Professional Documents
Culture Documents
October–November 2020
Question 2
‘The effectiveness and credibility of the entire corporate
governance system and company oversight will, to a
large extent, depend on institutional investors that can
make informed use of their shareholder rights and
effectively exercise their ownership functions in
companies in which they invest.’
Discuss by reference to the UK Stewardship Code and
the ICGN Global Stewardship Principles.
The UK Stewardship Code sets out the principles of effective
stewardship by investors in a company, who also play an important
role in holding the board to account for the fulfilment of its
responsibilities. A good answer should critically discuss the core
principles of the Code, which state that institutional investors
should:
i. publicly disclose their policy on how they will discharge their
stewardship responsibilities;
Corporate governance and compliance
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Examiners’ commentaries — October–November 2020
Module B: Compliance
Question 1
Critically discuss the key advantages and disadvantages
of self-reporting and the factors that companies should
consider in deciding whether or not to self-report.
The answer to this question can be found in Section 5.6 of the
Study Guide. In the answer, candidates should have identified the
following advantages of self-disclosure:
- More lenient treatment by regulators/prosecutors, albeit it is
not guaranteed. In your response, you should have
mentioned the OECD’s and SFO’s view on the
appropriateness of a more lenient treatment as a result of
self-disclosure.
- Company can retain a degree of control.
- Perception of acting ethically.
With respect to disadvantages of self-disclosure, in your answer you
should have indicated that:
- The government may never find out about the misconduct.
- Possible triggering of disclosure requirements for listed
companies.
- No defence for those individuals actually involved in
corruption.
Good responses would have mentioned OECD’s and SFO’s views on
self-reporting, as well as examples of settlements, which resulted in
more lenient treatment from the authorities (see Section 5.6.3 of
the Study Guide).
Question 2
Critically discuss the following:
(i) definition of the term “whistleblower”,
(ii) key pieces of whistleblowing legislation in the UK,
and
(iii) key provisions that a whistleblowing policy should
contain.
This was quite a straightforward question, the answer to which can
be found in Section 2.4 of the Study Guide and the accompanying
reading materials.
A whistleblower is someone who has personal knowledge of
misconduct within an organisation and who voluntarily comes
forward.
In the UK, the Public Interest Disclosure Act 1998 is the key piece of
whistleblowing legislation.
Key elements of an effective whistleblower policy are laid out in
response to Activity 2.2 of the Study Guide.
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Corporate governance and compliance
Question 2
Critically discuss principal offences (including tipping
off) and their defences under the Terrorism Act 2000.
The principal offences under the Terrorism Act 2000 are:
(i) fundraising for the purposes of terrorism, (ii) using or possessing
money or other property for the purposes of terrorism,
(iii) involvement in funding arrangements, and (iv) money
laundering – facilitating the retention or control of money which is
destined for, or is the proceeds of, terrorism.
The Act defines terrorism as the use or threat of serious violence or
other specified action to persons or property which is designed to
influence a government or an international governmental
organisation or to intimidate a section of the public for the purpose
of advancing a political, religious or ideological cause.
All of these, as well as the defences, are described in detail in
Section 4.2 of the Study Guide.
Just as in the case of Question 1, most candidates got the factual
part right, but not many went beyond the regurgitation of facts and
provided a critical analysis, which should have touched upon the
civil liberties groups’ arguments.
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Examiners’ commentaries — October–November 2020
Question 2
Critically discuss the advantages and disadvantages of
open banking.
This question falls squarely within the learning outcomes and is
addressed in Section 4.4 of the Study Guide, as well as Activity 4.3.
Essentially, open banking complements the rules under the second
Payment Services Directive (PSD2) – that require banks, building
societies and other financial providers to let customers easily and
securely share their financial data, including transaction history and
spending behaviour with other banks and regulated third-party
providers. The aim is to encourage innovation and improve
competition, by making it easier for customers to hold multiple
accounts and compare or switch financial products.
Ultimately, it could allow customers to manage all of their financial
accounts and household bills through a single digital platform, with
the option of allowing apps to ‘plug in’ and offer more personalised
and intuitive services. For example, an app might help customers
avoid charges or boost their savings by automatically moving
money between various accounts. Open banking could also spur
action in other markets, by encouraging customers to look at their
energy or phone bills.
One key benefit of open banking Application Programming
Interfaces (APIs) is that customers can authorise third-party access
without having to reveal their login details to anyone other than
their bank. Sharing data via APIs is also more secure than screen-
scraping because customers know exactly what information is being
shared and can more easily revoke access.
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Corporate governance and compliance