(Key and Solutions for AIMCAT2217)

Key
SECTION – I
1. C 7. A 13. B 19. B 25. C
2. C 8. B 14. C 20. 3142 26. 3241
3. A 9. C 15. B 21. 1342
4. C 10. D 16. D 22. D
5. D 11. D 17. C 23. 5
6. D 12. D 18. D 24. 1

SECTION – II

1. 16.7 6. 22.5 11. A 16. A 21. C

2. A 7. C 12. C 17. 6 22. B
3. D 8. D 13. B 18. C 23. C
4. C 9. D 14. C 19. 47 24. 34
5. B 10. B 15. 6 20. A

SECTION – III

1. 96 7. D 13. C 19. 2 25. C

2. B 8. 6 14. C 20. 3 26. 81
3. A 9. 1 15. B 21. A
4. D 10. D 16. 0 22. B
5. D 11. A 17. C 23. 3708
6. A 12. B 18. C 24. A

Solutions
SECTION – I
Solutions for questions 1 to 4:
Number of words and Explanatory notes for RC:
Number of words: 498
1. The passage provides certain situations in which the use of
mechanical or chemical means of control is the most
effective.
Option (A): The passage says that “feasibility of control” is
an important aspect when selecting an appropriate method.
If the species is “too hard to catch”, it is not worthwhile to
use poison baits or machetes. Hence, using chemical or
mechanical means of control for controlling the population
of a small rodent which is extremely difficult to catch might
not be very effective.
Option (B): If the rate at which a species can reproduce is
high, catalysing “positive long-term change” will not be
possible. Hence, using these means of control will not be
justified in this case.
Option (C): The area where these means of control must be
used also plays a part. The passage says that the process
becomes “expensive and become prohibitively so as the
size of the infested area to be treated increases”.
Controlling the population of a species of mole confined to
a small area using chemical or mechanical control will be
justified and effective.
Option (D): If the species is present across vast areas, the
cost increases and hence, using these methods will not be
justified.
Therefore, the answer is option (C). Choice (C)
2. The passage provides certain conditions in which it is
appropriate to use chemical or mechanical methods of
control.
Option (A): The passage says that if these methods have a
potential "to catalyze positive long-term change” they can
be used. But the passage also says that in some
conditions, it is justified. If the ecosystem is irreplaceable,
then “continuous control is an effective means of reducing
invader impacts”. Hence, even if it does not result in
positive long-term change, if the ecosystem is valuable, the
use of these methods of control is warranted. Hence,
this option is wrong because it states that these methods
must not be used in any ecosystem if there is no positive
long-term change.
Option (B): While using these methods are controversial,
the passage provides certain situations in which their use is
justified. Hence, this option is incorrect as it states
categorically that the use of these method must be avoided.
Option (C): If the ecosystem is invaluable, then chemical or
mechanical means of control can be used in the long-term.
Hence, this option is correct.
Option (D): The cost of using these means of control
depends upon the area (second para). But this does not
mean that these methods must be used only in small areas.
Hence, this option is not necessarily true.
Therefore, option (C) is the right answer. Choice (C)
3. According to the passage, chemical and mechanical
methods of control, unlike biological control methods,
“can be restricted to particular places, making it possible to
control a species in one area and leave it unaffected in
another”.

