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Mediiun :ENGLISH NTSE(EE)

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0

NTSE - NOVEMBER,2017
MENTAL ABILITY AND
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST

Time : 180 Minutes Mental Ability Test 50 Marks

Language Comprehensive Test 50 Marks
Aptitude Test 100 Marks
Total 200 Marks

Instructions to Candidates

Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. Answers
are to be SHADED on a SEPARATE OMR Answer sheet given, with a HB pencil.
Read the Instructions printed on the OMR sheet carefully before answering
the questions^

Please write your Centre Code No.
and Roll No. very clearly (only one
digit in one block) on the OMR
sheet as given in your admission
card. Please see that no block is
left unfilled and even Zeros
appearing in the Centre Code No.
are correctly transferred to the
appropriate blocks on the OMR
sheet as shown in the example
given in the OMR sheet. For all the
subsequent purposes, your Centre
Code No. and Roll No. shall remain
the same as given on the
Admission Card.
The Test is in THREE PARTS.
Part-I (Mental Ability) consists of
E-225
50 Questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 50),
Part - II(Language Comprehensive
Test) consists of 50 Questions
(Q. Nos. 51 to 100) and Part - III
(Aptitude Test) consists of 100
questions (Q. Nos. 101 to 200).
3. All questions carry one mark each.
Since all questions are
compulsory, do not try to read
through the whole question paper
before beginning to answer it.
Begin with the first question and
keep trying one question after
another till you finish all three parts.
[1]

If you do not know the answer to
any Question, do not spend much
time on it and pass on to the next
one. If time permits, you can come
back to the questions which you
have left in the first instance and
try them again.
NTSE(EE)
10. Answer to each question is to be
indicated by SHLAJIING the circle
having the number of the correct
alternative in the OMR sheet
from among the ones given for the
corresponding question in the
booklet.

Since the time allotted to the 11. Now turn to the next page and
question paper is very limited, you start answering the questions.
should make the best use of it by
not spending too much time on 12. After the examination, you should
any question. hand over the OMR sheet to the
Invigilator of the room.
A blank page is provided for rough
work at the end of each part. ^^3 The candidate need not return
this Question Paper booklet and
REMEMBER, YOU HAVE TO
can take it after completion of the
SHADE ANSWERS ON A
examination. No candidate should
SEPARATE OMR SHEET
leave the examination hall before
PROVIDED.
the end of the examination.

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E-225 121
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V:<f -

PART -1
I •

MENTAL ABILITY TEST .V> i

(Q. Nos. 1 to 50)

Max. Marks : 50

Note : SHADE the correct alternatives in the OMR

Answer Sheet provided, from amongst the ones
given against the corresponding questions in the
Question Booklet. For shading the circles, use a
HB pencil.

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E-225 13]

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 5. 2, 35, 104, 209,
NTSE(EE)
1
(Question 1 to 5): In the Number (1) 350
series given below, one number is
(2) 248
missing. Each series is followed by five
alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). (3)' 256
One of them is the right answer. (4) 311
Identify and indicate it as per the
"Instructions". 413

1. 13, 74, 290, 650, (Questios 6 to 10) : In each of the

(1) 1248, following questions, a letter series is
given, in which some letters are
(2^ 1470
missing. The missing letters are given
(3) 1346 in the proper sequence as one of the
(4) 1452 alternative. Find the correct
(5) 1625 alternative.

2. 1, 11, 35, 79, A.,..BBC...AAB...CCA...BBCC

(1) 81 (1) BACB

v;s;-
(2) 93 (2) ABBA

or 149 (3) CABA

(4) 124 (4) AABC [W'-

(5f ACBA
§!:
(5) 136

3. 1, 5, 15, 34, BC....B....C....B....CCB

(1) 50 (1) BBCB

(2) 48 (2) CBBC

(3) 37• (3f CBCB

(4) 65 (4) BCBC

(5^ 72 (5) CCBB

4. 3, 13, 31, 57, 8. C....BBB....ABBBB....ABBB.

(1) 65 (1) BACBB

(2) 72 (2) AABCB

(3) 88 (3f ABACB

(4) 94 (4) ABCCB

(5) ABBCC
i&f 91
rV5
E-225 [4]

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 NTSE(EE)
9. C...BCCD...CCDB...CDBCC...BC 13. 16x4-i-3=-7
iW DBCD (1)
(2) DBDD (2) - -=
(3) BDAA , (3) + =- ; '■ 'nAT'h.
(4) BDCD " (4). +-=
(5) DCBD (&f -+ = • .1

- V- --- '.T .

14. 7-3 = 8-13 ;4

10. BA....B....AAB....A....B
(1) -+=
(1)
(2)
AABB
BABB
^ x- = --•i:

(3) -=+
(3) BAAB
(4) -+=
{4/f ABBA
(5) -x =
(5) ABAA
15. 15-3x4 = 9 f.5
Directions: . (1) +x =
(Questions II to 15): Questions have (2) x- =
become wrong due to wrong order of (3) +- =
signs. Choose the correct order of signs , (4r - + =
from the five alternatives given under
(5) +- =
each question, so that the equations
becomes right. Write it in your answer
Directions:
sheet against the corresponding
question number. (Questions 16 to 20) : In these
questions, numbers are placed in the
11. 6 + 3 = 4 X 22 figures on the basis of some rules. One
place is vacant which is indicated as
(1)' x + =
Find out the correct alternatives to
(2) +-X , replace the question mark '?'.
^ =x-
16.
(4) +- = 32 72 112

(5) '+x- 11 31 70 73 15 21 10

30 74 106

12. 12-3 = 4x11

(1) +-= (1) 14

(2) x+ = (2) 15
(3) " + - = (3) 16
(4) X ,= - (4) 17
-^-= x
(5/ 18
-• V-

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15] -.s • .
E-225

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 NTSE(EE)
17. Directions:
(Questions 21 to 25) : Some letters
289 685 are given in column I and some digits
are given in column II. Each digit of
column II represents any letter of
(1) 14
column I. Study the columns and write
the alternative letter after choosing the
(2^ 15 correct alternative against the
(3) 16 corresponding question.
(4) 17 Column -1 Column -
(5) 18 ABLMS 24538
QRLBA 93526
18. PTQAB 52601
36 35 45
LRNPQ 93716
12 42 14 49 30 60
ATRNP 29071
48 63 75
MSPTQ 84106 ^
QPNAR 16729
ih- 12
RABLS" 29583
(2) 15
TSLBA 80325
m
(3) 18 PLQST 31860
(4) 21
21. The code for M is
(5) 24 (VT 0 '
(2) 8
19. (3) 1 -m
14
(4) 6
.

