Ans&Sol - Neet 2021 (Code n3)

DATE : 12/09/2021 Test Booklet Code
N3
HAGAJA
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456
Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2021
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (Four options
with a single correct answer). There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You
have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start
attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first
ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.)
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For every
wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions
will be given no marks. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
4. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving
the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
6. The CODE for this Booklet is N3.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet. Use of whiste fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
8. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
9. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct
in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
examination.
12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
13. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-N3)
PHYSICS
SECTION - A 3. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best

suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope
1. If E and G respectively denote energy and since
E (1) A large aperture contributes to the quality and

gravitational constant, then has the dimensions visibility of the images.
G
of (2) A large area of the objective ensures better light
gathering power.
(1) [M] [L–1] [T–1] (2) [M] [L0] [T0]
(3) A large aperture provides a better resolution.
(3) [M2] [L–2] [T–1] (4) [M2] [L–1] [T0]
(4) All of the above
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
Sol. Dimensional formula of energy
Sol. With larger aperture of objective lens, the light
[E] = [M1 L2 T–2] ...(I) gathering power in telescope is high.
Dimensional formula of gravitational constant Also, the resolving power or the ability to observe two
[G] = [M–1 L3 T–2] ...(II) objects distinctly also depends on the diameter of
the objective. Thus objective of large diameter is
From (I) & (II) preferred.
Also, with large diameters fainter objects can be
[E ] [M1 L2 T 2 ]
 observed. Hence it also contributes to the better
[G ] [M1 L3 T 2 ]
quality and visibility of images.
= [M2 L–1 T0] Hence, all options are correct.
4. The electron concentration in an n-type
E 
Hence, dimensions of    [M2 L–1 T 0 ] semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in
G 
a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is
So, correct option is (4). applied across each of them. Compare the currents
in them.
2. A capacitor of capacitance 'C', is connected across
an ac source of voltage V, given by (1) Current in p-type > current in n-type
V = V0sint (2) Current in n-type > current in p-type.
The displacement current between the plates of the (3) No current will flow in p-type, current will only
capacitor, would then be given by flow in n-type
V0 V0 (4) Current in n-type = current in p-type

(1) Id  cos t (2) Id  sin t
C C Answer (2)
(3) Id = V0Csint (4) Id = V0Ccost Sol. The current through a semiconductor is
Answer (4) I = neAvd
Sol. Given V = V0sint (1) I = neAE
Now displacement current Id is given by In ne eAe E

dV Ip nh eAh E
Id  C
dt
In e
d 
C (V0 sin t ) (using equation 1) Ip h
dt
= C(V0)cost  e   h
Id = V0Ccost  In > Ip
2
5. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with

Sn (2n  1)
frequency 'n', the frequency of its potential energy is 
Sn 1 (2n  1)
(1) 2n (2) 3n
(3) 4n (4) n 7. Polar molecules are the molecules
Answer (1) (1) Acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of
Sol. Equation of displacement of particle executing electric field due to displacement of charges
SHM is given by x = Asin(t + ) ...(I) (2) Acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic
field is absent
Potential energy of particle executing SHM is given
by (3) Having a permanent electric dipole moment
(4) Having zero dipole moment
1
U  kx 2 Answer (3)
2
1 2 Sol. In polar molecules, the centre of positive charges
 kA sin2  t    ...(II)
2 does not coincide with the centre of negative
From I and II, it is clear that
charges.
Time period of x = Asin(t + ) is
Hence, these molecules have a permanent electric
2  dipole moment of their own.
T1   frequency n1 
 2 8. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and
while time period of x2 = A2sin2(t + ) is R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface
charge densities of the spheres (1/2) is
 
T2   frequency n2 
  R2  R1 
(1) R (2)  
1  R2 
Hence n2 = 2n1
6. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined R12 R1
plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let Sn be the (3) (4) R
R22 2
distance travelled by the block in the interval
Answer (1)
Sn
t = n – 1 to t = n. Then, the ratio is Conducting
Sn 1
wire
2n  1 2n  1 Sol.
(1) (2) R1 R2
2n  1 2n  1
2n 2n  1
(3) (4) When two conductors are connected by a conducting
2n  1 2n
wire, then the two conductors should have same
Answer (1)
potential.
Sol. Suppose  is inclination of inclined plane
acceleration along inclined plane a = gsin so, V1 = V2
Sn = distance travelled by object during nth second. 1 Q1 1 Q2

 
Initial speed u = 0 40 R1 40 R2
By equation of uniformly accelerated motion 1 Q1 R1 1 Q2 R2

   
a 40 R1 R1 40 R2 R2
Sn  u  (2n  1)
2 Q1R1 Q2 R2
 
g sin  g sin  4R12 0 4R22 0
Sn  0  (2n  1)  (2n  1) ...(i)
2 2
1R1 2R2
Distance travelled during (n + 1)th second.  
0 0
g sin  g sin 
Sn 1  0  [2(n  1)  1]  (2n  1) ...(ii)
2 2 1 R2
 
Dividing equations (i) and (ii) 2 R1
3
9. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and

 80  60   80  60 
identify the correct answer. K   20  
 2  t1
(A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when
20
used as a voltage regulator.  K  50  
t1
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between
0.1 V to 0.3 V. 2 20
  50  
(1) (A) and (B) both are incorrect 13t t1
(2) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect. 13t

 t1 
(3) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct. 5
(4) (A) and (B) both are correct. 11. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two
fragments each of mass number 120, the binding
Answer (2) energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6
Sol. • In reverse biased, after breakdown, voltage across MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total
gain in the Binding Energy in the process is
the zener diode becomes constant. Therefore
zener diode is connected in reverse biased when (1) 9.4 MeV
used as voltage regulator.
(2) 804 MeV
• Potential barrier of silicon diode is nearly 0.7 V
(3) 216 MeV
statement A is correct and statement B is
incorrect. (4) 0.9 MeV
10. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes, Answer (3)
when the room temperature is 20°C. The time taken
by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C to 60°C Sol. Mass number of reactant = 240
at a room temperature same at 20°C is
BE per nucleon = 7.6 MeV
13 10
(1) t (2) t
5 13 Mass number of products = 120
5 13 BE per nucleon of product = 8.5 MeV

(3) t (4) t
13 10
Total gain in BE = (BE) of products – (BE) of
Answer (1)
reactants.
Sol. From Average form of Newton's law of cooling
= [120 + 120] × 8.5 – [240] × 7.6
 T  T2  T  T2
 1  Ts  K  1
 2  t = (240) × 8.5 – 240 × 7.6
T1 and T2 are initial and final temperature and Ts is = (2040 – 1824) MeV
surrounding temperature.
Gain in BE = 216 MeV
  90  80   90  80
 K   20   12. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in
 2  t
x-direction, which one of the following combination
gives the correct possible directions for electric field
10
 K  65   (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?
t
(1)  j  k,  j  k (2) j  k,  j  k
2
 K 
13 t (3)  j  k,  j  k (4) j  k , j  k
In second case, Answer (1)
4
Sol. Direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves

 
is along E  B v S
y
Given that direction of propagation is along x-axis
EARTH
v2 = 02 + 2g(S – y)
(1)   j  k     j  k   2i v  2g (S  y ) ...(1)
(2)  j  k     j  k   0 When body is at height y above ground. Potential

energy of body of mass m
(3)   j  k     j  k   0 U = mgy
As per given condition kinetic energy, K = 3U
(4)  j  k    j  k   0 1
m(v )2  3  mg ( y )
2
 Option (1) is correct. 1
 m  2g (S  y )  3  mgy (using (1))
13. The number of photons per second on an average 2
emitted by the source of monochromatic light of S – y = 3y
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of S
3.3 × 10–3 watt will be (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s)  y ...(2)
4
(1) 1017 (2) 1016  S 3gS
 v  2  g S    ...(3)
 4 2
(3) 1015 (4) 1018
15. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown
Answer (2) in the figure is
Sol. The power of a source is given as C
E n  hc 
P    C
t t  
n P C
 
t  hc  C
  (1) 2C (2)
   2
n 3C
(Here is number of photons emitted per second) (3) (4) 3C
t 2
Answer (1)
n 3.3  10 3  6  10 7
  Sol. Given circuit is
t 6.6  10 34  3  108
C 1
= 1016 photons per second
14. A particle is released from height S from the surface C
A 2 B
of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is
C 3
three times its potential energy. The height from the
surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that Points 1, 2, 3 are at same potential (as they are
connected by conducting wire)
instant are respectively
So the capacitor is short circuited. It does not store
S 3gS S 3gS any charge.
(1) , (2) ,
4 2 2 2 The circuit can be redrawn as
S 3gS S 3gS C
(3) , (4) ,
4 2 4 2
Answer (3) 1, 2, 3 B
A
Sol. Let required height of body is y.
C
When body from rest falls through height (S – y)
Then under constant acceleration CAB = C + C = 2C (Parallel combination)
5
16. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of 150
capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are A  1 100

  
connected in series to an ac source of potential A0  2 
difference 'V' volts as shown in figure. 3
A  1 2
Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10   
A0  2 
V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current
flowing through LCR series circuit is 10 2 A . The A 1
 
A0 2 2
impedance of the circuit is
18. A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a
concave lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along
the same axis with a distance 'd' between them. If
40 V 10 V 40 V a parallel beam of light falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as a
parallel beam, then the distance 'd' in cm will be
~ (1) 15 (2) 50
V (3) 30 (4) 25
5 Answer (1)
(1)  (2) 4 
2
(3) 5  (4) 4 2 
Answer (3) Sol.

Sol. VL = 40 volt d fB
A B
VR = 40 volt fA
VC = 10 volt Parallel beam of light after refraction from convex lens

converge at the focus of convex lens. In question it
is given light after refraction pass through concave
Now, VRMS  VR2  VL  VC 
2
lens becomes parallel. Therefore light refracted from
convex lens virtually meet at focus of concave lens.
 (40)2  (40  10)2  50 V
According to above ray diagram d = fA – fB
I0 10 2 = 20 – 5 = 15 cm
IRMS    10 A
2 2 19. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In
 VRMS  IRMS  Z which direction will it move?
VRMS 50
 Z  5
IRMS 10
17. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The
fraction of original activity that will remain after 150
E
hours would be +q –q
1 2
(1) (2)
2 2 3
2 1
(3) (4) (1) Towards the right as its potential energy will
3 2 2
decrease.
Answer (1)
(2) Towards the left as its potential energy will
Sol. The activity of a radioactive substance is given as
t
decrease.
 1 T (3) Towards the right as its potential energy will
A  A0   1/2
2 increase.
t (4) Towards the left as its potential energy will
A  1 T1/2 increase.
Now,  
A0  2  Answer (1)
6
Sol. Potential energy of electric dipole in external electric Fv = Mg – FB

  d
field U  P  E  dVg  Vg (M = dVg) V = volume of ball.
2
d
Vg
2
M
Fv  g
2
P
E 21. The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v.
+q –q
The escape velocity from the surface of another
planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and
same mass density is
(1) 2v (2) 3v
Angle between electric field and electric dipole is
(3) 4v (4) v
180°
Answer (3)
U = –PEcos
Sol. Escape velocity from the Earth's surface
U = –PEcos180°
U = +PE 2GM
ve 
R
On moving towards right electric field strength
decrease therefore potential energy decrease. 4
2G R 3
 3
Net force on electric dipole is towards right and net
R
torque acting on it is zero.
So, it will more towards right. 8G 2
 R
3
20. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density
d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine ve  R (For same density)
becomes constant after some time. If the density of
v R
d 
glycerine is , then the viscous force acting on the v1 4R
2
ball will be v1 = 4v
A
3 22. A radioactive nucleus ZX undergoes spontaneous
(1) Mg (2) Mg
2 decay in the sequence
A
Mg Z X Z 1 B Z 3 C Z  2 D , where Z is the atomic
(3) 2Mg (4)
2 number of element X. The possible decay particles
Answer (4) in the sequence are
Sol. Let Fv be the viscous force and FB be the Bouyant (1) , +, – (2)  +, , –
force acting on the ball. (3)  –, , + (4) , –, +
Fv FB Answer (2)
Sol. On + decay atomic number decreases by 1
v = constant
On  –1 decay atomic number increases by 1
On  decay atomic number decreases by 2
Mg
 
A  decay  decay  decay
Z X   Z 1 B   Z 3 C   D
Then, when body moves with constant velocity Z 2
Mg = FB + Fv [a = 0] Hence correct order of decay are +, , –
7
23. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the
correct match from the given choices. d  mgh 
Sol. Incident power on turbine =
Column - I Column - II dt
1
(A) Root mean square (P) nmv 2 dm
3  gh
dt
speed of gas
molecules = 10 × 60 × 15
3 RT = 9000 W
(B) Pressure exerted (Q)
M Now, losses are 10%
by ideal gas
 10 
5  power generated =  1    9000
(C) Average kinetic (R) RT  100 
2
energy of a = 8100 W
molecule
= 8.1 kW
3
(D) Total internal (S) kBT 25. A screw gauge gives the following readings when
2 used to measure the diameter of a wire
energy of 1 mole
Main scale reading : 0 mm
of a diatomic gas
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
(1) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100
(2) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R)
divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the
(3) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S)
wire from the above data is
(4) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
(1) 0.026 cm (2) 0.26 cm
Answer (2)
(3) 0.052 cm (4) 0.52 cm
Sol. Root mean square speed of gas molecule
Answer (3)
3 RT
 Sol. Here, pitch of the screw gauge, P = 1 mm
M
Number of circular division, n = 100
1
Pressure exerted by ideal gas  nmv 2
3 P 1
Thus least count LC    0.01 mm
3 n 100
Average kinetic energy of a molecule  kBT
2
= 0.001 cm
1
Total internal energy of a gas is (U )  nfRT So, diameter of the wire = MSR + (CSR × LC)
2
= 0 + (52 × 0.001 cm)
Here, n = 1
f=5 = 0.052 cm
5 26. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field

