Frankfurt Parliament in the church of St.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am491 Paul
(d) The Hall of Mirrors of Versailles
392. Select the name of painter in following image?

394. Study the picture and answer the question that

follows:
Which of the following aspects best suits the ‘sword’

in the image?

(a) Heroism follows.

(b) Symbol of Strength
(c) Readiness to Fight
(d) Symbol of freedom
395. The postage stamp shows the female allegory -

Marianne. Which country does she represents?
Who among the following has painted this image of

Germa
(a) France
(a) Nathaniel Currier
(b) Germany
(b) Lorenz Clasen
(c) Britain
(c) Edward Bailey
(d) Italy
(d) Richard Saltonstall Greenough
397. Following image is the personification of Germany

commonly associated with the Romantic Era and the
396. Study the picture and answer the question that

Revolutions of 1848. small owners, while in Eastern and Central Europe

the pattern of landholding was characterised by vast
estates which were cultivated by serfs. In Western
and parts of Central Europe the growth of industrial
production and trade meant the growth of towns
and the emergence of commercial classes whose
existence was based on production for the market.
Industrialisation began in England in the second half
of the eighteenth century, but in France and parts
of the German states it occurred only during the
nineteenth century.
398. Which was the dominant class on the continent of

Europe?
(a) Tenants
(b) Small owners
(c) Landed aristocracy
(d) High class society
399. What did the majority of population comprise of?

(a) Tenants
(b) Small owners
(c) Peasantry
(d) Land holders
Identify its name from among the following options.
(a) Marianna
(b) Philip Viet
(c) Germania
(d) La Italia
400. The given passage describes the social and political
life of this class
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am497 (a) peasants
(b) aristocracy and middle class
(c) big land owners
Source Based Questions 1 : Read the source given below (d) peasants and small owners
and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the most
appropriate option:
Socially and politically, a landed aristocracy was
the dominant class on the continent. The members
of this class were united by a common way of life
that cut across regional divisions. They owned 401. Aristocratic class used to speak French for the
estates in the countryside and also town-houses. purpose of ?
They spoke French for purposes of diplomacy and (a) farming on a big land
in high society. Their families were often connected (b) diplomacy and high society
by ties of marriage. This powerful aristocracy was,
however, numerically a small group. The majority of (c) unity among the members
the population was made up of the peasantry. To the (d) educing regional divisions
west, the bulk of the land was farmed by tenants and

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am498 404. In which year Fredric Sorrieu, a French artist,

prepared a series of four prints visualising his
dream of a world made up of democratic and social
Republics, as he called them?
402. Industrialisation began in ____ in the second half (a) 1898
of the eighteenth century. (b) 1878
(a) England (c) 1848
(b) France (d) 1838
(c) Germany
(d) Russia
405. What was the theme of painting made by French
artist?
403. Which parts of Europe witnessed the growth of (a) Constitutional Monarchy
industrial production and trade? (b) Absolute Monarchy
(a) Northern and Eastern (c) True democracy
(b) Eastern and Western (d) Democratic and Social Republic
(c) Central and Western
(d) Eastern and Central
406. The utopian vision of French artist Frédéric Sorrieu
was
Source Based Questions 2 : Read the source given (a) The peoples of the world are grouped as distinct
below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the nations, identified through their flags and
most appropriate option: national costume.
In 1848, Frédéric Sorrieu, a French artist, prepared a (b) Leading the procession, way past the statue of
series of four prints visualising his dream of a world Liberty, as the United States and Switzerland,
made up of ‘democratic and social Republics’, as which by this time were already nation-states.
he called them. As you would recall, artists of the (c) France, identifiable by the revolutionary
time of the French Revolution personified Liberty as tricolour, has just reached the statue.
a female figure—here you can recognise the torch (d) The concepts and practices of a modern state,
of Enlightenment she bears in one hand and the in which a centralised power exercised sovereign
Charter of the Rights of Man in the other. On the control over a clearly defined territory.
earth in the foreground of the image lie the shattered
remains of the symbols of absolutist institutions. In
Sorrieu’s utopian vision, the peoples of the world are Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am499
grouped as distinct nations, identified through their
flags and national costume. Leading the procession,
way past the statue of Liberty, are the United
States and Switzerland, which by this time were the 407. French Revolution personified Liberty as a female
revolutionary tricolour, has just reached the statue. figure, she bears the torch of Enlightenment in one
The concept and practices of a modern state, in hand and ........... in the other.
which a centralized power exercised sovereign control (a) Charter of Rights of Man
over a clearly defined territory, had been developing (b) Constitution
over a long period of time in Europe. But a nation- (c) Charter of Rights of Woman
state was one in which the majority of its citizens, (d) Bible
and not only its rulers, came to develop a sense of
common identity and shared history or descent.
408. Which of the following pair represents two nation 411. How does a country become stronger?
states? (a) By conquest
(a) United States and Switzerland (b) By making alliances
(b) Britain and Italy (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Spain and Portugal (d) It will strengthen the nation materially as much
(d) Japan and Turkey by protecting its interests externally as per
stimulating its internal productivity.
409. Which of the following statement describes

‘absolutist’ ? 412. Who was Friedrich List?
(a) A system of rule where citizens control the (a) Professor of Economics at the University of
political power Tubingen in Germany
(b) A system of rule that has no restraints on the (b) French artist
power exercised. (c) Philosopher
(C) A system of rule under the wealthy class (d) Painter
(d) A system of rule where one community exercise
control over other
413. Who realised that a free economic system is the only
means to engender national feeling.’
Source Based Questions 3 : Read the source given (a) The German people
below and answer 7 questions that follow by choosing the (b) The French people
most appropriate option: (c) The Italians people
Economists began to think in terms of the national (d) The russian people
economy. They talked of how the nation could
develop and what economic measures could help
forge this nation together. Friedrich List, Professor Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am500
of Economics at the University of Tübingen in
Germany, wrote in 1834: ‘The aim of the zollverein
is to bind the Germans economically into a nation.
It will strengthen the nation materially as much by 414. Economists began to think in terms of the ______
protecting its interests externally as by stimulating economy.
its internal productivity. It ought to awaken and raise (a) Traditional
national sentiment through a fusion of individual (b) Market
and provincial interests. The German people have (c) National
realised that a free economic system is the only (d) Mixed
means to engender national feeling.’
410. What is the aim of the Zollverein in Germany
(a) To divide German regions
(b) To bind the Germans economically into a nation
(c) To support time consuming calculations 415. When was the Zollverein created?
(d) To create confusion in trade (a) 1834
(b) 1828
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am500 (c) 1830
(d) 1838

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am500 about European conservative ideology?

(a) Preservation of beliefs introduced by Napoleon.
(b) Preservation of two sects of Christianity.
(c) Preservation of socialists’ ideology in economic
416. What German people have realised about new sphere.
economic system?
(d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and
(a) German people wanted to conquer more regions.
society.
(b) German people realised the importance of closed
economy.
(c) German people have realised that a free economic Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am501
system is the only means to engender national
feeling.
(d) German people realised that a free economic
418. Identify the purpose to convene Vienna of Congress
system is obstacle to develop nationalism.
of Vienna in 1815 from the following options.
(a) To declare completion of German unification.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am500 (b) To restore conservative regime in Europe.
(c) To declare war against France.
(d) To start the process of Italian unification.
Source Based Questions 4 : Read the source given
below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am501
most appropriate option:
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European
governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism.
Conservatives believed that established, traditional 419. What did conservatives focus on at the Congress of
institutions of state and society—like the monarchy, Vienna? Select the appropriate option.
the Church, social hierarchies, property and the (a) To re-establish peace and stability in Europe.
family—should be preserved. Most conservatives, (b) To establish socialism in Europe.
however,did not propose a return to the society of pre- (c) To introduce democracy in France.
revolutionary days. Rather, they realised,from the (d) To set up a new Parliament in Austria
changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernisation
could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like
the monarchy. It could make state power more effective Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am501
and strong. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy,
a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and
serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies
of Europe. In 1815, representatives of the European 420. Who had collectively defeated Napoleon met at
powers—Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria— who Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe?
had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to (a) Britain, Russia, Prussia,Japan
draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was (b) Britain, France,Austria, Prussia
hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. (c)Britain, Russia, Prussia, Austria
The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 (d) Britain, Russia, Prussia,Italy
with the object of undoing most of the changes that
had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic
wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am501
during the French Revolution, was restored to power,
and France lost the territories it had annexed under
Napoleon. A series of states were set up on the
boundaries of France to prevent French expansion 421. Who hosted the Congress of Vienna in 1815 ?
in future. (a) Duke Metternich
(b) Rainer Ferdinand
417. Which of the following statements correctly describes (c) King Victor Emmanuel
(d) Cavour

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am501 424. The first expression of nationalism came with:

(a) The industrial revolution of England
(b) The American war of independence
(c) The French Revolution
422. Why Series of states were set up on the boundaries
(d) The Russian Revolution
of France in 1815 ?
(a) for congress of Vienna
(b) to prevent russia expansion Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am502
(c) to prevent French expansion
(d) for protecting the state
425. The French revolutionaries declared that the mission
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am501 and destiny of the French nation was
(a) To conquer the people of Europe.
(b) To liberate the people of Europe from despotism.
(c) To strengthen absolute monarchies in all the
Source Based Questions 5 : Read the source given countries of Europe.
below and answer 10 questions that follow by choosing
(d) To propagate the ideals of liberty, equality, and
the most appropriate option:
fraternity in every part of the world.
The first clear expression of nationalism came with
the French Revolution in 1789. The political and
constitutional changes that came in the wake of the Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am502
French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty
from the monarchy to a body of French citizens.
The revolution proclaimed that it was the people
who would henceforth constitute the nation and 426. What changes came in the wake of the French
shape its destiny. From the very beginning, the Revolution?
French revolutionaries introduced various measures (a) The political and constitutional changes came in
and practices that could create a sense of collective the wake of the French Revolution
identity amongst the French people. The ideas of la (b) The social and economic changes came in the
patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) wake of the French revolution.
emphasized the notion of a united community (c) The social and cultural changes came in the
enjoying equal rights under a constitution. A new wake of the French revolution.
French flag, the tricolour, was chosen to replace the (d) The linguistic and cultural changes came in the
former royal standard. New hymns were composed, wake of the French Revolution
oaths taken and martyrs commemorated, all in
the name of the nation. Regional dialects were
discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am502
in Paris, became the common language of the nation.
The revolutionaries further declared that it was
the mission and the destiny of the French nation
to liberate the peoples of Europe from despotism, 427. What were the principles of French revolution
in other words to help other peoples of Europe to (a) Liberty
become nations. (b) Equality
(c) Fraternity
423. What did the Ideas of ‘la patrie’ and ‘le citoyen? (d) All of these
(a) The Motherland and the children
(b) The Fatherland and the citizens Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am502
(c) The community and the citizens
(d) The state and the community
428. Which dialects were discouraged by the French

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am502 Revolution?
(a) Regional

(b) French wake of the French revolution.

(c) Regional and French (c) The social and cultural changes came in the
(d) none of these wake of the French revolution.
(d) The linguistic and cultural changes came in the
wake of the French Revolution
429. What did the French revolution proclaim?
(a) The French revolution proclaimed that it was
the birds who would henceforth constitute the Source Based Questions 6 : Read the source given
nation and shape its destiny. below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the
(b) The French revolution proclaimed that it was the most appropriate option:
married men who would henceforth constitute Artists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries
the nation and shape its destiny. found a way out by personifying a nation. In other
(c) The French revolution proclaimed that it was words, they represented a country as if it were a
the people who would henceforth constitute the person. Nations were then portrayed as female
nation and shape its destiny. figures. The female form that was chosen to personify
(d) The French revolution proclaimed that it was the nation did not stand for any particular woman
the nature which would henceforth constitute in real life; rather it sought to give the abstract idea
the nation and shape its destiny of the nation a concrete form. That is, the female
figure became an allegory of the nation. During the
French Revolution artists used the female allegory
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am502 to portray ideas such as Liberty, Justice and the
Republic. These ideals were represented through
specific objects or symbols. The attributes of Liberty
are the red cap, or the broken chain, while Justice
430. When did the French revolution start? is generally a blindfolded woman carrying a pair of
(a) French revolution started in 1889. weighing scales. Female allegories were invented by
(b) French revolution started in 1879. artists in the nineteenth century to represent the
(c) French revolution started in 1789. nation. In France, she has christened Marianne, a
(d) French revolution started in 1989. popular Christian name, which underlined the idea
of a people’s nation. Her characteristics were drawn
from those of Liberty and the Republic – the red
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am502 cap, the tricolour, the cockade. Statues of Marianne
were erected in public squares to remind the public
of the national symbol of unity and to persuade
them to identify with it. Marianne images were
431. How was France in 1789? marked on coins and stamps. Similarly, Germania
(a) France was a full fledged anti national state. became the allegory of the German nation. In visual
(b) France was a full-fledged territorial state. representations, Germania wears a crown of oak
(c) France was a full-fledged secular state. leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism.
(d) France was a full-fledged autocratic state.
433. Why were Female allegories invented by artists?
(a) Representation of heroism.
(b) Representation of Imperialism.
(c) Representation of the modern state.
(d) Representation of the nation.
432. What changes came in the wake of the French
Revolution?
(a) The political and constitutional changes came in Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am503
the wake of the French Revolution
(b) The social and economic changes came in the

434. Which of the following is an allegory for ‘liberty’ ? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am503

(a) Red Cap
(b) Crown of Oak
(c) Olive Branch
(d) Sword
below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am503 Ernst Renan, ‘What is a Nation?’ In a lecture
delivered at the University of Sorbonne in 1882, the
French philosopher Ernst Renan (1823-92) outlined
his understanding of what makes a nation. The
435. What does a blindfolded woman carrying a pair of lecture was subsequently published as a famous
weighing scales symbolise? essay entitled ‘Qu’est-ce qu’une nation?’ (‘What
(a) Peace is a Nation?’). In this essay Renan criticises the
(b) Equality notion suggested by others that a nation is formed
(c) Justice by a common language, race, religion, or territory:
(d) Liberty ‘A nation is the culmination of a long past of
endeavours, sacrifice and devotion. A heroic past,
great men, glory, that is the social capital upon which
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am503 one bases a national idea. To have common glories
in the past, to have a common will in the present,
to have performed great deeds together, to wish to
perform still more, these are the essential conditions
436. Which of the following is not true with respect to of being a people. A nation is therefore a large-scale
“Allegory”? solidarity ... Its existence is a daily plebiscite ... A
(a) It is a symbol representing an abstract idea. province is its inhabitants; if anyone has the right
(b) Artist became an allegory of a nation. to be consulted, it is the inhabitant. A nation never
(c) It is an idea expressed through a person or a has any real interest in annexing or holding on to a
thing. country against its will. The existence of nations is
(d) An allegorical story has two meanings, one literal a good thing, a necessity even. Their existence is a
and one symbolic. guarantee of liberty, which would be lost if the world
had only one law and only one master.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am503 439. A nation is the culmination of a long past of

(a) Sacrifice
(b) Endeavours
437. Who invented female allegory? (c) Devotion
(a) The French artists (d) All of these
(b) The German artists
(c) The Italian artists Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am504
(d) The Greece artists
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am503 440. What does a nation guarantee to its citizens?

(a) Happiness
(b) Liberty
438. What does the crown of oak leaves worn by Germania (c) Wealth
stand for? (d) Health
(a) Imperialism
(b) Willingness to make peace
(c) Heroism
(d) Readiness to fight

441. Ernst Renan was a .............. philosopher. political fragmentation. Italians were scattered
(a) British over several dynastic states as well as the multi-
(b) American national Habsburg Empire. During the middle of
(c) Japanese the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven
states, of which only one, Sardinia-Piedmont, was
(d) French
ruled by an Italian princely house. The north was
under Austrian Habsburgs, the centre was ruled by
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am504 the Pope and the southern regions were under the
domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain. Even
the Italian language had not acquired one common
form and still had many regional and local variations
442. What is/are the essential condition/s of being a During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to
people? put together a coherent programme for a unitary
(a) To have common glories in the past Italian Republic. He had also formed a secret society
(b) To have performed great deeds together called Young Italy for the dissemination of his goals.
The failure of revolutionary uprisings both in 1831
(c) To have a common will in the present
and 1848 meant that the mantle now fell on Sardinia-
(d) All of these Piedmont under its ruler King Victor Emmanuel II
to unify the Italian states through war. In the eyes of
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am504 the ruling elites of this region, a unified Italy offered
them the possibility of economic development and
political dominance. Chief Minister Cavour who
led the movement to unify the regions of Italy was
443. Who delivered the lecture at the University of neither a revolutionary nor a democrat.
Sorbonne in 1882?
(a)The German philosopher Ernst Renan 445. What was the name of the secret society formed by
(b)The French philosopher Ernst Renan Giuseppe Mazzini?
(c)The Italian philosopher Ernst Renan (a) Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called
(d)The Greek philosopher Ernst Renan Young Italy.
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called
Old Italy.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am504 (c) Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called
Traditional Italy.
(d) Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called
444. How are nations formed according to Ernest Renan? Old France.
(a) A nation is formed by a common language, race,
religion or territory. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am505
(b)To form a nation social capital, common glories
are not necessary.
(c) A nation is formed by deeds of the present.
(d) To form a nation, social capital, common glories 446. When did Giuseppe Mazzini seek to put together a
and deeds of the past and common will are coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic ?
necessary (a) During the 1860s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought
to put together a coherent programme for a
unitary Italian Republic
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am504 (b) During the 1730s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought
(c) During the 1930s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought
below and answer 10 questions that follow by choosing
the most appropriate option:
(d) During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought
Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of to put together a coherent programme for a

unitary Italian Republic. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am505
451. What could be the reason behind that the Italian
language had not acquired one common form and
still had many regional and local variations?
447. Who was the ruler of Sardinia-Piedmont?
(a) Italy never had a long history of political
(a) King Victor David I was the ruler of Sardinia-
fragmentation. Italians were not scattered over
Piedmont.
several dynastic states and the Habsburg Empire.
(b) King Victor Davis II was the ruler of Sardinia-
(b) Italy had a long history of political fragmentation.
Piedmont.
Italians were scattered over several dynastic
(c) King Victor Emmanuel II was the ruler of states and the Habsburg Empire.
Sardinia-Piedmont.
(c) Italy never had a long history of political
(d) King Victor Emmanuel III was the ruler of fragmentation. Italians were not scattered over
Sardinia-Piedmont. several dynastic states and the French Empire.
(d) Italy had a long history of political fragmentation.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am505 Italians were scattered over only two dynastic
states and the Dutch Empire.
448. What did a unified Italy offer the ruling elites of this
region?
(a) A unified Italy offered them the possibility of
underdevelopment and political dominance.
452. When was Italy divided into seven states?
(b) A unified Italy offered them the possibility of (a) Italy divided into seven states during middle of
economic development and political dominance. sixteenth century.
(c) A unified Italy offered them the possibility of (b) Italy divided into seven states during end of
underdevelopment and political failure. nineteenth century.
(d) A unified Italy offered them the possibility of (c) Italy divided into seven states during middle of
social breakdown and political failure. twentieth century.
(d) Italy divided into seven states during middle of
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am505 nineteenth century.
449. Which state was ruled by an Italian house before
unification of Italy?
(a) the north
453. Who ruled Sardinia Piedmont?
(b) the centre (a) Italian princely house ruled Sardinia Piedmont.
(a) southern regions (b) German princely house ruled Sardinia Piedmont.
(d)Sardinia-Piedmont (c) French princely house ruled Sardinia Piedmont.
(d) Italian army ruled Sardinia Piedmont.
450. Who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy?

(a) Victor Emmanuel II
454. Which part was under Austrian Habsburg?
(b) Sardinia-Piedmont (a) East was under Austrian Habsburg.
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini (b) West was under Austrian Habsburg.
(d) Cavour

(c) South was under Austrian Habsburg. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am506

(d) North was under Austrian Habsburg.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am505 457. When did the middle class German try to unite the
different regions of the German confederation into a
nation state?
(a) 1838
(b) 1748
most appropriate option: (c) 1848
(d) 1948
After 1848, nationalism in Europe moved away
from its association with democracy and revolution.
Nationalist sentiments were often mobilised by Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am506
conservatives for promoting state power and
achieving political domination over Europe. This can
be observed in the process by which Germany and
Italy came to be unified as nation-states. As you have 458. How many wars took place in 7 years?
seen, nationalist feelings were widespread among (a) Three
middle-class German, who in 1848 tried to unite the (b) Two
different regions of the German confederation into a (c) Seven
nation-state governed by an elected parliament. This
(d) Four
liberal initiative to nation building was, however,
repressed by the combined forces of the monarchy
and the military, supported by the large landowners Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am506
(called Junkers) of Prussia. From then on, Prussia
took on the leadership of the movement for national
unification. Its chief minister, Otto von Bismarck,
was the architect of this process carried out with the 459. Who were known as Junkers?
help of the Prussian army and bureaucracy. Three (a) Otto von Bismarck
wars over seven years - with Austria, Denmark and (b) The landowners in Denmark
France ended in Prussian victory and completed the -
(c) The landowners in Prussia
process of unification. In January 1871, the Prussian
king, William I, was proclaimed German Emperor in (d) The landowners in Austria
a ceremony held at Versailles.
455. Who was the architect of the process of national
unification?
(a) Poland’s chief minister, Otto Don Bismarck
(b) Poland’s chief minister, Otto Von Bismarck 460. When the Prussian King William I was proclaimed
German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles?
(c) Prussia’s prime minister, Otto Den Bismarck
(a) January 1848
(d) Prussia’s chief minister, Otto Von Bismarck
(b) February 1871
(c) January 1848
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am506 (d) January 1871
456. Who was proclaimed as German Emperor?
(a) Davis I was proclaimed as German Emperor.
(b) David I was proclaimed as German Emperor.
(c) William II was proclaimed as German Emperor.
(d) William I was proclaimed as German Emperor. most appropriate option:

The 1830s were years of great economic hardship 463. What happened in the first half of the nineteenth
in Europe. The first half of the nineteenth century century?
saw an enormous increase in population all over (a) The first half of the nineteenth century saw an
Europe. In most countries there were more seekers enormous downfall in economy all over Europe.
of jobs than employment. Population from rural (b) The first half of the nineteenth century saw an
areas migrated to the cities to live in overcrowded enormous decrease in population all over Europe.
slums. Small producers in towns were often faced (c) The first half of the nineteenth century saw an
with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine enormous increase in population all over Europe.
made goods from England, where industrialisation
(d) The first half of the nineteenth century saw an
was more advanced than on the continent. This
enormous increase in monetary debts all over
was especially so in textile production, which was
Europe.
carried out mainly in homes or small workshops
and was only partly mechanised. In those regions
of Europe where the aristocracy still enjoyed power, Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am507
peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues
and obligations. The rise of food prices or a year of
bad harvest led to widespread pauperism in town
and country. The year 1848 was one such year. Food 464. What led to widespread pauperism in town and
shortages and widespread unemployment brought country?
the population of Paris out on the roads. Barricades (a) The rise of food prices or a year of bad harvest led
were erected and Louis Philippe was forced to flee. to widespread pauperism in town and country.
(b) The fall of food prices or a year of good harvest
461. Where was textile production mainly carried out and led to widespread pauperism in town and
what was the condition of industrialisation in this country.
industry? (c) The rise of food prices or a year of good harvest
(a) Textile production was carried out mainly in led to widespread pauperism in town and
homes or small workshops and was only partly country.
mechanised. (d) The fall of food prices or a year of bad harvest led
(b) Textile production was carried out mainly in big to widespread pauperism in town and country.
shopping malls and was only partly mechanised.
(c) Textile production was carried out mainly in big
shopping malls and was fully mechanised.
(d) Textile production was carried out mainly
in homes or small workshops and was fully
mechanised. 465. The ______ were years of great economic hardship
in Europe.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am507 (a) 1830’s
(b) 1930’s
(c) 1630’s
(d) 1730’s
462. When was the time of great hardship in Europe?
(a) The 1930s were years of great economic hardship
in Europe Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am507
(b) The 1730s were years of great economic hardship
in Europe.
(c) The 1830s were years of great economic hardship
466. Who was forced to flee in the year 1848?
in Europe.
(a) Louis XVI
(d) The 1630s were years of great economic hardship
(b) Louis XIV
in Europe.
(c) Louis Philippe
(d) Charles

Purchase Hard Book
******

Page 76 Resources and Development Chap 2
CHAPTER 2
Resources and Development
1. In states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya

Pradesh and Odisha deforestation due to ____
have caused severe land degradation.
(a) raining
(b) over irrigation
(c) mining
(d) overgrazing
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm101
2. The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of

the _____belong to open ocean and no individual
country can utilise these without the concurrence of
international institutions.
(a) Temperate Zone
(b) Exclusive Economic Zone
(c) Central Zone
(d) South Frigid Zone
4. Upto what distance in Ocean minerals are owned by

3. Which is the right sequence of the soil profile? Nation?
(a) Topsoil , Substratum weathered parent rock (a) 10 nautical miles
material,subsoil, Unweathered parent bed rock
(b) 15 nautical miles
(b) Substratum weathered parent rock material,
(c) 12 nautical miles
Unweathered parent bed rock,subsoil , topsoil
(d) 20 nautical miles
(c) Topsoil, Unweathered parent bed rock, Substratum
weathered parent rock material,subsoil
(d) Topsoil, subsoil, Substratum weathered parent Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm104
rock material, Unweathered parent bed rock
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm103 5. Which state is well endowed with solar and wind
energy but lacks in water resources?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Madhya Pradesh

Chap 2 Resources and Development Page 77
(d) Maharashtra 9. Which type of resources occur over a very long

geological time?
(a) Abiotic Resources
(b) Individual Resources
(c) Non-Renewable Resources
(d) Biotic Resources
is not given. You can purchase hard book from Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm109
To Purchase hard book click below or 10. Which resources are owned privately by individuals?
whatsapp at 8905629969. (a) Abiotic Resources
Purchase Hard Book (b) Individual Resources
(c) Non-Renewable Resources
6. All those things which are composed of non-living
things are called ___resources? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm110
(a) Biotic Resources
(b) Abiotic Resources
(c) Renewable Resources
11. What kind of resource is a picnic spot?
(d) National Resources
(b) Abiotic Resources
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm106 (c) Community Owned Resources:
7. ____are obtained from biosphere and have life Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm111

such as human beings?
(a) Abiotic Resources
(b) Individual Resources
(c) Non-Renewable Resources 12. ____ has legal powers to acquire even private
property for public good?
(a) community
(b) country
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm107 (c) Individuals
(d) All of above
8. The resources which can be reproduced by physical, Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm112

chemical or mechanical processes are known
as____.
(b) Abiotic Resources 13. Which of the following states of India has immense
(c) Renewable Resources potential for developing wind energy?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Sikkim
(c) Punjab
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm108 (d) Orissa
14. On what factors does the development of resources (c) Sustainable economic development
depend? (d) Economic development
(a) Technology
(b) Quality of human resources.
(c) Technology and quality of human resources
(d) Potential Resources
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm114 19. Where was first Earth Summit held?

(a) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
(b) Nairobi Kenya
(c) Stockholm Sweden]
15. Materials in the environment which have the potential (d) Johannesburg South Africa
to satisfy human needs but human beings do not
have the appropriate technology to access these, are
included among_____ Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm119
(a) Potential Resources
(b) Developed Resources
(c) Stock Resources
20. What is not true about Agenda 21?
(d) None of the above (a) It aims for achieving Global Sustainable
Development.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm115 (b) It is an agenda to fight environmental damage,
poverty, disease etc.
(c) Agenda 21, has legal powers to acquire even
private property for public good.
16. What is subset of stock called? (d) One of its major objectives is that every local
(a) Inter national Resources govt. should draw its own agenda 21.
(b) sustainable development
(c) Potential Resources
(d) Reserves
21. What is the full form of UNCED?
(a) United Nations Conference on Environment and
Development
17. What is the main reason behind global ecological (b) United Nations Children’s Emergency
crises such as global warming and environmental Development
pollution ? (c) United Nations Educational and Cultural
(a) Depletion of resources Development
(b) Accumulation of resources in a few hand (d) United Nations Conference on global development
(c) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources
(d) Use of resources Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm121
22. Which is the richest State of India from the point of
view of minerals?
18. _____means development should take place (a) Kerala
without damaging the environment? (b) Bihar
(a) Sustainable development (c) Jharkhand
(b) Local Environment development (d) Maharashtra

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm122 Small is Beautiful?

(a) Brundtland Commission Report
(b) Club of Rome
(c) Gandhiji
23. The state that has abundance of water resources but
(d) Schumacher
lacks in infrastructural development is ____.
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Jharkhand Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm127
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Ladakh
28. When was the Brundtland Commission formed and
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm123 its report published?
(a) 1992
(b) 1987
(c) 1974
24. Who was against mass production and wanted to
(d) 1968
replace it with the production by the masses ?
(a) Nehru ji
(b) Gandhiji Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm128
(c) Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Shastri ji
29. What is the name of the report Brundtland
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm124 Commission published?
(a) Our common future
(b) Our common past
(c) Our common present
25. Which of the following is a root cause for resource
(d) Small is Beautiful
depletion at the global level according to Mahatma
Gandhi?
(a) Conservation of resources Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm129
(b) Use of resources
(c) Greedy and selfish individuals and exploitative
nature of modern technology
30. The most widespread relief feature of India is
(d) Backward technology
(a) Mountains
(b) Plains
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm125 (c) Plateaus
(d) Island
26. At the international level Club of Rome advocated Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm130

resource conservation for the first time in ___.
(a) 1974
(b) 1968
(c) 1987 31. Which relief feature provides facilities for tourism
and ecological aspects?
(d) 1992
(a) plain
(b) plateau
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm126 (c) Island
(d) Mountains
27. Who presented Gandhian philosophy in his book Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm131

32. Identify the land which is 27% under a certain relief (b) 7.7%
feature. (c) 4.41%
(a) plain (d) 3%
(b) plateau
(c) Island
(d) Mountains
36. Fallow land is a kind of agricultural land. It is
_______ fertile.
(a) not
33. What is the gross cropped area ? (b) less
(a) Area sown more than once in an agricultural (c) more
year plus net sown area (d) most
(b) Area sown more than once in an agricultural
year minus net sown area
(c) Area sown with crops but is counted only once. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm136
(d) Double of the area sown more than once in an
agricultural year
37. What name is given to the land which is left free for
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm133 1 to 5 years uncultivated?
(a) culturable wasteland
(b) Barren land
(c) waste land
Don’t take printout of this file because solution (d) grazing land
Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/ Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm137
38. Which of the following is not a physical factor to
Purchase Hard Book determine land use?
(a) climate condition
(b) soil type
34. What is the net sown area ? (c) topography
(a) Area sown more than once in an agricultural (d) population density
year plus net sown area
(b) Area sown more than once in an agricultural Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm138
year minus net sown area
(c) Area sown with crops but is counted only once.
(d) Double of the area sown more than once in an
agricultural year 39. The total geographical area of India is ____.
(a) 328 million square kilometer
(b) 3.28 million square kilometer
(c) 32.8 million square kilometer
(d) 0.328 million square kilometer
35. What is the percentage of the culturable waste land

in India?
(a) 8%

40. What is the percentage of net sown area out of the (c) settlements, roads, desert
total reporting area in India? (d) rocky, arid, roads
(a) 54 per cent
(b) 28 per cent
(c) 70 per cent
(d) 81 per cent
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm140 45. Land put to other ____uses includes settlements,

roads, railways, industry
(a) agricultural
(b) non-agricultural
41. The pattern of net sown area varies greatly from one (c) Forest area
state to another. It is over ___ percent of the total (d) Waste land
area in Punjab and Haryana.
(a) 20
(b) 80 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm145
(c) 10
(d) 40
46. __percent of our basic needs for food shelter and
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm141 clothing are obtained from land.
(a) 80
(b) 95
(c) 70
42. Total net sown area is ____han ___per cent (d) 50
in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and
Andaman Nicobar Islands.
(a) less, 10 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm146
(b) more, 10
(c) less, 40
(d) more, 80 47. A traditional list of immediate ____ is food
(including water), shelter and clothing.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm142 (a) basic deeds
(b) basic codes
(c) basic needs
(d) non basic needs
43. Forest area in the country is far lower than the
desired ___ per cent of geographical area, as it was
outlined in the National Forest Policy (1952). Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm147
(a) 23
(b) 33
(c) 66
48. The total degraded land in India is ____.
(d) 68 (a) 180 million hectares
(b) 100 million hectares
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm143 (c) 130 million hectares
(d) 50 million hectares
44. Waste land includes ___, ___ and ___ areas. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm148
(a) settlements, roads, railways
(b) rocky, arid ,desert

49. ___ per cent of degraded land belongs to the ____.

category of forest degraded area, ___ per cent of it (a) Conservation
is water eroded area and the rest is affected by saline (b) Soil Erosion
and alkaline deposits. (c) Land degradation
(a) 56 and 28
(d) Land resources
(b) 70 and 20
(c) 28 and 56
(d) 56 and 18 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm153
54. Disposal of industrial effluents and wastes after
treatment can reduce ___and ___degradation in
industrial and suburban areas.
50. In states like Jharkhand,Chhattisgarh, Madhya (a) water,air
Pradesh and Odisha deforestation due to _____ (b) land, water
have caused severe land degradation (c) water, waste land
(a) over irrigation
(d) land,air
(b) overgrazing
(c) Afforestation
(d) mining Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm154
55. ___is the medium of plant growth and supports
different types of living organisms on the earth
(a) air
51. Over irrigation is main cause of land degradation in (b) soil
Punjab due to waterlogging leading to increase in (c) human beings
___ and ___.
(d) metals
(a) acidic, purity
(b) salinity, alkalinity
(c) alkalinity, purity Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm155
(d) acidic, salinity
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm151 56. Soil is an important ___ resource.

(a) man-made
(b) Non-Renewable
(c) artificial
52. The mineral processing generate huge quantity of
(d) natural
dust in the atmosphere. It retards the process of
____ of water into the soil after it settles down on
the land. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm156
(a) withdrawn
(b) evaporation
(c) infiltration
(d) saturation 57. It takes millions of years to form ___ upto a few
cm in depth.
(a) water
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm152 (b) soil
(c) plants
(d) planet
53. The growing of thorny bushes helps in checking

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm157 (b) Ganga, Krishna, Godavari

(c) Brahmaputra, Krishna, Bhima
(d) Indus, Ganga, Godavari
58. Which factor does not affect soil formation?

(a) soil texture Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm161
(b) parent material
(c) climate
(d) time 62. ____ is found in the eastern coastal plains
particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm158 Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri river
(a) Laterite Soil
(b) Black Soil
(c) Red and Yellow Soils
59. ______ is dark, organic material that forms in (d) Alluvial Soil
soil when plant and animal matter decays.
(a) rock
(b) Humus Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm162
(c) decomposer
(d) mud
63. The alluvial soil consists of various proportions of
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm159 ___, ___ and ___.
(a) clay, volcanic rocks, lava-flow
(b) sand, silt, lava-flow,
(c) clay, metamorphic rocks, Kankar
Don’t take printout of this file because solution (d) sand, silt,clay
Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/ Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm163
64. In the upper reaches of the river valley i.e. near the
Purchase Hard Book place of the break of slope, the soils are ____.
(a) coarse
(b) refined
60. The entire_________plains are made of alluvial (c) black in colour
soil. (d) brown in colour
(a) northern plains
(b) Basalt region Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm164
(c) eastern and southern parts of the Deccan plateau
(d) western Rajasthan
65. Soils are also described on the basis of their age.

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm160 According to their age alluvial soils can be classified
as _____ and______
(a) Black, Red
(b) Khadar, bangar
61. The northern plains are formed by the alluvial
deposits brought by the rivers ___, ___, and (c) bangar, Arid
___. (d) Khadar, Laterite
(a) Indus, Brahmaputra, Ganga

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm165 70. The black soils are well-known for their capacity to
___.
(a) hold light
(b) hold air
66. The ____ soil has higher concentration of kanker (c) hold humus
nodules than the ____.
(d) hold moisture
(a) Khadar, Black
(b) Bangar, Khadar
(c) Khadar,Red Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm170
(d) Khadar, Bangar
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm166 71. Black soils are generally poor in _______ contents
(a) magnesium
(b) calcium carbonate
(c) potash
67. Regions of alluvial soils are densely populated
(d) phosphorus
_____.
(a) vast mineral reserves are found here
(b) land can be left fallow here Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm171
(c) main occupation of the people is fishing and
there are several rivers here
(d) Due to its high fertility, these areas are highly
72. Which soil develops deep cracks after dehydration?
cultivated
(a) black soil
(b) Red Soil
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm167 (c) Yellow Soil
(d) Laterite Soil
68. Alluvial Soils in the drier areas are more ____ Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm172
and can be productive after proper treatment and
irrigation.
(a) alkaline
(b) acidic 73. Which of the following statements represents the
(c) saline characteristics of black soils
(A) It develops deep cracks during hot weather
(d) dry
(B) it is made of fine clay particles
(C) It retains moisture
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm168 (D) iron content present in the soil turns into iron
oxide due to diffusion
(a) 1 and 3 only
69. ___ soils are made up of volcanic rocks and lava- (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
flow. (c) 3 and 4 only
(a) yellow (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) brown
(c) Black
(d) red
74. The soil of India which becomes sticky in rainy
season is ____.
(a) alluvial

(b) black 79. After adopting appropriate soil conservation

(c) red techniques particularly in the hilly areas of
(d) mountain Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, ____soils is
very useful for growing tea and coffee.
(a) Red
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm174 (b) Black
(c) Yellow
(d) Laterite
75. If the parent rock is crystalline igneous, the soil will
be ___. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm179
(a) Alluvial
(b) black
(c) Laterite
(d) Red 80. ____ in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala
are more suitable for crops like cashew nut.
(a) Alluvial soils
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm175 (b) Red laterite soils
(c) Black soils
(d) Arid soils
76. Which soil develop a reddish colour due to diffusion
of iron? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm180
(a) Red
(b) Black
(c) Yellow
(d) Laterite 81. Arid soils range from ___to ___ in colour.
(a) yellow,red
(b) red,brown
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm176 (c) red,black
(d) brown,yellow
77. ___soil looks ___when it occurs in a hydrated Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm181

form.
(a) Red, Yellow
(b) black, Red
(c) Red, White 82. Arid soils are generally ____ in texture and ____
(d) Yellow, Brown in nature.
(a) saline,clayey
(b) sandy, saline
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm177 (c) saline,sandy
(d) sandy.clayey
78. Laterite soil is developed in areas with ____. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm182

(a) Low temperature and heavy rainfall
(b) High temperature and low rainfall
(c) High temperature and heavy rainfall
(d) Low temperature and low rainfall 83. The lower horizons of the soil are occupied by Kankar
because of the ____ calcium content ____.
(a) increasing, downwards
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm178 (b) decreasing, upwards
(c) decreasing, downwards

(d) increasing,upwards 88. Forest soils found in the lower parts of the valleys
particularly on the river terraces and alluvial fans
are ___.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm183 (a) too poor to produce much
(b) barren
(c) fertile.
84. Which type of soil becomes cultivable after proper (d) infertile
irrigation?
(a) Alluvial soils
(b) Red laterite soils
(c) Black soils
(d) Arid soils
89. The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent
washing down is described as ___.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm184 (a) strip cropping
(b) Ploughing
(c) soil erosion
85. Which soil is found in hilly and mountainous areas? (d) soil formation
(a) Red laterite soil
(b) Forest Soil Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm189
(c) Black soil
(d) Arid soil
90. The land developed due to soil erosion is called as

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm185 ____.
(a) Fallow land
(b) bad land
86. Soil texture varies according to mountain environment (c) waste land
where they are formed. Soil is ____ in valley sides (d) culturable waste land
whereas ____ in upper slopes.
(a) coarse grained, stoneless
(b) loamy and silty, coarse grained
(c) clayey, loamy and silty
(d) coarse grained, loamy and silty
91. Wind blows loose soil off flat or sloping land known
as ___ erosion.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm186 (a) sheet
(b) wind
(c) strip
87. In the snow-bound areas of the Himalayas, Forest (d) Soil
soils experience denudation, and are ____ with
____ humus content.
(a) acidic, denudation
(b) basic, denudation
(c) denudation,basic
(d) denudation, acidic 92. Which of the following methods are used to restrict
soil erosion?
A. Ploughing along contour lines
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm187 B. Jhumming
C. Strip cropping
(a) A and B

(b) A and C 97. In which of the following states is the terrace

(c) B and D cultivation not practiced?
(d) B and D (a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Uttaranchal
(d) Maharashtra
93. Which village has shown that it is possible to reverse
land degradation?
(a) Bhandardara
(b) Majuli 98. Which one among the following is the method to
(c) Katarmal control degradation?
(d) Sukhomajri (a) Deforestation
(b) Intensive cultivation
(c) Overgrazing
(d) Afforestation
94. Which type of resource is an example of wind energy?
(a) Human-made
(b) Renewable
(c) Non-Renewable 99. Which one of the following types of resources is iron
(d) Biotic ore?
(a) Renewable
(b) Biotic
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm194 (c) Flow
(d) Non-renewable
95. Which type of resource is park? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm199

(a) Community owned resource
(b) Non-Renewable resource
(c) Individual resource
(d) Potential resource 100. Under which of the following types of resources can
tidal energy be put?
(a) Replenishable
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm195 (b) Human-made
(c) Abiotic
(d) Non-recyclable
96. The Club of Rome advocated resource conservation
in the year- Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm200
(a) 1965
(b) 1966
(c) 1967
(d) 1968 101. Which one of the following is the main cause of land
degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm196 (b) Deforestation
(c) Over irrigation
(d) Overgrazing

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm201 (c) Individual and community.

(d) Potential and reserves.
102. In which one of the following states is terrace Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm206

cultivation practised?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
107. Which among the following is a type of resources
(c) Plains of Uttar Pradesh classified on the basis of exhaustibility?
(d) Uttarakhand (a) Biotic and abiotic.
(b) Renewable and non-renewable.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm202 (c) National and individual.
(d) Potential and reserves.
103. In which of the following states is black soil found? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm207
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Gujarat
(c) Raiasthan 108. Which one of the following is a biotic resource?
(d) Jharkhand (a) Land
(b) Water
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm203 (c) Human beings
(d) Rocks
104. Which one of the following States has the less area Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm208
under black soil?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
109. Which type of resources is air?
(c) Madhya Pradesh (a) renewable resource
(d) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Manmade Resources
(c) Human Resource
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm204 (d) nonrenewable resource
105. Which soil is known as black soil?
(a) Sandy
(b) Chalk
110. Which one of the following is not a renewable
(c) Regur resource?
(d) Silt (a) Solar energy
(b) Wind energy
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm205 (c) Forests
(d) Fossil fuels
106. How can the resources be classified on the basis of Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm210
their origin?
(a) Biotic and abiotic.
(b) Renewable and non-renewable.
111. Resources which are found in a region but have not

been utilised are called- (d) fallow land.

