APK Head, Neck, Back and Spine (Without Answers)

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Materials For 2021 Physical Therapy

Board Examination
APK HEAD, NECK, BACK AND SPINE MODULE
PLP 2021 PT BOARD REVIEW
1. In a third class lever:

a. None of these
b. The weight arm is longer than the force arm
c. The weight arm and force arm are equal
d. The force arm is longer than the weight arm
2. A muscle of facial expression:

a. Digastric c. masseter
b. Temporalis d. platysma
3. The highest content of elastic fiber is found in the ligament:

a. Posterior longitudinal ligament c. anterior longitudinal ligament
b. Ligamentum flavum d. interspinous ligament
4. This does not describe the 7th rib:

a. Typical rib c. longest rib
b. Has two demifacets on its head d. most oblique rib
5. A shunt muscle:
a. Is exemplified by the biceps and brachialis
b. Generate very little force
c. Will usually have a long lever arm like the brachioradialis
d. Is chiefly rotatory in its effect on moving bone
6. This is a movement in the transverse plane:

a. Circumduction c. abduction
b. Lateral flexion d. external rotation
7. The axis for subtalar abduction and adduction is:

a. Transverse c. oblique
b. Longitudinal d. vertical
8. Muscle power is greatest at approximately % of the maximum load:

a. 20 c. 10
b. 30 d. 40
9. The most superficial muscle in the posterior trunk:

a. Semi-spinalis c. multifidus muscles
b. Longissimus d. rotation and suboccipital muscles
10. Neck side flexion isometric movements is a test for muscles innervated by roots:
a. C3-C4 c. C5-C6
b. C1-C2 d. C4-C5
11. Facets of thoracic spine are oriented in what plane:

a. Frontal c. horizontal
b. Sagittal d. transverse
12. The strongest extensors of the lumbar spine in strengthening up from a forward flexed bending position are
the:
a. Multifidus muscles c. gluteus maximus muscles
b. Hamstring muscles d. latissimus dorsi muscle
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13. Posterior border of the posterior triangle of the neck:

a. Trapezius c. splenius capitis
b. Sternocleidomastoid d. latissimus dorsi
14. Flexion-extension of the thoracic spine totals how much?

a. 30 degrees c. 15 degrees
b. 60 degrees d. 40 degrees
15. The bandage muscle, wrapping around other neck muscles:

a. Sternocleidomastoid c. splenius
b. Trapezius d. serratus anterior
16. The swaying of the arms when walking occurs around this axis:
a. Anteroposterior/horizontal c. sagittal
b. Vertical d. frontal
17. The superficial group of the muscles of the back includes:

a. Serratus posterior c. longissimus
b. Levator scapulae d. splenius capitis
18. Expulsive form of cough requires which of the following muscle to contract most forcefully:
a. Sternocleidomastoid c. diaphragm
b. Abdominals d. scalene
19. In lowering yourself to a chair from standing to sitting, the quadriceps are doing:
a. Isometric contraction c. positive work
b. Eccentric contraction d. concentric contraction
20. The plane of progression during ambulation:

a. The horizontal plane c. the sagittal plane
b. The frontal plane d. the vertical plane
21. A facet oriented in the sagittal plane allows what motion?

a. Gliding
b. Flexion-extension
c. lateral flexion
d. rotation
22. Point at the root of the nose where the frontonasal suture crosses the median plane:
a. Nasion c. lambda
b. Nasal septum d. bregma
23. If the motor root of the trigeminal nerve is injured, paralysis occurs in:
a. Buccinator c. tensor tympani
b. All of these d. posterior belly of digastric muscles
24. Intervertebral discs are located between vertebral bodies from:

a. C1 to S1 c. C2 to L5
b. C1 to L5 d. C2 to S1
25. The external jugular vein is found at the:

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a. Submandibular triangle c. anterior triangle of the neck

b. Posterior triangle of the neck d. carotid triangle
26. The following statements are true of the Closed Kinematic Chain, EXCEPT:
a. Stair climbing is an alternating closed-chain motion during the support phase of the extremity
b. The distal segment of the chain move sin space
c. All segments are required to move in the movement of one segment
d. The distal segment is fixed and proximal parts move
27. When applied, third class lever, the most common found in the human body can be:
a. All of these
b. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage
c. Levers that operate at a mechanical disadvantage but one of speed
d. Levers of stability and speed
28. Rotation around the vertical axis occur in this plane, and divides the body into upper and lower parts:
a. Horizontal plane c. None of these
b. Sagittal plane d. Frontal plane
29. Nerve supply to sternocleidomastoid:

a. Dorsal occipital nerve c. Greater occipital nerve
b. Lesser occipital nerve d. Spinal accessory nerve
30. Muscles achieve its greatest strength when muscles contract in the elongated position, and as the muscles
shorten, torque decreased:
a. First statement is true, second is false c. Both statement are false
b. First statement is false, second statement is true d. Both statements are true
31. When a muscle contracts to eliminate some undesired movement that would otherwise be produced by the
prime mover, it is said to be a
a. Antagonist c. Synergist
b. Prime Mover d. Fixators
32. The line of fusion between the External Oblique is called:

a. Linea Alba c. None of these
b. Inguinal Ligament of Poupart d. Aponeurosis
33. This muscle is innervated by the facial nerve:

a. Risorius c. Frontalis
b. Masseter d. Mentalis
34. By placing the finger just under the zygomatic arch and over the ramus of the mandible, the superficial part
of this muscle may be palpated when the subject bites down:
a. Medial Pterygoid c. Temporalis
b. Masseter d. None of these
35. The innermost muscle of the abdominal wall and encloses the abdominal cavity like a corset:
a. External Abdominal Oblique c. Internal Abdominal Oblique
b. Transverse Abdominis d. Rectus Abdominis
36. Which of the following muscles are innervated by the fifth cranial nerve and close the jaw:
a. Medial pterygoid c. Temporalis
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b. All of these d. Masseter
37. The posterior triangle of the neck is bounded by:

a. The Scalenes, Levator Scapulae, and Splenius c. None of these
b. Splenius Capitis, Sternohyoid and clavicle d. The sternomastoid, anterior border of Trapezius, and
the clavicle
38. When all the body parts move in the same direction with equal velocity, the movement is termed as:
a. Translatory Motion c. Parallel Motion
b. Rotary Motion d. Angular Motion
39. This muscle draws the mandible forward and toward the midline:
a. Pterygoid c. Masseter
b. Temporalis d. Orbicularis oris
40. The first to seventh ribs attached to sternum, the 8th to 10th ribs are joined by cartilage; 11th and 12th ribs
have free ends:
a. All statements are true
b. All statements are false
c. Last statement is true, first two statements are false
d. First two statements are true, last statement is false
41. This structures pass through transverse foramen:

a. Spinal column arteries c. Cervical nerve plexus
b. None of these d. Vertebral arteries
42. Motor nerve to the muscles of mastication:

a. Facial nerve c. Spinal accessory nerve
b. Trigeminal nerve d. Vagus nerve
43. In an open-packed or loose packed position, EXCEPT:

a. The ligamentous and capsular structures are slack
b. The ovoid joint surfaces are incongruent
c. Allows spinning, rolling and sliding, thereby increasing joint friction
d. Joint surfaces may be distracted several millimeters
44. This type of joint is formed by the talus and tibia:

a. Pivot c. Hinge
b. Saddle d. Ball and Socket
45. These muscles separate the neck into the posterior and anterior triangle. It is also protects the great
vascular and nerve trunks:
a. Sternocleidomastoid c. Levator Scapulae
b. Sternothyroid d. Scalenes
46. The height of this specific vertebrae may be used to determine the corresponding landmark:
a. All of these
b. T10 body - tip of the xiphoid process
c. S2 - height of posterior superior iliac spines
d. L4 spinous process - level with the highest portion of the crest of the ilium
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47. This opening is a triangular-shaped defect in the external oblique aponeurosis that lies above and medial
to the public tubercle:
a. Cremasteric Ring c. Femoral Ring
b. Superficial Inguinal Ring d. External Spermatic Fascia
48. The following extraocular muscles are supplied by cranial nerve III, EXCEPT:
a. Inferior rectus c. Superior rectus
b. Inferior oblique d. Superior oblique
49. This muscle can be palpated by placing the fingers over the temporal fossa. This muscle contracts as the
subject bites down:
a. Temporalis c. Medial Pterygoid
b. None of these d. Masseter
50. As the Brachialis extends a flexed elbow by slowing the movement of extension which is performed by
gravity, this muscle acts as a:
a. Fixators c. Antagonist
b. Prime mover d. Synergist
51. Flexion and extension occurs in this plane, and divides the body into right and left sides:
a. Frontal Plane c. Sagittal Plane
b. Horizontal Plane d. None of these
52. The following structure is a modified skin that lines not only the inner surfaces of the lids but also reflected
on to the eyeball:
a. Lacrimal c. Conjunctiva
b. Tarsal Gland d. Canaliculus
53. This ligament of the vertebral column is a series of 23 intersegmental ligaments that connect the lamina of
two adjacent vertebrae from C-2 to the sacrum:
a. Supraspinous ligament c. Ligamentum flavum
b. Intertransverse ligament d. Interspinous ligament
54. The thoracolumbar fascia provides humans the ability to lift heavy weights overhead; it also stabilizes the
trunk for throwing objects with high velocities:
a. Both statements are false c. First statement is true, second statement is
false
b. Both statements are true d. First statement is false, second statement is
true
55. This specialized joint of the craniovertebral area are formed by one centrally located articulation and two
facet whose axis of motion is vertical through the dens, accounting for 50 % of rotation in the cervical area:
a. None of these c. Cervical vertebral articulation
b. Atlanto-occipital joint d. Atlanto-axial joint
56. In this class of lever, force is applied at one end of the lever arm; the weight to be moved is at the other,
and the fulcrum is at some point intermediate between the two, as exemplified by a see-saw:
a. Second class lever c. None of these
b. First class lever d. Third class lever
57. Which of the following conditions differentiate isometric from isotonic contraction:
a. Isotonic contraction requires a greater amount of energy
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b. Isotonic contraction is likely to last longer since a load is moved

c. Isometric contraction does not require much sliding or myofibrils
d. All of these
58. When applied, first class levers can be:

a. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage
b. Levers that operate at a mechanical disadvantage but one of speed
c. All of these
d. Levers of stability and speed
59. Characteristic of isometric contraction:

a. All of these c. Change in muscle tension
b. Performs work d. Change in muscle length
60. If two forces are pulling from the same point:

a. The resultant force reaches a maximum when the forces are on the same line and acting in opposite
direction
b. The resultant force is the sum of the two forces
c. The resultant force is the diagonal of the parallelogram
d. The resultant force increase as the angle between the two forces decreases
61. A synovial joint possess which distinguishing feature/s:

a. A potential cavity
b. A capsule of fibrous tissue line with synovial membrane
c. A lubricated articular cartilage
d. All of these
62. Functional of ligaments include:

a. Protect or hold in position some more important structure usually a nerve
b. Prohibits movements in undesired plane
c. All of these
d. Limit the range or extent of normal movement
63. Unilateral contraction of this muscle combines rotation of the head to the opposite side, lateral flexion to
the same side, and head and cervical vertebrae extension:
a. Scalenes c. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Erector Spinae d. Longus Capitis and Longus Colli
64. Synovial joints have the most complex structure and permit maximus mobility, and include:
a. All of these c. Joint capsule e. Synovial membrane and cavity
b. None of these d. Articular cartilage
65. The following statements apply to the scalene muscles, EXCEPT:

a. Extends the cervical spine with bilateral contraction
b. Produce lateral flexion and rotation to the same side with unilateral contraction
c. Increases cervical lordotic curve with bilateral contraction in the absence of longus colli
d. Elevate the first and second ribs when the cervical spine is stabilized
66. This ligament of the vertebral bodies limits backward bending, and supports the anterior convexity in the
lumbosacral area.
a. Lateral longitudinal ligament
b. Medial longitudinal ligament
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c. Anterior longitudinal ligament

d. Posterior longitudinal ligament
67. Example of syndesmosis:

a. Tarsals articulating with each other c. Talus articulating with calcaneus bone
b. Tibia articulating with fibula in the ankle d. Fibula articulating with tibia in the knee
68. Two forces whose points of application occur on opposite sides of an axis and in opposite direction to
produce rotation of the body:
a. Isometric Torque c. Force couple
b. Antagonists d. Isokinetic Torque
69. The muscle mastication:

a. Temporalis, Masseter, Medial Pterygoid and Lateral Pterygoid
b. Lateral Pterygoid, Medial Pterygoid, Stylohyoid and Mylohyoids
c. None of these
d. Temporalis, Masseter, Mylohyoid and Digastrics
70. A fibrous type of joint that tightly connects the articular surfaces of two bones but permits minimal
movement:
a. Syndesmosis c. None of these e. Sutures
b. Cartilaginous d. Synovial
71. This type of contraction stabilizes joints and produces force with no gross change in the joint angle:
a. Eccentric c. Isometric
b. Concentric d. Isokinetic
72. When muscle contracts to operate and so regulate the speed and power of another prime mover its is said
to be a:
a. Prime mover c. Synergist
b. Antagonist d. Fixators
73. Which of the following is true of the Atlanto-Occipital joints:

a. All of these
b. The interior and posterior aches of the atlas are united to the margins of the foreman magnum
c. These are uni axial, synovial paired joints
d. Nodding or “Yes” movement occur in this joint
74. This type of muscle has a great stabilizing component:

a. Spurt d. Shunt
b. Isotonic e. Concentric
c. Isometric
75. Waddell’s nonorganic signs assess a patient’s pain behavior in response to certain maneuvers. Which of
the following signs indicate a positive simulation test?
a. Cogwheeling of many muscle groups that cannot be explained on a neurological basis
b. Marked improvement of straight leg raising of distraction as compared with formal testing
c. Back pain is reported with the first 30 degrees when the pelvis and shoulders are passively rotated in the
same plane as the patient stands
d. Deep tenderness left over a wide area, not localized to one structure
e. Disproportionate verbalization, facial expression, muscle tension and tremor
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76. The McKenzie system is a commonly used method of examining and treating patients who have low back
pain. McKenzie has defined the following, EXCEPT:
a. The lateral shift is considered to be clinically relevant when a single-glide test does not alter the location or
intensity of the pain reported by the patient
b. If the lateral shift is determined to be clinically relevant, then the lateral shift must be corrected prior to the
use of other treatment procedures or the symptoms may worsen
c. The progress of lateral shifts is determined during the postural examination
d. The use of a two-step procedure is used to determine when clinically relevant lateral shift are present
e. A lateral shift is a lateral displacement of the patient’s trunk in relation to the pelvis
77. The following statements characterize flexion in the lumbar spine, EXCEPT:
a. Flexion in the low back produces kyphosis
b. Involves relaxation of the anterior longitudinal ligament and stretching of the supraspinal and interspinal
ligaments the ligamentum flavum and the posterior longitudinal
c. To test, the subject bends as far forward as he can with knees straight, and try to touch the toes
d. There is no reversal of the normal lordosis during flexion, the low back merely flattens out
e. Limited by the size of the vertebral bodies
78. Forward bending is a complex movement of combined lumbar and hip motion, and many of the tasks that
occur during everyday activities require trunk flexion. The following statements apply to this movement, EXCEPT:
a. Stretching short hamstring may affect lumbar motion during forward bending
b. Excessive lumbar motion decreases tensile loads on the spine
c. Short hamstring muscles, because of their attachment to the posterior leg and to the ischial tuberosity, may
limit hip flexion ROM
d. LBP could result from excessive lumbar motion due to their influence on lumbopelvic rhythm during forward
bending
e. Restricted hip motion is coupled with excessive lumbar motion
79. The only two muscles inserted into the back part of the sclera:
a. Superior Oblique and Inferior Oblique
b. Superior Rectus and Medial Rectus
c. None of these
d. Lateral Rectus and Inferior Rectus
80. In getting a laminectomy patient out of bed, the following procedures are observed, EXCEPT:
a. Raise herself to a standing position by pushing against the bed with her palm, reminding to keep the back
straight and to look straight ahead
b. The incision site need not be splinted
c. Help lower herself slowly into a chair, keeping the back straight; make sure the knees are elevated to hip
level or slightly higher to avoid stress on the lumbar spine
d. Raise the head of the bed to low Fowler’s position.
e. Raise herself into sitting position by pushing against the mattress with her upper hand as she swings her
legs over the side of the head
81. This anatomical area involves the highest percentage of symptoms among physical therapists reporting
musculoskeletal symptoms:
a. Wrist/hands d. Low back
b. Neck e. Upper back
c. Shoulders
82. In root compression syndrome, the following statements are true, EXCEPT:
a. Paresthesia are common and are usually experienced distally, in the hand or foot
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b. Stretch reflexes whose arcs are largely or entirely incorporated in the involved root will be exaggerated
c. Pain in the segment distribution of a root is the hallmark of these syndrome
d. Weakness and atrophy in the corresponding myotomal distribution result from prolonged or severe root
compression
e. Findings to confirm the syndrome are those which relate spinal movement to the radiating pain
83. When applied, second class levers can be:

a. Levers that operate at a mechanical disadvantage but one of speed
b. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage
c. Levers of stability and speed
d. All of these
84. A frame of reference for balance and head control that gives information about body position with respect
to the environment:
a. Geosynchronous d. Exocentric
b. Egocentric e. proprioceptive
c. Ecocentric
85. The following statements are true of laminectomy, EXCEPT:

a. Involved a surgical removal of a portion of the lamina
b. Spinal fusion may be performed along with laminectomy for additional vertebral stability.
c. The protruding disc fragments are removed to relieve pressure on the nerve root.
d. Spinal fusion can only be performed in laminectomy.
e. In laminectomy with spinal fusion, the spine is reinforced by using bone chips or inserting a metallic rod,
screw or plate.
86. A dome shaped bump that lies in the occipital region on the midline and marks the center of the superior
nuchal line:
a. Lanula d. Cricoid ring
b. None of these e. Inion
c. Cricoid tubercle
87. The following statements characterize extension in the lumbar spine, EXCEPT:
a. To test, the subject is instructed to bend backward as far as he can, using the examiner’s hand on the
posterior superior iliac spine as fulcrum
b. Increase in lumbar lordosis is resisted by the rectus abdominis muscles
c. Stretches the anterior longitudinal ligament and relaxes the posterior ligaments
d. When testing extension, the examiner must not assist the subject manually by pushing gently on his chest
e. Motored by the intrinsic muscles of the back
88. The following relationships are true of the low back, EXCEPT:
a. Lumbar lordosis I unrelated of hip and trunk flexibilities
b. Longer abdominal muscles and shorter erector spinae muscles are associated with an increased lumbar
curve
c. Individuals with exaggerated lumbar curvature while standing tend to have short hamstrings, rotating the
pelvis posteriorly, resulting in concurrent reduction of lumbar lordosis
d. There is no correlation among hip extension ROM, standing pelvic tilt, standing lumbar lordosis and
abdominal muscle performance variables
e. The length of the hamstring muscles are negatively related to the lumbar curve
89. Type of contraction when the muscle shortens but the tension remains constant:
a. Isometric c. Isotonic
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b. None of these d. Isokinetic
90. The perpendicular distance from the pivot point to the line of action of the weight is called the:
a. Lever Arm c. Force Arm
b. Mechanical Advantage d. Weight Arm
91. A combination of the four primary movements in which flexion, abduction, extension and adduction succeed
one another:
a. Circumduction
b. Lateral rotation in the horizontal or transverse plane
c. Medial rotation on the coronal plane
d. Adduction in the coronal or frontal plane
92. The following statements are true of herniated disc, EXCEPT:

a. The most common areas of disc herniation are the L4 to L5 and L5 to S1 interfaces
b. Only about 5% of disc herniation occur in the cervical area
c. It is caused by strain, degenerative joint disease, or trauma which may force all of part of the nucleus
pulposus through the disc’s weakened of torn outer ring
d. Disc herniation does not cause loss of sensation of motor function in the area innervated by the compressed
nerve root
e. Symptoms include low back pain, sometimes accompanied by muscle spasms which may radiate to the
buttocks, legs and feet
93. Which eye muscles are contracting when the subject is looking downward and to the left:
a. Left superior rectus and right inferior oblique
b. Right inferior rectus and left superior oblique
c. Right superior rectus and left inferior oblique
d. Left inferior rectus and right superior oblique
94. Decrease in lumbar lordosis results in:

a. Downward tilt of pelvis
b. Forward tilt of pelvis
c. Backward tilt of pelvis
d. No change in pelvic tilt
95. Repeated use of body mechanics is a major cause of back injuries. Some of the common mistakes include
the following, EXCEPT:
a. Insufficient strength
b. Handling the load too far
c. Using fast but not jerking motion
d. Lifting with the back bent forward and the legs straight
e. Bending and twisting at the same time
96. Action of the External Abdominal Oblique:

a. Unilateral contraction causes side bending and trunk rotation with the opposite shoulder
b. Both of these
c. Unilateral contraction causes trunk rotation to the opposite side and side bending to the same side
d. None of these
97. Arthrokinematically, these types of motions can occur between two surfaces on joint movement:
a. All of these c. Spinning
b. Sliding or Gliding d. Rolling or Rocking
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98. When the sum of forces acting on the body is balanced, it is said to be in a state of:
a. Terminal velocity c. Equilibrium
b. Inertia d. Forced Vector
99. The following statements describe Romberg test, EXCEPT:

a. The subject stands erect, with feet approximated, looking straight ahead
b. Vision, if defective, substitutes substantially for deficits in posterior column and peripheral nerve function
c. Assesses the ability to maintain upright posture while standing on only one leg
d. When inability to balance well is based on cerebellar disease, vision is less able to correct for the difficulty
in maintaining posture and the subject will sway with eyes opened or closed
e. Deviation or loss of balance is toward the side of a unilateral lesion of the cerebellum
100. Signs of meningeal irritation include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Kernig sign is elicited when stretching of the lumbar roots consequent to extension of the leg on the thigh
produces painful limitation of this movement
b. The best sign is a demonstration of stiffness of the neck on flexion, usually accompanied by fever
c. In severe meningitis, there may even be a rigid hyper-extension of the neck and back, but generally, it does
not limit lateral rotation of the neck
d. Probably based on a heightened sensitivity of irritated sensory roots to stretching
e. Brudzinski sign is absent when flexion of the knees follows as attempt to flex the neck
101. The following are muscles of mastication, EXCEPT:

a. Medial and lateral pterygoid
b. Masseter
c. Temporalis
d. Orbicularis oris
102. The act of inspiration increases the capacity of the thoracic cage in which principal direction:
a. Increase in the transverse diameter due to the ribs swinging outwards
b. Increase in the anteroposterior diameter by the sternal body which is hinged at the sternal angle, swinging
forwards
c. Increase in vertical diameter due to the descent and flattening of the dome of the diaphragm
d. All of these movements
103. Abduction and adduction occurs in this plane, and divided the body into front and back.
a. Sagittal Plane c. None of these
b. Horizontal plane d. Frontal plane
104. Ligament and capsular structures work as a system, interdependent and related to one another. Functional
stability is provided by the following factors, EXCEPT:
a. Joint geometry
b. Active restraints generated by the muscles
c. Passive restraints of the ligaments
d. Passive restraints by muscles
e. Joint compressive forces that occur with activity and force the joint together
105. The following may be observed upon examination of the patient’s lumbar spine, EXCEPT:
a. Soft, doughy lipomata appearing as lumps in the area of the low back may be a sign of spina bifida
b. Any reddened dislocation may indicate infection, and skin markings may denote underlying neurologic or
bone pathology.
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c. Pedunculated tumors indicate the presence of neurofibromatosis and are often accompanied by café-u-lait
spots which may impinge upon the spinal cord and nerve roots
d. An unusual patch of hair on the back may be evidence of some body defect in the spine such as a congenital
bony bar
e. Gibbus deformity may bone present secondary to a herniated disc
106. The forces at the pelvis in bilateral stance is an example of:

a. Second Class Lever c. First Class Lever
b. Fourth Class Lever d. Third Class Lever
107. Following are example of Force Couple, EXCEPT:

a. Abduction at the glenohumeral joint from the deltoid and supraspinatus contracting together
b. None of these
c. Abduction and upward rotation of the scapula from the combined forces of the trapezius, serratus anterior
d. All of these
108. The upper extremity is attached to the trunk only at this joint:
a. Glenohumeral c. Acromio clavicular
b. Sternoclavicular d. Scapulothoracic
109. A patient has been admitted to your hospital with severe lower back pain. The patient will be placed in a
pelvic belt for intermittent traction. The following applies to proper pelvic belt application, EXCEPT:
a. Although pelvic traction may be applied directly on the skin, it may also be applied over clothing made of
cotton (for better traction) and wrinkle-free (to avoid excessive pressure on the skin)
b. The patient may be placed in Williams position with hips flexed 300 and knees flexed 300 as part of daily
care
c. The straps must be parallel to each other and to the patient’s thighs when attached to the traction cords
d. The free ends of the belt are wrapped around the hip bone so the iliac crests are covered
110. The height of a specific vertebrae may be used to determine the following landmarks, EXCEPT:
a. C3-level with hyoid bone
b. T4-height of the manubrium and body of sternum
c. C4 and C5-level with thyroid cartilage
d. All of these
111. Upon inspection of the lumbar spine from the side, which of the following observations is not TRUE?
a. If the spine exhibits an exaggerated curve, the anterior abdominal muscles may be weaken
b. Increased lumbar lordosis may also be caused by a fixed flexion deformity of the hip
c. An absence of the normal lordosis may suggest paravertebral muscle spasms
d. Pelvis obliquity is evident when the two dimples overlying the posterior iliac spine directly above the
buttocks lie along the same horizontal plane
e. Excessive lordosis occasionally substitutes for true hip extension
112. At the atlanto-occipital joint, the head is balanced by the pull of neck extensor muscles. This is an example
of:
a. First Class Lever c. Third Class Lever
b. Second Class Lever d. Fourth Class Lever
113. An example of a synovial pivot joint:

a. Glenohumeral joint
b. Juncture between the thumb’s metacarpal bone and the wrist’s trapezium
c. Joint between the atlas and axis
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d. Juncture between the radius and carpal bone of the wrist
114. Which of the following is NOT true of the Temporomandibular joint:

a. The center of this movement is near the midpoint of the ramus and not at the joint
b. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence
c. As the mouth is opened, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the ankle moves backwards
d. The joint can be felt and its movement appreciated by the palpating finger.
115. When a muscle is the principal agent in producing a desired movement, it is said to be a:
a. Antagonist
b. Fixators
c. Prime mover
d. Synergist
116. The spinous process of the following vertebrae lie above and below the interspace and since they do not
overlap each other and mark the actual levels of the vertebral bodies, they make excellent reference points from
which to identify other vertebrae:
a. L4 and S1 c. L3 and L4
b. L4 and L5 d. S1 and S2
117. Learning the trunk forward when standing from a sitting position is better accomplished because:
a. Forward shifting of the line of gravity c. Center of gravity is shifted forward
b. Increased posterior torque d. Increased base of support
118. The shape of articulating surfaces of bi-axial joints are either

a. Plane or saddle d. hinge or pivot
b. Condyloid or ellipsoid e. ball and socket
c. Pivot or condyloid
119. When force is applied at a site intermediate between the fulcrum and the weight to be moved, this lever
a. Does not exist d. can not be moved
b. Is a first class lever e. is a third class lever
c. Is a second class lever
120. A frame of reference for balance and head control that provides spatial coordinates for limb and body-
segment positions:
a. Exocentric d. Egocentric
b. Proprioceptive e. geocentric
c. Gravitational
121. Feedback information about the kinematic or kinetic components of the movement being attempted by the
patient.
a. Result Oriented d. Knowledge of Results
b. Knowledge of Performance e. Performance Oriented
c. Knowledge of Function
122. As gliding occurs, the “No” movement takes place on the surface of these joints that are nearly flat and
circular.
a. Axial d. axial-occipital
b. Atlanto-occipital e. occipital
c. Atlanto-axial
14
123. When a muscle contracts to eliminate some undesired movement that would otherwise be produced by the
prime mover, it is said to be a/an
a. Primer mover d. coordinator
b. Fixators e. synergist
c. Antagonist
124. The following statements are true of straight leg raising test, EXCEPT:
a. The normal angle between the table and the leg measures approximately 80 degrees
b. At the point where the patient experiences pain, lower the leg slightly and then dorsiflex the foot – if the
there is no pain, the pain induced is probably due to the sciatic nerve
c. Designed to reproduce back and leg pain
d. If there is a positive reaction to the straight leg raising test and the foot dorsiflexion maneuver, the pain may
be either in the lumbar spine or along the course of the sciatic nerve
e. The foot is lifted upward supporting the calcaneus, and with the knee remaining straight, raise the leg to
the point of discomfort or pain
125. The following apply to Distraction, EXCEPT:

a. Relieves pain in the cervical spine by decreasing pressure on the joint capsule around the facet joint
b. May help alleviate muscle spasm by relaxing the contracted muscle
c. The test faithfully reproduce pain referred to the upper extremity from the cervical spine
d. The test demonstrates the effect that neck traction might have in relieving pain
e. Relieves pain due to a narrowing of the neural foramen by widening the foramen
126. This type of contraction occurs when muscular tension equals the opposing force
a. Relaxed d. concentric
b. Isometric e. eccentric
c. Isotonic
127. If a 40 kilogram force is applied over an area of four square centimeters, the pressure (in kilograms per
square centimeter) is equal to
a. 20 d. 160
b. 5 e. 80
c. 10
128. In an open-packed or loose packed position?