10 (5) 4
11 9 9 13 11
22. The code for N is
(1) 9
7 (2) 6 ,iC-.w;.-.-
:.U

(2) 9 (3).1
(3) 4 7
(5) 2
(4) 5
(5) 10 23. The code for A is
(1) 9
5
20. . 13
(37 2
(4) 8
12 9 4 5 (5) 3

24. The code for S is

(iff 5
(2) 4 (>< 3
(2) 2
(3) 10
(3) 5
(4) 8 (4) 0
(5) 6 (5) 8
[6]
E-225 -r-

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I NTSE(EE)
25. The code for P is 29. Who is the husband of E ?
(1) 3 -ri-UK.'
(1) E
(2) 8 (2) D
(3) 0 (3) B
(4f 1 (4) C
(5) 6 (5< A
Directions:
(Questions 26 to 30): There are six 30. How many persons are there in
persons in a family A, B, C, D, E the category of brothers ?
and E (1) 1

(i) C is the sister of F. (2) 2

(ii) A is the brother of the husband of or 4
E. (4) 2
(Hi) D is the father of A and D is the (5) 3
grand father of E
(iv) There are two fathers, 'three Directions:
brothers and a mother in the
(Questions 31 to 35): There are
family.
four terms in each question. The term
On the basis of above details, choose the right to symbol :: have some
correct alternative. relationship as the term of the left to
26. What is the relationship between symbol :: and out of the four, one term
E and E ? is missing, which is among one of the
(1^ Daughter given five alternatives. Find the correct
(2) Son alternatives.
(3) Husband
(4) Grandson 31. KME:LLH::RMS:
(5) Eather-in-law
(1) TVT
27. Who is the mother ? (2) SUS >1-
(1) E
(3) SLR
(2) D
(4) SSU
C
(4) B SLU
(5) A

28. How many male members are 32. GEH : EGG ESS
there in this family ? (1) GHE
(1) One (2)^ HRT
(2) Two (3) HGE
(3) Three (4) HEG .
(4^ Four (5) GEE
(5) Five

E-225 ['1 'JT m ?---r

 NTSE(EE) I
33. UVST : WTUR :: : RILO 35. Smoke : Pollution :: War :
(if PKJQ
(1) Victory
(2) TSUV
(3) UVTS (2^ Death
(4) TSVU
(3) Army
(5) SRUT. , -
(4) Enemy
34. Newspaper : Editor :: Film : ...?.
(1) Actor (5) Treaty
(2) Producer
(3^ Director
(4) Musician
(5) Audience

Directions:
(Questions 36 to 40):In each of the following questions, in four out of the fiye
figures of element I is related to element II in some particular way. Find out the
figure in which the element is not related to element II.
36.

cH]
II
lA A T(n) -<A)
II
A II r-ni

(1) (2) (3) (5)

37. c = □ c s 0 □0
□ IAD X A D t
A I = O = c S A S C □ s AC * *

X 0 tJ s X s X P P s A = □
s?* A S
1 i II 11 1 II H II

(1), (2) (3) (4) ^ -I

38.

-Q" ^1. QA ^5
1?
• II II 1 i' II r II • 11
< -

yf (2) (3) (4) (5)

39.

6
1
A II
Q
1 II
•o A 1 ; II
□
I ■ 11
f=L

1
A
■ II

(1) , (2) (3) (4) l/f)

40.
1 _o ^ 11 : —• b 1 □; V □ A —
i"' □ s. □: I ^
i . T □ i •- □ > c to

s • c □ s □ ^ 1i: 0 II □ P
1
<i Q
1 II
P c
1
Si Q
: II
c 0
I
»- 1
:
□
II
0
1 II i

(1) (2) (3)

w (5)

E-225 18]

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 NTSE(EE)
Directions: 46. Problem Figures

(Questions 41 to 45): Out of the five

figures (1),(2),(3),(4),(5) given in each
problem, four are similar in a certain (A) (B) (C) (D) (E;
way. Choose the figure which is Answer Figures
different from the other figures.

(2) (3) (4) (5)

41.
47. Problem Figures

(1) (2) (3) (4) S^) A

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Answer Figures
42.
OX 0 SO)
s
1—
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
O
48. Problem Figures
43. T s 0
0 0 s o

V V X
□

o
X
□
c
X
X
c

(1) (2) (3) (5) (A) ' (B) (C) (D) (E)
f Answer Figures
_ o _ A _0 _ 0
44. o
y
r X X X c
c c A c f
A □ □ o Q (2) (4)
(1) (5)
(2) (3) (4) (5) Problem Figures
• • • • X • • XX • XX • XX
• • • • • • • • • • • • X • •
45. • • • • • • • • • • X X
• • • • • • • •

T V X 1 L (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Atiswer Figures
(1) (2) (3) (5) • XX • XX • XX • XX • XX
X • • X • • X • X X • X X • X
X X • X •. • X
Directions: X

(Questions 46 to 50) : Each of the (1) (2) (4) (5)

following questions consists of the five Problem Figures
50.
figures marked A, B, C, D and E called □
the problem figures followed by five
alternatives marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(A) (B)
'\
★
(C) CD) (E)
called the answer figures. Select a figure
Answer Figures
which will continue the same series
established by the five problem figures.
c c c

(1) (3) (4) (5)

E-225 [9]
 ■ i ■/ NTSE(EE)

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NTSE(EE)

PART - II

LANGUAGE COMPREHENSIVE TEST

(Q. Nos. 51 to 100)

■rV.:
Max. Marks :50

Note:

(i) SHADE the correct alternatives in the OMR

Answer Sheet provided, from amongst the ones
given against the corresponding questions in
the Question Booklet. For shading the circles,
use a HB pencil.

(ii) Q. No. 51 to 100 of Language Comprehensive

Test contains English Language.

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E-225 rii]

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 NTSE(EE)
Direction: of life to human beings. That is. where
(Questions 51 to 55) : Read the economics
following passage and answer the comes in. Human beings today are not
questions given after it. in mood to tolerate this suffering and
starvation and inequality, when they
Nationalism, of course, is a see that the burden is not equally
curious phenomenon which at a certain shared. Others profit, while they only
stage in a country's history gives life, bear the burden.
growth and unity but at the same time,
it has a tendency to limit one because 51. Negative national feeling can
one thinks of one's country as make a nation ...
something different from the rest of the (1) selfish
world. One's perceptive changes and (2) self centred
one is continuously thinking of one's
(3) indifferent
own struggles and virtues and failing to
the exclusion of their thoughts. The (4) dangerous
result is that the same nationalism,
which is the symbol of growth for 52. The greatest problem in the
people, becomes a symbol ofcessation of middle of the passage refers to the
that growth in mind. Nationalism, question
when it becomes successful, sometimes (1) how to mitigate hardship to
goes on spreading in an aggressive way human beings.
and becomes a danger internationally. C2^ how to share the economic
Whatever line of thought you follow, burden equally.
you arrive at the conclusion that some (3) how to contain the dangers
kind of balance must be found. of aggressive nationalism,
Otherwise something good can turn (4) how to curb international
into evil. Culture, which is essentially hatred.
good, become not only static but
aggressive and something that breeds 53. Aggressive nationalism ....
conflict and hatred, when looked at
(1) endagers national unity.
from a wrong point of view. How will ,?
you find a balance, I don't know. Apart (2) leads to stunted growth.
from the political and economic CS) breeds threat to
problems of the age, perhaps, that is the international relations.
greatest problem today because behind (4) isolates a country.
it, there is tremendous search for
something, which cannot be found. We 54. 'Others' in the last sentence refers
turn to economic theories because they to ....
have an undoubted importance. It is (1) other neighbours
folly to talk of culture or even of god,
(2) other nations
when human beings starve and die.
Before one can talk about anything else,
(3^ other people
one must provide the normal essentials (4) other communities