(a) developed resources.
(b) stock.
(c) international resources.
(d) potential resources.
116. Which one of the following relief features of India has

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm211 30 % of the total surface area of country?
(a) Mountain
(b) Plateau
112. Resources which are surveyed and their quantity (c) Plains
and quality have been determined for utilisation are (d) Islands
known as-
(a) potential resources.
(b) stock.
(c) developed resources.
(d) reserves.
117. What is the percentage share of plains in the total
land area?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm212 (a) 43%
(b) 20%
(c) 35%
113. “There is enough for everybody’s need and not for (d) 30%
anybody’s greed,” who among the following has
given the above statement?
(a) Vinoba Bhave Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm217
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee 118. The mountain share in the total land area is-
(a) 35%
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm213 (b) 43%
(c) 40%
(d) 30%
114. Which one of the following reforms was not a part of

‘First Five Year Plan’ ? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm218
(a) Abolition of zamindari system.
(b) Minimum support price
(c) Consolidation of land holdings 119. Which one of the following is the main cause of land
(d) Ownership of the land to the farmers degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm214 (b) Overgrazing
(c) Deforestation
(d) Over-irrigation
115. The land with deep channels that is unfit for

cultivation is called- Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm219
(a) bad land.
(b) arable land.
(c) waste land. 120. In which of the following states is overgrazing

responsible for land degradation? 125. Which crop is grown in the black soil?
(a) Jharkhand and Odisha (a) Rice
(b) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan (b) Wheat
(c) Punjab and Haryana (c) Cotton
(d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu (d) Tea
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm220 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm225
121. Gully erosion is common in the- 126. Which one of the following states has mostly laterite
(a) Chambal Basin. soil?
(b) Ganga Basin. (a) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan. (b) Bihar
(d) Hilly region. (c) Rajasthan
(d) Meghalaya
122. Which is the method of checking soil erosion?

(a) Strip cropping 127. Which soil develops in areas with high temperature
(b) Terrace farming and heavy rainfall?
(c) Contour ploughing (a) Regur
(d) All of the above (b) Arid
(c) Laterite
(d) Alluvial
123. Which one of the following soil is ideal for growing
cotton?
(a) Regur soil 128. ‘Laterite’ has been derived from the Greek word
(b) Laterite soil ‘later’ which means-
(c) Desert soil (a) mountain
(d) Mountainous soil (b) brick.
(c) rock.
(d) stone.
124. Which of the following method will not help in soil
conservation?
(a) Contour ploughing 129. Which soil develops in areas with high temperature
(b) Strip cropping and heavy rainfall?
(c) Creating shelter belts (a) Regur
(d) Ploughing up and down the slopes (b) Arid
(c) Laterite
(d) Alluvial

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm229 vegetation and minerals are called____?

(a) natural resources
(b) biotic resources
(c) renewable resources
130. When running water cuts through clayey soils and
(d) human resources
makes deep channels, they lead to-
(a) gully erosion.
(b) sheet erosion. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm233
(c) wind erosion.
(d) soil erosion.
134. Everything available in our environment which
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm230 can be used to satisfy our needs, provided, it is
technologically accessible,economically feasible and
culturally acceptable can be termed_____?
(a)resources
131. Which of the following soil is known as regur soil? (b) nature
(a) Black soil (c) components
(b) Red soil (d) stock
(c) Laterite soil
(d) Arid soil
135. What is not an example of a non-renewable resource?
(a) natural gas
Don’t take printout of this file because solution (b) coal
is not given. You can purchase hard book from (c) forests
Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/ (d) nuclear energy
To Purchase hard book click below or Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm235
Purchase Hard Book
136. Which is not a biotic components of an ecosystem?
(a) fish
132. Identify the type of farming- (b) trees
(a) Is a method of growing crops on sides of hills or (c) minerals
mountains. (d) animals
(b) Very effective to reduce soil erosion.
(c) Also reduce water loss, every step has an outlet Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm236
which channels water to the next step.
(d) Western and central Himalayas have well
developed with this farming.
137. Select the intensively leached soil of the monsoon
climate.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm232 (a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Laterite
133. Natural endowments in the form of land, water, (d) Arid

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm237 (c) cropping

(d) cultivation
138. What is plantation of trees on a large scale to check Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm242

soil erosion termed as?
(a) Afforestation
(b) Deforestation
143. Which erosional agent is responsible for sheet
(c) Reforestation erosion?
(d) soil erosion. (a) waves
(b) rain water
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm238 (c) sunlight
(d) wind
139. What is the soil like in the Great Plains? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm243
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Laterite 144. Which of these factors is not responsible for land
(d) Arid degradation?
(a) Terrace Farming
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm239 (b) Deforestation
(c) Mining
(d) wind erosion
140. Which fertile soil is also known as khadar and

bhangar? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm244
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Laterite 145. Which of the following Cannot prevent soil erosion?
(d) Arid (a) Contour Ploughing
(b) shelter belts
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm240 (c) Terrace Farming
(d) deforestation
141. Select the soil which has higher concentration of Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm245
kanker nodules.
(a) bangar
(b) Black
146. Which of the following is not responsible for soil
(c) Khadar formation?
(d) Arid (a) Humus
(b) Agents of erosion
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm241 (c) temperature
(d) inorganic materials
142. Which method is used to break up the force of wind? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm246
(a)Shelter belt
(b) ploughing

147. The layer of soil that has maximum amount of humus 152. In which year the first international Earth Summit
is called_____? was held?
(a) Sub soil (a) 1995
(b) Top Soil (b) 1992
(c) Unweathered parent bed rock (c) 1990
(d) Substratum weathered parent rock material (d) 1999
148. What is alluvial soil deficient in? 153. Which type of resource is coal and petroleum?
(a) nitrogen (a) non-renewable
(b) potash (b) renewable
(c) phosphoric acid (c) Individual
(d) lime (d) Community Owned

149. In which regions of India is alluvial soil not found? is not given. You can purchase hard book from
(a)the northern plains
(b) eastern coastal plains
(c) the river valleys
(d) northwest Deccan plateau
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm249 Purchase Hard Book
154. Which state is well endowed with solar and wind

energy but lacks in water resources?
150. In which piedmont plains can you find coarse alluvial
(a) Gujarat
soil?
(a) Duars (b) Rajasthan
(b) Chos (c) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Terai (d) Maharashtra
(d) All of these
155. The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of
the ____ belong to open ocean and no individual
country can utilise these without the concurrence of
151. Which country has got the right to mine manganese international institutions.
from the Indian Ocean beyond the exclusive zone? (a) Temperate Zone
(a) Bangladesh (b) Exclusive Economic Zone
(b) India (c) Central Zone
(c) Iran (d) South Frigid Zone
(d) Pakistan
156. Match the following and choose correct option. region.

Reason : Not only availability of resources but also
List I (Types) ListII (Method)
corresponding change in technology is necessary for
(A) Terrace (1) Different crops grown development of any region.
farming parallely (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(B) Strip (2) Hill slopes are used as the correct explanation of assertion.
cropping cultivable land in the form of flat (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is
cut regions of slope not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) Contour (3) Along the slope of mountain (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
ploughing (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
(D) Crop (4) Different crops grown in
rotation systematic succession Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm258
(a) A−1, B−4, C−3, D−2
(b) A−3, B−4, C−1, D−2
(c) A−4, B−1, C−3, D−2 159. Assertion - Resources are free gifts of nature.
(d) A−2, B−1, C−3, D−4 Reason : Resources like soil, air, water are easily
available in nature.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm256 the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is
not the correct explanation of assertion.
Don’t take printout of this file because solution (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
160. Assertion - Land is a natural resource of utmost
Purchase Hard Book importance.
Reason : Land can be used for various purposes.
the correct explanation of assertion.
157. Assertion - Alluvial soil is ideal for growth of paddy,
wheat, cereal and pulse crops. (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is
Reason : Alluvial soil is well-known for is capacity to not the correct explanation of assertion.
hold moisture. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
161. Assertion - Resource planning is an easy process in
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm257 India.
Reason : Resource planning involves planning
structure, identification and inventory of resource
across the regions.
158. Assertion - The availability of resources is not the
only necessary condition for the development of any

(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. 165. Assertion - Controlling on mining activities doesn’t
(d) Both assertion and reason are false. control land degradation.
Reason : In states like Gujarat, Rajasthan,
Madhya Pradesh, deforestation has occurred due to
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm261 overgrazing, not minings
162. Assertion - Soil is the most important renewable not the correct explanation of assertion.
natural resource.
Reason : Soil supports different types of living (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
organisms on earth. (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
the correct explanation of assertion. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm265
(d) Both assertion and reason are false. 166. Assertion - Terrace cultivation does not restrict
erosion.
Reason : Running water cuts through the clayey soils
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm262 and makes deep channels as gullies. This helps to
cultivate crops.
163. Assertion - Processes of soil formation and erosion (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is
goes simultaneously and creates a balance between not the correct explanation of assertion.
the two.
Reason : The denudation of the soil cover and (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
subsequent washing down is soil erosion (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
the correct explanation of assertion. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm266
(d) Both assertion and reason are false. 167. Assertion - alluvial soil is ideal for the growth of
sugarcane, paddy, wheat etc.
Reason : It is rich in potash, phosphoric, acid and
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm263 lime.
164. Assertion - Arid soil is unsuitable for cultivation. not the correct explanation of assertion.
Reason : Arid soil is generally sandy in texture and
saline in nature. It restricts the filtration of water. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm267
168. Identify the resources which the help of following
clues -
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm264 • They belong to the nation.
• The country has legal powers to acquire even
private property for public good.

• example-All the minerals, water resources, 171. Identify the land

forests, wildlife, land within the political • Includes rocky, arid and desert areas.
boundaries and oceanic area upto 12 nautical • This land put to other non-agricultural uses
miles (22.2 km) from the coast. includes settlements, roads, railways industry
Select the appropriate option from the following. etc.
(a) Inter national Resources • Continuous use of this land over a long period
(b) National Resources of time without taking appropriate measures
(c) Community Owned Resources to conserve and manage it, has resulted in land
degradation.
(d) Individual Resources
Select the appropriate option from the following.
(a) Waste land
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm268 (b) Forest land
(c) Fallow land
(d) Grazing land
169. In the Summit
• More than 100 heads of states met in Rio de Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm271
Janeiro in Brazil
• The Summit was convened for addressing urgent
problems of environmental protection
• The Rio Convention endorsed the global Forest 172. Identify the event-
Principles and adopted Agenda 21 The Rio • Held in June 1992.
Convention endorsed the global Forest Principles • Covered for addressing urgent problems of
and adopted Agenda 21 environmental protection and socio-economic
Identify the event : development at the global level.
(a) first International Earth • Adopted agenda 21.
(b) second International Earth • More than 100 heads of states met in this event.
(a) The Citizens’ Fifth Report,1999
(c) fifth International Earth
(b) Club of Rome
(c) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, 1992.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm269 (d) Our Common Future
170. Identify the personality
• He was very apt in voicing his concern about
resource conservation
• His words were: “There is enough for everybody’s Don’t take printout of this file because solution
need and not for any body’s greed”. is not given. You can purchase hard book from
• He placed the greedy and selfish individuals and
exploitative nature of modern technology as the
root cause for resource depletion at the global full solutions of all MCQs in print form.
level. To Purchase hard book click below or
• He was against mass production and wanted to whatsapp at 8905629969.
replace it with the production by the masses.
Select the appropriate option from the following. Purchase Hard Book
(a) Schumacher
(b) Gandhiji
(c) Brundtland 173. Identify the process-
(d) None of these • Is a gradual process.
• It is the displacement of the upper layer of soil.
• Is a natural process.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm270 • Caused by the dynamic activity of water, ice,
snow, air, plants, animals and humans.

(a) Soil Erosion (b) Wind erosion.

(b) Soil Conservation (c) Gully erosion.
(c) Soil Mixture (d) Stream bank erosion.
(d) Bad Soil
176. The deep cracks in the soil during hot weather

174. Which one of the following options best signifies this formed due to-
cartoon?
(a) Shows the reality of current Indian Bureaucracy

System. (a) Change in weather condition.
(b) The co-ordination among such organization is (b) Affinity of soil towards water.
generally rare. (c) Due to presence of excessive fine clay.
(c) People’s management is essential for energy (d) All of the above.
project.
(d) Derail of development projects that were meant Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm276
for community.
177. Arrange the following layers of soil from top to
bottom in a soil profile-
1. Substratum weathered parent rock material.
175. Which type of the erosion can be seen in the given 2. Unweathered parent bed rock.
picture? 3. Top soil.
4. Subsoil weathered rocks, sand and slit clay.
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1
178. Arrange the following types of soil found as the

major soil types in India from north to south-
1. Forest and mountainous soil.
2. Black soil.
(a) Sheet erosion.

3. Alluvial soil. B-? Burial grounds, public

4. Red and Yellow soil. parks
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(a) A-Own plots, houses, own plantation. B
(b) 1, 3, 2, 4
-Potential resources.
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2
(b) A-Own plots, houses, own plantation. B
(d) 2, 3, 4, 1 -Community owned resources.
(c) A-Own plots, houses, own plantation. B
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm278 -Developed resources.
(d) A-Minerals and fossil fuels . B -Community
owned resources.
179. Arrange the following soil types found in India as per

area covered by them-(From higher to lower) Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm281
1. Red soil.
2. Black soil.
3. Arid soil.
4. Alluvial soil. 182. Complete the table with correct information-
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
Summit Year Held at Aim
(b) 4, 2, 1, 3
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 Rio de Janeiro A-? Brazil B-?
earth summit
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3
(a) A -June 1992 B -For addressing urgent problems
of environmental protection.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm279 (b) A -May 1992 B -For addressing urgent problems
of environmental protection
(c) A -July 1992 B -For addressing urgent problems
180. Fill the table with correct information- of environmental protection
(d) A -June 1992 B -For addressing urgent problems
Name Crop can Peculiar quality of economy.
of soil be sown
Black A-? High water holding
soil capacity
B-? Sugarcane, Very fertile, contain
Paddy, potash, phosphoric acid
wheat and lime Source Based Questions 1 : Read the source given below
(a) A - Tea, Coffee.B -Alluvial soil appropriate option:
(b) A -Cotton,.B -Black soil We have shared our land with the past generations
(c) A -Tea, Coffee,.B -Red soil and will have to do so with the future generations
(d) A -Cotton.B -Alluvial soil too. Ninety-five per cent of our basic needs for food,
shelter and clothing are obtained from land. Human
activities have not only brought about degradation
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm280 of land but have also aggravated the pace of natural
forces to cause damage to land. Some human
activities such as deforestation, overgrazing, mining
and quarrying too have contributed significantly in
land degradation. Mining sites are abandoned after
information-
excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and
Types of Resources Example of Resources traces of over-burdening. In states like Jharkhand,
Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha
Individual resources A-? deforestation due to mining have caused severe
land degradation. In states like Gujarat, Rajasthan,

Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra overgrazing is (b) overgrazing

one of the main reasons for land degradation. In the (c) water logging
states of Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh, (d) over mining
over irrigation is responsible for land degradation
due to water logging leading to increase in salinity
and alkalinity in the soil. The mineral processing like Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm283
grinding of limestone for cement industry and calcite
and soapstone for ceramic industry generate huge
quantity of dust in the atmosphere. It retards the
process of infiltration of water into the soil after it 186. Some of the methods to check land degradation in
settles down on the land. In recent years, industrial arid areas are
effluents as waste have become a major source of land (a) Proper management of waste lands
and water pollution in many parts of the country (b) control of mining activities
have contributed significantly in land degradation. (c) proper discharge and disposal of industrial
There are many ways to solve the problems of land effluents and wastes aftertreatment
degradation. Afforestation and proper management
(d) Planting of shelter belts of plants, control on
of grazing can help to some extent. Planting of shelter
overgrazing, stabilisation of sand dunes by
belts of plants, control on over grazing, stabilisation
growing thorny bushes
of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes are some
of the methods to check land degradation in arid
areas. Proper management of waste lands, control of Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm283
mining activities, proper discharge and disposal of
industrial effluents and wastes after treatment can
reduce land and water degradation in industrial and
suburban areas. 187. Most of the basic needs for food, shelter and clothing
are obtained from
183. The cause of land degradation has been (a) land
(a) deforestation (b) human activities
(b) overgrazing (c) mining
(c) mining (d) land degradation
(d) all of the above
188. Deforestation due to mining has caused severe land

184. Deforestation due to mining has caused severe land degradation in the state of:
degradation in which of the following states? (a) Jharkhand
(a) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and (b) Uttar Pradesh
Maharashtra (c) Punjab
(b) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and (d) Haryana
Odisha
(c) Kerala , Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Odisha Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm283
(d) Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal and Nagaland
189. Over irrigation is responsible for land degradation
due to the following reasons:
(a) Deforestation and overgrazing.
185. In the states of Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar (b) Water logging leading to decrease in alkalinity of
Pradesh, reason for land degradation is the soil.
(a) over irrigation (c) Water logging leading to increase in salinity in

soil. 21 is that every local government should draw its

(d) None of these. own local Agenda 21.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm283 192. The Earth Summit June 1992 was convened
(a) to address the problem of environmental
protection
(b) to address the problem of socio economic
190. Human is considered as the main culprit for land development
degradation because (c) to endorse the Global Forest Principles
(a) of his excavation work at mining sites. (d) all of the above
(b) of his significant contribution to deforestation
(c) he has aggravated the pace of natural forces
causing damage to land.
(d) All of these.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm283 193. Significant contribution which was made at the

Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in 1992 was
(a) Sustainable development
(b) Resource conservation
191. What percent of our basic need for food shelter and (c) Resource planning
clothing are obtained from land? (d) Land degradation
(a) 60
(b) 70
(c) 75
(d) 95
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm283 194. --------- was adopted for achieving Sustainable

Development at the Rio Convention in the 21st
century.
(a) Agenda 21
Source Based Questions 2 : Read the source given (b) Tackling industrial effluents
below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the (c) The global Forest Principles
most appropriate option: (d) Global Climatic Change
In Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, In June 1992, more
than 100 heads of states met in Rio de Janeiro in
Brazil, for the first International Earth Summit.
The Summit was convened for addressing urgent
problems of environmental protection and socio
economic development at the global level. The
195. Which one of the following is NOT a part of Agenda
assembled leaders signed the Declaration on Global
21?
Climatic Change and Biological Diversity. The Rio
(a) combat environmental damages
Convention endorsed the global Forest Principles
and adopted Agenda 21 for achieving Sustainable (b) Reduce poverty
Development in the 21st century. Agenda 21- It is (c) control on diseases
the declaration signed by world leaders in 1992 at (d) to fight terrorism
the United Nations Conference on Environment and
Development (UNCED), which took place at Rio de
Janeiro, Brazil. It aims at achieving global sustainable Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm284
development. It is an agenda to combat environmental
damage, poverty, disease through global co-operation
on common interests, mutual needs and shared
responsibilities. One major objective of the Agenda 196. How many heads of states meet in Rio de Janeiro in

Brazil? 199. Which one of the following is not helpful to reverse

(a) 100 heads of state land degradation?
(b) 500 heads of state (a) Using high doses of fertilizers.
(c) 1000 heads of state (b) Practicing crop rotation.
(d) 50 heads of state (c) Permaculture
(d) Developing Agro Forestry.
197. What is the full form of Unced?

(a) United Nations Conference on Environment and 200. Benefits of Ecological Restoration ……………..
Development (UNCED), Earth Summit. (a) Helps to solve challenges of water security
(b) United Nations Congress on Environment and (b) Helps to solve challenges of food.
Development (UNCED), Earth Summit. (c) Helps in securing livelihoods and well being.
(c) United Nations Conference on Environment and (d) All of the above.
Divison (UNCED), Earth Summit.
(d) United notions Conference on Environment and
Development (UNCED), Earth Summit. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm285
201. Which one of the following is not part of Watershed
management?
(a) Percolation ponds
Source Based Questions 3 : Read the source given (b) Canals with cement lining.
below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the (c) Check dams and Gully
(d) Diversion Drains.
The village of Sukhomajri and the district of
Jhabua have shown that it is possible to reverse
land degradation. Tree density in Jhabua increased Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm285
from 13 per hectare in 1976 to 1,272 per hectare
in 1992; Regeneration of the environment leads to
economic well-being, as a result of greater resource
availability improved agriculture and animal care, 202. The village Sukhomajri is located in state of ___.
and consequently increased incomes. Average annual (a) Uttaranchal
household income in Jhabua ranged from Rs 10,000- (b) Haryana
15,000 between 1979 and 1984; people’s management (c) Uttar pradesh
is essential for ecological restoration. With people (d) Andhra pradesh
being made the decision-makers by the Madhya
Pradesh government, 2.9 million hectares or about 1
per cent of India’s land area, are being greenedacross Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm285
the state through watershed management.
198. The village Jhabua is located in the state of ___ 203. Which village has shown that it is possible to reverse
(a) Uttaranchal land degradation.
(b) Andhra Pradesh (a) Bhandardara
(c) Rajasthan (b) Majuli
(d) Madhya Pradesh (c) Katarmal
(d) Sukhomajri
Source Based Questions 4 : Read the source given 207. This soil is found in
below and answer 8 questions that follow by choosing the (a) Northern coastal plains
most appropriate option: (b) Eastern coastal plains
This is the most widely spread and important Soil. (c) Southern coastal plains
In fact, the entire northern plains are made of (d) Western coastal plains
alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three
important Himalayan river systems– the Indus, the
Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These soils also extend Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm286
in Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor
Alluvial soil is also found in the eastern coastal
plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi,
the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri river. The 208. Why alluvial soil is considered the most important
alluvial soil consists of various proportions of sand, soil?
silt and clay. As we move inlands towards the river (a) Because it is very fertile.
valleys, soil particles appear some what bigger in (b) Because it is ideal for growing cotton.
size. In the upper reaches of the river valley i.e. near (c) Because it has fine particles.
the place of the break of slope, the soils are coarse.
(d) Because it needs no fertilizer.
Such soils are more common in piedmont plains such
as Duars, Chos and Terai.
204. Name the soil which is being described in the above
paragraph
(a) Black soil
209. Allivial soil is ideal for the growth of which of the
(b) Alluvial soil following crops?
(c) Laterite soil (a) Sugarcane
(d) Forest soil (b) Wheat
(c) Pulse crops
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm286 (d) All of the above
205. The soil mentioned in the para is _______
(a) Very dry
(b) Rocky 210. Regions of alluvial soils are ______.
(c) Very fertile (a) over cultivated
(d) Red in colour (b) densely populated
(c) intensively cultivated and densely populated
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm286 (d) less cultivated and thinly populated
206. This soil is mainly good for cultivation of
(a) Sugar cane
(b) Paddy 211. Which of the following particles does the alluvial soil
(c) Wheat consist of?
(d) All of the above (a) Sand
(b) Sand, silt, clay
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm286 (c) Sand, silt
(d) Kanker
Source Based Questions 5 : Read the source given Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm287

Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious
use of resources. It has importance in a country like 215. Rajasthan is very well endowed with
India, which has enormous diversity in the availability (a) Wave energy
of resources. There are regions which are rich in (b) Solar and wind energy
certain types of resources but are deficient in some (c) Geothermal energy
other resources. There are some regions which can be (d) Tidal energy
considered self-sufficient in terms of the availability
of resources and there are some regions which have
acute shortage of some vital resources. For example, Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm287
the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya
Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits.
Arunachal Pradesh as abundance of water resources
but lacks in infrastructural development. The state 216. Which one of the following states has abundance
of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and of water resources but lacks in infrastructural
wind energy but lacks in water resources. The cold development?
desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest (a) Arunachal Pradesh
of the country. It has very rich cultural heritage but (b) Rajasthan
it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some vital (c) Delhi
minerals. This calls for balanced resource planning at
(d) Chandigarh
the national, state, regional and local levels.
212. In which among the following States of India, coal Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm287
deposits are not abundantly available?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Chhattisgarh
217. In spite of very rich cultural heritage in which of the
(c) Jharkhand following resources Ladakh is deficient?
(d) Rajasthan (a) Water
(b) Infrastructure
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm287 (c) Some vital minerals
213. In which among the following States you may find Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm287
suitable amount of Water resources.
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Laddakh
218. At which level there is a need of balanced resource
(c) Arunachal Pradesh planning as India has enormous diversity in the
(d) None of the above availability of resources?
(a) At the national level
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm287 (b) At the state level
(c) At the regional and local levels
214. Which state lacks water resources?

(a) Madhya Pradesh Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/bm287
(b) Haryana
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan 219. From which five year plan India has made concerted

efforts for achieving the goals of resource planning?

(a) First five year plan
(a) Second five year plan
(a) Fourth five year plan
(a) Sixth five year plan
******

Purchase Hard Book

Page 110 Agriculture Chap 3
CHAPTER 3
Agriculture
1. Which one of the following is a rabi crop? 5. What is the other name of Jhumming?
(a) Rice (a) Shifting Cultivation
(b) Millets (b) Slash and Burn Agriculture
(c) Gram (c) Milpa
(d) Cotton (d) All of these
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm101 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm105
2. In which of the countries, the ‘slash and burn’ 6. Rubber grows well along the coast of ...........
agriculture is known as ‘Roca’ ? (a) Karnataka
(a) Brazil (b) Kerala
(b) Indonesia (c) Tamil Nadu
(c) Central Africa (d) None of these
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm106
7. In which state of India slash and burn is called

3. In which country, slash and burn agriculture is Jhumming?
known as “Milpa”? (a) Assam
(a) Venezuela (b) Manipur
(b) Brazil (c) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Central America (d) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Mexico and Central America
8. ____ is a primary activity, which produces most of

4. Milpa and Ladang are different names for___. the food that we consume.
(a) shifting cultivation. (a) Agriculture
(b) mixed farming (b) sericulture
(c) truck farming (c) apiculture
(d) plantation agriculture (d) lac culture

Chap 3 Agriculture Page 111
9. The Agriculture that is practiced on small patches (b) Primitive Subsistence Farming
of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao (c) Intensive Subsistence Farming
and digging sticks is _____. (d) Commercial Farming
(a) Shifting Agriculture
(b) Primitive Subsistence Farming
(c) Intensive Subsistence Farming Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm113
(d) Commercial Farming
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm109 14. In which of the following states of India is intensive

subsistence farming largely practiced?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Punjab
10. ____ farming practice depends on monsoon, (c) Gujarat
natural fertility of the soil and sustainability of other (d) Rajasthan
environmental conditions.
(a) Shifting
(b) Primitive Subsistence Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm114
(c) Intensive Subsistence
(d) Commercial
15. In which system of agriculture are high doses of
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm110 fertilizers and pesticides used?
(a) Intensive agriculture
(b) Extensive agriculture
(c) Jhooming
11. It is a type of agriculture where farmers clear a (d) plantations
patch of land and produce food crops to sustain their
family. Choose correct option.
(a) Regular farming Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm115
(b) Clear farming
(c) Slash and burn farming
(d) None of these
16. The ____ has led to division of land among
successive generations and rendered the size of land
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm111 holding uneconomical.
(a) right of extractive
(b) right of acquired
(c) right of earned
12. Another name for shifting agriculture in north- (d) right of inheritance
eastern states like Assam is ___.
(a) Kuruwa
(b) Kumari Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm116
(c) Bewar
(d) Jhumming
17. High yielding variety of seeds and use of chemical
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm112 fertilisers are widely found in _____.
(a) shifting cultivation
(b) sedentary intensive farming
(c) Commercial farming
13. Which type of farming is practised in areas with high (d) mixed farming
population pressure on land?
(a) Shifting Farming

18. Rice is a ____ crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm121
Odisha, it is a ____ crop.
(a) commercial, subsistence
(b) subsistence, commercial
(c) domestic, commercial 22. The plantation has an interface of ____ and
____.
(d) subsistence,domestic
(a) Industry, human
(b) Agriculture, Farmer
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm118 (c) Agriculture, Industry
(d) Industry, Farmer
Don’t take printout of this file because solution Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm122

full solutions of all MCQs in print form. 23. Which one of the following is not a plantation crop?
To Purchase hard book click below or (a) Tea
whatsapp at 8905629969. (b) Rubber
Purchase Hard Book (c) Sugarcane
(d) wheat
19. What type of climate is required for sugarcane ?

(a) Dry and hot
(b) Hot and wet
(c) Cold and dry 24. Which of the following state is the largest producer
(d) Cold and wet of tea in India?
(a) Karnataka
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm119 (b) Assam
(c) West Bengal
(d) Tamil Nadu
20. Which one of the following oilseed in India is grown

in both Rabi and Kharif seasons?
(a) Groundnut
(b) Coconut
(c) Castor seed 25. ____ is the largest producer of coffee in India.
(d) Mustard (a) Assam
(b) West Bengal
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm120 (c) Karnataka
(d) All of these
21. ____ is also a type of commercial farming.In this

type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large
area.
(a) Bewar
26. A well developed network of _______connecting
(b) Khil the plantation areas, processing industries and
(c) Jhumming markets plays an important role in the development
(d) Plantation of plantations.
(a) transport and communication

(b) Climate 31. Over the years, cultivation methods have changed
(c) production significantly depending upon the characteristics of
(d) Irrigation ……
(a) Type of crop
(b) technological know-how
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm126 (c) Type of season
(d) Government intervention
27. How many cropping seasons in India? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm131

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6 32. What has been the main dependency of primitive
farming?
(a) monsoon
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm127 (b) labour
(c) suitability of other environment
(d) technical
28. ____crops are sown in winter from October to
December and harvested in summer from April to Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm132
June.
(a) Rabi
(b) Zaid
(c) Kharif 33. What are the features of primitive subsistence
(d) All of these agriculture?
(a) Large amount of labour
(b) When the soil fertility decreases, the farmers
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm128 shift and clear a fresh patch of land
(c) Use of canals
(d) Use of fertilisers
29. Barley, grams, mustard and peas are examples of
____. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm133
(a) Rabi crop
(b) Zaid crop
(c) Kharif crop
(d) Plantation crop 34. Intensive Subsistence Farming is ….farming.
(a) Machine based
(b) labour intensive
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm129 (c) Crop rotation
(d) Soil consistent
30. How much of India’s population is engaged in Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm134

Agricultural activities
(a) Two third
(b) Half
(c) One third 35. Why is there enormous pressure on agricultural land?
(d) Almost all (a) Overpopulation
(b) Small scale farmers are not able to earn livelihood
(c) Due to the law of inheritance and division of
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm130 land.

(d) Farmers of less land holdings are not able to 40. Select the crop grown during the Kharif season.
afford the right techniques (a) Barley
(b) Gram
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm135 (c) Rice
(d) pea
36. Which state is known for growing Rabi crops?

(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Odisha 41. Select the important wheat growing state.
(d) Punjab (a) West Bengal
(b) Odisha
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm136 (c) Punjab
(d) Maharashtra
37. Availability of ______ during winter months

due to the western temperate cyclones helps in the
success of Rabi crops.
(a) Sunlight
42. Select the crop grown in the Zaid season.
(b) Precipitation (a) cucumber
(c) Frost (b) Urad
(d) Winds (c) Bajra
(d) Maize
38. Green Revolution was most successful in ____.for

growing rabi crops.
43. In Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, how many crops
(a) Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh
of paddy are grown in a year?
(b) Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra (a) 2
(c) Punjab and Tamilnadu (b) 3
(d) Haryana and kerala (c) 1
(d) 4
39. When are Kharif crops harvested?

(a) September-October
44. How long does sugarcane take to grow?
(b) December- January (a) Almost 4 months
(c) June-July (b) Almost 6 months
(d) April- May (c) Almost 1 year
(d) Almost 3 months

45. India is the ………..largest producer of rice in the (c) 75 and 90

world. (d) 90 and 100
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm145 50. Which among the following is growing over Ganga-
Satluj plains in the north-west and black soil region ?
(a) Ragi
(b) Wheat
46. Rice requires high humidity with …….cm annual (c) Rice
rainfall? (d) Maize
(a) Above 100 cm
(b) Below 100 cm
(c) Above 75 cm
(d) Above 60 cm
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm146 51. ____ is grown in the plains of north and north-
eastern India, coastal areas and the deltaic regions.
(a) Ragi
(b) Wheat
47. How has it become possible to grow rice in areas of (c) Rice
less rainfall such as Punjab, Haryana and western (d) Maize
Uttar Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan?
(a) availability of cheap labour
(b) development of canals irrigation and tube-wells Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm151
(c) fertile soil
(d) development of the transport network
52. Which crops come under the classification of millets?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm147 (a) Peas and maize
(b) Mustard and soybean
(c) Urad and moong
(d) Jowar and bajra
48. What kind of weather conditions are favourable for
the growth of Wheat?
(a) cool growing season and a bright sunshine Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm152
(b) Hot wet weather
(c) Monsoon
(d) Dry hot weather 53. Millets have high nutritional value and are rich in
…...
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm148 (a) Iron, calcium
(b) Minerals
(c) Phosphate
(d) Proteins
49. Wheat needs ___ to ___ cm of annual rainfall
which should be evenly distributed over the growing
season. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm153
(a) 80 and 100
(b) 50 and 75

54. Jowar is the……….most important food crop with 59. India is the ……………...largest producer as well as
respect to area and production. the consumer of pulses in the world.
(a) First (a) First
(b) Second (b) Second
(c) Third (c) Third
(d) fourth (d) Fourth
55. Jowar is a rain-fed crop mostly grown in the moist 60. Which crop needs manual labour from sowing to
areas which needs ……... irrigation. harvesting?
(a) High (a) Watermelon
(b) Medium (b) Sugarcane
(c) Less (c) Maize
(d) No (d) Bajra
56. Select the major Jowar producing State? Don’t take printout of this file because solution
(a) Haryana is not given. You can purchase hard book from
(b) Punjab Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/
(c) Uttar pradesh full solutions of all MCQs in print form.
(d) Maharashtra
Purchase Hard Book
57. Bajra grows well on ……...soil?

61. Which of the following crops is a major source of
(a) sandy soils and shallow black soil
protein in a vegetarian diet?
(b) alluvial clayey soil (a) Wheat
(c) well-drained loamy (b) Rice
(d) all of these (c) Pulses
(d) Oilseeds
58. Which crop is used both for food and fodder?

(a) Jowar
62. The important crop that helps to restore soil fertility
(b) Maize by nitrogen fixation and is also a good source of
(c) Bajra protein is:
(d) Wheat (a) Cereals
(b) Pulses
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm158 (c) Vegetables
(d) Fruits

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm162 (b) maharashtra

(c) Andhra pradesh
(d) Gujarat
63. Which crop the tropical as well as subtropical crop

and Brazil is the largest producer Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm167
(a) wheat
(b) oil seeds
(c) ragi
68. In rape seed production India was ___ largest
(d) Sugarcane producer in the world after Canada and China in
2008.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm163 (a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
64. Select the tropical crop which needs hot humid
climate and temperature between 21 to 27 celceius.
(a) wheat Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm168
(b) Sugarcane
(c) bajra
(d) ragi 69. Different oil seeds are grown covering approximately
____ per cent of the total cropped area of the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm164 country.
(a) 12
(b) 34
(c) 48
65. Which crop provide the raw material for jaggery and (d) 60
molasses?
(a) wheat
(b) ragi Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm169
(c) sugarcane
(d) oil seeds
70. Which crops are also used as raw material in the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm165 production of soap cosmetics and ointments?
(a) pulses
(b) Millets
(c) oilseeds
66. In 2008 India was the _____ largest producer of (d) all of these
groundnut in the world after china.
(a) first
(b) second Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm170
(c) third
(d) fourth
71. Which is khariff crop account for about half of the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm166 major oilseeds produced in the country?
(a) Groundnut
(b) Linseed
(c) mustard
67. The largest groundnut producing state in India is (d) all of these
______.
(a) Tamil nadu

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm171 (c) Expensive and unskilled

(d) cheap and unskilled
72. ___ is a kharif crop in north and rabi crop in south Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm176
India.
(a) groundnut
(b) rice
77. Why is tea processed within tea gardens?
(c) cotton (a) To restore its freshness
(d) sesamum (b) it is a perishable product
(c) to bring down the cost of production
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm172 (d) cheap labour is available there
73. Which crop is both rabi and kharif crop?
(a) Groundnut
(b) Coconut
78. In 2008 India produced ____ percent of the world
(c) Castor seed coffee production.
(d) Mustard (a) 3.2
(b) 10.6
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm173 (c) 20.8
(d) 40.2
74. Tea cultivation is an example of ____ agriculture. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm178

(a) Plantation
(c) Jhumming 79. The Arabica, a variety of coffee is initially brought
(d) Intensive Subsistence Farming from ----------------- is produced now in India.
(a) portugal
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm174 (b) Greece
(c) France
(d) Yemen
75. Tea is an important beverage crop introduced in

India initially by the ____. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm179
(a) portuguese
(b) British
(c) french 80. Select the two beverage crops produced in India.
(d) german (a) Tea and Grapes
(b) Tea and Coffee
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm175 (c) Corn and Rice
(d) None of these
76. Tea cultivation or industry requires high amounts of Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm180

____________ labour.
(a) Expensive and skilled
(b) cheap and skilled
81. Among the different types of coffee, ____ coffee is

considered to be the best. 86. Which state of India is known for its mangoes?
(a) Robusta (a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) liberian (b) Himachal pradesh
(c) Arabica (c) Nagpur
(d) columbiana (d) Meghalaya
82. Which crop is introduced in Baba Budan hills? 87. Which place in India is famous for its Oranges and is
(a) coffee plant called Orange city?
(b) Tea plant (a) Bikaner
(c) cotton plant (b) Surat
(d) wheat plant (c) Jaipur
(d) Nagpur
83. Which plantation crop and its cultivation is confined

in the Nilgiri in Kerala, Karnataka and Tamilnadu? 88. Which state is famous for bananas?
(a) tea (a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) coffee (b) Maharashtra
(c) rubber (c) Tamil Nadu
(d) all of these (d) All of these
84. Which of the following the second largest producer 89. India produces about ___ percent of the world’s
of fruits in world? vegetables.
(a) India (a) 25
(b) China (b) 10
(c) Spain (c) 31
(d) Mexico (d) 13
85. .....is a producer of tropical as well as temperate 90. What is an equatorial crop but under special
fruits. conditions it is grown in tropical and subtropical
(a) France areas?
(b) India (a) cotton
(c) Brazil (b) Rubber
(d) Japan (c) jute
(d) all of these

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm190 (d) hemp
91. Which of the following is largest consumer of rubber
produced ?
(a) Latex foam
96. Which of the following is the fibre crop?
(b) Auto industries (a) rice
(c) Plastic (b) jute
(d) Toys industries (c) ragi
(d) rubber
92. Rubber requires

(a) Moist and humid climate
97. Silk is obtained from the
(b) Temperature above 25°C (a) cocoons
(c) Rain fall of more than 200cm (b) eggs
(d) All of these (c) larva
(d) none of these
93. Rubber plants are mostly found in ___.

(a) Karnataka and Kerala
98. Which of the following is known as the process of
(b) Karnataka and Madhya pradesh rearing silkworm?
(c) Haryana and Maharashtra (a) agriculture
(d) Andhra pradesh and Kerala (b) sericulture
(c) pisciculture
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm193 (d) apiculture
94. Which crop is known as Golden fibre?
(a) Jute
(b) Cotton 99. Which of the following country is believed to be the
(c) Hemp original home of cotton plant ?
(d) Natural Silk (a) India
(b) Pakistan
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm194 (c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal
95. Which fibre crop is obtained from cocoons of the

silkworms fed on green leaves? *
(a) Jute
(b) Silk 100. How many months does cotton mature?
(c) Cotton (a) 6 to 8

(b) 12 to 14 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm204

(c) 2 to 3
(d) 9 to 12
105. What percentage of India’s population is dependent

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm200 on agriculture?
(a) less than 50 %
(b) more than 60 %
(c) less than 40 %
101. ____ crop requires high temperature, light rainfall
or irrigation and bright sunshine for its growth. (d) more than 85 %
(a) Cotton
(b) Apple Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm205
(c) Coconut
(d) Jute
106. Who made the first five-year plan in India?

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm201 (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mahatma gandhi
(c) Rajendra prasad
102. Jute grows well on well-drained ___soils in the (d) Sarvepalli radhakrishnan
flood plains where soils are renewed every year.
______temperature is required during the time Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm206
of growth.
(a) fertile, low
(b) fertile, high
(c) infertile, low 107. _____ was the main focus of our First Five Year
(d) infertile, high Plan
(a) Land reform
(b) Land degradation
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm202 (c) Land acquisition
(d) Land dispute
103. Which of the following is losing market to synthetic Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm207

fibres particularly nylon due to the high cost
involved?
(a) Acrylic
(b) Polyester 108. Package technology refers to____ introduced in
(c) Jute agriculture.
(d) Hemp (a) White Revolution
(b) Green Revolution
(c) Blue Revolution
(d) Revolution
104. Which of the following is used to make carpets and
gunny bags?
(a) Polyester
(b) Cotton 109. ____ is the program that led to “White Revolution.”
(c) Jute (a) Operation Flood.
(d) Silk (b) Operation blue star

(c) Operation red dawn (b) Programme Accident Insurance Scheme

(d) Operation white star (c) Personal Accident Insurance Scheme
(d) Personal Accident Income Scheme
110. What was initiated in 1980s and 1990s?

