Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Questions & Answers: For For For For For NEET (UG) - 2021
Questions & Answers: For For For For For NEET (UG) - 2021
Questions & Answers: For For For For For NEET (UG) - 2021
P3
HAGAJA
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456
Time : 3 hrs.
Questions & Answers Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2021
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (Four options
with a single correct answer). There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You
have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start
attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first
ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.)
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For every
wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions
will be given no marks. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
4. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving
the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
6. The CODE for this Booklet is P3.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet. Use of whiste fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
8. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
9. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct
in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
examination.
12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
13. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
PHYSICS
(3) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (Q), (D) - (P) (3) [M] [L–1] [T–1] (4) [M] [L0] [T0]
(4) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q) Answer (2)
8. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best
Answer (2)
suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope
4. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and
since
R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface
(1) A large aperture contributes to the quality and
charge densities of the spheres (σ1/σ2) is
visibility of the images.
R12 R1 (2) A large area of the objective ensures better light
(1) (2) R
R22 2 gathering power.
R2 R1 (3) A large aperture provides a better resolution.
(3) R (4) R (4) All of the above
1 2
Answer (3) Answer (4)
2
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
9. Match Column-I and Column-II and choose the (1) Towards the right as its potential energy will
correct match from the given choices. increase.
Column-I Column-II (2) Towards the left as its potential energy will
increase.
1
(A) Root mean square (P) nmv 2
3 (3) Towards the right as its potential energy will
speed of gas decrease.
molecules (4) Towards the left as its potential energy will
3 RT decrease.
(B) Pressure exerted (Q)
M Answer (3)
by ideal gas
12. A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a
5 concave lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along
(C) Average kinetic (R) RT
2 the same axis with a distance 'd' between them. If
energy of a
a parallel beam of light falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as a
molecule
parallel beam, then the distance 'd' in cm will be
3
(D) Total internal (S) kBT (1) 30 (2) 25
2
energy of 1 mole (3) 15 (4) 50
of a diatomic gas Answer (3)
(1) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S) 13. The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v.
(2) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q) The escape velocity from the surface of another
planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and
(3) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
same mass density is
(4) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R)
(1) 4v (2) v
Answer (4)
(3) 2v (4) 3v
10. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and
Answer (1)
identify the correct answer.
A
(A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, 14. A radioactive nucleus ZX undergoes spontaneous
when used as a voltage regulator. decay in the sequence
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between
A
0.1 V to 0.3 V. Z X →Z −1 B →Z −3 C →Z −2 D , where Z is the atomic
(1) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct. number of element X. The possible decay particles
in the sequence are
(2) (A) and (B) both are correct.
(1) β–, α, β+ (2) α, β–, β+
(3) (A) and (B) both are incorrect
(3) α, β+, β– (4) β+, α, β–
(4) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
15. A screw gauge gives the following readings when
11. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In used to measure the diameter of a wire
which direction will it move?
Main scale reading : 0 mm
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100
divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the
E wire from the above data is
+q –q
(1) 0.052 cm (2) 0.52 cm
(3) 0.026 cm (4) 0.26 cm
Answer (1)
3
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
16. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of 19. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The
capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are fraction of original activity that will remain after 150
connected in series to an ac source of potential hours would be
difference 'V' volts as shown in figure. 2 1
(1) (2)
Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 3 2 2
V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current 1 2
(3) (4)
flowing through LCR series circuit is 10 2 A . The 2 2 3
Answer (3)
impedance of the circuit is
20. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown
in the figure is
C
40 V 10 V 40 V
C
~
V C
(1) 5 Ω 3C
(1) (2) 3C
2
(2) 4 2 Ω C
(3) 2C (4)
2
(3) 5 2 Ω Answer (3)
21. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that
(4) 4 Ω
consists of four wires of equal length, eaual area of
Answer (1) cross-section and same material is 0.25 Ω. What
17. A particle is released from height S from the surface will be the effective resistance if they are connected
of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is in series?
three times its potential energy. The height from the (1) 4 Ω (2) 0.25 Ω
surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that (3) 0.5 Ω (4) 1 Ω
instant are respectively
Answer (1)
S 3gS S 3gS 22. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two
(1) , (2) , fragments each of mass number 120, the binding
4 2 4 2
energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6
MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total
S 3gS S 3gS gain in the Binding Energy in the process is
(3) , (4) ,
4 2 2 2
(1) 216 MeV (2) 0.9 MeV
Answer (1) (3) 9.4 MeV (4) 804 MeV
18. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined Answer (1)
plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let Sn be the
23. The electron concentration in an n-type
distance travelled by the block in the interval
semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in
Sn a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is
t = n – 1 to t = n. Then, the ratio is
Sn +1 applied across each of them. Compare the currents
in them.
