Aviation Law Exam 1. Time allowed 1 hour 40 minutes: 75 questions. i: ‘The ICAO Convention was ratified by: (a) The Warsaw Convention, 1929 (b) The Chicago Convention, 1944 (c) The Geneva Convention 1936 (@) The Geneva Convention 1948 Which Convention on offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft is referred to (a) The Convention of Madrid (b) The Convention of Rome (co) The Convention of Tokyo (a) The Convention of Warsaw The signed States Convention concerning passengers and consigners who have had damage inflicted on them by a foreign airline is: (a) the Tokyo Convention (b) the Paris Convention (c)_ the Rome Convention (@)_ the Warsaw Convention ‘The Warsaw Convention and its later amendments covers: (a) _ the permit of the operator for international flights (b) _ the limitations of the responsibility of the operator against "transported passengers and cargo () regulation concerning transportation of dangerous goods (d@) the aerodrome security system ‘Standards’ referred to in the Annexes to the Chicago Convention are: (a) Mandatory for all contracting States (b) Advice for the guidance of member states ()_ Regarded as necessary for the safety and regularity of international air navigation (a) Mandatory for airlines with international routes Bristol Groundschool Exam 4:110, uu. Bristol Groundschool ‘Load Factors’ has the following meaning: (a) the ratio of a specified load to the mass of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions. {b) _ the ratio of a specified load to the mass of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic and inertia forces. (c)_ the loads assumed to occur in the anticipated operating conditions. (4) _ the ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions The common mark for an aircraft is allocated by: (a) _ the state of registration (b) the ITU (ce) the ICAO (@) the aircraft owner What age do you need to be to exercise the privileges of a CPL licence? (a) 18 (b) 21 () 16 (@ 23 When you are over 40 and the holder of an ATPL(A), how often are you required to have a medical examination? (a) The 12 month period reduces to 6 months (b) The 24 month period reduces to 12 months (c) The 6 month period reduces to 3 months (4) The 9 month period reduces to 3 months You can use simulator hours towards the 1500 hours required for an ATPL. How are simulator hours limited? (2) Maximum of 100, not more than 15 in a procedural flight trainer (b) Maximum of 100, not more than 30 in a procedural flight trainer (c) Maximum of 100, not more than 25 in a procedural flight trainer (a) Maximum of 100, not more than 50 in a procedural flight trainer What is required by JAR FCL for a CPL night qualification ? (a) _ five take offs and five landings dual (b) five solo take offs and five full stop landings (c) five take offs and five landings which may be as PiC or PiC under supervision (4) _ five take offs and five instrument approaches12. 13, 14, 1s. 16. 17. What is the appropriate quadrantal level for an aircraft flying on a track of 358°T, with variation 3°E and drift 2°S ? (a) FL110 {b) FL140 (o) FLI65 (a) FLI35 A flashing white light signal from ATC to an aircraft in flight indicates: (a) clear to land (b) land at this aerodrome and proceed to the apron (c) give way to other aircraft and continue circling (d) aerodrome unsafe; do not land In the circuit you have radio failure, to indicate difficulties which compel you to land without requiring immediate assistance you would: (a) Flash the landing lights off/on repeatedly (b) Flash the landing lights off/on 3 times (c) Flash the nav lights off/on 3 times (a) Flash the landing lights off/on 4 times Which of the following is a distress signal ? (a) In radiotelephony the word PAN PAN. (b) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights. (c)_ The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights. (d) A parachute flare showing a red light. When requesting a pilot to engage the parking brake, a marshaller will give the following signal: (a) Arms repeatedly crossed above the head (b) Arms placed down and crossed in front of the body moving horizontally (c) Raise arm and hand with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist (@) Arms placed horizontally sideways with palms towards the ground beckoning downwards An aircraft is inbound to the hold on a track of 190°M. The inbound hold track is 010°M. The correct entry type would be: (a) parallel or direct (b) offset or direct (c) parallel or offset (d@) reciprocal or direct Bristol Groundschool Exam 4:318, 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. When joining a hold the permitted track deviation between sectors is: (a) 2° (b) 2.5° (Ss? (a) 10° The abbreviation