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 Option (A): From the passage, we can infer that biological
methods of control is more useful when all the individuals in
an area can be affected. When specific individuals are to
be targeted (like the example of goats inside the park),
chemical or mechanical methods are more effective.
Hence, biological methods are not as effective as chemical
or mechanical methods of control when the population of
specific individuals of an invasive species has to be
controlled.
Option (B): The passage does not give any indication about
the environmental friendliness of biological methods.
It does mention that improper use of chemical or
mechanical methods might cause environmental damage,
but this does not imply that biological methods are
environmentally friendly.
Option (C): The relation between the size of the species
and the effectiveness of biological control methods cannot
be inferred from the passage.
Option (D): The passage does not directly compare the
effectiveness of the different methods of control. It only
presents the situations in which chemical or mechanical
methods are useful and situations in which they are not.
From this we cannot make a comparison with biological
methods.
Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Choice (A)
4. The passage presents various situations in which chemical
or mechanical methods of control are effective and
situations in which they are not.
Option (A): The passage does not provide any relation
between the size of the species and the cost of using
chemical or biological means of control. A large sized
species might cause controversy but does not increase the
cost.
Option (B): The effectiveness is not dependent on using
these methods consistently over a long period of time.
Hence, this cannot be correct.
Option (C): The cost of using this method does increase
with an increase in area. Hence, this is the correct answer.
Option (D): When the invasive species is not large and
furry, it might not cause a controversy. But the effectiveness
need not be affected.
Hence, the answer is option (C). Choice (C)
Solutions for questions 5 to 8:
Number of words and Explanatory notes for RC:
Number of words : 410
5. The phrase “high-speed passing lanes” refers to lanes that
allow vehicles to move rapidly and overtake vehicles in the
existing lane. It has been used to indicate the opportunity
that digitization is providing new companies to scale up
rapidly and thus overtake existing companies, i.e., the
competition (refer “…upending the tents of competition..”).
Option (A) is not the right choice because the phrase does
not imply the lower entry costs that new companies have
because of digitization.
Option (B) is not the correct answer because the phrase
does not merely signify the increased competition.
Option (C) is not appropriate because though it talks about
scaling up enterprises, the phrase does not indicate
anything about being limited only to small companies.
Further, the concept of ‘passing’ and overtaking is not
mentioned in this option.
Option (D) best captures the intention of the author by
introducing the concept of competition and overtaking
(i.e., threat to existing businesses) by referring to new
companies and existing companies.
Choice (D)
6. The quote gives an example of how much data is
generated when machines interact with each other. In the
broader context of the paragraph, it gives an example of
how hyperscaling will be useful.
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Option (A) is not right because the purpose of the quote is
not to signify the importance of communication between
machines.
Option (B) is not the right answer because, even though it
is an example of the scale of data generated in machine
interactions, the relevance of the quote lies in how
hyperscaling can affect numerous industries.
Option (C) is the incorrect because it does not explain how
Internet of Things has helped manufacturing industries.
Option (D) is most apt because the quote serves as an
example to show how hyperscaling can become relevant in
various industries which also includes manufacturing
industries. Hence, (D) is the right answer.
Choice (D)
7. The author says that the “game is still in its early innings”
there is a potential for hyperscaling to impact other
industries, as stated in Option (A).
Option (B) is not relevant to the passage. Option (C) is
incorrect because even though hyperscaling has changed
business practices, it has no relevance to phrase in the
question.
Option (D) is not right because there is no evidence that
many business leaders are not aware of hyperscaling.
Hence, option (A) is the right answer. Choice (A)
8. A hyperscale business, according to the author, have
hundreds of millions or billions of customer interactions and
data points.
A conventional business using digitization strategy might be
a hyperscale business if it deals with large number of
customers and data points. Hence, this option is not a
comprehensive description of a hyperscale business.
Option (B) describes a business which can be called a
hyperscale business because of the numerous interactions
and data complexity.
A large retailer that possesses a large database need not
necessarily be a hyperscale business as digitization is also
necessary for a business to be a hyperscale business.
Option (D) is also not the right choice because of the same
reason as stated above.
Hence, option (B) is the right answer. Choice (B)
Solutions for questions 9 to 13:
Number of words and Explanatory notes for RC:
Number of words : 462
9. The passage talks about the relation between mind and
body and the theory Descartes proposed as a solution
towards explaining this relation.
Option (A) is not the right choice because Descartes
proposed a theory and it was not an argument. Further, the
rest of the passage provides a major shortcoming in the
theory and does not support it.
Option (B) is not the right choice because the hypothesis
was not proved in the passage.
Option (C) is the right choice because a theory, as
proposed by Descartes, was presented and the
shortcomings of the theory were discussed.
Option (D) is not the correct choice because only a single
solution was proposed and discussed in detail.
Hence, Ootion (C) is the correct answer. Choice (C)
10. In para 4, it is stated that the solution proposed by
Descartes was not widely accepted and that an argument
against the theory that he proposed was that the pineal
gland was better developed in wild animals.
Option (A) is not the right answer because Descartes could
not have expected that pineal gland is not the seat of the
soul. He should have been aware of the fact that it was
better developed in animals.
Option (B) or (C) are not the right answer because of the
same reason as above.
Option (D) is the right answer because Descartes should
have expected that the arguments against his theory will
 include the development of pineal gland because this fact
was already known by the time he proposed his theory.
Hence, option (D) is the right choice. Choice (D)
11. The theory proposed by Descartes can be stated as
‘the pineal gland regulates the flow of animal spirits which
results in voluntary behaviour.’
Option (A) is not the right choice because pineal gland
regulating the flow of animal spirits is the crux of his theory
and not an assumption in his theory.
Option (B) is wrong because it is a fact that the pineal gland
is unitary and not an assumption.
Option (C) is also wrong because it is factually wrong and
not an assumption made by Descartes.
Option (D) is the right choice because Descartes believed
that cerebrospinal fluid served as a reservoir for animal
spirits and this was a central assumption to his theory.
Choice (D)
12. The amount of cerebrospinal fluid surrounding corpus
callosum is not mentioned anywhere in the passage and
cannot be inferred from the passage. Hence, choice (A)
cannot be inferred from the passage.
No information is known about the location of corpus
callosum. Even though the pineal gland is present in the
brain, this does not infer that the corpus callosum is also
a gland in the brain. Hence, choice (B) cannot be inferred
from the passage.
The passage does not mention the number of structures
