Stage 4 poyler A I Which one of the following organic bases of nucleotides is a double-ringed purine? A Cytosine ust Guanine C. Uracil D. — Thymine 2. The building blocks for triglycerides are A. Monosaccharides B. —_Disaccharides C. Aminoacids Be Glycerol and fatty acids 3. Which of these statements about osmosi true? A Osmosis always involves a membrane that allows water and all solutes to diffuse through it B. The greater the solute concentration, the smaller the osmotic pressure of a solution KE Osmosis occurs because of hydrostatic pressure outside the cell D. The greater the osmotic pressure of a solution, the greater the tenden water to move into the solution cy for 4. Lysis of a cell is expected to occur when the cell is placed in which of the following solutions? Hypotonie Isotonic Hypertonic Isosmotic I that synthesizes large amounts of protein for use outside the cell has a large number of cytoplasmic inelusions number of mitochondria amount of rough endoplasmic reticulum amount of smooth endoplasmic reticulum 6. What is the percentage of body water in an average adult mal 40% 18% 60% 15%7. Which one of these factors does NOT affect the body’s metabolic rate? A. Muscular exertion Age Emotional state Environmental temperature 8. Which of the following substances is NOT found in the urine of a healthy adult female? A. £ Sodium B/S Urea LO Glucose D. Creatinine 9. The process by which the curvature of the lens is increased in the eye is called A, Lacrimation Accommodation ye Focusing Transduction 10. Which of these factors does NOT affect the cardiac output? A. Heart Disease ye Pregnancy \ Sleep D. Exercise 11. Ovulation is characterized by one of the following rise in body temperature a decrease in progesterone secretion a fall in leutenizing hormone (LH) secretion a decrease in the body level of oestrogens The major inhibitory substance in the brain is. ‘aspartase histamine gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) 0 >13. A lack of or decrease in insulin hormone receptors on cells can result in A. diabetes inspidus \e type I diabetes mellitus type IT diabetes mellitus D. juvenile diabetes 14. Which of the following cells are important phagocytes that eventually become macrophages? A. Neutrophils Basophils C. Monocytes Lymphocytes 15. Which of the following clotting factors is an important link between the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway and is deficient in hemophilia B? Factor IX Factor XI Factor VIL Fibrinogen 16. Blood returning from the lungs enters the heart through the pulmonary semilunar valve nitral valve right atrium left atrium A B. i 17. The T-wave on an ECG represents ventricular depolarization ventricular repolarization A. B. C. atrial depolarization atrial repolarization 18. Renin is produced by A fhe glomerulus B,/ macula densa proximal convulated tubule (©) —_juxtaglomerular cells a ee19. Which of the following is produced by sertoli cells? Mucus Adrogen ~ binding protein Cc. Testosterone D. — FSHand LH 20. During ovulation all of the following occur EXCEPT: A. Rupture of the Graafian follicle B. Estrogen production is very low Ye FSH and LH production is high Formation of the corpus luteum 21. Allof the following are components of innate immunity EXCEPT: @ Monocytes B. Macrophages C. Neutrophils )\D. T-lymphocytes 22. Antibodies are produced by B- lymphocytes B. T-lymphocytes €. Dendritic cells D. Langerhans cells 23. IgE is mainly found @® _ inblood B. in the surface of mast cells C. inthe skin surface in the aqueous humor 24. Which of the following antibodies is a PENTAMER? @® eG B. IgM Cc Igp IgAAll of the following are live attenuated vaccines EXCEPT: A. Polio vaccine B. Measles vaccine C/ BCG vaceine d Tetanus vac 26. A complement system A. is involved in opsoni B. releases histamine Ye is composed of immunoglobulins is only found in children ing and lysing organism 27. An example of type III hypersensitivity reaction is A. serum sickness allergic rhinitis © graves disease rheumatic heart disease 28. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by A. Tells B. B-cells ©. IgA IgE 29. The role of CD," cells in the body is to A. stimulate cell mediated immunity only B,/_ stimulate antibody mediated immunity ©) stimulate both cell and antibody mediated immunity D. release cytokines only All the following are autoimmune diseases EXCEPT: Myasthenia gravis A. B. Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus xe Rheumatoid arthritis Non insulin dependent diabetes mellitus31 Ascaris lumbricoides 2 isacestode B, causes wefflers syndrome is transmitted by tsetsefly “ D. can cause cysteriosis 32. Leishmania donovani is transmitted by A. chrysops B, _anopheles mosquito LZ phlebotomus spp D. —reduvid bug 33. Meningoencephalitis may be caused by ta fowleri Entamoeba histolytica Cc Entamoeba coli D. Giardia lamblia 34. Hepatitis B virus isa DNA virus isan RNA virus transmitted through oral faecel route D. is transmitted through droplets 35 lerpes,Zooster is caused by , He we Varicella ~ Zoster B. parvo viruses ©. polio virus D. __papuloma virus 36. Scalded skin syndrome is caused by @ — Propionibacterium acnes Staphylococeus aureus Cc Streptococcus pyogenes D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae O37. Streptococcus pyogenes A. causes necrotizing fasculitis is a gram negative bacteria C. — isanaerobie organism isa spirochaete 38. Which of the following does not cause food poisoning’? Salmonella spp Bacillus cereus A B. © Clostridium perfringens D. Streptococcus pyogenes 39. The main cause of meningitis in HIV patients is Cryptococcus neoformans Candida albicans Histoplasma capsulatum Blastomycosis Sas 40. The cause of diaper rash in children is A, Staphylococcus aureus B. Candida albicans C.— Rubella virus Tinea pedis 41, Which of the following compounds does not exist as a cis-trans isomer? A,/ CHjCHCHCH3 (Cl) 2C = CHCHs C. CICHCHCI D. — CHsCHCH CH.CHs 42. Dehydration of aleohols produces dM Alkanes ®) — Alkenes C.— Bthers D. Epoxides WN43. Which of the following structures represents isohexane? A. CHsCH:CH)CH»CH)CH; CHsCH.CH2 CH - CH; CH; c. CHsCHCHCH:CHi CH; D. CH3~CH-CH- CH; | 1 CHs CH 44. The major product that is formed when hydrogen chloride is added to 2-methyl-I- butene is CH3 vl @ — CHsCH,CHCH:CI CH; B. CHyCH2CCICH; CH c cHcHeidn CHs CHy | D. — CICH; CHaCH CHy 45. Which of the following compounds have a chirality center? CH3CH)CHCI CH; (CHyCH) OH CH3CH,CHBrCH) CHs CHy a | \B) CHCHsCHCHs Ne>46. Which of the following structures represents tetrahydrofura B O H H 47. Which of the following heterocyclic compounds is a 3 -ring membered compound? D. 1,4—dioxane Aziridine Pyrrolidine Piperidine 48. The end oxidation product in a reaction of an aldehyde with acidic sodium dichromate solution is usually A B Oo an alcohol a ketone an ester a carbox: ic acid 49. Which one of the following compounds will have approximate pKa of 10? A. Xe ° Nii R—C—OH Or OH oO ; ROH3 Ozonolys is an oxidative cleavage reaction that occurs with «& alkanes B. alkenes C. _aleohols / Nb. ethers 51. Whatis the electronic configuration of fluorine( '" F ) 2 A Is °28°2p* ® 1822s? 2p°38°3p! c. 1s72s?2p* D, 1s72s°2p°3s"3p°3d! 52. Which of the following is a property of an adiabatic process in thermodynamics? @ The system is at constant pressure B. The system is thermally isolated C. If the system does work on surroundings the internal energy increases D. Internal energy is equal to the temperature of the system Which functional group absorbs infra-red (IR) radiation at 1690em"! Amide carbonyl group . Phenolic group Primary amine Aromatic (phenyl) ring vibrations 54. Which of the following statements relates to buffer capaci Concentration of the buffer B. pH of the buffer © Resistance of the buffer solution to pH change Relative concentration of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions Which of the given statements best describes radionuclidie purity? J ‘The amount of isotopic activity in a radionuclide @ The proportion of total radioactivity present in the stated nuelidie form VY ie The percentage amount of radioactivity in a pharmaceutical product The proportion of total radioactivity present in the stated chemical form Oy 0Sa All of the following are examples of proteins with the principal functions of transport in the body EXCEPT: A, — Hemoglobin Albumin © Fibrin D. Transferin 37. A polar amino acid from the given list is A. phenylalanine B./ alanine % leucine © glutamic acid wi 58 hich one of the given statements below regarding co-enzymes is false? A. Most co-enzymes have adenine ring joined to D-ribose and inorganic phosphate % Vitamin C forms part of the structure of many co-enzymes C. Chemical changes in the co-enzyme counterbalance those taking place in the substrate D. Many co-enzymes may be regarded as derivatives of AMP 59. Which of the following serum enzymes may be used in the clinical diagnosis of myocardial infarction? Amylase Lipase