E-225 [IV
 NTSE(EE)
55. Suitable title for this passage is .... 57. Nehru enjoyed...
(1) Nationalism and national
reading and writing books.
problems.
(2) fighting with benevolent
(2) Nationalism is not enough. power.
Nationalism breeds unity.
(3) respecting tyranny.
(4) Nationalism, a road to world
(4) resisting believers as he is a
unity.
self proclaimed non believer.

Direction:
(Questions 56 to 60) : Read the 58. Which of the statements reflects
following passage and answer the Nehru's point of view ?
questions given after it. (1) Humanism is more
Nehru was a many sided important than science.
personality. He enjoyed reading and
(2) Science is supreme and
writing books, as much as he enjoyed
humanism is subordinate to
fighting political and social evils or
it.
residing tyranny. In him, the scientist
and the humanist were held in perfect (3) Science and humanism are
balance. While he kept looking at equally important.
special problems from a scientific f There is no ground between
standpoint, he never forgot that we humanism and science.
should nourish the total man. As a
scientist, he refused to believe in a
benevolent power interested in men's 59. In this passage, "a benevolent
affairs. But as a self proclaimed non- power interested in men's affairs"
believer, he loved affirming his faith in means ....

life and the beauty of nature. Children (1) beauty of nature..

he adored. Unlike, Wordsworth he did
{'^ a supernatural power of god.
not see them as trailing clouds of glory
from the recent sojourn in heaven. He (3) the spirit of science.
saw them as a blossoms of promise and (4) the total man.
renewal, the only hope for mankind.

60. A many sided personality means ....

56. Nehru thought that children
(1) were trailing clouds of glory.
{yf a complex personality.
(2) a secretive person.
{3^ held promise for a better
future. (3) a person having varied
interests.
(3) were like flowers to be loved
and admired. (4) a capable person.
(4) held no hope for mankind.

E-225 [13] [Turn Over

_ 1
 NTSE(EE)
Direction: 63. In the above passage, the phrase
(Questions 61 to 65) : Read the "amounts to a row of beans"
following passage and answer the means that the news ....
questions given after it.
(1) is weak and often wanting
The casual horrors and real
entirely.
disasters are thrown on a newspaper
reader without discrimination. In the (2) deserves no one attention.
contemporary arrangements for
(3) should travel the wires.
circulating the news, an important
element, evaluation is always weak and is junk, dressed up as real
often wanting entirely. There is no news.

point anywhere along the line

somewhere someone puts his foot down
for certain and says,"This is important 64. Newspapers lack a sense of
and that does not amount to row of discrimination because ....
/'
beans; deserves no ones attention and /

should travel the wires no farther". (1) they do not separate the real
The junk is dressed up to look as news from mere
meaningful as the real news. sensationalism.

(2) they have to accept whatever

61. Evaluation of news would imply ...
(1) less dependence on modern
systems of communication.
(2) More careful analysis of each
news story and its value,
separating beans from junk,
discriminating horrors from
disasters.
is received on the wires.
(3) limited man power makes
serious evolution impossible.
people don't see the
difference between 'junk'
and 'real' news.

65. The passage implies that....

62. The writer of the above passage...
(1) seems to be happy with the (1) there has to be censorship on
contemporary arrangements newspapers.
for circulating news.
(2) there is no point in having
(2) is shocked by the casual censorship.
stories about horrors and
disasters reported in the (3^ newspapers always dress up
newspaper. junk to look real.
(3^ wants better evaluation of (4) one has to be strict in
news before publication.
selecting news items.
(4) wants to put his foot down
on news stories.

E-225 II [Turn Over

 NTSE(EE)
Direction: 71. (1) talked
(Questions 66 to 71) : In the (2)^ written
following passage, there are some (3) deciphered
numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by
selecting the most appropriate word for
(4^ formed
each blank.
Recent discoveries show that Direction:
Indians of early days 66 to have been (Questions 72 and 73) : The
highly civilised in many ways. They had following sentences are from a
massive public buildings and paragraph. The first and the last
comfortable dwelling houses 67 mostly sentences / parts are given. Choose the
by brick. They had 68 arrangements order in which the four sentences /
69 good sanitation and an elaborate parts (PQRS) should appear to
drainage system. They knew how to complete the paragraph.
write 70 their language which has not 72. Si: The dictionary is the best
yet been 71 was not alphabetic but friend of your task.
syllabic like the Sumerian language.
52-
66. (1) intend
53- -
(2) appear
(3) behave
84-
decided S5-
Sg : Soon you will realize that
67. (1) designed this is an exciting task.
(2) formulated
(3^ built P : That may not be possible
(4) construct always.
Q : It is wise to look it up
68. (1) ignored immediately.
(2) made R: Then it must be firmly
started
written on the memoiy and
traced at the first
(4) less
opportunity.
S: Never allow a strange word
69. (1) inspite
to pass unchallenged.
(2f by
(3) from
Choose the correct sequence from
(4) for
the options given below.
(1) PQRS
70. (1) but
(2) because
(3< QRPS
(3) while (3) SQPR
since (4) SPRQ

[Turn Over
E-225
 NTSE(EE)
73. Si Calcutta, unlike other cities, 76. (1) Periphery
kept its trams. (25 advurtise
52 (3) Courteous
(4) indefinite
53
84
77. (1) dismiss
- -- .n
S5 (2) dispel
Se : The foundation stone was (3) disservice
laid in 1972. discribe
P: As a result, there was
horrendous congestion. Direction:
Q: It was going to be the first in (Questions 78 to 85): Select the most
south Asia. appropriate option to fill in the blanks
R: They run down the centre of from the given alternatives.
the road.
S: To ease in, the city decided 78 you shout at your children,
to build an underground they will ignore it.
railway line. (1) more/more
(2)^ the more / the more
Choose the correct sequence from (3) the more / the most
the given options.
,(4) the most / the most
(1) PRSQ
(2< RPSQ 79. My laddus weren't .... a disaster
(3) PSQR .... I'd thought they would be, but
(4) SQRP they didn't taste very good,
such / as
Direction: so /that
(Questions 74 to 77):For each of the (3) as / as
following groups offour words, find the more / than
incorrectly spelt word.