4
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
24. The number of photons per second on an average 28. A capacitor of capacitance 'C', is connected across
emitted by the source of monochromatic light of an ac source of voltage V, given by
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of V = V0sinωt
3.3 × 10–3 watt will be (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
The displacement current between the plates of the
(1) 1015 (2) 1018 capacitor, would then be given by
(3) 1017 (4) 1016 (1) Id = V0ωCsinωt
Answer (4) (2) Id = V0ωCcosωt
25. A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries
V0
current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross- (3) Id = cos ωt
ωC
section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to
the cable with the distance 'r' from the axis of the V0
(4) Id = sin ωt
cable is represented by ωC
Answer (2)
29. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen
(1) B (2) B as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the
dimensions of energy.
r r (1) [F][A–1][T] (2) [F][A][T]
(3) [F][A][T2] (4) [F][A][T–1]
Answer (3)
(3) B (4) B
30. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives
balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell
r r
of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what
Answer (4)
length of the wire, the balance point occurs?
26. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density
(1) 62 cm (2) 60 cm
d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine
becomes constant after some time. If the density of (3) 21.6 cm (4) 64 cm
d Answer (2)
glycerine is , then the viscous force acting on the
2 31. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The
ball will be time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg
Mg is suspended by it is
(1) 2Mg (2)
2 (1) 0.628 s (2) 0.0628 s
3 (3) 6.28 s (4) 3.14 s
(3) Mg (4) Mg
2 Answer (1)
Answer (2)
32. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in
27. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the x-direction, which one of the following combination
prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3 . gives the correct possible directions for electric field
(E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?
(1) − j + k, − j + k
(2) j + k, j + k
60° (3) − j + k , − j − k
(1) 90° (2) 60°
(4) j + k, − j − k
(3) 30° (4) 45°
Answer (2) Answer (3)
5
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
33. A cup coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes, 37. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm
when the room temperature is 20°C. The time taken from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane
by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C to 60°C mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis
at a room temperature same at 20°C is of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the
final image would be formed at a distance of
5 13
(1) t (2) t
13 10
13 10
(3) t (4) t
5 13
Answer (3)
60 cm 40 cm
34. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength 'λ' is incident
on a photosensitive surface of negligible work (1) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
function. If 'm' mass is of photoelectron emitted from image
the surface has de-Broglie wavelength λd , then (2) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
(3) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
2h 2
(1) λ = λd (4) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
mc
image
Answer (1)
2m 2
(2) λ = λd
hc 38. A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity
v = kVe (k < 1) from the surface of the earth.
2mc 2 (Ve = escape velocity)
(3) λd = λ
h The maximum height above the surface reached by
the particle is
2mc 2
(4) λ = λd Rk 2 k
2
h (1) 2 (2) R
1− k 1− k
Answer (4) 2
k R 2k
35. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 (3) R (4)
1+ k 1+ k
kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
Answer (1)
frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How
much power is generated by the turbine? 39. In the product
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 7.0 kW (2) 10.2 kW
(
F = q v ×B )
(3) 8.1 kW (4) 12.3 kW
(
= qv × Biˆ + Bjˆ + B0 kˆ )
Answer (3)
For q = 1 and v = 2iˆ + 4 ˆj + 6kˆ and
SECTION - B
F = 4iˆ – 20 ˆj + 12kˆ
36. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at
200 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. What will be the complete expression for B ?
Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
(1) 6iˆ + 6 ˆj − 8kˆ (2) –8iˆ – 8 ˆj − 6kˆ
(1) 1980 V (2) 660 V
(3) 1320 V (4) 1520 V (3) –6iˆ – 6 jˆ − 8kˆ (4) 8iˆ + 8 ˆj − 6kˆ
6
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
40. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are 42. From a circular ring of mass 'M' and radius 'R' an
placed in the same plane with their centres arc corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The
coinciding. If R1 > > R2, the mutual inductance M moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring
between them will be directly proportional to about an axis passing through the centre of the ring
and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is 'K'
R22 R1 times 'MR2'. Then the value of 'K' is
(1) (2) R
R1 2
1
(1)
8
R2 R12
(3) R (4)
1 R2 3
(2)
4
Answer (1)
41. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are 7
(3)
applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would 8
be the output at the terminal y?