U RT 
2 ' E ' in the space between the plates. If the distance
Hence, (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R) between the plates is 'd' and the area of each plate
24. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 is 'A', the energy stored in the capacitor is
kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to (0 = permittivity of free space)
frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How
much power is generated by the turbine? 1
(1) 0EAd (2) 0 E 2 Ad
(g = 10 m/s2) 2
(1) 8.1 kW (2) 12.3 kW E 2 Ad 1
(3) (4) 0 E 2
(3) 7.0 kW (4) 10.2 kW 0 2
Answer (1) Answer (2)
8
h h
Sol. d  
P 2mhc 
2 mc
E    d
d h
Plate Area = A  2mc  2

  d
 h 
Energy density associated with electric field is given
by
28. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives
dU 1 balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell
u  0 E 2
dV 2 of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what
1 length of the wire, the balance point occurs?
 dU  0 E 2 dV
2
(1) 21.6 cm
Total energy stored in the space between the
capacitor will be (2) 64 cm
1 2 (3) 62 cm
U   dU   2 0 E dV
(4) 60 cm
1
 0 E 2  dV [E is constant]
2 Answer (4)
1 1 Sol. From the application of potentiometer to compare two
  0 E 2V   0 E 2 Ad [V  Ad ]
2 2 cells of emfs E1 and E2 by balancing lengths 1 and
27. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '' is incident 2
on a photosensitive surface of negligible work
function. If 'm' mass is of photoelectron emitted from
E1 1
the surface has de-Broglie wavelength d , then 
E2  2
 2mc  2  2mc  2
(1) d    (2)     d
 h   h 
 E2   2.5 V 
  2  1  E   (36 cm)  1.5 V 
 1  
 2h  2  2m  2
(3)     d (4)     d
 mc   hc 
= 60 cm
Answer (2)
29. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that
Sol. As per Einstein's photoelectric equation consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of
hc cross-section and same material is 0.25 . What
 0  k will be the effective resistance if they are connected

in series?
0: work function
(1) 0.5 
k = maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons
As per question,   0 (2) 1 
(3) 4 
hc P2 2mhc
 k  P 
 2m  (4) 0.25 
Now De-broglie wavelength, Answer (3)
9
Sol. All the wires are identical and of same material so

0 2I
they will have same value of resistance. Let it be R. B
4 r
When these are (four) connected in parallel.
R 10 7  2  5 1
B 2
  105 (Tesla), upward to the
20  10 2
R
A B plane of paper
R
Now, force acting on electron due to this field
R
  
RP 
R  1 1 1 1 1  F  q v  B 
4 R  R  R  R  R 
 P 1 2 3 4 
 1
Given RP = 0.25  F  1.6  10 19  105   105
2
R
 0.25  = 0.8 × 10–19 N
4
 R=1 
F  8  1020 N
Now these four resistances are arranged in series 31. A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries
R R R R current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross-
A B section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to
RS = R + R + R + R = 4R the cable with the distance 'r' from the axis of the
cable is represented by
 RS = 4 × 1 = 4 
30. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current
of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed
of 10 5 m/s parallel to the conductor. The B B
(1) (2)
perpendicular distance between the electron and the
conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the r r
magnitude of the force experienced by the electron
at that instant.
5
Electron v = 10 m/s B B
(3) (4)
r r
20 cm Answer (2)
Sol. From Ampere's circuital law
P 5A Q
0I
(1) 8 × 10–20 N (2) 4 × 10–20 N B r if r < R  Binside  r
2R 2
(3) 8 × 10–20 N (4) 4 × 10–20 N
Answer (3) 0I 1
B if r  R  Boutside 
2r r
Sol. Magnetic field produced due to current carrying wire
at point 'A' Hence the correct plot of magnetic field B with
distance r from axis of cable is given as
e 5
A v = 10 m/s
B
e
l in
r = 20 cm g ht
i
t ra
S
Hyperbola
P 5A Q
O R r
10
32. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the (1) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (Q), (D) - (P)
prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3. (2) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
(3) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
(4) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q)
Answer (4)
eE 
60° Sol. Drift velocity, v d 
m
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 90° (4) 60° 1 E
Electrical resistivity,   
Answer (4)  J
Sol. From the ray diagram shown in the figure.
At point P, from Snell's law m
Relaxation period,  
ne2
nt
i de
I nc r a y
30°
I
Current density, J   nev d
A
P 30°
e
(A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q)
34. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The

y nt
time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg

ra rge
60°
e
Em
is suspended by it is
sin i 
 air (1) 6.28 s
sin r Prism
(2) 3.14 s
sin30 1
  (r = e emergent angle)
sin e 3 (3) 0.628 s
1 (4) 0.0628 s
 sin e  3 
2 Answer (3)
 e = 60°
Sol. For a spring, kx = F
33. Column-I gives certain physical terms associated
with flow of current through a metallic conductor. given x = 5 cm, F = 10 N
Column-II gives some mathematical relations  k(5 × 10–2) = 10

involving electrical quantities. Match Column-I and
Column-II with appropriate relations. 1000
k   200 N/m
5
Column-I Column-II
Now, for spring-mass system undergoing SHM
m
(A) Drift Velocity (P)
ne 2 
m
T  2
(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd k
eE Given, m = 2 kg
(C) Relaxation Period (R) 
m
E 2 2
 T  2   0.628 s
(D) Current Density (S) 200 10
J
11
35. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen 37. Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are
as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio
dimensions of energy.
i3
(1) [F][A][T2]
i1 of currents in terms of resistances used in the
(2) [F][A][T–1]
circuit is
(3) [F][A–1][T]
i 2 r2
(4) [F][A][T] r1
Answer (1) A i1 B
Sol. Energy, EFaAbTc i3 r3
[E] = [Fa][Ab][Tc] r2 r1
(1) r  r (2) r  r
 [ML2T–2] = [MLT–2]a [LT–2]b [T]c 2 3 1 2
[ML2T–2] = [MaLa + b T–2a – 2b + c] r2 r1

(3) r  r (4) r  r
Comparing dimensions on both sides. 1 3 2 3
 a = 1; a + b = 2 and –2 = – 2a – 2b + c Answer (1)

b=1  –2 = – 2 – 2 + c i2 r2
r1
c=2
Sol.
i1
[E] = [FAT2]
i3 r3
SECTION - B In parallel combination of resistances r2 and r3,

potential difference will be equal across both
36. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, resistance.
strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. i3 r3
The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is So, i 2r2  i3 r3  i 2  ...(1)
r2
(g = 10 m/s2) nearly
As per Kirchhoff's first law
(1) 4.2 kg m/s (2) 2.1 kg m/s
 i1 = i2 + i3
(3) 1.4 kg m/s (4) 0 kg m/s
Answer (1) r 
 i1   3  1 i3 (from equation 1)
r 
Sol. Given that :  2 
Mass of ball = 0.15 kg i3 r2
 
Height from which ball is dropped = 10 m i1 r2  r3
  38. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a
Impulse, I = Change in linear momentum = P
uniform speed takes a time T to complete one
  revolution. If this particle were projected with the
 Pf  Pi
same speed at an angle '' to the horizontal, the
maximum height attained by it equals 4R. The angle
Velocity of ball at ground v   2gh
of projection, , is then given by :
 2  10  10  10 2 m/s 1 1
2 R 1  1 
2R 
2 2
 (1)   cos  2  (2)   sin  2 

 
I  0.15  10 2  jˆ  0.15  10 2 jˆ   gT   gT 
1 1
 2gT 2 1 
2
1 
gT 2  2
 
I  2  0.15  10 2  ˆj  4.2  ˆj  (3)   sin  2 
  R 
(4)   cos  2 
 R
 magnitude of impulse = 4.2 kg m/s Answer (3)
12
Sol. To complete a circular path of radius R, time period

0 20 cm 40 cm 160 cm
is T.
2R
so speed of particle (U) = ......(1)
T
Now the particle is projected with same speed at 2 kg m

angle to horizontal.
1 1
U 2 sin2  (1) kg (2) kg
So Maximum Height  H  
3 6
2g
1 1
Given that : H = 4R (3) kg (4) kg
12 2
U 2 sin2  Answer (3)

  4R
2g Sol. Given that
Mass of rod = 500 g; Length of rod = 200 cm
2 8gR
 sin   2 ...(2)
U 0 20 40 100 160 cm
8gRT 2 2gT 2
 sin2    (using equation 1) CM
42 R 2 2R
O
1 2 kg m
 2gT 2  2
   sin1  2 
  R  Rod will be in equilibrium, when net torque about
point O will be zero.
39. A step down transformer connected to an ac mains
Torque at point O due to 2 kg mass
supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W
  
lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what   r  F  rF sin   nˆ 
is the current in the primary circuit?
(1) 0.4 A (2) 2 A


1  20  20  102  sin90º kˆ  4 N m kˆ 
(3) 4 A (4) 0.2 A Torque due to mass of rod :
Answer (4)
 
2  5  60  102  sin90º – kˆ  3 N m kˆ 
Sol. In ideal transformer:
Torque due to mass m
Input power = Output power
 VPIP = VSIS = Given power  

3  mg  120  102  sin90º – kˆ  12m N m – kˆ  
 220 × IP = 44
Net torque about point O will be zero
 IP = 0.2 A   
So 1  2  3  0
40. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is
balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass
4 – 3 – 12m = 0
of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and
another unknown mass 'm' is suspended from the
12m = 1
rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the
value of 'm' such that the rod is in equilibrium. 1
m kg
(g = 10 m/s2) 12
13
41. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and After 2 seconds of motion :
resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil
Horizontal velocity of ball = 20 ms–1 ( ax = 0)
in the shape of,
Vertical velocity of ball (vy) = uy + ayt
(i) an equilateral triangle of side 'a'.
vy = 0 + 10 × 2 = 20 ms–1 ( ay = g = 10 m/s2)
(ii) a square of side 'a'.
So magnitude of velocity of ball
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each
case respectively are
(v) = v x2  v y2  20 2 m/s
(1) 3 Ia2 and Ia2
(2) 3 Ia2 and 4 Ia2 Acceleration of ball at t = 6 s is g = 10 m/s2
(3) 4 Ia2 and 3 Ia2 As ball is under free fall.

43. A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity
(4) 3 Ia2 and 3 Ia2 v = kVe (k < 1) from the surface of the earth.
Answer (4) (Ve = escape velocity)
V The maximum height above the surface reached by

Sol. Current in the loop will be  I which is same for the particle is
R
both loops. 2
 k  R 2k
Now magnetic moment of Triangle loop = NIA (1) R   (2)
 1 k  1 k
 12a  3 2
M1    I  a = 3Ia2 Rk 2 2
 3a  4 (3) (4) R  k 
1 k 2  1 k 
 
and magnetic moment of square loop = NIA
Answer (3)
 12a  2
 I a Sol. given v = kVe
 4a 
where, k < 1
2
M2  3Ia Thus, v < Ve
42. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. At From conservation of mechanical energy,
t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a 1 GmM GmM
person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and mv 2 – 
2 R (R  h )
acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s?
(Take g = 10 m/s2) v 2 GM (GM ) h
    GM
2 R (R  h ) R (R  h )
(1) 20 m/s, 0
1 2 2 GMh
 k Ve 
(2) 20 2 m/s, 0 2 R (R  h )
(3) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s2 2GM

We know, Ve 
R
(4) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2
Answer (3) 1 2  2GM  GMh
 k 
2  R  R(R  h)
Sol. Initial velocity of car = 0
h
Acceleration of car = 5 m/s2 k2 
(R  h )
Velocity of car at t = 4 s; v = u + at
Rk2 + hk2 = h
 v = 0 + 5 × 4 = 20 ms–1 Rk2 = h(1 – k2)
At t = 4 s, A ball is dropped out of a window so
Rk 2
velocity of ball at this instant is 20 ms –1 along  h
horizontal. (1  k 2 )
14
44. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at Sol. The resonance frequency of LCR series circuit is
220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. 1 1
Calculate the potential of the bigger drop. given as 0   = 50 rad/s
LC 5  80  10 –6
(1) 1320 V
Now half power frequencies are given as
(2) 1520 V
(3) 1980 V R
  0 
2L
(4) 660 V
Answer (3) 40
i.e. L  50   46 rad/s
25
kQ
Sol. Electric potential due to a charged sphere 
R 40
H  50   54 rad/s
k = 9 × 109 N–m2/C2 25
Q : charge on sphere 46. From a circular ring of mass 'M' and radius 'R' an arc
corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The
R : Radius of sphere
moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring
Let charge and radius of smaller drop is q and r about an axis passing through the centre of the ring
respectively and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is 'K' times
'MR2'. Then the value of 'K' is
kq
For smaller drop, V   220 V
r 7 1
(1) (2)
8 4
Let R be radius of bigger drop,
As volume remains the same 1 3
(3) (4)
8 4
4 3 4 3
 3 r   27  3 R Answer (4)
 
Sol. Given that,
3
 R  27 r  3r Mass of Ring = M; Radius of Ring = R
Now 90° arc is removed from circular ring, then
Now, using charge conservation,
 Q = 27q M
mass removed =
4
kQ k (27q )  kq 
Vbig drop    9 
R 3r  r 
O O
= 9 × 220 = 1980 V 
90°
45. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80
F capacitor and 40  resistor is connected to 230
V variable frequency ac source. The angular
frequencies of the source at which power transferred 3M
Mass of remaining portion =
to the circuit is half the power at the resonant 4
angular frequency are likely to be
Moment of inertia of remaining part   dmr
2
(1) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s