74. (1) Imperative 80. Radha : Your failure in the exam

(2) ilicit comes down to your
(3<' imminent lack of studying.
(4) immature Uzma : I know. I needed to
have ....

75. (1) logical (1) prepared thoroughly more:

(2^ ludicrucous (2) thoroughly more prepared.
(3) lonesome (3) . thorough preparation more.
(4) laughter prepared more thoroughly.

E-225 [ip] [Turn Over

 NTSE(EE)
81. Anyone wishing to work as a Direction:
secret agent must first undergo a (Questions 86 to 90): Choose the one
background investigation. which best expresses the meaning of
(1) tiny the given phrase.
(3^ handy
(3) stingy 86. At close quarters
(4) stringent (1) close examinations.
(2) live near to each other.
82. A : Did Priya apolo^ze after the (3) live far to each other.
argument ?
(4^ in love.
B : No, but she do so soon.
(1) had better 87. an apple of discord
(2) would rather (1) cause of wealth.
(3) better had to (2) cause of quarrel.
(4?^ should rather (3) cause of happiness,
cause of illness.
83. If you refuse to work hard, your
endeayors will amount... nothing.
88. At large
for
famous
(2) to
(2) not famous
(3) with
(3) abscond
(4) by
(4) very far
84. There is no reason .... oyer spilled
milk; 89. take the bull by horns

(1) to cry face a difficulty or danger

confidently.
(2) to save
(2) run away from a difficulty or
(3) to serve danger.
to boil (3) face a difficulty or danger
boldly.
85. Grain is commonly used as for (4) pull the bull's horns.
animals:

(1) commodity 90. buckle down

>25 fodder work seriously
(3) implements (2) take it easy
(4) fumigation (3) drop a subject
(4) go for a vacation.

[17] [Turn Over

E-225
 NTSE(EE)
Direction: Direction:
(Questions 91 to 95): Select the word (Questions 96 to 100) : Select the
which means the same as the given word which means the opposite of the
words. given word.
91. abandon 96. open minded
(1) try (1) zealous ■s. ^

(2) join (2) prejudiced

keep with C3T shrewd
(4) forsake (4) unpretentious

<<■
92. detest 97. dependable
(1) love judgemental
to hate intensely (2) patient
(3) neglect (3) fickle
(4) to support (4) cautious

i.-iS

93. tentative 98. impertinent

(1) prevalent (1) healthy
portable {2ff respectful
(3) wry (3) inadequate
i4
(4) provisional (4) smooth ir-

94. Obscure 99. extravagance

(1) block (1) luxury
r.
(2) vague (2) poverty
obstruct (3) economical
(4) vague cheapness

95. Sp^fic 100. obscure

(VT proper implicit
(2) uncommon (2) obnoxious
(3) noteworthy • {3) explicit
(4). precise. pedantic

E-225 8]
 '«al
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NTSE(EE)

■• ;- ■ 'if- ;
PART-III
•• r: --

t
.•

-- - r:: APTITUDE TEST

•vr
i ,.• ■1 C
(Q. Nos. 101 to 200)
t/c ,V
Tir-^r's ' 4 * Max. Marks : 100 . t-

Note

(i) Subjects, Question Sr. Nos. and Marks allotted

Physics 101 to 113 Questions 13 Marks
(1)

Chemistry 114 to 126 Questions 13 Marks

(2

Biology 127 to 140 Questions 14 Marks

:■>%.■■ ■■■ (3)

Mathematics 141 to 160 Questions 20 Marks

(4)

History 161 to 172 Questions 12 Marks

(5)

Geography 173 to 184 Questions 12 Marks

(6)

Political Science 185 to 192 Questions 08 Marks

(7)

Economics 193 to 200 Questions 08 Marks

(8)

(W SHADE the circle having the correct alternative in the

1 OMR Sheet provided, from amongst the ones given against
the corresponding question in the Question Paper
Booklet. For shading the circles, use a HB Pencil.
N

E-225 [19]

-'i:
 NTSE(EE)
PHYSICS

101. A car starts moving along a line, 104. A dynamometer D (a force meter)
first with an acceleration is attached to two masses M=10 kg
a = 5ms~^ starting from rest, then and m = 1 kg. Forces F = 2kgf
uniformly and finally decelerating and f - \ kgf are applied to .the
at the same rate, comes to rest in masses. Find out in which of the
the total time of 25 seconds (^i), case gives maximum reading.
then average velocity during the
time is equal to y = 72 kmph. How <—i ^ fn)oooooooooooooooo(rH M I—>
D
long does the particle move
uniformly ? (A) F is applied to M and /to m.
(1) 25 seconds f (B) F is applied to m and F to M.
(2) 2.5 hours (C) If M = m = 5 kg.(Ignore
(39 1.5 hours M values in the problem).
(4) 15 seconds (D) If M is doubled to m.(Ignore
m, M values in the problem).
102. A uniform rod of length 'L' and (-*< A
density 'p' is being pulled along a (2) B
smooth floor with horizontal
(3) C
acceleration a as shown in the
(4) D
figure. The magnitude of the
stress at the transverse cross-
section through the mid-point of 105. A 20g bullet pierces through a
the rod is
plate of mass = 1 kg and then
comes to rest inside a second plate
of mass M2 = 2.98 kg as shown in
(/) 4 the figure. It is found that the two
(2) 4 p/a plates initially at rest and now
£Ha
move with equal velocities. Find
(3) 2 p/a
the percentage loss in the initial
pla velocity of the bullet when it is
(4)
between Mj and M2.(Neglect any
loss of material of the plates due
103. An object is placed at a distance df to the action of bullet).
10 cm from the curved surface of a
glass hemisphei'e of radius 10 cm.
Find the position of the ima^
from the fiat surface.
(1) 26.67 cm | M.
(2) 2.67 cm
(1) 15% (2) 25%
(3) 2 cm
19.67 cm (3) 50% (^72.5%

E-225 [20]

106. A U-tube of uniform cross-section
(see fig) is partially filled with a
liquid L. Another liquid which
does not mix with liquid L is
poured into one side. It is found
that the liquid levels of two sides
of the tube are the same. While
level of liquid L has risen by 2 cm.
If the specific gravity of liquid L is
1.1, the specific gravity of liquid
must be
NTSE(EE)
108. A particle of mass M and charge q
moving with velocity i; enters
Region-2 normal to the boundry
as shown in the figure. Region-2
has uniform magnetic field B
perpendicular to the plane of the
paper. The length of the Region-2
is I. Choose the correct choice.
Region 1 _ Region 2 _ Region 3
X X X X
X X X X
X X X X
X X X X
V s—I—^
X X X X

