Sample Papers for Science Quiz Contest (Biology)

1. The essential chemical processes in living organisms are

(a) catabolism (b) anabolism

(c) Cell division (d) all above

2. Rules regarding the binomial nomenclature are framed by

(a) the scientists of Central America

(b) Director of Royal Botanical Gardens, Kew
(c) the International Science Congress
(d) individuals of all the countries

3. ICBN was adopted in

(a) 1951 (b) 1961 (c) 1971 (d) 1985

4. ‘Law of Priority’ is applicable after the year

(a) 1720 (b) 1753 (c) 1853 (d) 1845

5. A person who studies about the origin, evolution and variations in plants and also about
the classification of plants is referred as

(a) taxonomist (b) herbal taxonomist

(c) classical taxonomist (d) evolutionist

6. Amongst all the kingdoms, the only taxon that exists in nature as a biologically cohesive
unit is the

(a) species (b) genus (c) phylum or division (d) kingdom

7. One of the following includes all the others

(a) Class (b) Order (c) Genus (d) Species

8. The most convenient way for easy identification of plants and animals by applying
diagnostic features is

(a) recognition (b) preservation

(c) comparison (d) use of taxonomic keys

9. ‘Elemens de Botanique’ was written by

(a) Valliant (b) Tournefort

(c) Micheli (d) de Bary
10. Principles of bionomial nomenclature proposed by Linnaeus are contained in his book,

(a) Philosphia Botanica (b) Historia Plantarum

(c) Species Plantarum (d) Flora Lapponica

11. Who for the first time tried to use two word names for plants and animals

(a) Linnaeus (b) Bauhin

(c) John Ray (d) Aristotle

12. The classification of Engler and Pranti is one which is based on

(a) overall similarities (b) utilitarian system

(c) plant habit (d) common evolutionary descent

13. The disadvantage of Linnaeus two kingdom classification is that it:-

(a) Can demarcate between cryptogams

(b) clubs together saprophytic fungi with photosynthetic organisms
(c) divides all organisms into plants and animals
(d) distinguishes between fungi and protista.

14. Kingdom protista is not considered natural one because

(a) it has diverse modes of form, structure and nutrition

(b) of organisms like slime mould which are totally different from all other organisms
(c) Its members are from different evolutionary lines
(d) all above.

15. Whittaker failed to give any place to one of the following in his classification

(a) cyanobacteria (b) viruses

(c) slime moulds (d) all above

16. One of the following group is odd one out

(a) Cyanobacteria, archaebacteria and methanobacteria

(b) Club moss, bog moss and peat moss
(c) Reptiles, birds and mammals
(d) None above

17. The total number of members of kingdom animalia so far discovered are

(a) 1.2 million (b) 5 million

(c) 3.5 million (d) 1.7 million
18. Which statement about the archaean genome is true ?

(a) It is much more similar to the bacterial genome than to eukaryotic genomes
(b) More than half of its genes are never observed in bacteria or eukaryotes
(c) It is much smaller than the bacterial genome.
(d) It is housed in the nucleus and no archaean genome has yet been sequenced.

19. A taxon derived from a single ancestral population is

(a) phenetic (b) monophyletic

(c) phylogenetic (D) polyphyletic

20. The book ‘Structure and Reproduction of the Algae’ describing taxonomy of algae is
written by

(a) Whittaker (b) Fritsch

(c) Trainer (d) Christensen

21. Which of the following grouping is correct ?

(a) Cuttle, fish, silver fish, sea urchin (coelentrates)

(b) Centipede, silverfish, millipede (arthropoda)
(c) Taenia sodium, round worm, flat worm (platyhelminthes)
(d) None above.

22. The plant classification proposed initially were

(a) natural (b) artificial (c) numerical (d) phylogenetic

23. The total number of plant families included by Bentham and Hooker in their
classification is

(a) 202 (b) 186 (c) 196 (d) 206

24. Weisz and Fuler classified the living plants into the following groups

(a) aquatic, terrestrial, aerial

(b) monera, protista, mentazoa
(c) cryptogams and phanerogams
(d) angiosperms and gymnosperms

25. The female sex organs in Riccia and Funaria is

(a) antheridium (b) paraphyses and capsule

(c) archegonium (d) all above.
26. Elaters are present in the sporogonium of

(a) Riccia (b) Selaginella

(c) Marchantia (d) both (a) and (c)

27. Name the alga which inhabits the ventral surface of the Anthoceros thallus ?

(a) Chlamydomonas (b) Nostac

(c) Volvax (d) Chara

28. Stomata occurs in the

(a) gametophyte of Riccia

(b) gametophyte of Marchantia
(c) sporogonium of Funaria
(d) gametophyte of Funaria

29. The tallest moss in the world is

(a) Funaria (b) Pogonatum

(c) Buxbaumia (d) Dawasonia

30. The number of generations in the life cycle of pteridophyte are

(a) two (b) one (c) three (d) four

31. Glossopodium, a water absorbing tissue is a part of a ligule and is characteristic of

(a) Pteris (b) Selaginella (c) Dryopteris (d) Azolla

32. The fern leaves are known as

(a) lamina (b) fronds (c) sporophyll (d) blades

33. Which of the following fossil genera stand midway between pterudophytes and
gymnosperms ?

(a) Lycopodites (b) Seleginellites

(c) Matonidium (d) Calioxylon

34. Sunken stomata are characteristic of

(a) Cycas (b) Pinus (c) Taxus (d) all above.

35. Transfusion tissue replaces the veins is

(a) Cycas and ferns (b) Cycas and Pinus

(c) Cycas (d) Selaginella
36. Dwarf shoots of Pinus are

(a) never shed (b) shed every year

(c) shed every five year (d) shed after 3 to 15 years

37. What is the number of neck canal cells in the archegonium of gnetales ?

(a) 0 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16

38. Oleroesin (Canada balsma) is obtained from

(a) Impatiens balsamia (b) Pinus

(c) Helianthus (d) Abies balsamea

39. The plants which are very small and have soft stems such as grasses are called

(a) climbers (b) lianas (c) runners (d) herbs

40. The only dicot family bearing six cotyledons is

(a) leguminosae (b) compositae

(c) orchidaceae (d) loranthaceae

41. The first true ansiosperm evolved from and ancestral

(a) Arceuthobium (b) Gnetum

(c) Cycas (d) Taxus

42. Which of the following is the most closely matching set

(a) cuttle fish, silver fish, hag fish

(b) man, chimpanze, monkey
(c) bat, pigeon, butterfly
(d) crab, earthworm, oyster

43. The body plan of an animal is

(a) its general structure.

(b) its general form and the functional interrelationship of its parts
(c) its general form and its evolutionary history
(d) the functional interrelationship of its parts and its evolutionary history

44. The animal with haemocoel is

(a) Hydra (b) Leucosolenia

(c) centipede (d) earthworm
45. Rabbit is

(a) nocturnal (b) diurnal (c) crepuscular (d) auroral

46. Invertebrates are characterised by

(a) absence of a true coelom

(b) absence of endoskeleton
(c) absence of pharyngeal gill slits
(d) dorsally or laterally placed heart

47. Sponges are more advanced than protozoa because

(a) they have gastric cavity

(b) of division of labour among the cells
(c) they have locomotary organs
(d) they show regeneration

48. The cells which help in fertilization are

(a) archeocytes (b) thesocytes

(c) choanocytes (d) porocytes

49. A cavity found in all sponges is

(a) radial chamber (b) excurrent canals

(c) paragastric cavity (d) incurrent canals

50. ‘Mermaid’s gloves’ is

(a) Spongilla (b) Euplectella (c) Chalina (d) Cliona

51. Digestion in Leucosolenia and other sponges is

(a) only extracellular

(b) only intracellular
(c) first extracellular, then intracellular
(d) first intracellular, then extracellular

52. There is true alternation of generation shown by cnidarians called as

(a) metachrosis (b) metagenesis

(c) metamorphosis (d) metaboly

53. The main function of interstitial cells is

(a) excretion (b) defence

(c) replenishment of lost cells (d) digestion
54. The blood in the body of Hydra is

(a) present (b) absent

(c) not well organized (d) present only in embryo

55. The locomotion in Hydra taken place by

(a) walking (b) floating and gliding

(c) looping and somersaulting (d) all of these method

56. Hydra is

(a) Protandrous (b) Protogynous

(c) androgynous (d) gynandrous

57. The generic name of “brain-coral” is

(a) Fungia (b) Meandrina

(c) Modrepora (d) Astraea

58. The Great Barrier Reef of northern coast of Australia resembles

(a) fringing reef (b) atoll (c) both above (d) none above

59. Class nuda of ctenophore have

(a) long tentacles (b) small stomodaeum

(c) no tentacles (d) radial symmetry

60. Comb jellies are

(a) strong swimmers (b) having swimmerets

(c) planktonic animals (d) both (a) and (b)

61. Bilateral symmetry is found in

(a) cnidaria (b) porifera

(c) platyhelminthes (d) mollusca

62. Turbellarians are found in

(a) fresh water (b) marine water

(c) brakish water (d) estuary

63. First larval stage in life cycle of Fasciola is

(a) cercaria (b) metacercaria

(c) miracidium (d) sporocyst
64. Which of the following is known ‘Chinese liver fluke’ ?