1
(4)
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 4
5
A Answer (2)
0
43. Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are
5 connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio
B
0
i3
of currents in terms of resistances used in the
i1
5 circuit is
C
0
i 2 r2
r1
A A i1 B
i3 r3
r2 r1
B (1) r + r (2) r + r
y 1 3 2 3
r2 r1
(3) r + r (4) r + r
2 3 1 2
C
Answer (3)
44. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. At
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a
y person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and
(1)
0V acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s?
(take g = 10 m/s2)
5V
(2)
0V (1) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s2
(3) (2) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2
5V
(3) 20 m/s, 0
5V
(4)
0V (4) 20 2 m/s, 0
Answer (3) Answer (1)
7
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
8
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
Pressure (P)
(200 K, 400 K, 600 K)
octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :
(bar)
(1) 12, 6 (3)
(2) 8, 4
Volume (V)
3
(3) 6, 12 (dm )
(4) 2, 1
K
0
K
20
Answer (1) 0
40
0K
Pressure (P)
52. Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and 60
(bar)
ionic radii because of :
(4)
(1) Having similar chemical properties
9
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
57. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits 63. The incorrect statement among the following is :
which of the following particles? (1) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially
(1) Neutron (n) (2) Beta (β–) when finely divided.
(3) Alpha (α) (4) Gamma (γ) (2) Actinoid contraction is greater for element to
Answer (2) element than lanthanoid contraction
58. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation (3) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are
reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This colorless in the solid state
product formation is based on? (4) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and
(1) Huckel's Rule (2) Saytzeff's Rule electricity
67. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi 72. For a reaction A → B, enthalpy of reaction is
broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). –4.2 kJ mol –1 and enthalpy of activation is
The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation 9.6 kJ mol–1. The correct potential energy profile for
emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light the reaction is shown in option.
c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1]
(1) 21.92 cm (2) 219.3 m
(3) 219.2 m (4) 2192 m
Answer (2) B
PE A
(1)
68. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid are
3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct Reaction Progress
option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate
solution is :
(1) 6.25 (2) 8.50
(3) 5.50 (4) 7.75
Answer (4)
69. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving (2) PE B
A
10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1),
Reaction Progress
10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and
10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3).
The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic
pressure of these solutions is :
(1) P3 > P1 > P2
(2) P2 > P1 > P3 PE A
(3)
B
(3) P1 > P2 > P3
Reaction Progress
(4) P2 > P3 > P1
Answer (2)
70. The correct option for the number of body centred
unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells
is :
(1) 3 (4)
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 2
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
73. The compound which shows metamerism is :
71. The maximum temperature that can be achieved in
blast furnace is : (1) C4H10O
(1) Upto 5000 K
(2) C5H12
(2) Upto 1200 K
(3) C3H8O
(3) Upto 2200 K
(4) Upto 1900 K (4) C3H6O
11
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
74. The major product of the following chemical reaction 77. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
is : (1) Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms
CH 3 (C 6 H 5CO) 2O2
(2) Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N"
CH CH CH2 + HBr ? donor atoms
CH 3
(3) Unidentate ligand
CH3 (4) Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
(1) CBr CH2 – CH3
CH3 Answer (2)
78. Which one of the following methods can be used to
CH3
CH CH2 CH2 Br obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room
(2)
CH3 temperature?
(1) Zone refining
Δ
(2) 2KClO3 ⎯⎯ → 2KCl + 3O2 CH2
(2) CH NO2
3
Δ
(3) Cr2O3 + 2Al ⎯⎯ → Al2O3 + 2Cr CH 2
CH3
(3) CH3 NH
(4) Fe + 2HCl → FeCl2 + H2↑
12
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
82. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon 87. Match List-I with List-II.
and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right
List-I List-II
option for the empirical formula of this compound is
: [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1] (a) [Fe(CN)6]3– (i) 5.92 BM
(3) Noble gases have very high melting and boiling (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
points Answer (1)
(4) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces 88. The product formed in the following chemical
Answer (3) reaction is:
84. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by
addition polymerisation? O O
NaBH4
(1) Dacron (2) Teflon CH3–C–OCH3 C2H5OH
?
