Final Common Neet Grand Test-02 Question Paper Ex - dt.19.04.2024

Common NEET Gt-2 (Dt : 19-04-2024)
COMMON NEET GRAND TEST-02 (DT:19-04-2024)
Important Instructions
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on side-1 and side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen
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2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min duration and Text Booklet contains 200 questions. The test pattern
comprises of two sections. Each subject will consist of two sections. Section-A will consist of 35 questions
and Section-B will have 15 questions, out of these 15 questions, candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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Course: OG SR NEET, LT AND CRASH Ex. Date: 19.04.2024

Time: 3 Hrs 20 Min COMMON NEET GRAND TEST-2 Max. Marks: 720
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. A body is moving up an inclined plane of angle  with an initial kinetic energy E. The coefficient of
friction between the plane and body is  . The work done against friction before the body comes to rest
is
 cos   E cos   E cos 

1) 2) 2Ecos  3) 4)
E cos   sin   cos   sin   cos   sin 
2. With the increase in temperature, the angle of contact
1) Decreases 2) increases
3) remains constant 4) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases
3. A steel disc is 3000 cm in diameter at 25o C. A brass ring has an interior diameter of 2992 cm at 25o C .
At what common temperature the ring will just slide on the disc?
16 1 6 1
B 18 10 K , S 12 10 K
1) 473 o C 2) 512 o C 3) 448 o C 4) 615 o C

4. What is volume strain of fresh water at a depth of 1000 m? (g = 10m/s 2)
Bulk mod ulusof water 2 109 N m 2
1) 0.005 2) 0.05 3) 0.01 4) 0.001

5. A 10 cm long copper rod is welded to 20cm long steel rod each having cross section A and their
thermal conductivities are 390 J m 1 s 1 K 1 and 50 J m 1 s 1 K 1 respectively. The temperature of the
junction will be.
1) 72 o C 2) 68 o C 3) 50 o C 4) 94 o C
6. In Rutherford experiments of   ray scattering the number of particles scattered at 90 0 be 28 per
minute. Then the number of particles scattered per minute by the same foil but at 60 0 be
1) 56 2) 112 3) 60 4) 120
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^ ^
7. An electric field is expressed as E 2i 3 j . The potential difference VB VA between two points A
(1,2,0) and B (2,1,3) is
1) -1 V 2) 1 V 3) 2 V 4) 4 V
d
8. In Young’s expt., the distance between two slits is and the distance between the screen and the slits is
3
1
3D. the number of fringes in m on the screen, formed by monochromatic light of wavelength 3 ,
3
will be
d d d d
1) 2) 3) 4)
9D 27D 81D D
9. Choose the correct relation between electric current and drift speed of electrons moving in a conductor
of length ' ' and area of cross section ‘A’.
(Note: n is the number density of free electrons )
neA nAVd IA I
1) I 2) I 3) Vd 4) Vd
Vd e ne neA
10. The variation of magnetic flux density B at a distance r from the axis of a long straight cylindrical wire
carrying a steady current can be represented as (R is the radius of wire)
1) 2)
3) 4)
11. In Young’s double-slit experiment. If there is no initial phase difference between the light from the two
slits, a point on the screen corresponding to the sixth minimum has a path difference of
5 7 9 11
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
12. The position X of a particle with respect to time t along x-axis is given by x 3t 2 t 3 , where x is in
metre and t in second. The maximum speed of the particle along the positive x-direction will be
1) 6m/s 2) 3 m/s 3) 2 m/s 4) 9 m/s
R
13. Work done by gravity on a mass m when it is raised to a height h from the surface of earth is (R is
2
radius of the earth)
mgR mgR 2mgR
1) mgR 2) 3) 4)
2 3 3
14. Electric field strength due to a point charge 7 mC at a distance 30 cm from the charge is
1) 5 108 N / C 2) 7 108 N / C 3) 8 108 N / C 4) 4 108 N / C
15. The electric field in region is given by E i j , where and are constants. The net electric flux
passing through a square area of side d parallel to XZ plane is
1) d 2 2) 2 d 2 3) 2 d 2 4) d 2
d
o E
16. Dimension of ( is electric flux) is same as that of
dt
1) Potential 2) Charge 3) Current 4) Magnetic field
17. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1km above the earth is the same as at a depth d below the
surface of earth. Then:
3 1
1) d  1km 2) d km 3) d  2km 4) d km
2 2
^ ^ ^ ^
18. A force F 2i 3 j N displaces a body from initial position r1 2i 4 j m to final position
^ ^
3i 7 j m. The work done by the force is
1) 4 J 2) 11 J 3) 3 J 4) 1 J
19. In C.G.S system the magnitude of a force is 100 dynes. In another system where the fundamental
physical quantities mass, length and time are measured in kilogram, meter and minute respectively, the
numerical value of the force is
1) 60 2) 600 3) 3.6 4) 3600
20. If the variation of magnetic flux through a closed loop is given by 3t 2 t Wb, then induced emf at
t = 1 s is
1) 5 V 2) 2 V 3) 4 V 4) 1 V
B 2L2
21. A physical quantity P is given by P Where B = magnetic field, L = length and m = mass
m
The dimension of P is
1) M 1L2T 4
2) M1L1T 4 I 1
3) M 1L 2T 4 I 2 4) M1L2T 4 I 2
22. In a Vernier caliper N division of Vernier scale coincides with (N – 1) division of main scale ( in which
length of one division is 1 mm) the least count of the instrument (in cm) should be
1 1
1) N 2) 1 3) N 1 4)
N 10N
23. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, let P.E. represents potential energy and T.E. represents the total
energy. In going to a higher level.
1) P.E. decreases. T.E. increases 2) P.E. increases , T.E. decreases
3) P.E. decreases, T.E. decreases 4) P.E. increases, T.E. increases
24. A silicon sample is doped with 1 ppm concentration of Al. If the sample has 1028 atoms / m3 and
intrinsic carrier concentration ni is 1.5 1016 m 3 , the hole concentration in the semiconductor will be
1) 2.25 1010 m 3
2) 1022 m 3
3) 4.5 109 m 3
4) 1028 m 3
25. A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shon in
figure. The current through the diode is
1) 10mA 2) 15mA 3) 20mA 4) 5mA

26. The position-time graph of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is as shown in the figure.
The corresponding force-time graph of the particle is
1) 2) 3) 4)
27. Assertion: Critical angle is minimum for violet colour.
1 1
Reason: Because critical angle c sin 1 and
1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason is a correct explanation for assertion.