(2) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s  I  R  dm
2
( r  R )
(3) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
(4) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s 3MR 2 3
 I . So the value of K is
4 4
Answer (2)
15
47. In the product 48. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from

a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror
  
F  q v B   were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the
lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final
image would be formed at a distance of


 qv  Biˆ  Bjˆ  B0 kˆ 

For q  1 and v  2iˆ  4 jˆ  6kˆ and

F  4iˆ – 20 jˆ  12kˆ

What will be the complete expression for B ?
60 cm 40 cm
(1) –6iˆ – 6 ˆj  8kˆ
(1) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
(2) 8iˆ  8 ˆj  6kˆ (2) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
image
(3) 6iˆ  6 jˆ  8kˆ
(3) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
image
(4) –8iˆ – 8 jˆ  6kˆ
(4) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
  
Sol. F  q(v  B ) Sol. Using lens formula for first refraction from convex
lens


 qv  Biˆ  Bjˆ  B0 kˆ  1 1 1
 
v1 u f

Given, q  1 v  2iˆ  4 ˆj  6kˆ and
 v1 = ?, u = –60 cm, f = 30 cm
F  4iˆ – 20 ˆj  12kˆ
1 1 1
    v1  60 cm
v1 60 30
      
 4iˆ – 20 jˆ  12kˆ  1  2iˆ  4 jˆ  6kˆ  Biˆ  Bjˆ  B0 kˆ 

40 cm 20 cm
Thus, calculating values of RHS,
iˆ jˆ kˆ
I1
2 4 6
B B B0 60 cm 60 cm
I1 here is first image by lens
 i (4B0  6B ) – j (2B 0 – 6B )  kˆ (2B – 4B ) The plane mirror will produce an image at distance
20 cm to left of it.
Comparing L.H.S and R.H.S,
For second refraction from convex lens,
4B0 – 6B = 4  2B0 –3B = 2 ...(1)
u = –20 cm, v = ? , f = 30 cm
–(2B0 – 6B)= –20 B0 – 3B = 10 ...(2)
1 1 1 1 1 1
2B – 4B = 12 B = –6 ...(3)     
v u f v 20 30
From (2) and (3) 1 1 1
  –  v  60 cm
B = –6 and B0 = –8 v 30 20
 Thus the final image is virtual and at a distance,

Hence, B  –6iˆ  6 jˆ  8kˆ 60 – 40 = 20 cm from plane mirror.
16
49. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are 50. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are
placed in the same plane with their centres applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be
coinciding. If R1 > > R2, the mutual inductance M the output at the terminal y?
between them will be directly proportional to
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
5
A
R2 R12 0
(1) R (2)
1 R2
5
B
0
R22 R1
(3) (4) R
R1 2
5
C
0
Answer (3)
Sol. Two concentric coils are of radius R1 and R2 as A

shown
B
y
R1
O
R2 C
i
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
y
(1)
0V
Let current in outer loop be i 5V

(2)
0V
0 i (3) 5V
Magnetic field at centre  B 
2R1 5V
(4)
0V
Magnetic flux through inner coil  B  R22 Answer (3)

Sol. Output of combination of logic gates is given as
0 i y  A  B  B C
  R22
2R1
Input Output
Signals Signal
0 i R22 Time A B C AB B. C y = A . B + B .C
  duration
2 R1
0 - t1 0 0 1 0 1 1
as per definition,  = Mi t1 - t2 1 0 1 0 1 1
t2 - t3 0 1 0 0 1 1
2
  0   R2 t3 - t4 1 1 0 1 1 1
 M  
 2  R1 t4 - t5 0 0 1 0 1 1
t5 - t6 1 0 1 0 1 1
R22 t6 - t7 0 0 1 0 1 1
M
R1 So the output y is high (1) that is v0 = 5 V
17
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
51. Right option for the number of tetrahedral and
octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :
(2)
(1) 6, 12 (2) 2, 1
(3) 12, 6 (4) 8, 4
Answer (3)
Sol. Number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids
formed by N closed packed atoms are N and
B
2N respectively. PE A
(3)
Each hexagonal unit cell contains 6 atoms
therefore, number of tetrahedral and octahedral Reaction Progress
voids are 12 and 6 respectively.
52. BF 3 is planar and electron deficient compound.
Hybridization and number of electrons around the
central atom, respectively are :
(1) sp3 and 6 (2) sp2 and 6 (4) PE B
A
(3) sp2 and 8 (4) sp3 and 4 Reaction Progress
Sol. F Sol. ΔHrxn = (Ea)f – (Ea)b
B –4.2 = (Ea)f – (Ea)b
F F
–4.2 = 9.6 – (Ea)b
Number of electrons around boron atom is 6. (Ea)b = 9.6 + 4.2 = 13.8 kJ mol–1
Hybridization of B is sp2. Since reaction is exothermic, so possible graph
Shape is trigonal planar. is (1) only.
53. Which one of the following methods can be used to Also (Ea)f < (Ea)b, so answer is option (1).
obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room 55. Noble gases are named because of their inertness
temperature? towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement
(1) Chromatography (2) Distillation about them.
(1) Noble gases have very high melting and boiling
(3) Zone refining (4) Electrolysis
points
Answer (2)
(2) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces
Sol. Distillation method is generally used for the (3) Noble gases have large positive values of
purification of metals having low boiling point such electron gain enthalpy
as Hg, Zn etc.
(4) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water
54. For a reaction A → B, enthalpy of reaction is
Answer (1)
–4.2 kJ mol –1 and enthalpy of activation is
9.6 kJ mol–1. The correct potential energy profile for Sol. Noble gases have weak dispersion forces hence
the reaction is shown in option. they have low melting and boiling points.
56. The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and
vapour phase, are :
(1) Linear in both
PE A
(2) Dimer and Linear, respectively
(1)
B (3) Chain in both
Reaction Progress (4) Chain and dimer, respectively
18
Answer (4) 59. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi
Sol. Beryllium chloride has a chain structure in the solid broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz).
The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation
state as shown below
emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light
Cl Cl Cl c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1]
Be Be Be (1) 219.2 m (2) 2192 m
Cl Cl Cl (3) 21.92 cm (4) 219.3 m
In vapour phase Beryllium chloride tends to form a Answer (4)

chloro-bridged dimer. Sol. Energy of electromagnetic radiation (E)
Cl
Be Be hc
Cl Cl = = hγ
λ
Cl
c c
57. Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order So, =γ ⇒ λ=
λ γ
given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI.
Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br,
3 × 108
I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, λ= = 219.3 m
HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength 1368 × 103
increases.
60. Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and
In the light of the above statements, choose the ionic radii because of :
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Diagonal relationship
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) Lanthanoid contraction
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(3) Having similar chemical properties
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(4) Belonging to same group
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are true
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
Sol. The cumulative effect of the contraction of the
Sol. In the modern periodic table, moving down the group
lanthanoid series, known as lanthanoid
as the size of halogen atom increases, the H – X
contraction, causes the radii of the members of
bond length also increases as a result the bond
the third transition series to be very similar to
enthalpy decreases. Hence, The acidic strength also
those of the corresponding members of the
increases.
second series.
So, the correct order of acidic strength is
The almost identical radii of Zr (160 pm) and
HI > HBr > HCl > HF Hf (159 pm) is a consequence of the lanthanoid
58. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by contraction.
addition polymerisation? 61. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) Nylon-66 List-I List-II
(2) Novolac (a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
(3) Dacron (b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar
(4) Teflon (c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
Answer (4) (d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
Sol. Dacron, Nylon-66 and Novolac are prepared by Choose the correct answer from the options given
condensation polymerisation. below.
Teflon is an addition polymer. Monomer of teflon is
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
tetrafluoroethene.
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Catalyst [CF2 – CF 2] n
nCF2 = CF 2 (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
High pressure Teflon
Tetrafluoroethene (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
19
Answer (4) 64. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid are
Sol. Cl 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct
Cl option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate
(a) Cl P sp3d hybridised and solution is :
Cl trigonal bipyramidal in (1) 5.50 (2) 7.75
Cl shape
(3) 6.25 (4) 8.50
F
F F Answer (2)
(b) S sp3d2 hybridised and Sol. Dimethylammonium acetate is a salt of weak acid
F F octahedral in shape and weak base whose pH can be calculated as
F
1
F
pH = 7 + (pK a – pK b )
F 2
(c) Br sp3d2 hybridised and 1
F F square pyramidal in shape =7+ ( 4.77 – 3.27 )
2
F = 7.75
F
65. The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect is
(d) F B sp2 hybridised and trigonal exhibited by", is :
F planar in shape
(1) Glucose solution (2) Starch solution
62. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound
(3) Urea solution (4) NaCl solution
formed in the following chemical reaction?
(i) C H MgBr, dry Ether
Answer (2)
Acetone ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 5
+ → Product
(ii) H2O, H Sol. Tyndall effect is exhibited by colloidal solution
(1) pentan-2-ol (2) pentan-3-ol only.
(3) 2-methylbutan-2-ol (4) 2-methylpropan-2-ol Among the given options, Urea, NaCl and
Glucose solutions are true solutions, so cannot
Answer (3)
show Tyndall effect.
δ– Starch solution is a colloidal solution therefore
O OMgBr
(i) C2H5 MgBr can show Tyndall effect.
Sol. CH3 –δ+C – CH 3 Dry ether
CH3 – C – CH 3
66. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits
C2H5
which of the following particles?
(i) H2O/H+
(1) Alpha (α) (2) Gamma (γ)
OH (3) Neutron (n) (4) Beta (β–)
CH3 – C – CH 2 – CH 3 Answer (4)
CH3 1
Sol. Hydrogen has three isotopes : protium, 1H
Product
(2-methylbutan-2-ol) deuterium, 12 H or D and tritium 13 H or T . Of these
isotopes, only tritium is radioactive and emits low
63. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon
energy β– particles (t1/2, 12.33 years).
and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right
option for the empirical formula of this compound 67. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C—X' bond
is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1] is :
(1) CH2 (2) CH3 (1) CH3 – F > CH3 – Cl > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I
(3) CH4 (4) CH
(2) CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I
Answer (2)
Sol. Element Mass percentage No. of mole Mole ratio (3) CH3 – Cl > CH3 – F > CH3 – Br > CH3 –I
78 6.5
C 78% = 6.5 =1 (4) CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl < CH3 – Br < CH3 –I
12 6.5
22 22
H 22% = 22 = 3.38 3 Answer (1)
1 6.5
Sol. The size of halogen atom increases from F to I
Based on above calculation, possible empirical
hence bond length from C – F to C – I increases
formula is CH3.
20
∴ Bond enthalpy from CH 3 – F to CH 3 – I The reaction of Hinsberg's reagent (C6H5SO2Cl)
decreases with primary amine (CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 ) yields
N-ethylbenzene sulphonamide.
C – X Bond Bond dissociation O
–1
enthalpies/kJ mol
S – Cl + H – N – C 2H 5
CH3 — F 452 O H
O
CH3 — Cl 351 S – N – C2H5 + HCl
CH3 — Br 293 O H
N-Ethylbenzene sulphonamide
(Soluble in alkali)
CH3 — I 234
The reaction of Hinsberg's reagent (C6H5SO2Cl)
68. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving with secondary amine (C 2H 5NHCH 3) gives,
10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1), N-Ethyl-N-Methyl benzene sulphonamide
10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and O
10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3).
S – Cl + H – N – CH 3
The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic
pressure of these solutions is : O C2H5
O CH3
(1) P1 > P2 > P3 (2) P2 > P3 > P1
S – N – CH
2 5
+ HCl
(3) P3 > P1 > P2 (4) P2 > P1 > P3
O
Answer (4) Insoluble in alkali due to
absence of H-atom
Sol. Osmotic pressure (π) = iCRT
3° amine do not react with Hinsberg reagent
where C is molar concentration of the solution
70. The compound which shows metamerism is :
With increase in molar concentration of solution
(1) C3H8O (2) C3H6O
osmotic pressure increases.
(3) C4H10O (4) C5H12
Since, weight of all solutes and its solution
volume are equal, so higher will be the molar Answer (3)
mass of solute, smaller will be molar Sol. Compounds with formula C4H10O can be ethers
concentration and smaller will be the osmotic which may exhibit metamerism. For example
pressure.
CH3 – CH 2 O CH2 CH3 , CH 3 O CH CH3
Order of molar mass of solute decreases as
CH 3
Sucrose > Glucose > Urea
and CH3—O—CH2—CH2—CH3 are metamers as
So, correct order of osmotic pressure of solution
structure of alkyl chains are different around the
is P3 < P1 < P2
functional group.
69. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's
reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali. 71. Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
CH 2
(1) CH3 NH CH3 Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of
narcotic analgesics.
CH2
(2) CH3 NH2 Statement II :
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In
CH 2 CH 2 the light of the above statements, choose the correct
CH3 N CH 3
(3) answer from the options given below.
CH3 (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
CH 2 (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(4) CH NO2
3 (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Answer (2) true.
Sol. Benzenesulphonyl chloride (C6H5SO2Cl) is also (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
known as Hinsberg's reagent. Answer (1)
21
Sol. Aspirin and paracetamol belong to the class of where k is proportionality constant and equal to nRT.
non-narcotic analgesics ∴ Graph between P vs. V should be rectangular
Morphine and Heroin are Narcotic analgesics hyperbola and product of PV increases with
∴ Both statement I and statement II are false increase in temperature.
72. Choose the correct option for graphical representation 73. The correct structure of 2, 6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is
of Boyle's law, which shows a graph of pressure vs.
volume of a gas at different temperatures :
(1) (2)
Pressure (P)
(200 K, 400 K, 600 K)

(bar)
(1)
(3) (4)
Volume (V) Answer (4)

3
(dm )
Sol. 4
K
0
K 2 1
20
5
0 3
40
0K
Pressure (P)
6 10
60 8
(bar)
7 9
(2) 2, 6-Dimethyldec-4-ene
74. The incorrect statement among the following is :

Volume (V) (1) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are
3
(dm ) colorless in the solid state
(2) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and
electricity
Pressure (P)
(3) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially

when finely divided.
(bar)
600 K (4) Actinoid contraction is greater for element to

(3)
400 K element than lanthanoid contraction
200 K
Answer (1)
Volume (V) Sol. Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially
3
(dm ) when finely divided
Actinoid contraction is greater from element to
element than lanthanoid contraction resulting
from poor shielding by 5f electrons
Pressure (P)
Many trivalent lanthanoids ions are coloured both

(bar)
(4) 200 K in the solid state and in aqueous solutions.