that comprise corpus callosum. Hence, even though it is a
mentioned to be a unique structure, it need not be unitary
and this choice also cannot be inferred from the passage.
Hence, none of the statements can be inferred from in the
passage. Choice (D)
13. Refer to the first para of the passage.
Descartes theorized that filaments within each nerve tube
operated tiny “valvules” that could control the flow of animal
spirits into the nerves. He thought that external stimuli
would move the skin, which would pull on these filaments
to open valvules in the ventricles. This allowed animal
spirits to be released from the ventricular reservoirs into the
nerves, which in turn would trigger the muscles to move.
Hence choice (B) is the answer. Choice (B)
Solutions for questions 14 to 18:
Number of words and Explanatory notes for RC:
Number of words: 558
14. At the beginning of the third paragraph of the passage, the
author states that “The idea that Machiavelli is the founder
of modern political science is by no means self-evident”.
This is because “He seems to make none of the bold
experimental moves more frequently associated with
Descartes and Hobbes”.
Option A: From the beginning of the third paragraph, we
can infer that the author expects the founder of modern
political science to make “bold experimental moves” but
Machiavelli does not appear to do so. Because of this, it is
not self-evident that he is the founder of modern political
science. Hence, the author expects the founder to make
bold experimental moves. However, this option states the
opposite. Hence, choice A is not the correct answer.
Option B: The author mentions that Machiavelli’s modernity
lies “in his call to break from the traditional authority of his
predecessors”. However, he does not compare this aspect
of Machiavelli’s work to that of Hobbes. Hence, choice B is
not the correct answer.
Option C: The author expects the founder to make bold
experimental moves. .... He seems to make none of the
bold experimental moves more frequently associated with
Descartes and Hobbes. ..... In the next paragraph, we are
told that Machiavelli’s modernity is expressed in his
preference for novelty, for the new over the old, for the bold
and experimental over the tried and true. Hence, choice C
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can be inferred from the passage.
Option D: According to the author, “Machiavelli’s modernity
consists less in his methodological innovations than in his
call to break from the traditional authority of his
predecessors”. Hence, choice D is inverted.
Hence, the correct answer is option C. Choice (C)
15. In the second paragraph of the passage, the author talks
about the works of the ancient writers who tried to establish
the science of politics. He mentions that “The failure of the
ancients, so it was alleged, came… from their want of
method in attempting to do so”. Further, people seeking to
put knowledge on a secure foundation accused them of
“methodological naïveté”.
In the fourth paragraph, the author talks about Machiavelli
focusing on the “effectual truth” and says that “This is the
prior move that made all later methodological innovations
possible”.
Option A: While Machiavelli talked about the importance of
breaking established rules and conventions, choice A is not
what set his work apart from the work of others before him.
Choice A does not answer the question.
Option B: The author mentions that Machiavelli’s modernity
“consists less in his methodological innovations than in his
call to break from the traditional authority of his
predecessors”. Hence, his modernity lies in his call to
break from traditional authority of his predecessors. In
the next paragraph, he talks about how he broke away from
the traditional authority. He focused on how things are
rather than how things ought to be (knowledge of the “is”
rather than the “ought”). “This is the prior move that made
all later methodological innovations possible”.
The methodological innovation is mentioned next, which is
his attempt to determine rules of political life from political
life without subordinating it to other fields. Since his
modernity lies less in his methodological innovation and
more in breaking away from tradition, what sets his work
apart is how he focused on how things are rather than how
things ought to be. Hence, choice B is the correct answer.
Option C: The last paragraph of the passage talks about
the “free personality” of men and the value of private life.
While Machiavelli’s works may have these aspects
(since he was a product of “Renaissance Florence”), this is
not the primary aspect which sets his work apart from the
work of others before him. Hence, choice C is not the
correct answer.
Option D: This is named as one of the methodological
innovations of Machiavelli which arose due to his focus on
the “effectual truth”. However, as explained above, his
methodological innovations is not the primary aspect of his
modernity. Hence, this is not the correct answer.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B. Choice (B)
16. In the fourth paragraph, Machiavelli’s famous judgement is
mentioned – “the prince who hopes to succeed must learn
how “not to be good,” in other words, learn to break the
established rules and conventions.” In this context, not
being good implies breaking established rules and
conventions. Hence, being good implies following existing
rules and conventions. Among the given options, the
closest in meaning is option D. Hence, this is the correct
answer. Choice (D)
17. According to the last paragraph of the passage,
Machiavelli’s conception of new prince is “on the order of
the great founder legislators of the past like Moses,
Lycurgus, Cyrus, and Romulus”. However, this conceals the
“fact that his prince expressed a new, highly idealized,
conception of the statesman”
Option A: Machiavelli’s prince is along the same lines as
the great founder legislators of the past. However, he also
represents a highly idealized conception of the statesmen.
This aspect of the prince is concealed by appealing to the
classical models (i.e., the great founder legislators). Hence,
Machiavelli’s prince represents something more than the
great founder legislators of the past. Therefore, choice A is
not the correct answer.
 Option B: According to the penultimate paragraph of the
passage, “The prince who follows Machiavelli’s advice will
be not simply a reformer but a revolutionary who
established his authority de novo”. This implies that
Machiavelli’s prince is open to framing new rules and does
not confine himself to existing rules. But “Unlike the great
founder legislators of the past” is an incorrect comparison
which cannot be deduced from the passage. Hence
choice B is not the correct answer.
Option C: According to the passage, “Machiavelli’s appeal
to these classical models concealed the fact that his prince
expressed a new, highly idealized, conception of the
statesman”. The classical models here refer to the great
founder legislators of the past. Hence, choice C is the
correct answer.
Option D: The author mentions that The Prince “follows a
traditional genre of “mirror of princes” that goes back to
Xenophon”. However, he does not mention that this work is
an amalgamation of the life lessons of the great legislators.
Hence, choice D is incorrect.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C.
Choice (C)
18. Machiavelli’s effectual truth is the knowledge of the “is”
rather than the “ought.”
Option A: This is not the effectual truth. This is a
methodological innovation that arose out of the effectual
truth. Hence, this is not the correct answer.
Option B: Machiavelli’s modernity lies in the pursuit of the
bold and the experimental. Focusing on the “effectual truth”
is how he did this. Hence, this is not the correct answer.
Option C: Knowledge of how to make things the way they
should be is knowledge of the “ought” rather than the “is”.
Hence, this is not what Machiavelli means by effectual
truth.
Option D: Knowledge of the “is”, about how things are, is
the effectual truth. Hence, this is the correct answer.
Choice (D)
Solutions for question 19:
19. The paragraph is about “educational reform.” The term
‘public space” refers to the space within which different