(a) Fasciola hepatica (b) Fasciola gigantica

(c) Fasciola buski (d) Clonorchis sinensis

65. Taenia has

(a) a single bilobed ovary (b) two ovaries

(c) a single ovary (d) a pair of ovaries with an ovarian bridge

66. Which of the following is dioecious ?

(a) Schistosoma (b) Paragonimus

(c) Diplozoon (d) Convoluta

67. The body organization in nematode is

(a) cellular grade (b) cell-tissue grade

(c) tissue grade (d) organ system grade

68. Disease caused by Ascaris

(a) is ascariasis
(b) results in extensive haemorrhage
(c) is indivated by high temperature, anaemia, leucocytosis and easinophilia
(d) all of the above

69. One of the following is a filarial worm

(a) Wuchereria (b) Loa loa

(c) Onchocerca volvulus (d) all above

70. Cyclops is intermediate host of

(a) Wuchereria (b) Ancyclostoma

(c) Dracunculus (d) all above

71. Pedal glands are characteristic of

(a) acanthocephala (b) rotifers

(c) loricifera (d) none of these

72. They are called moss animals

(a) loricifera (b) entoprocta

(c) acanthocephala (d) gastrotricha
73. Entely means

(a) variable muscle cells

(b) variable locomotion
(c) constant number of cells or nuclei in individuals or a species or in parts of their
bodies
(d) strictly marine nature

74. Annelids are

(a) monoecious (b) dioecious

(c) both monoecious and dioecious (d hermaphrodite

75. The common name of Polynoea is

(a) seamouse (b) sea hare

(c) paddleworm (d) scale worm

76. Which of the following is not a characteristic of heteronereis?

(a) Actively swimming form (b) Eyes become enlarged

(c) Intestine becomes functionless (d) peristomial cirri become reduced

77. A suctorial mouth is present in

(a) leech (b) Ascaris (c) tapeworm (d)

earthworm

78. A snail’s shell is made up of

(a) silica (b) nitrogenous polysaccharide

(c) calcium carbonate (d) sodium carbonate

79. The gills in bivalvia are

(a) two (b) four (c) many (d) none above

80. The incorrect match amongst following is

(a) aplacophora e.g. Chaetoderma

(b) polyplacophora e.g. Chiton
(c) cephalopoda e.g. Dentalium
(d) gastropoda e.g. Achatina

81. The main component of pearl is

(a) NaHCO3 (b) CaCO3 (c) chitin (d) conchiolin

82. Which one of the following is an arthropod character ?
(a) 2 pairs of legs and wings fused
(b) 3 pairs of wings and legs are fused
(c) 6 legs are not fused
(d) 3 pairs of legs and wings are fused
83. The insect which lays eggs in water are

(a) dragon fly (b) sandfly (c) butterfly (d) housefly

84. The largest living insects are the

(a) giant water bugs (b) giant silk moths

(c) giant crabs (d) all above.

85. Which of the following is referred to as ‘living fossil’ ?

(a) Sarcoptes (b) Limulus (c) Daphnia (d) Balanus

86. Japanese celebrate a function annually of ‘singing insects’ in which they use most
noisiest insects which are

(a) bees (b) cicads (c) crickets (d) both b and c

87. Which one of the following is an echinoderm ?

(a) Jelly fish (b) Star fish (c) Silver fish (d) Flying fish

88. One of the following is not the part of the water ‘vascular system of star fish’.

(a) Tube feet (b) Pollian vesicle

(c) Teidmann’s body (d) Axial sinus

89. The stomach of starfishes is

(a) internal (b) reversible (c) protrusible (d) bag-like

90. Larva of Antedon is

(a) velliger (b) bipinnaria (c) trochophore (d) doliolaria

91. Asterias is

(a) uricotelic (b) ammonotelic

(c) ureotelic (d) waste product is guanine
92. One of these features is not characteristic of phylum chordata

(a) presence of notochord (b) gill slits in pharynx

(c) solid tubular ventral nerve cord (D) deuterostomia
93. Difference between hemichordates and chordates are more than the similarity between
them. Which of the following is not a difference between them ?

(a) Divisions of the body and bodycavity

(b) Segmentation of the body
(c) Presence of pharyngeal gill slits
(d) None of the above

94. Notochord is present in larval stages but retrogressive metamorphosis results in its
absence in adult in

(a) hemichordata (b) urochordata

(c) cephalochordata (d) euchordates

95. Excretory organs of Amphioxus are

(a) nephrons (b) flame cells (c) nephridia (d) kidneys

96. Blood of the protochordate, Balanoglossus is

(a) colourless with amoeboid corpuscles

(b) coloured with RBC
(c) coloured with amoeboid corpuscles
(d) colorured with WBC

97. Which of the following is not an ascidian character ?

(a) Bottom living

(b) Test permanent, well developed thick
(c) Pharynx large with many gill slits
(d) Sexes are separate with no free swimming larva.

98. Lateral line sensory system is markedly developed in

(a) Scoliodon
(b) Cyclostomes, fish and a few larval amphibians
(c) larval stages of fishes
(d) all members of class elasmo branchii

99. Which of the following is commonly called as electric ray ?

(a) Torpedo (b) Pristis (c) Sphyrna (d) Raja

100. Which one of the following is a lung fish ?

(a) Latimeria (b) Notopterus

(c) Neoceratodus (d) Lepiddosteus
101. One of the following is true with respect to Echeneis ?

(a) The head resembles a hammer

(b) It is a cartilaginous fish
(c) Dorsal fin is modified into an adhesive disc
(d) Spines are present in second dorsal and anal fins

102. Body is covered with five rows of hony scutes in

(a) Acipenser (b) Hippocampus (c) Amia (d) Pristis

103. The common thing in fish, amphibians and reptiles is

(a) Scales (b) eggs (c) shelled eggs (d) gills

104. A good example of parental care in amphibians is

(a) Ichthyophis (b) Cryptobranchus

(c) Ambystoma (d) all of the above

105. Hell-bender is the common name of

(a) Ambystoma (b) Ichthyophis

(c) Salamandra (d) Cryptobranchus

106. Reptiles and birds are

(a) ureotelic (b) uricotelic

(c) ammonotelic (d) none of the above

107. Reptillian embryos have

(a) only omnion (b) amnion and allantois

(c) amnion, allantois and yolksac (d) amnion and yolksac

108. Glass-snake (Ophisaurus) derives its name as

(a) skin is moist and glassy in appearance

(b) its ability to break off its tail when seized
(c) it is limbless
(d) they have overlapping scales the body

109. The largest living lizard in the world is

(a) Varanus (b) Iguana (c) Crocodilus (d) Hemidactylus

110. Living fossil of retiles is

(a) Chelonia (b) Sphenodon (c) Matamata (d) Draco

111. Snake’s poison gland is modification of

(a) sublingual salivary gland (b) thyroid gland

(c) parotid salivary gland (d) none above

112. Preen gland

(a) secretes digestive enzymes

(b) secretes oil secretion for lubricating feathers
(c) in excretory in function
(d) none of the above

113. A polygamous bird in which male mainly incubates the eggs is

(a) Penguin (b) kiwi (c) ostrich (d) emu

114. Kingfisher’s feet are modified for

(a) walking (b) perching (c) running (d) catching

115. The preserved fossil remains of Archeopteryx shows that

(a) it was a flying reptile in triassic period

(b) reptiles gave rise to birds during jurassic period
(c) it was flying reptile from the permian period
(d) reptiles gave rise to birds during permian period.

116. Mammals do not show

(a) polyphyodont condition

(b) diphyodorit condition
(c) monophyodont condition
(d) thecodont condition

117. Hairless mammals are

(a) rodents (b) chiropterans

(c) primates (d) cetaceans

118. The number of cervical vertebrae in man are

(a) equal to whale (b) half to giraffe

(c) more than rabbit (d) double to rat
119. Baleen is traced in

(a) Sus (b) Whales (c) Ovis (d) Equus

120. The Foveola is a

(a) Gastric gland (b) Rugae

(c) Brunner’s gland (d) Gastric pit

121. Unisexual flowers are found in inflorescence of

(a) Ficus (b) Poinsettia (c) Morus (d) all of the above

122. If the peduncle shows indeterminate or indefinite growth producing flowers laterally in
an acropetal order i.e. youngest near the apex and older near the base of the inflorescence
is

(a) racemose (b) cymose (c) mixed (d) specialized

123. In Begonia and Gossypium cymose inflorescence is found which is

(a) polychasial (b) monochasial (c) dichasial (d) thyrse

124. An inflorescence with saucer shaped open receptacle bearing flowers like a
hypanthodium, found in Dorstenia is called

(a) hypanthodium only (b) cyathium

(c) coenanthium (d) thyrus

125. Cyathium and hypanthodium resemble each other in possessing

(a) involucre (b) dioecious nature

(c) receptacle (d) none above.

126. A simple dehiscent fruit occurs in

(a) maize (b) radish (c) sunflower (d) pea

127. Dry fruit formed from bilocular superior ovary and dehiscing into two valves from base
upwards is

(a) legume (b) follicle (c) carcerulus (d) silliqua

128. Rice and wheat grain is

(a) fruit (b) seed (c) embryo (d) dried bud

129. Lomentum is characterized by

 (a) dehiscence from both sutures
(b) dehiscence from one suture
(c) indehiscent nature
(d) constrictions in between the seeds

130. Which of the following fruits is an example of a pome?

(a) Mango (b) Lemon (c) Grape (d) Pear

131. Correct march is

(a) Etaerio of achences…. Mognolia

(b) Etaerio of follicies .... Rubus
(c) Etaerio of drupes … Fragaria
(d) none above

132. Syconus fruit is found in

(a) Ficus (b) Dorstenia (c) both above (d) none above

133. The edible part of grape is

(a) epicarp (b) pericarp and placenta

(c) mesocarp (d) none

134. The caryopsis is a fruit

(a) that does not have fruit wall

(b) that is fleshy and many seeded
(c) in which fruit wall and seedcoat are fused
(d) that dehisces to expel seed

135. In albuminous seeds the food is mostly stored in

(a) cotyledons (b) endosperm (c) testa (d) plumule

136. The single shield shaped coryledon of maize is called

(a) tigellum (b) obturator (c) coleoplite (d) scutellum

137. The part that develops into seed is

(a) carpel (b) ovule (c) ovary (d) embryo

138. Which of the following temperature is best suited for seed germination ?

(a) 0-10˚C (b) 20-30˚C (c) 30-40˚C (d) 40˚C

139. Banana is seedless as they reproduce vegetatively and

 (a) are sprayed with auxins
(b) reproduce allogamically
(c) have plenty of cytokinins
(d) have abundant auxins before fertilization