400 K Lanthanoids have typical metallic structure and
600 K are good conductors of heat and electricity
75. Which of the following reactions is the metal
Volume (V) displacement reaction? Choose the right option.
3
(dm )
Δ
(1) Cr2O3 + 2Al ⎯⎯ → Al2O3 + 2Cr
Answer (3)
(2) Fe + 2HCl → FeCl2 + H2↑
Sol. According to Boyle's law
(3) 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2↑
1 k
P∝  P=  PV = k Δ
(4) 2KClO3 ⎯⎯ → 2KCl + 3O2
V V
22
Answer (1)
Sol. Both reactions (3) and (4) are examples of
decomposition reactions.
Reactions (1) and (2), both are examples of
displacement reactions, while reaction (1) is an
example of metal displacement reaction.
76. Which one among the following is the correct option
for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole
of ideal gas?
(1) CP – CV = R (2) CP = RCV 79. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
(3) CV = RCP (4) CP + CV = R (1) Unidentate ligand
Answer (1) (2) Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
Sol. At constant volume, qV = CVΔT = ΔU (3) Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms
At constant pressure, qP = CPΔT = ΔH (4) Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N"
donor atoms
For a mole of an ideal gas,
Answer (4)
ΔH = ΔU + Δ(PV)
Sol. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is a
= ΔU + Δ(RT) hexadented ligand having four donor oxygen atoms
= ΔU + RΔT and two donor nitrogen atoms
On putting the values of ΔH and ΔU, we have – –
O O
–
O
– O
CPΔT = CVΔT + RΔT
O=C M C= O C= O
CP = CV + R O=C
CH 2 CH2
CP – CV = R
CH 2 – N N CH2
77. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one CH2 – CH2
which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents
is : 80. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of :
(1) Strontium chloride (1) Vitamin B6
(2) Magnesium chloride (2) Vitamin B1
(3) Beryllium chloride (3) Vitamin B2
(4) Calcium chloride (4) Vitamin B12
Sol. Except for beryllium chloride all other chloride of Sol. Deficiency of vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) causes
alkaline earth metals are ionic in nature. cheilosis, digestive disorders and burning
Due to small size of Be, Beryllium chloride is sensation of the skin.
essentially covalent and soluble in organic Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes Pernicious
solvents. anaemia which is RBC deficiency in
78. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane haemoglobin.
is : Deficiency of vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) causes
(1) 180° (2) 60° Convulsions.
(3) 0° (4) 120° Deficiency of vitamin B 1 (Thiamine) causes
Beri-Beri (loss of appetite and retarded growth).
Answer (3)
81. The maximum temperature that can be achieved in
Sol. Ethane has two conformers (i) Eclipsed
blast furnace is :
(ii) Staggered
(1) Upto 2200 K (2) Upto 1900 K
Eclipsed conformer is least stable while staggered
(3) Upto 5000 K (4) Upto 1200 K
conformer is most stable. In eclipsed conformer the
dihedral angle is 0° Answer (1)
23
Sol. Maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast 83. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation
furnace is upto 2200 K. reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This
(As per NCERT text: 2170 K maximum temperature product formation is based on?
is given in the figure of blast furnace) (1) Hund's Rule
82. The major product of the following chemical reaction (2) Hofmann Rule
is :
(3) Huckel's Rule
CH 3 (C 6 H 5CO) 2O2
CH CH CH2 + HBr ? (4) Saytzeff's Rule
CH 3
Answer (4)
Sol. Major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction
(1)
of 2-bromopentane is pent-2-ene because according
to Saytzeff's rule, in dehydrohalogenation reactions,
CH 3 the preferred product is that alkene which has greater
CH 3
(2) CH CH CH number of alkyl group(s) attached to the doubly
3
Br bonded carbon atoms.
CH3
Br
(3) CBr CH2 – CH3 OH–
CH3 CH3 – CH2 – CH 2 – CH – CH 3
CH3 CH 3 – CH2 – CH = CH – CH 3
(4) CH CH2 CH2 Br Pent-2-ene (81%)
CH3 +
CH3 – CH 2 – CH 2 – CH = CH2
Answer (4)
Pent-1-ene (19%)
CH 3 84. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa

Sol. CH CH CH 2 + HBr at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and
CH 3 (C 6H 5 CO)2O 2
91.0 S cm 2 mol –1 respectively. The molar
CH 3 conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is.
CH CH2 – CH2 Br Choose the right option for your answer.
CH 3
(1) 390.71 S cm2 mol–1
Mechanism : Peroxide effect proceeds via free
radical chain mechanism. (2) 698.28 S cm2 mol–1
O O O (3) 540.48 S cm2 mol–1

Homolysis
C O O C C 6H5 (4) 201.28 S cm2 mol–1
•
(i) C6H 5 2C 6H 5 C O
••
••
Answer (1)
•
2C 6H 5 + CO 2 Sol. According to Kohlrausch law of independent

(ii) C6H5 + H Br Homolysis migration of ions.
•
C6H6 + Br
o
CH 3 Λm (CH3COOH)
•
(iii) CH CH CH 2 + Br o o o
CH 3 = Λm (CH3COONa) + Λm (HCl) − Λm (NaCl)
= 91.0 S cm2 mol–1 + 426.16 S cm2 mol–1
CH 3
– 126.45 S cm2 mol–1
•
CH CH CH 2 Br
CH 3
More Stable secondary
= 390.71 S cm2 mol–1
free radical
85. The correct option for the number of body centred
CH3 unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells
•
(iv) CH CH CH2 Br + H Br is :
CH3 Homolysis
(1) 5 (2) 2
CH3
CH CH2 CH2 Br (3) 3 (4) 7
CH3
Answer (3)
Major product
24
Sol. In 14 types of Bravais lattices, body centred 88. The product formed in the following chemical
unit cell is present in cubic, tetragonal and reaction is:
orthorhombic crystal systems.
O O
Hence, body centred possible variation is present
NaBH4
in three crystal systems. CH2–C–OCH3 C2H5OH
?
SECTION - B CH3
86. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in
nature? O
(1) CH2O (2) SbCl5 CH 2 –CH 2–OH
(1)
(3) NO2 (4) POCl3
CH 3
Answer (2)
Cl OH H
Cl CH 2 –C–CH3
Sol. SbCl5 : Cl Sb
(2) OH
Cl CH 3
Cl
Net vector summation of bond moments will be zero

OH O
so SbCl5 is a non-polar molecule.
CH 2 –C–OCH3
O
⋅ NO 2 : ⋅N  polar molecule.
(3)
CH 3
O
O
⋅ POCl 3 :
Cl
P
Cl
 polar molecule. OH H
Cl CH 2 –C–OCH3
O (4)
OH
⋅ CH O :
2
H
C
H
 polar molecule. CH 3
87. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of Answer (3)
a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar Sol. NaBH4 is a reducing agent. If reduces carbonyl
ratio 3 : 2 is : group into alcohols but does not reduce esters.
[At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg O
O O
OH
and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas] CH2 OCH3
CH2 OCH3
NaBH4
(1) 168 mm of Hg (2) 336 mm of Hg CH3 C2H5OH
CH3
(3) 350 mm of Hg (4) 160 mm of Hg
89. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under
Answer (2)
isothermal condition, the correct option is:
Sol. Given : nC6H6 : nC8H18 = 3 : 2 (1) ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0
(2) ΔU = 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0
3 2
So, χ C6H6 = , χ C8H18 =
(3) ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal = 0
5 5
(4) ΔU = 0, ΔStotal = 0
p s = p oC 6H6 χ C 6H6 + p oC8H18 χ C8H18
Answer (2)
3 2 Sol. For a spontaneous process, ΔStotal > 0 and since
= 280 × + 420 ×
5 5 irreversible process is always spontaneous
therefore ΔStotal > 0.
= 168 + 168
Since ΔU = nCVΔT and ΔT = 0 for isothermal
= 336 mm of Hg process therefore ΔU = 0.
25
90. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20
Sol. Magnetic moment, μ = n(n + 2) BM (where
S cm2 mol–1. What is the dissociation constant of
acetic acid? Choose the correct option. n = number of unpaired electrons)
Complex No. of unpaired μ(BM)
 Λ ° + = 350 S cm2 mol−1 
 H  electron(s)
Λ° − = 50 S cm
2
mol −1 
 CH3COO  (a) [Fe(CN)6]3– 1 1.73
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ 5 5.92
(1) 2.50 × 10−4 mol L−1
(c) [Fe(CN)6]4– 0 0
−5 −1
(2) 1.75 × 10 mol L (d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ 4 4.90
92. Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in
(3) 2.50 × 10−5 mol L−1
atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in
(4) 1.75 × 10−4 mol L−1 a total volume of one litre at 0°C is :
[Given R = 0.082 L atm mol–1K–1, T = 273 K]
Answer (2)
(1) 2.602
Sol. Λm = 20 S cm2 mol−1
(2) 25.18
o o o (3) 26.02
Λm CH3COOH = Λ CH COO− + Λm H+
3
(4) 2.518
2 −1
= 50 + 350 = 400 S cm mol Answer (2)
Λm 20 1 4 1
α= o
= = Sol. nO2 = =
Λm 400 20 32 8
2 2
Cα 2  1  nH2 = =1
Ka = Cα2 = 7 × 10−3 ×   2
1− α  20 
1 9
1 nt = +1=
= 7 × 10 −3
× × 10 −2 8 8
4
Pt V = nt RT
= 1.75 × 10−5 mol L−1
9
91. Match List-I with List-II. × 0.082 × 273
Pt = 8 = 25.18 atm
List-I List-II 1
(a) [Fe(CN)6]3– (i) 5.92 BM NaOH, +?

93. CH3CH2COO– Na+ Heat
CH3CH3 + Na2CO3.
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) 0 BM
Consider the above reaction and identify the missing
(c) [Fe(CN)6]4– (iii) 4.90 BM reagent/chemical.
(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM (1) Red Phosphorus

(2) CaO
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. (3) DIBAL-H
(4) B2H6
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
Answer (2)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Sol. Alkane is produced by heating sodium salt of
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) carboxylic acid with sodalime (NaOH and CaO in the
ratio of 3 : 1)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
NaOH+CaO
Answer (3) CH3CH2COO −Na + ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Heat → CH3CH3 + Na 2CO3
26
Sol. Etard's reaction
 1
94. The slope of Arrhenius plot  ln k v/s  of first
 T  O
(OCrOHCl 2)
order reaction is –5 × 103K. The value of Ea of the CH 3 HC C—H
reaction is. Choose the correct option for your (OCrOHCl 2)
+
answer. CS2 H 3O
+ CrO 2Cl 2
[Given R = 8.314 JK–1mol–1]
(X)
(1) 83.0 kJ mol–1 (2) 166 kJ mol–1
(3) –83 kJ mol–1 (4) 41.5 kJ mol–1 96. Match List-I with List-II.
Answer (4) List-I List-II
Sol. Arrhenius equation (a) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → (i) Acid rain
2SO3(g)
k = Ae–Ea /RT
(b) HOCl(g) ⎯⎯
hν
⎯→ (ii) Smog
–Ea /RT
ln k = ln A + ln e • •
OH + Cl
E  1
lnk = ln A – a   ⎯⎯→ (1) (c) CaCO3+ H2SO4 → (iii) Ozone
R T
CaSO4 + H2O+CO2 depletion
1 (d) NO2 (g) ⎯⎯

hν
⎯→ (iv) Tropospheric
Slope of ln k vs curve,
T
NO(g) + O(g) pollution
Ea Choose the correct answer from the options given
m=–
R below.
Ea (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

–5 × 103 = –
R (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Ea = 5 × 103 × 8.314 J/mol (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
= 41.57 × 103 J/mol (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
41.5 kJ/mol Answer (2)
95. The intermediate compound 'X' in the following Sol. Tropospheric pollution: In the presence of
chemical reaction is:
pollutant, SO2 cunverts into SO3.
O
2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3
CH3 C
CS2 H 3O
+
H
+ CrO 2Cl2 X In spring season, sunlight breaks HOCl and Cl2
to give chlorine radicals.
CH(OCOCH 3 )2 • •
(1)
hν
HOCl ⎯⎯ ⎯→ OH( g) + Cl ( g)
These chlorine radicals deplete ozone layer
Cl High level of sulphur causes acid rain which
CH
Cl reacts with marble and causes discolouring and
(2)
disfiguring
Cl CaCO3 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O + CO2