(3) Nylon-66 (4) Novolac
CH2
Answer (2)
85. Match List-I with List-II.
OH O
List-I List-II
CH 2 –C–OCH3
(a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
(1)
(b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar CH 3
(c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
(d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal H
OH
Choose the correct answer from the options given CH 2 –C–OCH3
below. (2)
OH
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) CH 3
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) O
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) CH 2 –CH 2–OH
(3)
Answer (2)
CH 3
SECTION - B
OH H
86. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under
isothermal condition, the correct option is: CH 2 –C–CH3
(4)
(1) ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal = 0 (2) ΔU = 0, ΔStotal = 0 OH
CH 3
(3) ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0 (4) ΔU = 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0
Answer (4) Answer (1)
13
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
89. In which one of the following arrangements the Choose the correct answer from the options given
given sequence is not strictly according to the below.
properties indicated against it? (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(1) CO2 < SiO2 : Increasing (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
< SnO2 < PbO2 oxidizing power (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) HF < HCl : Increasing acidic (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
< HBr < HI strength Answer (4)
(3) H2O < H2S : Increasing pKa
93. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20
< H2Se < H2Te values S cm2 mol–1. What is the dissociation constant of
(4) NH3 < PH3 : Increasing acetic acid? Choose the correct option.
Consider the above reaction and identify the missing (1) 2.50 × 10−5 mol L−1
reagent/chemical.
(1) DIBAL-H (2) 1.75 × 10−4 mol L−1
(2) B2H6
(3) 2.50 × 10−4 mol L−1
(3) Red Phosphorus
(4) CaO (4) 1.75 × 10−5 mol L−1
14
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
CO, HCI
CH(OCrOHCl 2)2 (a) (i) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky
Anhyd. AlCl3/
(2) CuCl reaction
O
CH(OCOCH 3 )2
(3) (b) R — C — CH 3 + (ii) Gattermann-Koch
NaOX reaction
Cl
CH
Cl (c) R — CH2 — OH (iii) Haloform reaction
(4) +R′ COOH
Conc. H2SO 4
Answer (2)
98. The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical (d) R — CH 2COOH (iv) Esterification
reaction is: (I ) X2/Red P
I
– – (ii) H 2O
NH2 N2 Cl
–
Br Br Br Br Br Br
NaNO2, HCl R
Choose the correct answer from the options given
0.5°C
below.
Br Br Br
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(1) CuCN/KCN
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(2) H2O
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(3) CH3CH2OH
(4) (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
(4) HI
15
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
BOTANY
16
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
110. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? 114. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves
division of centromere?
(1) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and
RNA molecules in both directions between (1) Telophase II
nucleus and cytoplasm (2) Metaphase I
(2) Mature sieve tube elements possess a (3) Metaphase II
conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic
(4) Anaphase II
organelles
Answer (4)
(3) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal
cells 115. Which of the following is a correct sequence of
steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
(4) The perinuclear space forms a barrier between
the materials present inside the nucleus and that (1) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
of the cytoplasm (2) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
Answer (2) (3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
111. Match List-I with List-II. (4) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
List-I List-II
Answer (2)
116. When gene targetting involving gene amplification is
(a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen
attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease,
(b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition it is known as :
17
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
118. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a 123. The site of perception of light in plants during
population is : photoperiodism is
(1) Genetic drift (1) Leaf
(2) Natural selection
(2) Shoot apex
(3) Genetic recombination
(3) Stem
(4) Mutation
(4) Axillary bud
Answer (1)
119. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two Answer (1)
equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is 124. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field
referred as :
(1) IBA
(1) Acrocentric (2) Metacentric
(2) IAA
(3) Telocentric (4) Sub-metacentric
Answer (2) (3) NAA
18
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
128. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which 132. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as
mechanism the competing species might have reserve food material?
evolved for their survival?
(1) Ulothrix
(1) Predation
(2) Ectocarpus
(2) Resource partitioning
(3) Gracilaria
(3) Competitive release
(4) Volvox
(4) Mutualism
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
133. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two
129. Which of the following is not an application of PCR kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:
(Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
(1) Heterosporous
(1) Detection of gene mutation
(2) Homosorus
(2) Molecular diagnosis
(3) Heterosorus
(3) Gene amplification
(4) Homosporous
(4) Purification of isolated protein
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
130. Match List-I with List-II. 134. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:
(1) Zeatin
(2) Kinetin
Answer (4)
Answer (2) 136. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the
131. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is: process of transcription in eukaryotes?