140. Seed dispersal

(a) avoids competition (b) produces mixed population

(c) promotes cross pollination (d) all above

141. Nelumbo fruit is dispersed by

(a) anemochory (b) zoochory

(c) hydrochory (d) autochory

142. The fruits of Tribulus are dispersed by

(a) water (b) wind (c) animals (d) none above

143. It has explosive fruits

(a) Xanthium (b) Martynia (c) Pupalia (d) Entada

gigas

144. Taraxacum seeds are adapted for

(a) water dispersal (b) wind dispersal

(c) animal dispersal (d) none of these

145. The typical floral formula of disc florets is

(a) Kpappus C5 A0 G(2) (b) Kpappus C(5) A(5) G(2)

(c) K5 C5 A(9)+1 G(2) (d) K0 C5 - A5 G(2)

146. Which is the monocot character shown by flowers of liliaceae ?

(a) Ovary hypogynous (b) Hermanphrodite flowers

(c) Trimerous flowers (d) Actinomorphic

147. Iberis is commonly called as

(a) pansy (b) poppy (c) candytuft (d) marigold

148. Portulaca and Primula show ____________ placentaions

(a) axile (b) basal (c) free central (d) parietal

149. The epidermis and rootcap is produced by

(a) dermatogen (b) periblem (c) plerome (d) flank region

150. The cambium located in between xylem and phloem in dicot stem is

(a) interfascicular (b) intrafascicular

(c) fascicular (d) both b and c

151. Sieve cells can be traced in

(a) dicots (b) monocots

(c) gymnosperms and pteridophytes (d) bryophytes

152. Root cap is absent in

(a) mesophytes (b) hydrophyte

(c) epiphytes (d) xerophytes

153. The incorrect statement is

(a) calcium oxalate crystals in leaves are raphides

(b) calcium carbonate ecystals are cystoliths
(c) Hydrilla is amphistomatic
(d) Gossypium has commercially important trichomes

154. Gaseous exchange in submerged hydrophytes takes place through

(a) lenticels (b) stomata

(c) hydathodes (d) general surface of plants

155. The plant product of Papaver is

(a) latex (b) resin (c) tanin (d) none above

156. Simplest type of stele is

(a) solenostele (b) siphonostele

(c) protostele (d) dictyostele

157. Honey is secreted by

(a) digestive glands (b) nectaries

(c) oil ducts (d) laticiferous ducts
158. A narrow layer consisting of thin-walled cells which separates the wood from phloem in
dicot stem is called

(a) pericycle (b) cambium

 (c) endodermis (d) phellogen

159. Monocot stem are characterized by

(a) conjoint collateral and open vascular bundle

(b) conjoint collateral and closed vascular bundle
(c) radial
(d) none of the above

160. In a root, the ring of cambium is formed

(a) by vascular cambium (b) by pericycle

(b) partly from (a) and partly (b) (d) from cortex

161. The innermost layer of cortex which show Casparian thickenings in its cells is called as

(a) epidermis (b) endodermis

(c) pericycle (d) exodermis

162. In Phanerogams (higher plants), leaves grow by

(a) apical and intercalary growth (b) apical or lateral growth

(c) lateral and marginal growth (d) marginal or intercalary growth

163. A statement correct in reference with monocot leaf is

(a) bulliform cells are absent from the epidermis

(b) mesophyll shows a massive network
(c) veins form a massive network
(d) mesophyll tissues are undeifferentiated

164. What type of cells are found in the cortex ?

(a) Collenchyma (b) Parenchyma

(c) Sclerenchyma (d) All of these

165. Trees growing along sea shores do not form annual rings because

(a) soil is sandy (b) soil is saline

(c) climatic variation is indistinct (d) humidity is high round the year

166. Buoyancy of Azolla is due to

(a) upthrust force of water (b) epidermal hairs on leaves

(c) absence of root (d) aerenchyma
167. Lagenaria stem has vascular bundles

(a) collateral (b) bicollateral (c) radial (d) inverted

168. Urothelium is unique epithelium of

(a) Kidney (b) ureters

(c) urinary bladder (d) all above

169. In man of normal weight, adipose tissue forms about

(a) 20-25% of body weight (b) 30-35% of body weight

(c) 15-20% of body weight (d) 25-30% of body weight

170. Which of these has distinct outer sarcolemma covering ?

(a) Striated (b) Unstriated (c) Cardiac (d) All these

171. In between internodes of neurons there is/are

(a) 1 Schwann cell (b) 2-3 Cells

(c) 6 Schwann cells (d) 1-2 Schwann cells

172. Which pair is incorrect ?

(a) Patella-knee cap (b) Malleus-hammer bone

(c) Sternum-chest bone (d) Stapes-anvil bone

173. Ependyma is

(a) cuboidal epithelium (b) ciliated cuboidal epithelium

(c) lining of neurocoel (d) both (b) and (c)

174. The terminal ducts of septal nephridia of earthworm open

(a) directly in the intestine (b) in supraintestinal excretory ducts

(c) in paired septal excretory canals (d) on body surface by nephridiopores

175. The total number of ganglia in cockroach are

(a) three pairs thoracic and three abdominal

(b) three pairs thoracic and six pairs abdominal
(c) three pairs thoracic and eight pairs abdominal
(d) two pairs thoracic and six pairs abdominal

176. Where is acoustic ridge found in frog ?

(a) Ampulla (b) Utriculus (c) Sacculus (d) Pars basilaris

177. In which segment the clitellum is present in earthworm ?

(a) 16 segments (b) 17-19 segments

(c) 14-16 segments (d) 5-6 segments
178. The idea of individuality of cells was proposed by

(a) Hooke (b) Virchow (c) Dutrochet (d) Schleiden

179. The inclusions like raphides, druses and sphaeraphides can be traced in mainly some of
the following cells

(a) prokaryotic (b) protozoan cells

(c) hygrophytic plant cells (d) xerophytic plant cells

180. pH of the cytoplasm is

(a) 5.8 (b) 6.8 (c) 7.8 (d) 8.8

181. One of the following cell with plastid is

(a) fungal (b) protistan (c) animal (d) moneran

182. Cell membrane is mainly constituted by lipids, proteins and carbohydrates. With respect
to their mutual proportions, which of the following statement is correct ?

(a) All the three are in equal proportions

(b) Lipids are in least proportion
(c) Proteins are in least proportion
(d) Carbohydrates are in least proportion

183. Which of the following means of transmembrane transport involves expenditure of

energy by the cell and can move materials up a concentration gradient ?

(a) active transport (b) simple diffusion

(c) facilitated diffusion (d) osmosis

184. One of the following methods for transporting sustances across a membrane does not
involve a change in extrinsic and intrinsic proteins

(a) Na+ - K+ pump (b) active transport

(c) simple diffusion (d) facilitated diffusion

185. Cell eating and cell drinking are the phenomena that cannot be traced in

(a) prokaryotic cells (b) eukaryotic plant cells

(c) eukaryotic animal cells (d) none above

186. Genophore of a prokaryote is

(a) RNA core (b) DNA double stranded supercoils

(c) Proteins (d) all above
187. Plant cell wall abundantly contains

(a) pentosan polysaccharide (b) mucopolysaccharide

(c) hexosan polysaccharide (d) disaccharide

188. The term, ‘DNA’ was introduced by

(a) Watson(b) Wilkins (c) Pauling (d) Zacharis

189. The ribosomes are attached to endoplasmic reticulum through

(a) rRNA (b) mRNA (c) ribophorins (d) all above.

190. Flattened sacs of Golgi are separated from each other by a space which is

(a) 13A˚ (B) 130A˚ (c) 115A˚ (d) 300A˚

191. Which of the following show 9 + 10 arrangement ?

(a) centriole and basal bodies (b) cilia

(c) centriole (d) cilia and flagella

192. Mitochondria and meiosis are absent in

(a) blue green algae (b) green algae

(c) red algae (d) brown algae

193. In 1967 R.W. Breidenbach and H.Beevers discovered microbodies in fat storing cells of
germinating seeds known as

(a) lomasomes (b) mesosomes

(c) peroxisomes (d) glyoxysomes

194. Polyribosmes from ribosomes are formed in the presence of

(a) Mg++ (b) Ca++

(c) K+ or Na+ (d) Both ‘a’ and ‘c’

195. Chlorophyll ‘a’ is characterized by the side group

(a) methyl (b) aldehyde (c) phytol (d) ketone

196. Function of torus is to

(a) regulate water conduction (b) stop water conduction

(c) inhibit water conduction (d) help in water absorption
197. The key buffer-pair in human blood is

(A) Na+ and C1- (b) carbon and oxygen

(c) H2 and O2 (d) carbonic acid and bicarbonates ions

198. Test that can distinguish between monosaccharides and disaccharides is

(a) Benedict’s test (b) Barfoed’s test

(c) Tollen’s test (d) Nylander’s test

199. Number of amino acids present in the plant, animal and microbial proteins is

(a) 20 (b) 80 (c) 150 (d) 200

200. Which of the following is important in oxidative and fat metabolism ?

(a) Glucose (b) Pyruvic acid

(c) Acetyl CoA (d) Carbon dioxide

201. Genetic information in human beings is stored in

(a) DNA (b) RNA

(c) both DNA and RNA (d) none of above

202. ATP-ADP system was discovered in

(a) 1940 (b) 1944 (c) 1943 (d) 1840

203. The active site of an enzyme is formed by

(a) R groups of aminoacids (b) aminogroups of aminoacids

(c) COOH groups of aminoacids (d) exposed sulfur bonds

204. Pituitary controls urine volume through

(a) ADH (b) STH (c) ACTH (d) GH

205. In which of the following types of enzyme water may be added to a C = C bond without
breaking the bond

(a) hydroxylase (b) hydratase

(c) hydrolase (d) esterase

206. Which part of the cell disappears during mitosis ?

(a) Plasma membrane (b) Nucleolus

(c) Plastid (d) None
207. ‘U’ or ‘V’ or ‘J’ shaped chromosomes are seen in

(a) prophase (b) metaphase

(c) telophase (d) anaphase

208. One of the following cells can divide by meiosis

(a) Sporocyte (b) Meiocytes

(c) Primary spermatocyte and primary oocytes (d) All above

209. He La cells can be used to study cell division ; they are

(a) human skin cancer cells (b) human uterine cancer cells
(c) human heart cells (d) rat uterine cancer cells

