18/06/2021 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2021 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 3

Topics covered :
Physics : Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solid and Fluids, Thermal Properties of Matter
Chemistry : Thermodynamics, Equilibrium
Botany : Cell: The Unit of Life, Cell Cycle and Cell Division,
Zoology : Digestion and Absorption, Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

1. Two particles of equal mass m go round a circle of 1. çku fýku m Mk{kLk ˤLkk fýku R rºkßÞkLkk ðíkwo¤kfkh
radius R under the action of their mutual {køkuo íkuLkkt ÃkhMÃkh ykf»koý çk¤Úke ¼ú{ý fhu Au. íkku
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle Ëhuf fýLke ÍzÃk sýkðku.
is
1 1 Gm
1 1 Gm (1) (2)
(1) (2) 2R Gm 2R
2R Gm 2R
1 Gm 4Gm
1 Gm 4Gm (3) (4)
(3) (4) 2 R R
2 R R
2. økún {kxu rLk»f{ý ðuøk v e Au. ÂMÚkh ÂMÚkrík Úke fý þY
2. The escape velocity for a planet is v e. A particle
starts from rest at a large distance from fheLku økúnÚke ÷ktçkk ytíkh MkwÄe ÃknkU[u Au. {kºk økúný
the planet, reaches the planet only under økwÁíðkf»koýçk¤Lkk fkhýu yLku íkuLkk fuLÿÚke ÃkMkkh Úkíke
gravitational attraction, and passes through a ÷eMke xLk÷{ktÚke ÃkMkkh ÚkkÞ Au, íkku økúnLkk fuLÿÚke ÃkMkkh
smooth tunnel through its centre. Its speed at the Úkíkkt ðuøk fux÷ku ?
centre of the planet will be
ve
ve (1) 1.5ve (2)
(1) 1.5v e (2) 2
2
(3) ve (4) þwLÞ
(3) v e (4) Zero
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Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

3. A particle is projected vertically upwards from the 3. yuf fý Wæðo íkhV Ãk]ÚðeLke MkÃkkxe ÃkhÚke rLk»fh{ý
surface of the earth (radius Re) with a speed equal ðuøkLkk [kuÚkk ¼køkLkk ðuøkÚke «rùó fhðk{kt ykðu Au.
to one fourth of escape velocity. What is the (Ãk]ÚðeLke rºkßÞk Re) íkku Ãk]ÚðeLke MkÃkkxeÚke «kó Úkíke
maximum height attained by it from the surface of
{n¥k{ Ÿ[kE yk fý {kxu fux÷e ?
the earth?
16 Re
16 Re (1) Re (2)
(1) Re (2) 15 15
15 15
4 Re
4 Re (3) Re (4)
(3) Re (4) 15 2
15 2
4. Gravitational potential difference between a point
4. økúnLke MkÃkkxe ÃkhLkk rçktËwyu yLku íkuLkkÚke 10 m WÃkhLkk
on surface of planet and another point 10 m rçktËwyku ðå[u økwÁíðkf»koý ÂMÚkrík{kLk 4 J/kg Au.
above is 4 J/kg. Considering gravitational field to økwÁíðkf»koý çk¤Lku rLkÞr{ík Äkhku nðu 2 kg ˤLkk
be uniform, how much work is done in moving a fýLku MkÃkkxe Ãkhíke 5 m WÃkhLkk rçktËwyu ÷E sðk {kxu
mass of 2 kg from the surface to a point 5 m
above the surface?
fhðwt Ãkzíkwt fkÞo fux÷wt nkuÞ?
(1) 4 J (2) 5 J (1) 4 J (2) 5 J
(3) 6 J (4) 7 J (3) 6 J (4) 7 J
5. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m 5. MkqÞo S Lke ykMkÃkkMk ÷tçkð]r¥kÞ {køko økún m {kxu
about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice ykf]rík{kt ËþkoÔÞk {wsçk Au. AkÞktrfík ¼køk SCD yu
the shaded area SAB. If t1 be the time for the AkÞktrfík ¼køk SAB fhíkkt çk{ýku Au. òu t1 yu Mk{Þ Au
planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to
move from A to B, then økúnLku C Úke D sðk {kxu yLku t2 yu Mk{Þ Au økúnLku A Úke
B sðk {kxu íkku ...

(1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 = 8t2

(3) t1 = 4t2 (4) t1 = 2t2
6. Which of the following statements is true about
acceleration due to gravity by Earth?
(1) ‘g’ increases in moving away from the centre if
r>R
(2) ‘g’ decreases in moving away from the centre
if r < R
(3) ‘g’ is zero at the centre of earth
(4) ‘g’ decreases if earth stops rotating on its axis
7. An astronaut, inside an earth satellite experiences
weightlessness because
(1) He is falling freely
(2) No external force is acting on him
(3) A reaction is exerted only by floor of the
satellite
(4) He is far away from the earth surface
8. Three identical point masses, each of mass 1 kg
(1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 = 8t2
(3) t1 = 4t2 (4) t1 = 2t2
6. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞwt rðÄkLk Ãk]ÚðeLkk økwÁíðkf»koý {kxu Mkk[wt
Au?
(1) ‘g’ yu ðÄu fuLÿÚke r > R {kxu Ëqh síkkt
(2) ‘g’ yu ½xu fuLÿÚke r < R {kxu Ëqh síkkt
(3) ‘g’ yu þqLÞ Ãk]ÚðeLkk fuLÿ {kxu
(4) ‘g’ yu ½xu òu Ãk]íðe íkuLke yûkLke ykMkÃkkMkLkwt ¼ú{ý
7. yuMxÙkuLkkux Ãk]ÚðeLkk WÃkøkúnLke ytËh ðsLkhrníkíkk
yLkw¼ðu Au. fkhý fu...
(1) íku {qõíkÃkíkLk fhe hÌkku Au .
(2) fkuE çkkÌkçk¤ íkuLkk Ãkh ÷køkíkwt LkÚke.
(3) «ríkr¢Þk yu {kºk WÃkøkúnLke MkÃkkxe Ãkh s ÷køku Au.
(4) íku Ãk]ÚðeLke MkkÃkexÚke ½ýu Ëqh nkuÞ Au {kxu

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)
lie in the x–y plane at points (0, 0) (0, 0.2 m) and 8. ºký ykËþo ˤ Ähkðíkk fýku ËhufLkwt ˤ 1 kg Au, íku
(0.2 m, 0). The gravitational force on the mass at x–y Mk{ík÷{kt (0, 0) (0, 0.2 m) yLku (0.2 m, 0) Ãkh Au.
the origin is íkku WËøk{rçktËw ykøk¤ økwÁíðf»koý çk¤.
(1) 1.67  1011(iˆ  jˆ) N (2) 3.34  10 10 ( iˆ  ˆj ) N
(1) 1.67  1011(iˆ  ˆj ) N (2) 3.34  1010 (iˆ  ˆj ) N
(3) 1.67  109 (iˆ  jˆ) N (4) 3.34  10 10 ( iˆ  jˆ) N
(3) 1.67  109 (iˆ  ˆj ) N (4) 3.34  1010 (iˆ  ˆj ) N
9. The gravitational field due to a mass distribution is
K
K 9. ˤ rðíkhýLkk fkhýu økwÁíðkf»koý ûkuºk E  Úke x-
E  3 in the x-direction. (K is a constant). x3
x
rËþk{kt yÃkkÞ Au. (K yu y[¤ktf Au). yLktík ytíkhu
Taking the gravitational potential to be zero at
infinity, its value at the distance x is økwÁíðeÞ ÂMÚkrík{kLkLku þqLÞ økýku. íkku x ytíkhu íkuLkwt
{qÕÞ.
K K
(1) (2)
x 2x K K
(1) (2)
x 2x
K K
(3) (4)
x2 2x 2 K K
(3) (4)
10. Two bodies of masses m and M are placed at x2 2x 2
distance d apart. The gravitational potential (V) at 10. çku ÃkËkÚkkuo m yLku M Lku yufçkeòÚke d ytíkhu {qfu÷k Au.
the position where the gravitational field due to òu økwÁíðkf»koý ûkuºk íku çktLkuLkk fkhýu þqLÞ ÚkkÞ íku
them is zero V is MÚkkLku økwÁíðkf»koý ÂMÚkrík{kLk (V) fux÷wt nkuÞ ?
G G
(1) V   (m  M ) (1) V   (m  M )
d d
G G
(2) V   (2) V  
d d
GM GM
(3) V   (3) V  
d d
G
(4) V   ( m  M )2 (4) V  
G
( m  M )2
d d
11. A satellite is seen after each 8 hours over equator 11. Ãk]ÚðeÚke rðÁØ rËþk{kt ¼ú{ý fhíkku WÃkøkún Ãk]ÚðeLkk
at a place on the Earth when its sense of rotation rð»kwðð]ík ÃkhLkk fkuR MÚkkLkuÚke Ëh 8 f÷kfu òuðk {¤u Au.
is opposite to the Earth. The time interval after íkku íku Mk{Þ þkuÄku fu su{kt yk s WÃkøkún Ãk]ÚðeLke rËþk{kt
which it can be seen at the same place when the ¼ú{ý fhíkku nkuÞ íkku íku s MÚkkLk {kxu þw nkuÞ ?
sense of rotation of Earth and satellite is same will
be (1) 8 hours (2) 12 hours

(1) 8 hours (2) 12 hours (3) 24 hours (4) 6 hours

(3) 24 hours (4) 6 hours 12. çku ykËþo WÃkøkúnku su Ãk]ÚðeLke MkÃkkxeÚke R yLku 7R
12. Two identical satellites are at the heights R and ytíkhu Au. íkku Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞwt rðÄkLk yÞkuøÞ nkuÞ ?
7R from the Earth's surface. Then which of the
(r = Ãk]ÚðeLke rºkßÞk Au) ?
following statement is incorrect (r = radius of the
Earth)? (1) çktÒkuLke fw÷ QòoLkku økwýku¥kh 5 Au.
(1) Ratio of total energy of both is 5
(2) çktÒkuLke økrík QòoLkku økwýku¥kh 4 Au.
(2) Ratio of kinetic energy of both is 4

(3) Ratio of potential energy of both 4 (3) çktÄLke ÂMÚkríkQòoLkku økwýku¥kh 4 Au.

(4) Ratio of total energy of both is 4 and ratio of (4) çktÒku fw÷ QòoLkku økwýku¥kh 4 yLku íkÚkk çktÒku {kxu
magnitude of potential to kinetic energy is 2 ÂMÚkík Qòo íkku økríkQòo MkkÚku økwýku¥kh 2 Au.

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Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

13. During blood transfusion the needle is inserted in 13. ÷kurnLkk xÙkLMk^ÞwÍLk Mk{Þu MkkuÃkLku LkMk{kt Ëk¾÷
a vein where the gauge pressure is 2000 Pa. At fhðk{kt ykðu Au. ßÞkt økus Ëçkký 2000 Pa Au. íkku fR
what height must the blood container be placed Ÿ[kRyu ÷kurnLkk ÃkkºkLku hk¾ðk{kt ykðu fu suÚke ÷kune
so that blood may just enter the vein? LkMk{kt {kºk Ëk¾÷ ÚkkÞ ? [÷kurnLke ½Lkíkk = 1.06 × 103
[Density of blood = 1.06 × 103 kg m –3 and kg m –3 yLku g = 9.8 m/s2].
g = 9.8 m/s2]. (1) 0.192 m
(1) 0.192 m (2) 0.182 m
(2) 0.182 m (3) 0.172 m
(3) 0.172 m (4) 0.152 m
(4) 0.152 m 14. ÃkkýeÚke MktÃkqýo heíku ¼hu÷e xktfeLkk ík¤eÞu LkkLkku nku÷
14. A tank full of water has a small hole at its bottom. fhðk{kt ykÔÞku Au. òu t1 Mk{Þ xktfeLku ºkeò ¼køkLke
Let t1 be the time taken to empty first one third of ¾k÷e Úkíkkt ÷køkíkku Mk{Þ Au. t2 yu xktfeLku VheÚke íkuLkkÚke
the tank and t2 be the time taken to empty second ºkeò ¼køkLke ¾k÷e Úkðk {kxu ÷køkíkku Mk{Þ nkuÞ íkÚkk t3
one third of the tank and t3 be the time taken to yu MktÃkqýo çkkfe hnu÷k ¼køkLku ¾k÷e Úkðk ÷køkíkku Mk{Þ
empty rest of the tank then nkuÞ íkku....
(1) t1 = t2 = t3 (2) t1 > t2 > t3 (1) t1 = t2 = t3 (2) t1 > t2 > t3
(3) t1 < t2 < t3 (4) t1 > t2 < t3 (3) t1 < t2 < t3 (4) t1 > t2 < t3
15. A piece of cork starts from rest at the bottom of a 15. fkufoLkku xwfzku ÂMÚkh ÂMÚkrík{kt ík¤kðLkk íkr¤Þu hnu÷ku Au
lake and floats up. Its velocity v is plotted against íku WÃkh íkhV íkheLku ykðu Au. íkku íkuLkku ðuøk v Lkku Mk{Þ t
time t. Which of the following best represents the MkkÚkuLkku yk÷u¾ Ëkuhðk{kt ykðu íkku fÞku yk÷u¾ íkuLkwt ÞkuøÞ
resulting curve? hswykík Ëþkoðu Au.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

16. A 2 m long rod of radius 1 cm which is fixed from
one end is given a twist of 0.8 radians. The shear
strain developed will be
(1) 0.002
(2) 0.004
(3) 0.008
(4) 0.016
17. The following four wires are made of the same
material. Which of these will have the largest
extension when the same tension is applied?
(1) Length 50 cm and diameter 2 mm
(2) Length 100 cm and diameter 1 mm
(3) Length 200 cm and diameter 2 mm
(4) Length 300 cm and diameter 3 mm
16. 2 m ÷tçkkR ðk¤k 1 cm rºkßÞkLku Mkr¤ÞkLku yuf AuzuÚke
çkktÄu÷ [u. òu íkuLku 0.8 huzeÞLk MkwÄe ðk¤ðk{kt ykðu íkku
íku{kt WËT¼ðíke shear strain (rðf]rík) fux÷e nkuÞ ?
(1) 0.002
(2) 0.004
(3) 0.008
(4) 0.016
17. ykÃku÷ [kh ðkÞhLku Mk{kLk ÿÔÞ{ktÚke çkLkkðu÷ Au. íkku
íku{ktÚke MkkiÚke ðÄw ¾U[ký yLkw¼ðe þfu íku ðkÞh fÞku
nkuÞ Mk{kLk íkýkðku ykÃkíkk ?
(1) Length 50 cm and diameter 2 mm
(2) Length 100 cm and diameter 1 mm
(3) Length 200 cm and diameter 2 mm
(4) Length 300 cm and diameter 3 mm