(A) The particle enters Region-3

r™W™j only, if its velocity
V > g I B!m.
(B) The particle enters Region-3
only, if its velocity
(1) 1.1
V < q I B I m.
1.3 (C) Path length of the particle in
(3) 1.001
Region-2 is maximum when
velocity v = q IB I m.
(4) 1.0 (D) Time spend in Region-2 is
same for any velocity v as
long as the particle return to
107. The roadway bridge over a canal Region-1.
is in the form of an arc of a circle (1) A only true.
of radius 20m. What is the ik A, C true.
maximum speed with which a car (3) A, C, D true.
can cross the bridge without (4) All are true.
leaving the ground at the highest
point. 109. Bfl and 120 resistors are
connected in parallel. This
(1) 10 ms-1 combination is connected to series
with a 10 V battery and 60
{2f 12 ms resistor. What is the potential
difference between the terminals
(3) 14 ms"^
of the 120 resistor ?
(4) 16 ms"^ CD 14 V
(2) 16 V
(3) 10 V
(/ 4V
E-225 [213
 NTSE(EE)
110. Three rods of same dimensions 112. The velocity of sound in Hydrogen
have thermal conductivity 3K,2K, at 0°G is 1248 m/s. What will be
and K. They are arranged as show velocity of sound in mixture of
in the figure below. Then the two parts by volume of Hydrogen
temperature of the junction in to one part of Oxygen ? (Oxygen
steady state is 16 is times heavier than Hydrogen
nearly).
50°C
(1) 725 m/s
3K K
100°C 653 m/s
K
o°c (3) 510 m/s
-if

(4) 430 m/s

100 200
(2)
3
113. Calculate the equivalent
(3) 75 (4) resistance between a and b of the
3 following network of conductors.

111. A ray of light passes through 4 2q

transparent media with refractive
index n2, n^, as shown in the 3Si
figure. The surface of all the 2C2
medias are parallel. If the
emergent ray CD is parallel to the
incident ray AB, we must it) 4Q J.

have ....
(2) 5n -j

(3) 3n
.

(4) 2Q

(1) Til = 1X2

(2) 712 — ^3
(3) ^3 = 714
' 'y''^'
y6- — rii
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, ■ ■ >'f.

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E-225 •:(22]

A

CHEMISTRY
114. Some rocket engines use
mixture of Hydrazine, N2H4 and
Hydrogen peroxide, H2O2 as the
propellant. The reaction is given
by the following equation.
N2H4f/; + 2H202r;;
+ 4H20fg;
How much of the excess reactant,
remains unchanged ? When
0.750 mol of N2H4 is mixed with
ITgofHsOs?
(1) 16 g N2H4
(2) 0.25 mol H2O2
(3< 0.25 mol N2H4
(4) 8.5 g H2O2
115. Which one of the following
combinations is false ?
Solution type Particle size
(1) Colloidal solution 10"^ to 10"^ cm
(2) True solution 10"' to 10~® cm
(3) Suspension 10~® to 10"^^ cm
(4^^^1 are correct combinations.
116. Which of the following is not an
Oxidation reaction ?
Bleaching of coloured objects
using moist Chlorine.
(2) Rancidity of fats.
(3) Thermite process involving
the reaction of Iron (III)
oxide (or) Chromium (III)
oxide, etc., with Aluminium.
(4) The poling process involving
the removal of impurities
from a molten metal.
E-225
NTSE(EE)
a 117. The gaseous hydrocarbon
Acetylene, C2H2 used in welder's
torches, releases 1300 KJ, when
1 mole of C2H2 undergoes
combustion, then which of the
following is not true ?
(1) Combustion of Acetylene is
an exothermic reaction.
The balanced chemical
reaction of combustion of
Acetylene is :
C2H2 + 5O2 2CO2 "t" H2O
(3) 2 moles of water produced
when 2 moles of Acetylene
reacts.
(4) 44 g of CO2 produced, when
13 g of Acetylene reacts.
118. Following are the representative
wave-lengths in the Infra-red,
Ultra-violet and X-ray regions of
the electromagnetic spectrum
1.0 X 10~® m, 1.0 X 10~® m and
1.0 X 10"^^ m. Which of the
following statements is false ?
(Vf The corresponding
frequencies of X-ray, UV and
IR are in the ratio of
10^:10^:1.
(2) The corresponding energies
of X-ray, UV and IR are in
the ratio of 1 :10"^ : 10"^
(3) The corresponding velocities
of X-ray, UV and IR are in
the ratio of 1 : 10^ ; 10^.
(4) X-rays, UV and IR waves
are electromagnetic waves.
These are transverse waves.
[23]
 NTSE(EE)
119. An atom has 2K, 8L and 5M 121. The reusable booster rockets of
electrons. the U.S. space shuttle, uses a
Choose the correct mixture of Aluminium and
statement(s) regarding it. Ammonium perchlorate for fuel.
A. Tri valent anion of this atom A possible equation for this
will have 12 protons in its reaction is ....
nucleus. SA[(s)+ 3NH4C104fs^
B. Tri valent cation of this -^Al20g('sj+ AlCl3rsi+ 3N0fgj+ 6ihl2^(s)
atom will have six
What mass of NH4Ci04
/^-electrons in it.
should be used in the fuel mixture
C. This atom form an
for every kilogram of A1 ?
amphoteric oxide of formula
X2O3. (1) 3 kg (2) 3.388 kg
(^ 4.351 kg (4) 4 kg
D. One of its allotrope is tetra
atomic (X4).
122. All of the following processes
(1) A and B
involve a separation of either a
(2) B only
mixture into its components, or a
m B and C
compound into elements. For
(4) BandD '
each, decide whether a physical
120. Chlorine (Cl) and Oxygen form process or a chemical reaction is
four different binary compounds. required.
Analysis gives the following а. Sodium metal is obtained
results : from the substance Sodium
Compound Mass of0 combined chloride.
with l.Og Cl б. Iron filings are separated
A 0.226 g from sand by using a
B 0.903 g magnet.
C 1.354 g c. Sugar crystals are separated
D 1.579 g from sugar syrup by
Compound A has a formula that is evaporation of water.
some multiple of CI2O, then which of d. Fine crystals of Silver
the following is incorrectly said ? chloride are separated from
(1) Compound B is CI2O5 (or a suspension of the ciystals
in water.
CI4O10, or ClgOis, and so e. Copjier is produced when
forth).
Zinc metal is placed in a
id) Compound C is CI2O6 (or solution of Copper (II)
CIO3, Or ClgOg and so forth). sulphate, a compound.
(3) Compound D is CI2O7 (or a i Physical processes Chemical processes
multiple thereof). ^ a, 6, c d,e
(4) The above' data show that (2) a, d h, c, e
the law of multiple (3) b,c,d a,e
proportions holds for these (4) e a, b, c, d
compounds.