(a) A comprehensive land development programme 115. Kissan Credit Card (KCC), Personal Accident
(b) Operation Flood. Insurance Scheme (PAIS) are some schemes
(c) White Revolution introduced by the ____ for the benefit of the
(d) Green Revolution ____.
(a) The Government of Kerala, farmers
(b) Government of India, farmers
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm210 (c) The Government of Rajasthan, government
(d) The Government of MP, government
111. When was a comprehensive land development Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm215

Programme initiated?
(a) In the 1960s and 1970s
(b) In the 1980s and 1990s,
(c) In the 1970s and 1980s, 116. In India, Agriculture share in the Gross Domestic
(d) In the 1990s and 2000s Product (GDP) has registered a declining trend from
___onwards.
(a) 1947
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm211 (b) 1951
(c) 1965
(d) 1972
112. Who launched KCC in India?
(a) The Government of Kerala Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm216
(b) The Government of India
(c) The Government of MP
(d) The Government of Rajasthan
117. ___ industry in Manchester and Liverpool flourished
due to the availability of good quality product from
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm212 India.
(a) Jute
(b) Cotton
(c) Rubber
113. What is full form of KCC?
(d) Coffee
(a) Kisan Common Card
(b) Kisan Credit Card
(c) Krishak Credit Card Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm217
(d) Kisan commercial Card
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm213 118. The Champaran peasant movement was launched in

___.
(a) 1910-12.
(b) 1917-18.
114. What is full form of PAIS? (c) 1930-32.
(a) Personal Admission Insurance Scheme

(d) 1927-28. (d) Evergreen
119. Who was the Champaran movement against? 123. Which one of the following is helpful in inventing
(a) Wheat planters, new hybrid varieties of seeds?
(b) The indigo planters (a) Genetic Engineering
(c) Rice planters (b) Green revolution
(d) Above all (c) White revolution
(d) Scientific Research
120. Why were the farmer forced to grow indigo on their

land ? 124. Which agriculture is much in vogue today with
(a) it was necessary for the textile industries which reference to agriculture?
were located in Kolkata. (a) Green revolution
(b) it was necessary for the paper industries which (b) Use of pesticides
were located in Kolkata. (c) Organic farming
(c) it was necessary for the textile industries which (d) Chemical based farming
were located in Britain.
(d) it was necessary for the paper industries which
were located in Britain Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm224
125. Indian farmers should diversify their cropping
pattern from ____ to ___ crops
(a) cereals, low-value
121. Under Globalization, our agricultural products are (b) high-value, cereals
not able to compete with the developed countries (c) cereals, high-value
because of the ___.
(d) low-value, cereals
(a) highly subsidized agriculture in those countries.
(b) high quality products in these countries.
(c) high export duties Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm225
(d) lack of awareness
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm221 126. Which plant is used for bio diesel production?
(a) Jatropha
(b) Jojoba
(c) Palm
122. In today’s world _____ revolution in the key
(d) All of these
word for revolution in agriculture production. It is
based on genetic engineering. Genetic engineering
is recognised as a powerful supplement in inventing Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm226
new hybrids varieties of seed.
(a) Gene
(b) Green
(c) White

127. Jatropha and Jojoba are -----. 132. Single-cropping for commercial purpose in large
(a) Tree crops grooves areas of land is called ...........
(b) Commercial crops (a) Plantation farming
(c) All season fruits (b) Subsistence farming
(d) Bio-diesel crops (c) Horticulture
(d) Sedentary intensive farming
128. In Indian agriculture, the period from July to

October is called ........... 133. Which one of the following crop is grown in Zaid
(a) Rabi season season?
(b) Kharif season (a) Rice
(c) Slack season (b) Wheat
(d) Pre-kharif season (c) Millets
(d) Cucumber
129. The crops grown after the monsoon season are called
........... 134. Which one of the following is a ‘Rabi’ crop?
(a) Rabi (a) Cotton
(b) Seasonal (b) Maize
(c) Kharif (c) Arhar
(d) Annual (d) Mustard
130. Which of the following is not a Kharif crop? 135. Barley, grams, mustard and peas are examples of
(a) Sugarcane ...........
(b) Rice (a) Kharif crop
(c) Cotton (b) Rabi crop
(d) Wheat (c) Zaid crop
(d) Plantation crop
131. Which one of the following is not a plantation crop

in India? 136. Kharif crops are grown during the ...........
(a) Coconut (a) Rainy season
(b) Cotton (b) Summer
(c) Tea (c) Winter
(d) Rubber (d) None of these

137. Which of the following is a Rabi crop? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm241

(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Cotton
142. It’s a type of agriculture where farmers clear a patch
(d) Jowar and bajra
of land and produce food crops to sustain their family
(a) Regular farming
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm237 (b) Slash and burn farming
(c) Clear farming
(d) None of these
138. Which one of the following is not a cropping season?
(a) Winter Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm242
(b) Kharif
(c) Rabi
(d) Zaid
143. The food crop benefited by winter rain in North
India is.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm238 (a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Maze
(d) Soyabean
139. The Agriculture that is practiced on small patches
of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao
and digging sticks is ............ Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm243
(a) Shifting Agriculture
(c) Intensive Subsistence Farming
144. Soyabeans are rich in ............
(d) Commercial Farming
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Proteins
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm239 (c) Minerals
(d) Carbohydrates
140. When a farmer produces just enough to sustain his Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm244
family, it is called ...........
(a) Subsistence agriculture
(b) Commercial agriculture
(c) Pastral farming 145. For the production of wheat there should be .............
(a) Cool and wet climate its growing period but hot
(d) Truck farming
climate during the ripening period.
(b) Sufficient heat but very little rainfall.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm240 (c) Sufficient heat and heavy rainfall.
(d) Hot climate during the growing period but cool
climate during the ripening period.
141. Subsistence farming is practised to meet the needs of
.......... family. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm245
(a) Contractor’s
(b) Jagirdar’s
(c) Owner’s
146. The main foodgrain of India is ...........
(d) Farmers
(a) Rice

(b) Wheat 151. Which cereal occupies the largest cropped area?
(c) Sugarcane (a) Wheat
(d) Maize (b) Maize
(c) Jowar
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm246 (d) Rice
147. The largest irrigation area in India is occupied by-
(a) Cotton
(b) Rice 152. Some one travels from Kolkata to Delhi through the
(c) Wheat Gangetic plain, he would notice that the cultivation
(d) Sugarcane of wheat ...........
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm247 (c) First decreases and then increases
(d) First increases and then decreases
148. Which of the following is a tropical monsoon crop? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm252

(a) Jowar
(b) Chillies
(c) Rice
(d) Ragi
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm248 Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/
149. Which agricultural commodity of India gives largest
export value? Purchase Hard Book
(a) Tea
(b) Basmati rice
(c) Spices 153. Which of the following is the main Rabi crop of
(d) Cotton Punjab?
(a) Rice
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm249 (b) Maize
(c) Wheat
(d) Groundnut
150. IR 20 and Ratna are two important varieties of

........... Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm253
(a) Paddy
(b) Jowar
(c) Bajra 154. Wheat is the important crop in ...........
(d) Wheat (a) Pampas of South America.
(b) Velds of Africa.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm250 (c) Downs of Australia.
(d) Prairies of North America.

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm254 (c) Millets

(d) Cereals
155. Which is the main crop in the north and the north Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm259
western parts of the country?
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
160. Which one of the following is a leguminous crop?
(c) Maize (a) Pulses
(d) Bajra (b) Millets
(c) Jowar
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm255 (d) Sesamum
156. Which of the following states is the largest producer
of wheat in India?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
161. In respect of which one of the following crops, The
(b) Assam
Green Revolution in India had limited impact?
(c) Haryana (a) Maize
(d) Uttar Pradesh (b) Wheat
(c) Rice
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm256 (d) Pulses
157. The crop that grows in drought ...........
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
162. Masur, urad and tur are varieties of ...........
(c) Jute (a) Rice
(d) Millets (b) Coffee
(c) Pulses
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm257 (d) Wheat
158. The country which stands first in wheat production
is ...........
(a) India
163. Which of the following is a major pulse producing
(b) U.S.A.
state?
(c) Russia (a) Kerala
(d) China (b) Goa
(c) Madhya Pradesh
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm258 (d) Punjab
159. Jowar, bajra and ragi are included in which category?
(a) Pulses
(b) Wheat
164. Which of the following term is used for inferior

grains? 169. A hot and wet climate is favourable for growing

(a) Pulses which of the following crops?
(b) Millets (a) Rice
(c) Cereals (b) Wheat
(d) Fodder (c) Jowar
(d) Ragi
165. In the agricultural resources, cereals comprise of

........... 170. In rice production, India stands at .......... position
(a) rubber, oil seeds, groundnut in the world.
(b) cotton, jute, hemp (a) Second
(c) tea, coffee, cocoa (b) Seventh
(d) rice, wheat, millets (c) Eleventh
(d) Eighteenth
166. The Govt. of India has decided to increase the export

of cashew nuts. Which of the following is not a major 171. If it rains only for two months which of the following
cashew nut growing State? will yield maximum crop per hectare?
(a) Goa (a) Short term crops
(b) Maharashtra (b) Long term crops
(c) Kerals (c) Pulses
(d) Uttar Pradesh (d) Millets
167. Choose the odd one out. 172. Which one of the following is a leguminous crop?
(a) Rice (a) Millets
(b) Moong (b) Jowar
(c) Soybean (c) Pulses
(d) Urad (d) Seasamum
168. ..........% of the pulses grown in Madhya Prades. 173. Which type of crop is able to fix nitrogen from air?
(a) 45 (a) Legume
(b) 55 (b) Rice
(c) 40 (c) Tuber
(d) 23 (d) Potato

174. The important crop that helps to restore soil fertility (d) Bangladesh
by nitrogen fixation and is also a good source of
protein is ...........
(a) Cereals Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm278
(b) Pulses
(c) Vegetables
(d) Fruits 179. Which of the following states does not produce any
significant quantity of rice?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
175. Rice cultivation requires ...........
(a) High temperature, high humidity and annual
rainfall above 100 cm. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm279
(b) Low temperature, low humidity and less rainfall.
(c) Moderate temperature, high humidity and
annual rainfall more than 200 cm. 180. Which of the following is the staple food crop of the
(d) High temperature, zero humidity and no rainfall majority of Indian people?
(a) Maize
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm275 (b) Jowar
(c) Rice
(d) Wheat
176. Which is not food crop from the following?

(a) Rice Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm280
(b) Tea
(c) Maize
(d) Barley 181. .......... is the country which produces and exports the
largest quantity of pulses in the world.
(a) Pakistan
(b) India
(c) USA
(d) China
177. Which one of the following crops is rich in iron and
calcium?
(a) Barley Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm281
(b) Rice
(c) Ragi
(d) Wheat 182. Which one of the following sets of conditions is
necessary for a good cultivation of wheat?
(a) Moderate temperature and moderate rainfall
(b) High temperature and heavy rainfall
(c) High temperature and moderate rainfall
(d) Low temperature and low rainfall
178. Which one of the following countries is the largest
producer of rice in the world?
(a) China Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm282
(b) Japan
(c) Philippines

183. Which state leads in the production of pulses? 188. Which among the following is a cash crop?
(a) Orissa (a) Jowar
(b) Madhya Pradesh (b) Bajra
(c) Maharashtra (c) Ragi
(d) Uttar Pradesh (d) Oil seeds
184. _______ is the largest producer of coffee in India. 189. Sugarcane crop grows well in the areas with a rainfall
(a) Karnataka of ...........
(b) Tamilnadu (a) 100-150 cm
(c) Kerala (b) 75-100 cm
(d) Telangna (c) 150-200 cm
(d) 200 cm and above
185. The State which is the largest producer of tea in

India is ........... 190. Which one of the following is the leading producer
(a) Assam of oilseeds?
(b) West Bengal (a) Gujarat
(c) Tamil Nadu (b) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Kerala (c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan
186. Tea is grown mainly ...........

(a) In marshy lands 191. What kind of soil is required for sugarcane crop
(b) On fertile plain lands production?
(c) On slopes of hills (a) Sandy soil
(d) On river banks (b) Laterite and rocky soil
(c) Deep, well-drained fertile soil
(d) Barren land
187. For the cultivation of sugarcane .......... soil is suitable.
(a) Black
(b) Red 192. The edible oil commonly used in India for preparation
(c) Laterite of toilet soap is ...........
(a) Linseed oil
(d) Sandy, loamy and red soil
(b) Mustard oil
(c) Soyabean oil
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm287 (d) Coconut oil

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm292 (b) Hot and wet

(c) Cold and dry
(d) Cold and wet
193. Sugarcane requires a .......... climate with an average

temperature of 24 degree Celsius ............ Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm297
(a) Wet; in summer
(b) Dry; in summer
(c) Hot and humid; throughout the year
198. Which state is the Second largest producer of Tea
(d) None of these after Assam?
(a) Karnataka
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm293 (b) West Bengal
(c) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh
194. The largest producer of oilseeds in the world is

........... Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm298
(a) China
(b) USA
(c) India
199. Which one of the following regions are famous for
(d) Russia coffee and tea plantations?
(a) Shimla
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm294 (b) Mount abu
(c) Coorg
(d) Srinagar
195. The soil which is suitable for the cultivation of

plantation crops such as coffee and tea is ........... Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm299
(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Laterite soil
200. Which one of the following cities is known for the
(d) Red soil coffee and tea plantations?
(a) Shimla
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm295 (b) Mount abu
(c) Ooty
(d) Srinagar
196. Sugarcane crop grows well in the areas with a rainfall

of ........... Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm300
(a) 100-150 cm
(b) 75-100 cm
(c) 150-200 cm
201. Severe .......... damages the tea crop.
(d) 200 cm and above (a) Rain
(b) Cold
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm296 (c) Frosts
(d) Fog
197. What type of climate is required for sugarcane ? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm301

(a) Dry and hot

202. Which of the following soils is suitable for cultivation (c) Thailand
of tea? (d) Brazil
(a) Red soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Laterite soil
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm302 207. The largest producer of tea in the world is

(a) USA
(b) Brazil
(c) China
203. Tea is abundantly grown in ........... (d) England
(a) Maharashtra and Gujarat
(b) Orissa and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Assam and West Bengal
(d) Assam and Uttar Pradesh
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm303 208. Rubber is produced in ...........

(a) Intensive subsistence farming
(b) Plantation farming
(c) Mixed farming
204. Where is India’s most prized tea grown? (d) Sedentary agriculture
(a) Nilgiris
(b) Munnar
(c) Jorhat
(d) Darjeeling
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm304 Don’t take printout of this file because solution

205. Consider the following statements and select the
correct answer using the code given below: To Purchase hard book click below or
1. West Bengal is the leading producer of tea in whatsapp at 8905629969.
India. Purchase Hard Book
2. A tea plantation needs more than 200 cm of
rainfall.
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct 209. Rubber plants are mostly found in ...........
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct (a) Karnataka and Kerala
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct (b) Kerala and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Karnataka and Madhya Pradesh
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm305 (d) Haryana and Maharashtra
206. Which country is the largest producer of rubber in
the world?
(a) Malaysia 210. Which one of the following has the highest production
(b) Sri Lanka

of coffee? 215. Jute fibre is obtained from which part of the Jute
(a) Andhra Pradesh ...........
(b) Karnataka (a) Root
(c) Kerala (b) Stem
(d) Tamil Nadu (c) Leaf
(d) Fruit
211. Which one of the following oilseed in India is grown

in both Rabi and Kharif seasons? 216. Which type of soil is ideal for the cultivation of jute?
(a) Groundnut (a) Black soil
(b) Coconut (b) Red soil
(c) Castor seed (c) Alluvial soil
(d) Mustard (d) Laterite soil
212. Cotton is a ........... crop. 217. Jute requires ...........

(a) Food (a) Moist climate
(b) Cash (b) Much rain
(c) Plantation (c) Hot climate
(d) Dry (d) None of these
213. For growing cotton .......... soil is ideal. 218. Which crop is known as the golden fibre?
(a) Black (a) Cotton
(b) Red (b) Flax
(c) Laterite (c) Jute
(d) Sandy (d) Esparto
214. Which one of the following soils is most suitable for 219. Which among the following is the largest cotton
the cultivation of cotton in India? producing country ?
(a) Red soil (a) Russia
(b) Laterite soil (b) U.S.A.
(c) Alluvial soil (c) India
(d) Regur soil (d) Egypt

220. Which one of the following areas of India produces Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm324
largest amount of cotton?
(a) North western India and Gangetic West Bengal
(b) North western and western India
(c) Western and southern India 225. Cotton grows well in areas having temperature
between .......... and rainfall of ...........
(d) Plains of northern India
(a) 10-15° C - 20-40 cm
(b) 15-20° C - 30-60 cm
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm320 (c) 20-25° C - 40-80 cm
(d) 20-30° C - 50-100 cm
221. The highest yield of cotton per hectare is in the state Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm325
of ...........
(a) Gujarat
(b) Haryana
(c) Punjab 226. Match the following:
(d) Tamil Nadu List-I (Crops) List-II (Geographical conditions)
A. Barley 1. Hot and dry climate with
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm321 poor soil
B. Rice 2. Cool climate with poorer soil
C. Millets 3. Warm and moist climate with
222. The largest producer of oilseeds in the world is high altitude
........... D. Tea 4. Hot and moist climate with
(a) China rich soil
(b) USA
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(c) India
(b) A-3, B-4, C-1,D-2
(d) Russia
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(d) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
223. The state in which maximum cotton cloth is produced

in India is ...........
(a) Maharashtra 227. Which of the following conditions is/are essential for
tea cultivation?
(b) Gujarat
A. tropical and sub-tropical climates
(c) Tamil Nadu B. deep and fertile well-drained soi
(d) West Bangal C. cool and frost climate all through the year
(a) A, B and C
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm323 (b) A and B only
(c) B and C only
(d) A only
224. Sugarcane crop grows well in the areas with a rainfall

of ........... Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm327
(a) 100-150 cm
(b) 75-100 cm
(c) 150-200 cm 228. Which of the following are the varieties of oil seeds?
(d) 200 cm and above 1. Groundnut

2. Coconut Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion

3. Cotton seed (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
4. Sunflower seed Reason is not the correct explanation for
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 Assertion
(b) 1, 2, 3 only (c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(c) 2, 3, 4 only (d) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect
(d) 1, 2, 4 only
232. Assertion : India’s primary activity is Agriculture.

229. Assertion: Pulses except Tur dal are grown in rotation Reason : Two-thirds of its population is engaged in
with other crops. agricultural activities.
Reason: They are leguminous and help in restoring (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
the fertility of soil by fixing nitrogen from air in the Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
roots. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation for
Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion Assertion
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and (c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
Reason is not the correct explanation for (d) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect
Assertion
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm332
233. Assertion : Agriculture is not an old economic
activity.
Reason : Farming varies from subsistence to
230. Assertion : The promise of Green Revolution to commercial type.
produce large amounts has brought it under major (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
controversies Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
Reason : It has caused land degradation due to (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
overuse of chemicals, drying aquifers and vanishing Reason is not the correct explanation for
biodiversity. Assertion
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and (c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm333
234. Assertion : Plantation has an interface of agriculture
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm330 and industry.
Reason : Plantation is a type of commercial farming,
a single crop is grown on a large area.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
231. Assertion: Mostly women are employed to harvest Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
tea leaves (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason: Women are better pickers and can be Reason is not the correct explanation for
employed at relatively cheaper rates. Assertion

(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm337

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm334 238. Assertion : Pulses are not considered as a major

source of protein in a vegetarian diet.
Reason: Rice is a rabi crop and requires lot of rain
to grow.
235. Assertion: Biochemical inputs and irrigation are used (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
for obtaining higher production. Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
Reason: Doses of biochemical input are used to grow
crops rapidly.
Assertion
Assertion
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm335 239. Assertion : Tea cultivation, is a labour - intensive

industry.
Reason: Cultivation can be done throughout the
year .Tea bushes require warm and moist frost- free
236. Assertion: Crops are grown depending upon the climate.
variations in soil, climate and cultivation practices. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason : Crops are also grown according to Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
availability of water.
Assertion
Assertion (d) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm339
240. Assertion : Organic farming is much in vogue.
Reason : In organic forming, crops are grown using
high doses to increase production.
237. Assertion : apple food crop in India is rice and (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
requires less rain. Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
Reason: Our country is the fourth largest producer
of rice in the world.
Assertion
Assertion

241. Identify the crop being harvested in the given picture- 243. Look at the picture below and choose one of the
major problem associated with the practice shown
in the picture-
(a) Cauliflower
(a) Contamination of soil, water and other
(b) Spinach vegetation.
(c) Tea (b) Pesticides are harmful for insects.
(d) Cotton (c) Affect the crop yield.
(d) This method is less effective.
242. Look at the picture below and identify the type of

cultivation-
244. Study the following image and select the correct
option.
The crop shown in figure is

(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Cotton
(a) Commercial farming (d) Jowar and bajra
(b) Jhumming
(c) Intersire Farming
(d) Terrace cultivator
245. Study the following image and read following

statement. (d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
247. Slash and Burn Agriculture is known by specific

name in different states of India.
1. It is a Kharif crop and requires hot and humid

climate for cultivation.
2. Major regions of rice production are the Ganga-
Brahmaputra and Coastal areas and deltaic
regions with alluvial soil.
3. Temperature above 25C, and high humidity with
annual rainfall above 100 cm are favourable for
cultivation of this crop. Match the shaded states marked in the given map
which of the above statements are correct with codes given in the Table (Different names of
(a) 1 and 2 Slash and Burn Agriculture) and select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(b) 1 and 3 (a) A-III, B-IV; C-II; D-I
(c) 2 and 3 (b) A-III, B-II; C-IV; D-I
(d) All 1, 2 and 3 (c) A-I, B-IV; C-II; D-III
(d) A-I, B-II; C-IV; D-III
246. Match the given crops with their major producing

areas shown on the map of India.
A. Wheat 248. Identify the crop-
B. Coffee • It is a Kharif crop which requires temperature
C. Rice between 21°C to 27°C
D. Tea • It grows well in alluvial soil.
• In some states it is grown as Rabi crop.
(a) Millets
(b) Wheat
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Maize
249. Identify the crop-

• Second most important cereal crop of India.
• Is main food crop in north and north-western
(a) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II part of country.
(b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV • is a rabi crop.
(c) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV • Requires 50-70 cm of annual rainfall evenly

distributed over the growing season. (c) 3, 4, 2, 1

(a) Wheat (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
(b) Maize
(c) Jowar
(d) Bajra
253. Arrange the following state (from higher to lower) as
rice production states-
1. Assam
250. Identify the agro based industry- 2. Bihar
• Also called as silk farming. 4. Uttar Pradesh
• It is the process of making silk fibres. 5. West Bengal
• It includes the raising of silk worms and then (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
processing of fibres they produce. (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
• Silkworms are feeded upon mulberry leaves. (c) 2, 1, 3, 4
(a) Agriculture (d) 3, 2, 4, 1
(b) Sericulture
(c) Apiculture
(d) Lac culture
254. Arrange the following steps of ‘Jhumming cultivation”
in correct sequence.
1. Burning the felled trees.
251. Identify the movement- 2. clear a patch of land.
• Also called as blood less revolution. 3. Fallowing.
• Was a voluntary land reform movement. 4. Planting and harvesting.
• Initiated by Vinoba Bhave. (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
• This movements attempted to persuade wealthy (b) 3, 2, 1, 4
land owners to voluntarily give a percentage of (c) 2, 1, 3, 4
their land to landless people. (d) 2, 1, 4, 3
(a) Salt Satyagraha
(b) Dandi March
(c) Bhoodan Movement
(d) Champaran Movement
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm351 255. Look at the table below carefully and answer the
question-
Sector in (%) 2013-14 2014-15 2015-16
Agriculture 4.2 - 0.2 1.1
252. Arrange the following steps of sericulture in the
correct sequence- Industry 5.0 5.9 7.3
1. The extraction of silk filaments from the silkworm Services 7.8 10.3 9.2
cocoons.
2. Silk filaments are woven together to form a GDP 6.6 7.2 7.6
thread. Though the GDP growth rate is increasing over the
3. The cultivation of mulberry leaves. years still the growth rate in agriculture has been
4. Rearing of silkworm on mulberry leaves. decelerating. which of the following is the most
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 significant reason of the situation-
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1 (a) Increase in import duties on agricultural
products.

(b) Reduction in the public investment in agriculture Source Based Questions 1 : Read the source given
sector. below and answer 8 questions that follow by choosing the
(c) Increase in subsidy on fertilisers. most appropriate option:
(d) Alternative employment opportunities are Sustained uses of land without compatible techno-
decreasing. institutional changes have hindered the pace of
agricultural development. Inspite of development
of sources of irrigation most of the farmers in large
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm355 parts of the country still depend upon monsoon and
natural fertility in order to carry on their agriculture.
For a growing population, this poses a serious
challenge. Agriculture which provides livelihood for
256. Complete the following table with the correct more than 60 per cent of its population, needs some
information- serious technical and institutional reforms. Thus,
collectivisation, consolidation of holdings, cooperation
Movement Started in Started in Started
and abolition of zamindari, etc. were given priority to
year state because
bring about institutional reforms in the country after
Champaran 1917 A-? B-? Independence. ‘Land reform’ was the main focus of
Movement our First Five Year Plan. The right of inheritance
(a) A-Punjab, B-Farmers of that region were forced had already lead to fragmentation of land holdings
to grow cotton on their land. necessitating consolidation of holdings. The laws of
land reforms were enacted but the implementation
(b) A-Bihar, B-Farmers of that region were forced to
was lacking or lukewarm. The Government of India
grow indigo on their land.
embarked upon introducing agricultural reforms to
(c) A-Punjab, B-Farmers of that region were forced improve Indian agriculture in the 1960s and 1970s.
to grow tea on their land. The Green Revolution based on the use of package
(d) A-Bihar, B-Farmers of that region were forced to technology and the White Revolution (Operation
grow nothing on their land. Flood) were some of the strategies initiated to improve
the lot of Indian agriculture. But, this too led to the
concentration of development in few selected areas.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm356 Therefore, in the 1980s and 1990s, a comprehensive
land development programme was initiated, which
included both institutional and technical reforms.
Provision for crop insurance against drought, flood,
257. Complete the following table with correct information-
cyclone, fire and disease, establishment of Grameen
Cropping Sowing Harvesting Crops grown banks, cooperative societies and banks for providing
seasons period period loan facilities to the farmers at lower rates of interest
Kharif Onset of September- B - ? were some important steps in this direction.
monsoon October
Rabi A-? April-June Wheat, 258. In order to tackle the various problems faced by the
barley, gram Indian agriculture especially the pressure of growing
population, various ______ and _____ reforms
(a) A -the summer months B -Paddy, maize, bajra, have been initiated.
arhar (a) political, institutional
(b) A -October- December, onset of winter. B (b) technological, institutional
-watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber (c) administrative, judicial
(c) A -October- December, onset of winter. B (d) executive, organisational
-Paddy, maize, bajra, arhar
(d) A -the summer months. B -watermelon,
muskmelon, cucumber
Which of the following is associated with Operation

flood? (d) Consolidation of land holdings.

(a) Green revolution
(b) White Revolution
(c) Gene Revolution
(d) Blood less revolution
Which of the following isn’t included in the

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm358 comprehensive land development programme of the
1980s and 1990s ?
(a) kisan credit card
What was the main objective of the Green Revolution? (b) personal accident insurance scheme
(a) Improvement in the conditions of the farmers (c) Minimum Support Price
(b) increase in irrigated area. (d) Fragmentation of land holdings.
(c) increase in the agricultural production
(d) mechanisation of farming. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm358
Land reform included
1. Abolition of Zamindari
2. Fragmentation of land holdings
Which of the following measures is not introduced by
3 Irrigation
the government to improve agriculture.
(a) abolition of zamindari system 4. Land ceiling
(b) consolidation of land holdings Which of the able statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(c) crop insurance
(b) 2 and 3
(d) maximum support price.
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Institutional reforms are-

(a) Changes brought by State governments to
improve agriculture. Source Based Questions 2 : Read the source given
(b) Changes brought by Central government to below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the
improve agriculture. most appropriate option:
(c) Changes brought by both Central and State Globalisation is not a new phenomenon. It was
government from time to time to improve there at the time of colonisation. In the nineteenth
agriculture. century when European traders came to India,
(d) Green Revolution. at that time too, Indian spices were exported
to different countries of the world and farmers of
south India were encouraged to grow these crops.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm358 Till today it is one of the important items of export
from India. During the British period cotton belts
of India attracted the British and ultimately cotton
was exported to Britain as a raw material for their
Grouping of small land holdings into a bigger one is textile industries. Under globalisation, particularly
called- after 1990, the farmers in India have been exposed to
(a) The ceiling on land holdings. new challenges. Despite being an important producer
(b) Collectivisation. of rice, cotton, rubber, tea, coffee, jute and spices
(c) Co-operation farming. our agricultural products are not able to compete
with the developed countries because of the highly

subsidised agriculture in those countries. Today, includes genetic engineering. Which of the following
Indian agriculture finds itself at the crossroads. To is recognized as genetic engineering?
make agriculture successful and profitable, proper (a) powerful supplement in inventing insecticides
thrust should be given to the improvement of the and pesticides
condition of marginal and small farmers. The green (b) powerful supplement in inventing biological
revolution promised much. But today it’s under inputs and fertilisers
controversies. It is being alleged that it has caused (c) powerful supplement in inventing new hybrid
land degradation due to overuse of chemicals, drying varieties of seeds
aquifers and vanishing biodiversity. The keyword
(d) powerful supplement in inventing organic and
today is “gene revolution”, which includes genetic
inorganic farming
engineering. In fact organic farming is much in vogue
today because it is practised without factory made
chemicals such as fertilisers and pesticides. Hence, it Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm359
does not affect environment in a negative manner.
259. The given extract throws light on _____.

(a) Globalisation and the colonisation in agriculture. In the nineteenth century when European traders
came to India, _____were exported to different
(b) Impact of globalisation on agriculture.
countries of the world.
(c) New Economic policy pertaining to agriculture. (a) Indian clothes
(d) none of these. (b) Indian spices
(c) Indian diamonds
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm359 (d) All of the above
Which of the following has been a direct disadvantage
of globalisation to the farmer?
(a) increase in global competition with the developed
countries. Cotton textile industry in Manchester and Liverpool
flourished
(b) degradation of land due to the overuse of
(a) due to the availability of good quality cotton
chemicals.
from Manchester.
(c) Increased expenditure on buying HYV seeds.
(b) due to the availability of good quality cotton
(d) all the above. from India
(c) due to the availability of good quality cotton
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm359 from Japan
(d) due to the availability of good quality cotton
from Liverpool
The method of farming done without using any type

of chemical fertiliser, urea, insecticides is known as Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm359
_______
(a) mixed farming
(b) organic farming
(c) sustainable farming below and answer 10 questions that follow by choosing
(d) inorganic farming the most appropriate option:
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm359 December and harvested in summer from April to
June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat,
barley, peas, gram and mustard. Though, these
crops are grown in large parts of India, states from
The key word today is “gene revolution” which the north and Northwestern parts such as Punjab,

Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, In between the two major seasons Indian farmers
Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh are important take a break during the summer season and grow
for the production of wheat and other rabi crops. _______ crops.
Availability of precipitation during winter months (a) Kharif
due to the western temperate cyclones helps in (b) Rabi
the success of these crops. However, the success of (c) zaid
the green revolution in Punjab, Haryana, western
Uttar Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan has also
been an important factor in the growth of the
above mentioned rabi crops. Kharif crops are grown Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm360
with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the
country and these are harvested in September-
October. Important crops grown during this season
are paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, Select the correct match-
urad, cotton, Jute, groundnut and soyabean. Some of
Column I Column II
the most important rice growing regions are Assam,
Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamilnadu, Kerala X. Peas and 1. Harvested September-
and Maharashtra, particularly the (Konkan coast) Mustard October
along with Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. Recently paddy Y. Arhar and 2. Harvested in April-June
has also become an important crop of Punjab and Bajra
Haryana. In states like Assam, West Bengal and
Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year. 3. Harvested July - October
These are Aus, Aman and Boro.In between the rabi (a) X-3, Y-1
and the Kharif seasons there is a short season during
(b) X-1, Y-3
the summer months known as the Zaid season.
Some of the crops produced during ‘Zaid’ are the (c) X-2, Y-1
watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and (d) X-3, Y-2
fodder crops. Sugarcane takes almost a year to grow.
260. Read the combinations showing the cropping
season(sown) and select the correct option:
X: June – July
Y: October- December Rabi crops are harvested in _______.
(a) Spring
Z: Around March
(b) Summer
(a) X-Rabi, Y-Kharif, Z-Zaid
(c) Winter
(b) X-Zaid, Y- Rabi, Z-Kharif
(d) Autumn
(c) Kharif, Y-Zaid, Z-Rabi
(d) X-Kharif, Y-Rabi, Z-Zaid
Which of the following is not a rabi crop?

(a) Wheat
The three major cropping seasons of India are
(b) Peas
(a) Aus, Aman, Boro
(c) Sugarcane
(b) Rabi, Kharif. Zaid
(d) Mustard
(c) Bhadva, Shravan, Vasant
(d) Summer. Winter, Monsoon
Availability of _____ during winter months due to

western temperate cyclones help in the success of the The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-
Green Revolution. tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well
(a) Sunshine -drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter.
(b) Precipitation Tea bushes require warm and moist frost -free
(c) Cold climate climate all through the year. Frequent showers
evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous
(d) Hot climate
growth of tender leaves. Tea is a labour-intensive
industry. It requires abundant, cheap and skilled
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm360 labour. Tea is processed within the tea garden; to
restore its freshness. Major tea producing states are
Assam, hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts.
West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Apart from
Crops grown during Rabi season are ______ and these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya,
_______. Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are also tea – producing
(a) Tea and Coffee states in the country. In 2017 India was the second
(b) Cotton and Jute largest producer of tea after China. Indian coffee is
known in the world for its good quality. The Arabica
(c) Wheat and Peas
variety initially brought from Yemen is produced in
(d) Aus and Aman the country. This variety is in great demand all over
the world. Initially its cultivation was introduced on
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/cm360 the Baba Budan Hills and even today its cultivation
is confined to the Nilgiris in Karnataka, Kerala and
Tamil Nadu.
Kharif crops are harvested in: 261. What is common between Tea and Coffee?
(a) September and October (a) They are Beverages
(b) June and July (b) They are plantation crops
(c) April and June (c) They grow in Hilly regions
(d) December and January (d) All of the above
Crops which are grown in states like Assam, Bengal Which of the following conditions can spoil tea crops?
and Odisha in a year. – (a) Frequent rains widespread throughout the year
(a) Rice, Wheat and Maize (b) Clayey soil which has a high-water holding
(b) Bajra, Rice and Wheat capacity
(c) Aus, Aman and Boro (c) Deep fertile well -drained soil
(d) Pulses, Cotton and Jute (d) Warm, moist and frost-free climate
Source Based Questions 4 : Read the source given India competes with ____ for its ____ of tea.
below and answer 5 questions that follow by choosing the (a) China, consumption
most appropriate option: (b) Yemen, production
Tea cultivation is an example of plantation (c) China, Production
agriculture. It is also an important beverage crop (d) Yemen, consumption
introduced in India initially by the British. Today,
most of the tea plantations are owned by Indians.

******
Taking a hint from the given picture: identify what

are these women doing? is not given. You can purchase hard book from
Purchase Hard Book
(a) Sowing the tea and coffee seeds

(b) Plucking coffee beans
(c) Pruning tea bushes
(d) Plucking tea leaves.
What are the climatic conditions required for the

growth of tea?
1. Tropical and sub-tropical climate
2. Heavy rainfall ranging from 150 cm to 250 cm
3. Soil should contain good amount of lime
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Tea falls in which type of Industry?

(a) Labour - intensive industry
(b) Capital - intensive industry
(c) Both (A) and (B )

Page 154 Power Sharing Chap 1

CHAPTER 1
Power Sharing
1. What is the population of Belgium ? 5. ____community is relatively rich and powerful in

(a) over one crore Belgium?
(b) under one crore (a) French speaking
(c) Two crore (b) Sinhala-speakers
(d) over two crore (c) Dutch-speaking
(d) Tamil speakers
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm101
2. What percent of population lived in Flemish region

and speak Dutch in Belgium? 6. Sri Lanka is an island nation, just a few kilometres
(a) 29 from the Southern coast of ____
(b) 40 (a) Goa
(c) 79 (b) Kerala
(d) 59 (c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Lakshadweep
3. What percent of Brussels speaks Dutch in Belgium?

(a) 20 7. When power is shared among legislative executive
(b) 40 and judiciary in democracy it is known as?
(c) 60 (a) horizontal distribution of power
(d) 80 (b) vertical distribution of power
(c) federalism
(d) Competitive Federalism
4. __ People of ___ region of Belgium spoke French?
(a) 40 %, Wallonia
(b) 70%, Flemish 8. Belgium is a small country in Europe, smaller in area
(c) 65%, Sinhala than the state of Haryana. it has borders with ___,
___, ___ and ___.
(d) 15%, Tamil
(a) Netherlands, Germany
(b) France, Luxembourg
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm104 (c) Germany, France
(d) Luxembourg, France, Germany, Netherlands

Chap 1 Power Sharing Page 155
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm108 12. The major social groups of Sri Lanka are ______.
(a) Sinhalse and Dutch
(b) Dutch and SriLankan Tamils
(c) French and Dutch
9. Belgium is a ___ country in Europe, ___ in area
(d) Sinhalse and Sri Lankan Tamils
than the state of Haryana. It has border with France,
Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.
(a) small, bigger Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm112
(b) small, Smaller
(c) big, bigger
(d) big, smaller
13. The population of Sri Lanka is divided into
___________.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm109 (a) Sinhala 55 % and Tamil 45%.
(b) Sinhala 68 % and Tamil 25%.
(c) Sinhala 74 % and Tamil 18%.
(d) Sinhala 80 % and Tamil 15%.
10. Which is not correct reason to led the tension between
Dutch speaking people in Belgium in 1950-1960’s ?
(a) The primary cause which led to the tension Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm113
between the Dutch-speaking people and French-
speaking people was the economic inequality.
(b) Dutch-speaking people were in majority and the
French-speaking people were in minority. 14. Which one of the following communities is not related
(c) The French-speaking people were poor and not to Sri Lanka?
powerful while the Dutch-speaking people were (a) Dutch
rich and more powerful. (b) Sri Lankan Tamils
(d) the disparity was a result of the minority (c) Sinhalese
population of Dutch-speaking people in the (d) Indian Tamils
capital and majority in the country.
Don’t take printout of this file because solution 15. In Srilanka Most of the Sinhala speaking people
is not given. You can purchase hard book from are ____, while most of the Tamils are ____
Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/ or____.
(a) Buddhists, Hindus, Muslims
(b) Hindus, Buddhists, Muslims
To Purchase hard book click below or (c) Muslims, Buddhists, Hindus
whatsapp at 8905629969. (d) Hindus, Muslims, Buddhists
Purchase Hard Book
11. What is the population of Sri Lanka in 2020?

(a) over one crore
16. Buddhism is the official religion of____.
(b) under one crore
(a) Sri Lanka
(c) Two crore
(b) Pakistan
(d) over two crore
(c) Indonesia
(d) England

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm116 (b) Majoritarianism measures

(c) Political measures
(d) D) None of the above
17. In Srilanka there are about ___percent

Christians,who are both tamil and sinhala. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm121
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 7
(d) 12
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm117 Don’t take printout of this file because solution

18. The religion which is practiced by 7 percent of Sri
lankan population is____. To Purchase hard book click below or
(a) Hinduism whatsapp at 8905629969.
(b) Buddhism Purchase Hard Book
(c) Christianity
(d) Islam
22. Sri Lankan government followed preferential policies

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm118 for Sinhalas in____
(a) Government jobs
(b) University positions
(c) Both (a) and (b)
19. When Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country?
(a) 1940 (d) None of the above
(b) 1956
(c) 1948 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm122
(d) 1984
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm119 23. The state that protects and fosters Buddhism is
____.
(a) Nigeria
(b) Finland
20. Act of ____, recognised Sinhala as the official
(c) Sri Lanka
language by disregarding Tamil.
(a) 1940 (d) Belgium
(b) 1956
(c) 1948 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm123
(d) 1984
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm120 24. The major objective of LTTE in Sri Lanka was to
____.
(a) Establish autonomy for Buddhist people
(b) Attain independence for Christians
21. What kind of measures were adopted in Sri Lanka
(c) End Sinhala rule
after independence to establish Sinhala supremacy
(Delhi 2009) in the government? (d) Demand separate homeland for Tamils
(a) Economic measures

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm124 of Dutch and French speaking ministers shall

be____ in the central government.
(a) Unequal
(b) Equal
25. The major cause of the civil war in Sri Lanka was (c) According to the population
the distrust between the two communities namely
(d) According to the will of the prime minister
_______.
(a) Sri Lankan Tamils and the Indian Tamils
(b) Hindus and Muslims Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm129
(c) Sinhalas and Moors
(d) Sinhalas and the Tamils.
30. Which was not the provision of Belgium Constitution?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm125 (a) Constitution prescribes that the number of
Dutch and French speaking ministers shall be
equal in the central govt.
(b) Some special laws require the support of majority
26. Which term is correct for the distrust between two of members from each linguistic group.
communities turned into widespread conflict? (c) Brussels have a separate govt. in which both
(a) civil war communities have equal representation.
(b) Religious war. (d) The community govt. has no power regarding
(c) absolute war culture, education and language.
(d) World War
31. The capital of Belgium is ___.

27. When did civil war in Sri Lanka end? (a) Walloon
(a) 1983 (b) Brussels
(b) 2000 (c) Paris
(c) 2009 (d) Melbourne
(d) 1991
32. Who does not elect the Community Government in

28. Between 1970 and 1993, how many times the Belgium?
Belgian’s amended their constitution so as to work (a) Dutch speaking people
out an arrangement that would enable everyone to (b) French speaking people
live together within the same country? (c) German speaking people
(a) Two times
(d) Sinhala leaders
(b) Three times
(c) Four times
(d) Five times
33. Which of the following country has the headquarters
of the European Union?
(a) USA
29. Constitution of Belgium prescribes that the number

(b) France 38. Belgium Shares borders with France, the Netherlands,
(c) Belgium Germany and ____?
(d) Australia (a) Norway
(b) England
(c) Luxembourg
(d) Italy
34. Which of the following was not similar between Sri
Lanka and Belgium?
(a) Both nations have small geographical area
(b) Both nations have small populations 39. In the capital city Brussels, 80 percent people
(c) Both nations faced ethnic problems. speak___?
(d) Both formed a community government (a) French
(b) Dutch
(c) German
(d) English
35. Imposing the will of majority community over others
may look like an attractive option in the short run,
but in the long run it undermines the ____.
(a) Economic interests of the nation 40. 20 % of the people of Brussels Speak___?
(b) political interests of the nation (a) Dutch
(c) economic interests of the minority. (b) English
(d) unity of the nation (c) German
(d) Italian
36. A legitimate government is one where_____.

(a) Citizens participate to acquire a stake in the 41. Brussels presented a special problem: What was it?
system (a) Dutch-speaking people constituted a minority in
(b) Citizen have unequal rights the country, but a majority in the capital
(c) Majority rules over minority (b) Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in
(d) Minorities are provided with special privileges the country, but a minority in the capital
(c) Other foreign languages were seeping in
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm136 (d) English was becoming dominant
37. Prudential reason of power sharing is based on
careful calculation of _______.
(a) Gains and losses 42. What percentage of Srilankan population is Tamil
(b) money and man power Speaking?
(c) Profit and gains (a) 50%
(d) Gains and losses (b) 20%
(c) 18%
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm137 (d) 16%

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm142 47. All these government measures, coming one after the
other, gradually increased the ___among the Sri
Lankan Tamils.
(a) Protests
43. The people whose forefathers came from India to (b) Favouritism
Srilanka as plantation workers during the colonial (c) Feeling of alienation
period are called___.
(d) Subordination
(a) Sri Lankan Tamils
(b) Indian Tamils
(c) Tamil Indians Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm147
(d) Indian Sri Lankans
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm143 48. By the 1980s several political organisations were

formed demanding ____.
(a) Certain rights
(b) Independent Tamil Eelam (state)
44. Most of the Sinhalese Speaking people in Srilanka (c) Sovereign State
are___?
(d) Priority in Jobs for Tamils
(a) Hindus
(b) Christians
(c) Muslims Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm148
(d) Buddhists
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm144 49. When did the Civil War of Sri Lanka end?
(a) 2010
(b) 2009
(c) 2005
45. When did Sri Lanka emerge as an independent
(d) 2011
country?
(1) 1949
(2) 1950 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm149
(3) 1948
(4) 1951
50. How many times was the constitution of Belgium
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm145 amended between 1970 and 1993?
(a) Three times
(b) Two times
(c) Four times
46. In____an Act was passed to recognise Sinhalese as
(d) Once
the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil.
The governments followed preferential policies that
favoured Sinhalese applicants for university positions Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm150
and government jobs?
(1) 1956
(2) 1957
(3) 1958 51. The Constitution of Belgium prescribes that
the number of Dutch and French-speaking
(4) 1959
ministers____.
(a)Shall be equal
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm146 (b) Dutch speaking shall be more
(c) French speaking will be more

(d) None of the above (d) political parties, pressure groups and movements
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm151 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm155
52. The ‘community government’ is elected by people 56. Which of the following is a federal division of power?
belonging to one language community – Dutch, (a) governments at the provincial or regional level.
French and German-speaking. What powers does it (b) legislature, executive and judiciary
hold? (c) among different social groups
(a) Cultural, educational and language-related
(d) political parties, pressure groups and movements
issues.
(b) Political issues
(c) Defence related issues Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm156
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm152 57. Where power is shared among different organs of

government, such as the legislature, executive and
judiciary, what is the functioning of this system
called?
53. Give one moral reason as why power sharing is good? (a) Horizontal system
Select correct option from below. (b) System of checks and balances
(a) It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict (c) System of shared duties
between social groups
(d) System of limited power
(b) It does not lead to confusion in managing the
state
(c) People have a right to be consulted on how they Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm157
are to be governed.
(d) power sharing is a good way to ensure the
stability of political order
58. Consider the following statements about power
sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri Lanka.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm153 A. In Belgium, the Dutch-speaking majority people
tried to impose their domination on the minority
French-speaking community.
B. In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government
54. Earlier, the idea of power-sharing has emerged in sought to ensure the dominance of the Sinhala-
opposition to ____? speaking majority.
(a) Democracy C. The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal
(b) Dictatorship arrangement of power sharing to protect their
(c) Monarchy culture, language and equality of opportunity in
education and jobs.
(d) the principle of authoritarian Undivided political
D. The transformation of Belgium from unitary
power.
government to a federal one prevented a possible
division of the country on linguistic lines
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm154 Which of the statements are correct?
(a) All of the above
(b) A,B and D
(c) C and D
55. Select an example of horizontal distribution of power?
(d) B, C and D
(a) governments at the provincial or regional level.
(b) legislature, executive and judiciary
(c) among different social groups Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm158

59. In Sri lanka, there are about….. percent Christians, (d) The state govt can contradict the Central
who are both Tamil and Sinhala? government.
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 7
(d) 12
63. When many countries of Europe came together to

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm159 form the European Union, ………. was chosen as the
headquarter?
Don’t take printout of this file because solution (a) Paris
(b) Brussels
(c) Rome
(d) London
Purchase Hard Book
64. Select correct prudential reason for power sharing?
(a) Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy.
60. In Srilanka the democratically elected government (b) People have a right to be consulted on how they
adopted a series of ……….. measures to establish are to be governed.
Sinhala supremacy? (c) Citizens, through participation, acquire a stake
(a) Extreme in the system
(b) Democratic (d) Power sharing is good because it helps to reduce
(c) Political the possibility of conflict between social groups
(d) Majoritarian
65. Defining moments of democracy come when the

61. In Srilanka, a new constitution stipulated that the country is going through ___.
state shall protect and foster ___Tamil Indians. (a) Transition to democracy
(a) Hinduism (b) Expansion of democracy
(b) Buddhism (c) Deepening of democracy
(c) Christainy (d) All of the above
(d) Islam
66. One basic principle of democracy is that ___ the

62. In Belgium____ source of all political power.
(a) The state governments are not subordinate to (a) prime minister is
the Central Government. (b) people are
(b) The state governments are subordinate to the (c) chief minister is
Central Government. (d) women are
(c) The state governments have no say before the
central Government.