210. Von Helmont concluded that plants get their food from

(a) air (b) water (c) humus (d) air and H2O

211. Emerson defined red drop as decline in the quantum yield of photosynthesis at
wavelength

(a) 460 nm (b) 670 nm

(c) 680 nm (d) more than 680 nm

212. In a chlorophyll molecule, the magnesium is situated in the

(a) centre of porphyrin (b) corner of phytol

(c) phytol chamber (d) isocyclic ring

213. Chlorophyll a is not found in

(a) alage (b) photosynthetic bacteria

(c) a and b both (d) bryophytes

214. Intensity of light increases 20 times, rate of photosynthesis will

(a) increase (b) not increase

(c) decrease (d) increase till feed back inhibition

215. The most efficient converter of sunlight is

(a) potato (b) tomato (c) sugar cane (d) papaya

216. The energy stored in one molecule of NADPH and one molecule of ATP are ……….. and
……….. respectively

(a) 52 kcal, 7 kcal (b) 520 kcal, 70 kcal

 (c) 150 kcal, 22 kcal (d) 650 kcal, 90 kcal

217. One of the following involves loss of 2 electrons and 2 protons

(a) carboxylase (b) dehydrogenase

(c) kinase (d) deamination

218. Pick up C4 plant.

(a) Papaya (b) Potato (c) Maize (d) Pea

219. Translocation of sugar in angiosperms occur in form of

(a) glucose (b) starch (c) lactose (d) sucrose

220. During dark reaction, for the fixation of carbon, the three carbon atoms of each molecule
of 3-phosphoglyceric acid (PGA) are derived from

(a) RuBP only (b) CO2 only

(c) RuBP + CO2 (d) RuBP + CO2 + PEP

221. The number of photons required to release one mole of O2 in photosynthesis is called

(a) quantum yield (b) quantum requirement

(c) red drop (d) Emerson’s effect

222. The dye used by Hill in his experiments was

(a) eosin (b) resorcin

(c) dichlorophenol indophenol (d) sulphur green

223. The end product of fermentation of sugars by Psuedomonas bacteria is

(a) lactic acid and alcohol (b) CO2

(c) ethyl alcohol + CO2 (d) butyl alcohol

224. Fermentation is carried out by

(a) all bacteria (b) all fungi

(c) some bacteria and some fungi (d) all micro-organisms

225. In metabolism of glycogen, first to be formed is

(a) glucose 1 phosphate (b) glucose 6 phosphate

(c) glucose (d) dextrin

226. Which reaction leads to direct formation of ATP in Kreb’s cycle ?

(a) Glucose-1-phosphate to glucose-6-phosphate

(b) Citrate to isocitrate
 (c) Ketoglutarate to succinate
(d) Isocitrate to cis-aconitate

227. Terminal oxidation is essential for oxidation of

(a) enzymes (b) ATP (c) H2O (d) coenzymes

228. Protein rich pulses have R.Q. equal to

(a) one (b) more than one

(c) less than one (d) none above

229. In aerobic respiration

(a) glucose is the only substrate

(b) glucose is a preferred substrate
(c) glucose cannot be used directly
(d) any material which burns in air is used as a substrate

230. All of the following are prosthetic groups in pyruvate to acetyl CoA reaction, except

(a) Mn (b) thiamine pyrophosphate and coenzyme A

(c) lipoic acid (d) NAD

231. Total ATP production during EMP pathway is

(a) 24 ATP molecules (b) 8 ATP molecules

(c) 38 ATP molecules (d) 15 ATP molecules

232. Pentose monophosphate shunt is more advantageous to Kreb’s cycle as

(a) it yield more ATP

(b) ribose sugar is released which helps in nucleic acid formation
(c) it releases more oxygen
(d) it utilizes less oxygen

233. The term, ‘growth’ is used to denote

(a) an increase in size by enlargement and division of cell

(b) synthesis of new cellular material
(c) organisation of sub-cellular organelles
(d) all of these

234. In log, phase, growth is

(a) slowest (b) fastest

(c) intermediate (d) no growth at all
235. The name ‘gibberellin’ was coined by

(a) Kurosawa (b) Yabuta (c) Mitchell (d) Brain

236. Kinetin was first isolated and identified by

(a) Charles Darwin (b) Boysen and Jansen

(c) Paal (d) Miller

237. ‘Morphactins’ are

(a) synthetic growth regulators (b) synthetic auxins

(c) synthetic gibberellins (d) none of these

238. Nastic movements differ from tropic movements in being

(a) directional with respect to stimulus

(b) non-directional with respect to stimulus
(c) controlled by turgor pressure
(d) controlled by chemicals

239. The growth movement in stem-apex of pea is type

(a) hygroscopic (b) nutation (c) nastic (d) tropism

240. Phytochromes are found in

(a) Golgi complex (b) mitochondria

(c) cell-membrane (d) endoplasmic reticulum

241. Photoperiodic stimulus in plants is perceived by

(a) stem (b) flower (c) leaf (d) root

242. Cycocel is a

(a) wound hormone (b) growth hormone

(c) rhizocaline necessary for root formation (d) growth retardant

243. Ethylene is involved in

(a) aerobic resiration (b) anaerobic respiration

(c) climacteric respiration (d) fermentation

244. Hormone receptors have

(a) low affinities (b) moderate affinities

(c) very high affinities (d) no attractions to hormones
245. Vasopressin is related with

(a) concentration of urine (b) dilution of urine

(c) quick digestion (d) slow heart beat

246. Administration of thyroxin into the body

(a) increases the rate of oxygen consumption

(b) lowers the level of sweating
(c) increases the pulse rate
(d) reduces the pulse rate

247. Insulin deficiency produces

(a) increased entry of glucose into cells

(b) reduced entry of glucose into cells
(c) decreased release of glucose from liver
(d) no effect on carbohydrate metabolism

248. The set of female hormones is

(a) adrenocorticotropic and androgens

(b) estradiol and progesterone
(c) testosterone androgens
(d) all above

249. Progesterone when given

(a) alone causes growth of breast

(b) with estrogen causes growth of breast
(c) alone depresses the growth of breast
(d) with estrogen depresses the growth of breast

250. The growth rate in childhood is controlled by

(a) thymosine (b) testosterone

(c) oestrogen (d) thyroxine

251. Animals that feed on fluids or dissolved substances are

(a) macrophagous (b) microphagous

(c) osmotrophs (d) autotrophs

252. What is the name given to teeth that are square with enamel enclosing softer areas of
dentine ?

(a) Secodont (b) Solenodont

(c) Hypsodont (d) Pleurodont
253. Ileum of rabbit is very long as compared to that of frog because

(a) rabbit is larger in size (b) rabbit is omnivore

(c) it is a mammal (d) it is a herbivore

254. For how much time on average meal stays in fish-hook stomach ?

(a) 6-8 hrs (b) 3-4 hrs (c) 1-2 hrs (d) 8-10 hrs

255. Glucagon is produced in the islet of Langerhans by

(a) β cells (b) α cells (c) delta cells (d) both (a)and(b)

256. Cow’s milk is more nutritious and slightly yellow due to presence of

(a) vitamin D (b) ascorbic acid (c) riboflavin (d) tryptophan

257. The reason why liver of people addicted to alcohol gets damaged is that it

(a) has to detoxify the alcohol (b) store excess of glycogen

(c) is over stimulated to secrete bile (d) accumulate excess of fats

258. The functional units of the lungs are

(a) trachea (b) bronchi (c) bronchioles (d) alveoli

259. The resting tidal volume to vital capacity ratio should be

(a) 1:5 (b) 1 : 10 (c) 1 : 20 (d) 1 : 40

260. Excess CO2 content caeses breathing called as

(a) asthma (b) acapnia (c) oligocapnia (d) hypoxia

261. Which of the following statements correctly defines Bohr effect ? Rise in

(a) P50 with a decrease in CO2 conc (b) P50 with a decrease in pH
(b) P60 with a decrease in pH (d) P50 with a decrease in pH

262. In earthworm the contraction wave travels at the speed of

(a) 0.1 – 0.5 mm/second (b) 0.5 – 0.9 mm/sec.

(c) 0.9 – 1.5 mm/sec (d) 1.5 – 2.0 mm/sec
263. ‘QRST’ stands for

(a) auricular systole (b) ventricular systole

(c) auricle diastole (d) cardiac cycle

264. Descending aorta and pulmonary trunks are ……….

(a) muscular arteries (b) medium arteries

(c) elastic arteries (d) arterioles major

265. Deficiency of Vit. K will bring blood clotting difficult because it is essential for

(a) change of thromboplastin to thrombin

(b) platelet
(c) prothrombin synthesis
(d) fibrinogen synthesis

266. Leucopenia is

(a) uncontrolled WBC (b) uncontrolled RBC

(c) excess platelets (d) less production of WBC

267. A chemical that prevents the blood clotting is most useful in the treatment of

(a) leukaemia (b) anemia

(c) haemophilla (d) coronary thrombosis

268. The conduction of impulse from SA node moves to

(a) AV node (b) bundle of His

(c) Purkinjee fibres (d) cardiac muscles

269. Antennary glands are excretory organ of

(a) spiders (b) crustaceans

(c) mollusca (d) echinodermata

270. The cells of proximal tubule develop microvilli and have brushy border; The number of
microvilli per square micron in human being is

(a) 150 (b) 500 (c) 3000 (d) 3500

271. Over 99% of the glomerular filtrate are reabsorbed and are approximately

(a) 180 lit (b) 25 lit (c) 125 lit (d) 90 lit

272. The liver of one of the following is richest source of arginase enzyme
 (a) bony fish (b) cartilaginous fish (c) frog (d) rabbit

273. Urine of diabetes mellitus patient smells sweetish odour due to presence of

(a) ammonia (b) sugar

(c) acetone (d) ammonium carbonate

274. Ammonia produced during protein catabolism is converted to uric acid in the liver of

(a) ornthinotelic animals (b) uricotelic animals

(c) ammonotelic animals (d) ureotelic animals

275. Number of bones in face are

(a) 12 (b) 30 (c) 40 (d) 14

276. If the collagen fibres hold the bones firmly together so that they cannot change position
relative to each other, the joint is

(a) immovable joint (b) slightly movable joint

(c) freely movable joint (d) sliding joint

277. All the following are the properties of skeletal muscles except

(a) excitability (b) contractility

(c) rhythmicity (d) tonicity

278. Polio viral disease affects

(a) skeleton (b) nervous system

(c) muscles and spinal cord (d) skeleton and muscular system

279. Which of the following has the largest percentage of its brain devoted to prosencephalon?

(a) Fish (b) Cat (c) Frog (d) Bird

280. White matter of spinal cord contains

(a) nerve axons (b) cell bodies

(c) clusters of neurons and cell bodies (d) motor neurons

281. Tongue muscles are controlled by

(a) vagus (b) hypoglossal

(c) accessory (d) glossopharyngeal
282. Langley (1927) introduced

(a) Reflex action (b) Autonomic N.S.