Creatine phosphokinase y~ glutamyl — transpeptidase SOoxr> 60. Regarding the fate of Acetyl -COA in lipid metabolism, which of the following is FALSE? A, Acetyl- COA is oxidized completely to carbon dioxide and water Acetyl ~COA is a source of carbon atoms in cholesterol C. Acetyl COA in the liver forms aceto-acetate © Acetyl ~ COA may undergo lipogenesis to form amino acids 61. Hyperbilirubinemia may occur for all of the following reasons EXCEPT Due to production of more bilirubin than the normal liver can excrete Due to failure of liver to excrete bilirubin @ When bilirubin levels in blood exceedsImg/100m1 B. c D. Due to obstruction of excretory ducts in the kidney A 2262. Which of the following inherited defects in lipoproteins may lead to hyperlipoproteinemia? A. Familial alpha — lipoprotein deficiency B._/Abetalipoproteinemia CH Tangiers Disease Familial hypercholesterolemia 63. A defect in... enzyme may lead to GOUT ~ a clinical disorder of purine metabolism adenosine deaminase hypoxanthine ~ guanine phosporibosyltransferase C. xanthinuria D. purine nucleoside phosphorylase 64. All the following statements regarding enzyme activity are true EXCEPT A, Heavy metals like Ag’ and Hg” are irreversible non-competitive inhibitors B. For competitive inhibitors at low concentrations those with lowest Ka Values cause the greatest degree of inhibition © A reversible non-competitive inhibitor usually bears no structural resemblance to substrate D. __ Imreversible non-competitive inhibition may be relieved by increase in substrate concentration 65. All the following are nutritional essential fatty acids EXCEPT: AL Linoleic acid B/ a - linolenic acid -* Arachidonic acid ©) Palmitoleic acid 66. All the following are sources of nucleic acids required in recombinant DNA technology EXCEPT: @ Human blood B. Viruses Cc. Bacteria D. Bacterial plasmids as67. The following are gene cloning vectors A. Plasmid B. Bacteriophage Lambda C. Bacteria artificial chromosome © — Cosmid 68, Streptomyces bacteria have been used in biotechnological production of which one of the following drugs gentamycin paracetamol streptomycin morphine 69. Gene therapy is being used for tuberculosis haematopoetic diseases diabetes hepatitis 70. The introduction of new DNA into germ cells by its injection into the nucleus is best termed as hybridization transcription transgenic transfer translation 71. The following is true about the equilibrium constant, K, EXCEPT: 4 ®& _ K isaproduct of activities of reacting species X B. K is a dimensionless quantity C. The magnitude of K depends on the stoichiometry of the reaction D. _ Kis independent of temperature 72. According to Le Chitelier’s Principle; © When the equilibrium of a system perturbed. it shifts to amplify the effect of the change xX B. When the temperature of the equilibrium s; tem is raised this change can be prevented by the system C.— Acatalyst has no effect on the equilibrium position D. The direction of equilibrium position is predictable 13 a 2 /73. The partition coefficient ofa solute’ A. is the same for a substance irrespective of the solvents employed B. varies with temperature applies in same way for dilute and concentrated solutions ©. applies when the solute is dissolved in miscible solvents 74. The assumptions of the langmuir adsorption isotherm include all the following EXCEPT: @. The rate of adsorption is proportional to the flux of gas molecules B. The rate of desorption is proportional to the fraction of occupied sites C. The rate of adsorption is proportional to fraction of vacant site: D. The rate of adsorption has exponential dependence on temperature (1) 75. Ina complexation reaction involving cations and chelating agents all the following occur EXCEPT: © — Achange in the ultra violet (UV) absorption maximum (7, max) ~ B. Change in the potential of the system with addition of chelating agent C. Formation of dative bonds between cation and chelating agent D. The cation can be precipitated from the complex by its usual precipitants 76. Which of the following equations describes second order reaction kinetic.