67. The diverse groups and views are given due respect 71. Which arrangement is called the system of checks
in ____. and balances?
(a) Totalitarianism (a) Horizontal power sharing
(b) Autocracy (b) vertical power sharing
(c) Democracy. (c) executive power sharing
(d) Dictatorship (d) judiciary power sharing
68. In dealing with power sharing, which one of 72. A system of ‘checks and balances’ is another
the following statements is NOT correct about name for which one of the following power-sharing
democracy? arrangements:
(a) People are the source of all political power. ! (a) Power sharing among different social groups.
(b) In a democracy, people rule themselves j through (b) Vertical division of power or power shared among
institutions of self-governance. different levels of government.
(c) In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse (c) Horizontal division of power or power shared
groups and views that exist in a society. among different organs of the government.
(d) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, (d) Power sharing in the form of political parties,
it is not possible to take quick decisions and pressure groups and governments.
enforce them.
73. Which one of the following statements about power-

69. A belief that the majority community should be sharing arrangements is correct?
able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by (a) Power sharing is necessary only in societies which
disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is: have religious, linguistic or ethnic divisions.
(a) Power Sharing (b) Power sharing is suitable only for big countries
(b) Central Government that have regional divisions.
(c) Majoritarianism (c) Every society needs some form of power sharing
(d) Community Government even if it is small or does not have social divisions.
(d) Power-sharing is not necessary at all.
70. Majoritarianism is a belief that the majority

community should be able to rule a country by 74. Which of these does not represent power sharing?
disregarding the _____. (a) Horizontal distribution of powers
(a) Minority community (b) Vertical distribution of powers
(b) Ethnic group (c) Community government in Belgium
(c) sinhala group (d) One party system in China
(d) muslim community

75. Sri Lankan Tamils launched a struggle for Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm179

(a) Language recognition, autonomy and equal
opportunities
(b) Language based divison of country and major
jobs 80. ____ is used to give minority communities a fair
(c) Equal distribution of resources and separate land share in power.
(a) Horizontal Division of Power
(d) Government jobs and equal representation in
government (b) Vertical Division of Power
(c) Division of Power among different Social Groups
(d) Division of Power among Political Parties,
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm175 Pressure Groups, and Movements
76. In Belgium, 59% people living in the Flemish region
speaks ____.
(a) Spanish
(b) English 81. In____, different organs of government, placed at
(c) Sinhala the same level, exercised different powers.
(a) Vertical Division of Power
(d) Dutch
(b) Division of Power among different Social Groups
(c) Horizontal Division of Power
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm176 (d) Division of Power among Political Parties,
Pressure Groups, and Movements
77. Prudential reasons of power sharing are ____. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm181

(a) The stability of political order
(b) To reduce the possibility of conflict between
social groups
(c) A fair share to minority 82. Which form of power sharing is also termed as
vertical division of power?
(d) All of these
(a) Power shared among different organs of
government.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm177 (b) Power shared among different social groups.
(c) Power shared among different political
parties,pressure groups and movements.
(d) Power shared among government at different
78. What is the third tier of government known as?
levels.
(a) Village Panchayats
(b) State government
(c) Local self-government Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm182
(d) Zila Parishad
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm178 83. A type of government in which many political parties

join together to prove their majority in the house
____.
(a) Community government
79. The third tier of government in India is _____. (b) Democratic government
(a) Subordinate government (c) State government
(b) co-operative government (d) Coalition government
(c) local counsils
(d) Panchayats

84. Vertical power sharing helps in _____. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm188

(a) Concentration of power
(b) Creating differences
(c) Motivating leaders
89. Which of the following is not a region of Belgium?
(d) Decentralization of power
(a) Flemish
(b) Wallon
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm184 (c) Luxembourg
(d) Brussels - capital region
85. Federalism is a system of government in which the Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm189

power is ____.
(a) concentrated in a few hands
(b) concentrated in the central government
(c) Divided between a central authority and various 90. Which language is dominantly spoken in Belgium?
constituents (a) Dutch
(d) Divided amongst various communities (b) Spanish
(c) French
(d) Italian
86. Belgium is a small country located in which of the
following continent?
(a) Asia 91. In the city of Brussels-
(b) Europe (a) 80% people speak French while 20% speak Dutch
(c) North America (b) 80% people speak Dutch while 20% speak French
(d) None of these (c) 80% people speak German while 20% speak
French
(d) 80% people speak German while 20% speak
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm186 Dutch
87. Belgium shares its border with how many countries
of Europe?
(a) Three
(b) Four 92. Which of the following is a major ethnic group of Sri
(c) Five Lanka?
(a) Christian and Tamil
(d) Six
(b) Buddhist and Hindu
(c) Sinhala and Tamil
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm187 (d) Sinhala and Christian
88. Which one of the following communities constituted
majority in Brussels?
(a) French Speaking
(b) Dutch Speaking 93. ‘Sri Lankan Tamil’ refers to which of the following?
(c) German Speaking (a) Tamil Muslim
(d) None of them (b) Tamil native of the country

(c) Tamil whose forefathers came from India in the (d) B, C, D, G

colonial period
(d) Tamil Hindu
97. Consider the following statements about the ethnic
composition of Sri Lanka:
94. In which part of Sri Lanka are the Indian Tamils A. Major social groups are the Sinhala- speaking
concentrated? (74%) and Tamil-speaking (18%)?
(a) North and South B. Among the Tamils, there are two sub-groups, Sri
(b) North and East Lankan Tamils and Indian Tamils.
C. There are about 7% Christians, who are both
(c) East and West
Tamil and Sinhala.
(d) South and East D. Most of the Sinhala-speaking are Hindus or
Muslims and most of the Tamil-speaking are
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm194 Buddhists.
(a) A, B, C
(b) A, B, D
95. Consider the following statements and select the (c) B, C, D
correct code. (d) A, B, C, D
(i) Power-sharing is good for democracy.
(ii) Power-sharing helps to reduce the possibility of
conflicts among social groups. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm197
(a) Statement (i) is true and statement (ii) is false
(b) Statement (i) is false but statement (ii) is true
(c) Both statement are true
98. Which of the following is not a major social group
(d) Both statement are false
in Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhala-speakers or Sinhala Community
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm195 (b) Sri Lankan Tamils
(c) Indian Tamils
(d) Anglo-Indians
96. Different arguments are usually put forth in favour
of and against power sharing. Identify those which Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm198
are in favour of power sharing and select the answer
using the codes given below.
A. Power sharing reduces conflict among different
communities 99. Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate
B. Power sharing decreases the possibility of option
arbitrariness Belgium: Dutch : : Sri Lanka ___.
C. Power sharing delays decision making process (a) Sinhalas
D. Power sharing accommodates diversities (b) Sri Lankan Tamils
E. Power sharing increases instability and (c) Indian Tamils
divisiveness (d) Muslims
F. Power sharing promotes people’s participation in
government Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm199
G. Power sharing undermines the unity of a country
(a) A, B, D, F
(b) A, C, E, F
100. How leaders of Sri Lanka dealt with the question of
(c) A, B, D, G

power sharing? killing of thousand people in Sri Lanka?

(a) The government adopted series of Majoritarian (a) Cold war between Sinhala and Tamil speakers
measures to establish Tamil Supremacy in Sri (b) Civil war between Sinhala and Tamil speakers
Lanka. (c) Atomic war between Sinhala and Tamil speakers
(b) The government adopted series of Majoritarian (d) None of the above
measures to establish Sinhala Supremacy in Sri
Lanka.
(c) The government adopted equality in power Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm204
sharing.
(d) None of these
105. A country in which principle of majoritarianism led
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm200 to civil war:
(a) Belgium
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Netherlands
101. Which of the following was not a provision of the Act
(d) Germany
of 1956 passed in Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhala was recognised as the only official
language Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm205
(b) Buddhism was to be protected by the state
(c) Provinces were given autonomy
(d) Sinhalas were favoured in government jobs
106. What does Elem stands for ?
(a) Tamil name for Sri lanka
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm201 (b) Tamil name for State
(c) LTTE
(d) Both (a) and (b)
102. Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in
which of the following year? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm206
(a) 1946
(b) 1947
(c) 1948
(d) 1949 107. Which of the following was not one of the initial
demands of the Sri Lankan Tamils?
(a) Recognition of Tamil as an official language
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm202 (b) Regional autonomy
(c) Equality of opportunity in securing jobs and
education
(d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam
103. Which language was declared as the only official
language of Sri Lanka by an Act passed in 1956?
(a) Tamil Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm207
(b) Sinhala
(c) Hindi
(d) English
108. By 1980s several political organisations were formed
in Sri Lanka demanding an independent Tamil Eelam
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm203 in which of the following part of Sri Lanka?
(a) Northern parts
(b) Eastern parts
(c) Western parts
104. Which of the following was the main reason for the
(d) Both a and b

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm208 113. Which of the following government in Belgium

has the power regarding cultural, educational and
language related issues?
(a) The communist government
109. A belief that the majority community should be (b) The community government
able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by (c) The central government
disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is:
(d) The province government
(a) Power Sharing
(b) Central Government
(c) Majoritarianism Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm213
(d) Community Government
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm209 114. Which is the capital city of Belgium?

(a) Wallonia
(b) Brussels
(c) Antwerp
110. A war like conflict between two opposite groups in a
(d) Paris
country is called -
(a) Cold war
(b) Civil war Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm214
(c) Ethnic was
(d) None of these
115. ____ elects the community government in Belgium.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm210 (a) People belonging to the respective language
communities.
(b) All the citizens of Belgium.
(c) Belgium’s leaders
111. Which of the following measures does not establish
(d) Ministers of central government of Belgium.
Sinhala supremacy in Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhala is the only official language.
(b) Preferential policies for government jobs. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm215
(c) The state shall protect and foster Buddhism.
(d) Equal political rights to Sri Lankan Tamils.
116. The Belgian government shifted to a federal from a
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm211 ____ form of government.
(a) Accommodative
(b) Authoritarian
(c) Unitary
112. What major steps the Belgian government took to
enable everyone to live together within the same
country? Choose the most correct option from the
following: Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm216
(a) They amended their constitution four times
(b) They amended their constitution three times
(c) They just asked them to form the communist
government 117. Under which of the following is power shared in the
‘community government’ of Belgium?
(d) Only a and c
(a) Different social groups
(b) Different organs of government
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm212 (c) Central and State government
(d) State government and community government

118. Power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the 122. With respect to the concept of power sharing, which
possibility of conflict between social groups. This is of the following statements is not correct about
an example of which reason of the power sharing? democracy?
(a) Prudential (a) People rule themselves through representatives
(b) Moral and institutions of self governance in a democracy.
(c) Legal (b) People are the source of all political power and
(d) None of these this power must be shared among them.
(c) Democratic countries believe in giving respect to
ethnically diverse groups and views.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm218 (d) Democracy does not allow the citizens to
participate in the political process because power
is only shared among representatives.
119. Non-sharing of power leads to
(a) Peace among all the communities Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm222
(b) Tyranny of the majority and oppression of the
minority
(c) Negation of the very spirit of democracy
(d) Both (b) and (c) is not given. You can purchase hard book from
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm219 full solutions of all MCQs in print form.
120. Which is a prudent reason for power-sharing? Purchase Hard Book
(a) It reduces the possibility of conflict between
communities and ensures the stability of political
order.
sharing arrangements is correct?
(b) Power-sharing is the very spirit of democracy (a) Power sharing is necessary only in societies which
(c) It will to the violation of the constitution have religious, linguistic or ethnic divisions.
(d) None of the above (b) Power sharing is suitable only for big countries
that have regional divisions.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm220 (c) Every society needs some form of power sharing
even if it is small or does not have social divisions.
121. Prudential reasons of power sharing stress on the

facts that:
A. It ensures the stability of political order.
B. It reduces the possibility of conflict between
social groups.
124. The Government in which power is shared by two or
C. It gives a fair share to minority.
more political parties, is known as -
D. It is the very spirit of democracy.
(a) Community Government
(b) Unitary Government
(a) A, B
(c) Federal Government
(b) A, C and D
(d) Coalition Government
(c) All are correct
(d) A, B and C

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm224 (c) Power is shared by different social groups

(d) Power is shared by two or more political parties
125. Modern democracies maintain a check and balance Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm228

system. Identify the correct option based on the
horizontal power sharing arrangement.
(a) Central government, state government and local
bodies. 129. Division of power between higher and lower level of
government is known as -
(b) Legislature, executive and Judiciary
(a) Vertical division of power
(c) Among different social groups
(b) Horizontal distribution of power
(d) Among different pressure groups
(c) Union division of power
(d) Community division of power
126. There are countries in which the constitution

clearly lays down the powers of different levels of
government. This is called: 130. Match the following keywords from column A with
(a) Unitary division of power their explanation in column B:
(b) Federal division of power Column A Column B
(c) Legal division of power A. Ethnic I A belief that let
(d) Authoritarian division of power majority community to
rule a country.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm226 B. Civil war II Calculation of gains and
losses.
C. Prudential III Conflicts between
opposing groups.
127. In dealing with power sharing, which one of
the following statements is NOT correct about D. Majoritarian IV Based on shared culture.
democracy? (a) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
(a) People are the source of all political power. (b) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(b) In a democracy, people rule themselves through (c) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
institutions of self-governance.
(d) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
(c) In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse
groups and views that exist in a society.
(d) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm230
it is not possible to take quick decisions and
enforce them.
131. Which one of the following countries does not share

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm227 its boundary with Belgium?
(a) France
(b) Netherlands
(c) Sweden
128. Which one of the following statements about coalition
Government is true? (d) Luxembourg
(a) Power is shared among the different organs of
the government Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm231
(b) Power is shared among governments at different
levels

132. In Belgium, the percentage of French community is: 137. Sri Lanka is an island nation, just a few kilometres
(a) 54% from the Southern coast of
(b) 40% (a) Goa
(c) 30% (b) Kerala
(d) 20% (c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Lakshadweep
133. Which language is dominantly spoken in Belgium?

(a) Dutch 138. Majoritarianist constitution was adopted by:
(b) Spanish (a) Belgium
(c) France (b) India
(d) Italian (c) Sri Lanka
(d) Pakistan
134. Belgium shares its border with:

(a) France 139. What is the percentage of Sinhala-speaking people
(b) Germany in Sri Lanka?
(c) Luxembourg (a) 74%
(d) all of the above (b) 75%
(c) 14%
(d) 19%
135. Power shared among governments at different levels
is also called:
(a) horizontal distribution 140. What is the percentage of Sri Lankan Tamils out of
(b) vertical distribution the total population of Sri Lanka?
(c) slant distribution (a) 10 percent
(d) none of the above (b) 19 percent
(c) 13 percent
(d) 25 percent
136. Belgium has worked on the principles of:
(a) majoritarianism
(b) accommodation 141. Power sharing is desirable because it
(c) both (a) and (b) (a) helps the people of different communities to
celebrated their festivals.
(d) none of the above
(b) imposes the will of the majority community over
others.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm236 (c) reduces the conflict between social groups.
(d) ensures the stability of political order.

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm241 (c) coalition of power

(d) federal distribution of power
142. Intelligent sharing of power is done among Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm246

(a) Legislature and Central Government
(b) Executive and Judiciary
(c) Legislature and Executive 147. Which of the following is not the benefit of power
(d) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary sharing?
(a) It upholds the spirit of democracy.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm242 (b) Political parties get their expected share.
(c) It ensures political stability in the long-run.
(d) It reduces the possibility of conflicts between
social groups.
143. Division of power between higher and lower level of
government is known as
(a) vertical division of power Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm247
(b) horizontal distribution of power
(c) union division of power
(d) community division of power 148. An Act of recognising Sinhala as the official language
was signed in:
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm243 (a) 1942
(b) 1956
(c) 1954
(d) 1948
144. The capital city of Belgium is:
(a) Dutch
(b) France
(c) Brussels
149. Which of the following is not the form of power
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm244 sharing?
(a) Vertical division of power
(b) Horizontal division of power
(c) Division of power among social groups
145. Power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability (d) Division of power between people
of:
(a) population
(b) political order
(c) both (a) and (b)
150. Power struggle demanding separating Eelam was
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm245 launched by:
(a) Sinhalese
(b) Buddhists
(c) Tamilians
146. When power is shared among different organs of the (d) none of the above
government it is called as
(a) horizontal distribution of power
(b) community distribution of power

151. In dealing with power sharing, which one of (a) A, B, C, D

the following statements is NOT correct about (b) B, C and D
democracy? (c) A and C
(a) People are the source of all political power.
(d) A, C and D
(b) In a democracy, people rule themselves through
institutions of self-governance.
(c) In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm254
groups and views that exist in a society.
(d) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed,
it is not possible to take quick decisions and
enforce them. 155. Consider the following statements about the ethnic
composition of Sri Lanka:
A. Major social groups are the Sinhala- speaking
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm251 (74%) and Tamil-speaking (18%)?
B. Among the Tamils, there are two sub-groups, Sri
Lankan Tamils and Indian Tamils.
C. There are about 7% Christians, who are both
152. A belief that the majority community should be Tamil and Sinhala.
able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by
D. Most of the Sinhala-speaking are Hindus or
disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is:
Muslims and most of the Tamil speaking are
(a) Power Sharing
Buddhists.
(b) Central Government
(c) Majoritarianism
(a) A, B, C
(b) A, B, D
(c) B, C, D
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm252 (d) A, B, C, D
sharing arrangements is correct?
(a) Power sharing is necessary only in societies which
have religious, linguistic or ethnic divisions. 156. Assertion : Tyranny of majority is highly desirable.
(b) Power sharing is suitable only for big countries Reason : It helps in making the political order more
that have regional divisions. stable.
(c) Every society needs some form of power sharing
even if it is small or does not have social divisions.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm253 (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
154. Which of the following features are common to Indian
and Belgian form of power sharing arrangements?
A. Power is shared among governments at different
levels. 157. Assertion : In Belgium, the leaders realized that the
B. Power is shared among different organs of unity of the country is possible by respecting the
government. feelings and interest of different countries.
Reason : Belgium favoured Dutch speaking
C. Power is shared among different social groups.
community.
D. Power is shared among different parties and
takes the form of competition.

(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is 161. Assertion : Belgium and Sri Lanka both faced ethical
not the correct explanation of assertion. tension among different communities.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. Reason : Both the countries resolved the conflict
(d) Both assertion and reason are false. by power sharing arrangement which gave equal
representation to all the communities.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm257 the correct explanation of assertion.
158. Assertion : French speaking community in Belgium
was rich and powerful.
Reason : Belgian Government favoured French
speaking community. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm261
not the correct explanation of assertion. 162. Assertion : There was a feeling of alienation among
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. Sri Lankan Tamils.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false. Reason : The Sri Lankan government denied them
equal political rights and discriminated against them
in getting jobs and other opportunities.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm258 (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
159. Assertion : In a democracy, everyone has voice in the (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
shaping of public policies.
Reason : India has federal system.
the correct explanation of assertion. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm262
163. Assertion : Community government in Belgium is
elected by one language community.
Reason : Community government helped in resolving
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm259 conflict between different linguistic groups.
160. Assertion : Power should reside with one person and not the correct explanation of assertion.
group located at one place in a democracy. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Reason : If the power is dispersed, it will not be (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
possible to take decision quickly and enforce it.
the correct explanation of assertion. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm263
164. Assertion : Sinhala was recognized as only official
language of Sri Lanka.
Reason : The government of Sri Lanka wanted to
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm260 establish the supremacy of Sinhala community.

the correct explanation of assertion. Codes:

(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
not the correct explanation of assertion. explanation of A.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(d) Both assertion and reason are false. explanation of A.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm264 (d) A is false but R is true.
165. Assertion : Power Sharing is good.
Reason : It leads to ethical tension.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is 168. Identify the Country-
the correct explanation of assertion. • Is a small country in Europe.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is • Shares borders with France, Netherlands,
not the correct explanation of assertion. Germany and Luxembourg.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. • The government divided the powers equally
between Dutch and French speaking populations.
• Power sharing is also seen in political parties.
(a) Germany
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm265 (b) Belgium
(c) Srilanka
Don’t take printout of this file because solution (d) India

Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/ Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm268
whatsapp at 8905629969. 169. Identify the Country-
• Emerged as an independent country in 1948.
Purchase Hard Book • Neighbouring country of India.
• 74% of population speaks Sinhala while 18% of
population are Tamil speakers.
166. Assertion (A): Belgium managed to accommodate its • In 1956, an Act was passed to recognize Sinhala
diversities. as the only official language of this country.
Reason (R): It took care of the interest of both (a) Germany
French and Dutch speaking community.
(b) Belgium
the correct explanation of assertion. (c) Srilanka
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is (d) India
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm269
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm266 170. Identify the form of power sharing -

• The power sharing arrangement between
different levels of the government.
• It is found in India.
167. Assertion (A): Social conflicts often leads to violence (a) Vertical form of power sharing
and political instability.
(b) Horizontal form of power sharing
Reason (R): It brings disharmony among the social
groups and destroys the peace of the society. (c) Federal form of power sharing

(d) Both (a) and (c) major matter
171. Identify the Act- 174. Complete the following table with correct information-
• Passed in 1956.
• Passed by the government of Ceylon (Sri Lanka). Act Passed in Passed by Was
• It was for making Sinhala, the official language Year the Govt. of about
of the country. Sinhala only A - ? Sri Lanka B-?
• The act replaced English with Sinhala as the sole Act
official language.
(a) The official language Act No. 39 of 1965 (a) A-1948 , B-It was for making Tamil, the official
language of the country
(b) The official language Act No. 33 of 1956
(b) A-1956 , B-It was for making Sinhala, the official
(c) The official language Act No. 39 of 1956
(d) The official language Act No. 33 of 1965
(c) A-1956 , B-It was for making Tamil, the official
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm271 (d) A-1948 , B-It was for making Sinhala, the official
172. Arrange the following Ethnic communities of Sri Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm274

Lanka in the descending order-
1. Indian Tamil
2. Sihalese
3. Muslim 175. Which of the options best signifies this cartoon-
4. Sril Lanka Tamil
(a) 2, 4, 1, 3
(b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3
(d) 2, 4, 3, 1
173. Complete the following table with correct information:
Country Adopted the Gave Powers to-

Policy of
Belgium Power sharing B-?
Sri Lanka A - ? Majority Sinhala (a) Showing the fine German engineering.
group alone (b) Problems of running the Germany’s grand
coalition Government that includes the two
(a) A-Majoritarionism , B -All communities, minor major parties of the country.
or major doesn’t matter
(c) The two parties of the country are historically
(b) A-Minorism , B -All communities, minor or partners to each other.
major doesn’t matter
(d) How smoothly the German Government is
(c) A-Majoritarionism , B -All communities, minor running.
or major matter
(d) A-Minorism , B -All communities, minor or

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm275 number of Dutch and French- speaking ministers

shall be equal in the central government.
(c) No single community can make decisions
unilaterally.
176. What does the cartoon represent? (d) All of the above.
Source Based Questions 1 : Read the source given below

appropriate option:
Power is shared among different organs of government,
such as the legislature, executive and judiciary. Let
us call this horizontal distribution of power because
it allows different organs of government placed at
the same level to exercise different powers. Such
a separation ensures that none of the organs can
(a) Concentration of powers which are controlling exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks the
the democratic regimes of their respective others. This results in a balance of power among
country. various institutions. Last year we studied that in a
(b) The main leaders of two countries are going democracy, even though ministers and government
somewhere. officials exercise power, they are responsible to the
(c) More powers were given to the democracy. Parliament or State Assemblies. Similarly, although
judges are appointed by the executive, they can
(d) Putin is advising bush to control the horse
check the functioning of executive or laws made by
tightly.
the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system
of checks and balances.
178. Power sharing between different organs of the
government is being referred as-
(a) horizontal distribution of power
177. Which of the following option best signifies this
picture : (b) vertical division of power
(c) Union Government
Power is shared among different organs of government,

such as –
(a) legislature, executive and parliament
(b) legislature, executive and judiciary
(c) legislature, high court and judiciary
(a) Place names and directions are written in two Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm278
languages- French and Dutch.
(b) Constitution of Belgium prescribes that the

It allows different organs of government placed at the groups, such as the religious and linguistic groups.
same level to exercise different ‘Community government’ in Belgium is a good
powers is known as- example of this arrangement. In some countries
(a) Circular distribution of power there are constitutional and legal arrangements
(b) vertical distribution of power whereby socially weaker sections and women are
represented in the legislatures and administration.
(c) horizontal distribution of power
This type of arrangement is meant to give space in
(d) All of the above the government and administration to diverse social
groups who otherwise would feel alienated from the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm278 government. This method is used to give minority
communities a fair share in power.
179. Power sharing means-

Judges are appointed by the executive, they can (a) System of political arrangement in which power
check the functioning of executive or laws made by is shared between ministers of the government.
the legislatures. This arrangement is known as- (b) System of political arrangement in which
(a) horizontal distribution of power power is shared between different organs of the
(b) vertical distribution of power government.
(c) Checks and balances (c) System of political arrangement in which
(d) All of the above power is shared between different levels of the
government.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm278 (d) All of the above
Horizontal distribution of power ensures that none of
the organs can exercise-
(a) unlimited power Which one is not a benefit of Power sharing?
(b) limited power (a) Reduces the possibilities of conflicts between
(c) unlimited duties social groups
(d) limited duties (b) Ensures political stability in the long run
(c) All the political parties get their expected share
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm278 (d) It upholds the spirit of democracy
In a democracy ______ are responsible to the
Parliament or State Assemblies
(a) ministers and government officials Apart from the Central and State Government, there
(b) judges is a third type of government in Belgium called the
(c) both (a) Regional Government
(d) None of these (b) State Government
(c) Union Government
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm278 (d) Community Government
most appropriate option: Which is not a feature of Community government?
Power may also be shared among different social (a)
Apart from the Central and the State

Government, this is a third type of government their majority. As a result, the democratically elected
(b) It is elected by the people belonging to one government adopted a series of MAJORITARIAN
community that is Dutch, French, German measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. In 1956,
speaking an Act was passed to recognize Sinhala as the only
(c) It is mainly based on cooperation and tolerance official language, thus disregarding Tamil. The
governments followed preferential policies that
(d) It does not have the power regarding cultural,
favoured Sinhala applicants for university positions
educational and language related issues
and government jobs. A new constitution stipulated
that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism. All
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm279 these government measures, coming one after the
other, gradually increased the feeling of alienation
among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none
of the major political parties led by the Buddhist
A government in which different social groups are Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their language
given the power to handle the affairs related to their and culture. They felt that the constitution and
communities is called ____________. government policies denied them equal political
(a) Community government rights, discriminated against them in getting jobs
(b) Coalition government and other opportunities and ignored their interests.
As a result, the relations between the Sinhala and
(c) Democratic
Tamil communities strained over time.
(d) Monarchy
180. In which country Majoritarianism is followed?

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm279 (a) Sri Lanka
(b) India
(c) Belgium
Which of the following arrangement is used to give (d) None of the above
minority communities a fair share in power?
(a) Community government Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm280
(b) Coalition government
(c) Democratic
(d) Monarchy
Most of the Sinhala speaking people in Sri Lanka
are-
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm279 (a) Hindu
(b) Buddhist
Don’t take printout of this file because solution (c) Telugu
is not given. You can purchase hard book from (d) Christian

full solutions of all MCQs in print form. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm280
Purchase Hard Book Name the most vibrant minority social group in Sri
Lanka?
(a) Sinhala
(b) Buddhist
Source Based Questions 3 : Read the source given (c) Tamil
below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the (d) Christian
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in
1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community sought
to secured dominance over government by virtue of

Which of the following are the ethnic communities eastern parts of Sri Lanka.The distrust between the
of Sri Lanka? two communities turned into widespread conflict. It
(a) Indian Tamils and Sri Lankan Tamils soon turned into a CIVIL WAR. As a result thousands
(b) Tamils, Buddhists, Hindus of people of both the communities have been killed.
(c) Indian Tamils, Sri Lankan Tamils and Buddhists Many families were forced to leave the country as
refugees and many more lost their livelihoods.
(d) Sinhala speakers, Sri Lankan Tamils and Indian
Tamils
181. What is not the geographical location of Sri Lanka as
compared to India?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm280 (a) Sri Lanka is an island nation.
(b) It is about 20kms from Rameshwaram, the
Southern coast of Tamil Nadu
The state that protects and fosters Buddhism is (c) It lies in the Indian Ocean.
___________. (d) None of the above.
(a) Nigeria
(b) Finland Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm281
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Belgium
What happened when demand of Tamils, for more

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm280 autonomy , repeatedly denied by the government?
(a) It soon turned into a Civil war. Thousands of
people of both the communities have been killed.
(b) Many became refugees.
In which year did Sri Lanka gain freedom?
(a) 1945 (c) It improved the social , cultural and economic
life of the country.
(b) 1947
(d) Both (A) and (B)
(c) 1948
(d) 1949
Which of the following was not a provision of the Act

of 1956 passed in Sri Lanka?
Source Based Questions 4 : Read the source given (a) It recognises Sinhala as the only official language
(b) The government followed preferential policies
that favoured Sinhala applicants.
Government measures, coming one after the other, (c) A new constitution stipulated that the state
gradually increased the feeling of alienation among should protect and foster Buddhism.
the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of the
(d) Provincial autonomy was given to Tamils.
major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala
leaders were sensitive to their language and culture.
They felt that the constitution between the Sinhala Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm281
and Tamil communities strained over time. The Sri
Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for
the recognition of Tamil as an official language,
for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity The Sri Lankan Tamils lauched parties and struggles
in securing education and jobs. But their demand for
for more autonomy to provinces populated by the (a) For regional autonomy
Tamils was repeatedly denied. By 1980s several (b) Equality of opportunity in securing education
political organisations were formed demanding an and jobs.
independent Tamil Eelam (state) innorthern and
(c) The recognition of Tamils as an official language.

(d) All of the above Brussels was chosen as its headquarters.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm281 182. What was chosen as the headquarters of the European
Union?
(a) Brussels
(b) Zurich
By 1980s several political organisations were formed (c) Swiden
demanding an independent -
(d) France
(a) Tamil state Eelam
(b) Sinhala state Eelam
(c) Tamil and Sinhala state Eelam Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm282
(d) None of these
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm281 Who elects the community government in Belgium?

(a) People belonging to one language community
only
(b) By the leader of Belgium.
What was the most serious demand of the Sri Lankan (c) The citizens of the whole country.
Tamils which resulted in a civil war in Sri Lanka?
(d) The community leaders of the Belgium.
(a) Reservation of jobs for Tamils
(b) Recognition of Tamils as an official language
(c) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm282
(d) Creation of a federation with autonomy to
Tamils
The community Government signifies:
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm281 (a) The powers of the government regarding
community development.
(b) The powers of the government regarding law
making for the community.
Source Based Questions 5 : Read the source given (c) The powers of the government regarding cultural
below and answer 8 questions that follow by choosing the ,educational and language related issues.
(d) The government enjoys privileges to safeguard
The Belgian leaders took a different path. They the interest of a particular community.
recognised the existence of regional differences and
cultural diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they
amended their constitution four times so as to work Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm282
out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live
together within the same country. The arrangement
they worked out is different from any other country
and is very innovative. Apart from the Central How many times the constitution of Belgium was
and the State Government, there is a third kind of amended?
government. This ‘community government’ is elected (a) two times
by people belonging to one language community – (b) three times
Dutch, French and German-speaking – no matter (c) four times
where they live. This government has the power (d) five times
regarding cultural, educational and language-related
issues. It is very complicated, even for people living
in Belgium. But these arrangements have worked well Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm282
so far. They helped to avoid civic strife between the
two major communities and a possible division of the
country on linguistic lines. When many countries of
Europe came together to form the EuropeanUnion, _______and ______ dealt with the question

of power-sharing differently. most appropriate option:

(a) India, Sri Lanka Two different sets of reasons can be given in favour of
(b) Belgium, Sri Lanka power-sharing. Firstly, power sharing is good because
(c) Wallonia, Brussels it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between
(d) Flemish, Wallonia social groups. Since social conflict often leads to
violence and political instability, power sharing is a
good way to ensure the stability of political order.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm282 Imposing the will of the majority community over
others may look like an attractive option in the short
run, but in the long run, it undermines the unity of
the nation. The tyranny of the majority is not just
Which of the following is not the element of “Belgian oppressive for the minority; it often brings ruin to
model”? the majority as well. There is a second, deeper reason
(a) Equal number of ministers for both the groups why power sharing is good for democracies. Power-
(b) Setting up of Community Government sharing is the very spirit of democracy. A democratic
(c) More power to the central government rule involves sharing power with those affected by its
(d) Equal representation at the state and central exercise, and who have to live with its effects. People
level have a right to be consulted on how they are to be
governed. A legitimate government is one where
citizens, through participation, acquire a stake in the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm282 system. The first set of reasons is Prudential and
the second is moral. While prudential reasons stress
that power-sharing will bring out better outcomes,
the former emphasises the very act of power sharing
“Apart from the Central and the State Government, as valuable.
there is a third kind of government”. Which of the
following is incorrect with respect to this?
(a) The unique government is Community 183. Which reasons help in avoiding conflict in society
Government. and preventing majority tyranny?
(a) Prudential reasons
(b) A single social group is given powers to handle
community-related affairs. (b) Moral reasons
(c) Elected by people belonging to Dutch, French (c) Financial reasons
and German-speaking. (d) Political reasons
(d) Power regarding cultural, educational and
language-related issues. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm283
______stress that power-sharing will bring out
better outcomes, whereas ______ emphasise the
Which of the following title best describes the given very act of power-sharing as valuable.
passage? (a) Moral reasons, Prudential reasons
(a) The ethnic composition of Belgium (b) Prudential reasons, Moral reasons
(b) Accommodation in Sri Lanka (c) Political reasons, Financial reasons
(c) Accommodation in Belgium (d) Prudential reasons, Political reasons
(d) The ethnic composition of Sri Lanka
Which of the following can be an example of moral

Source Based Questions 6 : Read the source given reason of power sharing?
below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the (a) Decentralisation of powers

(b) Reservation of constituencies for minorities in

India
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/fm283 To Purchase hard book click below or
Purchase Hard Book
Which of the following title best describes the given
extract?
(a) Forms of power-sharing
(b) Outcomes and Lessons of power-sharing
(c) Power-sharing is desirable
(d) None of these
Consider the following statements and select the

correct code.
1. Power-sharing is good for democracy.
2. Power-sharing helps to reduce the possibility of
conflicts among social groups.
(a) a is true and b is false
(b) a is false but b is true
(c) both a and b are true
(d) both a and b are false
Imposing the will of majority community over others

may look like an attractive option in the short run,
but in the long run it undermines the _______
of the nation.
(a) Economic interests
(b) Political interests
(c) Social interests
(d) Unity
******

Chap 1 Federalism Page 189
CHAPTER 1
Federalism
101. What was the key change made in the Constitution various constituents of the country.
of Belgium? (a) Dictatorship
(a) to reduce the power of the regional Government (b) Democracy
(b) to reduce the power of the Central Government (c) Federalism
(c) to reduce the power of the Constitution (d) None of these
(d) to reduce the power of public
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm104
105. Which country changed from unitary to federal form

102. In 1993, Belgium shifted from a _____ to _____ of government in 1993?
form of government. (a) Belgium
(a) federal, unitary (b) Sri Lanka
(b) monist, unitary (c) India
(c) unitary, federal (d) US
(d) federal , monist
106. Identify the type of government for which Tamilians

103. Belgium was shifted from unitary form of government are fighting in Sri Lanka.
to federal form of government in 1993. What does it (a) Unitary
mean? (b) Community
(a) The regional governments were given (c) Federal
constitutional powers and were not dependent
(d) Tyrant
on the central government.
(b) The regional governments were under the control
of the central government Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm106
(c) constitution prescribes that the dutch and french
ministers shall be equal in the central government
(d) community government will undertake the
powers of the central government 107. Which form of government is prevalent in Sri Lanka?
(a) Monarchy
(b) Federal
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm103 (c) Unitary government
(d) Dictatorship
104. _____ is a system of government in which the Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm107

power is divided between central authority and

Page 190 Federalism Chap 1
108. Federalism is a system of government in which the 112. Under the ____ system, either there is only one
power is ______. level of government or the sub-units are subordinate
(a) Concentrated in a few hands to the central government.
(b) Divided between a central authority and various (a) federal
constituents (b) unitary
(c) Divided between a central authority and various (c) central
constituents (d) local
(d) Divided amongst various communities
113. In a ________ system, the central government

109. Choose the incorrect statement- cannot order the state government to do something.
(a) Usually a federation has two levels of governments (a) federal
(b) Both the levels of governments enjoy theirs (b) unitary
powers independent of one another (c) central
(c) In a federal system, a state government has (d) local
powers of its own
(d) In a federal system, the state government is
answerable to the central government Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm113
114. In a federal system ______ government has
powers of its own for which it is not answerable to
the _______ government.
110. Which government enjoy their power independent of (a) central, any other country’s
the other? (b) State, central
(a) government for the entire country (c) central, none
(b) governments at the level of provinces or states (d) State, chief minister of
(c) Both these levels of governments
(d) none of these
115. Different tiers of government govern the same citizens,
but each tier has its own _________ in specific
111. In which sense, federations are contrasted with matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
unitary governments. (a) interdiction
(a) the powers of the regional governments could be (b) contradiction
withdrawn by the central governments (c) jurisdiction
(b) powers in the federations are not concentrated in (d) prediction
single hands but distributed among the units
(c) the powers of the regional governments are
temporary Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm115
(d) none of these
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm111 116. In federalism ____ tiers of government govern

the____ citizens.
(a) Different, Different

(b) same, Different (c) Have the power to interpret the constitution and
(c) Different, same the powers of different levels of government
(d) same, same (d) Criticize the government for the steps taken
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm116 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm120
117. The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of 121. The fundamental provisions of the constitution
government are specified in the ____. cannot be unilaterally changed by _____ of
(a) State book government.
(b) constitution (a) one level
(c) any book (b) both levels
(d) president book (c) five levels
(d) none of these
118. The existence and authority of each tier of government

is _______ guaranteed. 122. The government organ that resolves the disputes
(a) Manually between the Centre and the State government is
(b) constitutionally ______.
(a) Parliament
(c) prime minister accordingly
(b) Armed forces
(d) president accordingly
(c) Supreme Court
(d) President
119. Which of the following is not the key feature of

federalism?
(a) There are two or more levels of government. 123. What ensures financial autonomy to all levels of
(b) The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers government?
of government are specified in the constitution. (a) Sources of jobs for each level
(c) The fundamental provisions of the constitution (b) Sources of food for each level
cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of (c) Sources of happiness for each level
government.such changes require the consent of (d) Sources of revenue for each level
both levels of government.
(d) The central government can pass on orders to
the provincial or the local government.
124. What are the dual objectives of the federal system?
(a) To promote unity of the country and to
accommodate regional diversity
120. Under federalism the courts play the role of (b) To disturb powers and funds to the central
______. government
(a) Implementing decisions of the government (c) to provide facilities and job to the citizens of the
(b) Favouring each and every step of the government country

(d) to ensure that the power would be transferred 129. Which one of the following countries has not adopted
from the state to the central government the holding together federation?
(a) India
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm124 (b) Spain
(c) Belgium
(d) Japan
125. The main objective of the federal system is to

______.
(a) Accommodate regional diversity
(b) promote diversity
(c) make centre more powerful 130. Which one of the following countries has not adopted
(d) distribute finances to different organs the coming together federation?
(a) Switzerland
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm125 (b) USA
(c) Australia
(d) India
126. ______ aspects are crucial for the institutions

and practice of federalism.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four 131. In a ‘Holding together federation’
(d) five A. A large country divides its power between
constituent states and the national government
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm126 B. The central government tends to be more
powerful vis-a-vis the states
C. All the constituent states usually have equal
powers
127. An ideal ____ system has both aspects : mutual D. Constituent states have unequal powers
trust and agreement to live together. Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) federal (1) A, B, C and D
(b) unitary (2) A and D
(c) unitary and federal (3) B and C
(d) none of these (4) A, B and D
128. What is one main factor on which the balance of Don’t take printout of this file because solution
power between centre and state depends?
(a) federal system of government
(b) unitary system of government
(c) Any system of government full solutions of all MCQs in print form.
(d) none of these To Purchase hard book click below or
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm128 Purchase Hard Book

parliament
(b) A two third majority of members present and
132. The Constitution originally provided for a _____ voting, provided it is not less than majority of
tier system of government. the total members
(a) two (c) A two third majority of the membership of the
(b) three parliament
(c) four (d) A special procedure in Parliament and ratification
by a majority of Sates in the Indian Union
(d) five
137. The Union Government has exclusive powers on

133. The Indian Constitution provides for a ______.
subjects in ______.
(a) one -tier system of government
(a) The Union List
(b) two -tier system of government
(b) The Concurrent List
(c) three -tier system of government
(c) The state List
(d) four -tier system of government
(d) Both 1 and 2
134. The list which includes subjects of national

138. Select the correct option for state list item.
importance such as defence of the country, foreign
(a) Banking
affairs, banking, communications and currency.
(a) Union list (b) Foreign affairs
(b) State list (c) Police
(c) Concurrent list (d) Military
(d) Residuary subjects
139. Select the correct option for concurrent List item.