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

18. An increase in pressure required to decrease the 18. 200 r÷xh íkh÷ Ähkðíkk fËLku 0.004% sux÷wt ½xkzðk
200 litres volume of a liquid by 0.004% in {kxu sYhe yuðwt ðÄkhðwt Ãkzíkwt Ëçkký fux÷wt nkuÞ ?
container is (íkh÷Lkku çkÕf {kuzâw÷Mk = 2100 MPa Au.)
(Bulk modulus of the liquid = 2100 MPa) (1) 188 kPa (2) 8.4 kPa
(1) 188 kPa (2) 8.4 kPa (3) 18.8 kPa (4) 84 kPa
(3) 18.8 kPa (4) 84 kPa 19. MkkçkwLkk ÃkhÃkkuxkLke rºkßÞk r Au. MkkçkwLkk ÃkhÃkkuxkLkwt
19. The radius of a soap bubble is r. The surface Ãk]cíkký T Au. íkkÃk{kLkLku y[¤ hk¾íkkt MkkçkwLkk
tension of soap solution is T. Keeping ÃkhÃkkuxkLke rºkßÞk çk{ýe fhðk{kt ykðu Au. íkku yk {kxu
temperature constant, the radius of the soap sYhe yuðe Qòo fux÷e nkuÞ ?
bubble is doubled, the energy necessary for this (1) 24r2T (2) 8r2T
will be
(3) 12r2T (4) 16r2T
2 2
(1) 24r T (2) 8r T
20. yuf MkkçkwLkk ÃkhÃkkuxkLke rºkßÞk þqLÞkðfkþ{kt 3 cm yLku
2
(3) 12r T (4) 16r2T çkeò MkkçkwLkk ÃkhÃkkuxkLke rºkßÞk þqLÞkðfkþ{kt 4 cm Au.
20. A soap bubble in vacuum has a radius of 3 cm òu çktÒku ÃkhÃkkuxkLke yufçkeò{kt ¼¤e òÞ Mk{íkkÃkeÞ heíku
and another soap bubble in vacuum has a radius íkku Lkðk ÃkhÃkkuxkLke rºkßÞk fux÷e ?
of 4 cm. If the two bubbles coalesce under (1) 2.3 cm (2) 4.5 cm
isothermal condition, then the radius of the new
(3) 5 cm (4) 7 cm
bubble is
21. fuþLk¤eLkk «Þkuøk{kt 30 cm ÷ktçke fuþLk¤eLku Ãkkýe{kt
(1) 2.3 cm (2) 4.5 cm
zwçkkzðk{kt ykðu Au. fu»kkf»koýLkk fkhýu Ãkkýe 10 cm
(3) 5 cm (4) 7 cm Ÿ[kR MkÄe ÃknkU[u Au. òu yk «Þkuøk {wõík ÃkíkLk fhíke
21. In a capillary tube experiment, a vertical 30 cm ÷e^x{kt fhðk{kt ykðu íkku ÃkkýkeLkk Míkt¼Lke Ÿ[kR
long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water sýkðku.
rises up to a height of 10 cm due to capillary
action. If this experiment is conducted in a freely (1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
falling elevator, the length of the water column (3) 30 cm (4) Zero
becomes 22. 5 m Lke Ÿ[kRðk¤e xktfe ÃkkýeÚke ¼hu÷e Au. íku{kt 1 cm 2
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm Lkk ykzAuËðk¤ku nku÷ ík¤eÞu fhðk{kt ykðu÷ku Au. íkku
(3) 30 cm (4) Zero «kht¼{kt «ríkMkufLz íku nku÷{ktÚke çknkh ykðíkwt Ãkkýe
22. A tank of height 5 m is full of water. There is a fux÷wt nkuÞ ? (g = 10 m/s2)
hole of cross sectional area 1 cm 2 in its bottom. (1) 10 –3 m 3/s (2) 10–4 m 3/s
The initial volume of water that will come out from
(3) 10 m 3/s (4) 10–2 m 3/s
this hole per second is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 10–3 m 3/s (2) 10 –4 m 3/s 23. çku xeÃkkt Mk{kLk rºkßÞkLkk nðk{kt Ãkze hÌkk Au. ÂMÚkík ðuøk
3 5 cm/s Úke òu çktÒku xeÃkk ¼uøkk ÚkR òÞ íkku íku{Lkku
(3) 10 m /s (4) 10 –2 m 3/s
x{eoLk÷ ðuøk fux÷ku nkuÞ ?
23. Two drops of equal radius are falling through air
1 1
with a steady velocity of 5 cm/s. If the two drops
coalesce, then its terminal velocity will be (1) 4 3  5 cm/s (2) 43 cm/s
1 1 1 2

(1) 4 3  5 cm/s (2) 43 cm/s (3) 5 3  4 cm/s (4) 4 3  5 cm/s

1 2
24. ÷kfzkLkwt fw÷ ˤ 6 kg Au. MÚkeh Ãkkýe{kt 1/3 ¼køk
(3) 5  4 cm/s
3
(4) 4  5 cm/s
3
Ãkkýe{kt hnu Au. íkuLke Ãkh fux÷wt ˤ {wõík MktÃkwýo ÷kfzwt
24. The total weight of a piece of wood is 6 kg. In the Ãkkýe{kt zwçku÷e hnu ?
floating state in water its 1/3 part remains inside
the water. On this floating wood, what maximum (1) 12 kg
weight is to be put such that the whole of the
piece of wood is to be downed in the water? (2) 10 kg
(1) 12 kg (2) 10 kg (3) 14 kg
(3) 14 kg (4) 15 kg (4) 15 kg

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Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

25. An aeroplane of mass 3 × 104 kg and total wing 25. 3 × 10 4 kg ˤLkwt rð{kLk yLku ÃkktfkuLkku fw÷ rðMíkkh 120
area of 120 m 2 is in a level flight at some height. m 2 Au íku fkuRf Ÿ[kRyu Qze hÌkwt Au. íkku íkuLke Ãkkt¾kuLke
The difference in pressure between the upper and WÃkh yLku Lke[u ËçkkýLkku íkVkðík (rf÷ku ÃkkMf÷){kt (g =
lower surfaces of its wings (in kilo pascal) is
10 m/s2)
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2.5 (2) 5.0
(1) 2.5 (2) 5.0
(3) 10.0 (4) 12.5
(3) 10.0 (4) 12.5
26. Water stands upto a height h behind the vertical 26. Ãkkýe{kt h Ÿ[kR MkwÄe rþhku÷tçk fkuRf zu{{kt hnu÷ Au.
wall of a dam. What is the net horizontal force íkku zu{ Ãkh Äkhkyku ðzu ÷køkíkwt fw÷ ˤ, zu{Lkk zkzkR 
pushing the dam down by the stream, if width of Au. ( = ÃkkýeLke ½Lkíkk)
the dam is ? ( = density of water)
h2 g
2
h g (1) 2hg (2)
(1) 2hg (2) 2
2
h2 g hg
2
h g hg (3) (4)
(3) (4) 4 4
4 4 27. fuÃku÷he{kt Ãkkýe h Ÿ[kR MkwÄe WÃkh [Zu Au. nðu íkuLku
27. Water rises in a capillary upto a height h. If now 45° Lkk fkuýu hk¾íkk fuÃku÷he{kt ÃkkýeLke ÷tçkkR sýkðku.
this capillary is tilted by an angle of 45°, then the
length of the water column in the capillary h
(1) 2h (2)
becomes 2
h h
(1) 2h (2) (3) (4) h 2
2 2

(3)
h
(4) h 2 28. 20 m Ÿzu ík¤kð{kt ÃkkýeLkwt íkkÃk{kLk 4°C y[¤ yLku
2 nðkLkwt –10°C Au. çkhVLke W»{kðknfíkk Ãkkýe fhíkk 4
28. In a 20 m deep lake, the bottom is at a constant økýe Au. ÃkkýeLkwt «Mkhý yðøkýíkk çkhVLke {n¥k{
temperature of 4°C. The air temperature is òzkR sýkðku.
constant at –10°C. If the thermal conductivity of
ice is 4 times that of water, Neglecting the 20 200
(1) m (2) m
expansion of water on freezing, the maximum 11 11
thickness of ice will be (3) 20 m (4) 10 m
20 200 29. ÃkËkÚkoLku Qòo ykÃkíkk íkuLkk íkkÃk{kLk{kt 44°C Lkku ðÄkhku
(1) m (2) m
11 11 ÚkkÞ Au. ykx÷e s Qòo 22 g çkhV– 8°C íkkÃk{kLku
(3) 20 m (4) 10 m
ykÃkíkk íkuLkwt íkkÃk{kLk ðÄeLku 16°C ÚkkÞ Au. íkku s¤
29. The temperature of a body rises by 44°C when a
certain amount of heat is given to it. The same íkwÕÞktf sýkðku.
heat when supplied to 22 g of ice at – 8°C, raises
[Given : swater = 1 cal/g°C and Lf = 80 cal/g, sice =
its temperature by 16°C. The water equivalent of
0.5 cal/g°C]
the body is
(1) 25 g (2) 50 g
[Given : swater = 1 cal/g°C and Lf = 80 cal/g,
s ice = 0.5 cal/g°C] (3) 80 g (4) 100 g

(1) 25 g (2) 50 g 30. yuf hu£eshuxh 100 g ÃkkýeLku 25°C íkkÃk{kLkuÚke– 10°C
(3) 80 g (4) 100 g ðk¤k çkhV{kt yuf f÷kf Ãk[kMk {eLkex{kt YÃkktíkh fhu
30. A refrigerator converts 100 g of water at 25°C into
Au. íkku Ëh r{rLkxu økw{kðíke W»k{k (çkhVLke rðrMkü
ice at – 10°C in one hour and 50 minutes. The W»{k = 0.5 cal/g°C, økwóW»{k = 80 cal/g)
quantity of heat removed per minute is (specific
(1) 50 cal
heat of ice = 0.5 cal/g°C, latent heat of fusion = 80
cal/g) (2) 100 cal
(1) 50 cal (2) 100 cal (3) 200 cal
(3) 200 cal (4) 75 cal (4) 75 cal

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

31. 540 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 540 g of water at 31. 540 g çkhV 0°C Lku 540 g Ãkkýe 80°C MkkÚku r{©
80°C. The final temperature of the mixture is fhðk{kt ykðu Au. íkku r{©ýLkwt ytíke{ íkkÃk{kLk (økwó
(Given latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/g and W»{k = 80 cal/g, ÃkkýeLke rðrMkü W»{k = 1 cal/g0C)
specific heat capacity of water = 1 cal/g0C)
(1) 0°C (2) 40°C
(1) 0°C (2) 40°C
(3) 80°C (4) Less than 0°C
(3) 80°C (4) Less than 0°C
32. A brass rod of cross-sectional area 1 cm 2 and
32. 1 cm 2 ykzAuË yLku 0.2 m ÷tçkkRLkk Mk¤eÞkLku 5 kg
length 0.2 m is compressed lengthwise by a ðsLkÚke Ëçkkððk{kt ykðu Au. òu Þtøk {kuzâw÷Mk 1 ×
weight of 5 kg. If Young’s modulus of elasticity of
10 11 N/m 2 yLku g = 10 m/s2 íkku Mk÷eÞkLke Qòo{kt Úkíkku
brass is 1 × 1011 N/m 2 and g = 10 m/s2, then
increase in the energy of the rod will be ðÄkhku.
–5 –5
(1) 10 J (2) 2.5 × 10 J (1) 10 –5 J (2) 2.5 × 10–5 J
(3) 5 × 10–5 J (4) 2.5 × 10–4 J (3) 5 × 10–5 J (4) 2.5 × 10–4 J
33. The unit of Stefan’s constant is 33. MxeVLk y[¤ktfLkku yuf{ sýkðku.
(1) W m 2 K4 (2) W m 2 K–4
(1) W m 2 K4 (2) W m 2 K–4
–1 –1 –2 –4
(3) W m K (4) W m K
(3) W m –1 K–1 (4) W m –2 K–4
34. Which one of the following process depends on
gravity?
34. fR «r¢Þk økwÁíðkf»koý ykÄkrhík Auu ?
(1) Conduction (2) Radiation (1) W»{k ðnLk (2) W»{k rðrfhý
(3) Convection (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) W»{kLkÞLk (4) (1) yLku (2) çktÒku
35. The ratio of coefficient of thermal conductivity of 35. çku r¼Òk ÿÔÞkuLke W»{k ðknfíkkLkku økwýku¥kh 5 : 3 Au. nðu
two different materials is 5 : 3. If the thermal
resistance of the two rods of these materials of çktÒkuLkk ykzAuË Mk{kLk hk¾eLku çktÒkuLkk yðhkuÄ Mk{kLk
same area is same, then the ratio of the length of hk¾ðk {kxu ÷tçkkRLkku økwýku¥kh
these rods will be
(1) 5 : 3 (2) 3 : 5 (1) 5 : 3 (2) 3 : 5
(3) 9 : 25 (4) 25 : 9 (3) 9 : 25 (4) 25 : 9
36. On centigrade scale the temperature of a body 36. MkuÕMkeÞMk {kÃk¢{ Ãkh ÃkËkÚkoLkwt íkkÃk{kLk 30 zeøkúe ðÄu Au.
increases by 30 degrees. The increase in íkku VuhLknex {kÃk¢{{kt fux÷wt ðÄþu ?
temperature on Fahrenheit scale is
(1) 50° (2) 40°
(1) 50° (2) 40° (3) 30° (4) 54°
(3) 30° (4) 54° 37. y[¤ fË ðkÞw Úk{kuo{exh ÃkkhkLkk 50 cm yLku 90 cm
37. A constant volume gas thermometer shows
pressure reading of 50 cm and 90 cm of mercury
Ëçkkýu íkkÃk{kLk 0°C yLku 100°C çkíkkðu Au. íkku 60 cm
at 0°C and 100°C respectively. When the Ëçkkýu íkkÃk{kLk sýkðku.
pressure reading is 60 cm of mercury, the
temperature is (1) 25°C (2) 40°C
(1) 25°C (2) 40°C (3) 15°C (4) 12.5°C
(3) 15°C (4) 12.5°C 38. fkuR «ðkneLkku fË «Mkhýktf 49 × 10–5 K–1 Au. íkuLkk
38. The coefficient of volume expansion of a liquid is íkkÃk{kLk{kt 30°C Lkku ðÄkhku fhíkkt ½Lkíkk{kt Úkíkku yktrþf
49 × 10–5 K–1. Calculate the fractional change in
its density when the temperature is raised by VuhVkh sýkðku.
30°C.
(1) 7.5 × 10–2 (2) 3.0 × 10–2
(1) 7.5 × 10–2 (2) 3.0 × 10–2
(3) 1.5 × 10–2 (4) 1.1 × 10–2
(3) 1.5 × 10–2 (4) 1.1 × 10–2