(2) 8-nucleate and 7-celled (2) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
(3) 7-nucleate and 8-celled (3) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
137. Select the correct pair. 141. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy
(1) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I
rupturing the epidermis parenchyma
and PS II
and forming a lens shaped
opening in bark (2) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized
(2) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells during non-cyclic photophosphorylation
cells in the epidermis
(3) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP
of grass leaves
reductase
(3) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive
bundles are surrounded tissue (4) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
by large thick-walled cells
Answer (1)
(4) Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular
that form part of cambium 142. Which of the following statements is correct ?
cambial ring
Answer (4) (1) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric
nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells
138. Plasmid pBR322 has Pstl restriction enzyme site
within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. (2) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy
If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for
-galactoside production and the recombinant (3) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on
plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy
(1) It will be able to produce a novel protein with (4) Organisms that depend on living plants are
dual ability called saprophytes
(2) It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance
Answer (3)
to the host cell
(3) The transformed cells will have the ability to 143. Match Column-I with Column-II.
resist ampicillin as well as produce
-galactoside
Column-I Column-II
(4) It will lead to lysis of host cell (a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification
Answer (2) (b) Rhizobium (ii) Conversion of ammonia
139. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in to nitrite
some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as (c) Thiobacillus (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
(1) The base of geometric logarithms (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) The base of number logarithms
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) The base of exponential logarithms
(4) The base of natural logarithms (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
20
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
144. Which of the following statements of incorrect? 148. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton
List-I List-II
gradient in respiration
(a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds
(2) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is (b) Unsaturated (ii) Phosphodiester
limited to the terminal stage fatty acid bonds
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
(3) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule
of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, (d) Polsyaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) ATP is synthesized through complex V below.
Answer (3) (a) (b) (c) (d)
145. In some members of which of the following pairs of (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
families, pollen grains retain their viability for months (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
after release? (3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(1) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) Poaceae ; Rosaceae Answer (2)
(3) Poaceae ; Leguminosae 149. Match List-I with List-II.
(4) Poaceae ; Solanaceae List-I List-II
Answer (1) (a) S phase (i) Proteins are
synthesized
146. Identify the correct statement. (b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
(1) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of (c) Quiescent (iii) Interval between mitosis
prokaryotes stage and initiation of
DNA replication
(2) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is (d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication
added to the 3' end of hnRNA
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to below.
terminate the process of transcription in bacteria (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) The coding strand in a transcription unit is (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
copied to an mRNA
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer (3) (3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
147. Match Column-I with Column-II (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(a) % K(5) C1 + 2 + (2) A (9) + 1 G1 (i) Brassicaceae Answer (4)
150. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene
(b) K (5) C(5)A5 G(2) (ii) Liliaceae
causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to
hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells,
(c) P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G(3) (iii) Fabaceae followed by its detection using autoradiography
because :
(d) K2 + 2 C4 A2 – 4 G (2) (iv) Solanaceae
(1) mutated gene does not appear on photographic
Select the correct answer from the options given film as the probe has complementarity with it
below. (2) mutated gene partially appears on a
(a) (b) (c) (d) photographic film
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (3) mutated gene completely and clearly appears on
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) a photographic film
(4) mutated gene does not appear on a
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
photographic film as the probe has no
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) complementarity with it
Answer (2) Answer (4)
21
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
ZOOLOGY
Answer (4) Choose the correct answer from the options given
155. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and below
carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) (a) (b) (c) (d)
are:
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(1) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
(3) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45 (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
22
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
159. Which of the following statements wrongly 164. Which one of the following belongs to the family
represents the nature of smooth muscle? Muscidae?
(1) These muscles are present in the wall of blood (1) House fly (2) Fire fly
vessels
(3) Grasshopper (4) Cockroach
(2) These muscle have no striations
(3) They are involuntary muscles Answer (1)
(4) Communication among the cells is performed by 165. Identify the incorrect pair
intercalated discs
(1) Drugs – Ricin
Answer (4)
(2) Alkaloids – Codeine
160. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro
muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and (3) Toxin – Abrin
paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as:
(4) Lectins – Concanavalin A
(1) Gout
Answer (1)
(2) Arthritis
166. Veneral diseases can spread through :
(3) Muscular dystrophy
(4) Myasthenia gravis (a) Using sterile needles
162. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. (4) (b) and (c) only
During interphase of Mitosis if the number of
chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the Answer (4)
number of chromosomes after S phase? 167. The organelles that are included in the
(1) 32 (2) 8 endomembrane system are
163. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present (2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria,
on : Ribosomes and Lysosomes
(1) Zona pellucida (3) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex,
(2) Corona radiata Lysosomes and Vacuoles
23
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
168. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis 172. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow
and understanding its pathophysiology is very and pneumatic long bones?
important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic (1) Ornithorhynchus
techniques is very useful for early detection?