(a) Communication
135. Which of the following subjects is included in the
union list? (b) Agriculture
(a) Foreign Affairs (c) Police
(b) Police (d) Education
(c) Agriculture
(d) Irrigation Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm139
140. Which of the following will come under concurrent
list?
(a) Police
136. If it is desired in India to switch over to unitary
system of government from the present federal (b) Trade and commerce
structure such a change can be brought about by (c) Education
(a) A simple majority of the members of the (d) Banking

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm140 145. Which of the following country is an example of

“coming together federation”?
(a) U.S.A
(b) India
141. Both the union as well as the state governments (c) Spain
can make laws on the subjects mentioned in
(d) Belgium
___________ list.
(a) Union
(b) Concurrent Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm145
(c) State
(d) Both(1)and(2)
146. Consider the following statements on the practice of
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm141 federalism in India. Identify those which hold true
for decentralisation after 1992.
A. Local governments did not have any power or
resources of their own.
142. On which subjects both the union as well as the state B. It became constitutionally mandatory to hold
government can make laws? regular elections to local government bodies.
(a) Concurrent List C. The state governments are required to share
(b) Union List some powers and revenue with local government
(c) State List bodies.
D. No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for
(d) none of these
scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other
backward classes.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm142 (a) B and C
(b) A and C
(c) A and D
(d) B and D
143. Which government has the power to legislate on
“residuary” subjects in India
(a) Union Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm146
(b) state
(c) both
(d) none
147. Some states in India has special powers or status as
compared to other states and this is evident from
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm143 which article of the constitution which deals with the
special status of north eastern states?
(a) A - 356
(b) A - 370
144. The Union List includes subjects such as: (c) A - 368
(a) Education, forests, trade unions, marriages, (d) A - 371
adoption and succession.
(b) Police, trade, commerce, agriculture and
irrigation. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm147
(c) Residuary subjects like computer software.
(d) Defence, foreign affairs, banking, currency,
communications.
148. Which territories in India enjoy the powers of a state?
(a) Chandigarh
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm144 (b) Lakshadweep
(c) Capital city of Delhi
(d) Andhra pradesh

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm148 the republic of India this question is required ?

(a) The Dominion of India
(b) The constitution of India
(c) The government of India
149. The _____ plays an important role in overseeing
(d) The prime minister of India
the implementation of constitutional provisions and
procedures.
(a) Judiciary Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm153
(b) federation
(c) money
(d) none of these
154. In 1947, the boundaries of several old States of India
were changed in order to create new States. This was
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm149 done_________.
(a) to ensure that people who speaks the same
language lived in the same State.
(b) to please the political parties
150. The Centre and the State governments raise the (c) so that people of same religion can live in the
resources to meet the requirements of administration same state
by ____.
(d) to avoid communal clashes
(a) Pursuing business activities
(b) Forming cooperatives
(c) Levying taxes Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm154
(d) setting pubic sector undertaking(PSU)
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm150 155. In_____, the boundaries of several old states of

India were changed in order to create new states.
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
151. The real success of federalism in India can be (c) 1960
attributed to the nature of _____ in our country.
(d) 1957
(a) Religious politics
(b) politics based on casteism
(c) Money politics Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm155
(d) Democratic politics
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm151 156. Which of the following Indian states were formed to
recognise differences based on culture, ethnicity or
geography rather than on linguistic basis?
A. Nagaland
152. When did democracy began its journey in India? B. Uttarakhand
(a) 1974 C. Jharkhand
(b) 1947 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) 1990 (a) A and B only
(d) 1960 (b) B and C only
(c) A and C only
(d) A, B and C
153. What was the name of independent India between
August 15 1947 to January 26 1950 before it became

157. The formation of linguistic States has actually made (b) 70

the country, more ____. (c) 20
(a) divided (d) 40
(b) complex
(c) united
(d) disagreeing
162. There are ___ other languages recognised as
Scheduled Languages by the Constitution.
(a) 21
158. When the demand for the ormation of States on the (b) 31
basis of language was raised, some national leaders (c) 41
______ that it would lead to the _____ of the (d) 11
country.
(a) feared, disintegration
(b) integration, endured Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm162
(c) disintegration, assured
(d) assured, integration
163. A candidate in an examination conducted for the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm158 Central Government positions may opt to take the
examination in ____.
(a) Hindi

(b) English
(c) French
159. A second test for Indian federation is the_____ (d) Any of these languages
policy.
(a) language
(b) food Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm163
(c) house
(d) all of these
164. Much of the government work takes place in the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm159 ____ of the concerned State.
(a) English
(b) Hindi
(c) official language
160. What is not the part of language policy of the (d) any language
Government of India?
(a) No national language
(b) Scheduled languages Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm164
(c) Spread of Hindi with a cautious approach
(d) ban the use of English
165. According to the Indian Constitution in which year
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm160 English was to be ended as the language for official
purpose?
(a) 1950
(b) 1947
161. Hindi was identified as the official language. But (c) 1965
Hindi is the mother tongue of only about ___ (d) 1999
percent of Indians.
(a) 50

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm165 170. What is the present coalition government in India?

(a) National Democratic Alliance
(b) Indian National Congress
(c) Bharatiya Janata Party
166. The parties that ruled at the centre undermined the
(d) all of these
power of states because:
(a) there was no power sharing
(b) there was no right to state governments Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm170
(c) ruling party at the state level was different
(d) state governments were ruled and controlled by
rival parties
171. Federal power-sharing is more effective today than in
the past mainly because
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm166 (a) It is the age of coalition governments at the centre
(b) states today are more conscious of their rights
(c) centre today depends more on states
(d) There are more powerful leaders at the state
167. In those days, the Central Government would
level
often misuse the Constitution to dismiss the State
governments that were controlled by rival parties.
the time was____ Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm171
(a) before 1990
(b) after 1990
(c) before 1947
172. Federal power-sharing is ____ effective today than
(d) after 2016
it was in the early years after the Constitution came
into force.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm167 (a) less
(b) more
(c) no more
(d) not
168. Which period saw the rise of regional political parties
in many states of our country ?
(a) After 1990 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm172
(b) Before 1990
(c) After 1947
(d) Before 1950
173. How many languages are there in the 2011 census of
India?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm168 (a) more than 1300
(b) less than 1300
(c) more than2000
(d) more than 5000
169. The state governments were rescued in power sharing
by the ______.
(a) constitution Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm173
(b) Judiciary
(c) parliament
(d) president
174. Languages like Bhojpuri, Magadhi, Bundelkhandi,
Chhattisgarhi, Rajasthani and many others were
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm169 grouped together under _____.
(a) Hindi
(b) English

(c) Marathi Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm178

(d) Rajasthani
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm174 179. When power is taken away from central and state
governments and given to local government, it is
called _____.
(a) centralisation
175. After grouping of languages, the Census found
(b) federation
___ major languages. Of these ___ languages are
now included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian (c) government local
Constitution and are therefore called ‘Scheduled (d) Decentralisation
Languages’.
(a) 121, 22 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm179
(b) 22, 167
(c) 148, 21
(d) 126, 11
180. The case for local self-government rests on the
premise that _____.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm175 (a) It makes for better administration
(b) It facilitates a non-partisan approach
(c) It is a training ground for democracy
176. The largest language, Hindi, is the mother tongue of (d) It reduces corruption
only about ____percent of Indians.
(a) 66 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm180
(b) 88
(c) 44
(d) 89
181. In which year a major step towards decentralization
was taken up?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm176 (a) 1985
(b) 1991
(c) 1992
177. As for_____, only 0.02 percent of Indians recorded (d) 1993
it as their mother tongue.
(a) Hindi Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm181
(b) Kashmiri
(c) Kannada
(d) English
182. In Panchayati Raj system, ____of the seats have
been reserved for women.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm177 (a) 2/3rd
(b) 1/3rd
(c) 1/4th
178. How many countries have more population than (d) 1/5th
Uttar Pradesh?
(a) 4 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm182
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
183. Which institution has been created in each State of

India to conduct Panchayat and Municipal elections? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm187

(a) SAC
(b) MAC
(c) PEC
188. A few Gram Panchayats are grouped together to
(d) SEC
form what is usually called _____.
(a) Panchayat samiti
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm183 (b) Block samiti
(c) Mandal samiti
184. A rural local government is popularly known by the
name of _____. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm188
(a) Panchayati Raj
(b) Municipal corporation
(c) Municipal council
189. All the panchayat samitis or mandals in a district
(d) ward councils
together constitute the
(a) Municipality
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm184 (b) Zila panchayat
(c) Zila parishad
(d) none of these
185. A council consisting of several ward members, often
called panch, and a president or Sarpanch is called Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm189
____.
(a) Gram Sabha
(b) Gram Panchayat
(c) Gram Parishad 190. Municipal chairperson is the political head of the
municipality. In a municipal corporation such an
(d) none of these
office-bearer is called the ____.
(a) sarpanch
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm185 (b) city head
(c) Mayor
(d) sheriff
186. The Gram Panchayat is divided into wards and each
ward is represented by a _____. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm190
(a) Chiefminister
(b) Panch
(c) President
191. The head of the Municipal Corporation is the
(d) all of these
_____.
(a) Mayor
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm186 (b) sarpanch
(c) Chairman
(d) Corporator
187. According to the State Panchayat Raj Acts, the
____must meet at least two to four times in a year. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm191
(a) Gram Sabha
(b) Gram Panchayat
(c) Mandal samiti
192. Who was the political head of municipality?
(d) Panchayat samiti
(a) Mayor

(b) The municipal chairperson Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm196

(c) Sarpanch
(d) Any member of village
197. In which list of the Indian constitution does education

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm192 come
(a) Concurrent list
(b) State list
(c) Union list
193. The experiment of combining the decentralisation
with participative democracy was carried out in (4)None of these
____.
(a) Sao Paulo Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm197
(b) Porto Alegre
(c) New York
(d) San Diego
198. Who is the guardian of the Constitution of India
(a) The Supreme Court of India
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm193 (b) The government of India
(c) The constitution of India
(d) The District Court of India
194. Which country has carried out an extraordinary
experiment that combines both, decentralisation and Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm198
participative democracy?
(a) India
(b) Brazil
(c) USA 199. At which place India conducted its first nuclear test.
(d) UK (a) Gujarat’s Pokhran
(b) Rajasthan’s Pokhran
(c) Delhi’s Pokhran
(d) Mumbai’s Pokhran
195. Porto Alegre is a popular city of which country?
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) USA 200. Which is the originally provided system of
(d) UK constitution of India
(a) five-tier system
(b) four-tier system
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm195 (c) two-tier system
(d) one-tier system
196. Now there are more than 10 lakhs elected women Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm200
representatives in rural and urban local bodies in
India. This is possible because of _____.
(a) Growing population
(b) Women’s movements 201. Where is the original Indian Constitution?
(c) Reservation of one-third seats for women (a) In Rajsthan Library
(d) The policies of political parties (b) In State Library of the Parliament
(c) In Central Library of the Jammu

(d) In Central Library of the Parliament 206. Who Ruled union territories?
(a) the prime minister
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm201 (b) the president
(c) the governor
(d) the union government
202. What do we call to the government at block level?

(a) Lok sabha
(b) Gram sabha
(c) Panchayat Samiti
(d) Vidhan Parishad 207. Who is known as a mayor?
(a) the head of a country
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm202 (b) the head of a municipal government
(c) the head of a gram
(d) the head of a zila
203. Which local government works at district level

(a) Rajya sabha
(b) Zilla Parishad
(c) Panchayat Samiti
(d) Lok sabha 208. What is Zila Parishad?
(a) It works at the street level
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm203 (b) It works at the state level
(c) It works at the district level
(d) It works at the nation level
204. Name any Indian state which enjoys a special status.

(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Gujarat
(c) Delhi
(d) Rajasthan 209. How many languages have been declared scheduled
languages
(a) 22
(b) 11
(c) 33
(d) 26
205. What are Union Territory means?
(a) a small administrative unit that is ruled by the
state
(b) a small administrative unit that is ruled by the
union
(c) a small administrative unit that is ruled by the 210. The _______plays an important role in overseeing
other nation the implementation of constitutional provisions and
(d) a small administrative unit that is ruled by the procedures
local government (a) Judiciary
(b) executive
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm205 (c) legislature
(d) all of these

211. Panchayat Samiti is an intermediate body that exists (d) Punjab

at _____ level.
(a) block
(b) state
(c) nation
(d) all of these
216. On the subject of income tax _____.
(a) the union government has more powers than the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm211 state government
(b) the state government have more powers than the
union government
212. Which of the following is not a scheduled language (c) Both the union and the state governments have
of India? equal powers
(a) bodo (d) only the union government has powers
(b) Bangali
(c) Bhojpuri Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm216
(d) Nepali
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm212 217. A government formed by an alliance of two or more

political parties is called _____
(a) Autocratic government
213. The report of the state’s reorganization commission (b) Totalitarian
(SRC) was implemented on (c) Coalition
(a) 1 November 1956 (d) Oligarchy
(b) 2 October 1957
(c) 2 October 1956 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm217
(d) 1 November 1957
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm213 Don’t take printout of this file because solution

214. Identify the personality who said, “it is the formation full solutions of all MCQs in print form.
of linguistic states that has allowed India to escape
what might have been a worse fate still”.
(a) Pt.Jawahar lal nehru whatsapp at 8905629969.
(b) Bipin Chndra Pal Purchase Hard Book
(c) Dr.Rajendra Prasad
(d) Ramachandra Guha
218. Which one of the following is true regarding a
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm214 coalition government?
(a) Only two parties for man alliance and contest
elections
(b) Several parties compete for power
215. Which of the following regions did not become part (c) The government is formed by two or more parties
of Indian Union in August, 1947? coming together
(a) Goa
(d) Several parties form an alliance and compete for
(b) Assam power
(c) Madhya Pradesh

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm218 222. What is true regarding sources of revenue in a federal

system?
(a) States have no financial powers orindependent
sources of revenue.
219. Which of the following is incorrect regarding a (b) States are dependent on revenue or funds on the
unitary government? central government.
1. There is either only one level of government (c) Sources of revenue for each level of government
or the sub-units are subordinate to the central are clearly specified to ensure its financial
government. autonomy.
2. The central government can pass on orders to
(d) States have no financial autonomy.
the provincial government.
3. The powers of state governments are guaranteed
by the Constitution. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm222
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
223. Which one of the following is not an important
(c) Only 3
feature of federalism?
(d) None of the above (a) Each level of government has its own area of
Jurisdiction.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm219 (b) The fundamental provisions of the constitution
cannot be changed unilaterally by any one level
of government.
(c) Government has two or more than two levels.
220. Which of the following is incorrect regarding a federal (d) Courts have the power to change the constitution.
government?
(a) Federalism is a system of government in which
the power is divided between a central authority Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm223
and various constituent units of the country.
(b) Federation has only one level of government.
(c) One is the government for the entire country
224. What are the kinds of routes through which
that is usually responsible for a few subjects of
federations have been formed?
common national interest.
(a) One route involves independent states coming
(d) The others are governments at the level of together on their own to form a bigger unit.
provinces or states that look after much of the
(b) The second route is where a large country decides
day-to-day administering of their state.
to divide its powers between the states and the
national government.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm220 (c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
221. Which of the following is not a key features of Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm224

federalism?
(a) Different tiers of government have their own
jurisdiction.
(b) Changes in constitution require consent of both 225. In a ‘Holding together federation’:
levels. 1. A large country divides its power between
constituent states and the national government.
(c) Courts have power to interpret constitution and
2. The Central government tends to be more
powers of the different levels.
powerful vis-a-vis the States.
(d) Sources of revenue for only central level are 3. Constituent states have unequal powers.
specified. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) A, B, and C
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm221 (b) A and B

(c) B and C Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm229

(d) A and C
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm225 230. A third tier of federalism was added in the form of
_____ and ____.
(a) Residuary and Union list
(b) Panchayats and Municipalities
226. What are the dual objectives of federalism:
1. Safeguard and promote unity of the country (c) Central and State
2. Responsible for the rise of regionalism (d) None of the above
3. Division of horizontal power
4. Accommodate regional diversity Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm230
(a) A and B
(b) A and D
(c) B and C
(d) A, B and D 231. What type of distribution of legislative powers does
the Indian constitution provides for?
(a) Single-fold
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm226 (b) Two-fold
(c) Three-fold
(d) Four-fold
227. Which one of the following group of countries are an
example of ‘coming together’ federation? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm231
(a) India, USA, Belgium
(b) USA, Switzerland, Australia
(c) India, Belgium, Spain
(d) USA, SPain, Australia 232. Which of the following pair of subject is incorrect?
(a) Police and agriculture
(b) Banking and currency
(c) Computer software and trade unions
(d) Marriage and adoption
228. Which one of the following countries is good examples Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm232
of ‘holding together federations’ ?
(a) USA
(b) Switzerland
(c) Australia 233. In case of a clash between the laws made by the
(d) India centre and a state on a subject in the concurrent list
______over the state law.
(a) The state law prevails.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm228 (b) The central law prevails.
(c) Both the laws prevail within their respective
jurisdictions.
229. Which one of the following countries has the federal (d) The Supreme Court has to intervene to decide.
form of government?
(a) Egypt Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm233
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Australia
(d) England
234. Both the union and the state government can make

laws on the subjects mentioned in the: Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm238

(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
239. Who among the following is called political head of
the state at the state level?
(a) Chief Minister
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm234 (b) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha
(c) Governor
(d) President
235. On which of the following subjects can both the
Union as well as the state governments make laws? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm239
(a) Communication
(b) Defence
(c) Education
240. The Constitution of India-
(d) Agriculture
(a) Divided powers between centre and states in
three lists.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm235 (b) Divided powers between centre and states in two
lists.
(c) Listed the powers of the centre and left the
undefined powers to the state.
236. Subjects like computer software comes in the
(d) Specified the powers of the states and left the
_____.
residuary powers undefined.
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm240
(d) Residuary List
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm236 241. The Union List includes subjects such as:
(a) Education, forests, trade unions, marriages,
adoption and succession.
237. Which one of the following subjects is included in the irrigation.
concurrent list? (c) Residuary subjects like computer software.
(a) Banking
(b) Trade communications.
(c) Police
(d) Trade union
242. The place of Rajasthan where India conducted its
nuclear tests is
238. Which of the following is not a subject of the Union (a) Calicut
List? (b) Pokhran
(a) Foreign affairs (c) Kavaratti
(b) Currency (d) Karaikal
(c) Banking
(d) Law and order

243. The real success of federalism in India can be Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm247

attributed to ________.
(a) Majoritarian measures adopted by India
(b) Social and economic differences in our country
(c) The nature of democratic politics in our country 248. Which one of the following pair of language is
not included in the Eighth schedule of the Indian
(d) The strong government at the centre
constitution?
(a) Pali and Tulu
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm243 (b) Bodo and Maithili
(c) Nepali
(d) Sindhi and Urdu
244. Which of the following was the first major test of
democratic politics for India after independence? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm248
(a) Abolition of privy purse
(b) Nationalisation of banks
(c) Creation of linguistic states
249. Much of the official work done in the state is in which
(d) Reservations based on caste
of the following language?
(a) Hindi
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm244 (b) English
(c) Both Hindi and English
(d) Official language of the concerned state
245. Linguistic reorganisation of state in India took place
in which year? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm249
(a) 1956
(b) 1976
(c) 1965
250. Which language is recognised as the national
(d) 1992
language by the Constitution of India?
(a) Hindi
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm245 (b) English
(c) Tamil
(d) None of these
246. The state of ________ is not a linguistic state.
(a) Tamil Nadu Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm250
(b) Gujarat
(c) Karnataka
(d) Jharkhand
251. Choose the correct statement regarding language
policy of the Indian Government.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm246 (a) English is our national language
(b) Citizens are free to choose any language as
national language
(c) Hindi is our national language
247. How many languages are included the eighth schedule
(d) Constitution of India did not declare any
of the Indian constitution other than hindi ?
language as national language
(a) 23
(b) 21
(c) 22 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm251
(d) 24

252. Which period saw the rise of regional political parties (2) Local people have better idea where to spend
in many states of the country? money.
(a) Period after 1990 (3) People directly cannot participate in decision
(b) Period after 2000 making.
(c) Period after 1980 (a) (1) and (2)
(d) Period after 1970 (b) (2) and (3)
(c) Only 2
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm252 (d) All of the above
(a) Village Panchayats
(b) State government 257. Consider the following statements on the practice of
(c) Local self-government federalism in India. Identify those which hold true
(d) Zila Parishad for decentralisation after 1992.
(1) Local governments did not have any power or
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm253 (2) It became constitutionally mandatory to hold
regular elections to local government bodies.
(3) The state governments are required to share
some powers and revenue with local government
254. When power is taken away from Central and State
bodies.
governments and given to local government, it is
called _________? (4) No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for
(a) Decentralisation scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other
backward classes.
(b) Empowerment
(a) 1 , 2 and 3
(c) Devolution
(b) 1 and 3
(d) Demarcation
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
255. Which of the following is the advantage of the local
government in India?
(a) It has depended the democracy in our country 258. The number of seats reserved for women in the
(b) It has uprooted the democracy at local level in panchayats and municipalities is
our country (a) One-fourth
(c) It has failed in conducting the regular elections (b) One-third
of local bodies (c) Half
(d) None of the above (d) One-fifth
256. Identify which one is the basic idea behind 259. The system of Panchayati Raj involves:
decentralisation. (a) Village, State and Union levels
(1) Local problem can be better settled at local (b) Village, District and State levels
level. (c) Village and State levels

(d) Village, Block and District levels been created in each State to conduct.
panchayat and municipal elections.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm259 (a) The state election commission
(b) The local election commission
(c) The chief election commission
(d) The election commission
260. Which one is not the part of 3 tier system of rural
local government?
(a) Municipalities Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm264
(b) Village Panchayat
(c) Block Samiti
(d) Zila Parishad 265. Find the odd one out -
Column A Column B
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm260 (a) Union of India Prime minister
(b) State Governor
(c) Municipal corporation Mayor
261. How is Panchayat Samiti formed?
(a) By most members of the zilla parishad (d) Gram panchayat Sarpanch
(b) By a few gram panchayats when are grouped
together Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm265
(c) By all MPs and MLAs in the block
(d) None of the above Dominion of India (1947–1950) The Government of
India, whose legal name is “Union of India” as per
Article 300 of the Indian constitution. The Prime
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm261 Minister of India, as addressed in the Constitution
of India, is the chief of the government, chief
adviser to the president, head of the council of
ministers and the leader of the majority party in the
262. Who is the head of Zila Parishad?
parliament. The prime minister leads the executive
(a) Sarpanch
of the Government of India. Prime Minister runs the
(b) Commissioner Mandal country. *Governors are responsible for implementing
(c) Zila Parishad Chairperson state laws and overseeing the operation of the state
(d) Mayor executive branch. Municipal corporation officer is
called the mayor. Each village, or a group of villages
in some States, has a gram panchayat. This is a
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm262 council consisting of several ward members, often
called panch, and a president or sarpanch.
263. Who is the political head of municipal corporation? 266. Match the following and choose correct option.
(a) District magistrate Column A Column B
(b) Mayor
(c) Deputy mayor A. Gram I. Gram panchayat group
(d) Governor sabha together to form this unit.
B. Gram II. It reviews the performance
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm263 panchayat of the gram panchayat.
C. Zila III. Decision making body for
parishad the entire village.
264. An independent institution called ______ has

D. Mandals IV. Mandals in a district (d) France, Germany and India

together constitute zilla .
parishad Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm270
(a) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(b) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 271. In federal system, central government cannot order
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I the:
(a) principal
(b) local government
(c) state government
267. Belgium shifted from a unitary form of government Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm271

to:
(a) democratic
(b) federal
(c) authoritarian 272. A system of government in which power is divided
(d) none of the above between a central authority and various constituent
unit of the country is called____
(a) Federalism
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm267 (b) Communalism
(c) Socialism
(d) Democracy
268. Which type of government does the Belgium have?
(a) Federal Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm272
(b) Communist
(c) Unitary
(d) Central
273. Power to interpret the constitution is with the:
(a) courts
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm268 (b) judiciary
(c) state government
269. In federalism, power is divided between various
constituent units and: Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm273
(a) central authority
(b) states
(d) none of the above 274. In Unitary form of government
(a) all the power is divided between the centre/
union and the state provincial government.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm269 (b) all the power is with the citizens.
(c) State Government has all the powers
(d) power is concentrated with the Central
270. Which countries follow the unitary system of Government.
government?
(a) Belgium, Spain and India Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm274
(b) USA, Japan and Belgium
(c) France, Japan and China

275. The first and major test for democratic politics in 280. The state which violently demanded that the use of
our country was English for official purpose should be continued, is
(a) caste problem (a) Kerala
(b) language problem (b) Karnataka
(c) problems related to union territories (c) Tamil Nadu
(d) creation of linguistic state (d) Andhra Pradesh
276. Indian official language is: 281. To make India a strong federation, we need:
(a) Hindi (a) written constitution
(b) English (b) rigid constitution
(c) Urdu (c) independent judiciary
(d) None of these (d) all of the above
277. The municipal corporation officers are called: 282. Major step towards decentralisation in India was
(a) Mayors taken up in
(b) MLAs (a) 1992
(c) Sarpanchs (b) 1993
(d) none of these (c) 1991
(d) 1990
278. Who can make laws relating to the subjects

mentioned in the Union list? Don’t take printout of this file because solution
(a) Local Government is not given. You can purchase hard book from
(b) State Government Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/
(c) Union Government full solutions of all MCQs in print form.
(d) State and Union
Purchase Hard Book
279. Federations have been formed with the two kinds of:
283. Who has special power in administering the Union
(a) states
Territories in India?
(b) routes (a) Central Government
(c) people (b) Chief Minister
(d) none of the above (c) President
(d) Governor

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm283 (d) 25
284. Who is the head of urban local government?
(a) Sarpanch
(b) Ward commissioner 289. Which one of the following States in India has its
(c) Mukhiya own Constitution?
(d) Mayor (a) Uttarakhand
(b) Madhya Pradesh
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm284 (c) J and K
(d) Nagaland
285. When power is taken away from state governments

and is given to local government, it is called
(a) Decentralisation
(b) Centralisation 290. In India’s federal system, the state governments have
(c) Panchayat Samiti the power to legislate on all those subjects which are
(d) Federalism included in the:
(a) Union list
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm285 (b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) Residuary subjects
286. The number of seats reserved for women in the

panchayats and municipalities is
(a) one-fourth
(b) one-third
(c) half 291. The Constitution of India
(d) one-fifth (a) divided powers between centre and states in
three lists.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm286 (b) divided powers between centre and states in two
lists.
(c) listed the powers of the states and left the
undefined powers to the state.
287. Holding together federations are not found in (d) Specified the pow ers of the states and left the
(a) India residuary powers with the centre.
(b) Spain
(c) Belgium Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm291
(d) Australia
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm287 292. In case of a clash between the laws made by the
centre and a state on a subject in the
concurrent list:
288. The number of Scheduled Languages in India is (a) the state law prevails.
(a) 21 (b) the central law prevails.
(b) 22 (c) both the laws prevail within their respective
(c) 23 jurisdictions.

(d) the Supreme Court has to intervene to decide. (c) Period after 1980
(d) Period after 1970

(a) Village Panchayats 297. Which language is recognised as the national
(b) State government language by the Constitution of India?
(c) Local self-government (a) Hindi
(d) Zila Parishad (b) English
(c) Tamil
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm293 (d) None of these
294. What is true regarding sources of revenue in a federal
system?
(a) States have no financial powers or independent 298. Which of the following subjects is not included in the
sources of revenue. Union list?
(b) States are dependent on revenue or funds on the (a) Defence
central government. (b) Foreign affairs
(c) Sources of revenue for each level of government (c) Police
are clearly specified to ensure its financial (d) Banking
autonomy.
(d) States have no financial autonomy.
299. Which of the following is not an example of ‘holding

together’ federations?
295. Which of the following is incorrect regarding a (a) India
unitary government? (b) Spain
(a) There is either only one level of government
(c) Belgium
or the sub-units are subordinate to the central
government. (d) Switzerland
(b) The central government can pass on orders to
the provincial government. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm299
(c) A state government is conservable to central
government.
(d) The powers of state governments are guaranteed
by the Constitution. 300. Which level of government in India has the power to
legislate on the ‘residuary’ subjects?
(a) Union government
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm295 (b) State government
(c) Local self-government
(d) Both a and b
296. Which period saw the rise of regional political parties
in many states of the country? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm300
(a) Period after 1990
(b) Period after 2000

301. Which among the following are examples of ‘Coming (c) 2 and 3
together federations’ ? (d) 1, 2 and 4
(a) India, Spain and Belgium
(b) India, USA and Spain
(c) USA, Switzerland and Australia
(d) Belgium and Sri Lanka
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm301 305. ____ is a system of government in which the power

is divided between a central authority and various
constituent units of the country?
(a) Dictatorship
302. The Union List includes subjects such as: (b) Unitary system
(a) Education, forests, trade unions, marriages, (c) Monarchy
adoption and succession. (d) Federalism
irrigation.
(c) Residuary subjects like computer software.
communications.
306. How many levels of government does a federation
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm302 usually have?
(a) Single
(b) Two
(c) Three
303. Here are three reactions to the language policy (d) Multiple
followed in India. Which of the following holds true
in the case of India?
(a) The policy of accommodation has strengthened Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm306
national unity.
(b) Language based states have divided us by making
everyone conscious of their language.
307. How many countries in the world have a federal
(c) The language policy has only helped to
political system?
consolidate the dominance of English over all
(a) 42
other languages.
(b) 33
(c) 25
(d) 18
304. Which of the following statements are correct in a

Holding together federation?
1. A large country divides its power between 308. In a federal system, the central government ____
constituent states and the national government. order the state government to do something?
2. The Central government tends to be more (a) Can
powerful vis-a-vis the States. (b) Cannot
3. All the constituent states usually have equal (c) May
powers. (d) A and C
4. Constituent states have unequal powers.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm308
(b) 1 and 4

309. State government has powers of its own for between the constituent states and the national
which____. government. It is called ‘holding together’ federations.
(a) It is answerable to Central government Which countries practice this system?
(b) It is not answerable to Central government (a) India, Pakistan, Italy
(c) It is answerable to the people (b) India, Spain, Belgium
(d) b and c (c) Canada, Italy, Germany
(d) Australia, Canada, USA
310. Different tiers of government govern the same

citizens, but each tier has its own 314. Which one comes under the Union List in India?
____ in specific matters. (a) Police
(a) Administration (b) Agriculture
(b) Jurisdiction (c) Banking
(c) Execution (d) Trade
(d) Policies
315. Which one comes under the State List in India?

311. Can the fundamental provisions of the constitution (a) Defence
be unilaterally changed by one level of government (b) Currency
in federalism? (c) Communications
(a) Yes (d) Police
(b) No
(c) May be in special provisions
(d) (a) and (c)
316. On which given subject can both the Union as well
as the State Governments make laws?
(a) Currency
312. When independent states come together on their own (b) Defence
to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty (c) Trade Unions
and retaining identity they can increase their security. (d) Agriculture
This type of ‘coming together’ federations are
practiced by which countries?
(a) Switzerland and Canada Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm316
(b) USA and Britain
(c) USA, Australia and Switzerland
(d) Britain, Canada, USA
313. Where a large country decides to divide its power
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317. What is meant by residuary subjects? to be first passed by both the Houses of Parliament
(a) Subjects under union list with at least ___ majority?
(b) Subjects under state list (a) 50 %
(c) Subject under both state and union list (b) Three- fourth
(d) Subjects which are not under any list (c) Two- third
(d) 25%
318. Give an example of a subject under the residuary

list? 322. The creation of ___ was the first and a major test
(a) Currency for democratic politics in our country
(b) Irrigation (a) States according to religion
(c) Computer software (b) States according to culture
(d) Commerce (c) Linguistic states
(d) States according to topography
319. States such as Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh

and Mizoram enjoy special powers under certain 323. On which basis were states like Nagaland,
provisions of the Constitution of India (Article 371), Uttarakhand and Jharkhand created?
under which context do they get these provisions? (a) On the basis of language
(a) Because of trade and commerce (b) On the basis of culture, ethnicity
(b) Protection of land rights of indigenous people (c) On the basis of religion
(c) Special provisions for agriculture (d) On the basis of commerce and trade
(d) For Defence purposes
324. Hindi is the mother tongue of only about ___

320. Give one feature of Union territories? percent of Indians?
(a) They have powers of a state (a) 60%
(b) They enjoy independent power (b) 30%
(c) The Central Government has special powers in (c) 40%
running these areas. (d) 50%
(d) These are areas which are too small to become
an independent State but which can be merged
with any of the existing States Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm324
325. Besides Hindi, there are ___ other languages
recognised as Scheduled
Languages by the Constitution?
321. Sharing of power between the Union Government (a) 21
and the State governments is basic to the structure (b) 23
of the Constitution. The Parliament cannot on its
(c) 27
own change this arrangement. Any change to it has

(d) 24 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm329
330. Consider the following statements :
1. In a federation the powers of the federal and
provincial governments are clearly demarcated.
326. When was the beginning of the era of Coalition
2. India is a federation because the powers of the
Governments at the Centre which led to a new culture
Union and State Governments are specified in the
of power sharing and respect for the autonomy of
Constitution and they have exclusive jurisdiction
State Governments?
on their respective subjects.
(a) 1980s
3. Sri Lanka is a federation because the country is
(b) 1990s divided into provinces.
(c) 1870s 4. India is no longer a federation because some
(d) 2000 onward powers of the states have been devolved to the
local government bodies.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm326 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
327. Census of India held in 2011, recorded more than
___distinct languages which people mentioned as
their mother tongues?
(a) 200
(b) 500
(c) 1200 331. Federal power sharing in India needs another tier of
(d) 1300 government below that of the State governments, it
is called____.
(a) State offices
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm327 (b) District government
(c) Local government
(d) Tehsils
328. As for English, only ___ percent Indians recorded
it as their mother tongue?
(a) 20%
(b) 5%
(c) 0.5 %
(d) 0.02% 332. When was the constitution amended to make the
third-tier of democracy more powerful and effective?
(a) 1990
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm328 (b) 1992
(c) 1989
(d) 1993
329. The distinguishing feature of a federal government is:
(a) National government gives some powers to the
provincial governments.
(b) Power is distributed among the legislature,
executive and judiciary.
(c) Elected officials exercise supreme power in the 333. In the local government elections at least _____ of
government. all positions are reserved for women?
(d) Governmental power is divided between different (a) One - third
levels of government. (b) Two- third

(c) 50% federation.

(d) 25% Reason : A big country divides power between
constituent states and national government.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm333 explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
334. Both the union as well as the state governments
can make laws on the subjects mentioned in (d) Both A and R are false.
___________ list.
(a) Union Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm337
(b) Concurrent
(c) state
(d) Both A and B
338. Assertion : Hindi is identified as the only official
language of India.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm334 Reason : It helped in creating supremacy of Hindi
speaking people over others.
explanation of A.
335. Assertion (A): Federations that are formed by (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
‘holding together’ do not give equal power to its explanation of A.
constituent units.
Reason (R): Some states are granted special powers.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (d) Both A and R are false.
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm338
explanation of A.
(d) A is false but R is true.
339. Assertion : It is very simple to make the changes in
the basic structure of the constitution.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm335 Reason : Both the houses have power to amend the
constitution independently.
explanation of A.
336. Assertion : The Indian Union is not based on the (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
principles of federalism. explanation of A.
Reason : The Constitution of India declared India as
a Union of States.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (d) Both A and R are false.
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm339
explanation of A.
(d) A is false but R is true.
340. Assertion : India is a federation.
Reason : Power resides with the central authority.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm336 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
explanation of A.
337. Assertion : Belgium and Spain has ‘holding together’

(d) Both A and R are false. 344. Assertion : Zilla Parishad Chairperson is the political
head of the zilla parishad.
Reason : Mayor is the head of municipalities.
explanation of A.
341. Assertion : Coalition government is formed during explanation of A.
dearth of coal in the country. (c) A is true but R is false.
Reason : It helps in overcoming coal crisis. (d) Both A and R are false.
explanation of A.
explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are false. 345. Assertion : A major step towards decentralization
was taken in 1992 by amending the constitution.
Reason : Constitution was amended to make the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm341 third tier of democracy more powerful and effective.
explanation of A.
342. Assertion : The subjects which are not included
explanation of A.
in Union List, State List and Concurrent List are
considered as residuary subjects. (c) A is true but R is false.
Reason : The subjects included that came after (d) Both A and R are false.
constitution was made and thus could not be
classified.
explanation of A.
explanation of A. 346. Assertion : Third-tier of government is local
(c) A is true but R is false. government.
(d) Both A and R are false. Reason : It made democracy weak.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm342 explanation of A.
explanation of A.
343. Assertion : India has a federal system. (d) Both A and R are false.
Reason : Under a unitary system, either there is
only one level of government or the subunits are
subordinate to central government. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm346
explanation of A.
347. Assertion : Power is taken away from Central and
explanation of A.
State Governments and given to local government
(c) A is true but R is false. and it is known as decentralization
(d) Both A and R are false. Reason : Large number of problems and issues are
best settled at the local level and it is the basic idea
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm343 behind decentralisation.
explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 349. The below cartoon clearly state that :
explanation of A.
348. The picture portrays about the :
(a) Uneven Dispersal of power between the Centre (a) Perils of running a coalition Govt.
and State. (b) A coalition govt have more work to do.
(b) Lack of harmonization between Centre and (c) The best way to run a democratic country like
State. India is Coalition govt.
(c) The states plead for more power. (d) Coalition govt increases the overall efficiency of
(d) Demand for power by the states can never be the Govt and hence shall be welcomed.
met.
350. Identify the kind of administrative system :

Don’t take printout of this file because solution • It is prevailing only in 25 countries and consists
is not given. You can purchase hard book from of two-level Government.
Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/ • USA is known for the oldest country running
this system successfully.
full solutions of all MCQs in print form. • One level of govt under this system is for the
To Purchase hard book click below or entire country and another for states that runs
whatsapp at 8905629969. day to day administrative work.
• Both of this level of govt enjoys their power
Purchase Hard Book independent of each other.
(a) Unitary
(b) Federalism
(c) Both
(d) None of these

351. Identify the kind of legislative power distribution list • The Central Government has special powers in
by the Constitution of India : running these areas.
• It includes the subject of national interest. (a) Union Territories
• Provides uniformity throughout the country. (b) Small States
• The Union govt alone has the power to make (c) Central Institute
laws related to the subjects of this list.
(d) Both B and C
• Banking, Defence and Communication are some
of the subjects under this list.
(a) State List Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm354
(b) Union List
(c) Residuary List
(d) All of these
355. Arrange the following in order of “Coming together
Federations” formation system.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm351 1. Various Independent states come together.
2. A bigger unit or federation is formed by pooling
sovereignty and retaining identity.
3. Negotiation among states begins
352. Identify the unit of the Indian Union : 4. Examples of Such Federations are : USA and
• These units are generally very small in size. Australia.
• These cannot be merged with states due to some (a) 1, 3, 2, 4
reasons. (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
• These units have very small powers. (c) 2, 3, 4, 1
• Examples are Chandigarh, Dadar and nagar
(d) 4, 3, 1, 2
havelli.
(a) States
(b) Villages Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm355
(c) Union Territories
(d) Central Government
356. Arrange the following stages or condition for the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm352 formation of an Coalition Govt.
1. No single party get majority to form the Govt in
centre or in State.
2. All Major and some regional parties enter into
353. Identify the institution - alliance.
• It resolves disputes between the states and state 3. After 1990, there was a rise in the regional
and centre. parties.
• It interprets the constitution. 4. Regional Parties alliance with the national
• It acts like an empire and decides neutrally. party led to power sharing and respect for the
(a) Media Autonomy of state Govt.
(b) Executive (a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(c) Umpire (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) Judiciary (c) 3, 1, 2, 4
(d) 4, 3, 1, 2
354. Identify the following

• Units of the Indian Union which enjoy very little 357. Arrange the following Scheduled language of India in
power. ascending order of the proportion of their speakers.
• These territories do not have the powers of a 1. Bengali
State. 2. Marathi

3. Hindi India, spain, A - ? B-? More of

4. Tamil belgium centralization
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 of power then
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4 decentralization
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (a) A -Coming together federation, B -Centre and
(d) 4, 2, 1, 3 state
(b) A -Holding together federation, B -Centre and
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm357 state
(c) A -Holding together federation, B -Village and
state
(d) A-Coming together federation, B -Centre and
358. Complete the following table with the correct village
information-
Linguistic State Reason of
Resistance by
Basis of Example of
creation linguistic
the Center states
The first and Fear of A-? B-?
a major test Disintegration Source Based Questions 1 : Read the source given
for democratic
politics of India
(a) A -Language, B -Tamil Nadu
(b) A -Color, B -Tamil Nadu The creation of linguistic States was the first and
a major test for democratic politics in our country.
(c) A -Cast, B -Tamil Nadu
Many old States have vanished and many new States
(d) A -Language, B -Rajasthan have been created. Areas, boundaries and names of
the States have been changed. In 1947, the boundaries
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm358 of several old States of India were changed in order
to create new States. This was done to ensure that
people who spoke the same language lived in the
same State. Some States were created not on the
359. Complete the following table with correct information: basis of language but to recognise differences based
on culture, ethnicity or geography. These include
Act Full Date About States like Nagaland, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand.
Form Implementation When the demand for the formation of States on the
basis of language was raised, some national leaders
SRC A-? B-? Reorganisation
feared that it would lead to the disintegration of the
of state
country. The Central Government resisted linguistic
boundaries
States for some time. But the experience has shown
a. A -State reorganisation commission B -Nov 1 1956 that the formation of linguistic States has actually
b. A -Solid reorganisation commission B -Nov 1 1956 made the country, more united. It has also made
c. A -State reorganisation commission B -Nov 1 1940 administration easier.
d. A -State reorganisation company B -Nov 1 1967
361. Select the two bases on which new states of India
have been created
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm359 (a) Religion and geography
(b) Language and regional culture
(c) Culture and religion
360. Complete the following table with correct information- (d) Language and community
Name of Known Power is Power sharing

countries as divided Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm361
between

Which state of India was first form on the bases of (b) Create new states
language? (c) Rehabilitate migrants
(a) Karnataka (d) Ensure participation
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Telangana
Here are four reactions to the language policy followed The need for decentralisation was recognised in our
in India. Which are true in the case of India? Constitution. Since then, there have been several
(a) Language based states have divided us by making attempts to decentralise power to the level of villages
everyone conscious of their language. and towns. Panchayat in villages and municipalities
(b) The policy of accommodation has strengthened in urban areas were set up in all the States. But these
national unity. were directly under the control of state governments.
(c) The language policy has only helped to Elections to these local governments were not held
consolidate the dominance of English over all regularly. Local governments did not have any
other languages. powers or resources of their own. Thus, there was
(d) It lead to the disintegration of the country very little decentralisation in effective terms. A
major step towards decentralisation was taken in
1992. The Constitution was amended to make the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm361 third-tier of democracy more powerful and effective.
Now it is constitutionally mandatory to hold regular
elections to local government bodies. Seats are
reserved in the elected bodies and the executive
Which was the first test for democratic politics in heads of these institutions for the Scheduled Castes,
our Country? Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes.
(a) Caste problem At least one-third of all positions are reserved for
(b) Language problem women. An independent institution called the State
(c) Problems related to union territories Election Commission has been created in each State
to conduct panchayat and municipal elections. The
(d) Creation of linguistic state
State governments are required to share some powers
and revenue with local government bodies. The
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm361 nature of sharing varies from State to State.
362. What is the basic idea behind decentralization?