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Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

39. A hammer of mass 1 kg having speed of 50 m/s, 39. 1 kg Lkk nÚkkuzk ðzu 50 m/s Lke ÍzÃku 200 g Lke ¾e÷e
hit an iron nail of mass 200 g. If specific heat of Ãkh ½k fhðk{kt ykðu Au. rðrþü W»{k 0.105 cal/g°C
iron is 0.105 cal/g°C and half the energy is
converted into heat, the raise in temperature of nkuÞ yLku yzÄe Qòo W»{k{kt YÃkktíkheík ÚkkÞ Au. íkku
nail is ¾e÷eLkk íkkÃk{kLk{kt Úkíkku ðÄkhku.
(1) 7.1°C (2) 9.2°C (1) 7.1°C (2) 9.2°C
(3) 10.5°C (4) 12.1°C (3) 10.5°C (4) 12.1°C
40. 1 gram of ice at 0°C is mixed with 1 gram of steam
at 100°C. At thermal equilibrium, the temperature
40. 1 økúk{ çkhV 0°C Lku 1 økúk{ ðhk¤ 100°C MkkÚku r{©
of the mixture is fhíkkt Mktíkw÷LkLkwt íkkÃk{kLk sýkðku.
(1) 100°C (2) 55°C (1) 100°C (2) 55°C
(3) 0°C (4) 50°C (3) 0°C (4) 50°C
41. Surface of the lake is at 2°C. Find the temperature 41. ík¤kðLke MkÃkkxeLkwt íkkÃk{kLk 2°CAu. íkku ík¤eÞu íkkÃk{kLk
of the bottom of the lake
sýkðku.
(1) 2°C (2) 3°C
(1) 2°C (2) 3°C
(3) 4°C (4) 1°C
(3) 4°C (4) 1°C
42. A metal plate 4 mm thick has a temperature
difference of 32°C between its faces. It transmits 42. 4 mm òzkRLke ÄkíkwLke Ã÷uxLke MkÃkkxeyku ðå[u
200 kcal/h through an area of 5 cm 2. Thermal íkkÃk{kLkLkku íkVkðík 32°C Au. íku 5cm2 Lkk rðMíkkh{ktÚke
conductivity of the material is 200 kcal/h W,T{k {wõík fhu Au. íkku ÿÔÞLke W»{kðknfíkk
(1) 58.33 W m –1 °C–1 (2) 33.58 W m –1 °C–1
(1) 58.33 W m –1 °C–1 (2) 33.58 W m –1 °C–1
(3) 5 × 10–4 W m –1 °C–1 (4) None of these
43. Consider a compound slab consisting of two (3) 5 × 10–4 W m –1 °C–1 (4) None of these
different material having equal thickness and 43. çku y÷øk y÷øk ÿÔÞíkkLkku MktÞwõík &÷uçk ykÃku÷ Au suLke
thermal conductivities k and 3k respectively as òzkR Mk{kLk Au yLku W»{kðknfíkk yLkw¢{u k yLku 3k
shown in figure. The equivalent thermal Au. íkku M÷uçkLke Mk{íkwÕÞ W»{k ðknfíkk
conductivity of the slab is

3k 4k
3k 4k (1) (2)
(1) (2) 2 3
2 3
k
k (3) (4) 4k
(3) (4) 4k 2
2
44. Three rods of the same dimensions have thermal 44. ºký Mk{kLk Ãkrh{kýLke Mkr¤ÞkykuLke W»{k ðknfíkk 3k,
conductivities 3k, 2k and k. They are arranged as 2k yLku k Au. ykf]rík{kt {wsçk økkuXðu÷ Au. íku{Lkk
shown, with their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 0°C. AuzkLkk íkkÃk{kLk 100°C, 50°C yLku 0°C Au. íkku stfþLk
The temperature of their junction is ®çkËwLkwt íkkÃk{kLk

200 200
(1) 75°C (2) C (1) 75°C (2) C
3 3
100 100
(3) 40°C (4) C (3) 40°C (4) C
3 3

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

45. Two identical masses of 5 kg each fall on a wheel 45. 5 kg ˤLkk çku Mk{kLk Ãkizk 10 m Ÿ[kRyuÚke Ãkzíkk 2
from a height of 10 m. If the wheel disturbs a kg ˤLkwt Ãkkýe rð[÷eík fhu Au. íkku ÃkkýeLkk íkkÃk{kLk{kt
mass of 2 kg water, the rise in temperature of Úkíkku ðÄkhku.
water will be
(1) 2.6°C (2) 1.2°C
(1) 2.6°C (2) 1.2°C
(3) 0.32°C (4) 0.12°C
(3) 0.32°C (4) 0.12°C

CHEMISTRY

46. Which among the following is a path function? 46. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞwt ÃkkÚkrðÄuÞ Au?
(1) Temperature (2) Pressure (1) íkkÃk{kLk (2) Ëçkký
(3) Work (4) Enthalpy (3) fkÞo (4) yuLÚkkÕÃke
47. A sample of 10 mol gas expands isothermally
47. 10 {ku÷ ðkÞwLkku Lk{qLkkLkwt Mk{íkkÃke «ríkðíkeo rðMíkhý ÚkE
reversibly to double its volume from 1 L to 2 L.
The U for the process is fË 1 L Úke 2 L MkwÄe çk{ýw ÚkkÞ Au. íkku «r¢Þk {kxu U
sýkðku.
(1) 0 (2) 20 L atm
(1) 0 (2) 20 L atm
(3) –20 L atm (4) –10 L atm
(3) –20 L atm (4) –10 L atm
48. Minimum temperature above which the process
will became spontaneous if H = 10 kJ mol–1 while 48. òu H = 10 kJ mol–1 yLku S = 10 JK–1 nkuÞ íkku fÞk
S = 10 JK–1 is LÞwLkí{ íkkÃk{kLkÚke WÃkh «r¢Þk MðÞt¼q çkLkþu ?
(1) 0°C (2) 1 K (1) 0°C (2) 1 K
(3) 10 K (4) 1000 K (3) 10 K (4) 1000 K
49. If enthalpy of combustion of methane 49. òu r{ÚkuLkLke ËnLk yuLÚkkÕÃke–x kJ mol–1 nkuÞ íkku 8 g
is –x kJ mol–1 then heat evolved by the CH4 Lkk ËnLkÚke {wwfík Úkíke W»{k sýkðku.
combustion of 8 g CH4 is
x
x (1) kJ (2) x kJ
(1) kJ (2) x kJ 2
2
(3) 8x kJ (4) 16x kJ
(3) 8x kJ (4) 16x kJ

 50. fE «r¢Þk {kxu rH  f HCO2
ÚkkÞ ?
50. The reaction for which rH  f HCO2
is
(1) CH4 (g)  2O2 (g)  CO2 (g)  2H2O( )
(1) CH4 (g)  2O2 (g)  CO2 (g)  2H2O( )
1
1 (2) CO(g)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g)
(2) CO(g)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g) 2
2
(3) C(graphite)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g)
(3) C(graphite)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g)
(4) C(diamond)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g)
(4) C(diamond)  O2 (g)  CO2 (g)
51. 10 moles ðkÞwLkwt rLkÞík íkkÃk{kLku «ríkðíkeo Mktfku[Lk ÚkE
51. 10 moles of gas compressed reversible from 10 L
10 L Úke 1 L ÚkkÞ Au. íkku «r¢Þk{kt Úkíkku yuLxÙkuÃke VuhÃkkh
to 1 L at constant temperature. The entropy
change during the process is sýkðku.
(1) 10 R (2) –10 R (1) 10 R (2) –10 R
(3) 23.03 R (4) –23.03 R (3) 23.03 R (4) –23.03 R
52. If during a process, 50 J heat is supplied to the 52. òu «r¢Þk{kt 50 J W»{k ykÃkðk{kt ykðu yLku «ýk÷e
system while 20 J work is done by the system îkhk 20 J fkÞo ÚkkÞ íkku fw÷ «r¢Þk {kxu U sýkðku.
then U for the net process is
(1) 30 J (2) –30 J
(1) 30 J (2) –30 J
(3) 70 J (4) –70 J
(3) 70 J (4) –70 J

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Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

53. Lattice enthalpy of NaCl is 788 kJ mol–1, enthalpy 53. NaCl {kxu ÷urxMk yuLÚkkÕÃke 788 kJ mol–1 Au. NaCl Lke
of solution of NaCl is 4 kJ mol –1. Calculate ÿkðý yuLÚkkÕÃke 4 kJ mol–1 Au. íkku NaCl Lke
hydration enthalpy of NaCl. s÷eÞfhý yuLÚkkÕÃke økýku.
(1) –792 kJ mol–1 (2) 792 kJ mol–1
(1) –792 kJ mol–1 (2) 792 kJ mol–1
–1 –1
(3) –784 kJ mol (4) 784 kJ mol
(3) –784 kJ mol–1 (4) 784 kJ mol–1
54. If enthalpy of combustion of C(s), H2(g) and
54. òu C(s), H2(g) yLku C2H6(g) Lke ËnLk yuLÚkkÕÃke
C2H6(g) are –x, –y and –z kJ mol–1 respectively
then enthalpy of formation of ethane will be
yLkw¢{u–x, –y yLku –z kJ mol–1 nkuÞ , íkku RÚkuLkLke MksoLk
yuLÚkkÕÃke sýkðku.
(1) x + y – z (2) z – x – y
(1) x + y – z (2) z – x – y
(3) z – 2x – 3y (4) 2x + 3y – z
(3) z – 2x – 3y (4) 2x + 3y – z
55. Bomb calorimeter is experimentally used to find
(1) G (2) S
55. çkkuBçk fu÷he{exh yu «kÞkurøkf heíku þwt þkuÄðk ðÃkhkÞ
Au ?
(3) H (4) U
(1) G (2) S
56. For which of the following reaction, H = U?
(1) PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g)  Cl2 (g) (3) H (4) U

(2) CO(g)  H2O(g)  CO2 (g)  H2 (g) 56. Lke[uLke fE «r¢Þk {kxu H = U ÚkkÞ ?
(3) CaCO3 (s)  CaO(s)  CO2 (g) (1) PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g)  Cl2 (g)

(4) N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g) (2) CO(g)  H2O(g)  CO2 (g)  H2 (g)

57. According to third law of thermodynamics which (3) CaCO3 (s)  CaO(s)  CO2 (g)
property of any pure crystalline substances (4) N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)
approaches zero as the temperature approaches
absolute zero? 57. Úk{kuozkÞLkur{õMkLkk ºkeò rLkÞ{ {wsçk rLkhÃkuûk þqLÞ
(1) U (2) H íkkÃk{kLku MktÃkqýo þwØ MVrxf{Þ ÃkËkÚkoLkku fÞku økwýÄ{o
(3) G (4) S
þqLÞ ÚkkÞ?
58. At 100 K temperature, A2(g) is 50% dissociated (1) U (2) H
into B(g) and C(g) as per the reaction (3) G (4) S
A2(g)  B(g) + C(g) at 1 atm pressure. The Gibbs 58. 100 K íkkÃk{kLku «r¢Þk A 2(g)  B(g) + C(g) «{kýu 1
energy change at this temperature is atm Ëçkkýu A2(g) Lkwt B(g) yLku C(g) {kt 50% rðÞkusLk
(1) –100 Rln3 (2) 100Rln3 ÚkkÞ Au. íkku yk íkkÃk{kLku {wõíkQòo VuhVkh sýkðku.
(3) –230.3Rln3 (4) 230.3Rln3 (1) –100 Rln3 (2) 100Rln3
59. For which of the following acid base pair, enthalpy (3) –230.3Rln3 (4) 230.3Rln3
of neutralisation is –13.7 kcal? 59. Lke[u Ãkife fE yurMkz-çkuRÍ òuz {kx íkxMÚkefhý
(1) CH3COOH + NaOH yuLÚkkÕÃke–13.7 kcal ÚkkÞ ?
(2) CH3COOH + NH4OH (1) CH3COOH + NaOH
(3) NH4OH + HCl (2) CH3COOH + NH4OH
(4) NaOH + HCl (3) NH4OH + HCl
60. Ha and H sub are same for (4) NaOH + HCl
(1) C(s) (2) Br2() 60. Ha yLku Hsub þuLkk {kxu Mk{kLk
(3) O2(g) (4) S8(s) (1) C(s) (2) Br2()
61. Maximum mean single bond enthalpy at 298 K is
(3) O2(g) (4) S8(s)
of 61. 298 K yu {n¥k{ Mkhuhkþ çktÄ yuLÚkkÕÃke fkuLke Au
(1) H – H (2) H – N sýkðku.
(3) H – O (4) H – F (1) H – H (2) H – N
(3) H – O (4) H – F

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

62. The standard lattice enthalpy of NaCl is 62. NaCl Lke «{krýík ÷urxMk yuLÚkkÕÃke sýkðku.
[subH°(Na) = 108.4, iH°(Na) = 496, bondH°(Cl2) [subH°(Na) = 108.4, iH°(Na) = 496, bondH°(Cl2)
= 242, egH°(Cl) = – 348.6 and fH(NaCl) = 242, egH°(Cl) = – 348.6 and fH(NaCl)
= – 411.2] = – 411.2]
(All data is in kJ mol–1) (çkËe s {krníke kJ mol–1 {kt Au.)
(1) 514 kJ mol-–1 (2) 642 kJ mol-–1 (1) 514 kJ mol-–1 (2) 642 kJ mol-–1
(3) 788 kJ mol-–1 (4) 927 kJ mol-–1 (3) 788 kJ mol-–1 (4) 927 kJ mol-–1
63. If rH for the reaction N2 + 3H2  2NH3 is –a 63. òu «r¢Þk N2 + 3H2  2NH3 {kxu rH = –a Au, íkku
1 3 1 3
then rH for the reaction NH3  N2  H2 is NH3  N2  H2 {kxu, rH sýkðku.
2 2 2 2
a a
(1) a (2) (1) a (2)
2 2
a a
(3)  (4) – 2a (3)  (4) – 2a
2 2
64. Using the following diagram, select the correct 64. Lke[uLke ykf]ríkLkku WÃkÞkuøk fhe Mkk[ku MktçktÄ ÃkMktË fhku.
relation