2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect 4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
28. For an object placed in front of a mirror, magnification(m) is given in Column I, Column II gives the
possible nature of the mirror or that of image. Match appropriately.
Column – I Column – II
1
A) m 1) Concave mirror
4
B) m 1 2) Convex mirror
C) m 2 3) Plane mirror
D) m 1 4) Real image
1) A 2;B 1;C 1;D 3 2) A 1;B 2;C 4;D 2
3) A 2;B 4;C 1;D 3 4) A 1;B 4;C 3;D 2
29. There are two waves given by equation y =3sin ωt-kx and y =7sin ωt-kx , are superimposed, then
1 2
the amplitude of resultant wave will be
1) 10 2) 4 3) 58 4) 8
30. There are two sources of sound A and B producing 5 beats in one second. A has frequency 550 Hz. If
source B is replaced by another source ‘C’ having higher frequency than B, it again produces 5 beats in
one second. Then frequencies of B and C respectively are
1) 545 Hz, 555 Hz 2) 555 Hz, 545 Hz 3) 550 Hz, 545 Hz 4) 540 Hz, 545 Hz
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
31. A force F 3i 2 j 4 k N acts at a point r1 2i 3 j 5k m . The torque of the force about the point
^
r2 i1 5 j m is
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
1) 2i 19 j 8 k 2) 2i 19 j 8 k 3) 2i 19 j 8 k 4) i j k
32. Air streams horizontally past a small plane’s wings with speed of 70 m/s over top surface and 60 m/s
past the bottom surface. Plane has mass of 1200 kg and wing area 20 m2 , what is net force on plane?
air 1.2kg / m3
1) 3840 N 2) 6420 N 3) 4830 N 4) 5200 N

33. Select the correct relation among the options given below. All symbols have their usual meaning.
dL 2
1) L p r 2) F r 3) net 4) K l
dt
34. Which of the following statements is/are false about mode of heat transfer?
I. In radiation, heat is transferred from one medium to another without affecting the intervening medium
II. Radiation and convection are possible in vacuum while conduction requires material medium.
III. Conduction is possible in solids while convection occurs in liquids and gases.
1) I only 2) II only 3) II and III 4) I, II and III
35. Select the correct statement(s) from the following.

I. Modulus of rigidity for a liquid is zero
II. Young’s modulus of a material decreases with rise in temperature
III. Poisson’s ratio is unitless
1) I only 2) II only 3) I and II 4) I, II and III
SECTION-B
36. The volume of monoatomic gas increases linearly with pressure as shown in figure. What is increases in
internal energy of the gas?
1) 4.8 105 J 2) 6.4 105 J 3) 4.0 106 J 4) 3.2 106 J
37. A carbon and an aluminum wires are connected in series. The combination has resistance 30 at o 0 C.
The resistance of each wire at o 0C such that the resistance of combination always remains same, will be
Given C and AI 8
20 70 10 80
1) 10 and 20 2) 5 and 25 3) and 4) and
3 3 3 3
38. A particle of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘q’ is placed at rest in a uniform electric field E and then released.
The K.E. attained by the particle after moving a distance ‘y’ is
1) qEy2 2) qE 2 y 3) qEy 4) q2Ey
39. A galvanometer of resistance 100 gives a full scale deflection for a current of 10 5 A. To convert it
into an ammeter capable of measuring upto 1 A, we should connect a resistance of
3
1) 1 in parallel 2) 10 in parallel 3) 105 in series 4) 100 in series
40. Electrons are accelerated through a potential difference V and proton are accelerated through a potential
difference 4 V. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength e
is given by ( given m0 is mass of electron and
p
mp is the mass of proton)
mp e me e 1 me mp
1) e
2) 3) 4) e
2 `
p me p mp p 2 mp p me
41. A particle is performing uniform circular motion as shown in figure
Where radius of the circle is 2 m and angular speed is 4 rad/s. Then linear velocity vector (in m/s) of
body at an angle 30o will be
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
1) 4 i 4 3 j 2) 4 i 4 3 j 3) 4 i 4 3 j 4) 4 i 4 3 j
42. The resultant magnetic moment vector in the diagram given below will have angle from x-axis, if both
magnet has equal magnetic moment
o o o o
1) 30 2) 45 3) 60 4) 40
43. Value of inductance L for which the current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with C = 20 F
And 100 rad / s ,is
(All symbols have their usual meaning)

1) 5 H 2) 5mH 3) 2mH 4) Cannot be calculated as R is unknown
44. The circuit shown in the figure is equivalent to
1) AND gate 2) OR gate 3) NOR gate 4) NAND gate
45. Consider the pulley-mass system as shown in the diagram given below, if pulley is smooth then velocity
of center of mass 2 seconds after the system released from rest, will be
2g g 2g g
1) m/ s 2) m/ s 3) m/ s 4) m/ s
9 9 3 3
^ ^ ^ ^
46. Given two vectors A 3i 4 j and B i 2 j . Then match the following column:
Column I Column II
(A) Magnitude of vector Aor B 1) 5
^ ^
(B) Unit vector of A 2) 0.6 i 0.8 j
^ ^
(C) The magnitude of A B 3) 2i 6 j
(D) The difference of vector, A B 4) 20

1) A 4;B 1;C 2;D 3 2) A 1;B 2;C 4;D 3
3) A 3;B 2;C 4;D 1 4) A 2;B 4;C 1;D 3
47. An object ‘O’ is placed at a distance of 100 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 200
cm as shown in the figure. The object moving towards the mirror at a speed 2cm/s. The position of the
image from the mirror after 10s will be at
1) 200cm 2) 400 cm 3) 580 cm 4) 320 cm

48. Assertion : Graph between potential energy of a spring versus the extension or compression of the
spring is a straight line.
Reason: Potential energy of a stretched or compressed spring, proportional to square of extension or
compression.
1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect

4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
49. Two identical vessels separately contain two ideal gases P and Q at the same temperature. The pressure
of P being thrice that of Q. Under such conditions, the density of P is found to be 2 times the density of
Q. The ratio of molecular weight of P and Q is
2 3 5 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 4 4 2
50. A mass of 2 kg is placed on a block of 20 kg as shown in diagram. The coefficient of friction between
the mass and block is 0.25. A horizontal force of 2 N is applied to mass. The acceleration of the system
and frictional force between the blocks are
1) 0.9ms 2 ,18N 2) 0.09 ms 2 ,1.8 N 3) 1 ms 2 ,2 N 4) 2 ms 2 ,6 N
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. A compound contains elements X, Y and Z which have oxidation numbers +2, +5 and –2 respectively
then possible formula of compound is :
1) XYZ 2 2) X Y Z 3) Y2 XZ3 4) X3 YZ4

3 4 2 2 2
52. Consider the following four electrodes-
P Cu 2 0.0001 M /Cu s
Q Cu 2 0.1 M /Cu s
R Cu 2 0.01 M /Cu s
S Cu 2 0.001 M /Cu s
2
If the standard electrodes potential of Cu / Cu is 0.34 V. The reduction potential of the above
electrodes follow the order :-
1) S > R > Q > P 2) R > S > Q > P
3) P > Q > R > S 4) Q > R > S > P
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53. High boiling azeotrope from the following is :-

1) CH3OH H 2O 2) CHCl3 CCl4
3) C6 H6 C6 H5 – CH3 4) HNO3 H 2O
54. The osmotic pressure of a solution increases :-

1) On increase in temperature 2) On decrease in solution constant
3) On decrease in number of solute particles 4) On volume increase
55. What will be the rate of disappearance of SO2 if for the reaction 2SO2 O2 2SO3 ,
d O2
2.5 10 4 mol L 1 sec 1 .
dt
1) 5 10–4 mol L–1 sec –1 2) 2.25 10–4 mol L–1 sec –1
3) 3.75 10–4 mol L–1 sec –1 4) 50 10–4 mol L–1 sec –1

56. Which of the following compounds are meso form :-
1) A only 2) C Only 3) A and B 4) B and C

57. Which of the following acid has lowest value of dissociation constant :-
1) 2)
3) 4)
58. Which of the following are electrophile :-
BF3 CCl2 NH4 CO2
A B C D
1) A and B 2) A, B and C 3) B, C and D 4) A, B and D

59. Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion and the other is labelled as Reason
Assertion: B2 molecule is diamagnetic.
Reason: The highest occupied molecular orbital in B2 molecule is of  -type.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) If Assertion and Reason both are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
2) Assertion in not correct but Reason is incorrect

3) If Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
4) Assertion and Reason both are incorrect
60. Arrange the following alkenes in their stability order:-
1) A > B > C 2) C > B > A 3) B > C > A 4) C > A > B

61. Which of the following carboxylic acid will be decarboxylated most easily.
1) 2) 3) 4)
62. Arrange the following alkenes for ease of acid catalyzed hydration.
A) Isobutene B) Ethene C) 1-Butene D) 1-Phenyl ethene
1) A > B > C > D 2) B > C > A > D
3) D > A > C > B 4) A > D > C > B
63. One mole of an unsaturated hydrocarbon on ozonolysis gives one mole each of CH3CHO , HCHO and
OHC – CHO . The hydrocarbon is :-
1) CH3 – CH2 C C – CH3 2) HC C – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
3) CH3 – CH CH – CH CH2 4) CH2 C CH – CH2 – CH3
64. Phenyl acetylene when reacted with dil. H2SO4 in presence of HgSO4 then major product will be :-
1) 2) 3) 4)
65. 1 mole of hydrocarbon 'A' gives 4 moles CO2 on combustion. It can decolourise Br2 water. 'A' gives B
when reacted with H2 and Pd / BaSO4 . 'B' can also decolurise Br2 water. 'A' can react with Tollens
reagent but B can not, A & B are.
1) 2)
3) 4)
66. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.
Statement II : In sucrose glycosidic linkage is between C1 of -D-glucose and C2 of a -D-glucose.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
67. Match the following
List A List B
h
a. 1. Balmer series
p
b. Visible region 2. Uncertainty principle

nh
c. mvr 3. de-Broglie hypothesis
2
h
d. x v 4. Bohr’s Postulate
4 m
a b c d
1) 4 1 2 3
2) 3 4 1 2
3) 3 1 4 2
4) 4 2 1 3
68. Potassium Chlorate KClO3 is a compound which on decomposition supplies Oxygen. How much
Oxygen will be produced by a sample of 3.0625 g KClO3 marked as 80% purity
1) 0.96 grm 2) 0.32 grm 3) 147 grm 4) 0.48 grm
69. For which of the equation H > U
1) N2 g 3H2 g 2NH3 g 2) H2 g Cl2 g 2HCl g
3) 2C s O2 g 2CO g 4) CH4 g 2O2 g CO2 g 2H2O

70. For the given Data
Compounds C CO
Enthalpy of -393.5 -283.5

Combustion c H 0 kJ/mol kJ/mol
Find the enthalpy of formation 0 of CO in kJ/ mole.
fH
1) –251.75 2) 676 3) –110 4) –141.75
71. Precipitation of AgCl will occur by mixing which of the following solutions in equal volume. (Ksp for
AgCl 3.24 x10 20 )
1) 10 6 M AgNO3 &10 15
M NaCl 2) 10 8 M AgNO3 &10 14
M NaCl
3) 10 3 M AgNO3 &10 14
M NaCl 4) 10 4 M AgNO3 &10 20
M NaCl
72. Find the change in pH if 10 mL 0.001M HCl solution is diluted by adding 90 mL water
1) 3 2) 4 3) 1 4) 0
73. Match the following
List–I List–II
a) HCHO HCN (I) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
b) (II) Electrophilic addition reaction
c) CH3Cl KCN (III) Nucleophilic addition reaction

CCl4
d) CH2 CH2 Br2 (IV) Electrophilic substitution reaction
a b c d
1) II IV III I
2) I II III IV
3) IV I II III
4) III IV I II
74. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion(A): CIF3 has bent T-shape structure.