E-225 [24]

123. What mass of Oxygen is combined
with 9.02 g of Sulphur in
(a) Sulphur dioxide, SO2 and
(b) Sulphur trioxide, SO3?
NTSE(EE)
126. You are presented with three
bottles A, B, C each containing a
different liquid. Bottles are
labelled as follows :

(1) 23.5g O in SOg and Bottle A : ionic compound

19.02g O in SO3. -Boiling point 30°C
(2rf 19.02g O in SO2 and Bottle B : molecular compound
23.5g O in SO3. -Boiling point 29.2°C
(3) 9.02g O in SO2 and Bottle C : molecular compound
13.5g O in SO3. -Boiling point 67.1°C
(4) 9.02g O in SO3 and Choose the correct statement:

13.5g O in SO2. (1) The compound most likely to

be incorrectly identified is
bottle A.
124. On an hypothetical planet the
(2) The substance in bottle B
major solvent is liquid Ammonia,
has strongest intermolecular
not water. Ammonia auto ionises
attractions.
much like water

(2NH3 ^ NH4+ + NHa")

(37^ The substance in bottle C is
highly volatile.
If instead of water, ammonia is
(4) A pure aqueous solution of
used as a solvent, the acid base
compound in bottle B is a
neutralisation reaction for the
good conductor of electricity
formation of NaCl is
among the three.
- (1) NaNH4+NH2Cl-^NaCl+2NH3
(2f NaNH2+NH4Cl^NaCl+2NH3
(3) NaNH3+NH3Cl->NaCl+2NH3
(4) NaNH4+NH4Cl->NaCl+2NH4+

125. The purity of a substance can be

gauged by the following, except:
(1) Its melting point.
(2) Its boiling point.
(3^ Chromatography.
(4) Physical appearance.

E-225 [25]
 NTSE(EE)
BIOLOGY
•jr'i

127.' Minaihata disease is due to .... 132.Pernicious anemia is caused due to

d) MICgas. the deficiency of....
(1) Biotin
(2^^ Methyl mercury
(2) Calciferol
(3) Lead nitrate
izf Cyanocobalamine .
(4) Cobalt chloride
(4) Ascorbic acid

128. The region in brain portion that 133. Match the item in Column I with
controls hunger is Column II.
(1) Medulla Part I Part II

(2) piencephalon a) Ribosomes. i) Suicidal

(33^Cerebrum bags.
b) Mitochondria ii) control
(4) Mid brain
functions of
cell.
129. What will happen, if the sperm c) Nucleus. Protein
containing 'X' chromosomes .synthesis.
fertilises the Ovum ? d) Lysosomes. iv) Power
Female child born ' house of
Male child born . j the cell.
(3) Can not guess i
(4) None 0^ a - iiij b - iv, c - ii, d - i
(2) a - Hi, 'b iv, c - i, d - ii
(3) a - Hi, b - i, c - ii, d - iv
130. Which is not correct ?
(4) a - i, b • Hi, c - ii, d - iv
H/f Embryology - Aristotle.
{2) Taxonomy - Carolus 134. The salinity of sea water is
Linnaeus.
(3) Paleontology - Leonardo
id 2.5%
da Vinci. (2) 3.5%
(4) Cytology - Robert (3) 4.5%
Brown. (4) 5.5%

131. Permanent surgical method for

birth control in male human 135, Whp discovered blood capillaries ?
beings is William Harvey
(1) Hysterectomy (2) Girolamo Fabric!
(2) Dialysis (3) Marcello Malpighi
(3) Tubectomy (4) Robert Brown
Vasectomy

E-225 [26]
 NTSE(EE)
136. According to Charles Eltion, 139. If a rat is given a mild electric
which is not correct. shock when it goes to a certain
(1) Carnivores at the top of the part of its cage, it eventually avoid
P3a-amid. going there. This is because of .....
(2) Energy trapping is high at (1) Imitation
the top of the Pyramid. Conditioning
Producers at the top of the (3) Instinct
Pyramid.
(4) Imprinting
(4) 2 and 3.

140. The tongue of a person is exposed

137. World conservation strategy was to a high salty taste, then
proposed by lUCN in ....
(1) The person learns to taste
(1) 1948 salty things better.
1980 (2) Loves tasting salty things.
(3) 1990 Hates tasting salty things.
(4) 1993 (4) Fails to taste a less salty
thingjust after the exposure.
138. Cheese the incorrect pair.
Ovary - Estrogen
(2) Adrenal - Adrenalin
(3) Pituitary - Thyroxine
(4) Testis - Testosterone

• )

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E-225
 •./«1 f.'il .. NTSE(EE)
MATHEMATICS

141. When 31513 and 34369 are divided 145. If 217a: + 131y = 913 and
by a certain three digit number,the 131a: + 217y = 827,
remainders are equal, then the
then the value of a: + y is ..
remainder is
(1) 8
(>^86 I ^ 5
(2) 97 (3) 7
. (3) 374 (4) 6
(4) 113

146. If a: =
142. The greatest number offour digits 2-
which when divided by 3, 5, 7, 9 2- ■ ri
leaves the remainders 1, 3, 5, 7 2-x

respectively,is then the value of x is

(1) 9763 (1) 1
(2) 9673 (2) 3

(3) 9367 (3) 2

9969
(Af 5

147. Xif X2i X3,.... arein A.P

143. efghisQi four digit number. One
hundredth oiefghis the mean of If Xj + X7 + a:io = -6 and -
e f and g h, then the four digit X3+Xs + Xi2=-ll,
number is
then X3 + Xg + X22 = ?
(1) 3648
(1) -21
(2< 4950 (2) - 15
(3) 4590 -18 .
(4) 3468 (4) -31

144. If + xy + X = 12 and 148 If nterms 23

7 + 11 + 15+ nterms 35
y^ + xy + y = 18,
then n value is
then the value of a: + y is
(1) 17
5 or-6
(2) 15
(2) 3 or 4
^18
(3) 5 or 3
(4) 23
(4)' 6or-3

E-225 [28]
 NTSE(EE)

149. Ifthe co-ordinates ofthe midpoints 152. ABC is a right angled triangle with
of the sides of a triangle are (1, 1), ZB = 90°, m is the midpoint of AC
(2,-3)and (3,4), then the centroid
andBTO = Vm cm, AB + BC=30,
ofthe triangle is then the area ofthe triangle is
(1) 108 cm^ (2) 248 cm^
(1) (2)
(3) 316 cm^ 156 cm

(/) (3,1) (4)

'4
150. If two vertices of an equilateral
triangle be (0, 0) and (3, Vs), then
the third vertex is
153. Let p be an interior point of AABC
and extend lines from the vertices
throughp to the opposite sides. Let
a, b, c and d divides the lengths of
the segments indicated in the
figure. Find the product of abc, if
a + 6 + c = 43 and d = 3.