institutions operate. Under normal circumstances,
educational policies are forced down the throats of people.
The best institutions formulate policies which the State ask
the less excellent institutions to copy. Even if one ignores
the elitist angle in this approach, one must realize that there
is a lot of diversity in the manner of the functioning of
educational institutions and an umbrella or general
approach won't do. The resources, demography, goals and
options of educational institutions vary greatly. The crux of
the paragraph is that institutions cannot copy each other's
reform practices and must evolve their own strategies.
There are strong words used in the paragraph to indicate
this (little sense if the state forces policies...., institutions
cannot copy, need to fashion a nuanced approach to the
diversity of the public space..., against iconizing...., evolve
own strategies....). The objective – fashion a nuanced
approach to the diversity of the public space ......learn from
each other...... without unhealthily asymmetric long-term
dependencies – can be met through debating and evolving
of strategies. This will obviously require that individual
institutions display a lot of creative energy and a love for
change, learning, debating and evolving strategies etc. in
the public space. So the precondition for the objective is
stated correctly in statement B. The creative potential of
people needs to be realized. If there is copying or passive
interaction, there is no expending of the creative energies.
Statement A seems to be a cause for a problem and so there
needs to be further discussion. Also the need and importance
of understanding the link between imagination and the
intellectual content of education require elaboration.
Statement C can be placed before this paragraph in a
discussion of who should count as education's customers.
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It needs further elaboration and cannot conclude the
paragraph.
Statement D sounds poetic but cannot conclude the para.
This choice is misleading as it has the words “public space”
in it. The public space (institutions or academic
communities with diverse resources, demography, goals
etc.) is already in existence. The arena is what it is.
The public space need not be changed. The public space is
populated by those who are creating and those who are
copying. A nuanced approach to the diversity of the public
space (eg. proper direction to take in educational reform)
needs refashioning through processes like debating and
evolving of strategies. Approaches or processes need to be
modified (the practices and policies should not be copied or
iconized), not the public space itself. Choice (B)
Solution for questions 20 and 21:
20. Sentence 1: Sentence 1 has the pronoun 'he' and this
sentence can only follow another sentence.
Sentence 2: Sentence 2 is a sentence which mentions
some specific points and this sentence can only be placed
after another sentence.
Sentence 3: Sentence 3 mentions a person's name and
highlights the fact that he made a discovery. Sentence 3
sounds like an introductory sentence of the para.
Sentence 4: Sentence 4 again begins with the pronoun 'he'
and introduces 'blue-sky thinking' and tells us what
happens in blue-sky thinking.
So, sentence 3 is the best sentence that can begin the
para. It introduces a person's name and his studies.
Sentence 3 is followed by sentence 1. "Charles Garfield's
studies of "peak performers"" in sentence 3 is followed by
"He analysed men and women who had achieved only
average results at work .... exploded into great success and
accomplishment" in sentence 1.
Sentences 1 and 4 form a logical block. "suddenly
exploded" in sentence 1 links with "take-off point" in
sentence 4. "every one of them" in sentence 4 links with
"men and women" in sentence 1.
Sentences 4 also tells us what we begin to do in "blue-sky
thinking". "blue sky with no limits" in sentence 4 points to
"exploded into great success and accomplishment" in
sentence 1.
Sentence 2 concludes the paragraph. "You project forward
... and then come back to where you are" in sentence 2
links with "you imagine that all things are possible for you,
just like looking" in sentence 4. So, 3142.
Ans: (3142)
21. On a careful reading of the sentences, it can be observed
that sentence 1 is a general sentence that begins the para.
It introduces the topic of discussion: the Roaring Forties
(the Westerlies.) Sentence 1 mentions that the vast ocean
between Antarctica and Australia is rocked by the Roaring
Forties. Sentence 1 is followed by sentence 3. “the Roaring
Forties” in sentence 1 links with “these Westerlies” in
sentence 3. Also “just a vast ocean stands between
Antarctica and Australia's west coast” in sentence 1 is
parallel with “powered ships sailing from Europe to Asia” in
sentence 3. Sentence 3 is followed by sentence 4. “creating
waves in the world of renewable energy” in sentence 3 is
followed by “demonstration project designed to use the
ocean swell they produce” in sentence 4. The pronoun
'they' in sentence 4 refer to 'the Westerlies'. Sentence 2
follows sentence 4. Sentence 2 is a consequence of the
point given in sentence 4. “Australia's naval base gets part
of both its electricity and its fresh water courtesy of the
'Forties” in sentence 2 links with “a demonstration project
designed to use the ocean swell they produce went live in
Sydney” in sentence 4. So, 1342. Ans: (1342)
Solutions for question 22:
22. The para is about Einstein's reaction to increasing
anti-Semitism in the 1920s. Note that the penultimate
sentence has the sequence indicator “At first”.
 (A): Choice (A) reflects the situation prevalent at that time
in Germany and elsewhere but fails to capture
Einstein's reaction towards the criticism against his
theory of relativity. Choice (A) runs tangent to the
given para and does not complete the thought flow.
(B): Choice (B) again cannot complete the para.
Choice (B) would lead to a complete distortion of facts
if placed after the penultimate sentence of the para.
“concerns of reconstruction after the war”
(which implies that the war would take place) does not
gel with “strongly felt that war could be abolished” as
mentioned in choice B. So choice B cannot end the
given para.
(C): The para specifically refers to the “early 1920s”.
“Repudiate the attacks made on his theory in 1918
by what he called “the Anti-Relativity Company”” - The
year in which the attacks were made was not
mentioned in the para and we cannot pinpoint it to
1918 in the concluding sentence of the para. Further,
no reason has been given as to why Einstein changed
his mind, from ignoring and dismissing their remarks to
repudiating them. Choice (C), though containing the
starter “But soon after”, cannot complete the para.
(D): Choice (D) connects very well to the penultimate
sentence of the para. First Einstein ignored .... then he
became more vocal. “the state of affairs turned more
serious” in choice D points to “outrageous criticisms
against relativity theory – which anti-Semites,
particularly German physicists Philipp Lenard and
Johannes Stark”. Further, this choice provides a
reason for Einstein’s changed stance along with the
reason for it. Choice (D) is the correct answer.
Choice (D)
Solutions for questions 23 and 24:
23. Sentence 1 talks about a solution to a particular problem.
Sentence 2 talks about a key problem with overseas
investment, then (not sure which time-period) and now.
In Sentence 3, ‘Investor’ situated on the ‘other side of
the world’ alludes to the problem mentioned in Sentence 2
– ‘ocean or more away’.
Sentence 4 has a positive connector ‘moreover’ followed by
something negative – highly unreliable legal systems in
non-western countries.
Sentence 5 talks about emerging markets and
emergencies.
1 and 2 form a logical pair (not necessarily successive
sentences but a connected idea) – problem and solution.
3 is a specific detail, elaborating the problem further in a
specific case. 4 is a logical elaboration of the problem by
adding that there is another issue besides investors not
being able to monitor what is happening in the overseas
investment.
So, 2341 is the order. 2 is followed by 3 and not 4 because
both 2 and 3 speak from the perspective of investors. 5 is