(a) There are a large number of problems and issues
What was the first and major test for democratic which are best settled at the local level.
politics in Inida?
(a) Integraation of states (b) Besides, at the local level it is possible for the
people to directly participate in decision making.
(b) Problems related to the partition This helps to inculcate a habit of democratic
(c) Creation of linguistic states participation
(d) Independence of Goa (c) Local government is the best way to realise one
important principle of democracy, namely local
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm361 self-government.
(d) All the above
After independence, the boundaries of old states
were changed to _________.
(a) Identify the area

Consider the following statements on the practice of (c) 1992

federalism in India. (d) 1993
A. Local governments did not have any power or
B. It became constitutionally mandatory to hold Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm362
regular elections to local government bodies.
C. The state governments are required to share
some powers and revenue with local government
bodies. The Constitution of India was amended in 1992 to
D. No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for make the third-tier of democracy more effective. As
scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other a result, at least one-third of all positions in the
backward classes. local bodies are reserved for women. This is because
Identify those which hold true for decentralisation ___________.
after 1992. (a) Women are good at managing resources
(a) B and C (b) Women had inadequate representation in
(b) A and C decision-making bodies
(c) A and D (c) We have many powerful women leaders
(d) B and D (d) Women are obedient and would follow the
constitutional provisions well
In local self-government institutions at least one-

third of all positions are reserved for? Source Based Questions 3 : Read the source given
(a) Men below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the
(b) Women most appropriate option:
(c) Scheduled caste Rural local government is popularly known by the
(d) Scheduled tribe name panchayati raj. Each village, or a group of
villages in some States, has a gram panchayat. This
is a council consisting of several ward members, often
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm362 called panch, and a president or sarpanch. They are
directly elected by all the adult population living in
that ward or village. It is the decision-making body
for the entire village. The panchayat works under
Which of these is incorrect, based on the Consitutional the overall supervision of the gram sabha. All the
Amendment, 1992? voters in the village are its members. It has to meet
(a) One-fourth of positions are reserved for women. at least twice or thrice in a year to approve the
(b) Regular elections should be held to the local annual budget of the gram panchayat and to review
government bodies. the performance of the gram panchayat. The local
(c) Seats are reserved for SCs, STs and OBCs. government structure goes right up to the district
level. A few gram panchayats are grouped together
(d) State Election Commission looks after these
to form what is usually called a panchayat samiti or
elections
block or mandal. The members of this representative
body are elected by all the panchyat members in
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm362 that area. All the panchayat samitis or mandals in a
district together constitute the zilla parishad. Most
members of the zilla parishad are elected. Members
of the Lok Sabha and MLAs of that district and
In which year a major step towards decentralization some other officials of other district level bodies are
was taken up? also its members. Zilla parishad chairperson is the
(a) 1985 political head of the zilla parishad.
(b) 1991

363. What is the third tier of government in India known (b) Municipal Corporation
as? (c) Municipal Council
(a) Village Panchayat (d) Ward Councils
(b) State government
(c) Local self-government
(d) Zila Parishad
A council consisting of several ward members, often
called panch, and a president or Sarpanch is called
_______.
Which statement is true about Panchayati Raj? (a) Gram Sabha
(a) The Panchayat samiti and Zila Parishad should (b) Gram Panchayat
be constituted with directly elected member (c) Gram Parishad
(b) Minimum age should be 18 year to contest the (d) None of these
election at the panchayat level
(c) For the financial review of Panchayats, the state
finance commission is established Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm363
(d) Election of Panchayati Raj institution is
conducted under the guidance of the State
Election Commission
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm363 most appropriate option:
The Constitution clearly provided a threefold
distribution of legislative powers between the Union
Government and the State Governments. Thus, it
Which government works at district level? contains three lists: Union List includes subjects of
(a) Panchayat Samiti national importance such as defence of the country,
(b) Zila Parishad foreign affairs, banking, communications and
(c) village Panchayat currency. They are included in this list because we
(d) Gram Panchayat need a uniform policy on these matters throughout
the country. The Union Government alone can
make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm363 Union List. State List contains subjects of State and
local importance such as police, trade, commerce,
agriculture and irrigation. The State Governments
alone can make law relating to the subject mentioned
What was the main purpose behind bringing the in the state list. Concurrent list includes subjects of
Panchayati Raj system in India? common interest to both the Union Government as
(a) To Prevent Criminalization of Politics well as the State Governments, such as education,
(b) Decentralization of the political power to the forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption and
general public succession. Both the Union as well as the State
(C ) To reduce election Expences Governments can make laws on these subjects. If the
laws conflict with each other the law made by the
(b) Development of Villages
union government will prevail.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm363 364. Both the union and the state government can make
laws on the subjects mentioned in the:
(a) Union list
A rural local government is popularly known by the (b) State list
name of _____. (c) Concurrent list
(a) Panchayati Raj (d) None of the above

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm364 Both the union as well as the state governments can
make laws on the subjects mentioned in ______
list.
(a) Union
Which of the following is not a subject of the Union (b) Concurrent
List? (c) State
(a) Foreign affairs
(b) Currency
(c) Banking
(d) Law and order
Which one of the following subjects is included in the A second test for Indian federation is the language
concurrent list? policy. Our Constitution did not give the status of
(a) Banking national language to any one language. Hindi was
(b) Trade identified as the official language. But Hindi is the
(c) Police mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of Indians.
(d) Education Therefore, there were many safeguards to protect
other languages. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other
languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm364 the Constitution. A candidate in an examination
conducted for the Central Government positions may
opt to take the examination in any of these languages.
States too have their own official languages. Much
What makes India a federal country? of the government work takes place in the official
(a) As per the Indian constitution, the nation follows language of the concerned State. Unlike Sri Lanka,
a three-fold distribution of legislative powers the leaders of our country adopted a very cautious
(b) The distribution of powers between the union attitude in spreading the use of Hindi. According
and state governments to the Constitution, the use of English for official
(c) there are three lists divided between the centre purposes was to stop in 1965. However, many non
and state governments Hindi speaking States demanded that the use of
(d) all the above English continue. In Tamil Nadu, this movement took
a violent form. The Central Government responded
by agreeing to continue the use of English along with
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm364 Hindi for official purposes. Many critics think that
this solution favoured the English speaking elite.
Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy
of the Government of India. Promotion does not
The Indian constitution clearly provided a _____ mean that the Central Government can impose Hindi
distribution of legislative powers between the Union on States where people speak a different language.
Government and the state governments. The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders
(a) Two fold helped our country avoid the kind of situation that
(b) Three fold Sri Lanka finds itself in.
(c) Multiple fold
(d) None of these 365. How many languages are included in the Eight
Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(A)15
(B)22
(C)20
(D)21

Which language is recognised as the official language Which language is recognised as the national
by the Constitution of India? language by the Constitution of India?
(A)English (a) Hindi
(B)Hindi (b) English
(C)Tamil (c) Tamil
(d) Sanskrit (d) None of these
According to the constitution, the use of English for A second test for Indian federation is the --
official purpose was stop in Which year? (a) Linguistic States
(a) 1955 (b) Language policy
(B)1965 (c) Centre-State relations
(C)1975 (d) Both b and c
(D)1985
“Official Language Act provides that English would

Why Hindi was not given the status of national remain the official language of the country so long
language? as non-Hindi speaking States desire.” Identify the
(a) Because there were only 40% people speaking benefit of adopting such a cautious approach?
Hindi language (a) Strengthened the spirit of federalism
(b) To protect other language (b) Helped in avoiding confrontation with non-Hindi
(c) Both of these speaking southern states
(d) None of these (c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
Here are tile statements regarding the language

policy followed in India. Which of the following holds Source Based Questions 6 : Read the source given
true in the case of India? below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the
(a) The policy of accommodation has strengthened most appropriate option:
national unity. There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government
(b) The language-based States have divided us by in federalism. Different tiers of government govern the
making everyone conscious of their language. same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction
(c) The language policy has only helped to in specific matters of legislation, taxation and
consolidate the dominance of English over all administration. The jurisdictions of the respective
other languages. levels or tiers of government are specified in the
(d) Indian Constitution gives the status of national constitution. So, the existence and authority of each
language to any one language. tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed. The
fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot

be unilaterally changed by one level of government. are clearly specified to ensure its financial
Such changes require the consent of both the levels autonomy.
of government. Courts have the power to interpret (d) States have no financial autonomy.
the constitution and the powers of different levels of
government. The highest court acts as an umpire if
disputes arise between different levels of government Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm366
in the exercise of their respective powers. Sources
of revenue for each level of government are clearly
specified to ensure its financial autonomy. The federal
system thus has dual objectives: to safeguard and The given extract throws light on ________
promote the unity of the country, while at the same (a) Comparison of Federal and Unitary government
time accommodate regional diversity. Therefore, two (b) Features of Federalism
aspects are crucial for the institutions and practice of (c) The linguistic diversity of India
federalism. (i) Governments at different levels should (d) All of these
agree to some rules of power-sharing. (ii) They
should also trust that each would abide by its part
of the agreement. An ideal federal system has both Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm366
aspects: mutual trust and agreement to live together.
366. “The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of

Which type of government has two tiers of
government are specified in the constitution.” Define
government?
the underlined word.
(a) Federalism
(a) The area over which someone has economic
authority. (b) Unitary
(b) The area over which someone has political (c) Both
authority. (d) none of these
(c) The area over which someone has legal authority.
(d) The area over which someone has executive Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm366
authority.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm366 If disputes arise between different levels of government

in the exercise of thier powers who acts as an umpire
?
(a) The highest court
Which of the following is incorrect regarding
Federalism? (b) District Court
(a) Two or more level of government (c) Subordinate court
(b) Different citizens, the same jurisdiction (d) All of these
(c) Superiority of the Constitution
(d) Strict Constitution Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm366
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/gm366 Don’t take printout of this file because solution

What is true regarding sources of revenue in a federal full solutions of all MCQs in print form.
system?
(a) States have no financial powers or independent
sources of revenue. whatsapp at 8905629969.
(b) States are dependent on revenue or funds from Purchase Hard Book
the central government.
(c) Sources of revenue for each level of government ******

Chap 1 Development Page 237

CHAPTER 1
Development
101. Which one of the following is not a developmental Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm104

goal for the landless rural labourers?
(a) More days of work and better wages.
(b) Local school is able to provide quality education
for their children. 105. In order to get more income people need
(c) There is no social discrimination. (a) regular work
(d) They can not become leaders in the village. (b) better wages
(c) decent price for their crops
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm101 (d) All of these
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm105
102. Which among the following is a developmental goal
for the landless rural labourers?
(a) To get electricity and water 106. “Besides seeking more income, people also seek
(b) To educate their children things like equal treatment, freedom, security and
(c) More days of work and better wages respect of others”. What does the given statement
(d) To shift to the cities signify?
(a) Mixed goals are important for people for
development.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm102 (b) Common goals are important for people for
development.
(c) Conflicting goals are important for people for
development.
103. What would be the most appropriate aspiration of a
prosperous farmer from Punjab? (d) Similar goals are important for people for
(a) local school is able to provide quality education development.
for their children
(b) there is no social discrimination Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm106
(c) able to pursue her job in abroad.
(d) proper supply for irrigation
107. Besides seeking more income, one-way or the other,

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm103 people not seek things like
(a) equal treatment
(b) freedom
(c) security
104. To get more ____ industrialists may want more
dams. (d) discrimination
(a) electricity
(b) water Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm107
(c) raw material
(d) all of these

Page 238 Development Chap 1
108. What is the meaning of material goods? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm111

(a) They can be seen
(b) They can be touched
(c) They are tangible
112. Which type of environment may allow more women
(d) All of these
to take up a variety of jobs?
(a) a safe and secured environment
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm108 (b) respect for women
(c) greater acceptance of women working outside
(d) All of these
109. What is the factor on which life depends?
(a) material things Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm112
(b) non-material things
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
113. It is very important to keep in mind that different
persons could have ____as well as conflicting
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm109 notions of a country’s development.
(a) same
(b) different
(c) not determined
110. There are many things that are not easily ____
(d) all of these
but they mean a lot to our lives. These are often
____.
(a) measured, ignored Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm113
(b) ignored, measured
(c) available,unavailable
(d) available, measured
114. Select the country where 500 tons of liquid toxic
waste into open-air dumps
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm110 (a) USA
(b) Africa
(c) Japan
Don’t take printout of this file because solution (d) China

Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/ Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm114
whatsapp at 8905629969. 115. When we compare different students usually we take
one or more important characteristics of students and
Purchase Hard Book compare them based on these-characteristics such as
(a) friendliness
(b) cooperation
111. If you get a job in a far off place before accepting it (c) marks secured
you would try to consider- (d) all of these
(a) Facilities for the family
(b) Job security Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm115
(c) Opportunity to learn
(d) all of these
116. For comparing countries, their ____ is considered

to be one of the most important attributes. (d) an indicator to show the living standard of
(a) Home children in a country
(b) income
(c) Gold Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm120
(d) Property
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm116 121. Countries with per capita income of _____ and
above in 2017, are called rich countries.
(a) US$ 12056 per month
117. The income of the country is the income of ____ (b) US$ 12056 per annum
of the country. (c) US$ 995 per annum
(a) all the ministers (d) US$ 995 per month
(b) all the residents
(c) all the men Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm121
(d) all the women
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm117 122. Countries with per capita income of _____ and
less in 2017, are called low-income countries.
(a) US$ 995 per annum
118. Total income of the country divided by its total (b) US$ 12056 per annum
population is known as (c) above US$ 12056 per annum
(a) per capita income (d) less than US$ 12056 per annum
(b) average income
(c) both (a) and (b) Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm122
(d) none of these
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm118 123. India comes in the category of _____countries

because its per capita income in 2017 was US$ 1820
per annum.
(a) low-income countries
119. National income of a country divided by its total
population is known as____. (b) low middle income
(a) Gross Domestic Product (c) rich countries
(b) Per capita income (d) none of these
(c) Net Domestic product
(d) Depreciation Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm123
124. The rich countries, excluding countries of Middle
East and certain other small countries, are generally
called____.
120. What is per capita income?
(a) poor countries
(a) an indicator to show the living standard of men
in a country (b) developing countries
(b) an indicator to show the living standard of (c) developed countries
ministers in a country (d) Rich countries
(c) an indicator to show the living standard of
people in a country Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm124

125. ___is the number of deaths per 1,000 live births aspects of our lives.
of children under one year of age. The rate for a (a) pollution-free environment
given region is the number of children dying under (b) a disease-free life
one year of age, divided by the number of live births (c) protection from infectious disease
during the year, multiplied by 1,000.
(d) All of these
(a) Neonatal Mortality Rate (NMR)
(b) Post-Neonatal Mortality Rate (PNMR)
(c) Infant mortality rate (IMR) Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm129
(d) Under-5 Mortality Rate (U5MR)
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm125 130. “Girls in India in the rural sector are sometimes not
able to get secondary level education”which of the
following is not the correct reason for this situation.
(a) Society’s mind set which prefers boys getting
126. What age group is considered in calculating infant better secondary and higher education.
mortality rate? (b) Due to Poverty people are unable to provide
(a) between birth and age 1 basic education to their children
(b) between birth and age 2 (c) In villages women also constitute a major
(c) between birth and age 3 agricultural workforce which again works to
(d) between birth and age 5 their disadvantage.
(d) Decreasing crime against women
127. Literacy Rate measures the proportion of literate

population in the_____ age group. 131. Kerala has a ____ Infant Mortality Rate because
(a) 7 and above it has adequate provision of basic health and
(b) 18 and above educational facilities.
(c) 3 and above (a) low
(d) 21 and above (b) high
(c) no
(d) very high
128. What do you mean by Net Attendance Ratio?
(a) It implies the total number of children of age
group 6-10 attending school 132. Which is a function of PDS? Select the correct option.
(b) It implies the total number of children of age (a) Distribution of black market products
group 12-15 attending school (b) Control Hoarding, control process and control
(c) It implies the total number of children of age over charging.
group 14-16 attending school (c) Popularise black-marketing in the country
(d) It implies the total number of children of age (d) None of these
group 17-19 attending school
133. In Tamil Nadu, ____ per cent of the people living

129. What factors other than income are important in rural areas usea ration shop, whereas in Jharkhand

only____per cent of rural people do so. levels of the people, their health status and per
(a) 8,75 capita income.
(b) 75,8 (a) IMF
(c) 18,50 (b) UNDP
(d) 55,65 (c) UNESCO
(d) UNDP
134. What is the only way to find out whether we are

properly nourished? 138. Published by UNDP compares countries based
(a) Body mass index on____ of the people.
(b) Sugar checking (a) their health status
(c) B.P checking (b) the educational levels
(d) Weight checking (c) per capita income
(d) All of these
135. How is BMI calculated?give the right order

1. the weight of the person is measured 139. What is HDI rank of Indian among 189 countries of
2. height is measured in meters the world?
3. The weight is then divided by the square of (a) 212
height. (b) 189
4. The height is then divided by the square of (c) 131
weight.
(d) 314
(a) first 1 then 2 last 3
(b) first 2 then 1 last 4
(c) first 1 then 2 last 4 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm139
(d) first 3 then 2 last 1
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm135 140. How many countries are ranked in the HDI?
(a) 212 countries
(b) 189 countries
(c) 314 countries
136. If this BMI is more than ____, then a person is
(d) 889 countries
overweight, If this figure is less than ____ then the
person would be considered undernourished.
(a) 18.5,20 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm140
(b) 25,18.5
(c) 18.5,25
(d) 20,18.5
141. Which of the follwoing organization calculates HDI
India?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm136 (a) UNDP
(b) UHID
(c) GDP
(d) HDI
137. The Human Development Report published by
____ compares countries based on the educational

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm141 groundwater reserves?

(a) One-Fourth
(b) One-Tenth
(c) One-Third
142. Per Capita Income is calculated in ____for all
(d) half
countries.
(a) euro
(b) rupees Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm146
(c) dollars
(d) pound
147. Where is groundwater overuse particularly found?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm142 (a) Punjab
(b) Western U.P.
(c) plateau areas of central and south India
(d) All of these
143. We have not inherited this earth from our forefathers;
we have borrowed it from our children.who said these
words? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm147
(a) Mr. Rajendra prashad
(b) Gandhiji
(c) Mr. Lester Brown
148. ____is an example of renewable resources.
(d) Mr. George Brown
(a) Groundwater
(b) Crude oil
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm143 (c) Coal
(d) Natural Gas
144. Since the second half of the twentieth century, a Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm148
number of scientists have been warning that
(a) Health and nutrition level is declining.
(b) Per capita income is unstable.
(c) Levels of resources are not sustainable.
(d) Levels of development are not sustainable. is not given. You can purchase hard book from
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm144 full solutions of all MCQs in print form.
145. In how many districts of India has reported a water Purchase Hard Book
level decline over 4 metre during the past 20 years?
(a) Over 500 districts
(b) Over 1000 districts 149. “Consequences of environmental degradation do not
(c) Under 200 districts respect national or state boundaries.” which of the
(d) Over 300 districts following statement not justify this statement.
(a) Environmental degradation issue is no longer a
regional or national issue.
(b) Our future is linked together. Sustainability of
development is essential for all the mankind
and it is our common responsibility to save the
146. What proportion of the country is over using their environment.
(c) These days it is a matter of discussion among

different countries of the world. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm153

(d) Global warming, acid rain, etc., are to be
controlled by one nation. It is a personal matter
of thinking and finding the solutions.
154. Which of the following neighboring country has a
better performance in terms of human development
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm149 than India?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
150. Development of a country can generally be (c) Nepal
determined by (d) Pakistan
(a) its per capita income
(b) its average literacy level Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm154
(c) health status of its people
(d) all the above
155. Assume there are four families in a country. The

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm150 average per capita income of these families is Rs
5000. If the income of three families is Rs 4000, Rs
7000 and Rs 3000 respectively, what is the income of
the fourth family?
151. Human Development Index (HDI) level in India can (a) Rs 7500
not be improved through ___.
(b) Rs 3000
(a) Quality Education
(c) Rs 2000
(b) Good Healthcare facilities.
(d) Rs 6000
(c) by Increase IMR
(d) by Increase net attendance ratio
156. HDI index does not include____.

(a) income
152. UNDP measures the development of country based
(b) life expectancy,
on ____.
(a) Health (c) health
(b) Education (d) education
(c) Income
(d) All of these Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm156
157. Who among the following is associated with Human
Development Index (HDI) for measuring the level of
development among various countries?
153. According to World Development Report 2018-2019, (a) Raymond Firth
the countries with a GNI of ____ dollars per capita
(b) Mahabub-ul-Haque
and below are called low income countries.
(a) 906 (c) M.N. Srinivas
(b) 995 (d) A.R. Desai
(c) 674
(d) 567 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm157

158. The sectors are classified into public and private Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm162
sector on the basis of
(a) employment conditions
(b) the nature of economic activity
(c) ownership of enterprises 163. What would be the development goals of a farmer
who depend only on rain for growing crops?
(d) number of workers employed in the enterprise
(a) Inundational canal
(b) Timely rain
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm158 (c) Better irrigation facility
(d) Hand pumps
159. Production of a commodity through natural process Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm163

is an activity of ____ field.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary 164. Which one among the following is a development
goal for the landless rural labourers?
(d) Information technology
(a) To get electricity and water.
(b) To educate their children.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm159 (c) More days of work and better wages.
(d) To shift to the cities.
160. GDP is the total value of ____ produced during a Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm164
particular year.
(a) all goods and services
(b) all final goods and services
(c) all intermediate goods and services 165. The development goals can be classified into which
one of the following groups?
(d) all intermediate and final goods and services
(a) Material and spiritual
(b) Physical and mental
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm160 (c) Short-term and long-term
(d) Material and non-material
161. The share of tertiary sector in India’s GDP in (2011- Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm165
12) is ____.
(a) Around 46%
(b) Around 42%
(c) Around 74% 166. Development goals of different sections of our society
can be achieved by-
(a) force
(b) democratic political process
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm161 (c) violent agitation
(d) terrorism
162. In which Indian state the infant mortality rate is Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm166
lowest?
(a) Kerala
(b) Bihar
(c) Uttar Pradesh 167. Which one of the following is a useful measure for
comparison between countries by the World Bank?
(d) Punjab
(a) National income

(b) Per capita income 172. According to the World Bank, Development Report,
(c) Total income the per capita income of the low income countries in
(d) Income from tertiary sector 2020 should be per annum:
(a) US$ 12736 or less.
(b) US$ 75,000 or less.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm167 (c) US$ 55,000 or less.
(d) US$ 1045 or less.
168. Per capita income is calculated in dollars because: Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm172

(a) all countries can be compared easily.
(b) USA holds a dominating position.
(c) dollar is the only reliable currency in the world.
(d) dollars are easily convertible. 173. Low Infant Mortality Rate in Kerala is due to:
(a) very high per capita income.
(b) adequate provision of basic health and
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm168 educational facilities.
(c) being a small state.
(d) high life expectancy.
169. Which of the following do we get when we divide the
National Income of a country by its total population? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm173
(a) HDI rank
(b) Literacy rate
(c) Human development index
(d) Per capita income 174. In which one of the following states, literacy rate is
the highest?
(a) Punjab
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm169 (b) Kerala
(c) Bihar
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
170. wn as:
(a) national income. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm174
(b) average income.
(c) total income.
(d) capital based income.
175. Which among the following states has the lowest per
capita income?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm170 (a) Punjab
(b) Bihar
(c) Kerala
(d) Gujarat
171. According to the World Bank, the criterion used to
classify countries with the income of US$ 12736 per
annum and above in 2013 is considered as: Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm175
(a) low income countries.
(b) rich countries.
(c) average countries.
(d) underdeveloped countries. 176. What does infant mortality rate indicate?
(a) Literate population in the 7 and above age.
(b) The number of children that die before the age of
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm171 one year as a proportion of 1000 live children.
(c) The total number of children attending the

school. 181. Human development index compares countries based

(d) The number of children born in a year. on which of the following levels of the people?
(a) Educational level
(b) Health status
(c) Per capita income
(d) All the above
177. HDI stands for: Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm181

(a) Heavy Developed Industrial.
(b) Human Development Index.
(c) Highly Developed Infrastructure.
(d) Highest Development Index. Don’t take printout of this file because solution
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm177 Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/
178. Life Expectancy means:
(a) average number of years after which a person is Purchase Hard Book
expected to die.
(b) average number of years a person is expected to
live.
182. What money cannot buy?
(c) long life.
(a) Medicines
(d) long life and low birth rate.
(b) Clothes
(c) Pollution-free environment
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm178 (d) None of these
179. Which indicator from amongst the following is
considered to be the most important measure of
development?
(a) Health and education 183. BMI (Body Mass Index) is a method of finding out
(b) Information technology which of the following?
(a) Infant mortality
(c) Strong defence
(b) Health status
(d) Leisure and entertainment
(c) Longevity
(d) Economic status
180. How would you calculate Body Mass Index?

(a) Dividing the weight by the square of the height.
(b) Dividing the height by weight. 184. We can obtain per capita income of a country by
calculating :
(c) Dividing the weight by height.
(a) the total income of a person
(d) Adding height to the weight of the person.
(b) by dividing the national income by the total
population of a country
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm180 (c) the total value of all goods and services
(d) the total exports of the country

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm184 189. Which of the following things money cannot buy ?
(a) Building
(b) Flowers
(c) Pollution free environment
185. Kerala has low infant mortality rate because
(d) Books
(a) it has good climatic condition
(b) it has adequate infrastructure
(c) it has adequate provision of basic health and Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm189
educational facilities
(d) it has poor net attendance ratio
190. Which one of the following is not a measure of
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm185 development in the Human Development Report of
the UNDP ?
(a) Per capita income in US $
(b) Educational levels of the people
186. Human development index compares countries based (c) Body mass index
on which of the following levels of the people ?
(d) Life expectancy at birth
(a) Educational level
(b) Health status
(c) Per capita income Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm190
(d) All the above
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm186 191. In which state of India is the infant mortality rate
lowest ?
(a) Kerala
(b) Bihar
187. What does infant mortality rate indicate? (c) Uttar Pradesh
(a) Literate population in the 7 and above age.
(d) Punjab
(b) The number of children that die before the age of
one year as a proportion of 1000 live children.
(c) The total number of children attending the Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm191
school.
(d) The number of children born in a year.
192. Which of the following neighbours of India ranks
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm187 higher on the Human Development Index ?
(a) Nepal
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Bhutan
188. According to the World Bank, the criterion used to
(d) Pakistan
classify countries with the income of Rs. 4,53,000 per
annum and above in 2004 is considered as
(a) Low income countries Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm192
(b) Rich countries
(c) Average countries
(d) Underdeveloped countries
193. According to the World Development Report a
country is considered rich when the per capita
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm188 income is more than which of the following figures ?
(a) Rs. 24,000 per annum
(b) Rs. 37,000 per annum
(c) Rs. 4,53,000 per annum

(d) Rs. 5,43,000 per annum (c) violent agitation

(d) terrorism
194. Income alone is not a completely adequate indicator

of development of a country. Which one of the 198. Which of the following states of India has low IMR ?
following is not correct with regard to this statement (a) Punjab
? (b) Kerala
(a) Money cannot ensure a pollution free environment
(c) Bihar
for individual
(d) None of these
(b) Some people earn more than others do
(c) Money helps us buy only material goods and
services Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm198
(d) Money does not ensure respect and dignity for
individuals
199. Which one of the following has prepared Human

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm194 Development Report ?
(a) UNO
(b) WHO
(c) IMF
195. Infant mortality rate refers to the number of the
children that die : (d) UNDP
(a) before the age of one year as a proportion to
1000 live births in that particular year. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm199
(b) before the age of five years as a proportion to
1000 live births in that particular year.
(c) before the age of one year as a proportion to 100
live births in that particular year. 200. What is meant by GDP ?
(d) out of 1000 live births in that particular year. (a) Gross Dairy Products
(b) Gross Domestic Products
(c) Great Development Project
(d) Great Domestic Products
196. In terms of human development, which of the
following countries is ahead of India ?
(a)Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka 201. Which is the most important attribute for comparing
(c) Nepal the development of countries?
(d) Bhutan (a) Resources
(b) Population
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm196 (c) Average income
197. Development goals of different sections of our society

can be achieved by :
(a) force
(b) democratic political process

202. By dividing the national income of a country by its Human Development Index (HDI)?
total population, we get (a) Kerala
(a) Per Capita Income (b) Punjab
(b) Gross Development Product (c) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Human Development Index (d) West Bengal
207. Which one of the following is also called average

203. Which one of the following statement defines income ?
‘Literacy Rate’ ? (a) National income
(a) Total literate population divided by total (b) Per capita income
population (c) Total income
(b) Total literate population divided by total (d) All the above
illiterate population
(c) Proportion of literate population in the 18 and
above age group Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm207
(d) It measures the proportion of literate population
in the 7 and above age group
208. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource ?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm203 (a) Forest
(b) Water
(c) Crude oil
(d) Wind energy
204. Development of the country can generally be
determined by :
(a) its per capita income Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm208
(b) its average literacy rate
(d) none of these
209. Which one of the following criteria is the basis to
measure the development of a country according to
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm204 UNDP ?
(a) Per capita income
(b) Educational levels of the people
(c) Health status of the people
205. If there are five persons in a family and their total
(d) All the above
income in Rs. 20,000/- what would be the average
income of each person ?
(a) Rs. 6000/- Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm209
(b) Rs. 4000/-
(c) Rs. 5000/-
(d) Rs. 10,000/-
206. Which one of the following states has the highest
Purchase Hard Book

210. Which one of the following is a development goal for Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm214
industrialists ?
(a) To get more days of work
(b) To get better wages
(c) To get more electricity 215. The development goals can be classified into which
one of the following groups
(d) All the above
(a) Freedom
(b) Equal oppurtunities
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm210 (c) Security and respect
(d) High levels of income and better quality of life
211. Which one among the following is a development Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm215

goal for the landless rural labourers ?
(a) To get electricity and water
(b) To educate their children
(c) More days of work and better wages 216. Which of the following is not a component of HDI?
(a) per capita income
(d) To shift to the cities
(b) life expectancy
(c) literacy rate
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm211 (d) poverty rate
212. Which one of the following is the most important
attribute while comparing development of various
countries ?
(a) Population 217. Kerala has a low Infant Mortality Rate because it
(b) Social status of the people has adequate provision of basic health and ____.
(c) Political status (a) educational facilities
(d) Per capita income (b) sports facilities
(c) security facilities
(d) entertainment facilities
213. Which of the following is true of the people’s goals in
addition to higher income ?
(a) Equal treatment 218. The Human Development Report published by
(b) Freedom ____ compares countries based on the educational
(c) Respect and security levels of the people, their health status and per
capita income.
(d) All the above
(a) IMF
(b) UNICEF
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm213 (c) UNESCO
(d) UNDP
214. The development goal for a girl from a rich family is : Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm218
(a) to get more days of work
(b) to get as much freedom as her brother gets
(c) to get electricity
219. Average income is also called ____.
(d) to get better wages
(a) Per capita incentive

(b) Per capita income 224. Which one among the following is not a development
(c) Percent capital income goal for the landless rural labourers
(d) Per capital information (a) More days of work and better wages
(b) Local school is able to provide quality education
for their children
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm219 (c) there is no social discrimination and they too
can become leaders in the village.
(d) To shift to the cities
220. Which of the following is a non renewable resources?
(a) Coal Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm224
(b) Forest
(c) Water
(d) Wildlife
225. Which one among the following is a developmental
goal common to all?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm220 (a) Freedom
(b) Equal opportunities
(c) Security and respect
221. Which one of the following is a non-renewable
resource ?
(a) Solar Energy Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm225
(b) Thermal electricity
(c) Wind
(d) Tidal energy
226. What are the things which people seek besides
income in the economy?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm221 1. Equal treatment
2. Freedom
3. Security
(a) only 1
222. What was the per capita income of India in 2004? (b) only 2
(a) US $ 4390 p.a (c) Both 2 and 3
(b) US $ 3139 p.a (d) All 1, 2 and 3
(c) US $ 1870 p.a
(d) US $ 2225 p.a
227. Which type of environment may not allow more
women to take up a variety of jobs?
223. Which one among the following is a developmental (a) a safe and secured environment
goal common to all? (b) greater acceptance of women working outside
(a) Freedom (c) unequal pay and nonpayment as that of male
(b) Equal opportunities workers
(c) Security and respect (d) respect for women
228. What are public facilities needed for the development

of the country? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm232

(a) Healthcare
(b) Education
(c) Roadways
233. Human Development Index is based on .......... .
(d) All of these
(a) Real Income
(b) Life expectancy
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm228 (c) Adult literacy and years of schooling
(d) All of these
229. What is/are the major long-term objective/s of Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm233

Indian planning?
(a) Increase national and per capita income
(b) Reducing inequalities
(c) Creating employment facilities 234. The index for measuring economic development is
.......... .
(d) All of these
(a) increase in productive assets
(b) national income
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm229 (c) per capita income
(d) any of the above
230. A country which possesses the characteristics of a Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm234

modern technology is called ............... .
(a) Developed country
(b) Under developed country
(c) Developing country 235. Income is an important criterion by which we can
compare the _______ level of different countries
or states.
(a) developmental
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm230 (b) public
(c) boundaries
(d) any of the above
231. Which one of the following organization prepares
‘Human Development Report? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm235
(a) UNO
(b) WHO
(c) IMF
236. Name some countries in South Asia which have lower
(d) UNDP
HDI than India.
(a) Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Myanmar
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm231 (b) Bangladesh, Pakistan, Sri Lanka
(c) Sri Lanka only
(d) Pakistan, Bangladesh, Myanmar
232. Which state has a higher infant mortality rate than
that of the poorest regions of the world such as Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm236
African countries?
(a) Punjab
(b) Odisha
(c) Delhi 237. On the basis of per capita income which of the
following state was the most developed in year 2002-
(d) Assam

03? 242. .......... is a complex task.

(a) Bihar (a) Economic development
(b) Kerala (b) Development
(c) Punjab (c) Progress
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm237 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm242
238. According to Human Development Report (2006), 243. Nowadays, the thurst areas of human development
Sri Lanka is ......... of India in every aspect. is:
(a) Lagging behind (a) Health
(b) Ahead (b) Gender Equity
(c) Equivalent (c) Gender Empowerment
(d) Worse (d) All of the above
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm238 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm243
239. Development of a country is determined by .......... . 244. Which of the following is an example of a renewable
(a) Per capita income resource?
(b) Its average literacy level (a) Minerals
(c) Health status of its people (b) Fishes in the ocean
(d) All the above (c) Fossil fuel
(d) Petroleum
240. Earth summit was held in

(a) Chicago 245. Social Development is about putting ......
(b) Copenhagen (a) People at the centre of Building
(c) Rio de Janeiro (b) People at the centre of Signal
(d) London (c) People at the centre of Development
(d) None of these
241. Which of the following country have the highest

productivity of rice? 246. At what stage of economic development are the birth
(a) United Kingdom rate, the death rate and the population growth rate
(b) USA the lowest?
(c) Australia (a) Backward stage
(d) China (b) Developing stage
(c) Developed stage
(d) Industrialised stage

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm246 (c) Government centric

(d) Commercial centric
247. Households in rural areas generally use .......... as Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm251

fuel.
(a) wood
(b) dung cake
252. The Ministry of Human Resource Development was
(c) other biomass created in the year ..........
(d) all of the above (a) 1980
(b) 1985
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm247 (c) 1990
(d) 1995
248. The activity included in the tertiary sector is Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm252

(a) Trade
(b) Fishing
(c) Mining Don’t take printout of this file because solution
(d) Quarrying is not given. You can purchase hard book from
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm248 full solutions of all MCQs in print form.
249. Contribution to GDP in India is more by the Purchase Hard Book
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Public sector 253. Economic development of a region depends on ..........
.
(a) Needs and aspirations of the people
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm249 (b) Technological development
(c) Availability of resources
250. Which of the following is not a necessary condition
for the development of India? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm253
(a) Capital Accumulation
(b) Resource discovery
(c) Population growth
(d) Technological development 254. In an under-developed economy, the people’s ability
to save is low, due to ..........
(a) low levels of income
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm250 (b) wide-spread poverty
(c) higher propensity to consume
251. We should welcome those developmental activities
that are .......... . Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm254
(a) People centric
(b) Child centric

255. In an under-developed economy, the people’s ability (b) low per capita real income
to save is .......... . (c) high level of economic and technological
(a) low backwardness
(b) high (d) high population growth
(c) moderate
(d) controlled by government policies
260. Economy is said to be under developed if:
(i) About 60 to 80% of the population is engaged in
256. Generally an economy is considered under developed agriculture and allied activities.
if .......... . (ii) Burden of population and dependent population
(a) the standard of living of people is low and is very high
productivity is also considerably low (iii) Capital formation is very low due to lack of
(b) agriculture is the main occupation of the people saving.
and productivity in agriculture is quire low (iv) Productivity of labour production facility and
standard of living is very low.
(c) the production techniques are backward
(v) Incidence of underemployment and
(d) all of the above unemployment is very high.
Which of the above statement are correct?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm256 (a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
257. An underdeveloped economy is generally characterized
by .......... .
(a) high ratio of commercial farming to subsistence Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm260
farming
(b) high ratio of industrial output to total output
(c) high utilization of existing capital in the economy
261. An underdeveloped economy is characterised by
(d) coexistence of underutilized labour with .......... .
unexploited national and other resources (a) High per capita real income
(b) Large proportion of labour force in the tertiary
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm257 sector
(c) State of deprivation of large proportion of
population
(d) All the above
258. Which of these is a feature of an under-developed
economy?
(a) Low standard of living Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm261
(b) Low productivity of labour
(c) Use of backward and primitive Production
Techniques
262. In an under-developed economy .......... is the main
(d) All of the above occupation of the people.
(a) agriculture
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm258 (b) industry
(c) services
(d) joblessness
259. The term underdevelopment implies ..........

(a) social institutions are very backward Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm262

263. In an under-developed economy, Poverty is .......... . Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm267

(a) not found at all
(b) minimum
(c) moderate
268. In an under-developed economy, the production
(d) maximum and wide-spread
techniques employed are ..........
(a) modern and upto date
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm263 (b) primitive and backward
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
264. In an under-developed economy, the production
techniques employed are primarily .......... . Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm268
(a) Capital-Intensive
(b) Labour-Intensive
269. In an under-developed economy, investment in
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
research and development is .......... .
(a) low
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm264 (b) high
(c) moderate
(d) nothing can be said
265. In an under-developed economy, General Income
Levels and Real Income (Purchasing Power) are Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm269
.......... .
(a) low
(b) high
(c) moderate 270. In an under-developed economy, the productivity of
Labour is .......... .
(a) low
(b) high
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm265 (c) moderate
266. In an under-developed economy, a majority of the Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm270

population engaged in .......... .
(a) agriculture and allied activities
(b) industry sector
(c) services sector 271. In an under-developed economy, there is ..........
participation in Foreign Trade.
(a) low
(b) high
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm266 (c) moderate
267. In an underdeveloped economy, employment and Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm271

under-employment are .......... .
(a) low
(b) high
(c) moderate 272. Which of these is a feature of an under-developed
economy?
(a) Pre-dominance of Agricultural Sector

(b) Wide-spread Poverty Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm276

(c) Low Ability of Save
277. Which of these is not a feature of an under-developed

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm272 economy?
(a) High standard of living of people
(b) Higher percentage of dependent population
(c) Low rate of capital formation
273. In an under-developed economy, the standard of
living is .......... . (d) Low productivity of labour
(a) low
(b) high Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm277
(c) moderate
278. Which of these is not a feature of an under-developed

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm273 economy?
(a) Use of backward and primitive production
techniques
(b) High degree of unemployment
274. Generally an economy is considered underdeveloped
(c) High degree of inequality of incomes
if .......... .
(a) The standard of living of people is low and (d) High participation in foreign trade
productivity is also considerable low
(b) Agriculture is the main occupation of the people Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm278
and productivity in agriculture is quality low
(c) The production techniques are backward
279. In an under-developed economy, the rate of
Population Growth is .......... .
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm274 (a) low
(b) high
(c) moderate
275. The basic reason of considering the Indian Economy (d) nothing can be said
as under developed economy is .......... .
(a) wide spread of poverty Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm279
(b) high growth of population
(c) high income inequalities
economy?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm275 (a) Low rate of capital formation
(b) High growth rate of population
(c) Higher percentage of dependent population
276. Which of the following is not a cause of underdeveloped (d) All of the above
country?
(a) Dominance of mass consumption Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm280
(b) Income inequalities
(c) Overpopulation
(d) Under-employment
281. In an under-developed economy, the rate of Capital

Formation and Investment is .......... . Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm285

(a) low
(b) high
(c) moderate
286. Which one of the following is a developmental goal
(d) controlled by government policies
which is common to all?
(a) Freedom
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm281 (b) Equal opportunities
282. In an under-developed economy, the majority of the
population .......... . Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm286
(a) is dependent population
(b) is illiterate population
(c) has a traditional social life
287. Different persons have different aspirations about
the development because .......... .
(a) People are different
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm282 (b) Living standards are different
(c) Differences in opinion
(d) Change in thoughts
283. Which of the following is not a cause of under
developed country? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm287
(a) Unemployment and Poverty
(b) Over Population
(c) Income Inequalities
288. The economic strength of a country is measured by
(d) Dominance of Mass Consumption
which of the following developments?
(a) The development of its manufacturing industries.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm283 (b) The development of its literacy ratio.
(c) The development of its health status.
(d) The development of its population growth.
economy? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm288
(a) Wide spread poverty
(b) Low growth rate of population
(c) Low ability of save
285. In an under-developed economy, the majority of the
population is .......... . Purchase Hard Book
(a) dependent population
(b) income earning population
(c) tax payers 289. According to World Development Report 2006, the
(d) literate countries with .......... dollars p.a. and above are

called developed countries? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm293

(a) 10066
(b) 8486
(c) 7567
294. In the First Five Year Plan (1951-56), the national
(d) 6465
income rose by .......... .
(a) 80%
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm289 (b) 18%
(c) 124%
(d) 216%
290. What will be the top priority in the developmental
goal of a landless labourer? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm294
(a) Expansion of rural banking
(b) More days of work and better wages
(c) Metal roads for transportation
295. The income earned from labour and work is known
(d) Establishment of a high school
as .......... .
(a) earned income
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm290 (b) unearned income
(c) national income
(d) none of these
291. National Income means .......... .
(a) Income of the State Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm295
(b) Income of the World
(c) Income of the country
(d) None of these
296. Assume that there are 100 families in a country,
the average per capita income of these families is
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm291 < 10,000 and the average per capita income of 50
of these families is < 5000. The average per capita
income of the remaining families is .......... .
(a) < 5000
292. What is the main criterion used by the World Bank (b) < 10000
in classifying different countries? (c) < 15000
(a) Literacy rate
(d) < 20000
(b) Crude oil reserves
(c) Per capita income
(d) None of these
297. In an under-developed economy, there is .......... .
(a) relative equality of incomes
(b) high degree of inequality of incomes
293. Per Capita Income = (c) no income at all
Income from capital
(a) (d) nothing can be said
Population
Income from Taxes
(b)
Population Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm297
National Income
(c)
Population
Population
(d)
National Income

298. A Finance Commission is constituted every .......... . Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm302

(a) Three years
(b) Two years
(c) Five years
303. Countries having per capita income less than US
(d) Four years
$825 per annum are considered as .......... .
(a) Developed countries
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm298 (b) Developing countries
(c) European countries
(d) American countries
299. According to World Development Report 2006, the
countries with .......... dollars p.a. and below are Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm303
called low income countries.
(a) 15906
(b) 825
(c) 8674 304. Which of the following is a low-Income country?
(a) South Africa
(d) 7567
(b) Singapore
(c) UK
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm299 (d) Japan
300. Income of a country means ......... .
(a) cash receipts from exports
(b) income earned by residents of a country, from
outside the domestic territory 305. Which of the following factor is not related to
(c) income of non residents of that country economic development?
(a) Continuous process
(d) total value of goods and services produced
(b) Increase in real national income
(c) Long run and continuous increase
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm300 (d) Compulsory change in economic welfare
301. Average income of a country is .......... .
(a) Total population/Total income
(b) Total income/Total population
(c) Total income # Total population 306. How has per capita income in India increased from
1950-51 to 2000?
(d) Total income = Total population
(a) From < 6500 to < 16500
(b) From < 255 only in 1950-51 to < 16500 in 2000
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm301 (c) From < 755 to < 14500
(d) From < 1855 to < 16500
302. Which of the following neighbouring country has Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm306

“high” per capita income?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Pakistan 307. India is a .......... .
(a) developed country
(d) Nepal
(b) developing country

(c) underdeveloped country production is obtained by the Central Government

(d) none of the above from .......... .
(a) states of India
(b) states and union territories of India
(c) industrial areas of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
308. CAPART is related to .......... . Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm312

(a) assisting and evaluating rural welfare programmes
(b) computer hardware
(c) consultant service of export promotion
(d) controlling pollution in big industries 313. Human Development Index (HDI) level in India can
not be improved through .......... .
(a) Quality Education
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm308 (b) Good Healthcare facilities
(c) Low income
(d) Increse income
309. The National Development Council includes .......... .
(a) All Central Cabinet Minister Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm313
(b) Chief Ministers of all States
(c) Cabinet Ministers of all States
(d) Members of the Estimates Committee of
Parliament 314. According to World Development Report 2018-2019,
the countries with a GNI of .......... dollars per capita
and below are called low income countries.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm309 (a) 906
(b) 995
(c) 674
310. Which country in the world is at the top of the (d) 567
Human Development Index?
(a) USA Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm314
(b) India
(c) Norway
(d) China
315. UNDP measures the development of country based
on .......... .
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm310 (a) health
(b) education
(c) income
311. In which state of India infant mortality rate is lowest? (d) all of these
(a) Kerala
(b) Bihar Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm315
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Punjab
316. Which one among the following is a developmental

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm311 goal common to all?
(a) Freedom
(b) Equal opportunities
312. For estimating the GDP, information related to

(d) High levels of income and better quality of life capacity is called .......... .
(a) Economic development
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm316 (b) Social development
(c) Human development
(d) National development
317. The GDP of India in 2003 was .......... crores.