(c) Conditional Reflex action (d) none above

283. The minimum current required to stimulate a nerve is called

(a) rheobase or threshold current (b) spike

(c) action potential (d) none above

284. The hormones which are released at nerve endings

(a) neurohormones (b) neurotransmitters

(c) stimulating hormone (d) none above

285. Sensory hair of rabbit is

(a) vibrissae (b) sensory hair (c) papillae (d) all of the above

286. The light sensitive portion of the eye is called the

(a) sclera (b) choroid (c) cornea (d) retina

287. In old age lens loses its ability to focus because of loss of elasticity and ability to
accommodate called as

(a) astigmatism (b) trachoma

(c) glaucoma (d) presbyopia

288. Eustachian tube has single opening in the pharynx of

(a) birds (b) amphibians (c) Pipa toad (d) both a and c

289. Rats can perceive sound waves of frequency ……… KHz

(a) 20 (b) 150 (c) 1000 (d) 100

290. Cells of Deiter occur in

(a) utriculus (b) retina of eyes

(c) organ of Corti (d) sebaceous glands

291. Longest living organism amongst following is

(a) Larrla (b) Sequoia (c) Ficus (d) Tortoise

292. When a cut portion of plant forms a full adult plant, it is called as
 (a) cutting (b) layering (c) grafting (d) stock

293. Sexually producing larva shows

(a) isogamy (b) anisogamy (c) paedogamy (d) autogamy

294. Gonads in organisms are derived form

(a) ectoderm (b) mesoderm (c) endoderm (d) all three layers

295. The plant material, which is widely used in the preparation of culture medium, is

(a) Cycas revoluta (b) Cocos nucifera

(c) Pinus longifolia (d) Borassus flabellifer

296. The pigment responsible for flower induction is

(a) carotene (b) riboflavin

(c) phytochrome (d) xanthophyll

297. The first cell of female gametophyte is

(a) megaspore (b) microspore

(c) megaspore mother cell (d) microspore mother cell

298. The oospore derived from double fertilization in angiosperms is

(a) haploid (b) diploid (c) triploid (d)

polypoid

299. Nurse tissue of ovule is

(a) nucellus (b) chalaza (c) hilum (d) micropyle

300. Pro-ubisch bodies coated with sporopollenin will become

(a) pre-ubisch bodies (b) ubisch bodies

(c) pollenin (d) pollenkit

301. In the angiosperms a unique process is observed in the embryo sac, this is

(a) double fusion (b) triple fusion

(c) triple fusion and double fertilization (d) fusion of gametes

302. The muscles helping in getting warmth in testis are

(a) cremaster (b) dartos

(c) Gubernaculum (d) Mesorchium
303. The primary oocytes remain small without any growth in human females for …… years

(a) 5-6 (b) 12-14 (c) 1-2 (d) 4-5

304. Estradiol is secreted by

(a) theca interna (b) zona pellucida

(c) young follicle (d) Graafian follicle

305. If India’s population is increasing at the rate of 13.6 million per year, then what
percentage of total increase in world’s population in one calendar year is contributed by
the Indians ?

(a) 10% (b) 17% (c) 15% (d) 20%

306. How many condoms per year may be needed to protect a couple from increasing the
population in India ?

(a) 3 (b) 52 (c) 72 (d) 92 only

307. One of these causes nongononococcal urethritis

(a) Treponema Pallidum (b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

(c) Chamydia trachomatis (d) HSV-I

308. Average ration of man and woman in human population in India is

(a) 3:4 (b) 1:1 (c) 3:5 (d) 1:2

309. In India, the population policy was announced in which year ?

(a) 1971 (b) 1976 (c) 1978 (d) 1981

310. Genetics deals with

(a) heredity and variations (b) mutations

(c) variations (d) Mendel’s laws

311. Exact alikeness to parents is absent because of

(a) variations produced by crossing over at the time of gamete formation

(b) variations produced by chance distribution of chromosome
(c) both above
(d) none above
312. F1 hybrids contain

(a) two different genes of a contrasting pair of characters

(b) single gene of only one character
 (c) two genes of same character
(d) single gene for all characters

313. Mendel started his experiments with pure strains of peas ; a pure strain was developed by
removing all

(a) female plants (b) male plant parts

(c) atypical plants in each generation (d) weak plants

314. The appearance of a hidden character in some offsprings in F 2 generations obeys the law
of

(a) purity of gametes (b) dominance

(c) codominance (d) independents assortment

315. On inbreeding, the homozygous parents will produce

(a) all similar offsprings (b) 25% similar and 75% dissimilar
(c) 75% similar and 25% dissimilar (d) 50% similar and 50 % dissimilar

316. Haemolytic jaundice is caused by a dominant gene but only 10% of the people actually
develop it ; What proportion of the children would be expected to develop the disease if a
heterozygous normal woman ?

(a) 1/5 (b) 1/10 (c) 1/15 (d) 1/20

317. Pink coloured flowers are obtained from a cross between a red flower pea plant and white
flower pea plant. The appearance of this pink colour character is known as

(a) codominance (b) complete dominance

(c) incomplete dominance (d) segregation

318. Phenocopies have

(a) different genotypes (b) different phenotypes

(c) both of these (d) none of the above

319. In Antirrhinum, when a cross is made between red and white flowers all resultant flowers
are

(a) red (b) pink (c) white (d) red and white in equal numbers

320. The possible blood groups of children born to parents have A x AB groups are

(a) O,A,B (b) O,A,B, AB (c) O,A (d) A,B,AB

321. If a cross us made between AaTT and aatt where A stands for red dominant and T for tall
dominant, what will be the percentage of red tall plants

(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100%

322. When a hybrid plant with pink (Rr) flower of Mirabilis is crossed with white flower the
expected phenotype ratio is

(a) red : pink : white 1 : 2 : 1 (b) Pink : white : 1 : 1

(c) red : pink : 1 : 1 (d) red : white 3 : 1

323. Nucleic acids are polymers of

(a) globulins (b) nucleoproteins

(c) nucleosides (d) nucleotides

324. The width of B-DNA is …… and each turn of its helix has ……… nucleotides

(a) 34 Å; 11 (b) 20 Å; 12 (c) 40 Å; 8 (d) 20 Å; 10

325. To demonstrate the semi-conservative mode of replication Meselson and Stahl used

(a) autoradiography (b) ultracentrifugation

(c) both above (d) X-ray crystallography only

326. In tryptophan operon, a repressor consists of co-repressor and apo-repressor. These two
consist of

(a) protein and tryptophan (b) RNA and protein

(c) tryptophan and protein (d) RNA and tryptophan

327. Enzymes synthesized in lac operon are

(a) lactase, galactose and hexokinase

(b) permease, galactose and lactase
(c) lactase, perinease and galactosidase
(d) permease, galactosidase ad transacetylase

328. The try Operon is turned off when its repressor protein binds with corepressor which is a
molecule of

(a) metabolite (b) specific aminoacid

(c) tryptophan (d) all above

329. Artificially synthesized genes without noncoding sequences often fail to yield proteins
when placed inside a cell ; because

(a) they curl up (b) mRNA are not capable of formation

(c) they bond to DNA (d) are not transcribed
330. GTP and Initiation factors (IF1 ; IF2 and IF3) can be traced in

(a) mRNA (b) tRNA

(c) larger ribosomal subunit (d) smaller ribosomal subunit
331. Synthesis of DNA can be stopped by incorporating artificial

(a) ddATP (b) ddGTP (c) ddCTP (d) all the above

332. When a gene product is required in much larger quantity than others. It is regulated by

(a) gene pool (b) gene frequency

(c) gene dosage (d) all the above

333. During DNA replication, the term leading strand is applied to the one which replicates in

(a) 5’→3’ direction continuously (b) 3’→5’ direction continuously

(c) 5’→3’ direction discontinuously (d) 3’→5’ direction discontinuously

334. ‘Arbin’ and ‘ricin’, toxic plant proteins, inhibit protein synthesis in eukaryotic ribosomes
by inactivating the

(a) 40 s sub units (b) 60 s sub units

(c) 60 s and 40 s (d) genetic code

335. Which of the following RNAs picks up specific amino acid from amino acid pool in the
cytoplasm to ribosome during protein synthesis ?