(1) H1 = H2 + H3 + H4

(1) H1 = H2 + H3 + H 4
(2) H1 + H3 = H2 + H4
(2) H1 + H3 = H2 + H 4
(3) H4 = H1 + H2 – H3
(3) H4 = H1 + H2 – H 3
(4) H4 – H3 = H1 + H2
(4) H4 – H3 = H1 + H 2
65. y[¤ Ëçkkýu W»{kLkku VuhVkh þuLku Mk{kLk ÚkkÞ Au ?
65. Heat exchange at constant pressure is equal to
(1) U (2) H (1) U (2) H
(3) G (4) S
(3) G (4) S
66. Select the incorrect statement 66. ¾kuxwt rðÄkLk ÃkMktË fhku.
(1) For solid  liquid equilibrium, there is only ½Lk  «ðkne Mktíkw÷Lk {kxu, 1 atm yu {kºk yuf s
(1)

one temperature at 1 atm at which both the
phases can coexist
(2) Vapour pressure depends on temperature
(3) For dissolution of solids in liquids, the
solubility is constant at a given temperature
(4) For dissolution of gases in liquids, the
concentration of a gas in liquid is independent
to the pressure of the gas over the liquid
67. Equilibrium constant expression for the equilibrium 67. Mktíkw÷ Lk {kx Mktíkw÷Lk y[¤ktfLke hsqykík sýkðku.
CO(g) + 3H2(g)  CH4(g) + H 2O(g) is
íkkÃk{kLku çktLku yðMÚkkyku yuf MkkÚku yÂMíkíð Ähkðu
Au.
(2) çkk»ÃkËçkký yu íkkÃk{kLk Ãkh ykÄkh hk¾u Au.
(3) «ðkne{kt ÄLkLkk rð[÷Lk {kxu ykÃku÷ íkkÃk{kLku
ÿkÔÞíkk y[¤ hnu Au.
(4) «ðkne{kt ðkÞwLkk rð÷ÞLk {kxu, ðkÞwLke «ðkne{kt
Mkktÿíkk yu «ðkne Ãkh ðkÞwLkk ËçkkýÚke Mðíktºk Au.
CO(g) + 3H2(g)  CH4(g) + H2O(g) is

[CO] [3H2 ] [CH4 ] [H2O] [CO] [3H2 ] [CH4 ] [H2O]

(1) (2) (1) (2)
[CH4 ] [H2O] [CO] [3H2 ] [CH4 ] [H2O] [CO] [3H2 ]

[CO] [H2 ]3 [CH4 ] [H2O] [CO] [H2 ]3 [CH4 ] [H2O]

(3) (4) (3) (4)
[CH4 ] [H2O] [CO] [H2 ]3
[CH4 ] [H2O] [CO] [H2 ]3

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Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

68. If KC for the equilibrium N2 + 3H2  2NH3 is x 68. òu N2 + 3H2  2NH3 {kxu KC = x nkuÞ íkku
1 3 1 3
then KC for the equilibrium NH3  N2  H2 is NH3  N2  H2 {kxu KC
2 2 2 2
x x
(1) (2) 2x (1) (2) 2x
2 2
1
1 (3) x (4)
(3) x (4) x
x
69. Mktíkw÷Lk 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)  4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) {kxu
69. Unit of KC for the equilibrium 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) 
KC
4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) is
(1) mol L –1 (2) L mol–1
(1) mol L–1 (2) L mol–1
5 –5 5 –5
(3) mol L (4) L mol (3) mol L 5 –5
(4) L 5 mol–5
70. Equilibrium for which KP = KC is 70. fÞk Mktíkw÷Lk {kxu KP = KC ÚkkÞ ?
(1) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g) (1) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)

(2) PCl5(g)  PCl3(s) + Cl2(g)

(2) PCl5(g)  PCl3(s) + Cl2(g)
(3) 2SO3(g)  2SO2(g) + O2(g)
(3) 2SO3(g)  2SO2(g) + O2(g)
(4) H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g)

(4) H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g) 71. òu Mktíkw÷Lk PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

71. If for the equilibrium PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

{kxu þYykík{kt 1 molar PCl5 nksh nkuÞ yLku Mktík÷wLku
1 molar PCl5 is present initially and at equilibrium 0.6 M Cl2 çkLku íkku ykÃku÷ «r¢Þk {kxu Kc Lke rft{ík
0.6 M Cl2 is formed than the value of Kc for the sýkðku.
given reaction is
1 11 1 11
(1) (2) (1) (2)
10 10 10 10

9 10 9 10
(3) (4) (3) (4)
10 11 10 11
72. Example of homogeneous equilibrium is 72. Mk{ktøk Mktíkw÷LkLkwt WËknhý sýkðku.
(1) C(s) + CO2(g)  2CO(g) (1) C(s) + CO2(g)  2CO(g)

(2) H2O()  H2O(g) (2) H2O()  H2O(g)

(3) Ca(OH)2(s) + (aq)  Ca2+(aq) + 2OH(aq) (3) Ca(OH)2(s) + (aq)  Ca 2+(aq) + 2OH(aq)

(4) N2O4(g)  2NO2(g) (4) N2O4(g)  2NO2(g)

73. If value of KC = 6.8 × 10 –27 then which of the 73. òu KC = 6.8 × 10–27 nkuÞ íkku Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞwt rðÄkLk
following statement is correct? Mkk[wt Au?
(1) Reaction hardly proceeds (1) «r¢Þk ÷øk¼øk Lkne ÚkkÞ
(2) Reaction proceeds almost to completion
(2) «r¢Þk Ãkqýoíkk íkhV ÃknkU[þu
(3) Both the reactants and products are present in
(3) Mktíkw÷ Lku «r¢Þfku yLku LkeÃkòu çktLku Lkku ÞkuøÞ sÚÚkku
appreciable amount at equilibrium
nksh nþu
(4) Extent of reaction is very large
(4) «r¢ÞkLkwt «{ký ¾qçk s nþu

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

74. Equilibrium 2A(g)  B(g) + C(s) will shift in
forward direction by
(1) Adding inert gas at constant pressure
(2) Adding inert gas at constant volume
(3) Adding more C
(4) Removing B
75. Value of equilibrium constant depends on
(1) Moles of reactants and products
(2) Volume of reactants and products
74. Mktíkw÷Lk 2A(g)  B(g) + C(s) yu Ãkwhkuøkk{e rËþk{kt
øÞkhu ykøk¤ ðÄþu ?
(1) y[¤ Ëçkkýu rLkr»¢Þ ðkÞw W{uhíkkt
(2) y[¤ fËu rLkr»¢Þ ðkÞw W{uhíkkt
(3) C ðÄw W{uhíkkt
(4) B Lku Ëqh fhíkkt
75. Mktíkw÷ Lk y[¤ktf þuLkk Ãkh ykÄkrhík Au ?
(1) «r¢Þfku yLku LkeÃkòu Lkk {ku÷ Ãkh

(3) Pressure (2) «r¢Þfku yLku LkeÃkòu Lkk fË Ãkh

(4) Temperature (3) Ëçkký

76. Conjugate base of H2PO4 is (4) íkkÃk{kLk

(1) H3PO4 (2) HPO24 76. H2PO4 Lkku MktÞwø{ çkuRÍ sýkðku.

(3) PO34 (4) H3PO3 (1) H3PO4 (2) HPO24

77. If at t°C, Kw = 10 –12 then the pH of pure water at (3) PO34 (4) H3PO3
t°C will be
77. òu t°C, Kw = 10–12 íkku t°C yu þwØ ÃkkýeLke pH sýkðku.
(1) 6 (2) 7
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 8 (4) 12
(3) 8 (4) 12
78. Common ion effect will observed in the aqueous
solution of 78. fkuLkwt s÷eÞ ÿkðý Mk{kLk ykÞLk yMkh Ëþkoðu Au ?
(1) NaCl + HCl (1) NaCl + HCl
(2) NaCl + CH3COOH (2) NaCl + CH 3COOH
(3) CH3COONa + NaOH (3) CH3COONa + NaOH
(4) CH3COOH + HCl
(4) CH3COOH + HCl
79. 0.2 M rLkçko¤ yurMkzLkk s÷eÞ ÿkðýLke pH sýkðku.
79. pH of 0.2 M aqueous solution of weak acid is
[pKa = 4] [pKa = 4]
(1) 2.35 (2) 1.65 (1) 2.35 (2) 1.65
(3) 4.9 (4) 6.9
(3) 4.9 (4) 6.9
80. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke ÷qEMk yurMkz sýkðku.
80. Lewis acid among the following is
(1) HCl (2) CH3COOH (1) HCl (2) CH3COOH
(3) BF3 (4) NH3 (3) BF3 (4) NH3

81. pH of the resultant solution made by mixing

81. 500 mL 0.2 M NH4OH MkkÚku 500 mL 0.1 M HCl Lkk
500 mL of 0.2 M NH 4OH with 500 mL of 0.1 M HCl ÿkðýLkwt r{©ý fhíkk Ãkrhýk{e ÿkðýLke pH sýkðku.
solution is [pKb NH4OH = 4.7] [pKb NH4OH = 4.7]
(1) 4.7 (2) 3.4 (1) 4.7 (2) 3.4
(3) 10.6 (4) 9.3 (3) 10.6 (4) 9.3
82. If Ksp of the salt A3B is 2.7 × 10–11 then solubility of 82. òu A3B ûkkhLkku Ksp 2.7 × 10–11 nkuÞ, íÞkhu ûkkhLke
the salt (in mol L–1) will be ÿkÔÞíkk (mol L–1) {kt sýkðku.
(1) 2.7 × 10–3 M (2) 2.7 × 10–4 M (1) 2.7 × 10–3 M (2) 2.7 × 10–4 M
(3) 10–3 M (4) 10 –4 M (3) 10 –3 M (4) 10–4 M
83. Solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M aqueous NaCl solution 83. 0.1 M NaCl Lkk s÷eÞ ÿkðý{kt AgCl Lke ÿkÔÞíkk
is [Ksp for AgCl = 1.2 × 10–10] sýkðku. [Ksp for AgCl = 1.2 × 10–10]
(1) 1 × 10–5 M (2) 1.2 × 10–9 M (1) 1 × 10–5 M (2) 1.2 × 10–9 M
(3) 1.2 × 10–5 M (4) 10 –9 M (3) 1.2 × 10–5 M (4) 10–9 M

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Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

84. If for weak acid HA, Ka = 10 –8 then value of pKb for 84. òu rLkçko¤ yurMkz HA, Ka = 10–8 íkku íkuLkk MktÞwø{ yurMkz
its conjugate base is {kxu pKb sýkðku.
(1) 6 (2) 8 (1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 7 (4) 12 (3) 7 (4) 12
85. Correct order of acidic strength is 85. yurMkrzf «çk¤íkkLkku Mkk[ku ¢{ sýkðku.
(1) CH4 > NH 3 > H2O (1) CH4 > NH3 > H 2O
(2) H2O > NH 3 > CH4
(2) H2O > NH3 > CH 4
(3) NH3 > H2O > CH4 (3) NH3 > H2O > CH4
(4) NH3 > CH 4 > H2O (4) NH3 > CH4 > H 2O
86. Cationic salt hydrolysis is shown by 86. ÄLkkÞkurLkf s¤rð¼ksLk fÞku ûkkh Ëþkoðu Au ?
(1) NaCl (1) NaCl
(2) NH4Cl (2) NH4Cl
(3) CH3COONa (3) CH3COONa
(4) NaCN (4) NaCN
87. pH of 10–8 M HCl solution is 87. 10 –8 M HCl Lkk ÿkðýLke pH sýkðku.
(1) 6 (1) 6
(2) 6.98 (2) 6.98
(3) 7 (3) 7
(4) 8 (4) 8
88. Which of the following is not always correct at 88. Mktíkw÷Lku fÞwt yuf nt{uþk Mkk[w LkÚke?
equilibrium?
(1) G = 0
(1) G = 0
(2) K = Q
(2) K = Q
(3) G° = 0
(3) G° = 0
(4) ykÃku÷ çkÄk
(4) All of these
89. Mktíkw÷Lku ¾kuxwt rðÄkLk ÃkMktË fhku.
89. Select the incorrect statement at equilibrium.
(1) Mktík÷wLk {kºk çktÄ «ýk÷e{kt
(1) Equilibrium is possible in closed system only
(2) rðYØ rËþk{kt Úkíke çktLku «r¢Þk Mk{kLk Ëhu ÚkkÞ Au .
(2) Both the opposing processes occur at the (3) «r¢ÞfkuLke Mkktÿíkk nt{uþk LkeÃkòu Lke MkktÿíkkLku Mk{kLk
same rate ÚkkÞ Au.
(3) Concentration of reactants always become (4) «ýk÷eLkk çkÄk s {kÃke þfkÞ íkuðk økwýÄ{kuo y[¤
equal to the concentration of products hnu Au.
(4) All measurable properties of the system 90. rLkçko¤ yurMkzLkk rLkçko¤ çkuRÍ MkkÚkuLkk ûkkhLkk s÷eÞ
remain constant ÿkðýLke pH _____.
90. pH of the aqueous solution of salt of weak acid 1
with weak base is (1) 7  (pK a  pKb )
2
1 1
(1) 7  (pK a  pKb ) (2) 7  (pKa  pKb )
2 2
1 1
(2) 7  (pK a  pKb ) (3) 7  (pK a  pKb )
2 2
1 (4) 7  (pKb  pK a )
(3) 7  (pK a  pKb )
2
(4) 7  (pKb  pK a )

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

BOTANY

91. Match the column-I with column-II and select the 91. fku÷{-I yLku fku÷{-II òuze Mkk[wt rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
correct option.
fku÷{-I fku÷{-II
Column-I Column-II
a. yuLxkuLkðkuLk ÕÞwðuLknkuf (i) fku»kfuLÿLke LkSf ½è
a. Anton Von (i) First observed yr¼htSík òr÷fk{Þ
Leeuwenhoek densely stained h[Lkk òuE
reticular structures
near the nucleus
b. fu{e÷ku økkuÕøke (ii) htøkMkqºk ÿÔÞ Lkk{
ykÃÞwt
b. Camillo Golgi (ii) Gave the name
Chromatin
c. ßÞkuso Ãku÷uz (iii) Sðtík fku»kLku òuðku yLku
íkuLkwt ðýoLk fÞwO
c. George Palade (iii) First saw and
described a live cell
d. ^÷ur{tøk (iv) R÷uõxÙkuLk {kR¢kuMfkuÃk
îkhk rhçkkuÍkuBMkLku
d. Flemming (iv) First observed Mkki«Úk{ rLknk¤e
ribosome under
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
electron microscope
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
92. rçkúxeþ «kýeþk†e rÚkÞkuzkuh ïkLku yu fku»kðkË ykÃÞwt. íkku
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
íku{Lku îkhk ykÃku÷ ÃkqýoÄkhýLkkt Mkt˼uo Mkk[wt rðÄkLk ÃkMktË
92. Theodore Schwann, a British Zoologist has a
great contribution in formulation of cell theory.
fhku.
Select the correct statement w.r.t. the hypothesis (1) çkÄe s ðLkMÃkríkyku rðrðÄ fku»kkuLke çkLku÷e nkuÞ Au
proposed by him. su ÃkuþeykuLkwt MksoLk fhu Au.
(1) All plants are composed of different kinds of (2) «kýe yLku ðLkMÃkrík þhehh[Lkk fku»k yLku fku»kLke
cells which form the tissues of the plant
LkeÃkòuLke çkLku÷e Au.
(2) Bodies of animals and plants are composed of
cells and products of cells (3) Lkðk fku»kku Ãkqðo yÂMíkíð Ähkðíkk fku»k{ktÚke çkLku Au.