CH
H
(3) A chain reaction occurs from interaction of NO
with sunlight in which NO is converted to NO2
which absorb energy from sunlight and breaks
CH(OCrOHCl 2)2
into NO and O, which causes photochemical
(4)
smong.
Answer (4) NO2 ( g ) ⎯⎯
hν
⎯→ NO ( g ) + O ( g )
27
97. From the following pairs of ions which one is not an • Haloform reaction:
iso-electronic pair?
(1) Na+, Mg2+ (2) Mn2+, Fe3+
(3) Fe2+, Mn2+ (4) O2–, F–
• Esterification:
Answer (3)
O O
Sol. • Isoelectronic species have some number Conc.
R CH2 OH + R′ C OH H2SO4
R′ C OCH2 R
ofelectrons.
• Species Number of electrons
• Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction:
X
(i) X2/Red P
Fe2+ 26 – 2 = 24 R CH2COOH R CH COOH
(ii) H2O
Mn2+ 25 – 2 = 23 99. In which one of the following arrangements the

given sequence is not strictly according to the
O2– 8 + 2 = 10 properties indicated against it?
(1) H2O < H2S : Increasing pKa
F– 9 + 1 = 10
< H2Se < H2Te values
+
Na 11 – 1 = 10 (2) NH3 < PH3 : Increasing
Mg 2+
12 – 2 = 10 < AsH3 < SbH3 acidic character
(3) CO2 < SiO2 : Increasing
Fe3+ 26 – 3 = 23
< SnO2 < PbO2 oxidizing power
98. Match List-I with List-II (4) HF < HCl : Increasing acidic
List-I List-II < HBr < HI strength
CO, HCI Answer (1)
(a) (i) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky
Anhyd. AlCl3/
CuCl reaction Sol. Stronger is the acid, lower is the value of pKa. On
O moving down the group, bond dissociation enthalpy
of hydrides of group 16 elements decreases hence
(b) R — C — CH 3 + (ii) Gattermann-Koch acidity increases and pKa value decreases. Correct
NaOX reaction order of pKa value will be
(c) R — CH2 — OH (iii) Haloform reaction H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
+R′ COOH 100. The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical
Conc. H2SO 4 reaction is:
–
NH2 N2 Cl –
–
(d) R — CH 2COOH (iv) Esterification Br Br Br

Br Br Br
(I ) X2/Red P
I
NaNO2, HCl R
0.5°C
(ii) H 2O
Br Br Br
below. (1) CH3CH2OH
(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv) (2) HI
(2) (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) (3) CuCN/KCN
(3) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) (4) H2O
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii) Answer (1)
Answer (3) –
NH 2 N2 Cl–
–
Sol. • Gattermann-Koch reaction: Br Br Br Br Br Br

NaNO2, HCl CH 3CH 2OH
Sol.
CHO 0 - 5°C
CO, HCl Br Br Br
Anhyd. AlCl 3/CuCl
Reagent R is C2H5OH with diazonium salt.
28
BOTANY
• Rubber, gums, morphine, codeine, vinblastin and

SECTION - A
curcumin are included under the category of
101. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen? secondary metabolites as their role or functions
in host organisms is not known yet. However,
(1) Brown algae (2) Red algae
many of them are useful to human welfare.
(3) Blue-green algae (4) Green algae
104. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:
Answer (2)
(1) Infrared rays
Sol. • The cell wall of red algae is composed of agar,
carrageen and funori along with cellulose. (2) Gamma rays
• In brown algae cell wall contains algin while in (3) Zeatin
green algae it is composed of cellulose and
(4) Kinetin
pectin.
Answer (2)
• In blue green algae cell wall is composed of
mucopeptides. Sol. • Several kinds of radiation like gamma rays, X-
rays, UV-rays cause mutation.
102. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two
kinds of spores. Such plants are known as: • These are physical mutagens.
(1) Heterosorus • Such induced mutation in plants is done to
(2) Homosporous develop improved varieties. The first natural
cytokinin was isolated from unripe maize grain
(3) Heterosporous
known as zeatin. The cytokinin that was
(4) Homosorus obtained from degraded product of autoclaved
Answer (3) herring sperm DNA was kinetin (N 6-furfuryl
aminopurine). Infrared rays cause heating effect.
Sol. Plants like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two
kinds of spore i.e., microspores and macrospores. 105. When gene targetting involving gene amplification is
They are known as heterosporous. attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease,
it is known as :
Most of the pteridophytes produce single type of
spores and are called homosporous (1) Gene therapy
Sorus are brownish or yellowish cluster of spore- (2) Molecular diagnosis

producing structures located on the lower surface of (3) Safety testing
fern leaves.
(4) Biopiracy
103. Which of the following are not secondary
Answer (1)
metabolites in plants?
Sol. The correct option is (1)
(1) Amino acids, glucose
 Gene therapy is a collection of methods that
(2) Vinblastin, curcumin
allows correction of a gene defect that has been
(3) Rubber, gums diagnosed in a child/embryo.
(4) Morphine, codeine  Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of
Answer (1) bio-resources by multinational companies and
other organisations without proper authorisation
Sol. The correct option is (1) from the countries and people concerned without
• Amino acids and glucose are included under the compensatory payment.
category of primary metabolites as they have  Molecular diagnosis refers to the act or process
identifiable functions and play known roles in of determining the nature and cause of a
normal physiological processes. disease.
29
106. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as Sol.  The site of perception of light in plants during
reserve food material? photoperiodism is leaf.
(1) Gracilaria  The site of perception of low temperature

stimulus during vernalisation is shoot apex and
(2) Volvox embryo.
(3) Ulothrix  Axillary bud are not sites of perception of
photoperiod.
(4) Ectocarpus
109. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen,
Answer (4) phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any
given time, is referred as :
Sol. Ectocarpus is a brown alga belongs to the class
Phaeophyceae. Members of this class have mannitol (1) Climax community
and laminarin as stored food material. (2) Standing state
Ulothrix and Volvox belong to Chlorophyceae (green (3) Standing crop
algae). Members of this class have starch as reserve
(4) Climax
food material. Gracilaria is a member of red algae
(Rhodophyceae). This class is characterised by Answer (2)
having floridean starch as stored food material. Sol.  Amount of all the inorganic substances or
nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus
107. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
and calcium present in soil at any given time, is
(1) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal referred as standing state.
cells  Amount of living material present in different
(2) The perinuclear space forms a barrier between trophic levels at a given time, is referred as
the materials present inside the nucleus and that standing crop.
of the cytoplasm  Climax community is the last community in
biotic succession which is relatively stable and
(3) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and
is in near equilibrium with the environment of
RNA molecules in both directions between
that area.
nucleus and cytoplasm
110. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a
(4) Mature sieve tube elements possess a population is :
conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic
organelles (1) Genetic recombination
(2) Mutation
Answer (4)
(3) Genetic drift
Sol. A mature sieve tube elements possess a peripheral
(4) Natural selection
cytoplasm and a large central vacuole but lacks a
nucleus. Answer (3)
Rest of other statements are correct. Sol.  Change in gene frequency in a small population
by chance is known as genetic drift. Genetic
108. The site of perception of light in plants during drift has two ramifications, one is bottle neck
photoperiodism is effect and another is founder's effect.
(1) Stem  When accidentally a few individuals are

dispersed and act as founders of a new isolated
(2) Axillary bud population, founder's effect is said to be
observed.
(3) Leaf
 Crossing over which occurs during gamete
(4) Shoot apex formation results in genetic recombination.
Answer (3)  Mutations are random and directionless.
30
111. Match List-I with List-II 113. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency
(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato
(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones
(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants
Choose the correct answer from the options given Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. below.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
Sol. • Pomato is obtained as a result of protoplast
fusion. Sol. (a) Cohesion is mutual attraction among water
molecules.
• Totipotency is a property of explant to develop
into whole plant body during plant tissue culture. (b) Adhesion is attraction towards polar surfaces.
• Virus free plants can be obtained through (c) Surface tension explains water molecules are
meristem culture. more attracted in liquid phase than gaseous
phase.
• Somaclones are obtained by the process of
micropropagation. (d) Guttation is loss of water is liquid form from the
leaf margins.
112. Which of the following is a correct sequence of
steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)? 114. Diadelphous stamens are found in
(1) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(1) Citrus
(2) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(2) Pea
(3) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
(3) China rose and citrus
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(4) China rose
Answer (4)
Answer (2)
Sol. The first step in the polymerase chain reaction is
denaturation during which strands of dsDNA Sol.  Stamens are said to be diadelphous when these
separate. This requires temperature around 94°C. are united in two bundles e.g. Pea.
This is followed by annealing in which primers anneal
 China rose has monoadelphous stamens while,
to 3' end of template DNA strand.
Citrus has polyadelphous stamens.
Annealing is followed by extension in which Taq Monoadelphous stamens are grouped in single
polymerase adds nucleotides to 3'OH end of bundle whereas polyadelphous stamens occur in
primers. more than two bundles.
31
115. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field 118. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) NAA
List-I List-II
(2) 2, 4-D
(a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen
(3) IBA
(b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition
(4) IAA
Answer (2) (c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases
Sol. Some synthetic auxins are used as weedicides. (d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm
2,4-D is widely used to remove broad leaved weeds
or dicotyledonous weeds in cereal crops or Choose the correct answer from the options given
monocotyledonous plants. below.
IAA and IBA are natural auxins.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
NAA is a synthetic auxin.
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
116. During the purification process for recombinant DNA
technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
out :
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(1) DNA
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) Histones
(3) Polysaccharides Answer (1)
(4) RNA Sol.  Lenticels are meant for exchange of gases.

Answer (1)  Phellogen is also known as cork cambium.
Sol. Various enzymes like protease, RNase, etc. are
 Phelloderm is also called secondary cortex
added to break down substances like proteins, RNA,
because it is the cortex that develops during
etc. Once all these substances are broken down,
secondary growth.
DNA is left which is precipitated out by adding
chilled ethanol.  Cork has deposition of suberin in their cell walls
Histones are basic proteins that help condense DNA when they get mature.
in a cell.
119. Which of the following plants is monoecious?
117. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is
(1) Chara
(1) Oxaloacetic acid
(2) Succinic acid (2) Marchantia polymorpha
(3) Phosphoglyceric acid (3) Cycas circinalis
(4) Pyruvic acid (4) Carica papaya

Answer (1)
Answer (1)
Sol.  Sorghum is a C4 plant. The first stable product
of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is oxaloacetic acid. Sol.  When male and female sex organs are present
on same plant body, such plants are said to be
 The first stable product in C 3 cycle is
monoecious.
3-phosphoglyceric acid.
 Pyruvic acid is the end product of glycolysis.  Most of the species of Chara are monoecious.
 Succinic acid is an intermediate product in krebs  Cycas circinalis, Carica papaya and Marchantia
cycle. polymorpha are dioecious.
32
120. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves Sol. A typical angiospermic embryo sac has seven cells
division of centromere? that are three antipodals, one central cell, one egg
(1) Metaphase II (2) Anaphase II cell and two synergids.
The central cell has two polar nuclei, hence the
(3) Telophase II (4) Metaphase I
embryo sac is eight nucleated.
Answer (2)
124. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which
Sol.  Division of centromere occurs in anaphase II. mechanism the competing species might have
 Telophase II is the last stage of meiosis II. evolved for their survival?
During this phase, the chromatids reach the (1) Competitive release
poles and start uncoiling.
(2) Mutualism
 Chromosomes form two parallel plates in
(3) Predation
metaphase I and one plate in metaphase II.
(4) Resource partitioning
121. The production of gametes by the parents, formation
of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood Answer (4)
from a diagram called : Sol. • Inspite of interspecific competition the competing
(1) Punch square (2) Punnett square species may co-exist by doing resource
partitioning.
(3) Net square (4) Bullet square
• In mutualism two organisms are equally
Answer (2) benefitted.
Sol. The production of gametes (n) by the parents (2n), • In predation one organism (Predator) eats the
the formation of the zygote (2n), the F1 and F2 plants another one (Prey).
can be understood from a diagram called Punnett
• In competition release there occurs dramatical
square.
increase in population of a less distributed
122. Gemmae are present in species when its superior competitor is
(1) Pteridophytes removed.
125. Match List-I with List-II.
(2) Some Gymnosperms
(3) Some Liverworts
(4) Mosses
Answer (3)
Sol.  Gemmae are green, multicellular asexual buds
that are produced by some liverworts like
Marchantia.
 Mosses reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation
and budding of protonema.
 Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms normally do
not reproduce asexually Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
123. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 7-nucleate and 8-celled
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) 7-nucleate and 7-celled (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) 8-nucleate and 8-celled (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) 8-nucleate and 7-celled (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
33
Sol.  The inner membrane of mitochondria forms When the centromere is present very close to one
infoldings called cristae. end of the chromosome, it is called acrocentric
 Thylakoids are flattened membranous sacs in chromosome.
stroma of plastids. When the centromere is present at terminal position,
 Cisternae are disc shaped sacs in Golgi the chromosome is called telocentric.
apparatus. 128. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide
 Primary constriction in chromosome that holds when viewed under UV radiation, appear as
two chromatids together is called centromere.
(1) Bright orange bands
Hence correct option is (2)- a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(2) Dark red bands
126. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(3) Bright blue bands
(1) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
(4) Yellow bands
(2) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
Answer (1)
(3) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem
Sol. After the bands are stained, they are viewed in UV
is upright.
light. The bands appear bright orange in colour.
(4) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted. Ethidium bromide is the intercalating agent that
stacks in between the nitrogenous bases.
Answer (1)
Sol. Pyramid of biomass in sea is inverted. For example, 129. Amensalism can be represented as:
biomass of zooplanktons is higher than that of (1) Species A (+); Species B (+)
phytoplanktons as life span of former is longer and
the latter multiply much faster though having shorter (2) Species A (–); Species B (–)
life span. (3) Species A (+); Species B (0)
(4) Species A (–); Species B (0)