(a) < 210,000
(b) < 190,000
(c) < 170,000
(d) < 150,000 322. GDP is the total value of .......... produced during a
particular year.
(a) all goods and services
(c) all intermediate goods and services
(d) all countable goods
318. Which of the following is not a parameter in HDI?
(a) Social inequality
(b) Life expectancy
(c) Infant mortality rate
(d) Real per capita income
323. HDI stands for .......... .
(a) Human Resource Depreciation Index
(b) Human development Index
(c) Human Resource Development Index
(d) None of these
319. Which of the following is not a component of Human
Development Index?
(a) Per Capita Income
(b) Life Expectancy Rate
(c) Literacy Rate
(d) Poverty Rate 324. UNDP measures the development of country based
on .......... .
(a) Health
(b) Education
(c) Income
(d) All of these
320. The indicators of economics growth in India are
.......... .
(a) per capital income
(b) rate of capital formation
(c) the production of food grain
(d) all of the above 325. According to a complete index of regional
development, which state stands first in India?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Haryana
(c) Kerala
(d) Punjab
321. Development of a person according to his fuller

326. Which Indian State has better performance in terms Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm330
of Human Development?
(a) Bihar
(b) Orissa
(c) Kerala 331. Agriculture contributes nearly .......... of the GDP in
India.
(d) Uttar Pradesh
(a) 05%
(b) 12%
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm326 (c) 14%
(d) 66%
327. When development in economy takes place the share Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm331
of tertiary sector in national income .......... .
(a) declines
(b) increases
(c) remains constant 332. India remained an underdeveloped country because
of .......... .
(d) first rises and then falls
(a) its dependence of agriculture
(b) its inability to export surplus products
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm327 (c) lack of industries
(d) shortage of raw material
328. Overall welfare of people in any society is determined Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm332

by .......... .
(a) Average income
(b) General levels of literacy
(c) Health status 333. The agency that estimates the national income of
India is called the .......... .
(d) All of these
(a) RBI
(b) Planning commission
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm328 (c) Ministry of finance
(d) Central statistical organisation
329. What is the most common method of measuring the Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm333
economic development of a country?
(a) Freedom
(b) Equal treatment
(c) Security 334. The rise in per capita income in the Seventh Five
Year Plan was .......... .
(d) Income
(a) 13.2%
(b) 14.3%
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm329 (c) 18.4%
(d) 3.7%
330. According to 2010 records, HDI rank of Sri Lanka is Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm334
.......... among 187 countries.
(a) 23
(b) 55
(c) 91 335. Assume there are four families in a country. The
average per capita income of these families is < 5000.
(d) 110
If the income of three families is < 4000, < 7000 and

< 3000 respectively, what is the income of the fourth Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm339
family?
(a) < 7500
(b) < 3000
340. According to 2010 records, HDI rank of India is
(c) < 2000
.......... among 187 countries.
(d) < 6000 (a) 89
(b) 92
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm335 (c) 112
(d) 119
336. According to World Development Report of 2006, Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm340

India is a .......... country.
(a) rich
(b) high-income
341. According to the World Development Report 2006,
(c) developed
countries with per capita income of < 4,53,000 p.a.
(d) low-income and above are called .......... .
(a) Weak countries
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm336 (b) Rich countries
(c) Low income countries
(d) Developing countries
337. In the Human Development Index, the per capita

income is calculated in .......... . Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm341
(a) Indian rupees
(b) currency of every country individually
(c) US dollars
342. Which indicator is considered for comparing different
(d) British pound sterling countries as per the World Health Report by the
World Bank?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm337 (a) Health
(b) Income
(c) Technology
(d) Population
338. Development of a country can generally be determined
by .......... .
(a) its per capita income Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm342
(b) its average literacy level
(d) all of the above 343. Which of the following neighbouring countries has
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm338 than India?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal
339. Which of the following is poorest state in India? (d) Pakistan
(a) Bihar
(b) Odisha
(c) U.P.
(d) M.P.

344. What was India’s HDI rank in 2006? 349. Which of the following States is demanding that the
(a) 1 Central Government recognise it as a category ‘A’
(b) 24 State?
(c) 96 (a) Rajasthan
(d) 126 (b) Gujarat
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
345. Which of the following is a developed country?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Bangladesh 350. Since Iran-India gas pipeline is yet to get final
(c) America approval, the energy hungry India has decided to
join another pipeline project “MEDSTREME”.
(d) Sri Lanka
Medstreme will transport oil/gas from which of the
following nations at one of its terminal ends?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm345 (a) Turkey
(b) Russia
(c) France
(d) Japan
346. What is a better measure to compare two countries
income?
(a) Average Income Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm350
(b) Total Income
(c) Gross Income
(d) None of these
351. Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam has signed agreements
with Nepal and Bhutan for various projects. Sutluj
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm346 Jal Vidyut Nigam is a joint venture of the Power
Ministry and the State of .......... .
(a) Punjab
(b) Himachal Pradesh
347. Comparison of countries on the basis of education, (c) Haryana
health and per capita income is called .......... . (d) Jammu and Kashmir
(a) BME
(b) HDL
(c) BMI Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm351
(d) HDI
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm347 352. Which of the following state is the leading producer
of Kyanite?
(a) Chattiesgarh
(b) Bihar
348. Which of the following state is the leading producer (c) Tamil Nadu
of Laterite? (d) Jharkhand
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Utter Pradesh Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm352
(d) Karnataka
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm348 353. In response to India’s ‘Look East’ policy which of the

following countries has launched ‘Look West’ policy? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm357

(Both are complementary to each other.)
(a) Singapore
(b) China
(c) South Korea 358. Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit (1992) aimed at .........
(a) achieving global sustainable development
(d) Thailand
(b) increasing global food production
(c) encouraging free trade
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm353 (d) identification of resources in developing countries
354. Which of the following neighboring country has a
than India?
(a) Bangladesh 359. Jharia Coal mine is located in the state of
(b) Sri Lanka (a) Gujarat
(c) Nepal (b) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Pakistan (c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Jharkhand
355. Sustainable development seeks to prevent .......... .

(a) Wastage of resources 360. What do you mean by ‘Sustainable Development’ ?
(b) Pollution (a) Using available resources to the fullest.
(c) Loss of biodiversity (b) Using available resources judiciously without
(d) All of these compromising the need of the present and future
generations.
(c) Saving resources for future generation.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm355 (d) Saving resources for present generation.
356. According to the Human Development Index 2004,
which of India’s neighbors ranked better than India?
(a) Nepal
(b) Pakistan 361. Match the following and choose correct option:
(c) Sri Lanka Problems faced by Some possible measures
(d) Myanmar farming sector
1. Unirrigated land A. a Setting up agro-
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm356 based mills
2. Low prices for B. b Cooperative
crops marketing societies
3. Debt burden C. c Procurement
357. Desert Development programme was launched to
of food grains by
mitigate .......... .
government
(a) adverse effect of desertification
(b) adverse effect of deforestation 4. No job in the off D. d Construction
(c) the effect of flood season of canals by the
government
(d) effect of urbanization

5. Compelled to sell E. e Banks to provide 364. Assertion : Suppose the literacy rate in a state is
their grains to the credit with low 78% and the net attendance ratio in secondary stage
local traders soon interest is 47%.
after harvest Reason : More than half of the students are going to
other states for elementary education.
(a) 1-A 2-B 3-C 4-D 5-E (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is
(b) 1-D 2-C 3-E 4-A 5-B the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) 1-C 2-D 3-E 4-A 5-B (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is
(d) 1-B 2-C 3-E 4-D 5-A not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm361 (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/ 365. Assertion : A state has a per capita income of Rs.
225,000 per annum. The infant mortality rate in the
full solutions of all MCQs in print form. state is 2%. So, the state cannot be considered a
To Purchase hard book click below or developed state.
whatsapp at 8905629969. Reason : There are medical facilities in the state, but
people fail to take their children to hospital in time.
Purchase Hard Book (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is
362. Which of the following public facility can ensure (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
development of the society and economy? (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
(a) Pollution-free environment
(b) Protection from infections
(c) Provision of more government schools
(d) Provision of proper medicines
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm362 366. Assertion : A small town has a high rate of robbery;
however, a locality in this town has well- maintained
law and order.
Reason : The people in the locality are aware of
363. Assertion : The average income of a country is the importance of having security guards, and they
about USS 12,056; however, the country is still not a collectively pay to have the security guards in the
developed country. locality.
Reason : The income levels are highly skewed for the (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is
country. the correct explanation of assertion.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is
the correct explanation of assertion. not the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
not the correct explanation of assertion. (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm366
367. Assertion : A country that was extremely rich in

natural resources has mainly relied on oil extraction developmental goals.

for revenue generation for several centuries. However, Reason : The capitalist approach to development is
the scientists predict that the country may become detrimental to poor section of the society.
poor in the future if other means of generating (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is
income are not devised. the correct explanation of assertion.
Reason : Oil is a non-renewable resource, and it is (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is
likely to get exhausted if not used judiciously. not the correct explanation of assertion.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm370
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm367 371. Assertion : Non-renewable resources are abundant

in nature.
Reason : Non-renewable resources can be replenished
over a period of time.
368. Assertion : The crude oil reserves are going down (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is
for the entire world, and the countries need to find the correct explanation of assertion.
substitute fuel for crude oil. (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is
Reason : A country that is dependent on imports for not the correct explanation of assertion.
crude oil will demand more crude oil in the future. (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is
not the correct explanation of assertion. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm371
372. Assertion : A high average income is not indicative
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm368 of the overall well-being or human development in a
country.
Reason : Average income does not cover indicators
like level of literacy rate, health facilities and public
369. Assertion : Sustainable development is essential for facilities in a country.
economic growth of the countries. (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is
Reason : Sustainable development ensures that the correct explanation of assertion.
environment friendly measures are adopted for (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is
carrying out production processes. not the correct explanation of assertion.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm372
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm369 373. Complete the following table with correct information:
Select the correct option for A and B.
Countries with per capita Are called Example

370. Assertion : Different people have different income of (2017)

US $ 12,056 annum and Rich B-? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm375

above countries
US $ between 955 or A-? India
12,056 376. Arrange the following as PER CAPITA INCOME of
(a) A low middle income countries, B-United States, these STATES (from high to low):
Luxembourg, Ireland 1. Goa
(b) A high income countries, B- Bhutan, Pakistan, 2. Haryana
India 3. Kerala
4. Bihar
(c) A low middle income countries, B-Bhutan,
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
Pakistan, India
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(d) A high income countries, B-United States,
Luxembourg, Ireland (c) 1, 3, 4, 2
(d) 3, 4, 2, 1
374. Complete the following table with correct information

regarding BMI. Select the correct option for A and 377. Arrange the following States from high to low as per
B. their Literacy Rate % (2011 Census):
1. Haryana
BMI How to BMI of a BMI of 2. Kerala
calculate person who is a person 3. Bihar
undernourished who is 4. Goa
overweight
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
Body Mass A-? less than 18.5 B-? (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
Index
(c) 1, 3, 4, 2
(a) A-Divide the weight of a person (in kg) by the (d) 2, 4, 1, 3
square of the height (in metres) B-less than 25
(b) A-Divide the weight of a person (in gram) by the
square of the height (in metres) B-More than 25 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm377
(c) A-Divide the weight of a person (in kg) by the
square of the height (in metres) B-More than 25
(d) A-Divide the weight of a person (in kg) by the 378. Identify the category of person based on the
square of the height (in metres) B-More than 50 developmental goal for himself
• Higher income expected due to high support
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm374 price for their crop from Government.
• Looking for cheap labourer for their fields
• Looking to settle its kids in abroad
• Most of the persons in this state are into this
375. Arrange the following countries according to their profession.
Human Development Index (HDI) rank in world (a) Prosperous farmers from Punjab
(2018): (b) Landless rural labourers
1. Sri Lanka (c) Urban unemployed youth
2. Pakistan (d) An adivasi from Narmada valley
3. India
4. Bangladesh
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm378
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 1, 3, 4, 2
(d) 3, 4, 2, 1

379. Identify the kind of Income which is : 381. Look at the picture carefully. What should be the
• The total income of the country divided by its prime developmental goal for such an area?
total population
• Also known as Per capita Income
• Provide a basis for the government to formulate
their policy
• Helps the Government to formulates the yearly
budget
(a) National Income
(b) Personal Income
(c) Total Income
(d) Incom
380. Identify the Indian State which according to

Economic Survey 2018–19, it have
• Per capita Income of 34,409
• Considered as a backward state
• Suffer lots of natural calamities eg. Floods etc
every year
• Have high Infant Mortality rate year 2017
(a) Goa
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Kerala
(a) Slums should be removed from here
(b) The number of storey of the building should be
increased.
Don’t take printout of this file because solution (c) Through regular work and better wages, the
is not given. You can purchase hard book from income of slum area people should be increased.
Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/ (d) Availability of amusement park.
To Purchase hard book click below or Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm381
Purchase Hard Book
382. Which option signifies best as the reason for the

depletion of Groundwater as shown in the picture? Are people in one country better off than others
in a different country? Hence, we compare the
average income which is the total income of the
country divided by its total population. The average
income is also called per capita income. In World
Development Reports, brought out by the World
Bank, this criterion is used in classifying countries.
Countries with per capita income of US$ 12,056 per
annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries
and those with per capita income of US$ 955 or less
are called low-income countries. India comes in the
category of low middle income countries because
it’s per capita income in 2017was just US$1820 per
annum. The rich countries, excluding countries of
Middle East and certain other small countries, are
generally called developed countries.
383. Which country can be considered as a developed

country in the modern world? Select your answer
from the following statements.
(a) Countries which have accumulated huge amounts
of wealth and always secures the future of their
citizens. These countries are considered to be
developed.
(a) Low pumping of water by tubewells (b) Countries which are among the highest in the
(b) If we use more water than what is being ‘Human Development Index’ are considered to
replenished by rain be the developed countries.
(c) Use of tap instead of hand pumps (c) Only rich countries are considered to be developed
(d) Low annual rain-fall because people have money to buy everything
needed for human beings—both material and
non-material.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm382 (d) Iran is a rich country and therefore it is a
developed country.
Source Based Questions 1 : Read the source given below Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm383
appropriate option:
For comparing countries, their income is considered
to be one of the most important attributes. Countries What is considered to be one of the most important
with higher income are more developed than others attributes when we compare countries at the level of
with less income. This is based on the understanding development?
that more income means more of all things that (a) Industrial development
human beings need. Whatever people like, and (b) Resources of the country
should have, they will be able to get with greater (c) Income
income. So, greater income itself is considered to (d) Import-export
be one important goal. Now, what is the income of
country? Intuitively, the income of the country is
the income of all the residents of the country. This Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm383
gives us the total income of the country. However,
for comparison between countries, total income is
not such an useful measure. Since, countries have
different populations, comparing total income will The Middle East countries even though are rich
not tell us what an average person is likely to earn. countries; but they are not considered as a developed

country because (c) revenue income

(a) Its high income is because of Oil exports and not (d) all of the above
because of development.
(b) It has all the facilities of a developed country
because of its high income. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm383
(c) Even after sufficient development they are still
not considered as developed countries.
(d) It does not have many facilities so they are not India comes in which of the following categories of
treated as developed countries. countries based on Per Capita Income?
(a) Rich countries
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm383 (b) Low-income countries
(c) Low middle income countries
(d) Highest income countries
_____ is the total income of the country divided

by its total population. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm383
(a) Gross Income
(b) Per Capita Income
(c) Total Income
(d) Net Income below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm383 Suppose for the present that a particular country
is quite developed. We would certainly like this
level of development to go up further or at least
be maintained for future generations. This is
The passage given above relates to which of the obviously desirable. However, since the second half
following options? of the twentieth century, a number of scientists have
(a) education been warning that the present type, and levels, of
(b) income development are not sustainable. Groundwater is
(c) health an example of renewable resources. These resources
are replenished by nature as in the case of crops
(d) all of these
and plants. However, even these resources may be
overused. For example, in the case of groundwater,
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm383 if we use more than what is being replenished by
rain then we would be overusing this resource.
Consequences of environmental degradation do not
respect national or state boundaries; this issue is
The income of the country is the income of no longer region or nation specific. Our future is
(a) few states of the country linked together. Sustainability of development is
(b) tax collected from public comparatively a new area of knowledge in which
scientists, economists, philosophers and other social
(c) deposits in the bank accounts
scientists are working together.
(d) all the residents of the country
384. Pick out the cause that enhances environmental

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm383 degradation.
(a) Planting trees
(b) Prevention of factory wastes getting mixed up
with river water.
The income which is the total income f the country
divided by its total population is known as: (c) Ban on using plastic bags
(a) average income (d) Allowing an increase in the level of exhaust
(b) per capita income fumes emitted by cars, buses trucks etc.

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm384 (c) exhaustable resource

(d) degradable resource
Which of the following statement defines sustainable Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm384

development?
(a) Sustainable use of natural resources without
considering the need of future generations.
Sustainable development seeks to prevent _____.
(b) The present generation fulfils its needs while
(a) Wastage of resources
considering the needs of the future generations
as well. (b) Pollution
(c) It means the utilisation of natural resources by (c) Loss of biodiversity
the past, present and the future generations. (d) All of these
(d) To meet the needs of the future generations even
if the needs of the present generation is not met. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm384
What kind of development should be achieved by most appropriate option:
making a sincere attempt to preserve the environment Do you know that in India about 60 percent of the
and resources. population belongs to the age group 5-29 years?
(a) Economic Development Out of this, only about 51 per cent are attending
(b) Social Development educational institutions. The rest and particularly
(c) Sustainable Development those aged less than 18 years may be at home or
many of them may be working as child labourers.
(d) Political Development
If these children are to attend schools, we will
require more buildings, more teachers and other
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm384 staff. A study conducted by the erstwhile Planning
Commission estimates that nearly 20 lakh jobs can
be created in the education sector alone. Similarly,
if we are to improve the health situation, we need
The future generation may not have sufficient many more doctors, nurses, health workers etc. to
resources as compared to the present generation work in rural areas. These are some ways by which
because: jobs would be created and we would also be able to
(a) Resources are being used judiciously by the address the important aspects of development. Every
present generation, which will make them state or region has potential for increasing the income
exhausted. and employment for people in that area. It could be
(b) Resources are being used optimally by the present tourism, or regional craft industry, or new services
generation which will make them exhausted. like IT. Some of these would require proper planning
(c) Resources are being overused by present and support from the government. For example, the
generation, which will make them exhausted same study by the Planning Commission says that if
tourism as a sector is improved, every year we can
(d) Resources are not being used by the present
give additional employment to more than 35 lakh
generation, which will make them exhausted.
people.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm384 385. The erstwhile Planning commission is now named

as :
(a) Planned Commission
(b) NITI Aayojana
Groundwater is an example of a/an __________.
(a) renewable resource (c) NITI Aayog
(b) non-renewable resource (d) Planned Aayojana

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm385 3. Per capital incomes in the urban areas arc higher
than that in the rural areas.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
The total number of children of age group 14 and
(c) Only 3
15 years attending schools as a percentage of total
number of children in the same age group is called: (d) 2 and 3
(a) Gross enrolment ratio
(b) Literacy rate Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm385
(c) Net attendance ratio
(d) None of these
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm385 is not given. You can purchase hard book from
Tertiary sector is becoming so important in India To Purchase hard book click below or
because :
(a) These activities do not produce a good by
themselves. Purchase Hard Book
(b) These activities help in the development of the
primary and secondary sectors .
(c) These activities are an aid or support for the
production process. Source Based Questions 4 : Read the source given
(d) These activities generate goods rather than below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the
services. most appropriate option:
The primary sector continues to be the largest

employer even now because:
(a) People barely manage to earn a living.
(b) Enough jobs were not created in the secondary
and tertiary sectors. Kerala, out of 1000 children born, 10 died before
(c) Government has not taken any responsibility for completing one year of age but in Haryana the
providing basic services. proportion of children dying within one year of
(d) None of these birth was 30, which is two times more than that of
Kerala. On the other hand, the per capita income
of Haryana is more than that of Kerala. Just think
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm385 of how dear you are for our parents, think of how
every one is so happy when a child is born. Now,try
to think of parents whose children die before they
even celebrate their first birthday. How painful it
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the must be to these parents? Next, note the year to
urban incomes. Which of the following are incorrect which this data pertains. It is 2017.So we are not
reason’s responsible for this? Select your answer talking of old times; it is 70 years after independence
using the code given below: when our metro cities are full of high rise buildings
1. People in rural areas do not know the right ways and shopping malls. The problem does not end with
of increasing their income. Infant Mortality Rate. Around half of the children
2. Industry has been getting more attention from the aged 14-15 in Bihar are not attending school beyond
government in India. Class 8. This means that if you went to school in

Bihar nearly half of your elementary class would be Identify the things that we cannot buy with money.
missing. Those who could have been in school are (a) Pollution free environment
not there! If this had happened to you, you would (b) Protection us from infectious diseases
not be able to read what you are reading now. How (c) Clothes and cars
is it that the average person in Haryana has more
(d) Both A and B
income than the average person in Kerala but lags
behind in these crucial areas? The reason is —
money in your pocket cannot buy all the goods and Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm386
services that you may need to live well. So, income
by itself is not a completely adequate indicator of
material goods and services that citizens are able to
use. For example, normally, your money cannot buy The passage given above is related to which of the
you a pollution-free environment or ensure that you following options?
get unadulterated medicines, unless you can afford (a) Exhaustion of natural resources
to shift to a community that already has all these (b) Tax
things. Money may also not be able to protect you
(c) Income and public facilities
from infectious diseases, unless the whole of your
community takes preventive steps. Even now, in (d) All of these
many areas, children, particularly girls, are not able
to go to high school because the government/ society Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm386
has not provided adequate facilities. Kerala has a
low Infant Mortality Rate because it has adequate
provision of basic health and educational facilities.
Similarly, in some states, the Public Distribution PDS stands for _______.
System (PDS)functions well. Health and nutritional (a) Power Development System
status of people of such states is certainly likely to
(b) Public Development System
be better.
(c) Public Distribution System
(d) None of these
386. Identify the IMR of Haryana in 2017 and the literacy
rate of Haryana in 2011 from the following options.
(a) 30%, 82% Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm386
(b) 94%,62%
(c) 40%,94%
(d) None of these What is the infant mortality rate?
(a) the number of infant deaths for every 1,000 live
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm386 births
(b) the number of infant deaths for every 100 live
births
(c) the number of infant deaths for every 10,000 live
From the above passage , identify the reason behind births
the low infant mortality rate of kerala. (d) the number of infant births for every 1,000 live
(a) Status of people births.
(b) Adequate provision of basic health and
educational facilities
(c) The per capita income is more
(d) All of these
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm386 Source Based Questions 5 : Read the source given

CRUDE OIL RESERVES :

Regions/ Reserves (2017) Number of Crude Oil Reserves.

Countries (Thousand Million Years (a) Importing from other countries for domestic use.
Barrels) Reserves will (b) overuse of non renewable resources.
last (c) Use of alternative sources of resources.
Middle 808 70 (d) None of these.
East
United 50 10.5 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm387
States of
America
World 1697 50.2
How do powerful countries secure oil for their use?
The table gives an estimate of reserves of crude oil (a) Through military or economic power.
(column1). More importantly, it also tells us for how (b) By buying from the Middle East at higher prices.
many years the stock of crude oil will last if people
(c) By using alternative sources of energy.
continue to extract it at the present rate. The reserves
would last only 50 years more. This is for the world (d) Putting a restriction on usage of Crude oil in
as a whole. However, different countries face different their territories.
situations. Countries like India depend on importing
oil from abroad because they do not have enough Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm387
stocks of their own. If prices of oil increase this
becomes a burden for everyone. There are countries
like the USA which have low reserves and hence want
to secure oil through military or economic power. Source Based Questions 6 : Read the source given
The question of sustainability of development raises below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the
many fundamentally new issues about the nature most appropriate option:
and process of development.
One way to find out if we are properly nourished is to
calculate what nutrition scientists call it BMI. This
387. The stock of Crude Oil for the world will last for how is easy to calculate. Let each student in the class find
many more years? out his or her weight and height. Take the weight of
(a) 70 years each student in kilograms (kg). Then, take the height
(b) 60 years by drawing up a scale on the wall and measuring
accurately with the head straight. Convert the height
(c) 40 years
recorded in centimetres into meters. Divide the
(d) 50 years. weight in kg by the square of the height. The number
you get is called BMI. Then, look at the BMI-for-
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm387 Age tables given on pages 90–91. A student’s BMI
could be within the normal range or less than that
(underweight) or more (obesity). For example, if a
girl student is 14 years and 8 month old and the BMI
The reserve of Crude Oil available in the Middle is is 15.2, then she is undernourished. Similarly, if the
how many times more than the reserves in the USA? BMI of a boy aged 15 years and 6 months is 28, then
(a) 15 times he is overweight. Discuss the life situation, food and
exercise habits of students, in general, without body
(b) 16 times
shaming anyone.
(c) 14 times
(d) 17 times
388. What is BMI?
(a) Body mass information
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm387 (b) Body mean information
(c) Body mean index
(d) Body mass index.
Which among the following is a Judicious use of

Identify the correct formula to calculate the BMI. Source Based Questions 7 : Read the source given
(a) Height / Weight2 below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the
(b) Weight / height2 most appropriate option:
(c) Weight / height “There are many activities that are undertaken by
(d) weight2 / heigh directly using natural resources. Since most of the
natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy,
fishing, forestry, this sector is also called agriculture
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm388 and related sectors. The secondary sector covers
activities in which natural products are changed into
other forms through ways of manufacturing. This
could be in a factory, a workshop, or at home. For
Rahul is 5 ft 6 inches tall and he weighs 82 kilos. example, using cotton fibre from the plant, we spin
Calculate his BMI. yarn and weave cloth. Since this sector gradually
(a) 23.5 became associated with the different kinds of
(b) 29.2 industries that came up, it is also called the industrial
(c) 27.6 sector. After primary and secondary, there is a third
category of activities that falls under the tertiary
(d) 21.3
sector and are different from the above two. These
are activities that help in the development of the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm388 primary and secondary sectors. These activities, by
themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid
or support for the production process. For example,
goods that are produced in the primary or secondary
According to Rahul’s BMI, he is ____. sector would need to be transported by trucks or
(a) Overweight trains and then sold in wholesale and retail shops. At
(b) Underweight times, it may be necessary to store these in godowns.
(c) Normal Transport, storage, communication, banking, trade
are some examples of tertiary activities. Since these
(d) Obese. activities generate services rather than goods, the
tertiary sector is also called the service sector. The
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm388 service sector also includes some essential services
that may not directly help in the production of
goods. For example, we require teachers, doctors,
and those who provide personal services such as
If a girl student is 14 years and 8 month old and the washer-men, barbers, cobblers, lawyers, and people
BMI is 15.2, then she is to do administrative and accounting work.”
(a) Overweight
(b) Underweight 389. Secondary sector: Workers in a match factory,
(c) Normal Tertiary sector: _______
(d) Obese (a) Bee-keeper
(b) Milk vendor
(c) Handloom worker
(d) Tailor
If the BMI of a boy aged 15 years and 6 months is
28, then he is
(a) Overweight
(b) Underweight Which is the correct option for classification based
(c) Normal on nature of activities?
(d) Obese (a) Organised and unorganised sector
(b) Public sector and private sector
(c) Primary, secondary and tertiary sector

(d) None of these Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm389
“After primary and secondary, there is a third Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/
category of activities that falls under the tertiary full solutions of all MCQs in print form.
sector and is different from the above two.” Which
of the following is incorrect regarding the given
statement? whatsapp at 8905629969.
(a) These activities do not produce a good by Purchase Hard Book
themselves.
(b) These activities help in the development of the
primary and secondary sectors.
(c) These activities are an aid or support for the
production process. Source Based Questions 8 : Read the source given
(d) These activities generate goods rather than
services.
You will notice one common thing: what people desire
are regular work, better wages, and decent price for
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm389 their crops or other products that they produce. In
other words, they want more income. Besides seeking
more income, one-way or the other, people also seek
things like equal treatment, freedom, security, and
Choose the incorrect pair: respect of others. They resent discrimination. All
(a) Call centre employee-Secondary sector these are important goals. In fact, in some cases,
(b) IT specialists-Quaternary sector these may be more important than more income or
(c) Potter-Primary Sector more consumption because material goods are not
(d) Money Lender-Tertiary sector all that you need to live. Money, or material things
that one can buy with it, is one factor on which our
life depends. But the quality of our life also depends
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm389 on non-material things mentioned above. If it is not
obvious to you, then just think of the role of your
friends in your life. You may desire their friendship.
Similarly, there are many things that are not easily
Which sector is also called as the industrial sector? measured but they mean a lot to our lives. These are
(a) primary often ignored. However, it will be wrong to conclude
(b) Secondary that what cannot be measured is not important.
(c) Tertiary Similarly, for development, people look at a mix of
(d) None of the above goals. It is true that if women are engaged in paid
work, their dignity in the house hold and society
increases. However, it is also the case that if there
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm389 is respect for women there would be more sharing
of housework and a greater acceptance of women
working outside. A safe and secure environment may
allow more women to take up a variety of jobs or run
Which type of activities do not produce a good? a business.
(a) primary
(b) Secondary 390. Which is the most common method of measuring
(c) Tertiary economic development?
(d) None of the above (a) Income
(b) Selling of produce

(c) Import and export If women are engaged in paid work, their dignity in
(d) Employment the house hold and society______.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) not change
Stable income is attained through Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm390

(a) better wages
(b) Regular work
(c) Work opportunities
(d) Decent price for crops and other products
******
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/hm390 Don’t take printout of this file because solution

Besides seeking more income, there is something full solutions of all MCQs in print form.
people resent, what it is?
(a) Discrimination
(b) Poverty
(c) No work Purchase Hard Book
(d) Getting fewer wages for more work
If women are engaged in paid work, what difference

does it make?
(a) Their dignity in the household and society
decreases.
(b) No difference
(c) Their dignity in the household and society
increases.
Goals are _______________.

(a) Ultimate aims to be achieved
(b) Objectives
(c) Policies
(d) Assumptions

Page 288 Sectors of the Indian Economy Chap 1

CHAPTER 1
Sectors of the Indian Economy
101. The employment and non-employment figures are Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om104

taken from ____ to study the data.
(a) Real-Time Handbook of Statistics on Indian
Economy.
(b) National Statistical Office (NSSO) 105. What is the secondary sector?
(c) NITI Aayog (a) production of a good by exploiting natural
(d) Statistics information Bureau resources
(b) activities in which natural products are changed
into other forms through ways of manufacturing
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om101 (c) activities, by themselves, do not produce a good
but they are an aid or support for the production
process.
102. What are the groups of classification of an economy? (d) Mineral excavation
(a) Sectors
(b) Centres Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om105
(c) Types
(d) Categories
106. Using sugarcane as raw material, we make sugar or

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om102 gur, under what sector does this activity come?
(a) Primary
(b) Private
(c) Industrial
103. When we produce a good by exploiting natural
resources it is called____? (d) Tertiary
(a) Tertiary sector
(b) Primary sector Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om106
(c) Service sector
(d) Public sector
107. Those activities, by themselves, do not produce a

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om103 good but they are an aid or support for the production
process, are called_____.
(a) Primary
(b) Private
104. Which activities come under the agriculture and
(c) Industrial
related sectors?
(a) Dairy (d) Tertiary
(b) Mineral excavation
(c) using cotton fibre from the plant Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om107
(d) Selling agricultural products in the market

Chap 1 Sectors of the Indian Economy Page 289
108. From the given option select the functioning activity (c) Flower cultivator
of the Tertiary sector. (d) Milk vendor
(a) goods that are produced would need to be
transported by trucks or trains and then sold in
wholesale and retail shops Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om112
(b) this sector gradually became associated with the
different kinds of industries
(c) activities in which natural products are changed
113. Not every good (or service) that is produced and sold
into other forms through ways of manufacturing
needs to be counted. It makes sense only to include
(d) produce a good by exploiting natural resources the ____ to get the total production?
(a) values of goods and services in production
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om108 (b) final goods and services
(c) adding up the actual numbers of goods
(d) goods and services in the three sectors
109. Which sector is also called the service sector?

(a) Primary Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om113
(b) Public
(c) Industrial
(d) Tertiary 114. From the given option select an example of an
intermediate good?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om109 (a) Woven basket
(b) Chair production from wood
(c) Wheat flour
(d) Biscuits
110. The sum of production in the three sectors gives, is
called the ___ of a country.
(a) Gross income Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om114
(b) Gross Domestic Product
(c) Net Domestic Product
(d) Net income 115. It has been noted from the histories of many,
now developed, countries that at initial stages of
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om110 development, ____ sector was the most important
sector of economic activity.
(a) Public
(b) Tertiary
111. The value of final goods and services produced in each (c) Secondary
sector during a particular year provides the____. (d) Primary
(a) Average Production of the sector for that year
(b) Net Production of the sector for that year
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om115
(c) Total production of the sector for that year.
(d) Gross production of the sector for that year
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om111 116. As the methods of farming changed and the

agriculture sector began to prosper, most of the
goods produced were ____from the primary sector
and most people were also employed in this sector?
112. Which one is a primary occupation? (a) Synthetic products
(a) Tailor (b) Involved machines
(b) Basket weaver (c) Natural products

(d) Mixed products productive sector in 2013-14?

(a) Primary
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om116 (b) Tertiary
(c) Secondary
(d) Equal production

121. The secondary sector is also called____.
To Purchase hard book click below or (a) Organised sector
whatsapp at 8905629969. (b) Service sector
Purchase Hard Book (c) Industrial sector
(d) Public sector
117. Why did the Secondary sector later become the most Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om121
important sector? Select he correct option.
(a) People began to use many more goods that were
produced in factories at cheap rates
(b) Employment increased 122. Which sector has grown the most over forty years?
(c) Agriculture declined (a) Primary
(d) a and b (b) Tertiary
(c) Secondary
(d) Equal production
118. In developed countries, the____ sector has become
the most important in terms of total production.
(a) Primary 123. Which of these can be considered as basic services?
(b) Industrial (a) Growing of wheat
(c) Service (b) Transport
(d) Public (c) Storage
(d) Police station
119. The primary sector is also called____.

(a) Service sector 124. Greater the development of the primary and
(b) Agriculture and related sector secondary sectors, ____would be the demand for
(c) Pre- industry sector such services?
(a) Equal
(d) Unorganized sector
(b) More
(c) Less
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om119 (d) Uneven
120. In the data given of GDP which was the most

125. When income levels rise, certain sections of people (d) Information technology
start demanding many more services like____.
(a) A. More food
(b) Hospitals
(c) Defense
(d) Tourism
130. GDP is the total value of _____produced during
a particular year.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om125 (a) all goods and services
(c) all intermediate goods and services
126. Over the past decade or so, certain new services such (d) all intermediate and final goods and services
as ____ have become important and essential?
(a) private hospitals
(b) professional training
(c) information and communication technology
(d) Insurance
131. _____ sector help in development of primary and
secondary sector.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om126 (a) Private sector
(b) Public sector
(c) Tertiary sector
127. Underemployment is hidden in contrast to someone (d) Agriculture
who does not have a job and is clearly visible as
unemployed. It is also called _____.
(a) Hidden employment Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om131
(b) Disguised unemployment.
(c) Unstable employment
(d) Less employment 132. MNREGA was launched in
(a) 2004
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om127 (b) 2005
(c) 2006
(d) 2007
128. The sectors are classified into public and private

sector on the basis of: Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om132
(c) ownership of enterprises 133. Most of the workers in the ____ sector enjoy job
(d) number of workers employed in the enterprise security.
(a) Organised
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om128 (b) Unorganised
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
129. Production of a commodity, mostly through the

natural process, is an activity in _____ sector. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om133
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary

134. Which of the following is not part of tertiary sector? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om138
(a) Banks
(b) Hospitals
(c) ATMs
139. _____ sector also includes some essential services
(d) Mining
that may not directly help in the production of goods.
(a) Secondary
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om134 (b) Primary
(c) Service
(d) all of these
135. There are many activities that are undertaken by
directly using natural resources. Which of the Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om139
following is the example of this activity?
(a) the cultivation of cotton.
(b) spin yarn and weave cloth from cotton
(c) sugar or gur. 140. ____ sector is also called agriculture and related
sector?
(d) use of bricks to make houses
(a) secondary
(b) service
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om135 (c) primary
(d) tertiary
136. _____activities, do not produce a good but they Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om140

are an aid or a support for the production process.
(a) Secondary Sector
(b) Primary Sector
(c) tertiary sector 141. Which of the given sectors forms the base for all
other products that we subsequently make?
(d) all of these
(a) manufacturing sectors
(b) primary sectors
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om136 (c) secondary sectors
(d) tertiary sectors
137. ____ sector is also called the service sector. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om141
(a) Primary
(b) secondary
(c) tertiary
142. Tata Iron and Steel company is example of
(d) none of these
(a) Private Company
(b) Government Company
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om137 (c) Technology Company
(d) None of these
138. Which of the following is not the example of Tertiary Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om142
sector?
(a) Transport
(b) Internet cafe
(c) Communication 143. In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is
undertaken by
(d) Milk
(a) Parliament

(b) President 148. Economists suggest that the____ of goods and

(c) Government of India services should be used rather than adding up the
(d) State government _____?
(a) values, actual numbers
(b) actual numbers, values
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om143 (c) Any numbers,less values
(d) values,false numbers
144. Extraction of raw materials is the activity of Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om148

_____sector.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) tertiary 149. The size of a nation’s economy is commonly expressed
(d) All of these as its
(a) GDP
(b) RIL
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om144 (c) TISCO
(d) MGNREGA
145. What one of the following activities comes under Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om149
primary sector ?
(a) Agriculture
(b) dairy
(c) fishing 150. The total production of a year in the three sectors is
(d) banking calculated from_____.
(a) the value of goods calculated separately at all
stages of production in that sector
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om145 (b) the value of final goods produced in that sector
(c) the value of final goods and services produced in
all the sector
(d) the value of final goods and services produced in
146. The ____is dependent on the ___ for supply of
the three sectors
raw materials to keep up continuous production.
(a) secondary sector, primary sector
(b) primary sector, tertiary sector Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om150
(c) secondary sector, tertiary sector
(d) primary sector, secondary sector
151. In India, Agriculture contributes nearly ____of the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om146 country’s GDP.
(a) Less than 10%
(b) Nearly 14%
(c) Nearly 50%
147. Which sector is dominant sector in terms of
(d) Nearly 75%
employment?
(a) primary sector
(b) tertiary sector Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om151
(c) secondary sector
(d) service sector
152. Which of the following statements is correct with
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om147 regards to India?
(a) Tertiary sector contributes the maximum to

GDP. 156. Which sector has the maximum quantum of disguised

(b) India is basically a socialist economy unemployment in India?
(c) In india,distribution of income and wealth is (a) Agriculture
quite equitable (b) Industry
(d) None of the above (c) Trade
(d) Transport
153. In India, Agriculture provides employment to

_____ of the population. Don’t take printout of this file because solution
(a) Less than 25% is not given. You can purchase hard book from
(b) 50% to 60% Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/
(c) 50% to 60% full solutions of all MCQs in print form.
(d) More than 60%
Purchase Hard Book
154. Which of the statements below are true?

157. Industrial Sector contributes about _____ to the
A. Agriculture accounts for more than half of
country’s GDP.
national income and engages more than half of
(a) Nil
the population in India.
B. Service sector employs around 34% of India’s (b) 100%
working population. (c) 50%
C. Industries account for less than 10% of India’s (d) 31%
working population.
(a) A and B
(b) only C
(c) A, B and C
(d) Only B 158. Service sector’s contribution in GDP in 2011-12 was
___.
(a) 31.1%
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om154 (b) 44.1%
(c) 45.7%
(d) 59.1%
155. In terms of GDP the share of tertiary sector in 2003
is ____.
(a) between 20 % to 30 %
(b) between 30 % to 40 %
(c) between 50 % to 60 %
(d) 70 % 159. In the case of _____ countries, the share of service
sector to GDP is about 60% or more.
(a) underdeveloped
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om155 (b) developing
(c) developed

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om159 independence to the current date.