(3) New cells are formed from pre-existing cells. (4) yku{rLkMk MkuÕÞw÷k-R-MkuÕÞw÷k
(4) Omnis cellula – e-cellula 93. ykrËfku»kfurLÿÞ yLku Mkwfku»kfurLÿÞfku»k çktLku{kt nksh
93. Which of the given cell organelles is found in both ytøkefk fE Au ?
prokaryotic as well as eukaryotic cells?
(1) fýk¼Mkqºk (2) Mkqû{fkÞ
(1) Mitochondria
(3) hMkÄkLke (4) rhçkkuÍku{
(2) Microbodies
(3) Vacuoles
94. fku»kLke ytËh, rhçkkuÍku{ fku»khMkLke ytËh s Lknª Ãký
(4) Ribosome
yLÞ ytøkefkykuLke ytËh/MkÃkkxe Ãkh òuðk {¤u Au, íku
94. Within the cell, ribosomes are found not only in the
ytøkefkyku
cytoplasm but also in/on cell organelles, that (A) fýk¼Mkqºk
includes (B) nheíkfý
(A) Mitochondria (B) Chloroplast
(C) ¾hçk[ze MkÃkkxeðk¤wt ER
(C) Rough ER (D) Golgi body
(D) økkuÕøkefkÞ
The correct set of options is: Mkk[w rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
(1) (A) and (B) only (2) Only (C)
(1) {kºk (A) yLku (B) (2) {kºk (C)
(3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) Only (D)
(3) (A), (B) yLku (C) (4) {kºk (D)

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Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

95. Arrange the following in ascending order of their 95. fËLkk ykÄkhu [zíkk¢{{kt økkuXðku.
sizes
P. ÷k÷ hõíkfý
P. Red blood cells
Q. {kEfkuÃ÷kÍ{k
Q. Mycoplasma
R. Bacteria
R. çkuõxurhÞk
(1) Q < R < P (1) Q < R < P
(2) Q < P < R (2) Q < P < R
(3) P < R < Q (3) P < R < Q
(4) R < Q < P (4) R < Q < P
96. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. cells and their 96. fku»k yLku íkuLkk ykfkhLkkt Mkt˼uo ¾kuxwt rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
shapes. (1) ïuíkhõíkfý – økku¤ yLku rîytíkøkkuo¤
(1) White blood cells – Round and biconcave
(2) s÷ðkrnLkefe - ÷tçkkÞu÷
(2) A tracheid – Elongated
(3) [ukíkfku»k – þk¾eík yLku ÷ktçkku
(3) Nerve cell – Branched and long
(4) Columnar epithelial cells – Long and narrow (4) Míkt¼eÞ yrÄåAËeÞfku»k - ÷ktçkk yLku Mkktfzk
97. (A) A specialised differentiated form of cell 97. (A) fku»khMkÃkx÷Lkwt rðrþü rðMík]íkefhý MðYÃk Au.
membrane. (B) yk fku»khMkÃkx÷Lke ykð~Þf «ðÄo{Þ h[Lkk Au.
(B) These are essentially infoldings of cell
(C) fku»krËðk÷ rLk{koý{kt, ïMkLk, †kðe «r¢Þkyku,
membrane.
fku»khMkÃkx÷Lkk MkÃkkxe rðMíkkh yLku WíMku[f {kºkkLku
(C) Helps in cell wall formation, respiration,
secretion process, to increase surface area of
ðÄkhðk{kt {ËËYÃk ÚkkÞ Au.
plasma membrane and enzymatic content. WÃkh ykÃku÷ ÷ûkýku (A-C) ykÃku÷ {ktÚke ykrËfku»kfurLÿÞ
The above features (A-C) are attributed to which fku»kLke fE h[Lkk MkkÚku MktçktrÄík Au?
of the given structures of prokaryotic cell?
(1) LÞwÂõ÷ykuEz
(1) Nucleoid
(2) Ã÷kÍ{ez
(2) Plasmid
(3) Mesosome
(3) {uMkkuÍku{
(4) Pilus (4) Ãke÷Mk
98. Refer the given statements, stating them true (T) 98. ykÃku÷ rðÄkLkku ðkt[e, Mkkt[k (T) yÚkðk ¾kuxkt (F) rðÄkLk
or false (F) and select the correct option. yku¤¾e Mkk[wt rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
A. The ribosomes of polysome translate the A. Ãkku÷eÍku{Lkkt rhçkkuÍku{ mRNA Lkwt ¼k»kktíkh «kuxeLk{kt
mRNA into proteins.
fhu Au.
B. Gas vacuoles are found in blue green and
B. ðkÞwhMkÄkLke, Lke÷nheík yLku òtçk÷e íkÚkk nheík
purple and green photosynthetic bacteria.
«fkþMkt&÷u»ke çkuõxurhÞk{kt
C. Centrioles are present in all plant cells.
C. çkÄkt ðLkMÃkríkfku»k{kt íkkhkfuLÿ nksh
D. In prokaryotes, ribosomes are made of two
subunits 50 S and 40 S. D. ykrËfku»kfurLÿÞ{kt, rhçkkuÍku{ 50 S yLku 40 S Ãkuxk
yuf{ îkhk çkLku Au.
(1) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-F
(1) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-F
(2) A-F, B-F, C-F, D-T
(2) A-F, B-F, C-F, D-T
(3) A-T, B-F, C-T, D-F
(3) A-T, B-F, C-T, D-F
(4) A-F, B-T, C-F, D-T
(4) A-F, B-T, C-F, D-T

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

99. Consider the given diagram and select the correct 99. ykÃku÷k ykf]rík æÞkLk{kt ÷E ÷uçk÷ ½xfku (A-D) Lkkt
option w.r.t labelled components (A-D). Mkt˼uo Mkk[wt rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.

A B C D
A B C D
(1) Lipid Cholesterol Peripheral Integral
protein protein
(1) r÷Ãkez fku÷ uMxuhku÷ ÃkrhrÄÞ ytíkøkoík
«kuxeLk «kuxeLk
(2) Cholesterol Integral Sugar Peripheral
protein protein (2) fku÷uMxuhku÷ ytíkøkoík «kuxeLk þfohk ÃkrhrÄÞ
(3) Sugar Peripheral Phospholipid Integral «kuxeLk
protein bilayer protein
(3) þfohk ÃkrhrÄÞ «kuxeLk VkuMVkur÷Ãkez ytíkøkoík
(4) Sugar Integral Cholesterol Lipid rîMíkheÞ «kuxeLk
protein
(4) þfohk ytíkøkoík «kuxeLk fku÷uMxuhku÷ r÷Ãkez
100. Match the column-I with column-II and select the
correct option. 100. òuzfk òuze Mkk[wt rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
Column-I Column-II fku÷{-I fku÷{-II
a. Golgi complex (i) Controls all the activities
a. økkuÕøke Mktfw÷ (i) Mkwfku»kfurLÿÞ fku»kLke çkÄe
of eukaryotic cells
«r¢ÞkLku rLkÞtrºkík fhu Au.
b. Endoplasmic (ii) Helps in formation of
reticulum basal bodies which gives b. ytíkfku»khMkò¤ (ii) ík÷MÚkfkÞLkk rLk{koý{kt {ËË
rise to cilia and flagella fhu Au su fþk yLku Ãkû{
c. Nucleus (iii) Important site of WíÃkÒk fhu Au.
formation of glycoprotein c. fku»kfuLÿ (iii) ø÷kÞfku«kuxeLk rLk{koýLkwt
d. Centriole (iv) Often shows ribosomes {n¥ðÃkqýo MÚkkLk Au.
attached to their outer
surface d. íkkhkfuLÿ (iv) íkuLke çknkhLke MkÃkkxe Ãkh
rhçkkuÍku{ nksh nkuÞ Au.
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
101. Which of the given components of oxysome (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
contain ATP synthase enzyme? 101. ykuÂõMkÍku{Lkwt fÞwt ½xf ATP Mkt&÷ur»kík WíMku[f Ähkðu
(1) Base (2) Stalk Au?
(3) Headpiece (4) F0 (1) ík÷MÚk (2) Ëtz
102. Which of the given components þe»ko w.r.t. (3)
(4) F0
chromosomes seal their ends and prevent 102. ykÃku÷{ktÚke fÞwt ½xf htøkMkqºkLkk ytík¼køkLku rMk÷ hk¾u Au
shortening or chromosome loss? yLku htøkMkqºk ÔÞÞLku yÚkðk htøkMkqºk xqtfk ÚkðkLke «r¢ÞkLku
yxfkðu Au?
(1) Telomere (2) Kinetochore
(1) xe÷ku{eÞh (2) fkELkuxkufkuMko
(3) Centromere (4) Primary constriction
(3) MkuLxÙku{eÞh (4) «kÚkr{f ¾kt[
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Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

103. Which of the given plastids store proteins? 103. ykÃku÷{ktÚke fÞwt htsffý «kuxeLkLkwt Mktøkún fhu Au?
(1) Amyloplast (2) Elaioplast (1) {tzfý (2) íki÷fý
(3) Aleuroplast (4) Chromoplast
(3) Mk{eíkkÞkfý (4) htøkfý
104. Which of the following statements w.r.t.
104. nrhíkfýLkkt Mkt˼uo ¾kuxwt rðÄkLk fÞwt Au?
chloroplast is incorrect?
(1) Stores starch (1) Mxk[o Mktøkún
(2) Performs photosynthesis (2) «fkþMkt&÷u»ký fhu Au
(3) Outer membrane is relatively less permeable (3) ytík:Ãkx÷ fhíkk çkkÌkÃkx÷ ½xfku {kxu ykuAe
to substances than inner membrane «ðuþþe÷ Au.
(4) Contains 70 S ribosomes
(4) 70 S heçkkuÍku{ Ähkðu Au.
105. In which of the given chromosomes, centromere is
present at the centre? 105. ykÃku÷{ktÚke fÞk htøkMkqºk{kt MkuLxÙku{eÞh {æÞ{kt nksh
(1) Metacentric (2) Sub-metacentric nkuÞ Au?
(3) Acrocentric (4) Telocentric (1) {uxkMkuLxÙef (2) Mkçk {uxkMkuLxÙef
106. The cytoskeleton in a cell are involved in all of the (3) yu¢kuMkuLxÙef (4) xe÷kuMkuLxÙef
given functions, except
106. ykÃku÷e çkÄe «r¢Þkyku{kt fku»khMkftfk÷ Mkk{u÷ Au rMkðkÞ
(1) Maintenance of shape of cells
fu
(2) Mechanical support to cell
(1) fku»kLkk ykfkhLke ò¤ðýe
(3) -oxidation of fats
(2) fku»kLku Þktrºkf ykÄkh ykÃku Au
(4) Motility
107. How many centrioles are associated with a (3) [hçkeLkwt -ykuÂõMkzuþLk
centrosome? (4) økrík
(1) 5 (2) 3 107. íkkhkfkÞ{kt fux÷k íkkhkfuLÿ nkuÞ Au?
(3) 2 (4) 4
(1) 5 (2) 3
108. Which of the given are formed by the process of
(3) 2 (4) 4
packaging in the Golgi apparatus?
(1) Lysosome (2) Mitochondria 108. ykÃku÷{ktÚke fE h[Lkk fkuÕøkefkÞ{kt Ãkufurstøk ÃkAe çkLku
(3) Centrioles (4) Chloroplast
Au?
109. In human beings, the membrane of the erythrocyte (1) ÷kRMkkuÍku{ (2) fýk¼Mkqºk
has approximately A percent proteins and B (3) íkkhkfuLÿ (4) nheíkfý
percent lipids. 109. {kLkð{kt, ÷k÷hõíkfýLkkt Ãkx÷{kt ÷øk¼øk A «ríkþík
(1) A - 60, B – 40
«kuxeLk yLku B «ríkþík r÷Ãkez Au.
(2) A - 52, B - 40
(3) A - 40, B – 52 (1) A - 60, B - 40 (2) A - 52, B - 40
(4) A - 40, B - 60 (3) A - 40, B - 52 (4) A - 40, B - 60
110. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. various 110. çkuõxurhÞk÷ fku»kLkkt fku»k ykðhý Mkt˼uo ¾kuxwt rðÄkLk
layers of cell envelope in bacterial cells. ÃkMktË fhku.
(1) The outermost layer determines the shape of (1) MkkiÚke çknkhLkku Míkh fku»kLkku ykfkh Lk¬e fhu Au.
cells
(2) ø÷kÞfkufu÷eõMk ÃkAe fku»krËðk÷ ykðu Au.
(2) Glycocalyx is followed by cell wall
(3) Glycocalyx can be seen either in the form of (3) rðrðÄ «fkhLkkt çkuõxurhÞ÷ fku»k{kt ø÷kÞfkufu÷eõMk
slime layer or capsule in different types of M÷kR{Míkh yÚkðk «kðh MðYÃk{kt òuðk {¤u Au.
bacteria (4) fku»kËeðk÷ ÃkuÃxezkuø÷kÞfuLk Úke çkLku÷e nkuÞ Au.
(4) Cell wall is made of peptidoglycan