DER means: {a) distance end of route (b) departure end of route ()_ distance end of runway () departure end of runway An aircraft has been allocated a transponder code of 5230. If the aircraft subsequently suffers a radio failure in flight the correct transponder code to be set would be: (a) 7600 with mode C (b) 0030 with mode C ()_ 5200 with mode C (@) "7630 with mode C Where does the initial section of a missed approach procedure end ? (a) when an obstacle clearance of 50 metres has been achieved and can be maintained (b) when established in the climb (c) at the missed approach point (@) when en-route to either the hold or departure ‘The type of turn to be executed by an aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track if the tracks are not reciprocal is: 3 (a) a base turn (b) areverse procedure turn {o) aracetrack (@) a procedure turn An aircraft entering a holding pattern at FL140 using the offset procedure should fly outbound from overhead the beacon for how long ‘before commencing the procedure turn ? (a) 1 mimute (b) 1 minute 30 seconds (c) 2minutes (@) 2 minutes 30 seconds Bristol Groundschool24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. What is the normal climb gradient for a missed approach ? (2) 0.8% (b) 2.5% (c) 3.3% (d) 5.0% ‘The normal holding speed for a jet aircraft at FL110 (a) 240 kts (b) 230 kts (c) 170 kts (d) 280 kts If an aircraft is in distress the appropriate mode A code to be set is: (a) 7500 (b) 7600 () 7700 (@) 7000 A circling approach is: (a) A flight manoeuvre only to be performed under radar vectoring. (b) A visual manoeuvre only to be conducted in IMC (c) A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight (4) A contact flight manoeuvre ‘The accuracy required by ICAO for Mode C before it can be used by the. ATC controller is: (a) #200 feet (b) #250 feet (c)_ #300 feet () 4500 feet What action is required if transponder failure is detected before departure from an aerodrome? (a) The aircraft cannot fly (b) The aircraft can fly for 24 hours and then the transponder must be repaired (©) The flight plan is amended and ATC will issue a clearance for the aircraft to proceed directly to an aerodrome where repairs can be made (@) The aircraft can continue to fly VMC. For the construction of precision approaches the operationally preferred glide path angle is (a) 3.8° (b) 3% () 3° (@) 6.5% Bristol Groundschool Exam 1:531. 32. 33. 34, 35. 36. 37. Ifa pilot cannot comply with a holding pattern the aircraft Commander should: (a) _ elect to change informing ATC (b) fly a non-standard holding pattern (c) inform ATC and request an alternative clearance (d) follow loss of communications procedure ‘To whom is the alerting service provided? (a) AILIFR traffic (b) All flight-planned aircraft (c) All hi-jacked aircraft (@) All traffic known to ATC What is the distance on final approach within which the controller should suggest that the aircraft executes a missed approach if the aircraft either disappears from the radar for a significant time or the identity of the aircraft is in doubt? (@@) 1nm (b) 2nm () 3nm @ 4nm Voice ATIS is transmitted on a: (a) Discrete VHF frequency only (b) Discrete VHF frequency or on voice on VOR (0) VHF frequency or on ILS frequency (a) 1S only Who is responsible for setting into movement the Alert Phase? (a) ATC and the FIR (b) The State and ATC (c) The Area Control and the RCC (@) RCC and the FIR Will an aircraft be allowed to land at an ATZ which has not received permission to enter the Zone? {a) No (b) Yes ()_ Only if it expedient to do so (d) Only if the aircraft declares an emergency What is the minimum radar separation? (2) Sm - Sormad + (b) 10nm () 3nm (@) Inm Bristol Groundschool Exam 1:6 wi38. At 1321 UTC an aircraft on an IFR flight is told by ATC to “turn immediately left on a heading of 070. At 1322 UTC the Commander discovers that he/she is no longer in radio contact. The commander must return to the flight-planned tack (2) in the most direct manner (b) - On an intercept of not more than 10° () Onan intercept of not less than 10° (@) Onan intercept of not more than 15° 39. What is the minimum vertical separation, outside RVSM airspace, above FL290 between aircraft on the same track ? (a) 4,000 feet (b) 2,000 feet () 1,000 feet {d) 500 feet 40. What is the minimum separation between aircraft taking off in different directions ? (a) 3 minutes (b) 2 minutes (c) 1 minute {@) less than one minute 41. ATC should inform an aircraft of a delay when the EAT differs from that previously transmitted by: (a) 3 minutes (b) 10 minutes (c) 5 minutes (@) 15 minutes 42. In order to positively identify an aircraft on radar ATC may instruct the pilot to turn through: (a) 