(1) (i.aVI)
(2) (o,2V3)
iZ (3,^/3)
(4) (l.^j (1) 168 256
(3) 346 (4) 441
151. As shown in the given figure, AABC
is divided into six smaller triangles 154. As shown in the figure in AABC,p
by lines drawn from the vertices is an interior point. Through the
through a common interior point. point p, three lines are drawn
The areas of four of parallel to three sides as shown in
6 triangles are as indicated,then the the figure. If the areas of smaller
area of AABC is triangles are 16, 25 and 36 square
units respectively, then the area of
AABC in square units is

A4
<^35\
16 25

B . c
36

(1) . 238 (/ 464

(3) 315 (4) (1) 324 196

(3) 225 (4) 784 ,

E-225 [29]
 ■ ■ "

y\
NTSE(EE)

155. In an equilateral triangle ABC,the 158, If the area of three adjacent faces of
side BC is trisected at D,then 9AD^ a cuboid are x, y and 2 respectively,
then the volume of a cuboid is
is
(1)
i/) TAB^
(2) x+y+z
(2) 8BC^ "
x^yz V., '
(3) 4AC^
(4) xy+z

(4) IAB^
159. IftanO + cotG = 2, then the value

156. In the given figure, AB is the of tan^ 0 + cot^ 0 is

diameter of a circle with O and AT (1)
is a tangent. If ZAOQ = 58°, then (2)
the value ofZATQ is

i/)> I
(4) 5
0
aQ
160. A bag contains 15 balls of which x
A
are black and remaining are red. If
the number of red balls are
increased by 5, the probability of
52° (2) 61°
drawing the red balls doubles, then
(3) 46° (4) 75° the probability of drawing red ball
is
157. The radii oftwo cylinders are in the
ratio 2 : 3 and their heights are in .(
the ratio 5: 3,then the ratio oftheir
volumes is
(2)
(1) 15 : 16
(2) 14 : 17 (3) -

20 : 27 ■
(4) 4:9 (4) -
- _ '-rr-f': 'T'-J
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E-225 . .r .• > • V
>-"r-

NTSE(EE)
HISTORY
161. "For this earth is not allotted to 164. Who wrote the book "The History
anyone nor is it presented to of the loss of Vietnam" ?
anyone as a gift. It is awarded by (1) Phan Boi Chau
providence to people who in their Ho Chi Minh
hearts have the courage to
(3) Huynh Phu So
conquer it, the strength to
(4) Phan Chu Trinh
preserve it and the industry to put
it to the plough." Whose ideology
is this ? 165. Compulsory Elementary Education
Act was made in England in the
(1) Benito Mussolini year....
(2) Adolf Hitler (1) 1829
{2^ 1849
Ho Chi Minh
(3) 1860
(4^ Stalin (4) 1870

166. Who developed the concept of

162. According to the census of 1921, "The principle of the Garden
12 to 13 million people perished as Citv" ?
a result of (^T Andrew Means
First World War (2) Henry Mayhew
(3) Ebenezer Howard
(2) Epidemics
(4) Haussman
(3) Famines
167. Who wrote "Ninety five Theses"
(4) All the above.
criticising many of the practices
and rituals of the Roman Catholic
Clmrch ?
163. Find out the wrong statement
about Giuseppe Mazzini ? ^ Martin Luther
(2) Thomas Pain
(1) He was a member of the (3) J.VSchley
secret society of the (4) Richard M. Hoe
Carbonari.

(2) He believed "The God had
intended nations to be the
natural units of mankind."
He was the founder of young
Europe.
(4) None of the above.
168. Kashi baba, a kanpur mill worker
wrote and published "Chhote Aur
Bade Ka Sawal" in 1938 to show
the links between ....
(1) Caste and Class exploitation.
Caste and Religion relation.
(3) Income and Untouchability.
(4) Industrialists and Politicians.

E-225 [31]

169. "Only a decade ago, they were as
illiterate, helpess and hungry as
our own masses, who could be
more astonished than
unfortunate Indian like myself to
see how they had removed the
mountains of ignorance and help
lessness in these few years."
Name the Indian, who quoted this
Russian revolution ?
M N Roy.
Rabindranath Tagore.
(3) Mahatma Gandhi.
(4) Jawaharlal Nehru.
NTSE(EE)
171. The Ryotwari settlement was
introduced by the British in the ...
Madras Presidency.
an
(2) Bengal Presidency.
(3) Central Presidency.
(4) Assam Presidency.
172. The famous Quit India Resolution
was passed on .....
(1) August 18, 1942
(2) April 4, 1942
April 14, 1942 ^

(4) August 8, 1942

170. Find out the wrong statement
related to Franklin Roosevelt.
(1) Announced New Deal Policy
to eradicate economic
depression.
Introduced the much
needed Social Security
system.
(3) President of America during
Second World War.
(4) None of the above.

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E-225 [3?]
 NTSE(EE)
GEOGRAPHY

173. Sikkim, West Bengal, Assam and 176. Match list A with B and select the
Arunachal Pradesh have common correct answer using the codes
frontiers with given below the list.

(1) China List - A List - B

(a) Hyderabad is (i) Altitude

I (2) Bhutan
warmer than
J
(3) Bangladesh Mumbai. (ii) Mango
(b) Snowfall in showers.
f Mayanmar
Himalayas.
riiijDistance
(c) North western
from sea.
plain gets rainfall
174. Which of these is hot a Himachal
in winter. (iv) Western
Range ? (d) Rainfall in Depression
(p'^'^haula Dhar summer.

a b c d
(2) Pirpanjal Range
(1) Hi ii iv i
(3) Kailash Range (2) ii i Hi iv

(4) Mahabharat Range (/ Hi i iv ' ii

(4) iv ii i Hi

175. The Himalayas is divided into 177. Which one of the following bio-
four major Geological sections. reserves ofIndia is not included in
Choose among the following the world network of bio-reserve ?
which is not one of them. (1) Sunderbhan

Nepal Himalayas - Between (2) Gulf of Mannar

(1)
Kali and Teesta. Nanda Devi

(2) Mahabharat Himalayas - (4) Silent Valley

Between Indus and Gilgit.
y
178. Highest Annual Growth Rate in
(3^ Kumaon Himalayas - India was recorded in these
Between Sutlej and Teesta.
decades. -
(4) Assam Himalayas - Between (1) 1981, 1971, 1991
Teesta and Dihang. (2) 1991, 2001, 1971
1971, 2001, 1991
(4) 1961, 1971, 1981

E-225 1333
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179. Which of these is not related to 181. In which of these following
Conservation of Resources ' industries, limestone is not used ?
(1) The club of Rome advocated (1) Cement industry.
. • resources conservation"for (2) Iron and Steel industry.
the first time in a more (3^ Oil Refinery industry.
systematic way in 1968.
(4) None of the above.
(2) Brundtland Commission
Report, 1987 introduced the
182. Find the wrongly matched.
concept of "Sustainable
(1) Ferrous mineral - Iron ore.
Development".
(2) Non-ferrous - Mica.
(3) E.F Schumacher is the
,yf mineral
author of the book "Small is
Beautiful". (3) Non-Metallic - Limestone.
mineral
Earth Summit was held in
(4) Fuel minerals - Coal.
New York in 1997.