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

111. A prokaryotic cell divides every 25 minutes. If a 111. ykrËfku»kfurLÿÞ fku»k Ëhuf 25 r{rLkx ÃkAe rð¼ksLk fhu
culture containing 10 5 cells per mL is grown for Au. mL ËeX 105 fku»k Ähkðíkk {kæÞ{Lku 125 r{rLkx
125 minutes, what will be the cell concentration
MkwÄe ð]rØ fhðk{kt ykðu íkku, 125 r{rLkx ÃkAe mL ËeX
per mL after 125 minutes?
fku»kLke Mkktÿíkk þwt nþu?
(1) 5 × 105 cells (2) 25 × 105 cells
(1) 5 × 105 fku»k (2) 25 × 10 5 fku»k
(3) 32 × 105 cells (4) 125 × 105 cells
112. G1 phase (3) 32 × 105 fku»k (4) 125 × 105 fku»k
(1) Is also called quiescent stage 112. G1 yðMÚkk
(2) Starts with separation of daughter (1) Mkw»kwÃíkíkkðMÚkk Ãký fnuðkÞu Au
chromosomes
(2) çkk¤ htøkMkqºkLkk y÷øk ÚkÞk ÃkAe þY ÚkkÞ Au
(3) Is part of interphase
(3) yktíkhkðMÚkkLkku ¼køk Au
(4) Corresponds to interval between initiation of
DNA replication and duplication of (4) DNA MðÞtsLkLk «kht¼ yLku fýk¼MkqºkLkkt rîøkwýLk
mitochondria ðå[uLkk ytíkhk÷Úke yLkwYÃk yLkwYÃkeík Au.
113. A yeast cell divides and get double in 113. ÞeMx fku»k rð¼ksLk fhe _____ Mk{Þ zçk÷ ÚkE òÞ
(1) 90 minutes (2) 60 minutes Au.
(3) 18 minutes (4) 24 hours
(1) 90 r{rLkx (2) 60 r{rLkx
114. How many mitotic divisions occur in formation of
(3) 18 r{rLkx (4) 24 f÷kf
64 cells from one cell?
(1) 6 (2) 32 114. yuf fku»k{ktÚke 64 fku»kkuLkkt rLk{koý {kxu fux÷k
(3) 16 (4) 63 Mk{rð¼ksLk òuEyu Au?
115. Which of the given events are correct w.r.t. (1) 6 (2) 32
G2 phase? (3) 16 (4) 63
A. Duplication of centriole 115. G2 yðMÚkk Mkt˼uo Mkk[e ½xLkk fE Au?
B. Proteins are synthesized
A. íkkhkfuLÿ rîøkwýLk
C. Replication of DNA
B. «kuxeLk Mkt&÷u»ký
D. Duplication of chloroplast
C. DNA MðÞtsLkLk
(1) Both A and B (2) Both A and C
(3) Both B and C (4) Both B and D D. nheíkfý rîøkwýLk
116. If a diploid cell with 20 chromosomes and 32 C (1) A yLku B çkt Lku (2) A yLku C çktLku
DNA enters a cell cycle then what will be the (3) B yLku C çktLku (4) B yLku D çktLku
number of chromosomes and DNA after
S-phase? 116. òu 20 htøkMkqºk yLku 32 C DNA ðk¤wt rîfeÞ fku»k
(1) 20 chromosomes and 32 C DNA
fku»k[¢ «ðuþ fhu íkku S-yðMÚkk{kt htøkMkqºkLke MktÏÞk yLku
DNA Lke {kºkk þwt nþu ?
(2) 20 chromosomes and 64 C DNA
(1) 20 htøkMkqºk yLku 32 C DNA
(3) 40 chromosomes and 32 C DNA
(2) 20 htøkMkqºk yLku 64 C DNA
(4) 40 chromosomes and 64 C DNA
117. During which phase of karyokinesis, (3) 40 htøkMkqºk yLku 32 C DNA
chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles (4) 40 htøkMkqºk yLku 64 C DNA
and their identity is lost as discrete elements?
117. fku»kfuLÿ rð¼ksLkLke fE yðMÚkk{kt htøkMkqºk Mk{qn
(1) Prophase rðÁØ Äúwð Ãkh yufrºkík ÚkE òÞ Au yLku ÃkkuíkkLke Mðíktºk
(2) Metaphase yku¤¾ økw{kðe Ëu Au?
(3) Anaphase (1) ÃkqðkoðMÚkk (2) ¼ksLkkðMÚkk
(4) Telophase (3) ¼ksLkku¥khkðMÚkk (4) ytíÞkðMÚkk

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Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

118. How many generations of mitosis are required to 118. 32 fku»kLkkt rLk{koý {kxu Mk{rð¼ksLkLke fux÷e ÃkuZe
produce 32 cells? òuEyu?
(1) 31 (2) 8 (1) 31 (2) 8
(3) 4 (4) 5
(3) 4 (4) 5
119. How many asters together with spindle fibres
119. íkkhkrfhýku MkkÚku fux÷k yuMxh ¼uøk ÚkELku
forms mitotic apparatus?
Mk{rð¼ksLkfkÞ çkLkkðu Au?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
120. The initiation of second phase of mitosis is marked (3) 3 (4) 4
by which of the given events? 120. ykÃku÷{ktÚke fE ½xLkk îkhk Mk{rð¼ksLkLke rîíkeÞ
(1) Formation of asters and spindle fibres yðMÚkkLkwt «kht¼ yku¤¾e þfkÞ Au?
(2) Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope (1) yuMxh yLku ºkkfíktíkwLkwt rLk{koý
(3) Movement of chromosomes to spindle equator (2) fku»kfuLÿÃkx÷Lkwt MktÃkqýo rð½xLk
(4) Splitting of centromere and separation of
(3) ¼ksLkík÷ íkhV htøkMkqºkLke økrík
chromatids
121. Plants grew continuously throughout their life (4) MkuLxÙku{eÞhLkwt rð¼ksLk yLku htøkMkqºkefkykuLkwt
because of the occurrence of mitotic divisions in y÷økefhý
A. Apical meristem B. Lateral meristems 121. ðLkMÃkrík
ÃkkuíkkLkk SðLk{kt Mkíkík ð]rØ fhu Au fkhý fu
C. Parenchyma D. Collenchyma _____ {kt Mk{rð¼ksLk ÚkkÞ Au.
(1) Both A and B (2) Both A and C A. yøkúðÄoLkþe÷ B. ÃkkïoðÄoLkþe÷
(3) Both B and C (4) Both C and D C. {]Ëw¥kf D. MÚkq÷fkuýf
122. In oocytes of some vertebrates, which of the given
(1) A yLku B çkt Lku (2) A yLku C çktLku
sub-stages of prophase-I can last for months or
years? (3) B yLku C çktLku (4) C yLku D çktLku
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene 122. fux÷ktf Ãk]cðtþeykuLkkt ytzfku»k{kt, ÃkqðkoðMÚkk-I Lke fE
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene Ãkuxk yðMÚkk {rnLkkyku yÚkðk ð»kkuo MkwÄe [k÷u Au?
123. Match column-I with column-II and select the (1) ÷uÃxkuxeLk (2) ÍkEøkkuxeLk
correct option.
(3) ÃkurfxeLk (4) rzÃ÷kuxeLk
Column-I Column-II
123. òuzfk òuze Mkk[wt rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
a. Leptotene (i) Chromosomes start
paring together fku÷{-I fku÷{-II
b. Zygotene (ii) Terminalisation of a. ÷uÃxkuxeLk (i) htøkMkqºk òuz rLk{koýLkwt
chiasmata «kht¼
c. Pachytene (iii) Compaction of
b. ÍkEøkkuxeLk (ii) MðMíkef [kufzeLkwt
chromosomes
continues
rð½xLk
d. Diakinesis (iv) Appearance of c. ÃkurfxeLk (iii) htøkMkqºkLkwt Mkíkík
recombination Mktfku[Lk
nodules
d. zkEfkELkuMkeMk (iv) ÃkwLk:MktÞkusf
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) ½trXfkykuLkwt á~Þ{kLk
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) Úkðwt
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

124. Which of the following is significance of mitosis? 124. Lke[uLkk{ktÚkefÞwt Mk{rð¼ksLkLkwt {níð Au?
(1) Cell repair (1) fku»kLkk Mk{khfk{
(2) Increases genetic variability in population (2) ðMíke{kt sLkeLkef r¼Òkíkk ðÄkhu Au.
(3) Produces recombinants (3) ÃkwLk:MktÞkusf WíÃkÒk
(4) Bringing variations among offsprings
(4) Mktíkrík{kt r¼Òkíkk ÷kðe
125. The best stage to study shapes of chromosomes
is 125. htøkMkqºkLkkt ykfkhLkkt yÇÞkMk {kxu MkkiÚke Mkkhe yðMÚkk
_____ Au.
(1) Prophase
(1) ÃkqðkoðMÚkk
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase (2) ¼ksLkkðMÚkk
(4) Telophase (3) ¼ksLkku¥khkðMÚkk
126. Select the correct option w.r.t. events which lead (4) ytíÞkðMÚkk
to formation of syncytium.
126. çknwfku»kfurLÿÞ yðMÚkkLkkt rLk{koý {kxu ykð~Þf
(1) Karyokinesis not followed by cytokinesis
½xLkkLkk Mkt˼uo ÞkuøÞ rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
(2) Karyokinesis not followed by disappearance of
nuclear membrane (1) fku»kfuLÿrð¼ksLkLkwt fku»khMk rð¼ksLk îkhk
(3) Nuclear division without DNA duplication
yLkwMkhý fhðk{kt ykðíkwt LkÚke
(4) Cytokinesis followed by karyokinesis (2) fku»kfuLÿ rð¼ksLkLkwt fku»kfuLÿÃkx÷ yá~Þ Úkíke
127. Which of the given can be considered as «r¢Þk îkhk yLkwMkhý fhðk{kt ykðíkwt LkÚke.
precursor of middle lamella during cytokinesis in (3) DNA MðÞtsLkLk ðøkh fku»kfuLÿ rð¼ksLk
plant cell?
(4) fku»khMk rð¼ksLk ÃkAe fku»kfuLÿ rð¼ksLk ÚkkÞ Au.
(1) Cell furrow
127. ykÃku÷ {ktÚke fE h[LkkLku ðLkMÃkríkfku»k{kt fku»khMk
(2) Cell plate
rð¼ksLk Ëhr{ÞkLk {æÞÃkx÷Lkkt Ãkqhkuøkk{e íkhefu
(3) Cell wall {kLkðk{kt ykðu Au?
(4) Cell membrane (1) fku»k ¾kt[ (2) fku»k íkfíke
128. Read the given statements and select the correct
(3) fku»kËeðk÷ (4) fku»khMkÃkx÷
option.
Statement A : Cells divide to restore nucleo- 128. rðÄkLkku ðkt[e Mkk[wt rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
cytoplasmic ratio. rðÄkLk A : fku»kfurLÿÞ : fku»khMkeÞ økwýku¥kh ò¤ðe
hk¾ðk {kxu fku»k rð¼ksLk fhu Au.
Statement B : Four haploid cells are formed at the
rðÄkLk B : yÄeofhý I ÃkAe [kh yufkfeÞ fku»kkuLkwt
end of meiosis I. rLk{koý ÚkkÞ Au.
(1) Only statement A is correct (1) {kºk rðÄkLk A Mkk[wt Au.
(2) Only statement B is correct (2) {kºk rðÄkLk B Mkk[wt Au.
(3) Both statements are correct (3) çktLku rðÄkLkku Mkk[kt Au.
(4) Both statements are incorrect (4) çktLku rðÄkLkku ¾kuxkt Au.
129. If average duration of cell cycle of a normally
129. òu Mkk{kLÞ heíku rð¼ksLk fhLkkh fku»kLkk fku»k[¢Lke
dividing cell is 130 minutes then, what should be Mkhuhkþ yðrÄ 130 r{rLkx nkuÞ íkku íku{Lkk
the duration of interphase in it? yktíkhkðMÚkkLke yðrÄ fux÷e nkuðe òuEyu?
(1) 120 r{rLkx
(1) 120 minutes
(2) More than 114 minutes (2) 114 r{rLkx fhíkk ðÄkhu
(3) 60 minutes (3) 60 r{rLkx
(4) Less than 30 minutes (4) 30 r{rLkx fhíkk ykuAe

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Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

130. The short-lived resting stage between two meiotic 130. çku
yÄeofhýLke ðå[u nksh xqtfe Sðtík rð©k{e
divisions is called yðMÚkkLku _____ fnuðkÞ Au.
(1) Interphase (2) Interkinesis (1) yktíkhkðMÚkk (2) RLxhfkELkuM keMk
(3) Telophase-I (4) Karyokinesis (3) ytíÞkðMÚkk-I (4) fku»kfuLÿrð¼ksLk
131. When a cell does not divide, it enters 131. ßÞkhu fku»k rð¼ksLk Lk fhu íÞkhu yu _____ yðMÚkk{kt
A. G1 phase B. Quiscent stage «ðuþ fhu Au.
C. S-shape D. G2 phase A. G1 yðMÚkk B. Mkw»kwó yðMÚkk
(1) Both A and C C. S-yðMÚkk D. G2 yðMÚkk

(2) Both B and C (1) A yLku C çktLku (2) B yLku C çktLku

(3) Only B (3) {kºk B (4) {kºk D

(4) Only D 132. Lke[u ykÃku

÷ yk÷u ¾ {kt Úke, Mk{rð¼ksLkLke y÷øk y÷øk
yðMÚkk Ëhr{ÞkLk DNA Lke {kºkk{kt Úkíkk ÃkrhðíkoLkLkwt
132. Examine the phase from graph given below which
yÇÞkMk fhku..
shows the change in amount of DNA during
various phases (A-D) of meiotic division.