(a) t-RNA (b) m-RNA (c) r-RNA (d) all of these

336. One of the following is true for viruses

(a) All contain lipids

(b) All can reproduce outside living cells
(c) They always lyse the cell they infect
(d) Some can infect plant cells

337. ‘Lac operon’ was given by Jacob and Monod and their theory is applicable in

(a) prokaryotes and protists (b) eukaryotes as well as prokaryotes

(c) only prokaryotes (d) none of these

338. Universe originated about …………… years ago

(a) 15 million (b) 15 billion (c) 4.6 billion (d) 3.4. billion

339. The habitable crust of the earth is called

(a) soil (b) lithosphere (c) biosphere (d) biome

340. Francesco Redi performed an experiment to show that

(a) maggots arise spontaneously in decaying meat

(b) maggots do not arise spontaneously in decaying meat and are produced from the
eggs of flies
(c) life originated near water
(d) life originated from basic organic compounds

341. All kinds of living beings except human beings directly originated from non-living matter
was the theory of

(a) panspermia (b) biogenesis

(c) abiogenesis (d) none of the above

342. The conditions under which amino acid molecules might have become bounded together
to form the first protein molecules was suggested by

(a) Stanley Miller (b) Sydney W. Fox

(c) Harold Urey (d) A.I Oparin

343. The first life appeared in marine water was called protovirus, eobiont or protocell. It was

(a) anaerobic and chemoheterotrophic

(b) aerobic and parasitic
(c) chemoheterotropic and aerobic
(d) anaerobic and autorophic

344. In the primitive environment of sea, rapid polymer formation was possible because of

(a) high temperature

(b) high concentration of inorganic and organic compounds
(c) both above
(d) none above

345. In vitro synthesis of polypeptides, in the absence of RNA was carried out by

(a) Oparin (b) Haldane (c) Fox (d) Miller

346. Viruses are

(a) sub cellular (b) non-living

(c) reproduce inside host (d) all above

347. Name the feature of water which favours that life originated in it

(a) Water carries both splitting (hydrolytic) and binding (polumerizing) qualities
(b) Water is liquid between 4˚C-90˚C.
 (c) Water protect the organisms from thermal shocks as it has a high latent heat
(d) All of these

348. Urey and Miller worked to prove chemical origin of life in the University of

(a) California (b) New York (c) Chicago (d) Boston

349. Most biologists think that RNA was the first genetic material because

(a) amino acids were produced in Stanley Miller’s apparatus

(b) DNA is the universal genetic material of eukaryotes
(c) the existence of ribozymes suggests that early cells could have used RNA to
catalyze chemical reactions and transfer information
(d) RNA is simpler that DNA

350. Modern theory called synthetic theory of evolution is based on

(a) genetic and chromosomal mutations

(b) genetic recombination and natural selection
(c) reproductive isolation
(d) all above

351. According to abiogenesis life originates from

(a) non-living (b) other planes (c) pre existing life

(d) spontaneously (e) chemicals

352. What is necessary for evolution of life ?

(a) CH4 (b) H2O (c) NH3 (d) O2

353. Stellar evolution is

(a) evolution of plant matter

(b) evolution of animal matter
(c) change in the planets and stars from their birth to death
(d) the change in the matter and elements during time

354. Mesozoic era is associated with mass extinction of

(a) flowering plants (b) trilobites

(c) Dodo (d) dinosaurs

355. Which of the following organs are now on way of disappearance ?

(a) homologous organs (b) analogous organs

(c) vestigial organs (d) function
356. Appearance of facial hair in some people is an example of

(a) monogolism (b) analogous organs

(c) atavism (d) all above

357. The basic principles of embryonic development were first given by

(a) Haeckel (b) Von Baer (c) Malthus (d) Weismann

358. Footprints or leaf impressions made in mud filled with some hard mineral resulting in a
fossil is called

(a) mould (b) petrified rock

(c) Coprolite (f) all of the above

359. Geologic time scale was developed by

(a) Aristotle (b) C. Lapworth

(c) A. Sedgwick (d) G. Auduina

360. The preserved fossil remains of Archaeopteryx shows that

(a) it was a flying reptile in the triassic period

(b) reptiles gave rise to birds during Jurassic period
(c) it was flying reptile from the Permian period
(d) reptiles gave rise to birds during Permian period

361. The continental elevation and glaciation occurred in

(a) miocene (b) permian (c) pliocene (d) Oligocene

362. Same group of ancestors have formed the mammals adapted to running, flying and
swimming. This proves

(a) speciation (b) genetic drift

(c) adaptive convergence (d) adaptive radiation

363. Which of the following is not included in coenozoic era ?

(a) Devonian (b) Pliocene (c) Pleistocene (d) Miocene

364. Archeopteryx, a transitional fossil between birds and reptiles was discovered from the
rocks of following period.

(a) Jurassic (b) Archeozoic era

(c) Cretaccous (d) Triassic
365. The scientist who proposed the first theory of evolution was

(a) Wallace (b) Darwin (c) Lamarck (d) Hugo

de Vries

366. On the voyage of the Beagls, Darwin (1809-1882) found that flora and fauna of
termperate South America are most similar to that of

(a) tropical South America (b) Australia

(c) Asia (d) Europe

367. The theory of evolution is now known as

(a) animal evolution (b) organic evolution

(c) molecular evolution (d) biochemical evolution

368. Hexaploid wheat developed through

(a) monoclonal antibodies

(b) chromosome doubling
(c) somatic hybridization only
(d) hybridization and doubling of chromosomes

369. Mutation theory was given by

(a) Darwin (b) Lamarck

(c) Leuwenhoeck (d) Hugo de Vries

370. In an industrial area a peppered moth is able to survive in contrast to light coloured moth
because

(a) it is able to reproduce more

(b) it is naturally selected in the smoky environment
(c) it show mimicry
(d) it undergoes lethal mutations

371. The evolution occurring at a genetic level is called

(a) macroevolution (b) megaevolution

(c) inorganic evolution (d) microevolution

372. The theory of origin of isolation which stresses that nature is not in favour of
hybridization was given by

(a) de Vries (b) Darwin

 (c) Dobzhansky (d) Lamarck

373. Hardy and Weinberg independently proposed

(a) genetic drift (b) non-evolving population

(c) founder’s affect (d) Sewall Wright affect

374. Improved race of pigeon is due to

(a) natural selection (b) environmental selection

(c) artifical selsection (d) protective selection

375. Gene frequency in a population remains stable unless and until there is

(a) random drift (b) random mating

(c) selection (d) mutation

376. Origin of primates occurred about ……… million years ago

(a) 500 – 400 (b) 60 -70 (c) 80 – 100 (d) 1.6 – 1.8

377. The most intelligent ape is

(a) gibbon (b) orangutan (c) gorilla (d) chimpanzee

378. One of the following became extinct 30,000 years ago

(a) Homo erectus (b) Neanderthal man

(c) Java ape man (d) Peking man

379. Which one of the fossil men stood first ?

(a) Australopithecus (b) Homo erectus

(c) Sinanthropus (d) Gigantopithecus

380. Palaeolithic evidence of coloured rock painting was of

(a) Neanderthal man (b) Cro-mangon man

(c) Java ape man (d) Peking man

381. About 40,000 and 10,000 years ago man was leading life of a ‘hunter’gatherer’
represented by present day

(a) Bushmen of Kalahari desert (b) Caucasians

(c) Americans (d) Asians
382. Who among the following are cannibal ?

(a) Peking man (b) Java ape man

(c) Homo habilis (d) (a) and (b)
383. Genus Homo was identified during …… epoch

(a) eocene (b) palaeocene (c) oligocene (d) Pleistocene

384. Theory of evolution indicates

(a) man evolved from monkey

(b) monkey evolved from man
(c) man evolved from dinosaurs
(d) man and apes have common ancestors

385. Diseases such as plague, malaria, typhoid etc. which are transmitted from person to
person are

(a) congenital diseases (b) metabolic disorders

(c) communicable disease (d) degenerative diseases

386. Which of the following in a live oral vaccine given for protection against poliomyelitis ?

(a) Salk’s vaccine (b) TAB vaccine

(c) DPT vaccine (d) Sabin vaccine

387. Most important symptoms of diphtheria are

(a) blockage of respiratory passages resulting in difficulty in breathing

(b) weakness and high fever
(c) soon its toxins affect kidneys, heart, adrenal liver and nervous system
(d) all of these

388. When is ‘Malaria day’ celebrated

(a) 5th June (b) 29th August

(c) 15th August (d) 20th September

389. ‘Cutaneous larva migrans’ is due to

(a) Ancyclostoma braziliense (b) Ascaris Lumbricoides

(c) Drancunculus (d) all above

390. Epstein Barr virus may cause

(a) lymphomas (b) carcinoma

(c) polio (d) both a and b

391. The most commonest component of kidney stones is

(a) calcium oxalate (b) uric acid

(c) cysteine (d) magnesim phosphate
392. A person suffering from malaria feel fever when

(a) exoerythrocytic cycle is completed

(b) signet ring stage is formed
(c) RBC generally ruputured and haemozoin granules are released
(d) all of the above.

393. Rous sarcoma virus is found in

(a) man (b) chicken (c) rat (d) tumour

394. Buffaloes are considered better than cows because

(a) they are resistant to diseases (b) they give more milk
(c) they live longer (d) all of the above

395. Austra-white is the hybrid vigour of

(a) gallus and white leg horn (b) desi variety with exotic bird
(c) austrolorp male and white leg horn female (d) none of the above

396. Fish roes widely used for high biological value to rich in

(a) thymine, creating and tyrosine (b) lecithin and cholesterol

(c) vitamin B,C,D and E (d) all above

397. Silk, honey and lac are

(a) secretory products of animals (b) secretory products of plants

(c) synthetic chemicals (D) both a and c

398. Which of the following is a fungal disease in poultry ?

(a) Thrush (b) Fowl pox (c) Cholera (d) Ranikhet

399. The process of elimination of profitable birds from a flock is called

(a) brooding (b) dubbing (c) culling (d) deworming

400. In India which of the following species of honey bee is reared in artificial hives ?

(a) Apis indica (b) Apis dorsata (c) Apis florae (d) none of these
401. Which of the following statements about bee colony is wrong ?