the odd-one out because we are not sure overseas
investment can be equated to ‘emerging markets’.
Ans: (5)
24. On a careful reading of the sentences, it can be gathered
that sentence (2) (Pleyel, in business ...), sentence (3)
(... not saved it ...), sentence (4) (... the French
piano-maker ...) and sentence (5) refer to one company
and sentence (1) is a general sentence referring to the
state of affairs of Europe's surviving piano-makers
(more than one company). Sentence (2) introduces the
topic with the name of the company “Pleyel”. Sentences (2)
and (5) form a mandatory pair. “Pleyel, in business for over
two centuries” in sentence (2) connects with “But the
French piano-maker .... close this month” in sentence (4).
So sentence (4) follows sentence (5). So, 254. Sentence
(3) throws in another detail – even though musicians
endorsed the company, it faces competitors from the Far
East who use the pricing strategy. So, 2543. Sentence (1)
is the odd man out and it can come in another paragraph.
Ans : (1)
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Solutions for question 25:
25. The first sentence of the paragraph highlights the fact that
one side of the brain is more dominant than the other in
individuals.
The second sentence talks about the ideal situation: that
there should be a good crossover between both sides of
the brain.
Option A: The essence of the para is that though the ideal
scenario would be to use both hemispheres of the brain,
one side of the brain is more dominant than the other.
Choice A is too general and does not connect with the
penultimate sentence of the paragraph. It talks about
becoming aware of different capacities of the brain and how
we can use our minds for specific needs. Choice A can
come much later in the text, in another para that talks about
brain functioning to its optimum potential.
Option B: Choice B differentiates between the functions of
the left brain and the right brain. This idea can be upstream
of the given paragraph. The question paragraph has
already gone on to discuss the fact that people use one
brain hemisphere more than the other.
Option C: Choice C mentions that, in real life, the dominant
hemisphere of the brain is preferred in every situation of
life. Hence choice C best concludes and completes the
para. It brings the simple idea of the paragraph to a perfect
end and connects very well to the penultimate sentence of
the paragraph.
Option D: “Admittedly this description is oversimplified” in
choice D may seem to connect with the penultimate
sentence of the paragraph (Of course, the ideal would be to
....). However, the second part deviates from the topic of
“brain hemisphere dominance” to “(overall) brain
functioning. Choice D cannot complete the thought flow.
Choice (C)
Solutions for question 26:
26. On a close reading of the paragraph, one may infer that
statement (3) is the introductory sentence of the paragraph.
Statements ‘32’ form a mandatory pair. ‘These concepts’
in statement (2) link with ‘new utopian and anti-utopian
concepts’ given in statement (3). Statements ‘41’ also form
a mandatory pair. ‘No book is adequate .....’ in sentence (4)
links with ‘single work of fiction’ and the requirement of
other forms as mentioned in sentence (1). So, 3241.
Ans : (3241)
Difficulty level wise summary - Section I
Level of Difficulty Questions
Very Easy –
Easy –
Medium 2, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 13, 21, 25
1, 3, 5, 10, 11, 12, 14, 16, 18, 20, 23,
Difficult
24
Very Difficult 15, 17, 19, 22, 26
SECTION – II
Solutions for questions 1 to 6:
For Segment A, the distance as measured by Instrument
I can be between 23.5 and 24.4999 (we can consider this to be
24.5 for the purpose of this calculation). Only then will
Instrument I round off the distance to 24 SKM.
In Nautical Miles, the distance will be between 23.5 × 0.5
= 11.75 NM and 24.5 × 0.5 = 12.25 NM
From the reading of Instrument II, we can see that the distance
can be between 13.5 SM and 14.5 SM.
In Nautical Miles, the distance will be between 13.5 × 0.9
= 12.15 NM and 14.5 × 0.9 = 13.05 NM.
From Instrument III, we can say that the distance of Segment
A will be between 11.5 and 12.5 NM.
Hence, Instrument IV would have measured the distance of
Segment A (in NM) as 12.2 NM.
For Segment B, from Instrument I, we can see that the distance
has to be between 11.25 and 11.75 NM.
From Instrument II, the distance has to be between 11.25 and married and this couple can have two children. If the couple in
12.15 NM. the first generation have one child, this child must have married
From Instrument III, the distance has to be between 10.5 and and he/she should have three children which violates (i).
11.5 NM.
Hence, the distance of Segment B can be 11.3 or 11.4 or Hence, the couple in the first generation has two children.
11.5 NM. One of these children married and this couple has two children.
For Segment C, from Instrument I, the distance has to be
between 18.25 and 18.75 NM. From (iii), D has a son-in law. This is possible only if D belongs
From Instrument II, the distance has to be between 17.55 and to the first generation.
18.45 NM.
From Instrument III, the distance has to be between 17.5 and Further, from (ii), F has an uncle. This is possible only if F is the
18.5 NM. child of the couple from the second generation. This implies that
The distance of Segment C can only be 18.3 or 18.4 NM. D (from the first generation) has a son (since F has an uncle)
For Segment D, from Instrument I, the distance has to be who is not married.
between 10.25 and 10.75 NM.
From Instrument II, the distance has to be between 9.45 and The daughter of E lives in Delhi. If E belongs to the first
10.35 NM. generation (i.e., E and D are a couple), E’s daughter would
From Instrument III, the distance has to be between 9.5 and belong to the second generation and this daughter would be
10.5 NM. married. D’s son-in-law in this case would be in Delhi (since a
Hence, Segment D can only be 10.3 NM. married couple stays in the same city). This will violate (iii).
For Segment E, from Instrument I, the distance has to be
between 16.25 and 16.75 NM. Hence, E belongs to the second generation. E’s daughter lives
From Instrument II, the distance has to be between 16.65 and in Delhi. From the information given in the question, we can also
17.55 NM. say that the two married couples live in two different cities and
From Instrument III, the distance has to be between 16.5 and the other three people live in the same city. Since F is also the
17.5 NM. child of E, F, F’s uncle and the sibling of F live in Delhi. From (ii),
Hence, Segment E can only be 16.7 NM. B must be the sibling of F. Therefore, H, B and F’s uncle live in
For Segment F, from Instrument I, the distance has to be Delhi.
between 14.75 and 15.25 NM.
From Instrument II, the distance has to be between 13.95 and Since D has a son-in law, D must have a daughter and a son
14.85 NM. (uncle of F).
For Instrument III, the distance has to be between 14.5 and
15.5 NM. Therefore, A must be the son-in-law of D, husband of E and the
Hence, Segment F can only be 14.8 NM. father of two children of same gender.
The following table gives the distances as measured by
Instrument IV: Given that E has a daughter. Hence, both the children of A and
E (i.e., F and B) must be female. G must be the spouse of D.
Segment Instrument IV Between G and D, we do not know who is male and who is
A 12.2 female. Since G does not live in Mumbai, A and E live in
B 11.3/11.4/11.5 Mumbai, G and D live in Kolkata. Their son must be C.
C 18.3/18.4
D 10.3 To summarize, D and G are married to each other and they live
E 16.7 in Kolkata. They have one son, C, and one daughter, E.
F 14.8 E is married to A and both of them live in Mumbai. E and A have
two daughters, F and B. F, B and C live in Delhi.
1. The length of Road Segment E as measured by Instrument
We can represent the family tree as follows (rectangles
IV is 16.7 NM. Ans: (16.7)
represent males and ovals represent females):
2. The sum of the lengths of Road Segments A, D, E and F is
54 NM. Hence, the length of Road Segments B and C must
be 29.6 NM. This is possible only if B is 11.3 NM and C is
18.3 NM. The longest Road Segment C, as measured by
Instrument IV will be 18.3 NM. Choice (A)