A B C D E
(1) yÄeofhý-I yÄeofhý -II G2 S G1
A B C D E
(2) G1 S G2 yÄeofhý yÄeofhý -II
(1) Meiosis-I Meiosis-II G2 S G1 -I
(2) G1 S G2 Meiosis-I Meiosis-II (3) S G2 yÄeofhý -I G1 yÄeofhý -II
(3) S G2 Meiosis-I G1 Meiosis-II (4) G2 yÄeofhý -I S G1 yÄeofhý -I
(4) G2 Meiosis-I S G1 Meiosis-I 133. Mk{rð¼ksLk Lku Mk{Mkqºk rð¼ksLk Ãký fnuðkÞ Au fkhý
133. Mitosis is also known as equational divisions, fu
because rÃkík]fku»k çku çkk¤fku»kkuLkwt rLk{koý fhu Au.
(1)
(1) Parent cell forms two daughter cells rÃkík]fku»k yLku MktíkríkLkkt fku»kku{kt htøkMkqºkLke MktÏÞk
(2)
(2) Number of chromosomes in parent and yuf Mk{kLk nkuÞ Au.
progeny cells remains the same (3) íku{kt Mk{kLk fku»khMk rð¼ksLk ÚkkÞ Au.
(3) There is an equal cytokinesis (4) htøkMkqºkLke MktÏÞk rÃkík]fku»kLke su{ Mktíkrík{kt yzÄe
(4) Number of chromosomes becomes half in ÚkkÞ Au.
progeny as of the parent cell 134. MkÃkw»Ãk ðLkMÃkrík{kt 20 çkes rLk{koý {kxu fux÷k yÄeofhý
134. How many meiotic divisions are required to rð¼ksLkLke ykð~Þfíkk Ãkzu Au?
produce 20 seeds in a flowering plant? (1) 20 (2) 5
(1) 20 (2) 5 (3) 25 (4) 30
(3) 25 (4) 30 135. rMkLkuÃxkuLke{÷ Mktfw÷Lkku rð½xLk ____ yðMÚkk{kt ÚkkÞ Au.
135. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex is seen in (1) ÷uÃxkuxeLk (2) ÍkÞøkkuxeLk
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene (3) zeÃ÷kuxeLk (4) ÃkurfxeLk

(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

ZOOLOGY

136. Identify the correct set of enzymes which perform 136. LkkLkk yktíkhzkLkk Ãkku÷ký{kt WÆeÃkfeÞ r¢Þk fhíkkt
their enzymatic action in lumen of small intestine WíMku[fkuLke Mkk[e òuz yku¤¾ku.
(1) Trypsin, pepsin, chymotrypsin (1) xÙeÃMkeLk, ÃkuÃMkeLk, fe{kuxÙeÃMkeLk
(2) Maltase, sucrase, nucleases
(2) {kÕxuÍ, Mkw¢uÍ, LÞwÂõ÷yuÍ
(3) Amylase, nucleosidase, salivary amylase
(3) yu{kR÷uÍ, LÞwÂõ÷yykuMkezuÍ, ÷k¤Þwõík yu{kR÷uÍ
(4) Pepsin, lactase, nucleotidase
(4) ÃkuÃMkeLk, ÷uõxuÍ, LÞwÂõ÷ykuxkRzuÍ
137. Match the following columns and choose the
correct answer. 137. ÞkuøÞ òuz òuze Mkk[ku rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
Column-I Column-II fku÷{-I fku÷{-II
(Hormones) (Target organ) (ytík:†kð) (÷ûÞ-ytøk)
a. Somatostatin (i) Stomach a. Mkku{uxkuMxuxeLk (i) sXh
b. Cholecystokinin (ii) Liver
b. fku÷uMkeMxkufkRLkeLk (ii) Þf]ík
c. Secretin (iii) Gall bladder
c. Mke¢exeLk (iii) rÃk¥kkþÞ
d. Gastrin (iv) Pancreas
d. økuMxÙeLk (iv) MðkËwrÃktz
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
138. A digestive juice that does not contain any
digestive enzyme but important for emulsification 138. su Ãkk[f hMk{kt fkuR Ãkk[f WíMku[fku økuhnksh Au Ãkhtíkw
of lipids is secreted from íku [hçkeLkk íki÷kuËefhý {kxu sYhe Au, íkuLkku †kð .......
{ktÚke ÚkkÞ Au.
(1) Small Intestine (2) Liver
(1) LkkLkwt yktíkhzwt (2) Þf]ík
(3) Gall bladder (4) Pancreas
(3) rÃk¥kkþÞ (4) MðkËwrÃktz
139. Read the following statements
139. Lke[uLkk rðÄkLkku ðkt[ku
a. Kwashiorkar is produced only by protein
deficiency in children more than one year in a. yuf ð»koÚke ðÄkhu ô{hLkkt çkk¤fku{kt {kºk «kuxeLkLke
age WýÃkLkkt fkhýu õðkuþeÞkuhfkuh ÚkkÞ Au.
b. Malnutrition is a term which covers problems b. fwÃkku»ký «rðrÄÞ þçË yÕÃkÃkku»kýLke Mk{MÞkyku
of undernutrition ykðhu Au.
c. Inflammation of liver is called cholecystitis.
c. Þf]rík{kt Mkkuòu yux÷u fku÷uMkeMxkRxeMk
Select the option which contain only correct
{kºkk Mkk[k rðÄkLkku Ähkðíkwt rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
statements
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(1) a yLku b (2) b yLku c

(3) a and c (4) All a, b and c (3) a yLku c (4) a, b yLku c

140. Procarboxypeptidase is converted into carboxy- 140. ......... {kt nksh WíMku[fLke r¢Þk ðzu
peptidase by the action of enzyme which is «kufkçkkuoÂõMkÃkuÃxezuÍ yu fkçkkuoÂõMkÃkuÃxezuÍ{kt VuhðkÞ Au.
present in
(1) Intestinal lumen (2) Succus entericus (1) yktíkhzkLkwt Ãkku÷ký (2) yktºkhMk
(3) Saliva (4) Gastric juice (3) ÷k¤ (4) sXhhMk

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Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

141. Identify the below given diagram and choose the 141. Lke[u ykÃku÷ ykf]rík yku¤¾ku íkÚkk sXh{kt Yøku yLku
labelled part which contains rugae in stomach and yktíkhzk{kt hMkktfwh Ähkðíkku ¼køk ÃkMktË fhku.
villi in intestine

(1) P (2) Q
(1) P (2) Q
(3) R (4) S
(3) R (4) S
142. ykuzeLke {wrÿfk ......... îkhLkwt hûký fhu Au.
142. Sphincter of Oddi guards the opening of
(1) Þf]ík-MðkËwrÃktz Lk÷efk
(1) Hepatopancreatic duct
(2) rÃk¥kLkr÷fk
(2) Cystic duct
(3) Common bile duct (3) Mkk{kLÞ rÃk¥k Lk¤e
(4) Hepatic duct (4) Þf]ík Lkr÷fk
143. Which of the following cell secretions of gastric 143. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞk fku»kkuLkku †kð yuheÚkúkuÃkkuyuMkeMk {kxu
glands play an important role in erythropoiesis? sYhe Au ?
(1) Parietal cells (2) Chief cells (1) ÃkuhkRx÷ fku»kku (2) {wÏÞ fku»kku
(3) Peptic cells (4) Mucus neck cells
(3) ÃkuÂÃxf fku»kku (4) &÷u»{eÞ økúeðk fku»kk
144. Dental formula for the diphyodont teeth of human
144. {kLkð{kt «ríkMÚkkÃke ËktíkLkwt ËtíkMkqºk sýkðku.
is
0021 2103
0021 2103 (1) (2)
(1) (2) 0021 2103
0021 2103
2102 2123
2102 2123 (3) (4)
(3) (4) 2102 2123
2102 2123
145. The amount of heat liberated from complete 145. çkkuBçkfu÷kuhe{exh{kt 1 [hçkeLkkt MktÃkqýo ËnLkÚke fux÷e
combustion of 1 gm fat in a bomb colorimeter is Wòo {qõík Úkþu ?
(1) 4.1 kcal/g and called physiologic value (1) 4.1 kcal/g yLku ËunÄk{eof {qÕÞ íkhefu yku¤¾kÞ Au.
(2) 5.65 kcal/g and called gross calorific value (2) 5.65 kcal/g yLku fw÷ fu÷he {qÕÞ íkhefu yku¤¾kÞ Au.
(3) 4 kcal/gm and called physiologic value (3) 4 kcal/gm yLku ËunÄk{eof {qÕÞ íkhefu yku¤¾kÞ Au.
(4) 9.45 kcal/gm and called gross calorific value
(4) 9.45 kcal/gm yLku fw÷ fu÷he {qÕÞ fnuðkÞ Au.
146. Identify the cells/structures from given below box
146. Lke[u ykÃku÷çkkuõMk{ktÚke fÞk fku»kku h[Lkkyku {kºk
which are exclusively present in mucosa of
intestine
yktíkhzkLkkt &÷u»{Míkh{kt òuðk {¤u Au ?

Paneth cells, Peyer's patches, Brunner's gland, ÃkLkuÚk fku»kku, ÃkuÞMko Ãku[, çkúwLkhLke økútrÚk, &÷u»{ †kðe fku»k
mucus secreting cells
(1) çku (2) ºký
(1) Two (2) Three (3) [kh (4) yuf
(3) Four (4) One

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

147. Read the following statements w.r.t. human 147. {kLkðËtíkrðLÞkMkLkkt Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkk ðkõÞku ðkt[ku íkÚkk
dentition and choose the correct answer. Mkk[ku rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
Statement-A : All thecodonts are diphyodont and rðÄkLk -A : ík{k{ fqÃkËtíke yu «ríkMÚkkÃke Au íkÚkk ík{k{
vice versa.
«ríkMÚkkÃke yu fqÃkËtíke Au.
Statement-B : All incisor teeth are thecodont and
rðÄkLk -B : ík{k{ AuËf Ëktík fqÃkËtíke íkÚkk «ríkMÚkkÃke Au.
diphyodont.
(1) Both statements are correct (1) çktÒku rðÄkLk Mkk[kt Au.
(2) Both statements are incorrect (2) çktÒku rðÄkLk ¾kuxkt Au.
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) {kºk rðÄkLk A Mkk[wt Au.
(4) Only statement B is correct (4) {kºk rðÄkLk B Mkk[wt Au.
148. Pernicious anaemia is caused due to 148. Sð÷uý yuLke{eÞk þuLkkt fkhýu ÚkkÞ Au?
a. Vitamin B12 deficiency
a. rðxk{eLk B12 WýÃk
b. Vitamin B6 deficiency
b. rðxk{eLk B6 WýÃk
c. Malfunctioning of gastric glands
c. sXheÞ økútrÚkLke yÔÞðMÚkk
d. Over secretion of succus entericus
(1) a and b (2) a and c
d. yktºkhMkLkku ðÄw Ãkzíkku †kð
(3) b and c (4) c and d (1) a yLku b (2) a yLku c

149. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t absorption in (3) b yLku c (4) c yLku d
alimentary canal 149. Ãkk[Lk{køko{kt yr¼þku»kýLkkt Mkt˼uo ¾kuxwt rðÄkLk ÃkMktË
(1) Glucose is absorbed in the stomach and small fhku.
intestine
(1) ø÷wfkuÍLkwt yr¼þku»ký sXh íkÚkk LkkLkkt yktíkhzk{kt
(2) Absorption of water occurs in stomach, small
ÚkkÞ Au.
intestine and large intestine
(3) Absorption of alcohol does not occur in
(2) ÃkkýeLkwt yr¼þku»ký sXh, LkkLkkt íkÚkk {kuxk
stomach yktíkhzk{kt ÚkkÞ Au.
(4) Certain drugs are absorbed through mucosa (3) ykÕfkunku÷Lkwt yr¼þku»ký sXh{kt Úkíkwt LkÚke.
of mouth and lower side of the tongue (4) fux÷ef ËðkykuLkwt yr¼þku»ký {w¾økwnkLkkt &÷u»{
150. Choose the correct food component which Míkh yLku S¼Lke Lke[u ÚkkÞ Au.
remains undigested in digestive tract if acini of 150. òu MðkËwrÃktzLkk fku»kku îkhk MðkËwhMkLkku †kð Lk ÚkkÞ íkku
pancreas fail to secrete pancreatic juice ¾kuhkfLkkt fÞk ½xfíkíðLkwt Ãkk[Lk Lkne ÚkkÞ ?
(1) Nucleic acid (2) Protein (1) LÞwÂõ÷f yuMkez (2) «kuxeLk
(3) Starch (4) Fat (3) Mxk[o (4) [hçke
151. Identify the mismatch w.r.t. vitamins and related 151. rðxk{eLk íkÚkk íku{Lke WýÃkÚke Úkíkkt hkuøkkuLkkt Mkt˼uo ¾kuxe
deficiency diseases. òuz ÃkMktË fhku.
(1) Niacin – Pellagra (1) LkeyuMkeLk – Ãku÷køkúk
(2) Thiamine – Cheilosis (2) ÚkkÞu{kRLk – rf÷kuMkeMk
(3) Folic acid – Megaloblastic anemia (3) Vku÷ef yuMkez – {kuøkk÷kuç÷kMxef yuLke{eÞk
(4) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy (4) yuMfkuçkeof yuMkez– Mfðeo

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Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

152. Choose the odd one out w.r.t function of liver 152. Þf]íkLkkt fkÞoLkk Mkt˼uo yMktøkík ÃkMktË fhku.
(1) Carbohydrate and protein metabolism (1) fkçkkuorËík íkÚkk «kuxeLk [ÞkÃk[Þ
(2) Erythropoiesis during embryonic development (2) ¼úqý rðfkMk Ëhr{ÞkLk yuheÚkúkuÃkkuyuMkeMk
(3) Storage of iron as ferritin
(3) VuhexeLk MðYÃku ÷kuníkíðLkku Mktøkún
(4) Formation of bile pigments from globin part of
(4) rn{kuø÷kuçkeLkLkkt ø÷kuçkeLk{ktÚke rÃk¥khtsfkuLkwt rLk{koý
haemoglobin
153. Which one of the following disorder of digestive 153. Ãkk[LkíktºkLke Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fR yÔÞðMÚkk {kLkð þhehLke
system is associated with accessory glands of MknkÞf økútrÚk MkkÚku MktçktrÄík Au ?
human body? (1) Íkzk (2) fçkSÞkík
(1) Diarrhoea (2) Constipation (3) WÕxe (4) f{¤k
(3) Vomiting (4) Jaundice
154. ........... Lkkt Mºkkð{kt ÷kRÃkuÍ WíMku[f nkuÞ Au.
154. Enzyme lipases are present in secretion of
(1) {kºk MðkËwrÃktzLke yuMkeLke (fku»kMk{qn)
(1) Only pancreatic acini
(2) {kºk yktºkøkútrÚk
(2) Only intestinal gland
(3) Gastric glands, pancreatic acini and intestinal (3) sXh økútrÚk, MðkËwrÃktzLke yuMkeLke yLku yktºkøkútrÚkyku
gland (4) {kºk MðkËwrÃktz yuMkeLke yLku yktºkøkútrÚk
(4) Only pancreatic acini and intestinal gland 155. [hçkeLkwt Ãkk[Lk, yu{eLkku yurMkzLkwt yr¼þku»ký yLku
155. The processes such as digestion of fat, absorption ytík†kðkuLkku †kð Úkðk suðe r¢Þkyku ........ {kt ÚkkÞ Au.
of amino acids and secretion of hormones occur in
(1) sXh (2) LkkLkwt yktíkhzwt
(1) Stomach (2) Small intestine
(3) {kuxwt yktíkhzwt (4) {w¾økwnk
(3) Large intestine (4) Buccal cavity
156. rðÄkLkku Mkk[k (T) fu ¾kuxkt (F) íkhefu yku¤¾e Mkk[ku
156. Identify the statements as True (T) or False (F)
and choose the correct option.
rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
A. Amphibians can respire through lungs in their A. W¼ÞSðeyku ÃkwgkðMÚkk{kt VwÃVwMkeÞ ïMkLk fhe þfu
adult stage. Au.
B. Earthworms exhibit cutaneous respiration. B. y¤MkeÞk{kt íð[eÞ ïMkLk òuðk {¤u Au.
C. Fishes use gills for respiration. C. {kA÷eyku{kt Ík÷h îkhk ïMkLk ÚkkÞ Au.
A B C A B C
(1) T T F (1) T T F
(2) T F T (2) T F T
(3) T T T (3) T T T
(4) F T T (4) F T T
157. Read the following statements and choose the 157. Lke[uLkk rðÄkLkku ðkt[ku yLku Mkk[ku rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
correct answer.
A. 1000 ml ykuÂõMksLkÞwõík YrÄh ÷øk¼øk 200 ml O2
A. 1000 ml oxygenated blood carries about
200 ml O 2 out of which 5 ml is delivered to
Lkwt ðnLk fhu Au, su{ktÚke Mkk{kLÞ ËunÄk{eof
tissue under normal physiological conditions. ÃkrhÂMÚkrík Ëhr{ÞkLk ÃkuþeykuLku 5 ml O2 {¤u Au.
B. At tissue level, the enzyme carbonic B. ÃkuþeÞ Míkhu, fkçkoLkef yuLknkRzÙuÍ WíMku[f H2CO3
anhydrase stimulates the breakdown of Lkwt HCO3– íkÚkk H+ {kt rðÞkusLk fhu Au.
H2CO3 into HCO3– and H+.