(a) Domesticated species are A. indica and A. mellifera

(b) Sex differentiation is due to haplodiploidy
(c) They are female dominant societies
(d) Fertilized eggs develop into sterile females only

402. Coccidiosis in poultry is caused by

(a) protozoan parasite, Eimeria (b) helminth parasites

(c) virus (d) fungi

403. Which one of the following acids was produced by fermentation ?

(a) Citric acid (b) Lactic acid (c) Acetic acid (d) All above

404. Vitamin B12 is produced directly during the course of fermentation by

(a) Ashbya Gossypi (b) Rhizopus stolonifer

(c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (d) Propionibacteria

405. Antibiotics inhibit the growth or destroy

(a) bacteria and fungi (b) viruses

(c) bacteria and viruses (d) all of the above

406. Biopesticides are

(a) the chemicals which are used to destroy the pests

(b) the living organisms or their products which are used for the pest control
(c) the organisms which destroy the crops
(d) none of these

407. Vesicular arbuscular mycorrhizae (VAM) are important in

(a) nitrate uptake (b) phosphate uptake

(c) both above (d) sulphate uptake

408. Blue green algae are mainly used as biofertilizers in the field of which crop ?

(a) Wheat (b) Gram (c) Paddy (d) Maize

409. Most commonly used green manure plants are

(a) berseem, cotton and sunn hemp (b) lentil, sunn hemp and berseem
(c) sunflower, cotton and sugarcane (d) cowpea, cluster bean and teak leaves
410. Advantage of energy plantations is

(a) running nuclear plants

(b) to reduce pressure on fossil fuels
(c) to decrease soil erosion and pollution
(d) both b and c

411. The herbicide mixture rich in 2,4-D and 2,4,5-T with TCDD being carcinogenic and
teratogenic used by Americans in Vietnam war in 1961-71 was

(a) agent organge (b) triazines

(c) organophosphates (d) pyrethroids

412. Fruitflies have been controlled by

(a) sterilization
(b) pheromonal compounds as synthetic methyl eugenol
(c) cultural control
(d) all above

413. Restriction enzyme was discovered by

(a) Waksman (b) Alexander Flamming

(c) Berg (d) A.Werner, H.Smith and Nathans

414. Cider is prepared by

(a) action of Lactobacillus on milk

(b) action of Saccharomyces on apple juice
(c) action of saccharomyces on cane sugar
(d) action of Bacillus on ramie

415. Which of the following is non-symbolic biofertilizers ?

(a) VAM (b) Azotobacter

(c) Anabaena (d) Rhizobium

416. Azadirachtin is obtained from

(a) neem (b) Cinchona

(c) Cannabis sativa (d) Chrysanthemum

417. One of the following plants have contributed to coal formation

(a) angiosperms (b) pterdophytes and gymnosperms

(c) bacteria (d) archaeobacteria
418. One important achievement of genetic engineering has been the production of

(a) interferon (b) human insulin

(c) cephalosporin (d) vinoblastine

419. Recombinant DNA research uses mostly prokaryotic bacteria and eukaryotic ……….. as
recipient cells because of their fast reproduction in laboratory conditions

(a) E-coli (b) Drosophila (c) yeasts (d) fungal hyphae

420. Polylinker DNA is one which

(a) do not code for any protein

(b) has restriction sites for several enzymes
(c) is used for DNA transfer
(d) is seen in single stranded DNA only

421. Rec A protein moves in

(a) 3’ – 5’ direction (b) bidirectional

(c) 5’ – 3’ direction in DNA (d) 3’ – 5’ direction in RNA

422. Who discovered PCR (polymerase chain reaction) ?

(a) Wilmut (b) A. Jeffreys (c) Eithoven (d) Kary Mullis

423. If it is now possible to breed plants and animals with desired character through

(a) genetic engineering (b) chromosome engineering

(c) ikebana technique (d) tissue culture

424. The region of gene which do not form part of protein synthesis are called

(a) exons (b) introns (c) transposons (d) cistrons

425. Production of hybridoma is a example of

(a) transgensis (b) cell cloning

(c) gene cloning (d) none of these

426. The plasmid with largest base pairs are

(a) λ Phage (b) bacteriophage (c) P elements (d) YAC

427. Plasmids are the suitable vectors for genetic cloning as

(a) they are indispensable

(b) they are self replicating units
(c) they are essential for bacterial reproduction
(d) none above

428. Which of the following is used in genetic engineering ?

(a) Restriction endonuclease (b) Mycobacterium

(c) Entamoeba (d) Pepsin

429. The bacteria commonly used in plant genetic engineering is

(a) Escherichia coli (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(c) both above (d) none above

430. Which is the most common plasmid used for most of genetically engineered products ?

(a) pBR322 (b) R plasmid types

(c) CaMV19S (d) both a and b

431. The method of producing proteins for food or feed through microbial biomass is called

(a) PCR (b) SCP

(c) nanotechnology (d) none of theses

432. The transgenic animals have been created to model human diseases. One of such example
is

(a) humanized (humanoid) mice for AIDS research having human CD4 gene
(b) Ducomouse
(c) models for immune function to cure diabetes of auto immune diseases
(d) all above

433. The foods made from genetically modified crops required to pass human testing because

(a) they may cause allergies

(b) they may alter genes
(c) they may casue mutations and release toxins
(d) all above

434. Vaccine is

(a) collection of antibiotics

(b) collection of life saving drugs
 (c) collection of killed disease causing bacteria and viruses
(d) collection lysins

435. The largest ecosystem in the world is contributed by

(a) forests (b) rivers (c) oceans (d) grasslands

436. An aquatic ecosystem consists of

(a) biotic factors (b) biotic and abiotic fators

(c) consumers only (d) producers only

437. Geotropism is an example of plant adaptation.

(a) long term (b) short term

(c) heat adaptation amongst (d) changes of light in

438. No two different species can occupy the same niche. This principle was given by

(a) Elton (b) Lindeman

(c) Shelford (d) Gause

439. The soil near the surface is usually darker than about one meter down, this is because the
top soil

(a) is richer in Ca and Mg (b) contains more organic matter

(c) is wetter than the sub soil (d) is drier than the sub soil

440. Severe winters with few months of summer are found in

(a) Tundra (b) Arctic (c) Taiga (d) Antartic

441. Bottom dwellers where no light occurs is found in

(a) benthic zone (b) abyssal zone (c) pelagic zone

(d) lotic zone (e) all of these

442. Pick up the correct statement

(a) Home range of members of a species has larger area than that of territory
(b) Many insects mainly honey bees communicate among themselves by secreting
pheromones
(c) The last succession in series of biotic succession is called a sere
(d) Number of individuals of particular species present in a unit area at a given time
is known as population size
443. The degree of gene flow that takes placed depends on

(a) the size of the gaps that separate the population

(b) the distance over which mating usually takes place
 (c) both above
(d) none above

444. The isolated populations where genetic drift is more pronounced are

(a) large populations (b) only plant populations

(c) only viral populations (d) small populations

445. Large gap between natality and mortality will result in

(a) less old persons in relation to children

(b) more old persons
(c) low dependency ration
(d) prosperous Country

446. The age distribution of a population is determined by the

(a) timing of births and deaths

(b) the rate at which population is growing
(c) both above
(d) none above

447. Density-dependent population regulation results when

(a) only birth rate changes in response to density

(b) only death rate changes in response to density
(c) both above change
(d) population density fluctuates very little

448. One of the following developing country shows highest death rate due to natural
calamities

(a) India (b) Bangladesh (c) Pakistan (d) Nepal

449. If the strong partner is benefited and the weak partner is damaged, the relationship is
known as

(a) ammensalism (b) symbiosis

(c) commensalism (d) allotrphy

450. A population has more than 50% in postreproductive age group ; according to you such
population is

(a) stable (b) declining

(c) inreasing (d) showing biotic potential

451. Elephants, man and mountain sheep

(a) show more biotic potential (b) are called r-strategists

(c) are called K-strategists (d) all above
452. Hydoxylamine toxins are released by

(a) all parasites (b) members of actinomycetes

(c) blue green algae (d) all above

453. Genetic drift operates in only …………. Populations

(a) island (b) smaller (c) larger (d) Mendelian

454. A new species can be developed by

(a) mutation and isolation (b) isolation and competition

(c) mutation and competition (d) variation and competition

455. The major sub-divisions of biosphere are

(a) soil, water and hydrosphere

(b) soil, atmosphere and lithosphere
(c) atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere
(d) atmosphere, lithosphere and air

456. The lowest temperature recorded for any land mass in the world is

(a) -70˚C (b) -90˚C (c) -40˚C (d) -100˚C

457. The type of food chain in which organic matter decomposed is converted into energy rich
compounds is called

(a) detritus and chain (b) grazing food chain

(c) cybernatics (d) none above

458. The last organisms of the food chain are generally

(a) photosynthetic plants (b) herbivores

(c) carnivores (d) none of the above

459. The primary consumers in a pond ecosystem is

(a) phytoplankton (b) zooplankton

(c) fishes (d) bacteria

460. The amount of energy, utilized by herbivores from the plants is

(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 50% (d) 90%

461. Primary succession takes much longer than secondary succession, because it involves

(a) development of the soil

(b) development of a seed bank
 (c) colonization by organisms that are farther away
(d) colonization by more K-selected organism

462. Serule is

(a) hydrosere (b) biosere

(c) microbial succession (d) lithosere

463. The study of energy transfer in an ecosystem at different trophic levels is known as

(a) bioenergetics (b) geobiocoenosis

(c) holocoenosis (d) biosystem

464. Which of the following always shows steeper slopes ?

(a) Pyramid of mass (b) Pyramid of number

(c) Pyramid of energy (d) Pyramid of energy in the aquatic biomes

465. A biotic ecosystem consists of

(a) consumers, decomposers and producers

(b) only consumers
(c) consumers and producers
(d) producers and primary consumers

466. Biogeochemical cycling means cycling of

(a) energy in ecosystem

(b) gases between plants and atmosphere
(c) nutrients in an ecosystem
(d) water

467. Which of the cycle is concerned with energy flow in the ecosystem ?

(a) Food cycle (b) O2 cycle (c) C12 cycle (d) All the above

468. On the basis of vertical changes of temperature, fresh water media is divided into three
strata. The correct sequence of the three strata is

(a) epilimnion, thermocline and hypolimnion

(b) hypolimnion, epilimnion and thermocline
(c) thermocline, hypolimnion and epilimnion
(d) epilimnion, hypolimnion and thermocline.