Reason(R): It has two lone pair arrange at 1800 angle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given belo w:
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Assertion(A): On moving left to right along period in periodic table metallic nature decrease and non-
metallic nature increase.
Reason(R): On moving left to right ionization energy increases, electron gain enthalpy decreases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

76.
P Q
1)
2)
3)
4)
77. The reason for the stability of Gd3 ion is

1) half filled 4f subshell
2) completely filled 4f subshell
3) possess the general electronic configuration of noble gases
4) empty 4f subshell.
78. Knowing that the chemistry of lanthanoids(Ln) is dominated by its +3 oxidation state, which of the
following statements is incorrect?
1) Because of the large size of the Ln(III) ions the bonding in its compound is predominantly ionic in
character.
2) The ionic sizes of Ln(III) decrease in general with increasing atomic number.
3) Ln(III) compounds are generally colorless.
4) Ln(III) hydroxides are mainly basic in nature
79. Which of the following factors govern stability of complexes.
1) CFSE 2) Nature of ligand 3) Oxidation state of metal 4) All of these
80. The IUPAC name of ionisation isomer of complex Co NH Cl Br
3 4 2
1) diamminetetrachloridocobalt(III) bromide 2) tetramminedichloridocobalt(III) bromide

3) tetramminebromidochloridocobalt(III) chloride 4) tetraminechloridobromidocobalt(III) chloride
81. In given reaction, 'P' is
1) 2) 3) 4)
82. In carius method of estimation of halogen 0.15gm of an organic compound gave 0.12 gm of AgBr. Find
out the precentage of bromine in the compound.
1) 23.80% 2) 26.03 % 3) 29.20% 4) 34.04%
83.
This structure is
1) Alicyclic compound 2) Heterocyclic compound
3) Benzenoid aromatic compound 4) Non-Benzenoid compound
84.
1) CH3 – CH2 – CHO 2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2OH
3) 4)
85. Correct order of reactivity for nucleophilic substitution reaction of arylhalide.
I. II. III. IV.

1) I > II > III > IV 2) I < II < III < IV
3) I > III > II > IV 4) IV > II > I > III
SECTION-B
86. Match List I with List II
List-I List-II
(Reagents used) (Compound with Functional group detected)
A. Alkaline solution of copper sulphate i.

and sodium citrate
B. Neutral FeCl3 solution ii.
C. Alkaline chloroform solution iii.
D. Potassium iodide and sodium hypochlorite iv.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i 2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii 4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
87. Which of the following sulphides is yellow :
1) ZnS 2) CdS 3) NiS 4) CoS
88. An aqueous solution of an inorganic salt on treatment with HCI gives a white precipitate. This solution
contains
1) Hg2 2
2) Hg2 3) Zn2 4) Cd 2
89. Salt AgNO3 Yellow ppt . A A is almost insoluble in concentrated ammonia solution. Identify the
anion in the salt :
1) Cl– 2) S–2 3) I– 4) CH3COO–

90. Which one of the following is an inner orbital complex as well as diamagnetic in nature :
3 2 2
1) Cr NH 2) 3 3) Ni NH 4) Zn NH
3 6 Co NH3 6
3 6 3 6
91. The equilibrium constant for the reaction, A g B2 g 2AB g is 20 at 500 K. The equilibrium
2
constant for the reaction, 2AB g A2 g B2 g , would be:
1) 20 2) 0.5 3) 0.05 4) 10
92. The molarity of concentrated sulphuric acid d 1.834 g cm–3 containing 95% of H2SO4 by mass is
1) 4.44 M 2) 8.88 M 3) 13.32 M 4) 17.78 M

93. The heat of neutralisation of a strong acid and a strong alkali is 57.0 kJ/gm eq. The heat released when
0.5 mole of HNO3 solution is mixed with 0.2 mole of KOH is:-
1) 57.0 kJ 2) 11.4 kJ 3) 28.5 kJ 4) 34.9 kJ

94. Calculate log of equilibrium constant of the reaction
Cu s 2Ag aq
Cu2 aq
2Ag s
E ocell 0.46
1) 10 2) 15.6 3) 13 4) 19
95. Which one of the following on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the corresponding
Alcohol and acid :
1) C6 H5CHO 2) CH3CH2CH2CHO
3) 4) C6 H5CH2CHO
Assertion: For a reaction A  P, Rate and Rate constant are numerically equal when  A  1M
Reason(R): Rate and rate constant are equal for zero order reaction involving single reactant. In the light
of the above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct exaplanation of (A)
97. S>0 is possible for which of the following solutions.
1) Ideal solutions 2) Non Ideal with positive deviation
3) Non Ideal with negative deviation 4) All of these
98. Which of the following combination leads to formation of  bond (Molecular axis is x axis)
A) py  py B) d yz  d yz C) p x  d zx D) d xy  d yz
1) If A, B and C options are correct. 2) If A & B both are correct
3) If B & D both are correct 4) If A & C both are correct.
99. Arrange the following sets of compounds in order of their increasing boiling points. Pentan-1-ol, butan-
1-ol, butan-2-ol, propan-1-ol
1) propan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol, pentan-1-ol
2) propan-1-ol, pentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol
3) propan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, pentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol
4) pentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, propan-1-ol
100. Give the products of following reaction
1) 2)
3) 4)
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from:
1) PS-1 to ATP synthase 2) PS-II to Cytb6 f complex
3) Cytb6 f complex to PS-I 4) PS-I to NADP
102. Match the following:

a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity i) Ricin
b) Most abundant animal protein ii) Malonate
c) Cell wall material in fungi iii) Chitin
d) Secondary metabolite iv) Collagen
Choose the correct option from the following :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
103. Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
1) Nuclear division takes place. 2) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

3) Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
4) Cell is metabolically active. Grows but does not replicate its DNA.
104. Identify the basic amino acid from the following .
1) Valine 2) Tyrosine 3) Glutamic 4) Lysine
105. Assertion (A): The growth in plants is open.
Reason (R): New cells are always being added to the plant body by the activity of the meristems.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) correctly explains (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect

4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) does not correctly explain (A)
106. Which of the following statements is correct?
1) Adenine does not pair with thymine
2) Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds
3) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bonds
4) Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds
107. Statement –I: Among living organisms sharing of similarities both horizontally and vertically.
Statement –II: Darwin was pioneered the currently accepted definition of a biological species.
1) Both statements -I and II are correct
2) Only statement -I is correct
3) Only statement -II is correct
4) Both statements -I and II are incorrect
108. The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is :
1) Three 2) Zero 3) One 4) Two
109. Statement – I: Trichoderma species are symbiotic fungi that are very common in the root ecosystem
Statement – II: Trichoderma species are used to control several plant pathogens .
1) Both statements -I and II are correct
2) Only statement -I is correct
3) Only statement -II is correct
4) Both statements -I and II are incorrect
110. Assertion (A): Human haemoglobin shows the quaternary structure.
Reason (R): Human haemoglobin consists of 2α- and 2β- chains.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not the correctly explain (A).
3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
4) Both (A) and (R) are false
111. Which of the following statements is not correct?
1) Systematics takes into account of evolutionary relationships between organisms.
2) Prions cause potato spindle tuber disease.
3) Protista can reproduce both asexually and sexually.
4) Artificial systems of classification gave equal weightage to both vegetative and sexual
Characteristics.
112. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during:

1) Leptotene 2) Pachytene 3) Zygotene 4) Diplotene
113. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer:
(1) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B (2) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C

(3) I- D, II- C, III- A, IV- B (4) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A
114. Choose the correct pair from the following :
1) Exonucleases :Make cuts at specific positions within DNA
2) Ligases :Join the two DNA molecules
3) Polymerases :Break the DNA into fragments
4) Nucleases :Separate the two strands of DNA
115. Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent?
1) Cyclosporin A 2) Statin 3) Streptokinase 4) Lipases
116. Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in flowering plants is
incorrect?
1) Ovary develops into fruit 2) Zygote develops into embryo
3) Central cell develops into endosperm 4) Ovules develop into embryo sac
117. Read the statements carefully:
A) Algae are chlorophyll bearing complex, thalloid and largely land (terrestrial) plants.
B) Plant body of liverwort is more differentiated than algae.
C) The capsule of mosses produces diploid spores.
D) The microsporophylls and megasporophylls are arranged spirally and tightly to form male and
female cones in gymnosperms.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1) A, C and D 2) Only B 3) B and D 4) B, C and D
118. Select the correct statement with respect to ATP formation in chloroplast by photophosphorylation.
(A) Protons accumulated in lumen of thylakoid.
(B) Splitting of water occurs on inner side of grana membrane.
(C) Proton accumulates in stroma of chloroplast.
(D) NADP reductase is located on stroma side of grana membrane.
1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (B) and (C)
3) Only (C) and (D) 4) (A), (B) and (D)
119. Select the correct group of biocontrol agents.

1) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic virus, Aphids
2) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis
3) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
4) Nostoc, Azospirillium, Nucleopolyhedrovirus
120. Match the following organisms with the products they produce
a) Lactobacillus i) Cheese
b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae ii) Curd
c) Aspergillus niger iii) Citric Acid
d) Acetobacter aceti iv) Bread
v) Acetic Avid
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)
3) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
4) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
121. In some plants, the female gamete develops into embryo without fertilization. This phenomenon is
known as
1) Autogamy 2) Parthenocarpy 3) Syngamy 4) Parthenogenesis
122. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps?
1) A unit of distance between two expressed genes representing 10% cross over.
2) A unit of distance between two expressed genes representing 100% cross over.
3) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross over.
4) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 50% cross over.
123. Which of the following ecological pyramids is generally inverted?
1) Pyramid of numbers in grassland 2) Pyramid of energy
3) Pyramid of biomass in a forest 4) Pyramid of biomass in a sea
124. Assertion: In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria
(prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote).
Reason: Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge population which express the desired
gene
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
4) If both assertion and reason are false.
125. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a white flower and in F1 generation pink
flowers were obtained. When pink flowers were selfed, the F2 generation showed white, red and pink
flowers, choose the incorrect statement from the following:
1) This experiment does not follow the principle of Dominance.
2) Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete dominance.
1 2 1
3) Ratio of F2 is (red) : (pink) : (white)
4 4 4
4) Law of Segregation does not apply in this experiment
126. Which of the following statement is true for Golden rice?
1) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from daffodil
2) It is pest resistant, with a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis
3) It is drought tolerant, developed using Agrobacterium vector
4) It has yellow grains, because of a gene introduced from a primitive variety of rice
127. Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin by
recombinant DNA technology?
1) Genetic code is not ambiguous 2) Genetic code is redundant
3) Genetic code is nearly universal 4) Genetic code is specific
128. The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of the
distance between genes was explained by :
1) T.H. Morgan 2) Gregor J. Mendel
3) Alfred Sturtevant 3) Sutton Boveri
129. Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products:
(a) i gene (i) -galactosidase
(b) z gene (ii) permease
(c) a gene (iii) Repressor
(d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
2. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
3. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
130. Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant disease?
1) Trichoderma 2) Chlorella 3) Anabaena 4) Lactobacillus
131. Under which of the following condition will there be no change in the reading frame of following
mRNA?
5’ AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3’
1) Insertion of G at 5th position
2) Deletion of G from 5th position
3) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions respectively
4) Deletion of GGU from 7th ,8th and 9th positions
132. What triggers activation of protoxin to active Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll worm?
1) Body temperature 2) Moist surface of midgut.
3) Alkaline pH of gut 4) Acidic pH of stomach
133. Assertion: A bacterial cell with no restriction enzymes will be easily infected and lysed by
bacteriophages.
Reason: Restriction enzymes catalyse synthesis of protective coat around bacterial cell that prevents
bacteriophage attack.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
4) If both assertion and reason are false.
134. Cytoskeleton is made up of
1) Calcium phosphate granules 2) Callose deposites
3) Cellulosic micro fibrils 4) Proteinaceous filaments
135. Keeping in view, the ‘fluid mosaic model’ for the structure of cell membrane, which one of the
following statements is correct with respect to the movement of lipids and proteins from one lipid
monolayer to the other ( described as flip-flop movement)?
1) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop
2) while lipids can rarely flip-flop, proteins cannot
3) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids cannot
4) Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop
SECTION-B
136. Polysome is formed by
1) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
2) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum
3) a ribosome with several subunits
4) ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
137. Statement-I (S-I): Cycas coralloid roots show mycorrhiza.