(2) Neophron
(1) Hybridization Technique
(3) Hemidactylus
(2) Western Blotting Technique (4) Macropus
(3) Southern Blotting Technique Answer (2)
(4) ELISA Technique 173. Read the following statements
Answer (3/4*) (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
169. With regard to insulin choose correct options. (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
animals.
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C- organization.
peptide.
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide digestion.
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of
interconnected by disulphide bridges. Echinoderms.
Choose the correct answer from the option given Choose the correct answer from the options given
below below.
(1) (a) and (d) only (1) (b), (c) and (e) are correct
(2) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
(2) (b) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
174. Match List-I with List-II.
170. A specific recognition sequence identified by
endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions List-I List-II
within the DNA is: (a) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm through
(1) Poly(A) tail sequences Cervix is blocked
175. Sphincter of oddi is present at: 179. Which of the following is not an objective of
Biofortification in crops?
(1) Junction of jejunum and duodenum
(1) Improve micronutrient and mineral content
(2) Ileo-caecal junction
(2) Improve protein content
(3) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and
duodenum (3) Improve resistance to diseases
(4) Improve vitamin content
(4) Gastro-oesophageal junction
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
180. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:
176. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what
will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and (1) Troposphere (2) CFCs
Cytosine in it? (3) Stratosphere (4) Ozone
(1) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25 Answer (4)
Answer (4) 185. Select the favourable conditions required for the
formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
178. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of
inactive fibrinogens to fibrinns? (1) Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
(2) High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
(1) Thrombokiase
(3) Low pO 2 , high pCO 2 , more H + , higher
(2) Thrombin
temperature
(3) Renin (4) High pO 2 , high pCO 2 , less H + , higher
(4) Epinephrine temperature
25
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
186. Match List-I with List - II 188. Which of these is not an important component of
initiation of parturition in humans ?
List - I List - II
(1) Release of Prolactin
(a) Allen’s Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
(2) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
(b) Physiological (ii) Desert lizard
adaptation (3) Synthesis of prostaglandins
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain
below. (2) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8
molecules
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) The pH of histones is slightly acidic
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) Arginine
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) Answer (3)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 190. During muscular contraction which of the following
events occur ?
Answer (4)
(a) 'H' zone disappears
187. Match List - I with List - II
(b) 'A' band widens
List - I List - II (c) 'I' band reduces in width
(a) Adaptive (i) Selection of (d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and
radiation resistant varieties Pi
due to excessive
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards
use of herbicides
and pesticides Choose the correct answer from the options given
(b) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs beloow
evolution in Man and Whale
(1) (b), (d), (e), (a) only
(c) Divergent (iii) Wings of Butterfly
evolution and Bird (2) (a), (c), (d), (e) only
(d) Evolution by (iv) Darwin Finches (3) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
anthropogenic
action (4) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
Answer (2)
Choose the correct anser from the options given
below. 191. Match List-I with List-II
26
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
Choose the correct answer from the options given 195. Match List-I with List-II
below
List -I List -II
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Haemophilus
(a) Filariasis (i)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) influenzae
Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
high altitude, the body does not get sufficent (2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
oxygen.
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
correct answer from the options given below
Answer (3)
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
196. Following are the statements with reference to
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
'lipids'.
explanation of (A)
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
unsaturated fatty acids
correct explanation of (A)
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
Answer (2)
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including
193. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into
carboxyl carbon.
(1) Addison's disease
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) Dysfunction of Immune system below.
194. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple (4) (b) and (c) only
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)? Answer (4)
(1) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate 197. Following are the statements about prostomium of
mothers at 8-32 cell stage earthworm.
(2) Cow is administered hormone having LH like (a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
activity for super ovulation
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it
(3) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time can crawl.
(4) Cow is fertilized by artifical insemination (c) It is one of the sensory structures.
Answer (2) (d) It is the first body segment.
27
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P3)
Choose the correct answer from the options given In the light of the above statements, choose the
below. correct answer from the options given below.
(1) (b) and (c) are correct (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
true
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
false
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
198. Which of the following secrets the hormone, relaxin,
200. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop
during the later phase of pregnancy?
the leakage of the substances across a tissue and
(1) Uterus facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells
(2) Graafian follicle via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
28