a. The ligamentous and capsular structures are slack
b. Increased joint friction allow spinning and sliding
c. Joint surface may be distracted several millimeters
d. The ovoid joint surfaces are incongruent
e. Allows spinning, rolling, and sliding, thereby decreasing joint friction.
129. The following statements describe Closed Kinematic Chain, EXCEPT:

a. The distal segment is fixed and proximal parts move
b. The distal segment of the chain moves in space.
c. Stair climbing is an alternation closed-chain motion during the support phase of the extremity
d. Occurs in the upper extremity when performing chip up.
e. All segments are required to move in the movement of one segment
130. An example of this class of level is at the atlanto-occipital joint, where the head is balanced by the peel of
neck extensor muscles
a. Second d. first
b. Fourth e. third
15
c. Fifth
131. The combined action of these muscles is vertebral extension, are continuous from the sacrum to the
occiput:
a. None of these c. Transversopinal
b. Erector Spinae or Sacrospinalis d. Quadratus Lumborum
132. In one leg standing, the gluteus medius of the supporting leg is performing:
a. Isometric contraction c. Eccentric contraction
b. Positive work d. No work
133. The kinetic variable that reflects the rate of work performed at a given point.
a. Torque d. Energy
b. Velocity e. Power
c. Strength
134. Dividing the body into right and left, flexion and extension occurs in this plane.
a. Transagittal d. Transverse
b. Horizontal e. Frontal
c. Sagittal
135. Craniosacral therapists asses these aspects of craniosacral motion, EXCEPT:

a. Symmetry, whether both sides of the skull demonstrate equal amplitude and rate
b. Rate, the number of cycles of flexion per minute
c. Quantity, whether the rate and corresponding amplitude is of a reasonable number
d. Quantity, whether the motion is smooth or uneven
e. Amplitude, the magnitude of excursion of flexion and extension
136. Stabilize joints and produces force with no gross change in the joint angle:
a. Concentric d. Isokinetic
b. Isometric e. Eccentric
c. Isotonic
137. The following statements characterize the Atlanto-Axial joints, EXCEPT:

a. A pair of alar ligaments serves to limit the rotation of the head
b. The atlas and axis are united by three joints, two paired and one medially placed
c. The gliding movement occurs on the axis
d. The paired lateral atlanto-axial joints are plane joints and lie directly below the paired atlanto-occipital joints
e. When the “no” movement occurs, the atlas and axis move on the skull as a unit and the median atlanto-
axial joint rotates in a collar formed by the anterior arch of the atlas and the transverse ligament
138. An upper limb tension test is considered positive if the following are present, EXCEPT:
a. The patient’s responses are different from what is expected for asymptomatic subjects
b. It reproduces the patient’s symptoms
c. There is tissue resistance or a decrease in the ROM on one side of the body as compared with the other
d. The test responses can be altered by a sensitizing maneuver that provokes an increase in symptoms
e. The symptoms are aggravated by movements that are generally towards from the site of restriction or
symptoms
139. In closed-packed position:

a. Ligament attachments are farthest apart and under tension
b. All of these
16
c. The joint difficult to distract and mechanically compressed

d. Maximum surface contact occurs.
140. The state when the sum of forces acting on the body is balanced
a. Terminal velocity d. Gravity minimized
b. Inertia e. Equilibrium
c. Force Vector
141. Cervical root compression syndromes are illustrated by the following, EXCEPT:
a. There is localized paraspinal pain and tenderness which may precede extreme pain and which indicates a
focus of disease proximal to the shoulder joint
b. Usually involves one of the three lower cervical roots, C6, C7, or C8
c. Gentle manipulation of the neck reproduces pain felt below the elbow, and duplicates paresthesia in the
hand
d. If moderate pressure over the spine enhances pain felt the extremity impingement may be from other source
e. Often, neck movements are restricted
142. Frowning muscle:

a. Procerus c. Frontalis
b. Nasalis d. Corrugator supercilli
143. Body parts moving in the same direction with equal velocity:
a. Transfer d. Translatory
b. Parallel e. Angular
c. Rotary
144. The posterior triangle of the neck is bounder by the following structures:
a. The Scalene, Levator Scapulae, and Splenius
b. Trapezius, Sternohyoid and Clavicle
c. Sternocleidomastoid, anterior border of Trapezius, and the clavicle
d. Splenius, Capitis, Sternohyoid, and clavicle
e. Omohyoid, Sternocleidomastoid and Levator Scapulae
145. Craniosacral therapy is a relatively new evaluation and treatment approach and assumes the presence of
craniosacral motion to be as follows, EXCEPT:
a. An inherent rhythmical motion in human and animals different from any other rhythm in the body
b. Restricted craniosacral motion and presence of pathology in the body can guide corrective treatment to
produce improvements in pain and dysfunction
c. It is a physiological motion because it is unconscious and voluntary
d. It is unstable and fluctuates in response to exercise, emotion and rest
e. It is claimed to changed in response to trauma, autism or learning disability
146. When a muscle is the principal agent in producing a desired movement, it is said to be a/an:
a. Antagonist d. Postural muscle
b. Synergist e. Fixators
c. Prime mover
147. This muscle separates the neck into the posterior and anterior triangle and protects the great vascular and
nerve trunks:
a. Sternohyoid d. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Scalenus anterior e. Omohyoid
c. Sternothyroid
17
148. In this class of lever, force is applied at one end of the lever arm, the weight to be moved is at the other
end the fulcrum is at some point intermediate between the two:
a. First d. Third
b. Second e. Fourth
c. None of these
149. The line of fusion between the External Oblique is the:

a. Lines alba d. falx inguinalis
b. Aponeurosis e. transverses abdominis
c. Inguinal ligament (of Poupart)
150. The following are differences between closed (CKC) and open kinematic (CKC) chain exercises, EXCEPT:
a. OKC are typically non-weight bearing, with movement occurring at a single joint
b. In CKC, movement at several joints is required to complete the movement
c. CKC are typically weight bearing, an example would be a knee extension exercise, performed in a sitting
position with resistance applied to the distal segment
d. In CKC, the distal segment is usually fixed to a supporting surface, and the resistance may be applied both
proximally and distally.
e. In OKC, the distal segment is free to move, and the resistance is usually applied to the distal segment
151. The most powerful protractor of the scapula, its paralysis results in “winged” scapula:
a. Levator Scapulae d. Serratus Anterior
b. Pectoralis Minor e. Middle Trapezius
c. Rhomboids
152. The surfaces of this joint are nearly flat and circular. Gliding movement occur, the one that shakes the head
“No” movement:
a. Axial-Occipital joints c. Atlanto-Axial joints
b. Atlanto-occipital joint d. none of these
153. While there are eight nerves that exit the cervical spine, there are only seven cervical vertebrae. Where
does the first thoracic nerve exit?
a. Above the second thoracic vertebra d. Below the first thoracic vertebra
b. Below the second thoracic vertebra e. Below the seventh cervical vertebra
c. Above the first thoracic vertebra
154. This class of lever is found in most open-chain motion of the extremities, e.g. the deltoid acting on the
glenohumeral joint:
a. Third d. See-saw
b. Second e. First
c. Fourth
155. In this class of lever, the force is applied at a site intermediate between the fulcrum and the weight to be
moved:
a. Third class lever c. Second class lever
b. None of these d. First class lever
156. The relationship of vertebral levels to cord segments end to spinal roots are as follows:
a. In infancy, the tip of the spinal cord is at about the L4-L5 level but it ascends to the L2-L3 level in maturity
b. There are eight cervical cord segments and root pairs but only 7 vertebrae
18
c. The C8 root exits below the C7 vertebra, and from there down numbered roots leave below the
correspondingly numbered vertebrae
d. In the cervical region, the cord segments approximate the corresponding numbered vertebrae, and the
roots leave the cord at nearly a right angle
e. The C1 root has no sensory component
157. Ligaments function as follows, EXCEPT:

a. Protect or hold in position some more important structure, usually a nerve
b. When movements in a normal plane is gradually brought to a halt, the ligaments concerned at once become
tensed as the movements proceeds
c. Prohibits movement in undesired plane
d. When abnormal movements are altogether prohibited the ligaments responsible at once are tensed and
often violently
e. Limit the range or extent of normal movement
158. Soft tissue palpation of the lumbar spine may present the following observation, EXCEPT:
a. Activity flexing the hip when there is psoas abscess results in increased pain in the inguinal area indicating
hip joint pathology
b. The sacral triangle is a common area of pain due to low back strains or the avulsion of a tendon from the
anterior iliac spines.
c. Fibro fatty nodules that may be lodged under the lip of the iliac crest’s posterior portion may be tender to
palpation and cause localized low back pain
d. With the hip flexed, the sciatic nerve may be palpated midpoint between the ischial tuberosity and the
greater tubercle and can be tender to palpation when a herniated disc is present
e. If either the supraspinous or interspinous ligaments are ruptured, the area may be tender and a defeat may
be palpable between the spinous processes.
159. The most appropriate position to test the strength of a patient’s middle trapezius is
a. Sitting unsupported d. sitting supported
b. Prone e. side lying
c. Supine
160. When applied, second class levers can be levers

a. Of stability and speed
b. That work at a mechanical advantage
c. That operate at a mechanical disadvantage but on of speed.
d. That operate a mechanical disadvantage but one of stability
e. Of stability only.
161. A combination of the four primary movements in which each succeed one another.
a. Lateral rotation in the horizontal or transverse plane
b. Rotation in the sagittal plane
c. Adduction in the coronal or frontal plane
d. Circumduction
e. Medial rotation in the coronal plane
162. Which of the following statements is true of the Levator Palpebrae Superioris?
a. None of these
b. It is the highest muscles of the orbital cavity which raises the upper eyelid
c. All of these
19
d. The margins of the muscle in front are fixed to the medial and lateral sides of the orbital cavity to safeguard
against the muscle pulling the upper lid into the orbital cavity.
163. This structure is a modified skin that lines not only the inner surfaces of the lids but is also reflected on to
the eyeball.
a. Cones d. Lacrima
b. Canaliculus e. Conjunctiva
c. Tarsal Gland
164. The muscles of mastication are composed of the following, EXCEPT:

a. Temporalis d. Lateral Pterygoid
b. Digastric e. Masseter
c. Medial pterygoid
165. Muscles which contract statically to support some pain of the body against the pull of contacting muscles
are called:
a. Fixators d. neutralizers
b. Synergists e. antagonists
c. Protagonist
166. A synovial joint is characterized by the following distinguishing feature/s, EXCEPT:

a. The hyaline cartilage is rich in blood vessels
b. Articular cartilage reduces to minimum friction between the articular capsules.
c. A lubricated articular cartilage
d. A potential cavity
e. A capsule of fibrous tissue line with synovial membrane.
167. The atlanto-axial joint is an example of this joint

a. Ball and socket d. Pivot
b. Saddle e. hinge
c. Wheel and axle
168. A 35 year-old male diagnosed with ankylosing spondylosis is referred in a home exercise program. A
general treatment objective most beneficial for the patient will be to strengthen the
a. Quadrates lumborum d. rectus abdominis
b. Quadriceps e. back extensors
c. Internal and external obliques
169. Functions of disc include:

a. Permit two types of movement to occur simultaneously
b. Lessen shock in a joint and adjust bone articulating surface of different shape to one another
c. Assist in lubrication of articular surfaces
d. All of these
170. Excursion and increase in tension of the lumbosacral roots may be accomplished by the following
demonstrations, EXCEPT:
a. Lateral rotation of the hip on straight leg raising
b. Straight leg with medial rotation of the hip.
c. Dorsiflexing the ankle at the end of straight leg raising
d. Flexing the trunk during straight leg raising
e. Straight leg raising
20
171. These categories of nonorganic signs are used for patients with low back problems, EXCEPT:
a. Hip abduction d. hip flexion
a. Shoulder extension e. elbow extension
b. Knee flexion
172. The agonist maybe described as follows, EXCEPT:

a. Contracts actively to produce a concentric, isometric or eccentric contraction.
b. The principal muscle maintaining a posture
c. The principal muscle producing a joint motion
d. Contracts actively to produce a concentric and eccentric contraction.
e. Prime mover
173. Intervertebral joint palpation provides the clinician valuable information about joint behavior to apply a force
to a joint and to evaluate the joint’s response to that force. In the process, he/she must appreciate the following,
EXCEPT:
a. The amount of movements produced at the joint and presence activity evoked during the movement
b. The speed and direction at which it is applied
c. The paint produced by the movement
d. The way in which the joint moves or resists movement in response to the given force
e. The amount of force applied to the muscle inserting into the joint
174. This test describes the ability of the abdominal muscles to maintain the pelvis in a position of posterior
pelvic tilt as the fully extended legs are slowly lowered to the table from a position of 90 degrees of hip flexion.
a. Thomas test d. Straight leg raising test
b. Double leg lowering test e. Modified Thomas test
c. None of these
175. When the rate of movement is constant, this contraction occurs:

a. Eccentric c. Concentric
b. Isokinetic d. Isometric
176. In joint where movement takes place about three main axes, all of which pass through the joint’s center of
rotation, it is said to possess
a. Three degree of freedom d. freedom of movement
b. Universal movement e. two degree of freedom
c. A degree of freedom
177. A therapist examines a patient with cervical pain of unknown etiology. The therapist identifies shortening of
the cervical spine extensor, upper trapezius and levator scapulae. The most probable postural deviation is
a. Forward shoulders d. lordosis
b. Kyphosis e. forward head
c. Scapular retraction
178. The time a subject can maintain a horizontal, unsupported posture (a measure of mechanical capability and
willingness) is a predictor for first-time occurrence of low back pain in men. This test is known as:
a. Williams d. Sorensen
b. Jorgensen e. Biering
c. McKenzie
21
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APK Head, Neck, Back and Spine (Without Answers)

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Premium Physical Therapy Review

Materials For 2021 Physical Therapy

1. In a third class lever:

2. A muscle of facial expression:

3. The highest content of elastic fiber is found in the ligament:

4. This does not describe the 7th rib:

6. This is a movement in the transverse plane:

7. The axis for subtalar abduction and adduction is:

8. Muscle power is greatest at approximately % of the maximum load:

9. The most superficial muscle in the posterior trunk:

11. Facets of thoracic spine are oriented in what plane:

13. Posterior border of the posterior triangle of the neck:

14. Flexion-extension of the thoracic spine totals how much?

15. The bandage muscle, wrapping around other neck muscles:

17. The superficial group of the muscles of the back includes:

20. The plane of progression during ambulation:

21. A facet oriented in the sagittal plane allows what motion?

24. Intervertebral discs are located between vertebral bodies from:

25. The external jugular vein is found at the:

a. Submandibular triangle c. anterior triangle of the neck

29. Nerve supply to sternocleidomastoid:

32. The line of fusion between the External Oblique is called:

33. This muscle is innervated by the facial nerve:

b. All of these d. Masseter

37. The posterior triangle of the neck is bounded by:

41. This structures pass through transverse foramen:

42. Motor nerve to the muscles of mastication:

43. In an open-packed or loose packed position, EXCEPT:

44. This type of joint is formed by the talus and tibia:

b. Isotonic contraction is likely to last longer since a load is moved

58. When applied, first class levers can be:

59. Characteristic of isometric contraction:

60. If two forces are pulling from the same point:

61. A synovial joint possess which distinguishing feature/s:

62. Functional of ligaments include:

65. The following statements apply to the scalene muscles, EXCEPT:

c. Anterior longitudinal ligament

67. Example of syndesmosis:

69. The muscle mastication:

73. Which of the following is true of the Atlanto-Occipital joints:

74. This type of muscle has a great stabilizing component:

83. When applied, second class levers can be:

85. The following statements are true of laminectomy, EXCEPT:

b. None of these d. Isokinetic

92. The following statements are true of herniated disc, EXCEPT:

94. Decrease in lumbar lordosis results in:

96. Action of the External Abdominal Oblique:

99. The following statements describe Romberg test, EXCEPT:

100. Signs of meningeal irritation include the following, EXCEPT:

101. The following are muscles of mastication, EXCEPT:

106. The forces at the pelvis in bilateral stance is an example of:

107. Following are example of Force Couple, EXCEPT:

113. An example of a synovial pivot joint:

d. Juncture between the radius and carpal bone of the wrist

114. Which of the following is NOT true of the Temporomandibular joint:

118. The shape of articulating surfaces of bi-axial joints are either

125. The following apply to Distraction, EXCEPT:

128. In an open-packed or loose packed position?

129. The following statements describe Closed Kinematic Chain, EXCEPT:

135. Craniosacral therapists asses these aspects of craniosacral motion, EXCEPT:

137. The following statements characterize the Atlanto-Axial joints, EXCEPT:

139. In closed-packed position:

c. The joint difficult to distract and mechanically compressed