Statement-II (S-II): Pinus roots show symbiosis with cyanobacteria.
1) S-I is true and S-II is false 2) S-I is false and S-II is true
3) Both S-I and S-II are true 4) Both S-I and S-II are false
138. Statement –I Chargaff’s rules are applicable to single stranded DNA
Statement – II Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by X – ray crystallography
1) Both statements- 1 and II are correct
2) Both statements- I and II are incorrect
3) Only statement- I is correct
4) Only statement- II is correct
139. Read the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement- I: In Mosses, gametophytes do not have an independent free-living existence.
Statement- II: In chemotaxonomy, plants are classified based on the behaviour and number of
chromosomes.
1) Both statements- 1 and II are correct
2) Both statements- I and II are incorrect
3) Only statement- I is correct
4) Only statement- II is correct
140. Hair or pappus in florets of Asteraceae are modified
1) Involucre of bracts 2) Calyx 3) Corolla 4) Thalamus
141. How many acetyl CoA molecules will be produced if one sucrose molecule is used as a respiratory
substrate?
1) 10 2) 32 3) 4 4) 6
142. In alcoholic fermentation, redox equivalents picked up by coenzyme are used for the reduction of
1) 3 phosphoglyceraldehyde 2) Diphosphoglyceric acid
3) Acetaldehyde 4) Pyruvic acid
143. Choose the correct option w.r.t. sequence of different stage of a cells cycle.
1) G2 phase  S phase  G1 phase
2) Pre mitotic gap phase S phase  post mitotic gap
3) G1 phase  G2 phase  S phase
4) Post mitotic gap phase  synthesis phase pre mitotic gap phase
144. The Waxy substance associated with the wall of the cork cell is
1) Lignin 2) Hemicellulose 3) Cutin 4) Suberin
145. Which statement is incorrect about compensation point?

1) No, Growth occurs 2) Rate of photosynthesis is equal to respiration
3) Neither O2 nor C O2 is given off 4) Occurs, when light intensity falls to 20% of normal
146. If intensity of light increases 20 times, the rate of photosynthesis will

1) increase 2) constant 3) decrease 4) increase till feedback inhibition
147. Read the following statements and select the incorrect one
1) Cytokinins help in lateral bud growth 2) Ethylene is a gaseous hormone
3) IAA is auxin hormone 4) 2,4-D is synthetic cytokinin hormone
148. Choose the incorrectly matched pair:
1) Ulothrix – Zygote is single celled diploid generation
2) Spirogyra – Zygote is a resistant structure
3) Cycas – Coralloid roots
4) Fucus – Isogametes
149. Match the list –I with List –II and choose the correct match.
1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV 2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
150. What is the length of DNA having 75 base pairs?
1) 255 A o 2) 112.5 A o 3) 750 A o 4)None of these
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. In humans, how many of the cells given below in the box will have granules in their cytoplasm and also
have a lobed nucleus?
Basophils, Monocytes, Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Lymphocytes
1) Five 2) Four 3) Two 4) Three

152. Which one of the following can lead to neoplastic transformation?
1) Inactivation of proto-oncogenes 2) DNA damage by non-ionizing gamma radiations
3) DNA damage by ionizing UV radiations 4) DNA damage by non-ionizing UV radiations
153. The receptors for charas and ganja are present principally in which part/system of the body?
1) Peripheral nervous system 2) Brain
3) Autonomous neural system 4) Excretory system
154. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was given by
1) Darwin 2) Hugo de Vries 3) Lamarck 4) Alfred Wallace
155. The air that remains in the lungs even after a forced exhalation equals to the
1) VC – IC 2) TLC – FRC 3) FRC – ERV 4) EC – TV
156. Which of the given contraceptives provides privacy to the user as well as protect the user from
contracting STIs?
1) Progestasert 2) Cervical caps 3) Vaults 4) Condoms
157. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. polar bodies.
1) Non-functional product of gametogenesis in females.
2) First polar body is the result of meiosis-I in oogonium.
3) Second polar body is the result of meiosis-II in secondary oocyte.
4) Both polar bodies are haploid in nature
158. A person suffering from Klinefelter’s syndrome
1) Is a male with 45 autosomes and 2 allosomes
2) Is a female with 45 autosomes and 1 allosome
3) Has 45 chromosomes with XO
4) Has 47 chromosomes including XXY
159. How many of the given statements are correct?
a. The world population was around 2 billion in the year 1900.
b. Indian population was approximately 35 million at the time of our independence.
c. According to 2011 census report population growth rate was more than 2 percent.
d. Rapid increase in MMR and IMR are probable reasons for huge increase in the population.
Choose the correct option.
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
160. Which one of the given options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and divergent
evolution?
Convergent evolution Divergent evolution
1) Vertebrate hearts Wings of butterfly and of birds
2) Forelimbs of whale and bat Vertebrate brains
3) Flippers of penguins and dolphins Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita
4) Darwin’s finches Industrial melanism
161. Cerebral aqueduct is present in the part of brain that is located

1) At the dorsal wall of thalamus 2) In the inner parts of cerebral hemisphere
3) Between thalamus and pons 4) Between cerebellum and pons
162. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement – A: Hypopharynx acts as tongue in cockroach.
Statement-B; In both male and female cockroach, 10th segment bears a pair of jointed non-filamentous
structures called anal cerci.
1) Both statement A and B are correct
2) Both statement A and B are incorrect
3) Only Statement A is correct
4) Only Statement B is correct
163. Read the given statement:-
a. The embryos of all vertebrates including humans develop a row of vestigial gill slits just behind
the head but it is a functional organ only in fish and not found in any other adult vertebrates.
b. In 1920, it was observed that there were more white-winged moths on trees than dark-winged
moths
c. The rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life cycle or the life span.
Choose the correct option.
1) a and c are correct , b is incorrect 2) a and b are correct, c is incorrect.
3) b and c are correct, a is incorrect 4) all statements are correct
164. What will happen if most of the GnRH secreting cells of hypothalamus gets damaged?
1) Increased secretion of gonadotropins 2) Increase in follicular development
3) Decreased secretion of LH and FSH 4) No effect on secretion of gonadotropins
165. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. immune response.
1) Cell-mediated immune response is responsible for graft rejection
2) PMNLs provide non-specific type of defence to body
3) Antigenic proteins of pathogen provide passive immunity
4) Active immunity is slow and take time to give its full effective response
166. Identify the organisms ‘X’ and ‘Y’ given below.
Select the correct option w.r.t. ‘X’ and ‘Y’