PC 21
Answer (4)
PP 04
Sol. • Amensalism is an interaction between two
organisms of different species in which one
Small standing crop of phytoplanktons supports
species inhibits the growth of other species by
large standing crop of zooplankton
secreting certain chemicals. The first species is
127. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two neither get benefited nor harmed.
equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is
referred as : • (+) : (0) interaction is observed in commensalism
(1) Telocentric • (+) : (+) interaction is observed in mutualism.
(2) Sub-metacentric • (–) : (–) interaction is seen in competition
(3) Acrocentric 130. Plants follow different pathways in response to

environment or phases of life to form different kinds
(4) Metacentric
of structures. This ability is called
Answer (4)
(1) Flexibility (2) Plasticity
Sol. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two
(3) Maturity (4) Elasticity
equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is
referred as Metacentric. Answer (2)
When the centromere is present slightly away from Sol. Plants show plasticity which means the ability of
the middle, it is called sub-metacentric plant to follow different pathways and produce
chromosome. different structures in response to environment.
34
131. In the equation GPP – R = NPP 133. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
R represents :
(1) Retardation factor

(1) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication;
(2) Environmental factor
(c)-Transcription;(d)-Transduction
(3) Respiration losses (2) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation;
(4) Radiant energy (d)-Protein
Answer (3) (3) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication;

(d)-Protein
Sol. In the equation,
(4) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription;
GPP – R = NPP (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
R refers to respiratory loss Answer (2)
GPP is gross primary productivity Sol. • Formation of DNA from DNA is replication.
NPP is net primary productivity • Formation of mRNA from DNA is called

Transcription.
• Formation of protein from mRNA is called
Translation.
• So, (a) is Replication
(b) is Transcription
(c) is Translation
(d) is Protein
• Transduction is transfer of genetic material from
one bacterium to another with the help of virus
Select the correct answer from the options given or a bacteriophage.
below. 134. Which of the following is not an application of PCR
(a) (b) (c) (d) (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
(1) Gene amplification
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) Purification of isolated protein
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) Detection of gene mutation
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) Molecular diagnosis
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) Answer (2)
Answer (4) Sol. PCR is Polymerase Chain Reaction.
Sol. (a) Meristematic tissues are those tissues which It is used for making multiple copies of the gene.
have cells with active cell division capacity. Hence PCR is used for
(b) Simple tissues are those tissues which have all • Gene amplification.
the cells similar in structure and function.
• PCR-based assays have been developed that
(c) Vascular tissues are complex permanent tissues detect the presence of gene sequences of the
hence they have different types of cells. infectious agents.
(d) Sclereids are sclerenchymatous cells which are • It is also used in detecting mutations.
dead with highly thickened walls and narrow • Protein is not the target of PCR. Hence, plays
lumen. no role in its purification.
35
135. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from Sol. • Cyclic photophosphorylation involves only PS I.
anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant Both PS I and PS II are involved in non-cyclic
which, during pollination, brings genetically different photophosphorylation where both ATP and
types of pollen grains to stigma, is : NADPH + H+ are synthesized.
(1) Geitonogamy
• Both PS I and PS II are found on grana
(2) Chasmogamy lamellae whereas stroma lamellae have PS I
(3) Cleistogamy only and lack NADP reductase.
(4) Xenogamy 138. In some members of which of the following pairs of
Answer (4) families, pollen grains retain their viability for months
after release?
Sol.  Xenogamy refers to the transfer to pollen grains
from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different (1) Poaceae ; Leguminosae
plant which during pollination, brings genetically
different types of pollen grains to stigma. (2) Poaceae ; Solanaceae
 Cleistogamy is a condition is which flower does (3) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae

not open.
(4) Poaceae ; Rosaceae
 Geitonogamy refers to the transfer of pollen grain
from anther to stigma of another flower of the Answer (3)
same plant.
Sol. • In members of some plant families like
 Chasmogamy is a condition in which flowers Solanaceae, Rosaceae and Leguminosae the
remain open. pollen grains retain their viability for several
months.
SECTION - B
• In cereals (Poaceae) pollen grains retain viability
136. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the for around 30 minutes.
process of transcription in eukaryotes? 139. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
List-I List-II
(2) Transcribes precursor of mRNA
(a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds
(3) Transcribes only snRNAs
(b) Unsaturated (ii) Phosphodiester
(4) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S) fatty acid bonds
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
Answer (1)
(d) Polsyaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
Sol. • RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA, ScRNA,
5S rRNA and SnRNA. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
• RNA polymerase I transcribes 5.8S, 18S and
28S rRNA. (a) (b) (c) (d)
• RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNA which is (1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
precursor of mRNA
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
137. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP
reductase (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II Answer (4)
(3) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I
Sol. • In a polypeptide or a protein, amino acids are
and PS II
linked by a peptide bond which is formed when
(4) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized the carboxyl (–COOH) group of one amino acid
during non-cyclic photophosphorylation reacts with amino (–NH2) group of the next amino
Answer (3) acid with the elimination of a water moiety.
36
• Unsaturated fatty acids are with one or more 141. Which of the following statements is correct ?
C = C double bonds. (1) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on
• In nucleic acids, a phosphate moiety links the non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy
3-carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide to the (2) Organisms that depend on living plants are
5-carbon of the sugar of the succeeding called saprophytes
nucleotide. The bond between the phosphate (3) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric
and hydroxyl group is an ester bond. As there is nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells
one such ester bond on either side, it is called
(4) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy
phosphodiester bond.
Answer (1)
• In a polysaccharide, the individual
Sol. • In some blue-green algae specialised cells
monosaccharides are linked by a glycosidic bond.
called heterocyst fixes atmospheric nitrogen into
140. Match Column-I with Column-II. ammonia.
• Fusion of two nuclei is called Karyogamy.
Column-I Column-II • Organisms that depend on living plants are
(a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification parasites, saprophytes grow on dead material.
(b) Rhizobium (ii) Conversion of ammonia • Fusion of protoplasts of two cells is called
to nitrite plasmogamy.
(c) Thiobacillus (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate 142. Match Column-I with Column-II
(d) Nitrobacter (iv) Conversion of atmospheric Column-I Column-II
nitrogen to ammonia
(a) % K(5) C1 + 2 + (2) A (9) + 1 G1 (i) Brassicaceae
Choose the correct answer from options given
(b) K (5) C(5)A5 G(2) (ii) Liliaceae
below.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G(3) (iii) Fabaceae
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (d) K2 + 2 C4 A2 – 4 G (2) (iv) Solanaceae

(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) Select the correct answer from the options given
below.
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer (4) (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Sol. • Nitrogen fixation is conversion of atmospheric
N2 to NH3 (ammonia). It is carried out by N2 (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
fixers such as Rhizobium. Answer (4)
Sol. The floral formula of
• NH3 is converted to NO-2 (nitrite) by nitrifying
Brassicaceae family – K2 + 2 C4 A2+ 4 G (2)
bacteria such as Nitrococcus.
Solanacae family – K(5) C(5) A5 G (2)

• Then NO-2 is converted to NO3 (nitrate) by
nitrfying bacteria called Nitrobacter. Fabaceae family –% K(5) C 1 + 2 + (2) A (9) +1 G1
• Thiobacillus carries out denitrification, a process Liliaceae family – P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G (3)
where NO2 / NO3 is converted to N2.

So a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) is correct matching.
37
143. Select the correct pair. 145. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive (1) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule
bundles are surrounded tissue of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules,
by large thick-walled cells and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules
(2) Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular (2) ATP is synthesized through complex V
that form part of cambium (3) Oxidation-reducation reactions produce proton
cambial ring gradient in respiration
(3) Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy (4) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is
rupturing the epidermis parenchyma limited to the terminal stage
and forming a lens shaped
Answer (1)
opening in bark
Sol.  During respiration, process of ATP synthesis is
(4) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells
explained by chemiosmotic model. It says that
cells in the epidermis
a proton gradient is required for ATP synthesis
of grass leaves
that is established by oxidation-reduction
Answer (2) reactions.
Sol. • When the cells of medullary rays differentiated,  In ETC, one NADH + H+ produces 3 ATP while
they give rise to the new cambium called one FADH2 produces 2 ATP molecules.
interfascicular cambium.  ATP is synthesised via complex V.
• Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis  In ETS, oxygen acts as terminal electron
and forming a lens-shaped opening in bark are acceptor.
called complementary cells.
146. Plasmid pBR322 has Pstl restriction enzyme site
• Large colourless empty cells in the epidermis of within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance.
grass leaves are called bulliform cells. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for
• In dicot leave, vascular bundles are surrounded -galactoside production and the recombinant
by large thick walled cells called bundle sheath plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain
cells. (1) The transformed cells will have the ability to
144. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in resist ampicillin as well as produce
some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as -galactoside
(1) Repetitive DNA (2) Single nucleotides (2) It will lead to lysis of host cell
(3) Polymorphic DNA (4) Satellite DNA (3) It will be able to produce a novel protein with
dual ability
Answer (1)
(4) It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance
Sol. • DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences
in some specific regions in DNA sequence to the host cell
called as repetitive DNA.
Answer (4)
• The basis of DNA fingerprinting is VNTR (a
Sol. pBR322 is a commonly used cloning vector. When
satellite DNA as probe that show very high
the gene for -galactoside is inserted in the
degree of polymorphism)
ampicillin resistance gene by using Pst I, the
• Polymorphism is the variation at genetic level. recombinant E.coli will lose ampicillin resistance due
Allelic sequence variation has traditionally been to insertional inactivation of the antibiotic resistance
described as a DNA polymorphism. gene.
38
The host (recombinant) cell will produce Sol. • In S phase DNA replication takes place.
-galactoside which is not a novel protein nor does • In G2 phase there is synthesis of proteins, RNA
it have dual ability. etc.
The transformed cells cannot resist ampicillin as they • Quiescent stage is inactive stage of cell cycle
have lost ampicillin resistance. but cells remain metabolically active in this
A recombinant E. coli is produced and the host cell stage.
will not undergo lysis due to insertion of • G1 phase is the interval between mitosis and
-galactoside gene. initiation of DNA replication.
147. Identify the correct statement. 149. In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert, e
represents
(1) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to
terminate the process of transcription in bacteria (1) The base of exponential logarithms
(2) The coding strand in a transcription unit is (2) The base of natural logarithms
copied to an mRNA (3) The base of geometric logarithms
(3) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of (4) The base of number logarithms
prokaryotes Answer (2)
(4) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is Sol. In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert,
added to the 3' end of hnRNA e represents the base of natural logarithms
Answer (1) Nt = Population density after time t
Sol. • Split gene arrangement is characterstic of N0 = Population density at time zero
eukaryotes. r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase called biotic
• In capping 5-methyl guanosine triphosphate is potential.
added at 5 end of hnRNA. 150. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene
causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to
• At 3 end poly-A tail is added.
hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells,
• The non coding or template strand is copied to followed by its detection using autoradiography
an mRNA. RNA polymerase accociate with  because :
factor (Rho factor) and it alters the specificity of
(1) mutated gene completely and clearly appears on
the RNA polymerase to terminate the processes.
a photographic film
148. Match List-I with List-II. (2) mutated gene does not appear on a
List-I List-II
photographic film as the probe has no
complementarity with it
(a) S phase (i) Proteins are
synthesized (3) mutated gene does not appear on photographic
(b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
film as the probe has complementarity with it
(c) Quiescent (iii) Interval between mitosis
stage and initiation of (4) mutated gene partially appears on a
DNA replication photographic film
(d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication
Answer (2)
Choose the correct answer from the options given Sol. Autoradiography allows the detection/localisation of
below. radioactive isotope within a biological sample.
(a) (b) (c) (d) Probe is a radiolabelled ss DNA or ss RNA
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) depending on the technique. To identify the mutated
gene probe is allowed to hybridise to its
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) detection using autoradiography. The mutated gene
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) will not appear on the photographic film, because the
probe does not have complementarity with the
Answer (2) mutated gene.
39
ZOOLOGY
 Vasectomy is a surgical method of contraception

SECTION - A
in males in which a small part of the vas
deferens is removed or tied up through a small
151. Which one of the following belongs to the family
incision on the scrotum.
Muscidae?
 Tubectomy is a surgical method of contraception
(1) Grasshopper (2) Cockroach
in females where a small part of the fallopian
(3) House fly (4) Fire fly tube is removed or tied up through a small
incision in the abdomen or through vagina.
Answer (3)
153. The organelles that are included in the
Sol.  Option (3) is correct because housefly belongs endomembrane system are
to the family Muscidae, class Insecta and
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex,
phylum Arthropoda.
Lysosomes and Vacuoles
 Fire flies are placed in family Lampyridae of
(2) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and
class insecta.
Lysosomes
 Grasshopper is also an insect placed in family
(3) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum,
Acrididae.
Mitochondria and Lysosomes
 Cockroach is also an insect placed in family
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria,
Blattidae.
Ribosomes and Lysosomes
Answer (1)
List-I List-II
Sol.  Endomembrane system consist of endoplasmic
(a) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm through reticulum, Golgi complex, vacuoles and
Cervix is blocked lysosomes.
(b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas  Mitochondria is semi-autonomous cell organelle.