(where A o= initial reactant concentration. At = reactant concentration at time (t)) 7A. InAt=InAg-Kt B. At=Aq -Kt VAt /Ao +Kt @ At=1/A, -Kt 77. The following statements are true about the rate of a chemical reaction EXCEPT: A. / The rate of reaction depends on the stoichiometric equation If the reaction proceeds in the forward direction the rate of reaction is positive C. If the reaction is at equilibrium the rate of reaetion is zero © The rate of reaction does not depend on the rate of change of concentration of reactant or product 1478. The following s true about half life of a reaction EXCEPT: The half life of a second order reaction is proportional to the initial concentration Half life is the time required for half of the reactant to disappear The half life of a first order reaction is independent of the initial concentration Fora first order reaction 12.5% of the substance remains after three half lives 79. ‘The following statements are true abut activation energy of chemical reactions EXCEPT: Activation energy is a barrier reactants must cross to form products At the peak of the activation energy barrier activated complexes are formed The crossing of activation energy barrier by reactants depends on temperature Activation energy is always negative value 80. Which of the following reaction mechanisms explains the incompatibility of tetracycline and antacids? A. Hydrol _/B. Complexion KO Racemization D. Oxidation 81. The ratio of the amount solute (mol) to mass of solvent (kg) is best described by the term A. molarity oe mole fraction molality D. normality 82. Cerium sulphate, Cex(SO,); is an ionic salt with a negative heat of solution; this implies that it will be A Cc © freely soluble at temperatures completely insoluble at all temperatures more soluble at higher temperatures less soluble at higher temperatures 30gas liquid solutions gas-gas solutions gas-solid solutions solid-solid solutions 84. Which one of the following alcohols is least soluble in water? A. Butanol Ethanol © Hexanol D. —_Propanol 85. Which one of the following are miscible? Ethanol and sugar Oil and vinegar Ethanol and water Todine and water 86. The following piocesses are mainly used to improve powder flowability EXCEPT: Alteration of particle size and size distribution (B) Alteration of particle polymorphic form C Alteration of surface forces Alteration of surface particle shape or texture 87. The efficacy of a clinical aerosol is dependent on its drug partic! penetrate the respiratory tract, Which of the following drug p: likely to produce more clinical effect? @ Less than 0.5 um B. 7-9um C. 10-15 pm D. 2-6um ability to ticle sizes are 88. Which of the following excipients is used as a super disintegrant in tablets? Croscarmellose Starch A. B. XE Cellulose D. Calcium phosphate 1689. Which of the following definitions of the common tablet processing problems is true?, Capping ~ Partial or complete separation of the top or bottom erown from the main body of a tablet B. Picking — adhesion of a tablet material to a due wall C. Lamination ~ unequal colour distribution with light or dark areas standing out on an otherwise uniform surface D. — Mottling ~ Separation of a tablet into two or more distinet layers 90. A satisfactory suppository base must meet all of the following criteria EXCEPT A. Should have a narrow melting range /B. Should be inert C. Should dissolve or disintegrate rapidly in the body cavity Should melt below 30°C 91. In flocculated suspensions:~ particles form loose aggregates rate of sedimentation is slow as each particle settles separately a D, a very closely packed sediment is formed suspended material remains suspended for a relatively long time 92. Which equation is used to predict the stability of a drug product at room temperature from experiments at accelerated temperatures? A. Stokes equation B. The Young equation C.— Arthenius equation Michaelis ~ Menten equation 93. The following factors affect the effectiveness of preservative EXCEPT: A/S Concentration pH C.Oil/water partition coefficient ©. Surfactants below critical micelle concentration 94. Dose dumping is a problem associated with one of the following dosage forms:~ A,/ compressed tablets _ B% modified release tablets Chard gelatin capsules D. soft gelatin capsules A 3g95. After peroral administration, drugs are generally best absorbed from the:- A. stomach B. duodenum , £@ ileum Dz rectum 96. ~ 300 p.p.mas a percentage strength is 30% A B. 03% \e 3% D. 0.03% 97. What percentage is produced when 150mg of power is made up to 25g with a diluent? 0.6% B. 6% C. 60% dD. 30% 98. What volume of normal saline (0.9% w/v NaCl) can be made from 4.5%g NaCl? @ smi B. 50m! © 500mI 000m! 99. What amount of digoxin is contained in 100mg of the following powder mixture? Dixogin 100mg Lactose 900mg 100mg B. O.lmg © lomge D. Img Oo > 18 4