1) X lives in fresh water whereas Y lives in ocean
2) A central gastro-vascular cavity with a single opening (mouth) on hypostome is present in both X and
Y
3) Both X and Y are sessile animals and Y uses its tentacles for capturing the prey
4) Stinging capsule is present in Y and X contains flagellated collar cells
167. Assertion (A): During cleavage, the nucleus to cytoplasmic ratio increase.
Reason (R) : Cleavage is a special mitotic division in which size of daughter cells become half of
mother but size of nucleus remains same (2n)
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.
3) (A) is true, (R)is false
4) (A) is false (R) is true.
168. Cystic fibrosis is a/an
1) X linked dominant disorder 2) Y linked recessive disorder
3) Autosomal dominant disorder 4) Autosomal recessive disorder
169. Some sperms of which of the following organisms contain no sex chromosomes?
a) Grasshopper b) Drosophila c) Birds d) Butterflies
1) Only a and d 2) Only a 3) Only a, c and d 4) Only b
170. Which of the following dinosaurs was about 20 feet in height and had huge fearsome dagger-like teeth?
1) Tyrannosaurus 2) Brachiosaurus 3) Stegosaurus 4) Triceratops
171. Which of the following pairs of hormones increase the strength of heart contraction and the rate of
respiration?
1) Insulin and GnRH 2) ADH and Glucagon
3) Adrenaline and noradrenaline 4) Adrenaline and ADH
172. Neural tissue is a specialized tissue of ectodermal origin and majority of muscle is a specialized tissue
of
1) Endodermal origin 2) Ectodermal origin
3) Mesodermal origin 4) Endo-mesodermal origin
173. Complete the analogy and select the correct option w.r.t. selective tubular reabsorption.
Proximal convoluted tubule : maximum :: _____: minimum
1) Distal convoluted tubule 2) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop
3) Descending limb of Henle’s loop 4) Collecting duct
174. Consider the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement-A : Each haemoglobin molecule can carry a maximum of four molecules of oxygen
Statement-B: The percentage of CO2 transported by RBCs is equal to the percentage of lymphocytes in
total WBCs.
1) Both statements are correct 2) Both statements are incorrect
3) Only statement A is correct 4) Only statement B is correct
175. Common feature among Salamandra, Labeo and Myxine is presence of
1) Dorsal solid nerve cord 2) Three chambered heart
3) Visible scales and paired limbs 4) Pharygeal gill slits at some stages of development
176. Prolonged deficiency of iodine in our diet may results in
1) Hyperthyroidism 2) Enlargement of the thyroid gland
3) High blood calcium level 4) Depigmentation
177. Choose the incorrect statement
1) The portion of the myofibril between two successive H-zones is considered as the functional unit of
contraction.
2) Sarcomere is considered as the functional unit of contraction.
3) Actin filaments are thinner as compared to the myosin filaments.
4) The A and I bands are arranged alternately through the length of the myofibrils.
178. What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 4600 mL, blood volume in the ventricle
at the end of diastole is 110 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 64mL?
1) 120 beats per minute 2) 80 beats per minute
3) 110 beats per minute 4) 100 beats per minute
179. All of the following are flying animals except.
1) Struthio 2) Psittacula 3) Pteropus 4) Pavo
180. Which of the following scientists by careful experimentation demonstrated that life comes only from
pre-existing life?
1) S.L Miller 2) Louis Pasteur 3) Oparin and Haldane 4) Lamarck
181. A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found the average natality was 250, average
mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is
1) 10 2) 15 3) 05 4) ZERO
182. Which of the following hormones acts as immune suppressive agent and is hyperglycemic in nature?
1) Glucagon 2) Adrenaline 3) Cortisol 4) Insulin
183. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. human circulatory system.