deferens  Ribosome is non-membranous cell organelle.
(c) Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of 154. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C.
sperms within the Uterus formation is produced by:
(d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube (1) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
Choose the correct answer from the option given (2) The cells of bone marrow
below (3) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) Alpha cells of pancreas
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) Answer (3)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) Sol.  Option (3) is correct because Juxtaglomerular
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) cells of kidney secrete erythropoietin hormone
which stimulates RBC formation.
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
 Alpha cells of pancreas produce hormone
Answer (1)
glucagon.
Sol.  Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are barrier
 The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
methods of contraception for female which works
synthesizes hormones of anterior lobe of
by blocking the entry of sperms through the
pituitary.
cervix.
 The cells of bone marrow are responsible for
 IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the
formation of formed elements.
uterus.
40
155. Identify the incorrect pair Answer (2)
(1) Toxin – Abrin Sol.  Insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone which
(2) Lectins – Concanavalin A contains A-chain, B-chain and an extra stretch
called the C-peptide.
(3) Drugs – Ricin
 C-peptide is not present in mature insulin called
(4) Alkaloids – Codeine humulin.
Answer (3)  Chains A and B are connected by interchain
disulphide bridges.
Sol.  Option (3) is incorrect because ricin is a toxin
obtained from Ricinus plant. Vinblastin and 158. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and
curcumin are drugs. carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion)
 Morphine and codeine are alkaloids. are:
 Abrin is also a toxin obtained by plant Abrus. (1) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45
 Concanavalin A is a lectin. (2) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
156. Veneral diseases can spread through : (3) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
(a) Using sterile needles (4) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person Answer (4)
(c) Infected mother to foetus Sol.  Option (4) is correct because pO2 in alveoli is
104 mm Hg and pCO2 in alveoli is 40 mmHg.
(d) Kissing
 In atmosphere, pO2 is 159 mm Hg and pCO2 is
(e) Inheritance
0.3 mm Hg.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
 In deoxygenated blood, pO2 is 40 mmHg and
below
pCO2 is 45 mmHg.
(1) (b), (c) and (d) only (2) (b) and (c) only
 In oxygenated blood, pO2 is 95 mmHg and pCO2
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only is 40 mmHg.
Answer (2) 159. Match List-I with List-II
Sol.  Venereal diseases or sexually transmitted List-I List-II
diseases or infections are transmitted by sharing
of infected needles, surgical instruments with (a) Aspergillus
niger (i ) Acetic Acid
infected person, transfusion of blood or from an
infected mother to foetus. (b) Acetobacter (ii) Lactic Acid
aceti
 Venereal diseases are not transmitted through (c) Clostridium (iii) Citric Acid
kissing or inheritance. butylicum
157. With regard to insulin choose correct options. (d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric A cid
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-
peptide. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
interconnected by disulphide bridges.
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
below Answer (4)
Sol. Aspergilus niger is involved in production of citric
(1) (b) and (c) only acid. Acetobacter aceti is involved in production of
(2) (a), (c) and (d) only acetic acid. Clostridium butylicum is involved in
production of butyric acid whereas Lactobacillus is
(3) (a) and (d) only involved in the production of lactic acid.
So a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) is correct matching.
(4) (b) and (d) only
41
160. Match List - I with List - II (1) Low pO 2 , high pCO 2 , more H + , higher
temperature
(2) High pO 2 , high pCO 2 , less H + , higher
temperature
(3) Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
(4) High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
Answer (4)
Sol.  The factors favourable for the formation of
Choose the correct answer from the options given oxyhaemoglobin at the alveolar level are; high
below. pO2, low pCO2, less H+ concentration and lower
temperature.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
 The conditions favourable for the dissociation of
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin at the tissue level
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) are; low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration
and high temperature.
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
163. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
Answer (2) (1) Renin (2) Epinephrine
Sol. Metamerism is commonly seen in the members of (3) Thrombokinase (4) Thrombin
phylum Annelida where the body is externally and
Answer (4)
internally divided into segments with a serial
repetition of atleast some organs. Sol. During coagulation of blood, an enzyme complex
thrombokinase helps in the conversion of
Water canal system is present in the members of prothrombin (present in plasma) into thrombin.
phylum Porifera.
Thrombin further helps in the conversion of inactive
The body of ctenophores bears 8 external rows of fibrinogens into fibrins which form network of threads.
ciliated comb plates which help in locomotion.
Renin is secreted by JG cells in response to fall in
Cnidoblasts or cnidocytes are characteristic feature glomerular blood flow, which converts
of cnidarians (coelentrata). angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin-I
161. Succus entericus is referred to as: Epinephrine or adrenaline is secreted by adrenal
(1) Intestinal juice (2) Gastric juice medulla in response to stress of any kind and
during emergency.
(3) Chyme (4) Pancreatic juice
164. W hich of the following is not an objective of
Answer (1) Biofortification in crops?
Sol.  Option (1) is correct because succus entericus (1) Improve resistance to diseases
is referred to as intestinal juice.
(2) Improve vitamin content
 Chyme is name given to acidic food present in
stomach. (3) Improve micronutrient and mineral content
 Exocrine secretion of pancreatic acini is called (4) Improve protein content

pancreatic juice. Answer (1)
 Secretion of gastric glands present in stomach
Sol. Biofortification improves vitamin content, protein
is called gastric juice. content and micronutrient and mineral content.
162. Select the favourable conditions required for the
It does not create resistance in plants against
formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
diseases.
42
165. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present Answer (3)
on :
Sol. Option (3) is correct because persons with 'AB'
(1) Vitelline membrane (2) Perivitelline space blood group contain antigens 'A' and 'B' but lack
(3) Zona pellucida (4) Corona radiata antibodies anti-A and anti-B in plasma. So, persons
Answer (3) with 'AB' blood group can accept blood from persons
with AB as well as the other groups of blood due to
Sol.  Option (3) is correct because zona pellucida has lack of antibodies in their blood. Therefore, such
receptors for sperm binding (ZP3 receptors) in
persons are called "Universal recipients".
mammals.
169. Sphincter of oddi is present at:
 Corona radiata is a layer of radially arranged
cells of membrana granulosa. (1) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and
 Perivitelline space is present in between vitelline duodenum
membrane and zona pellucida. (2) Gastro-oesophageal junction
166. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell.
(3) Junction of jejunum and duodenum
During interphase of Mitosis if the number of
chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the (4) Ileo-caecal junction
number of chromosomes after S phase?
Answer (1)
(1) 16 (2) 4
Sol.  The bile duct and the pancreatic duct open
(3) 32 (4) 8 together into the duodenum as the common
Answer (4) hepato-pancreatic duct which is guarded by a
sphincter called the sphincter of Oddi.
Sol. In S phase there is duplication of DNA. So amount
of DNA increases but not the chromosome number.  Ileo-caecal valve is present at the junction of
ileum and caecum to prevent the backflow of
So, if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is
faecal matter into the ileum in humans.
8 in fruit fly then the number of chromosomes will be
same in S phase that is 8 only.  Gastro-oesphageal sphincter regulates the
167. W hich stage of meiotic prophase shows opening of oesophagus into stomach.
terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature? 170. W hich one of the following is an example of
(1) Zygotene (2) Diakinesis Hormone releasing IUD?
(3) Pachytene (4) Leptotene (1) LNG 20 (2) Cu 7
Answer (2) (3) Multiload 375 (4) CuT
Sol.  In meiosis I, chiasmata (X shaped structure) is Answer (1)
formed in diplotene stage while it terminalise in
diakinesis stage. Sol.  LNG-20 is a hormone releasing IUD which
makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and
 Bivalents are formed in zygotene stage and
crossing over takes place in pachytene stage. the cervix hostile to sperms.
 Compaction of chromosomal material occurs in  Multiload 375, CuT and Cu7 are copper
leptotene stage. releasing IUDs which suppress sperm motility
and the fertilizing capacity of sperms.
168. Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as
"Universal recipients". This is due to : 171. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what
(1) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and
Cytosine in it?
(2) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on
RBCs (1) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
(3) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in (2) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20

plasma (3) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
(4) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of (4) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
RBCs Answer (2)
43
Sol. According to Chargaff's rule, for a double stranded 174. During the process of gene amplification using PCR,
DNA, if very high temperature is not maintained in the
 A    T , beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR
will be affected first?
  A   30%,   T   30%
(1) Extension (2) Denaturation
Since C  G
(3) Ligation (4) Annealing
 100   A  T 
Answer (2)
 100  30  30
Sol.  Option (2) is correct. High temperature about
 100  60  40%
94°C is required for the process of denaturation
and C= G = 20% each
whic is the first step of PCR.
  A   30%
 Ligation of DNA fragments is performed with the
 T   30% help of an enzyme called DNA ligase.
G  20%  Annealing is performed at 50°-60°C which is the
C  20% second step that can get affected.
172. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow  Addition of nucleotides to the primer,
and pneumatic long bones? synthesizing a new DNA strand using only the
(1) Hemidactylus (2) Macropus template sequences with the help of enzyme
DNA polymerase is called primer extension/
(3) Ornithorhynchus (4) Neophron
polymerisation.
Answer (4)
175. Match the following:
Sol.  Hollow and pneumatic long bones are present in
animals that belong to class Aves e.g., List-I List-II
Neophron (vulture).
(a) Physalia (i ) Pearl oyster
 Ornithorhynchus (Platypus) and Macropus
Limulus Portuguese Man of
(Kangaroo) belong to class Mammalia. (b) (ii)
War
 Hemidactylus (Wall lizard) is a member of class
(c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil
Reptilia.
173. Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to (d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm
catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the
process of transcription in prokaryotes? Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) DNA Ligase
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) DNase
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Answer (1)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Sol. In prokaryotes, the DNA dependent RNA Answer (2)
polymerase is a holoenzyme that is made of
polypeptides (2') . It is responsible for Sol.  Option (2) is correct because Physalia is
initiation, elongation and termination during commonly known as Portuguese man of war.
transcription.
 Limulus is considered as a living fossil and
DNase degrades DNA. commonly known as king crab.
DNA dependent DNA polymerase is involved in  Ancylostoma is a roundworm and commonly

replication of DNA. known as hookworm.
DNA ligase joins the discontinuously sysnthesised  Pinctada is commonly known known as pearl
fragments of DNA. oyster, included in phylum Mollusca.
44
176. A specific recognition sequence identified by 178. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect
endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions with respect to cockroach?
within the DNA is: (1) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by
the mouth parts
(1) Okazaki sequences
(2) In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital
(2) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences pouch
(3) Poly(A) tail sequences (3) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a
pair of anal cerci
(4) Degenerate primer sequence
(4) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction
Answer (2) of midgut and hind gut
Answer (4)
Sol.  Each restriction endonuclease recognizes a
Sol.  Option (4) is incorrect because a ring of gastric
specific palondromic nucleotide sequence in the
caecae is present at the junction of foregut and
DNA. Once it finds its specific recognition
midgut. At the junction of midgut and hindgut,
sequence it bind to DNA and cuts each of the
malpighian tubules are present.
two strands of DNA.
 Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by
 During post transcriptional modification in mouthparts.
eukaryotes, poly(A) tail (200–300 adenylate  In female cockroach, the 7th sternum is boat
residues) are added at 3' end of hnRNA. shaped and together with the 8th and 9th sterna
forms a genital pouch.
 During DNA replication Okazaki fragments are
synthesized discontinuously and joined by DNA  10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a
pair of anal cerci and 9th sternum only in male
ligase.
cockroach, bears a pair of chitinous anal style.
 A PCR primer sequence is termed degenerate if 179. W hich of the following statements wrongly
some of its position have several possible represents the nature of smooth muscle?
bases. (1) They are involuntary muscles
177. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro (2) Communication among the cells is performed by
muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and intercalated discs
paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as: (3) These muscles are present in the wall of blood
(1) Muscular dystrophy (2) Myasthenia gravis vessels
(3) Gout (4) Arthritis (4) These muscle have no striations

Sol.  Option (2) is incorrect because intercalated discs
Sol.  Option (2) is correct because myasthenia gravis
are found only in cardiac muscle tissue.
is a chronic auto immune disorder affecting
neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue,  Smooth muscle fibres are non-striated and
involuntary in nature and are present in the wall
weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle.
of blood vessels, uterus, gall bladder, alimentary
 Gout is caused due to deposition of uric acid canal etc.
crystals in joints leading to its inflammation.
180. Which of the following RNAs is not required for the
 Inflammation of joints is commonly known as synthesis of protein?
arthritis. (1) tRNA (2) rRNA
 Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder which (3) siRNA (4) mRNA
results in progressive degeneration of skeletal
Answer (3)
muscle.
45
Sol. siRNA are small interfering RNA also called silencing  Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
RNA. It is a class of double-stranded RNA, locomotion.
non-coding RNA molecules.  Water vascular system is seen in echinoderms,
mRNA is messenger RNA that carries genetic which helps in locomotion, capture and transport
information provided by DNA. of food and respiration.
tRNA carries amino acids to the mRNA during 183. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis
translation. and understanding its pathophysiology is very
important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic
rRNA is structural RNA that forms ribosomes which techniques is very useful for early detection?
are involved in translation.
(1) Southern Blotting Technique
181. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:
(2) ELISA Technique
(1) Stratosphere (2) Ozone
(3) Hybridization Technique
(3) Troposphere (4) CFCs
(4) Western Blotting Technique
Answer (2)
Answer (1/2*)
Sol. The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from
the ground to the top of atmosphere is measured in Sol.  ELISA can be used for early detection of an
term of Dobson unit (1 DU = 1ppb). infection either by detecting the presence of
pathogenic antigen or by detecting the antibodies
The lowermost layer of atmosphere is called synthesized against the pathogen.
troposphere.
 Option (1) Southern blotting is used to detect a
CFCs are ozone depleting substances. Ozone found specific DNA sequence in the given sample and
in upper part of atmosphere (the stratosphere) is can be detected prior to antibody formation. One
called good ozone. can detect presence of pathogenic DNA/RNA.
182. Read the following statements  In hybridization technique a ssDNA/ssRNA tagged
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths. with a radioactive molecule (probe) is allowed to
hybridize its complementary DNA in a clone of
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate cells followed by detection using autoradiography.
animals. It is used to find a mutated gene.
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body
 Western blotting technique is used to detect a
organization.
specific protein molecule among a mixture of
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in proteins.
digestion.
184. In a cross between a male and female, both
(e) W ater vascular system is characteristic of
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
Echinoderms.
percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
(1) 75% (2) 25%
below.
(3) 100% (4) 50%
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
Answer (2)
(2) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
(3) (b), (c) and (e) are correct Sol. According to given question;
(4) (c), (d) and (e) are correct A