3. The least difference is for Road Segment F (0.2 NM).

Choice (D)

4. The actual length of Road Segment A can be 12.21 NM.

Choice (C)

5. The average of the lengths of D, E and F as measured by

10.3+16.7+14.8
Instrument IV = = 13.93 NM
3
Choice (B)

6. The sum of the length of the Road Segments A and D as

measured by Instrument IV is 12.2 + 10.3 = 22.5.
Ans: (22.5)

Solutions for questions 7 to 10: 7. There are 4 females in the family. Choice (C)

Given that there are seven people across three generations and 8. C and E are siblings. Choice (D)
no person is a widow or a widower. Further, from (v), none of the
persons in the first generation have any siblings. Hence, there 9. Between D and G, one is a grandfather and the other is a
must be one married couple in the first generation. They can grandmother. However, we cannot determine which one is
have one or two children (from (i)). If the couple in the first the grandfather and which one is the grandmother. Hence,
generation have two children, one of their children must have the answer cannot be determined. Choice (D)

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10. A and C are brothers-in-law. Choice (B) The only remaining gift was the Coffee Mug gifted by Amar to
Akbar.
Solutions for questions 11 to 14:
Person Item Gifted Gifted To Item Received Gifted By
Tabulating the information given in the question, (from ii, iii and v)
Amar Coffee Mug Akbar Photo Frame Albert
Person Item Gifted Gifted To Item Received Gifted By Akbar Scented Candle Anup Coffee Mug Amar
Amar Antony Book Albert Pen Anup
Akbar Anup Pen Antony Scented Candle Akbar
Antony Book Pen Albert Photo Frame Amar Book Antony
Anup Scented Candle
11. Amar gifted a Coffee Mug. Choice (A)
Albert Photo Frame
12. Condition (iv) was not used in finding the solution and is
Amar did not buy Scented Candle (from ii) and he also did not hence redundant. Choice (C)
buy Book and a Photo Frame. So, Amar would have gifted either
Coffee Mug or a Pen. 13. Antony gifted Albert. Choice (B)

Similarly, Anup would also have gifted either a Pen or a Coffee
Mug. But he could not have gifted a Coffee Mug because Albert
gifted his Photo Frame to the person who gifted a Coffee Mug.
Since Anup received a Scented Candle, he could not have gifted
the Coffee Mug. Therefore, Anup would have gifted the Pen.
Since Anup gifted the Pen, Amar would have gifted the Coffee
Mug. So Amar received the Photo Frame from Albert (From iii).
Therefore, Akbar would have gifted the remaining item, the
Scented Candle to Anup.
Also, Albert would have received the Coffee Mug or Book.
But Albert cannot have Coffee Mug because it would violate
condition (i). Therefore, Albert received a Book from Antony.
14. If Amar and Anup exchanged their gifts, Amar would have
Scented Candle and Anup would have Photo Frame.
If Anup and Albert exchanged, Anup would have Book and
Albert would have Scented Candle.
If Antony and Albert exchanged their gifts, Antony would
have Book, the item that he purchased, and Albert would
have Pen.
If Antony and Akbar exchanged, Antony would have Coffee
Mug and Akbar would have Pen.
The required condition is satisfied only for the third option.
Choice (C)

Solutions for questions 15 to 18:

Given that the number of questions passed by two persons is 5.

But from the table, the questions that are directed at E, F and A are answered by A, B and C respectively (i.e., passed twice.)
Total = 2 + 1 + 2 = 5
 No questions answered by D, E or F are
Given, that the number of questions passed by five persons is one.
But from the table, E answered a question that is directed at F.
No other person had answered a question that is passed by five persons.
Given that the number of questions passed by three persons is 3.
E and F answered one question each directed at B and C respectively.
The remaining question is answered by A, B or D (as C did not answer any question directed at F).
But given that the difference in the number of questions passed by 3 persons and answered by B and D is zero (condition iv)
A + B + D = 1 and B = D
 B = 0, D = 0 and A = 1

After filling the information till this point, the table appears as follows.

Answered
by
questions A B C D E F Total
directed at
A 2 0 0 4
B 0 0 1 4
C 1 0 2 0 0 1 4
D 1 0 0 2 0 4
E 2 0 0 0 4
F 1 0 1 4

As each person is asked four questions, E must have answered the question that is directed at D.
Given that the number of questions passed by 4 persons is 1.
Also given that C did not answer exactly 2 direct questions.
 C answered 2 direct questions and A answered the question that is directed at C.
No other person answered the question passed by 4 persons.
Now, we can find that the number of direct questions answered by E is 2 as C did not answer any question passed by 4 persons, i.e. the
question directed at E.
The table is as follows:

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 Answered
by
A B C D E F
question
directed at
A a b 2 0 0 0
B 0 c d 0 1 0
C 1 0 2 0 0 1
D 1 0 0 2 1 0
E 2 0 0 0 2 0
F e 1 0 0 1 f

Here b + d + e = 1 (questions passed by one person, of which E already answered one).

and a + c + f = 6(24 – 18)

15. Given e = 0  f = 2  g = 13
Points (E) = 2(6) + 1(5) + 1(3) + 1(1) = 21 From (vi), h = 6 + g  h = 19
Points (F) = 2(6) + 1(3) = 15 From (v), d + e + f = 21
The required difference = 21 – 15 = 6. Ans : (6) From (i), a + d + e = 16
Also (a + b + c) + (d + e + f) + g + h = 100  f + 30 + 21 + 13 +
16. E answered 5 questions  b + c = 4 19 = 100  f = 17
c cannot be more than 3 and b cannot be more than From (iv), b = 34
1 (as each person answered at least one direct question. From (v), d + e = 4
 a is at least 1). From (i), a = 12
 b = 1 and c = 3. From (iii), 12 + 34 + c = 17 + 30  c = 1
Points (B) = 3(6) + 1(5) + 1(4) = 27 From (ii), e = 1 and from (v), d = 3
Which is the maximum possible. Choice (A) Part B
Part A
17. Given a, c and f are different i.e., 1, 2 and 3 (in any order)
a and f cannot be 3 (as the number of questions directed at 3
12 34
any person is 4)
c=3d=0
Number of questions answered by C and D together 13
= 2 + 2 + 2 = 6. Ans : (6) 1 17
18. Points (C) = 2(6) + d(5) + 2(4) = 20 + 5d
But given it is 25 1
 20 + 5d = 25 19
d=1
c=2 Total
and b = e = 0, a = f = 2
Number of questions (answered by A) 19. Number of students who did not clear exactly one of the
=2+1+1+2=6 three cutoffs = a + b + c = 47 Ans: (47)
Number of questions (answered by B) = 2 + 1 = 3
The required difference = 3 Choice (C) 20. All the students who cleared the cutoffs in both Part A and
Part B would have scored more than 30 marks. The others
Solutions for questions 19 to 24: need not have scored more than 30.
Hence, the required number of students = d + g = 3 + 13
Part B = 16. Choice (A)
Part A
21. Number of students who passed the test = g = 13
d b Number of students who failed the test = 87
a
Required difference = 74. Choice (C)