1) Factors for clotting of blood are present in the plasma in an inactive form.
2) A healthy individual has 12-16 gms of haemoglobin in every 100mL of blood.
3) Human heart, normally beats 70 – 75 times in a minute.
4) In human heart, AV bundle continues from SAN which passes through the atrio-ventricular septa.
184. Choose the incorrect statement.
1) Blood is the medium for transport of O2 and C O2
2) Forceful expiration involves contraction of abdominal muscles and relaxation of internal intercostal
muscles.
3) Lungs do not collapse even after forceful expiration because of presence of residual volume.
4) O2 pass from atmospheric air to alveoli as p O2 in atmospheric air is 159 mm Hg which is higher than
p O2 in alveoli.
185. How many secondary oocytes and secondary spermatocytes are required to produce 2 million ova and 4
million sperms respectively? Select the correct option.
Secondary oocytes Secondary
spermatocytes
1) 2 million 4 million
SECTION-B
186. Select the correct option to complete the analogy w.r.t. blood vessels in humans.
Tunica media: Smooth muscles :: Tunica intima: ______
1) Fibrous connective tissues 2) Elastic and collagen fibres
3) Squamous endothelium 4) Cuboidal epithelium
187. During oogenesis, first meiotic division of primary oocyte is completed in
1) Primary follicle 2) Secondary follicle
3) Graafian follicle 4) Tertiary follicle
188. Following hormones are not secreted by anterior pituitary, except
1) GnRH 2) TSH 3) Melatonin 4) Estrogen
189. ADA deficiency is caused due to
1) The addition of extra gene for adenosine deaminase
2) The deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase
3) The absence of X-chromosome
4) The deletion of chromosome number 11
190. Read the given features carefully
Centre for urge of eating and drinking, respiratory
rhythm centre, pneumotaxic centre, centre for
control of body temperature, centre for cardiovascular
reflexes
How many of the above mentioned centers are presents in hypothalamus?
1) 4 2) 3 3) 5 4) 2
191. Consider the given statements and choose the incorrect one.
1) With increase in body temperature due to enhanced metabolic activities in human body,
oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve will shift to left.
2) In emphysema, the surface area of gaseous exchange is reduced.
3) Sum of partial pressure of all gases at sea level is 760 mm Hg.
4) Respiratory rhythm is maintained by the respiratory centre in the medulla region of the brain.
192. The sacred groves of khasl and jaintia Hills are found in
1) Meghalaya 2) Karnataka 3) Rajasthan 4) Maharashtra
193. In general, herbivores appear to be more adversely affected by competition than carnivores as
1) Resources are unlimited for herbivores
2) Herbivores have less alternative resources than carnivores
3) Carnivores are much larger in number than herbivores
4) Carnivores have more predators as compared to herbivores
194. Mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in
1) Hydra and Ctenoplana 2) Filarial worm and hookworm
3) Magur and vulture 4) Bombyx and Culex
195. The transgenic models exist for
a) Rheumatoid arthritis b) Alzheimer’s c) Cystic fibrosis
1) a) and b) only 2) b) and c) only 3) a) and c) only 4) a), b) and c)
196. Assertion : Melatonin influences menstrual cycle.
Reason: Melatonin does not play any role in the regulation of diumal rhythm of our body.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect
4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
197. Read the following statements and choose the option accordingly
Statement – A : Eastern Ghats have a greater amphibian species diversity than the Western Ghats
Statement – B: India has greater ecological diversity than a Scandinavian country like Norway.
1) Both statements are correct 2) Both statements are incorrect
3) Only statement A is correct 4) Only statement B is correct
198. Birds are phylogenetically closer to ‘X’ than ‘Y’.
Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’
X Y
1) Tuataras Crocodiles
2) Therapsids Thecodonts
3) Crocodiles Mammals
4) Snakes Crocodiles
199. Which of the following is not correct w.r.t. the functions of the thyroid hormones?
1) Play important role in the regulation of the basal metabolic rate
2) Influence the maintenance of water and electrolyte balance
3) Play no role in the metabolism of proteins and fats
4) Support the process of red blood cell formation
200. ‘X’ part of nephron is impermeable to water but allows transport of electrolytes.
Select the correct option for ‘X’
1) Proximal convoluted tubule 2) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop
3) Distal convoluted tubule 4) Collecting duct

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Common NEET Gt-2 (Dt : 19-04-2024)

COMMON NEET GRAND TEST-02 (DT:19-04-2024)

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Course: OG SR NEET, LT AND CRASH Ex. Date: 19.04.2024

 cos   E cos   E cos 

1) 473 o C 2) 512 o C 3) 448 o C 4) 615 o C

Bulk mod ulusof water 2 109 N m 2

1) 0.005 2) 0.05 3) 0.01 4) 0.001

1) 5 108 N / C 2) 7 108 N / C 3) 8 108 N / C 4) 4 108 N / C

1) 10mA 2) 15mA 3) 20mA 4) 5mA

The corresponding force-time graph of the particle is

1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason is a correct explanation for assertion.

1) 3840 N 2) 6420 N 3) 4830 N 4) 5200 N

35. Select the correct statement(s) from the following.

1) 4.8 105 J 2) 6.4 105 J 3) 4.0 106 J 4) 3.2 106 J

1) qEy2 2) qE 2 y 3) qEy 4) q2Ey

mp is the mass of proton)

41. A particle is performing uniform circular motion as shown in figure

And 100 rad / s ,is

(All symbols have their usual meaning)

1) AND gate 2) OR gate 3) NOR gate 4) NAND gate

(D) The difference of vector, A B 4) 20

3) A 3;B 2;C 4;D 1 4) A 2;B 4;C 1;D 3

1) 200cm 2) 400 cm 3) 580 cm 4) 320 cm

3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect

1) 0.9ms 2 ,18N 2) 0.09 ms 2 ,1.8 N 3) 1 ms 2 ,2 N 4) 2 ms 2 ,6 N

1) XYZ 2 2) X Y Z 3) Y2 XZ3 4) X3 YZ4

52. Consider the following four electrodes-

53. High boiling azeotrope from the following is :-

54. The osmotic pressure of a solution increases :-

3) 3.75 10–4 mol L–1 sec –1 4) 50 10–4 mol L–1 sec –1

1) A only 2) C Only 3) A and B 4) B and C

BF3 CCl2 NH4 CO2

1) A and B 2) A, B and C 3) B, C and D 4) A, B and D

2) Assertion in not correct but Reason is incorrect

1) A > B > C 2) C > B > A 3) B > C > A 4) C > A > B

1) CH3 – CH2 C C – CH3 2) HC C – CH2 – CH2 – CH3

3) CH3 – CH CH – CH CH2 4) CH2 C CH – CH2 – CH3

Statement II : In sucrose glycosidic linkage is between C1 of -D-glucose and C2 of a -D-glucose.

b. Visible region 2. Uncertainty principle

1) 0.96 grm 2) 0.32 grm 3) 147 grm 4) 0.48 grm

69. For which of the equation H > U

1) N2 g 3H2 g 2NH3 g 2) H2 g Cl2 g 2HCl g

3) 2C s O2 g 2CO g 4) CH4 g 2O2 g CO2 g 2H2O

Enthalpy of -393.5 -283.5

1) –251.75 2) 676 3) –110 4) –141.75

a) HCHO HCN (I) Nucleophilic substitution reaction

b) (II) Electrophilic addition reaction

c) CH3Cl KCN (III) Nucleophilic addition reaction

Assertion(A): CIF3 has bent T-shape structure.

2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

77. The reason for the stability of Gd3 ion is

1) diamminetetrachloridocobalt(III) bromide 2) tetramminedichloridocobalt(III) bromide

81. In given reaction, 'P' is

1) CH3 – CH2 – CHO 2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2OH

I. II. III. IV.

A. Alkaline solution of copper sulphate i.

B. Neutral FeCl3 solution ii.

C. Alkaline chloroform solution iii.

D. Potassium iodide and sodium hypochlorite iv.

1) Cl– 2) S–2 3) I– 4) CH3COO–

1) 4.44 M 2) 8.88 M 3) 13.32 M 4) 17.78 M

1) 57.0 kJ 2) 11.4 kJ 3) 28.5 kJ 4) 34.9 kJ