Hb Hb
S
× Hb Hb
A S
Parents
Answer (3)
Sol.  Metagenesis (alternation of generation) is Progenies
Hb Hb , Hb Hb , HbA HbS, HbA HbA
S S A S
observed in members of phylum Coelenterata

(Cnidaria). Total number of affected progenies = 1
 Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate  Percentage of diseased/affected progenies
animals as true coelom is observed in them.
 Roundworms (Aschelminths) have organ system 1
  100 = 25%
level of organization. 4
46
185. The centriole undergoes duplication during: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
false
(3) G2 phase (4) S-phase
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Answer (4) true
Sol. During S phase of cell cycle replication of DNA takes (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
place. In animal cells during S phase, centriole Answer (3)
duplicates in the cytoplasm. Sol.  AUG has dual functions, it codes for
In G2 phase there is duplication of mitochondria, methionine. It also acts as initiator codon.
chloroplast and Golgi bodies. Tubulin portein is also  AUG does not code for phenylalanine.
synthesized during this phase.  Statement II is true.
During prophase, condensation of chromatin starts. 188. W hich one of the following statements about
Histones is wrong?
During metaphase, chromosomes get aligned at
equator to form metaphasic plate. (1) The pH of histones is slightly acidic
(2) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and
SECTION - B Arginine
(3) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain
186. Which of these is not an important component of
(4) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8
initiation of parturition in humans ?
molecules
(1) Synthesis of prostaglandins Answer (1)
(2) Release of Oxytocin Sol.  Histones are rich in basic amino acids residue
lysine and arginine with charged side chain.
(3) Release of Prolactin
 There are five types of histone proteins i.e., H1,
(4) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
H2A, H2B, H 3 and H4. Four of them occur in
Answer (3) pairs to produce a unit of 8 molecules (histone
octamer)
Sol.  At the end of gestation, the completely
developed foetus is expelled out. This process is  The pH of histones is basic.
called parturition. 189. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop
 Parturition is controlled by a complex the leakage of the substances across a tissue and
facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells
neuroendocrine mechanism.
via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
 Estrogen and progesterone ratio increases as
(1) Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
estrogen levels rise significantly.
(2) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions,
 Prostaglandins, which stimulate uterine
respectively.
contractions are also produced that act on
myometrium. (3) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions,
respectively
 Oxytocin, the main hormone, also called as birth
(4) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
hormone is released by maternal pituitary, which
respectively
brings about strong uterine contractions.
Answer (1)
 Prolactin is a lactation hormone that has no role
in initiation of parturition. Sol. Three types of junctions are found in tissues
187. Statement I: The codon 'AUG' codes for  Tight junctions stop leakage of substances from
methionine and phenylalanine. leaking across a tissue.
 Adhering junctions cement and keep
Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code
neighbouring cells together.
for the amino acid lysine.
 Gap junctions or communication junctions
In the light of the above statements, choose the facilitate communication between cells by
correct answer from the options given below. connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells.
47
190. Following are the statements with reference to 192. Match List - I with List - II
'lipids'.
List - I List - II
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called
unsaturated fatty acids (a) Adaptive (i) Selection of
radiation resistant varieties
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
due to excessive
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol. use of herbicides
and pesticides
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including
(b) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs
carboxyl carbon.
evolution in Man and Whale
(e) Arachidoonic acid has 16 carbon atoms. (c) Divergent (iii) Wings of Butterfly
Choose the correct answer from the options given evolution and Bird
below. (d) Evolution by (iv) Darwin Finches
anthropogenic
(1) (c) and (d) only (2) (b) and (c) only action
(3) (b) and (e) only (4) (a) and (b) only
Answer (2) below.
Sol.  The correct option is (2) because lipids having
(a) (b) (c) (d)
only single bonds are called saturated fatty acids
and lipids having one or more C = C double (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids.
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
 Palmitic acid has 16 carbon atoms including
carboxyl carbon. (3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
 Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
the carboxyl carbon.
 Lecithin is a phospholipid found in cell Answer (4)
membrane.
Sol. The correct option is (4)
 Glycerol has 3 carbons, each bearing a hydroxyl
 Adaptive radiation is the process of evolution of
(–OH) group.
different species in a given geographical area
191. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into
starting from a point and literally radiating to
(1) Parkinson's disease other areas of geography, for example : Darwin's
finches.
(2) Digestive disorder
 Analogous organs which are not anatomically
(3) Addison's disease
similar structures though they perform similar
(4) Dysfunction of Immune system functions, are a result of convergent evolution,
Answer (4) for example: Wings of butterfly and of birds.
Sol. Adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme is crucial for  Homologous organs which are anatomically
the immune system to function. Hence, its similar structures but perform different functions
deficiency results in the dysfunction of immune according to their needs, are a result of divergent
system. evolution, for example : Bones of forelimbs in
 Hyposecretion of hormones of the adrenal cortex man and whale.
causes Addison's disease.  Evolution by anthropogenic action means
 Parkinson's disease is a long-term degenerative evolution due to human interference, for example:
disorder of the central nervous system. Antibiotic resistant microbes, herbicides
resistant varieties and pesticide resistant
 Disorders which affect GIT & associated glands
are called digestive disorders. varieties.
48
193. Match List-I with List-II  The first body segment of earthworm is the
peristomium
List -I List -II
195. Match List-I with List - II
Haemophilus
(a) Filariasis ( i) List - I List - II
influenzae
(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton (a) Allen’s Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
Wuchereria (b) Physiological (ii) Desert lizard

(c) Pneumonia (iii) adaptation
bancrofti
Entamoeba (c) Behavioural (iii) Marine fish
(d) Ringworm (iv)
histolytica adaptation at depth
below (d) Biochemical (iv) Polar seal
(a) (b) (c) (d) adaptation
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) below.
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Answer (1)
Sol. The correct option is (1). (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
 Filariasis is the disease caused by Wuchereria (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
bancrofti, filarial worm. (4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
 Amoebiasis/Amoebic dysentery is caused by a
protozoan parasite Entamoeba histolytica in the Answer (2)
large intestine of human. Sol.  Polar seal generally has shorter ears and limbs
 Pneumonia is caused by bacteria like (extremities) to minimise heat loss. This is with
Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus reference to Allen's rule.
influenzae.  Kangaroo rat exhibits physiological adaptation.
 Ringworm is caused by fungi belonging to genera
 Desert lizard shows behavioural adaptation.
Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton.
They lack the physiological ability to cope-up
194. Following are the statements about prostomium of with extreme temperature but manage the body
earthworm. temperature by behavioural means.
(a) It serves as a covering for mouth.  Marine fishes at depth are adapted biochemically
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it to survive in great depths in ocean.
can crawl. 196. During muscular contraction which of the following
(c) It is one of the sensory structures. events occur?
(d) It is the first body segment. (a) 'H' zone disappears
Choose the correct answer from the options given (b) 'A' band widens
below.
(c) 'I' band reduces in width
(1) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct Pi.
(3) (b) and (c) are correct (e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards.
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct Choose the correct answer from the options given
Answer (4) below:
Sol.  The anterior end of the earthworm has mouth (1) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
which has covering called prostomium. (2) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
 Prostomium acts as a wedge to force open
(3) (b), (d), (e), (a) only
cracks in the soil.
 Prostomium has receptors, so it is sensory in (4) (a), (c), (d), (e) only
function. Answer (4)
49
Sol. The correct option is (4) because the length of

 Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline of
A-band is retained. During muscle contraction, the
thorax.
following events occur:
 Cartilaginous joints between the adjacent
(1) The globular head of myosin acts as ATPase
vertebrae in the vertebral column permits limited
and hydrolyses ATP molecule and eventually movements.
leads to the formation of cross bridge.
198. Assertion (A): A person goes to high altitude and
(2) This pulls the actin filament towards the centre
experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like
of 'A-band'.
breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.
(3) The Z-line attached to these actins are also
pulled inwards thereby causing a shortening of Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at
the sarcomere. high altitude, the body does not get sufficient
oxygen.
(4) The thin myofilaments move past the thick
myofilaments due to which the H-zone narrows. In the light of the above statements, choose the
This reduces the length of I-band but retains the correct answer from the options given below
length of A-band.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(5) The myosin then releases ADP+Pi, and goes correct explanation of (A)
back to its relaxed state.
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
197. Match List-I with List-II
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
List -I List -II (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Cartilaginous explanation of (A)
(a) Scapula (i)
joints Answer (4)
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone Sol. Altitude sickness can be experienced at high altitude
where body does not get enough oxygen due to low
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints atmospheric pressure and causes nausea, fatigue
Triangular flat and heart palpitations.
Vertebral
(d) (iv)
column bone Hence correct option is (2) as [R] is correct
explanation of [A].
below 199. Which of the following secretes the hormone,
(a) (b) (c) (d) relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (1) Corpus luteum (2) Foetus
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (3) Uterus (4) Graafian follicle
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer (1)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Sol. The hormone relaxin is produced in the later phase
Answer (3)
of pregnancy. It is produced by the ovary.
Sol. The correct option is (3).
 Graafian follicle is not formed when the woman
 Scapula is a large triangular flat bone situated in
is pregnant.
the dorsal part of the thorax between the second
and the seventh ribs.  Uterus and foetus do not produce relaxin.
 Fibrous joint is shown by the flat skull bones  Relaxin is produced by the corpus luteum
which fuse end-to-end with the help of dense present in the ovary. Ruptured Graafian follicle is
fibrous connective tissues in the form of sutures,
called corpus luteum, which has endocrine
to form the cranium.
function.
50
200. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Answer (4)
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)? Sol. Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology is
used for herd improvement in short time.
(1) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
 Cows are administered hormones, with FSH-like
(2) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination activity for superovulation.
(3) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate  8-32 celled embryos are transferred to surrogate
mothers at 8-32 cell stage mothers.
 6-8 eggs are produced per cycle.
(4) Cow is administered hormone having LH like
activity for super ovulation  Cows can be fertilised by artificial insemination.

51

Ans&Sol - Neet 2021 (Code n3)

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Ans&Sol - Neet 2021 (Code n3)

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

DATE : 12/09/2021 Test Booklet Code

SECTION - A 3. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best

E (1) A large aperture contributes to the quality and

V0 V0 (4) Current in n-type = current in p-type

5. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with

Sn = distance travelled by object during nth second. 1 Q1 1 Q2

By equation of uniformly accelerated motion 1 Q1 R1 1 Q2 R2

9. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and

(2) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect. 13t

5 13 BE per nucleon of product = 8.5 MeV

Sol. Direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves

(2)  j  k     j  k   0 When body is at height y above ground. Potential

16. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of 150

capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are A  1 100

Answer (3) Sol.

VC = 10 volt Parallel beam of light after refraction from convex lens

Sol. Potential energy of electric dipole in external electric Fv = Mg – FB

Mg = FB + Fv [a = 0] Hence correct order of decay are +, , –

5 26. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field

Plate Area = A  2mc  2

Now De-broglie wavelength, Answer (3)

Sol. All the wires are identical and of same material so

(3) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)

(4) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q)

34. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The

time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg

Column-II gives some mathematical relations  k(5 × 10–2) = 10

[ML2T–2] = [MaLa + b T–2a – 2b + c] r2 r1

 a = 1; a + b = 2 and –2 = – 2a – 2b + c Answer (1)

SECTION - B In parallel combination of resistances r2 and r3,

 (1)   cos  2  (2)   sin  2 

Sol. To complete a circular path of radius R, time period

Now the particle is projected with same speed at 2 kg m

U 2 sin2  Answer (3)

(1) 0.4 A (2) 2 A

 VPIP = VSIS = Given power  

(3) 4 Ia2 and 3 Ia2 As ball is under free fall.

V The maximum height above the surface reached by

(3) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s2 2GM

(1) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s

47. In the product 48. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from

 Thus the final image is virtual and at a distance,

Sol. Two concentric coils are of radius R1 and R2 as A

Let current in outer loop be i 5V

Magnetic flux through inner coil  B  R22 Answer (3)

In vapour phase Beryllium chloride tends to form a Answer (4)

(200 K, 400 K, 600 K)

Volume (V) Answer (4)

74. The incorrect statement among the following is :

(3) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially

600 K (4) Actinoid contraction is greater for element to

Many trivalent lanthanoids ions are coloured both

(4) 200 K in the solid state and in aqueous solutions.

(3) CV = RCP (4) CP + CV = R (1) Unidentate ligand

CH 3 84. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa

O O O (3) 540.48 S cm2 mol–1

2C 6H 5 + CO 2 Sol. According to Kohlrausch law of independent

Net vector summation of bond moments will be zero

(a) [Fe(CN)6]3– (i) 5.92 BM NaOH, +?

(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM (1) Red Phosphorus

1 (d) NO2 (g) ⎯⎯

Ea (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)