(a) increased
(b) decreased
(c) remained constant
160. The maximum number of people in India work in the
_____.
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om164
(c) Tertiary sector
165. Which one of the following is correct? Over the years
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om160 the ____.
(a) agricultural production has been falling
(b) the industrial production has been falling
(c) the share of service sector and manufacturing
161. Which of the following is true with regards to GDP sector in india’s GDP has been stagnant
in India?
(d) the share of the agricultural sector in India’s
(a) Primary sector’s contribution to GDP has
GDP has been falling.
(b) secondary sector contributes maximum to GDP
(d) Service sector contributed maximum to GDP.
166. Which of the following is included in primary sector?
(a) Changing of natural products into other forms.
(b) Some process of manufacturing.
162. The share of service sector to GDP in India is (c) Borrowing money from the bank.
showing a/an ____ trend.
(d) Sowing seeds and using manure and water to get
(a) increasing
grains.
(b) decreasing
(c) constant
167. Occupations of basket weavers, gardeners, and
potters come under which one of the following
economic sectors?
163. Role of Agriculture is significant in the Indian (a) Tertiary sector
Economy because ____. (b) Primary sector
(a) it contributes about 1/4th of the GDP (c) Secondary sector
(b) it provides employment to about 50%-60% of the (d) Service sector
population
(d) neither (a)nor(b)
168. In which one of the following sectors, the production
of a commodity is mostly through the natural
process?
164. In India, contribution of agriculture to GDP (in (a) Primary
percentage terms) has ____ from period of

(b) Secondary 173. Which one of the following occupations falls in the
(c) Tertiary tertiary sector?
(d) Service sector (a) Agriculture
(b) Dairy
(c) Communication
(d) Forestry
169. Tertiary sector is also called:
(a) industrial sector.
(b) service sector.
(c) government sector. 174. Select the full form of NREGA.
(d) primary sector. (a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.
(b) National Regional Employment Guarantee Act.
(c) National Regional Employment Generation Act.
(d) None of these.
170. The service sector in India has:
(a) homogeneous character.
(b) heterogeneous character.
(c) continuous fluctuating. 175. What will happen if the government fails to provide
(d) largest employment. 100 day’s employment under NREGA?
(a) No extra benefit will be given.
(b) The officer-in-change will be punished.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om170 (c) Unemployment allowance will be given.
(d) None of these.
171. All the basic services like transport, banks, insurance Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om175
belong to which of the following sectors?
(a) Primary sector
(c) Tertiary sector 176. Which of the following is also called hidden
(d) IT sector unemployment?
(a) Under employment.
(b) Disguised unemployment.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om171 (c) Seasonal unemployment.
(d) Cyclical unemployment.
172. Which of the following types of activities are covered Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om176
in the secondary sector?
(a) It generates services rather than goods.
(b) Natural products are changed through
manufacturing. 177. The major objective of implementing NREGA 2005
(c) Goods are produced by exploiting natural was to:
resources. (a) increase crop productivity.
(d) It includes agriculture, forestry and dairy. (b) make lazy people work.
(c) provide employment to those who are able to
work and also guarantee employment for 100
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om172 days in a year.

(d)
provide unemployment allowances to rural the unorganised sector?
women. (a) Schedule castes
(b) Schedule tribes
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om177 (c) Rich families
(d) Backward communities
178. Which was the largest producing sector in 2013-14?

(a) Primary sector
(c) Tertiary sector 183. Which of the following is not applicable for a worker,
(d) None of these. who works in the organised sector?
(a) She gets a regular salary at the end of the month.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om178 (b) She is not paid for leave.
(c) She gets medical allowance.
(d) She got an appointment letter stating the terms
and conditions of work when she joined this
179. Tertiary sector has become an important part of work.
Indian economy on account of:
(a) development of agriculture and industry.
(b) rise in levels of income.
(c) both (a) and (b).
(d) none of the above.
184. Which one of the following is a feature of organised
sector?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om179 (a) Workers are exploited.
(b) Rules and regulations are violated.
(c) Jobs are low paid.
180. Disguised unemployment means a situation where (d) Formal processes and procedures are followed.
people are:
(a) unemployed.
(b) employed but earning less salary.
(c) employed but productivity is nil.
(d) unemployed for a short period of time.
185. Identify the feature of the unorganised sector.
(a) Rules and regulations are followed.
(b) Workers enjoy security of employment.
(c) Employment is not secure.
(d) It follows some formal processes and procedures.
181. Workers in agricultural sector are:
(a) underemployed
(b) overemployed
(c) unemployed
(d) none of these
186. Workers enjoy job security in:
(a) Agriculture sector.
(b) Private sector.
(c) Unorganised sector.
(d) Organised sector.
182. Which of them generally do not find themselves in

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om186 191. Public enterprises are owned by :

(a) individual owners
(b) government
(c) both government and individual
187. The service sector includes activities such as :
(a) agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry
(b) making sugar, gur and bricks
(c) transport, communication and banking Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om191
(d) none of these
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om187 192. Which of the following economic activity is not in

the tertiary sector ?
(a) Banking
(b) Bee keeping
188. Choose the correct meaning of organised sector : (c) Teaching
(a) It covers those enterprises where the terms of
(d) Working in a call centre
employment are regular
(b) It is outside the control of the government
(c) Jobs are not regular Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om192
(d) It provides low salaries
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om188 Don’t take printout of this file because solution

189. On which of the following basis, the sectors are full solutions of all MCQs in print form.
classified into public and private sectors ? To Purchase hard book click below or
(a) Employment conditions whatsapp at 8905629969.
(b) The nature of economic activity
Purchase Hard Book
(c) Ownership of enterprises
(d) Number of workers employed in the enterprise
(c) Ownership of enterprises
193. The motive of public sector enterprises is
(a) profit making
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om189 (b) entertainment
(c) social welfare and security
190. Which of the following types of activities are covered
in the secondary sector ? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om193
(a) It generates services rather than goods
(b) Natural products are changed through
manufacturing
(c) Goods are produced by exploiting natural 194. Which of the following Acts would not apply to a
resources company like TISCO ?
(d) It includes agriculture, forestry and dairy (a) Minimum Wages Act
(b) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om190 (c) Factories Act
(d) Payment of Gratuity Act

195. Which of the following economic activity is not in (d) Scientific technology
the tertiary sector ?
(a) Money lending
(b) Bee keeping
(c) Tailoring
(d) Working in a call centre
200. According to the World Development Report 2006,
the per capita income of the low income countries in
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om195 2004 should be :
(a) Rs. 90,000/- or less
(b) Rs. 75,000/- or less
196. Which one of the following best defines GDP ? (c) Rs. 55,000/- or less
(a) Sum of all final goods and services produced in a (d) Rs. 37,000/- or less
country in a year.
(b) Sum of all final and intermediate goods produced
in a country in a year.
(c) Sum of values of all final goods and services
produced in a country in a year.
201. Which one of the following sectors has the largest
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om196 employer in India ?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
197. Which one of the following activities does not belong (d) IT sector
to the primary sector ?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Dairy Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om201
(c) Mining
(d) Weaving
202. Which of the following activities is not the activity
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om197 of primary sector ?
(a) Milking
(b) Fishing
(c) Making of sugar
198. Which of the following is also known as disguised (d) Farming
employment ?
(a) Over employment
(b) Factory employment Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om202
(c) Under employment
(d) Unemployment
203. Which of the following statements is true in respect
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om198 of public sector ?
(a) Big companies own most of the assets
(b) Government owns the assets
(c) A group of people owns most of the assets
199. Agriculture, dairy, farming are activities belonging (d) An individual owns most of the assets
to which of the following sectors ?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om203
(c) Tertiary

204. Which of the following is not an activity of tertiary Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om208

sector ?
(a) Banking
(b) Dairy
(c) Transport 209. Which of the following sectors was the largest
producer in 1973 ?
(d) Communication
(a) Primary sector
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om204 (c) Tertiary sector
(d) None of these
205. Which of the following is an activity of unorganised Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om209

sector ?
(a) Teacher taking a class in Kendriya Vidyalaya
(b) A nurse working in a Govt. hospital
(c) A farmer irrigating his field 210. Which sector has the provision of paid leave ?
(a) Unorganised sector
(d) A clerk working in the post office
(b) Organised sector
(c) Rural sector
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om205 (d) None of these
206. On which of the following economic basis the sectors
are classified into organised and unorganised sector ?
(a) The nature of economic activity
(b) Ownership of enterprises 211. When was NREGA enacted?
(c) Employment conditions (a) 2004
(d) Number of workers employed in the enterprise (b) 2005
(c) 2006
(d) 2007
207. Which of the following agencies estimates the Gross
Domestic Products (GDP) in India ?
(a) All the state government 212. Which one of the following is a feature of public
(b) An autonomous body sector ?
(c) A ministry of the Union Government (a) Ownership of assets is in the hands of private
individuals or companies
(b) Activities are guided by the motive to earn
profits
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om207 (c) The government owns most of the assets
208. Which one of the following countries has the largest Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om212
size of illiterate population in the world ?
(a) India
(b) Japan
(c) France 213. Which one of the following is not a feature of private
sector ?
(d) Germany
(a) Ownership of assets is in the hands of private

individuals or companies 218. Which of the following is not a feature covered under
(b) Activities are guided by motive to earn profits NREGA 2005.
(c) The government owns most of the assets (a) Skilled work to every adult
(d) None of the above (b) 100 days of employment in a year
(c) If the government fails in its duty to provide
employment, it will give unemployment
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om213 allowances
(d) It is completely financed by the government
214. Which one of the following occupations falls in the Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om218
tertiary sector ?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Dairy
(c) Communication 219. ____ sector help in development of primary and
secondary sector.
(d) Forestry
(a) Private sector
(b) Public sector
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om214 (c) Tertiary sector
(d) Agriculture
215. Which of the following is a tertiary occupation? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om219

(a) Engineering
(b) Agriculture
(c) Fishing
220. Which sector of Indian economy has shown
(d) Tourism
remarkable expansion during the last decade?
(a) Primary sector
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om215 (b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Mining sector
216. Which of the following is an activity related the
unorganised sector? Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om220
(a) An engineer drawing a rough sketch of a dam
(b) A small or marginal farmer
(c) A lecture teaching in a college
221. Disguised unemployment is also called ____.
(d) A doctor treating a patient in a hospital
(a) underemployment
(b) youth employment
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om216 (c) unemployment
(d) voluntary unemployment
217. Large scale industrial and agriculture units with a Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om221
defined pattern of production and employment are
the part of ____.
(a) Unorganized sector
(b) Organized sector 222. According to the World Development Report 2006,
(c) Agriculture sector countries with per capita income of Rs 4,53,000 p.a.
and above are called ____.
(d) None of these
(a) weak countries
(b) Rich countries
(c) low income countries Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om226

(d) developing countries
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om222 227. Vehicle repair, selling of goods like vegetables, fish
on head; puncture repairers and others belong to
_______ sector.
(a) Organised
223. From the following, ____ does not come under
(b) Unorganised
organised sector.
(a) Postman (c) Tertiary
(b) Doctor (d) None of these
(c) Teacher
(d) Agricultural labour Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om227
228. The _______ sector of work is that sector where
legal provisions do not completely govern.
(a) Organised
(b) Primary
is .......... .
(a) between 20 percent to 30 percent (c) Secondary
(b) between 30 percent to 40 percent (d) Unorganised
(c) between 50 percent to 60 percent
(d) 70 percent Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om228
229. The labour sector is divided as ______ sectors.
(a) Primary, Secondary and Tertiary
(b) Organised and Unorganised
225. The sector which is enrolled as per the law of the
government, and provided fixed wages, facilities (c) Both (a) and (b)
within the framework of law is called as .......... (d) None of these
Sector.
(a) Organized Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om229
(b) Primary
(c) Unorganised
(d) Tertiary
230. A major financial newspaper while writing about
the present status of the economy in India write,
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om225 “The outlook in the agricultural sector gives room
for optimism”. What does it really mean ? [Pick up
the most appropriate statement(s).]
(A) The agricultural sector, which was not playing
226. The purpose of employment assurance scheme under any significant role in the Indian economy, is
MGNREGA was? now growing very fast and significantly.
(a) To provide 100 days employment for unskilled (B) The agricultural sector is not going to play any
manual worker major role in the economy as its progress is still
(b) To provide employment for skilled labour very slow.
(c) To give basic food for people below poverty line (C) Govt will not require to provide any boost-up
(d) To provide housing facility for people below package to the agricultural sector as it is likely
poverty line to be satisfactory this year.
(a) Only A

(b) Only B (c) 39%

(c) Only C (d) 46%
(d) Either A or C
235. When more people are engaged in a work than

231. When was the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural required what does it indicate?
Employment Guarantee Act” passed? (a) Unemployment
(a) 2001 (b) Over employment
(b) 2003 (c) Disguised employment
(c) 2005 (d) Surplus employment
(d) 2007
236. In terms of GDP, the share of primary sector in 2003

232. Till 2000, which sector has been the largest employer? was about .......... percent.
(a) Service sector (a) 20
(b) Primary sector (b) 25
(c) Secondary sector (c) 50
(d) Tertiary sector (d) 55
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om232 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om236
233. The National Development Fund was created by the 237. Who is responsible for measuring the GDP in India?
Government of India a few years ago. What was the (a) State government
purpose of the fund? (b) Central government
A. To boost investment in social sector projects to (c) World bank with the help of the central
promote education, healthcare, and employment. government
B. To make capital investments in selected profitable (d) Central government with the help of state
PSEs to yield adequate returns. governments and union territories
C. To fund revision in the pay structure of Central
Government employees.
(a) Only A Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om237
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
(d) Both A and B
238. Who measures the GDP in India?
(a) State government
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om233 (b) Central government
(c) World Bank with the help of the central
government
(d) Central government with the help of state
234. What is the contribution of industries in India’s governments
GDP?
(a) 19%
(b) 27% Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om238

239. Which sector contributes most to the GDP of India? (b) 6 to 10

(a) Primary sector (c) 10 to 15
(b) Secondary sector (d) None of the above
(c) Service sector
244. We know that the industrial sector plays an important
role in the development of India. Which sector does
240. Which of the following scheme has NOT been not come under industrial sector?
launched to provide any type of employment to (a) Mining
beneficiaries? (b) Manufacturing
(a) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (c) Banking
(b) Mid Day Meal Scheme (d) Utilities
(c) National Food for Work Programme
(d) All are employment-generating schemes
241. The total production of a year for a particular sector Amazon. Hard book includes explanation/
is calculated from .......... .
(a) the value of goods calculated separately at all
stages of production in that sector To Purchase hard book click below or
(b) the value of final goods produced in that sector whatsapp at 8905629969.
(c) the value of final goods and services produced in Purchase Hard Book
all the sector
(d) the value of final goods and services produced in
the three sectors
245. Which of the following statements about agricultural
sector in the economy of India is/are correct?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om241 A. Agricultural growth has reduced poverty of the
people locally and, through its external effects,
also in many other parts of the country.
B. Food and nutrition security in the country has
242. GDP is the total value of .......... produced during a increased substantially.
particular year. C. The area of cultivation has increased in recent
(a) all goods and services past as agriculture has become a full-time
(b) all final goods and services employment for the people, which was not so a
(c) all intermediate goods and services few years back.
(d) all intermediate and final goods and services (a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
(d) Both A and B
243. Under which range, India lies in terms of Nominal
GDP?
(a) 1 to 5

246. As development of country takes place, share of (d) tertiary sector

which sector rises?
(a) Primary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Both (b) and (c)
251. The share of agriculture in India’s national income
has .......... over the years.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om246 (a) increased
(b) decreased
247. Which of the following sector contributes the most (d) first decreased and then increased
towards the GDP in India?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
252. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The service sector contributes more than half of
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om247 the GDP of India.
(b) The scope of attracting tourists is limited as
there is hardly any place of tourist attraction in
248. Agriculture sector contributes around 55% of GDP India.
in 1950-51, which has come down to .......... % in (c) Generally as an economy grows first service
2011-12. sector grows and then agriculture and industrial
(a) 20 sectors grow.
(b) 14 (d) None of the above
(c) 25
(d) 28 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om252
253. As an economy grows, the share of .......... to the
GDP increases.
(a) Primary and Secondary Sectors
249. Share of agriculture and their allied products in total
export is about .......... as per 2011-12. (b) Secondary and Tertiary Sectors
(a) 60% (c) Tertiary and Primary Sectors
(b) 65% (d) None of the above
(c) 10%
(d) 75% Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om253
254. Employment in small industry sector has been ..........
.
(a) nearly 50% of total industrial employment
250. The largest proportion of work force in India is
engaged in the .......... . (b) one-third of the number of employment offered
(a) external sector by modern industries
(b) primary sector (c) about 10% of the total industrial employment
(c) secondary sector (d) only 20% of the total industrial employment

255. As an economy grows, the share of Primary Sector to 259. The share of Industry Sector to GDP is showing
the GDP .......... . .......... trend.
(a) increases (a) increasing
(b) decreases (b) decreasing
(c) remains constant (c) constant
(d) nothing can be said (d) nothing can be said
256. In India, the share of agriculture in GDP has declined 260. In India, Agriculture provides employment to ..........
at a very fast rate in the recent years. This is due to of the population.
.......... . (a) Less than 25%
(a) lack of diversification of rural economy (b) 25% to 50%
(b) slow growth in the prices of agriculture (c) 50% to 60%
commodities (d) More than 60%
(c) saturation of employment opportunities in the
agriculture sector
(d) very slow growth rate of agriculture and a fast Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om260
rate of growth of other sectors
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om256 261. In India, Contribution of Agriculture to GDP (in

absolute amount terms) has .......... from period of
independence to the current date.
(a) increased
257. Which one of the following is correct? Over the years (b) decreased
the .......... . (c) remained constant
(a) agricultural production has been falling
(b) the industrial production has been falling
(c) the share of service sector and manufacturing
sector in India’s GDP has been stagnant Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om261
(d) the share of the agricultural sector in India’s
GDP has been falling
262. Role of Agriculture is significant in the Indian
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om257 Economy because .......... .
(a) it contributes about ¼th of the GDP
(b) it provides employment to about 50%-60% of the
population
258. In India, absolute number of people employed (c) Both (a) and (b)
in Agriculture had .......... from the period of
independence.
(a) increased
(b) decreased Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om262
263. In India, Agriculture contributes nearly .......... of the

country’s GDP. (c) Both (a) and (b)

(a) Less than 10% (d) Service sector contributed maximum to GDP.
(b) Nearly 14%
(c) Nearly 50%
(d) Nearly 75%
268. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Service sector contributes more than half of the
GDP of India.
264. Industrial Sector contributes about .......... to the (b) The scope of attracting tourists is limited as
country’s GDP. there is hardly any place of tourist attraction in
(a) Nil India.
(b) 100% (c) As an economy grows, first service sector grows
(c) 50% and then agriculture and industrial sector grows.
(d) 31% (d) None of the above
265. In India, percentage of population employed in 269. In the case of .......... countries, the share of service
Agriculture has .......... from period of independence sector to GDP is about 60% or more.
to the current date. (a) underdeveloped
(a) increased (b) developing
(b) decreased (c) developed
(c) remained constant (d) all of the above
270. Which of these can be an indicator of economic

266. In India, contribution of agriculture to GDP growth for a country?
(in percentage terms) has .......... from period of (a) Balance of payment position
independence to the current date. (b) Increase in government spending on defence
(a) increased (c) increase in labour productivity
(b) decreased (d) demographic changes
(d) nothing can be said Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om270
271. Which of the following statements is correct with
regards to India?
267. Which of the following is true with regards to GDP (a) Tertiary sector contributes the maximum to
in India? GDP.
(a) Primary sector’s contribution to GDP has (b) India is basically a socialist economy.
consistently increased. (c) In India, distribution of income and wealth is
(b) Secondary sector contributes maximum to GDP. quite equitable.

(d) None of the above 276. In agricultural sector net value added is estimated
by .......... .
(a) income method
(b) production method
(d) survey method
272. Service Sector accounted for nearly .......... of Exports
(2011-12).
(a) two third
(b) one fourth
(c) one third
(d) two fourth 277. The maximum number of people in India work in
the .......... .
(a) primary sector
(b) secondary sector
(c) tertiary sector
273. Which of the following occupied the highest place in
growth rate during the 10th Plan period 2002−2007?
(a) Agricultural sector
(b) Service sector
(c) Industrial sector
(d) Mining 278. How many days of work is guaranteed under
MNREGA?
(a) 110
(b) 100
(c) 120
(d) 125
274. Which of the following is a contribution of service
sector to the Indian economy?
(a) Share in GDP
(b) Share in exports
(c) Employment opportunities
(d) All of the above 279. .......... sector help in development of primary and
secondary sector.
(a) private sector
(b) public sector
(c) tertiary sector
(d) agriculture
275. The share of service sector to GDP in India is
showing a/an .......... trend.
(a) increasing
(b) decreasing
(c) constant
(d) none of the above 280. Which of the following is not part of tertiary sector
(a) Banks
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om275 (b) Hospitals
(c) ATMs
(d) Mining

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om280 (b) President

(c) Government of India
(d) State government
281. Occupational structure refers to .......... .

(a) distribution of working force among the difference Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om285
occupations
(b) the nature of different occupations
(c) size of working force in a country
286. Which of the following sectors in India are
(d) number of people living in a country underemployed?
(a) Industrial
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om281 (b) Services
(c) Agricultural
(d) None of these
282. Highest number of people in India are employed in

(a) Agriculture Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om286
(b) Industries
(c) Services
(d) Mines 287. Tata Iron and Steel company is example of
(a) Private Company
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om282 (b) Government Company
(c) Technology Company
(d) None of these
283. At the time of independence nearly 76% of the

population was dependent on agriculture sector, by Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om287
2009-10 this shifted to approximately .......... .
(a) 50%
(b) 70%
288. The .......... is characterised by small and scattered
(c) 80%
units which are largely outside the control of the
(d) None of the above government.
(a) Primary sector
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om283 (b) Organised sector
(c) Unorganised sector
(d) Tertiary sector
284. Underemployment occurs when people-

(a) do not want to work Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om288
(b) are working in a lazy manner
(c) are working less than what they are capable of
doing
289. Which of the following does not come under Primary
(d) are not paid for their work sector?
(a) Cotton cultivation
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om284 (b) Milk production
(c) Fishermen
(d) Priest
285. In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is

undertaken by Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om289
(a) Parliament

290. When we produce a good by exploiting natural (d) number of workers employed in the enterprise
resources, it is an activity of the
(a) Secondary sector
(b) Primary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Essential sector
295. Workers in the .......... sector do not produce goods.
(a) Industrial
(b) Tertiary
(c) Agricultural
(d) Secondary
291. Which sector is also called agricultural related sector?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Private
296. MNREGA is related to
(a) Right to education
(b) Right to work
(c) Right to Life
(d) Right to equality
292. The .......... covers activities in which natural
products are changed into other forms through ways
of manufacturing that we associate with industrial Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om296
activity.
(a) Secondary sector
(b) Primary sector
297. .......... is the value of all final goods and services
(c) Tertiary sector produced within a country during a particular year.
(d) Industries (a) GNP
(b) GDP
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om292 (c) Inflation Rate
(d) Industrial output
293. Which of the following sectors of economy is also Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om297

called Industrial sector?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
298. Most of the workers in the .......... sector enjoy job
(c) Tertiary security.
(d) None of these (a) Organised
(b) Unorganised
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om293 (c) Both (a) and (b)
294. The sectors are classified into public and private Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om298
sector on the basis of
299. Service sector’s contribution in GDP in 2011-12 was
(c) ownership of enterprises

.......... . unemployment in India?

(a) 31.1% (a) Agriculture
(b) 44.1% (b) Industry
(c) 45.7% (c) Trade
(d) 59.1% (d) Transport
300. In 2010-11 agro imports constituted about .......... of 304. In absolute terms, the number of people engaged in
total import. agricultural activities over the planning period has
(a) 2.5% .......... .
(b) 2.4% (a) remained constant
(c) 3.13% (b) increased
(d) 3% (c) decreased
(d) first increased and then decreased
301. Which of the statements below are true?

A. Agriculture accounts for more than half of 305. In terms of GDP the share of tertiary sector in 2003
national income and engages more than half of was .......... .
the population in India. (a) between 20% to 30%
B. Service sector employs around 34% of India’s (b) between 30% to 40%
working population. (c) between 50% to 60%
C. Industries account for less than 10% of India’s
(d) more than 70%
working population.
(a) A and B Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om305
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
(d) A, B and C
306. In terms of GDP, the share of the secondary sector in
2003 was about .......... per cent.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om301 (a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 50
(d) 55
302. Which was the least producing sector in year 1973 ?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om306
(c) Tertiary
307. Consider the following statement :
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om302 1. Agriculture and related sector is called the
primary sector of the economy.
2. Primary activities are those which are directly
produced from natural resources.
303. Which sector has the maximum quantum of disguised Which of the able statement are correct?
(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om310

(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) none
311. Assertion : Rakesh is an educated and skilled worker

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om307 who earns a high monthly salary as he is employed
in a private bank in a city.
Reason : All service sectors in India are growing
extremely well and each individual engaged in
308. Assertion : Employment opportunities in the any kind of tertiary activity earns a high income.
organized sector have been expanding slowly. (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is
Reason : Many organized sector enterprises work in the correct explanation of assertion.
the manner of unorganized sector. and the organized
sectors don’t want to give high wages to the workers.
the correct explanation of assertion. (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om311
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om308 312. Assertion : Leela works five days a week, receives
her income on the last day of each month and gets
medical facilities from her firm.
Reason : Leela is working in organized sector.
309. Assertion : An individual who manufactures flour (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is
from wheat is engaged in primary sector. the correct explanation of assertion.
Reason : When some process of manufacturing is
used the product is a part of secondary sector.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om312
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om309 Don’t take printout of this file because solution

310. Assertion : The development of agriculture and full solutions of all MCQs in print form.
industry leads to the development of service sector. To Purchase hard book click below or
Reason : As the primary and secondary sectors whatsapp at 8905629969.
develops, the demand for transport, storage
structures, banks, insurance, etc., increases. Purchase Hard Book
313. Assertion : Mohan is a shopkeeper who pays his
taxes on time. He has employed two workers Rakesh
and Raghu in his shop. He pays them well, however,
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false. none of the workers get any paid leaves in the year.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false. Reason : Rakesh and Raghu are employed in
unorganized sector.

(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
the correct explanation of assertion. (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om313 317. Assertion : GDP shows how big an economy is.
Reason : GDP is the value of all goods and services
produced within the domestic territory of a country
in a year.
314. Assertion : When calculating the total value of goods (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is
and services produced in a country, the value of all the correct explanation of assertion.
goods and services at each stage of production should (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is
be calculated. not the correct explanation of assertion.
Reason : At each stage of production some value
is added to a good or service, therefore, the value
added at each stage of production is added to derive (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
the total value of gods and services in an economy.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om317
not the correct explanation of assertion. 318. Assertion : In India, over the forty years between
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false. 1973-74 and 2013-14, while production in all the
(d) Both assertion and reason are false. three sectors has increased, it has increased the most
in the tertiary sector.
Reason : Tertiary sector is the only organized sector
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om314 in the economy so the government spends a lot of
money for creating jobs in tertiary sector.
315. Assertion : Reliance industries is a privately-owned
firm.
Reason : Government is a major stakeholder is
reliance industries. (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om318
319. Assertion : In India, the primary sector is the largest
employer.
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om315 Reason : The demand for services has increased
enormously.
316. Assertion : There are several goods and services that (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is
the society needs; however, the private sector does not the correct explanation of assertion.
not produce all of them. (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
Reason : Private sector is profit driven.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om319

320. Complete the following table with correct information rural areas by providing at least 100 days of
and choose correct option. wage employment in a financial year to every
household whose adult members volunteer to do
Primary Secondary Tertiary unskilled manual work
Raw materials A-? This sector (b) A-2005 , B-to enhance livelihood security in
for goods and provides rural areas by providing at least 100 days of
services are services to both wage employment in a financial year to every
provided for the primary household whose adult members volunteer to do
the Primary and secondary unskilled manual work
Sector. sector (c) A-2010 , B-to down livelihood security in
The primary The secondary This sector rural areas by providing at least 100 days of
sector uses sector uses uses modern- wage employment in a financial year to every
traditional more reliable day logistics household whose adult members volunteer to do
techniques methods of methods to unskilled manual work
and is mostly production and execute its (d) A-2015 , B-to enhance livelihood security in
unorganised. is organised. functions and is rural areas by providing at least 100 days of
well organised. wage employment in a financial year to every
household whose adult members volunteer to do
This sector It involves B-?
unskilled manual work
consists of manufacturing
forestry, units, large
agriculture firms, small Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om321
and mining scale units and
activities. multinational
organisations.
(a) A-Secondary sector changes one good into 322. Read following table which gives the GDP in Rupees
another by building more from it. B- It involves (Corers) by the three sectors:
dairy, minerals activities.
Year Primary Secondary Tertiary
(b) A-Secondary sector changes one good into
another by building more from it. B-Insurance
trade, Banking and communications come under
this sector. 2000 52,000 48,500 1,33,500
(c) A-Secondary sector forms the base for all other
2013 8,00,500 10,74,000 38,68,000
products that we subsequently make. B- It
involves houses and buildings What conclusion can we draw from the table?
(d) A-Secondary sector may not directly help in the Ans :
production of goods. B-Insurance trade, Banking
(a) In 2000, the share of primary sector is 22.22%.
and communications come under this sector.
(b) In 2013, the share of secondary sector is 18.70%.
(c) The share of the tertiary sector in the GDP has
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om320 increased by 10%.
321. Complete the following table with correct information Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om322
and choose correct option.
Act Full Form Passed Main

in year aim 323. Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
MGNREGA Mahatma Gandhi A -.? B -.? 1. Processing of the raw material in the factory.
National 2. The carriers take the product of the market.
Rural Employment 3. Raw material is transported to the factory.
Guarantee Act 4. Final product packed and loaded into carriers.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(a) A- 2000 , B-to enhance livelihood security in

(b) 3, 1, 4, 2 (a) Secondary Sector

(c) 2, 1, 3, 4
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3 Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om326
327. Identify the type of unemployment:
(a) This refers to a situation where labour that is
324. Arrange the following in the correct sequence: employed in a job is not actually utilised for the
1. Transporting cloth to the work shops production of goods and services.
2. Sale in shops and showrooms (b) Such employment does not contribute to the
3. Spinning the yarn output of an economy and is thus taking to a
4. Weaving of the fabric form of unemployment.
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (c) Example of this type of unemployment- If a piece
(b) 3, 4, 1, 2 of land requires only three people to work on it
(c) 4, 2, 1, 3 and instead five people are working on it
(d) 1, 3, 4, 2 (d) Also called as disguised unemployment
325. Identify the sector: 328. In the data given of GDP, which was the most
• It provides various things needed by the society productive sector in 1974?
as a whole which the private sector will not (a) Primary
provide at a reasonable price. (b) Tertiary
• The purpose of this sector is not just to earn (c) Secondary
profits but to social service also. (d) Equal production
• It creates employment opportunities through
creation and expansion of infrastructure
• It controls private monopolies. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om328
(a) Public Sector
(b) Tertiary sector
(c) Primary Sector
(d) Private Sector is ______.
(a) between 20 per cent to 30 per cent
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om325 (b) between 30 per cent to 100 per cent
(c) between 50 per cent to 60 per cent
(d) 70 per cent
326. Identify the sector:

• It deals with raw materials and their production. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om329
• It includes all those activities the end purpose
of which consists in exploiting natural resources.
• also called as agricultural and allied sector
services 330. Which one of the following sectors is the largest
• examples- agriculture, fishing, forestry, mining, employer in India?
deposits (a) Primary
(a) Public Sector (b) Secondary
(a) Tertiary sector (c) Tertiary
(c) Primary Sector (d) IT sector

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om330 rural sector:
331. The Kirana shop shown in the picture is related to

which sector?
(a) Public Sector

(b) Private Sector
(c) Primary sector
(a) Employment Rights Act
(d) Secondary Sector
(b) MGNREGA
(c) Equal Remuneration Act
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om331 (d) Industrial Disputes Act
332. The economic activity shown in the picture is related
to which sector?
Ans : (b) MGNREGA

The table above shows the estimated number of
workers in India in the organized and unorganized
sectors. Read the table carefully. Fill in the missing
(a) Public Sector data and answer the questions that follow.
(b) Private Sector Worker in Different Sectors (in Millions)
(c) Primary sector Sector Organised Unorganised Total
(d) Secondary Sector Primary 2 242
Secondary 9 54 63
Tertiary 17 76 93
Total 28
Total % 7% 93 % 100%
333. Identify the employment act, under which the
following activity is given and solely meant for the
334. What is the number of persons engaged in the

unorganized sector? production of the sector for that year. And the sum
(a) 240 million of production in the three sectors gives what is called
(b) 370 million the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country. It
(c) 260 million is the value of all final goods and services produced
within a country during a particular year. GDP shows
(d) 170 million
how big the economy is. In India, the mammoth
task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a central
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om334 government ministry. This Ministry, with the help
of various government departments of all the Indian
states and union territories, collects information
relating to total volume of goods and services and
Which is the most important sector that provides the their prices and then estimates the GDP. When we
most jobs to the people? produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it
(a) Primary is an activity of the primary sector. The secondary
(b) Secondary sector in which natural products are changed into
other forms through ways of manufacturing that we
(c) Tertiary
associate with industrial activity. After primary and
(d) Organised secondary, there is a third category of activities that
falls under the tertiary sector and is different from
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om334 the above two. These are activities that help in the
development of the primary and secondary sectors.
These activities, by themselves, do not produce
a good but they are an aid or a support for the
_______ sector is more important because it production process.
provides employment to a far greater number of
people, especially from lower strata of society, when 335. The money value of all the final goods and services
compared to those employed by the _____ sector. produced within a country during a particular year
(a) Unorganised, organized is called :
(b) Organized , unorganised, (a) Gross domestic product
(c) Unorganised, primary (b) Net domestic product
(d) Secondary, primary (c) National product
(d) Production of secondary sector.
Which is the most important organised sector? Give

one reason. Which sector has emerged as the largest producing
(a) Primary sector in India?
(b) Secondary (a) Primary sector
(c) Tertiary (b) Secondary sector
(d) all above (c) Tertiary sector
(d) Science and technology sector

below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the Information and communication technology is
most appropriate option: associated with:
The value of final goods and services produced in (a) Primary sector
each sector during a particular year provides the total (b) Secondary sector

(c) Tertiary sector The GDP of a country shows:

(d) None of the above. (a) How well off the people of that country
(b) How much employment rate is there in a country
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om335 (c) Standard of living of people
(d) How big the economy of the country is
Life insurance is an activity of the :
(a) Primary sector
(c) Tertiary sector Don’t take printout of this file because solution
(d) None of the above. is not given. You can purchase hard book from
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om335 full solutions of all MCQs in print form.
The source given above relates to which of the Purchase Hard Book
following options?
(a) World bank
(b) GDP ( Gross Domestic Product)
(c) GNP ( Gross national Product)
(d) GNH ( Gross National Happiness) below and answer 6 questions that follow by choosing the
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om335 This sector is characterised by small and scattered
units which are largely outside the control of the
government. There are rules and regulations but
these are not followed. Jobs here are low-paid and
Why are only final goods and services counted and often not regular. There is no provision for overtime,
not intermediate goods? paid leave, holidays, leave due to sickness etc.
(a) The value of intermediate gods needs not to be Employment is not secure. People can be asked to
added. leave without any reason. When there is less work,
(b) There are no such intermediate goods. such as during some seasons, some people may be
(c) The value of final goods already included the asked to leave. A lot also depends on the whims of
value of the intermediate goods that are used in the employer. This sector includes a large number of
making the final goods. people who are employed on their own doing small
jobs such as selling on the street or doing repair
(d) None of the above.
work. Similarly, farmers work on their own and hire
labourers as and when they require.
336. Which sector are we talking about?
(a) Private sector
The value of all final good and services produced (b) Public sector
with a country during a particular year is known as (c) Organised sector
(a) GDP (d) Unorganised sector
(b) GNP
(c) GST Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om336
(d) SGST

Which of the following is applicable for a worker, In which sector employment is not secure?
who works in the above mentioned sector? (a) Private sector
(a) She gets medical allowance (b) Public sector
(b) She got an appointment letter stating the terms (c) Organised sector
and conditions of work when she joins work. (d) Unorganised sector
(c) She gets a regular salary at the end of the month.
(d) She is not paid for leave.
Choose the correct meaning of the organised sector: most appropriate option:
(a) It covers those enterprises where the terms of Total income is not such a useful measure. Since,
employment are regular. countries have different populations, comparing total
(b) It is outside the control of the government. income will not tell us what an average person is
(c) Jobs are not regular likely to earn. Are people in one country better off
(d) It provides low salaries. than others in a different country? Hence, we compare
the average income which is the total income of the
country divided by its total population. The average
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om336 income is also called per capita income. In World
Development Reports, brought out by the World
Bank, this criterion is used in classifying countries.
Countries with per capita income of US$ 12,056 per
Read the statements given below and choose the annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries
incorrect options: and those with per capita income of US$ 955 or less
(a) There is no provision for overtime, paid leave, are called low-income countries. India comes in the
holidays,etc. in the organised sector. category of low middle income countries because
(b) Workers in organised sector enjoy security of its per capita income in 2017was just US$ 1820 per
employment. annum. The rich countries, excluding countries of
(c) Organised sector covers those places of work Middle East and certain other small countries, are
where the terms of employment are regular. generally called developed countries.
(d) Workers in the organised sector expected to work
only a fixed number of hours.
Options: 337. Countries with per capita income of US$ 12,056 per
(a) Only (a) is incorrect annum and above are called _______ .
(a) Low income countries
(b) (a) and (b) both are incorrect
(b) Rich countries
(c) (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect
(c) Small countries
(d) Only (d) is incorrect
(d) None of these
Which sector includes a large number of people who

are employed on their own doing small jobs? We compare the average income by _____
(a) Private sector (a) Total income of the country divided by the total
population.
(b) Public sector
(b) Total population multiplied by total income.
(c) Organised sector
(c) Both A and B
(d) Unorganised sector
(d) None of these
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om337 of work where the terms of employment are regular

and therefore, people have assured work. It is called
organized because it has some formal processes and
procedures. They are registered by the government
The rich countries exclude the countries of and have to follow its rules and regulations which
___________ are given in various laws such as the Factories Act,
(a) Middle East Minimum Wages Act, Payment of Gratuity Act,
(b) Certain other small countries Shops and Establishments Act. . Workers in the
(c) Srilanka organized sector enjoy security of employment. They
are expected to work only a fixed number of hours.
(d) All of these
If they work more, they have to be paid overtime by
the employer. They also get several other benefits
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om337 from the employers. They get paid leave, payment
during holidays, provident fund, gratuity etc. They
are supposed to get medical benefits and, under the
laws, the factory manager has to ensure facilities
The average income is: like drinking water and a safe working environment.
(a) Income per person When they retire, these workers get pensions as well.
(b) Income per family
(c) Income per month 338. The above passage relates to
(d) Income per earning person (a) Organized sector
(b) Unorganized sector
(c) Employment
(d) Environmental society
Average income is also called _____.
(a) Per capita incentive
(b) Per capita income
(c) Percent capital income An organized sector is one in which, there are
(d) Per capital information (a) Workers union
(b) Private enterprises
(c) Some formal processes and procedures.
(d) Un-numbered workers are employed
Countries which are industrially developed have
_______ per capital income.
(a) lower
(b) lowest Its a mandatory for organized sector to :
(c) moderate (a) Extend working hours of the workers
(d) higher (b) Not to register themselves with the government
(c) Protect the benefits of the owners
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om337 (d) Follow the rules and regulation framed under
various laws like factory Act, Minimum Wages
Act etc.
Source Based Questions 5 : Read the source given Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om338

Organized sector covers those enterprises or places

The workers of organized sector have the privileges Transport, storage, communication, banking, trade
of- are some examples of tertiary activities. Since these
(a) Enjoying holidays activities generate services rather than goods, the
(b) Working on alternative days tertiary sector is also called the service sector.
(c) Security of job, medical benefits, overtime for
additional working hours etc. 339. The source given above relates to which of the
(d) Resign and join as per their choice following options?
(a) Service sector
(b) Tertiary sector
(c) Secondary sector
What is an organised sector?

(a) Enterprises where works gets benefits
(b) Enterprises that do not provide job security
(c) Enterprises that are registered by government.
(d) Enterprises where jobs are not regular Which of the following activities do not produce
a goods, but they are an aid or support for the
production process?
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om338 (a) Tertiary activities
(b) Primary activities
(c) Secondary activities
Find out the correct statement (d) Both (a) and (c)
Assertion (A): Workers had rights to get holidays.
Reason (R): There were laws to protect the workers. Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om339
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct R is not correct explanation of A It is a sector that gradually became associated with
the different kinds of industries that came up. it is
called as
Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om338 (a) Primary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Quinary sector
most appropriate option: Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om339
After primary and secondary there is a third category
of activities that falls under tertiary sector and is
different from the above two. These are activities
that help in the development of the primary and Which of the following are the example of service
secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves, sector?
do not produce a good but they are an aid or a (a) Teachers
support for the production process. For example, (b) Doctors
goods that are produced in the primary or secondary (c) People who do administrative works, etc.
sector would need to be transported by trucks or (d) All of these
trains and then sold in wholesale and retail shops. At
times, it may be necessary to store these in godowns.
We also may need to talk to others over telephone Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/om339
or send letters (communication) or borrow money
from banks (banking) to help production and trade.

Which of the following is the correct option for

classification on the basis of nature of activity?
(a) Organised sector and Unorganised sector
(b) Public sector and Private sector
(c) Primary sector, Secondary sector and Tertiary
sector
(d) Agriculture-related sector and Industrial sector
Banking is a______ Industry because a bank is

a financial institution that accepts deposits from the
public and creates credit.
(a) Service sector
(b) Tertiary sector
(c) Secondary sector

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CBSE 2022

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CHAP 2. Resources and Development 80-113

CHAP 3. Agriculture 114-157

CHAP 4. Power Sharing 158-192

CHAP 5. Federalism 193-239

CHAP 6. Development 240-290

CHAP 7. Sector of the Indian Economy 291-336

CHAP 8. Map 337-352

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Chap 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Page 1

Previous year questions and important

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

2. In 1789, France was a full fledged territorial state

4. A ‘Utopian Society’ is --- Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am107

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Page 2 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Chap 1

(d) Conservatist a necessity because

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Chap 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Page 3

(d) 1849 (b) Karol Kurpinski

17. Which Treaty recognised Greece as an independent

18. What is Romanticism?

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Chap 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Page 5

39. For what purpose Vienna Congress was convened in

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Chap 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Page 7

in which country? 56. Women were admitted to the Frankfurt parliament

52. A romantic philosopher who celebrated national

Page 8 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Chap 1

is not given. You can purchase hard book from

67. When an abstract idea, for instance, greed, envy,

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Chap 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Page 9

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am167 (b) Olive branch around the sword

68. Which of the following ideas was used by The French

69. Which one of the following is not true about the

Page 10 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Chap 1

78. Which country had been part of the ‘Ottoman

79. Which country became full-fledged territorial state

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Chap 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Page 11

87. Who was proclaimed the King of United Italy, in

88. Liberal-nationalist mainly belong to which class?

90. The most serious source of nationalist tension in

Page 12 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Chap 1

Solution : www.cbse.site/ss/am195 true German culture was to be discovered among the

101. The meaning of ‘Volksgeist’ is

103. Who delivered a lecture at the University of

104. Which language was spoken by the aristocrats of

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Chap 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Page 13

(b) English 109. What is Zollverein?

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