g 22. Option A: a + d + g + e = 29
e f Option B: b + d + g + f = 67
Option C: c + f + g + e = 32
Option D: h = 19
c Hence, option B is the highest. Choice (B)
h
23. Number of students cleared the cutoffs in both Part A and
Total Part B but failed the test = d = 3. Choice (C)
Let the Venn diagram above represent the number of students 24. 34 students cleared the cutoff only in Part B.
who cleared each of the three cutoffs. Ans: (34)
From (i),
1 Difficulty level wise summary - Section II
a+d+e+g= × (100 – g)
3 Level of Difficulty Questions
From (ii), e = c Very Easy –
From (iii), f = a + b + c – 30  a + b + c = f + 30 Easy
From (iv), b = 2f Medium 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 13, 14
From (v), d + e + f + g = 34 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 12, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20,
Difficult
Also, the number of students who passed the test will be 21, 22, 23, 24
100 – 87 = 13 Very Difficult 2
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 SECTION – III 6. I. ab – ab-1=2
ab-1 (a – 1) = 2
Solutions for questions 1 to 26: since a and b are non-zero integers, the possible solutions
(𝑥 + 𝑎)(𝑥 − 2𝑏)(𝑥 + 3𝑏) = 𝑥 3 + 𝑥 2 (𝑎 + 𝑏) + are
1. Given,
a = –1, b = 2/4/6
𝑥(𝑎𝑏 − 6𝑏 2 ) − 6𝑎𝑏 2
a = 3, b = 1
∴ 𝑥 3 + 𝑥 2 (𝑎 + 𝑏) + 𝑥(𝑎𝑏 − 6𝑏 2 ) − 6𝑎𝑏 2 = 𝑥 3 + 5𝑥 2 − Hence, statement I alone is not sufficient to arrive at
23𝑏𝑥 − 𝑐 a distinct value of b.
Now, comparing the coefficients of powers of x on either II. ab = ab
sides of the equation we get Here, when b = 1, L.H.S and R.H.S are equal.
𝑎 + 𝑏 = 5 and 𝑏(𝑎 − 6𝑏) = −23𝑏 ⇒ 𝑎 − 6𝑏 = −23 i.e., a = 2, 3, 4 …..; b = 1
Solving the two, we get b = 4 and a = 1. (Since a and b are distinct a = b = 2 is not possible)
Hence, 𝑐 = 6𝑎𝑏 2 = 6 × 1 × 16 = 96 Ans: (96) Hence, statement II alone is sufficient to arrive at a distinct
value of b. Choice (A)
1 1
2. The roots of 1000x2 – 133x + 1 = 0 are and
8 125 7. The angle between the clocks at 5:40 p.m. will be less than
1 1 90o.
 a3 = and b3 = The angle between the clocks at 4:50 p.m. = Angle covered
8 125
by minutes hand – angle covered by hour hand
1 1 (taking vertical, i.e., 12 noon as reference).
a= ,b=
2 5 Angle covered by minute hand in 50 minutes = 50*6 = 300o
Angle covered by hour hand in 4:50 minutes
1 1
 and are the roots of mx2 + nx + p = 0 = (4*60+50)*1/2 = 145o
2 5 Angle between the hands = 300-145 = 155o
Now, the roots of px2 + nx + m = 0 will be the reciprocals of Similarly angle between the hands at 3:40 p.m.
the roots of mx2 + nx + p = 0 = 40*6 – 220/2 = 130o
 the roots of px2 + nx + m = 0 will be 2 and 5. Angle between the hands at 2:30 p.m. = 30*6 – 150/2 = 105o
Choice (B) Hence, the answer is 4:50 p.m. Choice (D)

3. Speeds of the four friends are 21 m/s, 23 m/s, 18 m/s, 8. Sum of n terms of a GP = a (rn – 1)/(r – 1)
19 m/s 5(4n – 1)/(4 – 1) = 6825  4n – 1 = 4095  n = 6
Distance = 2520 m Ans: (6)
Time taken by the four friends to meet again at the starting
point 9. We need to first look for a power of 2 which differs from a
 2520 2520 2520 2520 multiple of 25 by 1 or 2. We can arrive at 1025, a multiple of
= LCM of  , , , 
 21 23 18 19  25 and near to 1024, a power of 2.
Now, consider the remainder of 21000 when divided by
LCM of fractions = LCM of numerators 1025.
HCF of deno min ators 21000 1024 100 (−1)100
Rem ( ) = Rem ( ) = Rem ( )
 Required LCM = LCM of (2520, 2520, 2520, 2520 ) 25 25 25
HCF of (21, 23, 18, 19 ) = (–1)100 = 1 Ans: (1)
2520
= = 2520 sec = 42 minutes 10. Given the total max marks in exam = 250
1 Pass mark is 50% of 250 = 125
 They meet at the starting point at 8:42 a.m. Since A scores the least marks, let him have failed by
Choice (A) ‘x’ marks.
Then
4. If a cylinder of height 10cm is
placed inside a sphere, to
A B C
maximize the radius of the
cylinder, we need to place the
10 125 − x 125 + 5x 125 + 5x + 6x
20
cylinder at the center of the
sphere. Given C scores 72%
In the adjacent figure, the circle 125 + 11x 72
 =  125 + 11x = 180  x = 5
represents the sphere and the 250 100
rectangle represents the cylinder. Hence, B scores 150 marks. Choice (D)
The radius of the cylinder = √(202 − 102 ) = 10√3 cm
Choice (D) 11. The number of three-digit numbers that Anil wrote
5. Let x be the length of the line CB. H T U
Since, AB is a tangent to the circle and BD is a secant to (9) (9) (8) = (81) (8) = 648
the circle.
 (BC)(BD) = AB2 The number of numbers that begin with an even digit and
 (x)(16 + x) = (15)2 end with an even digit.
 x = 9cm
Since, AB is a tangent to the circle at A according to H T U
alternate segment theorem CAB = CDA. (4) (8) (4) = 128
  ACB ≈  DAB.
AC CB The number of numbers that begin with an odd number and
= end with an odd number
DA AB
 CB   9  36
 = (12)  =
H T U
 AC = (DA)  = 7.2 cm (5) (8) (4) = 160
 AB   15  5
Choice (D) Required number = 648 – (128 + 160) = 648 – 288 = 360

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 Alternative solution: 2
a a
 3  − 2  + 3 = 0
___ ____ ____ (For the three places)  
b b
The first [hundred, (H)] digit is odd & last digit [units (U)] Now, discriminant = 4 – 36 = –32
even.  No roots exists
There are 5 × 5 = 25 ways of choosing such combinations No ordered pair (a, b) except (0, 0) possible.
for H and U. Ans: (0)
The first digit (H) is even & last digit is odd.
There are 4 × 5 = 20 ways of choosing such combinations 17. By substituting values of m and n in each of the options we
of H and U. can arrive at the correct answer option.
Now the middle digit (T) in either case can take any of However, simplifying and evaluating each option may be
8 digits (excluding the first & last digit). time consuming. Therefore, in this case a direct approach
No of ways = (25) (20) (8) = 360. Choice (A) may be helpful.
Since 351 = 13  27 = 13  33,
12. Four taps can fill the tank in 15 hours. logx351 = logx13 + 3logx3
Hence, each tap can fill 1/60 of the tank in one hour. Given, logx13 + logx2 + 2logx3 = m --------- (1)
From the given information, the percentage of tank that will and logx13 + 3logx2 = n --------- (2)
1 2×4 3×6 4×8 59
be filled = + + + = 3  (1) – (2) gives
60 60 60 60 60 2logx13 + 6logx3 = 3m – n
The percentage of tank that will be empty = 1/60 = 1.67% 3m − n
Choice (B) i.e., logx13 + 3logx3 =
2
3m − n
Given that (x ) = (x x )
x3 . x i.e., logx351 = Choice (C)
3 x. x 3 2
13.