180. With reference to Indian 183. Identify the non - fibre crop ?
agriculture, which of the following (1) Hemp
■; statements is not correct ?
(2) Cotton
(1) India is the largest producer
(3) Natural Silk
as well as the consumer of
pulses in the world. (4^ Rubber
India is the second largest
producer of rice in the world 184. The South-east Trade winds are
after China. attracted towards the Indian sub
continent in the month of June
(3) Tea is an important
due to
beverage crop introduced in
India initially by the (1) the effect of the westerlies.
Persians. (2) the effect of Somaliya
(4) Groundnut is a kharif crop current.
and accounts for about half the presence of low
of the major oil seeds atmospheric pressure over
produced in the country. North-west India.
(4) None of the above.

'•

34]
E-225
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S'-: i' un ff
POLITICAL SCIENCE :■ . jii J

185. Consider the following two 187. Consider the following statements
statements on power sharing and
select the answer using the codes about pressure groups and
given below.
parties.
k-. (a) Power sharing is good for
democracy. (a) Pressure groups are the
(b) It helps to reduce the
possibility of conflicts organised expression of the
between social groups.
interests and views of
Which of these statements are true
and false ? specific social sections.
(1) Both a and 6 are triie.
Both a and b are false. (b) Pressure groups take
(3) a is true but b is false.
positions on political issiiesi
(4) a is false but b is true.
(c) All pressure groups are
186. Match the following countries and
the path democracy has taken in political parties.
that country.
Which of the statements given
Country Path to Democracy
above are correct ?
faj Nepal (i) End of One party
(1) a.bdindc
Rule. -V'N

(b) Chile (ii) King agreed to give

(2) a and b
up his powers. .-I

'I *
.C'.-
(c) Ghana (Hi) End of Military (3) b and c
Dictatorship. f.,-- - -.([yf:

Poland (iv) Freedom from (4) a and c WP .

British Colonial I. ;•
Rule.

Codes:
a b c d
( (H) (iv) (Hi) - ■ ■ , i _ ; : ,
(i)
(ii) (Hi) (iv) (i)
(Hi) (ii) (i) (iv)
(iv) (i) (Hi) (ii)

E-225 'm
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NTSE(EE)
188. Match the ministry with the news' 190. Find out the wrong statement
that the ministry may have about National Human Rights
released. Commission.

B
^ This is an independent
Commission established by
(a)A new policy is being (i) Ministry of
law in 1993.
made to increase the Defence.
jute exports from the (ii) Ministry of (2) Present Chairman for

country. National Human Rights

Health.
Commission is Justice
(b)Telephone services Ministry of Jeevan Reddy.
will be made more Agriculture,
accessible to rural (3) Like National Human
Food and
areas.
Rights Commission, there
Public
(c) The price of rice and are State Human Rights
Distribution.
wheat sold under the Commissions in 14 states of
(iv) Ministry of the country.
Public Distribution
Commerce
system will go down. (4) There is no fee or any formal
and Industry, procedure to approach the
(d)A pulse polio
campaign will be fuj Ministry of National Human Rights
Communicat Commission.
launched,
ions and
(e)The allowances of the
Information 191. Find out the subject which is
soldiers posted on
high altitudes will be Technology. under concurrent list ?
increased.
(1) Police
Codes:
(2) Communication
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Marriages and Divorce.
(1] i Hi ii iv V

(4) None of the above.

/) iv V' Hi ii i

(3) Hi V ii i iv

(4) ii V Hi iv i 192. A struggle known as "Bolivia's

water war" took place in city.
189. Find out the right which is not (1) Cochabamba
.:

-T-'-V:'
under the Indian Constitution ?
(1) Freedom of Speech and (2) Lapaz
Expression. (3) Trinidad
(2) Move freely through the
(4)^ Montero
Country.
j(Q)—-Practise any profession.
(4) None of the above.

E-225 8ftl
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ECONOMICS
193, Consider the following 196. Find out the wrong one about
statements. Secondary sector.
(i) Equitable allocation of (1) Secondary sector is also
resources. called as industrial sector.
(ii) Generation of employment. (2) Manufacturing of bricks and
(Hi) Tax concession to big sugar come under secondary
corporates. sector.

(iv) Universalisation of public The share of secondary

distribution.
sector is more in current
GDP of India.
Which of the factors given above (4) None of the above.
can bring inclusive growth in our
country ? 197. Which among the following is
(1) (i), (ii)-, (Hi) money function ?
{3(r (i), (ii), (iv) . (1) ■ Medium of exchange.
(3) (i), (Hi), (iv) (2) Unit of account.
(4) (ii), (Hi), (iv) (3)^^tore of value.
(^' All the above.
194. Which of the following is wrong
related to Antyodaya Anna 198. Consider the following statements
Yojana ? about Globalisation.
(a) The most common route for
(1) Antyodaya Anna Yojana was
investment by MNC'S in
launched in December 2000.
countries around the world
(2) 2 crore families have been is to buy existing local
covered under the companies.
^Antyodaya Anna Yojana. (b) Investment made by
Wheat is supplied at the rate Multinational companies is
of Rs.6 and rice at the rate of called foreign investment.
Rs.7 under this scheme. (0 Cargill Foods, an American
(4) None of the above. company purchased an
Indian company called
195. Find out the correct one related to Parakh Foods.
under employment. (d) Ford Motors is one of the
(1) They do not want to work. biggest German Automobile
manufacturer
(2)^/They work in a lazy manner. Which of the given statements are
^ They work less than what True ?
they are capable,of doing. (1). a, c, d
(4) They are not paid for their (2) a,b,c
work. •' b, c, d
w" a,b,c,d
E-225 [37]

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 NTSE(EE)
199. In which year, did the Bengal 200. Find out the wrong one related to
Famine occur, whfich ' was 'V,.' -.'Annapurna Scheme (APS).
responsible for the death of (1) Introduced in the year 2000.
30 lakh people in Bengal
Province ? A scheme meant for indigent
senior citizens.
.(1) 1933
(3) 10 kg of food grains are
(2) 1943 supplied freely under the
(3) 1953 scheme. r

'h -
1963 (4) None of the above.

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