45° (b) 30° or more () 20° (a) 10° 43. The vertical distance of an aircraft when reported above the Transition Level is: (a) elevation (b) height (c) altitude (@) ight level istol Groundschool Exam 1:7’ 44, What information is contained in a position report ? (a) aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and ETA (b) aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and ETA, destination . -{ (c) aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, + destination (@) aircraft identification, position, time, Mach Number, flight level, next position and ETA K 45. When navigation aids can give frequent fixing of position and speed and the preceding aircraft has a TAS at least 40 kts greater than the following aircraft the minimum time separation between two aircraft (a) 3 minutes (b) 5 minutes () 6 minutes (@ 10 minutes 46. When two aircraft are following the same localizer approach course the minimum radar separation between them must be: (2) 2nm (b) 2.5nm () 3nm (@) Snm 47. When two aircraft are following the same localizer approach course the minimum radar separation between them required for wake turbulence must be: . (a) 2nm (b) 3nm () 4nm (@) Snm 48. In order to establish a controlled aerodrome there must be: (a) an aerodrome control zone (b) an area of controlled airspace around the aerodrome (c) an aerodrome coritrol tower providing an aerodrome control service (a) an acrodrome control tower providing a flight information service 49. When taking off in IMC an aircraft should report to Departure Control: {a) when advised to do so by the Tower (b) before entering cloud (©) immediately after the aircraft is airborne (4) when established on initial heading and clear of the aerodrome Bristol Groundschool Exam 1:850. Section 2 of a routine AIREP contains: (a) present position and estimated time of arrival (ETA) (b) ETA at the next FIR boundary and endurance (c) estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance (@) ETA and endurance 51. An aircraft is flying on an IFR flight plan in IMC and suffers a total communications failure. The correct procedure is: (a) try to make contact with another aircraft or ground station (b) ask another aircraft to relay information () continue the flight at the planned levels and according to the planned ETAs (@) land immediately at the nearest suitable aerodrome 52. An aircraft is flying on an IFR flight plan in airspace where VFR flight is permitted. If the aircraft commander wishes to continue the flight under VFR and can maintain VMC which is the correct combination of the statements shown below ? 1. _ the pilot must inform ATC "cancel IFR’ 2. the pilot must request and obtain a new clearance 3." the pilot must request a change of IFR flight plan to a VFR flight plan 4. the flight plan becomes a VFR flight plan automatically (@) 1&4 (b) 2&3 () 1&3 @ 284 53. The minimum separation in an RNP RNAV environment is: (a) 80nm (b) 60nm () 50nm (@ 20nm 54. What is the speed limit in class E airspace ? \ (a) 250 kts IAS for IFR and VFR below FL100 pare oe P 5 (b) 250 kts IAS for IFR only below FL150 er (c) 250 kts IAS for IFR only at all levels s be (d) 250 kts IAS for IFR only below FL100 ype alecers i ab * qo ee (oe? phew Bristol Groundschool Exam 4:955. Airspace in which IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights receive a control service; IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information about other VFR flights, and VER flights receive traffic information about other VFR flights would be classified as: (a) Class B (b) Class A () Class E (@) Class D 56. Where in the AIP is a list of Location Indicators to be found? (a) GEN (b) Comms () AD (@) AGA 57. What is an ASHTAM used for ? (a) Notification of no smoking areas (b) Volcanic activity (c) Predicted volcanic eruptions (4) Aerodromes closed by volcanic ash contamination 58. Temporary changes of long duration or changes of short duration which require extensive text and/or graphical representation are published as AIP supplements. Long duration is considered to be: (a) 2 months or longer (b) 3 months or longer (c) 6 months or longer (@) 1 year or longer 59. Runway edge lights are (not including displaced thresholds): (a) fixed variable white (b) fixed variable white or yellow (9) flashing white a (a) fixed red 60. Aerodrome Reference Code is dependent on Code Element 1 (aeroplane reference field length) and Code Element 2. What is Code Element 2 dependent upon: (a) Wing span and inner main gear wheel span (b) Fuselage width and inner main gear wheel span (c) Fuselage width and outer main gear wheel span (4) Wing span and outer main gear wheel span Bristol Groundschool Exam 1: 1061. What is ASDA ? (a) TORA + Stopway if it exists (b) TORA () TORA + Stopway + Clearway (2) TORA + Clearway if it exists 62. If the PAPI indicates two red and two white lights you are: (a) exactly on the glide slope (b) close to or on the glide slope () above the glide slope (d) _ below the glide slope 63. What braking action can be expected for a measured coefficient of 0.25 2 (a) poor (b) poor to medium (c) medium (a) good 64. The pilot of an aircraft which is on the correct approach glide path would see x red lights of the PAPIs. xis: fa) 1 (o) 2 () 3 (a) none 65. The minimum notification required for a non-scheduled flight from one Contracting State to another is: (a) _ receipt of flight information at least one hour in advance of arrival (b) receipt of flight information at least two hours in advance of arrival (c) receipt of flight information at least four hours in advance of arrival (d) _ receipt of flight information at least twelve hours in advance of arrival 66. How should passenger entry documents embarkation/disembarkation cards) be completed ? (a) should be type written by electronic data-processing techniques (b) may be hand written in ink or lead pencil ()_ must be hand written in ink using block lettering (@)_ must be type written Bristol Groundschool Exam 4:1167. Which Annex to the ICAO Convention gives information concerning the entry and departure of goods in transit ? (a) Annex 8 {b) Annex 9 (c) Annex 10 (@) Annex 14 68. For what period are SAR services to be provided by a Contacting State? (a) During the hours of operation of an FIR (b) Ona 24 hour basis (| 2 hours before until 2 hours after the first flight arrives and the last departing flight within an FIR (4) During the hours of both commercial and military air operations within the FIR 69. The ground signal to aircraft signifying that all personnel have been found is: f) LL (b) LLL () ¥ (a) + 70. “A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants’ is the definition (a) distress phase (b) alert phase (c)_ emergency phase (a) uncertainty phase 71. An airport security programme shall be established by each State for: (a) Airports which are perceived as being under increased threat of acts of unlawful interference. (b) Any airport identified as having a poor safety record (co) Every airport that can accommodate jet aircraft (4) Each airport serving international civil aviation. 72. ICAO Annex 17 lays down the rules to establish security measures for passengers with regards to: (a) Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design 2— (b) Cabin baggage and checked baggage (c)_ Passenger baggage (d) Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods and access control Bristol Groundschool Exam 1:1273. 74. 75. If an aircraft is subject to unlawful interference, the State in which the occurrence took place should look after the passengers: (a) until they can continue with their journey (b) during the investigation (c) if the passengers request it (d) and return them to their country of origin The conducting of an accident investigation may be delegated in whole or in part to: (a) The State of Registry (b) The State of the Operator (c) The State of Manufacture (d) The State of Registry or the State of the Operator When submitting an accident report to ICAO the language used: (a) shall be Arabic, French, Russian, English or Spanish (b) should be the language of the State of Registration (c)_ should be the language of the State of Design or Manufacture (@) should be the language of the State of Occurrence Bristol Groundschool Exam 4:13Intentionally blank Bristol Groundschool Exam 1:14Aviation Law Exam 1. Time allowed 1 hour 40 minutes: 75 questions ABCD ABCD ABCD 1 26 51 2 ar 52 3 28 53 4 29 54 5 30 55 6 . | 31 56 T 32 87 8 33 58 9 34 59 10 35 60 a 36 r_| 61 |_| 12 37 62 13 38 63 |_| 14 39 64 15 40 65 16 41 66 7 42 67 is{_[ | 43 68 19 CI 44 69 20 45 70 21 46 71 22 47 72 23 48 73 24 49 74 25 50 75 Bristol Groundschool Exam 1:15Bristol Groundschool Intentionally blank Exam 1: 16Aviation Law Exam 1. Answers Page numbers refer to Bristol Groundschool notes issue 4. Q A Page No. Q lero)! 26. 2 () 23 27. 3. (d) 24 28. 4. (b) 24 29, 5 | 8 30. 6. (@) 75 31 7 (b) 73 32, 8. (a) 233 33, 9. (a) 243 34. 10. (c) 235 35, 11. (b) 234 36. 12. (e) 72 37. 13. (b) 59 38. 14. (a) 56 39, 15. (d) 56 40. 16. (c) 64 41 17. (c) 178 42. 18. (c) 178 43. 19. (d) 158 44. 20. (a) 187 45, 21. (b) 172 46. 22. (a) 170 47. 23. (a) 179 48. 24, (b) 173 49. Bristol Groundschool Page No. Q 187 51. 174 52. 187 53. 187 54. 171 55. 177 56. 96, 57. 215) 58. 213 59. 96 60. 215 61. 219 62. 254 63. 72 64. 205 65. 208 66. 216 67. 180 68. 193 69. 198 70. 219 71. 219 72. 210 73. 204 74. 153 75. A Page No. 202 190 200 86 Exam 1:17