 3(x ) = (4 / 3) (x ) or x = 1
3/2 7/2
18. The man can never be at the starting point after an odd
number of steps. He can be at A only after an even number
4
 3x
3/2
= x7 / 2  x2 = 9/4 or 1 of steps. Choice (C)
3
19. The two lines are 6x + 5y = 17 and py = x + 1
 x = 3/2 or –3/2 or 1. But since x > 1, x = 3/2. The point of intersection of the lines is
Choice (C) 6(py – 1) + 5y = 17
23
14. F(x) = 0, if x  0 y (6p + 5) = 23 ⇒ y = _________ (1)
= −x, if x < 0 6p + 5
f(x) = x, if x > 0 From (1) we can say that 6p + 5 should be factor of
= 0, if x  0 23 (since y, must be an integer)
So, when x > 0, i.e. 6p + 5 = ± 1, ± 23.
F(−x) = − (−x) = x The values of p which satisfy are
And f(x) = x p = – 1, (x, y) = (22, – 23) and p = 3, (x, y) = (2, 1).
When x  0,  For two values of p we get integer co-ordinates.
F(−x) = 0 and f(x) = 0 Ans: (2)
Hence, F(−x) = f(x) Choice (C)
20. The date of birth in ddmm format and mmdd format both
form four-digit numbers. Hence, the month cannot be less
15. Consider the figure below, where the pole BC is on top of than 10.
the building AB. Therefore, mm can only be 10 or 11 or 12.
Let D be the location of the person. If mm = 10, for ddmm to be divisible by 9, ddmm can be
1710 or 2610.
If mm = 11, for ddmm to be divisible by 9, ddmm can be
h 2511 or 1611.
If mm = 12, for ddmm to be divisible by 9, ddmm can be
1512 or 2412.
These dates in mmdd format will be 1017, 1026, 1125,
1116, 1215, 1224. Of these, all the even numbers will be
120 divisible by 18 also.
Hence, the date of birth, in mmdd format, can be 1026 or
1116 or 1224, i.e., three possibilities Ans: (3)
A d D 21. Let the centre of the circle (and also the hexagon) be O.
The triangle AOB will be an equilateral triangle, with the
Let h be the height of the pole and d be the distance from side length equal to the radius of the circle.
the foot of the building to the observer.  
 The area of the hexagon = 6   3 (6 )2 = 36 
3 3
20
tan 30 =  d = 20 3 m  4  2
d  
(20 + h)  
tan 45 =  h = 20 3 – 20 = 20  3 − 1 m  The area shaded region = (6 )2 −  36  3 3 
d    2 

Choice (B)
 3 3 
= 36  − . Choice (A)
16. Given a and b are non-zero.  2 

(a3 + b3)2 = (a2 + b2)3
a6 + b6 + 2a3b3 = a6 + b6 + 3a2 b2(a2 + b2)
2a3 b3 = 3a2 b2(a2 + b2) 22.
(
log 20 + log x2 + 5x )=2
2ab = 3a2 + 3b2 log 4 5
3a2 + 3b2 – 2ab = 0
As b ≠ 0 log20 + log(x2 + 5x) = 2log 4 5

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  16 5   x2 + y2 = 400 ; x2 + 4y2 = 832
log(x2 + 5x) = log    3y2 = 432
 20   y = 12, x = 16
x2 + 5x = 4  The maximum possible area of the triangle XYZ
x2 + 5x – 4 = 0
=
(12)(16) = 96 sq units.
Now, (x2 + 5x) appears directly in the equation, and we
2
know that x2 + 5x + 4 = 0.
Hence, we can be sure that both the roots will satisfy the
original equation. Alternative Solution:
−b
 Sum of the roots = –5 Choice (B) Assuming the shortest median, i.e., the median to the
a
hypotenuse to be 10 units, the hypotenuse becomes
23. P = ₹30,000 20 units. Using the Pythagorean triplet (3, 4, 5) one
T = 4 years possible set for the perpendicular sides of the triangle is 12
I = ₹7200
and 16, which yields one other median as 12 2 + 8 2
7200
 Simple interest for 1 year = = `1800
4 = 208 = 4 3 , which is consistent with the given data.
1800 is 6% of 30,000 1
 R = 6% Hence, area =  12  16 = 96. Choice (C)
2
Now, for C.I. 30,000(1.06)2 = 30,000 (1 + 0.12 + 0.0036)
 C.I. = 30000(0.1236)
26. The multiples of 9, 11 and 99, between 150 and 350 are
= 30000 + 600 + 90 + 18 = ₹3708 Ans: (3708)
tabulated below:
24. Let f(x) = ax + b
9 9(17) 9(38)
g(x) = ax + b + 4
2g(3) = 3f(2) + 6 ⇒ 6a + 2b + 8 = 6a + 3b + 6 ⇒ b = 2 153 342
Hence, g(0) = 2 + 4 = 6. Choice (A) 11 11(14) 11(31)
154 341
25. Let the lengths of the perpendicular legs of the triangle
XYZ be x units and y units. 99 198 297

X
38 − 16 22 (31− 13)
There are = odd multiples of 9,
2 2 2
y units 18
= odd multiples of 11 and 1 odd multiple of 99. Thus
2
there are 11 + 9 – 1 = 19 odd numbers between 150 and
350 that are multiples of 9 or 11 and thus 100 – 19 = 81
x units Y numbers between 150 and 350 are multiples of neither 9
Z
nor 11. Ans: (81)

The lengths of the medians will be Difficulty level wise summary - Section III
2 2 2 2 Level of Difficulty Questions
x y
  +   , (x )2 +  y  and
x
  + y 2 Very Easy –
2 2 2 2 Easy 8, 10, 12, 13, 14, 21, 23, 24
Let us assume x  y. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 11, 15, 17, 18, 19,
Medium
For maximum the area of such triangle, we will assume the 22, 26
length of the shorter two (out of the three) medians to be Difficult 16, 20
Very Difficult 25
10 units and 4 13 units.
2 2 2
   +   = 10 and x
x y
  + y 2 = 4 13
2 2 2

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