469. The carbon and nitrogen atoms circulating in the biogeochemical cycles are the same
atoms that were in

(a) insects of cenozoic era

(b) dinosaurs, insects and trees of Mesozoic era
 (c) mammals of cenozoic era only
(d) all above

470. Of more immediate concern regarding carbon cycle is

(a) output rate of carbon locked in deposits of coal, petroleum and natural gar
(b) green house gases
(c) increase in the total mass of carbon in earth’s atmosphere by 12-14%.
(d) all above

471. The total energy stored by photosynthetic plants is

(a) NPP (b) secondary productivity

(c) GPP (d) community productivity

472. The only natural source of sulphur dioxide is ……. Which contribute 2 x 10 9 kg to
5 x 109 kg sulphur per year is

(a) acid rains (b) sea (c) volcanoes (d) industrial wastes

473. One of the following is sedimentary cycle ?

(a) Carbon (b) Hydrogen (c) Nitrogen (d) Phosphorous

474. ‘Biosphere’ is

(a) Government protected area (b) ecosystem

(c) place of individuals interaction (d) earth’s crust

475. One of the very important agricultural practice ‘the crop rotation’ is usually adopted by
our farmers

(a) to harvest two different crops from the same field at the same time
(b) to increase the mineral elements in the same field
(c) to increase the nitrogen contents
(d) both b and c

476. One of the useful activities of most of the bacteria is

(a) nitrogen fixation (b) nitrification

(c) operation of biogeochemical cycles (d) all of the above

477. Ozone depletion is occurring due to

(a) PCB (b) CO (c) PAN (d) none above

478. One way cycle is

 (a) CO2 cycle (b) H2O cycle
(c) free energy cycle (d) O2 cycle

479. The major characteristics of the vegetation of a locality are controlled by

(a) man only (b) mainly by climate

(c) animals only (d) altitude of place only

480. For balanced ecosystem ____ of land in India should be left for forests

(a) 35% (b) 11% (c) 20% (d) 15%

481. Red list suggests …….. plants species in India are vulnerable

(a) 150 (b) 163 (c) 143 (d) 200

482. The programme introduced by UNESCO to maintain our environment and to make wild
life conservation strategies is

(a) The World Wildlife Fund (b) International Biological Programme

(c) Man and Biosphere Programme (d) None above

483. The bird ‘Dodo’ became extinct because of

(a) its beautiful feathers (b) its flesh

(c) its curved beak (d) its melodious songs

484. The Indian wild ass (Asinus homionus) is found in

(a) Garhwal Hinalayas (b) Platau of Ladakh

(c) Thar desert (d) Rann of Kutch

485. Deforestation is the major causal agent of

(a) depletion of natural resources (b) environmental pollution

(c) desertification of habitat (d) all above

486. The in situ conservation of biodiversity is carried by India through

(a) National parks (b) Biosphere reserves

(c) Wildlife sanctuary (d) all of these

487. The faster a ‘waggle dance’ is completed in bees, the

(a) farther away is the food

(b) closer is the food
(c) greater is the amount of food available
 (d) higher the food off the ground

488. The Siberian crane from Russia is a regular visitor to the bird sanctuary in one of the
following place in India

(a) Lallbagh, Bangalore

(b) Vendanthgol sanctuary, Tamil Nadu
(c) Ranganathittis sanctuary, Karnataka
(d) Bharatpur sanctuary, Rajasthan

489. Which of the following has become recently extinct ?

(a) Snow leopard (b) Indian Macaque

(c) Cheetah (d) Tiger

490. Animals like cockroach, lizards and mice share buildings of human dwellings. Such
animals are

(a) transgenic (b) transplants (c) inquilines

(d) cultigens (e) endemic

491. Sustainable environment means

(a) disturbed environment

(b) polluted environment
(c) non-developing environment
(d) environment which can be maintained

492. Mudball technique has been proposed by

(a) Rice Research Institute, Cuttack

(b) CSIR, New Delhi
(c) Punjab Agriculture University, Ludhiana
(d) The International Rice Research Institute in Philipines

493. Which of the following pollutant increases the hardness of water ?

(a) H2SO4 (b) DDT (c) Pb (d) Cu

494. Which of the following are the major source of air pollution ?

(a) Cotton mills (b) Thermal power plant

(c) Petroleum refineries (d) Nuclear rreactors

495. Supersonic jets cause thinning of

(a) O3 layer (b) SO2 layer

(c) O2 layer (d) none of the above
496. Fourier predicted the green house effect and was coined by

(a) Fourier (b) Tanseley (c) Arrhenius (d) Odum

497. The threshold of pain to human ears is

(a) 50-60 dB (b) 30-40 dB (c) 120-140 dB (d) 160-180 dB

498. Increase in concentration of one of the following immediately affects human beings
because it affects O2 carrying capacity of haemoglobin.

(a) CO2 (b) SO2 (c) CO (d) SO4

499. In a small town, pasture is contaminated with air born fluorides. Grazing animals of that
area will suffer from

(a) dental and bone diseases (b) goiter disease

(c) thyroid disease (d) beri-beri

500. Sewage water is purified for recycling by the action of

(a) protozoans (b) micro-organisms

(c) plants and light (d) fish
 ANSWER SHEET BIO-1

1 d 21 b 41 b 61 c 81 b
2 c 22 b 42 b 62 a 82 c
3 b 23 a 43 c 63 c 83 a
4 b 24 c 44 c 64 d 84 a
5 a 25 b 45 c 65 a 85 b
6 a 26 c 46 b 66 a 86 b
7 a 27 d 47 b 67 d 87 b
8 d 28 c 48 a 68 d 88 d
9 b 29 d 49 c 69 d 89 c
10 c 30 a 50 c 70 c 90 d
11 b 31 b 51 b 71 b 91 b
12 d 32 d 52 b 72 b 92 c
13 b 33 d 53 c 73 c 93 c
14 d 34 d 54 b 74 c 94 b
15 b 35 b 55 c 75 d 95 c
16 b 36 b 56 a 76 d 96 a
17 a 37 a 57 b 77 a 97 d
18 b 38 d 58 a 78 c 98 b
19 b 39 d 59 c 79 a 99 a
20 b 40 d 60 c 80 c 100 c
 ANSWER SHEET BIO-2

101 c 121 d 141 c 161 b 181 b

102 c 122 a 142 c 162 d 182 d
103 b 123 b 143 d 163 d 183 a
104 a 124 c 144 b 164 d 184 c
105 d 125 d 145 b 165 c 185 a
106 b 126 d 146 c 166 d 186 d
107 c 127 d 147 a 167 b 187 c
108 c 128 a 148 c 168 d 188 d
109 a 129 d 149 a 169 c 189 c
110 c 130 d 150 b 170 a 190 d
111 c 131 d 151 c 171 a 191 a
112 b 132 c 152 b 172 d 192 a
113 c 133 b 153 c 173 d 193 d
114 d 134 c 154 d 174 b 194 a
115 b 135 b 155 a 175 b 195 a
116 a 136 d 156 c 176 a 196 a
117 d 137 b 157 b 177 c 197 d
118 a 138 b 158 b 178 d 198 a
119 b 139 d 159 b 179 d 199 a
120 d 140 d 160 c 180 b 200 c
 ANSWER SHEET BIO-3

201 a 221 b 241 c 261 a 281 b

202 a 222 c 242 d 262 b 282 b
203 a 223 a 243 c 263 b 283 a
204 a 224 c 244 c 264 c 284 a
205 c 225 b 245 a 265 c 285 a
206 b 226 c 246 a 266 d 286 d
207 d 227 c 247 a 267 d 287 d
208 d 228 c 248 b 268 a 288 d
209 b 229 b 249 b 269 b 289 a
210 b 230 a 250 a 270 a 290 c
211 d 231 b 251 c 271 a 291 a
212 a 232 b 252 b 272 d 292 a
213 b 233 d 253 b 273 b 293 c
214 d 234 b 254 b 274 b 294 b
215 c 235 b 255 b 275 d 295 b
216 a 236 d 256 c 276 d 296 c
217 b 237 a 257 d 277 c 297 c
218 c 238 b 258 d 278 c 298 b
219 d 239 b 259 b 279 b 299 a
220 c 240 c 260 b 280 a 300 d
 ANSWER SHEET BIO-4

301 c 321 b 341 c 361 b 381 a

302 b 322 b 342 d 362 d 382 d
303 b 323 d 343 a 363 a 383 d
304 d 324 d 344 c 364 a 384 d
305 b 325 c 345 d 365 c 385 c
306 c 326 c 346 d 366 b 386 d
307 c 327 d 347 d 367 b 387 a
308 b 328 d 348 c 368 d 388 b
309 b 329 b 349 c 369 d 389 a
310 a 330 d 350 d 370 b 390 a
311 c 331 d 351 a 371 d 391 a
312 a 332 c 352 b 372 c 392 c
313 b 333 a 353 c 373 b 393 d
314 a 334 b 354 d 374 c 394 d
315 a 335 a 355 c 375 d 395 c
316 d 336 d 356 c 376 c 396 d
317 c 337 b 357 b 377 d 397 a
318 a 338 b 358 b 378 b 398 a
319 b 339 c 359 d 379 b 399 c
320 d 340 b 360 b 380 b 400 a
 ANSWER SHEET BIO-5

401 d 421 c 441 b 461 a 481 c

402 a 422 d 442 a 462 c 482 c
403 d 423 a 443 c 463 a 483 b
404 d 424 b 444 d 464 c 484 d
405 a 425 b 445 b 465 a 485 d
406 b 426 d 446 b 466 c 486 d
407 c 427 b 447 c 467 a 487 b
408 c 428 a 448 b 468 d 488 d
409 b 429 c 449 a 469 b 489 c
410 d 430 d 450 b 470 d 490 c
411 a 431 b 451 c 471 c 491 d
412 b 432 d 452 c 472 c 492 d
413 d 433 d 453 b 473 d 493 a
414 b 434 c 454 a 474 c 494 a
415 b 435 c 455 c 475 d 495 a
416 a 436 b 456 a 476 d 496 c
417 b 437 b 457 a 477 d 497 c
418 b 438 d 458 d 478 c 498 c
419 c 439 b 459 b 479 b 499 a
420 b 440 d 460 b 480 a 500 b