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

(1) Both statements are correct (1) çktÒku rðÄkLk Mkk[kt Au.
(2) Both statements are incorrect (2) çktÒku rðÄkLk ¾kuxkt Au.
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) {kºk rðÄkLk A Mkk[wt Au.
(4) Only statement B is correct
(4) {kºk rðÄkLk B Mkk[wt Au.
158. For oxygen - dissociation curve, which of the
158. Lke[uLkkt{ktÚke
fÞwt fkhf ykuÂõMksLk – rðÞkusLk ð¢Lku
following factors favour right side shifting?
s{ýe íkhV ¾Mkuzu Au?
(1) High pO2 and high pH
(2) High pCO2 and low pH
(1) ô[w pO2 yLku ô[e pH
(3) Low pCO2 and low pH (2) ô[w pCO2 yLku Lke[e pH
(4) High pO2 and low pH (3) Lke[wt pCO2 yLku Lke[e pH
159. How many structures from given in box have pO2 (4) ô[w pO2 yLku Lke[e pH
more than 40 mm Hg? 159. ykÃku÷ çkkuõMk{ktÚke fux÷e h[Lkkyku 40 mm Hg fhíkkt
Pulmonary artery, Hepatic vein, Alveoli, Tissues, W[wt pO2 Ähkðu Au ?
Aorta
VwÃVwMkÄ{Lke, Þf]íkþehk, ðkÞwfkuc, Ãkuþe, {nkÄ{Lke
(1) Two
(1) çku
(2) Three
(2) ºký
(3) Four
(4) Five
(3) [kh
160. Complete the analogy w.r.t. ratio of respiratory (4) Ãkkt[
volume. 160. ïMkLk fËLkkt Mkt˼o{kt Mk{YÃkíkkt Ãkqýo fhku.
Tidal volume : Functional Residual capacity : : 1 : xkRz÷ ðkuÕÞw{ : VtõþLk÷ huMkezâwy÷ fuÃkuMkexe : : 1 :
_____. _____.
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 7 (3) 5 (4) 7

161. The volume of sum of TV, ERV and RV is almost 161. TV, ERV yLku RV Lkkt fËLkku Mkhðk¤ku fux÷ku nkuÞ Au ?
(1) Equal to FRC (1) FRC sux÷ku
(2) Half of the TLC (2) TLC fhíkkt yzÄku
(3) More than VC (3) VC fhíkkt ðÄkhu
(4) Equal to EC (4) EC sux÷ku
162. Which of the following additional muscles present
162. çk¤ÃkqðofLkkt WåAðkMk Ëhr{ÞkLk ÃkktMk¤e rÃktshLkkt fÞk
in thoracic cage contract to help in increasing the
ðÄkhkLkkt MLkkÞw ïMkLk þÂõík ðÄkhðk{kt MknkÞf Au?
strength of breathing during forceful expiration?
(1) çkkÌk yktíkhÃkktMk¤e MLkkÞw
(1) External intercostal muscles

(2) Internal intercostal muscles (2) ytík:yktíkhÃkktMk¤e MLkkÞw

(3) Abdominal muscles (3) WËheÞ MLkkÞw

(4) Diaphragm (4) WhkuËh Ãkx÷

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Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

163. Identify the below given diagram of mechanism of 163. ïkMkkuåAðkMkLke r¢Þk Ëþkoðíke íkÚkk rLkËuoþeík ¼køkku
breathing with labelled structures/process and Ähkðíke ykf]rík yku¤¾ku yLku Mkk[kt rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
select the correct answer.

(1) P yu WåAðkMk Ëhr{ÞkLk WhkuËh Ãkx÷Lke Mktfkur[ík

(1) P showing the contracted condition of
ÂMÚkrík Ëþkoðu Au.
diaphragm during expiration
(2) R yu ïkMk Mk{Þu WhMkLkwt ðÄu÷wt fË Mkq[ðu Au.
(2) R indicating increased volume of thorax during
inspiration (3) S yu WhMkLke ðûk {æÞ hu¾k Ãkh ÂMÚkík Au.
(3) S is present on mid ventral line of thorax (4) T «¢eÞk {kºk çk¤ÃkqðofLkkt ïkMk Ëhr{ÞkLk ÚkkÞ Au.
(4) Process T occurs only in forceful inspiration 164. {kuxk ¼køkLkku fkçkoLk zkÞkuõMkkRz çkkRfkçkkuoLkux ykÞLk
164. Bulk of carbon dioxide is transported as MðYÃku X {kt ðnLk Ãkk{u Au íkÚkk 20 Úke 25 xfk
bicarbonate ion in X and about 20 to 25 CO2 {kt fkçkuo{eLkku rn{kuø÷kuçkeLk MðYÃku ðnLk Ãkk{u Au.
percent CO2 is transported as carbamino- Y .
haemoglobin in Y .
Mkk[ku rðfÕÃk X yLku Y {ktÚke ÃkMktË fhku..
Choose the correct option for X and Y.
X Y
X Y
(1) YrÄh hMk YrÄh hMk
(1) Blood plasma Blood plasma
(2) RBC YrÄh hMk
(2) RBC Blood plasma
(3) Blood plasma RBC (3) YrÄh hMk RBC

(4) RBC RBC (4) RBC RBC

165. Select the structure from given below four options 165. Lke[u ykÃku÷ [kh rðfÕÃkku{ktÚke “C” ykfkhLke fkÂMÚk{Þ
that does not participate in gaseous exchange but fze Ähkðíkku Ãkhtíkw ðkíkrðLke{Þ{kt ¼køk Lk ÷uíkku rðfÕÃk
possess “C” shape cartilaginous rings ÃkMktË fhku.
(1) Respiratory bronchioles (1) ïkMkðkrnLke
(2) Terminal bronchioles (2) ytíÞ ïkMkðkrnLke
(3) Alveolar duct (3) ðkÞwfkuc Lkr÷fk
(4) Terminal bronchi (4) ytíke{ ïkMkLk÷efk
166. How much additional volume of air, a healthy 166. Mkk{kLÞïkMk ÃkAe, yuf Mkk{kLÞ ÔÞÂõík çk¤ÃkqðofLkk
person can expire by a forcible expiration in each WåAðkMk îkhk fux÷e ðÄkhkLke nðk çknkh fkZe þfu
breath after normal inspiration? Au?
(1) 500 ml (2) 2500 – 3000 ml (1) 500 ml (2) 2500 – 3000 ml
(3) 1000 – 1100 ml (4) 4600 ml (3) 1000 – 1100 ml (4) 4600 ml

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)

167. Pneumotaxic centre which can moderate the 167. ïMkLk ÷Þ{kt ÃkrhðíkoLk ÷kðe þfíkwt LÞw{kuxuõMkef fuLÿ
functions of respiratory rhythm centre is present in õÞkt ykðu÷wt Au ?
(1) Pons (1) ÃkkuLMkT
(2) Medulla oblongata
(2) ÷tçk{ßò
(3) Hypothalamus
(3) nkRÃkkuÚku÷u{Mk
(4) Midbrain
(4) {æÞ{øks
168. Which of the following is an allergic disease
characterised by difficulty in breathing causing 168. Lke[uLkkt{ktÚke fÞk yu÷Sof hkuøk{kt ïkMkkuåAðkMk{kt
wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and íkf÷eV MkkÚku rAtfku íkÚkk ïkMkLk¤e yLku ïkMkLk÷efkyku{kt
bronchioles? çk¤íkhk ÚkkÞ Au ?
(1) Emphysema (2) Bronchitis (1) yuBVMke{k (2) çkúkuLfkRxeMk
(3) Asthma (4) Pneumonia
(3) Ë{ (4) LÞw{kuLkeÞk
169. Almost 75% saturation of haemoglobin with
169. ....... pO2 nkuÞ íÞkhu ÷øk¼øk 75% rn{kuø÷kuçkeLk
oxygen occurs at pO2 equal to
Mkttík]ó ÚkR òÞ Au.
(1) 40 mm Hg (2) 60 mm Hg
(1) 40 mm Hg (2) 60 mm Hg
(3) 95 mm Hg (4) 25 mm Hg
(3) 95 mm Hg (4) 25 mm Hg
170. The difference in between pO2 of oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood is about 170. ykuÂõMksLkÞwõík íkÚkk ykuÂõMksLkrðneLk YrÄh ðå[u pO2
(1) 25 (2) 45 Lkku íkVkðík sýkðku.
(3) 55 (4) 90 (1) 25 (2) 45
171. The lungs alveoli remain inflated even after (3) 55 (4) 90
forceful expiration in a disease which is mainly 171. Äw{úÃkkLkLku
fkhýu Úkíkkt fÞk hkuøk{kt çk¤ÃkqðofLkkt WåAðkMk
caused due to cigarette smoking. The disease is ÃkAe Ãký VuVMkktLkk ðkÞwfkuc{kt nðk ¼hkÞu÷e hnu Au?
(1) Emphysema
(1) yuBVeMke{k
(2) Bronchitis
(2) çkúkuLfkRxeMk
(3) Occupational respiratory disorders
(3) ÔÞðMkkÞef ïMkLk yÔÞðMÚkk
(4) Asthma
(4) Ë{
172. Rate of diffusion of O2 at alveoli and tissue is
independent of 172. ðkÞwfkuc íkÚkk ÃkuþeÞ Míkhu O2 Lkku «Mkhý Ëh þuLkktÚke
(1) Partial pressure Mðíktºk Au ?
(2) Solubility (1) yktþef Ëçkký
(3) Thickness of diffusion membrane (2) ÿkÔÞíkk
(4) Rate of diffusion of CO2 (3) «Mkhý Ãkx÷Lke òzkR
173. The outer pleural membrane is found in close
(4) CO2 Lkku «Mkhý Ëh
contact with all of the following except
173. çkkÌk VwÃVwMkkðhý Lke[uLkkt ík{k{Lkkt LksËefe MktÃkfo{kt
(1) Diaphragm
nkuÞ Au, MkeðkÞ fu,
(2) Ribs
(1) WhkuËh Ãkx÷ (2) ÃkktMk¤eyku
(3) Lumbar vertebrae
(3) frx fþuYfkyku (4) WhkuÂMÚk
(4) Sternum

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Test-3 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021
174. Aquatic molluscs like Unio possess 174. WLkeÞku suðkt s÷eÞ {]ËwfkÞ ........ Ähkðu Au.
(1) Cutaneous respiration (1) íð[eÞ ïMkLk
(2) Pulmonary respiration (2) VwÃVwMkeÞ ïMkLk
(3) Branchial respiration
(3) Ík÷h îkhk ïMkLk
(4) Buccopharyngeal respiration
(4) {w¾økwnk ftXLkk÷eÞ ïMkLk
175. Glottis is a opening of
175. ø÷kux eMk yu ...... Lkwt îkh Au.
(1) Pharynx (2) Larynx
(3) Oral cavity (4) Oesophagus
(1) ftXLk¤e (2) MðhÃkuxe
176. What will be pO2 and pCO2 of oxygenated blood (3) {w¾økwnk (4) yÒkLk¤e
as compared to tissues respectively? 176. ÃkuþeykuLke
MkkÃkuûku ykuÂõMksLkÞwõík YrÄhLkwt pO2 yLku
(1) High, high (2) Low, high pCO2 yLkw¢{u fux÷wt nkuÞ Au ?
(3) Low, low (4) High, low (1) ô[w, ô[wt (2) Lke[wt, ô[wt
177. Contraction of diaphragm (3) Lke[wt, Lke[wt (4) ô[wt, Lke[wt
(1) Increases the volume of thoracic cavity in
177. WhkuËh Ãkx÷Lkk Mktfku[LkLku fkhýu
dorso-ventral axis
(2) Increases the volume of thoracic cavity in
(1) WhMkeÞ økwnkLkwt fË Ãk]c-ðûk yûku ðÄu Au.
antero-posterior axis (2) WhMkeÞ økwnkLkwt fË yøkú -ðûk yûku ðÄu Au.
(3) Decreases the volume of thoracic cavity in (3) WhMkeÞ økwnkLkwt fË Ãk]c-ðûk yûku ½xkzu Au.
dorso-ventral axis
(4) WhMkeÞ økwnkLkwt fË yøkú-ðûk yûku ½xkzu Au.
(4) Decreases the volume of thoracic cavity in
178. Ãkuhkux ez (WÃkfýo) økútrÚkLkku Mºkkð ....... Ähkðu Au.
antero-posterior axis
178. Secretion of parotid gland contains (1) ÷kRÃkuÍ (2) yu{kR÷uÍ
(1) Lipase (2) Amylase (3) «kuxeyuÍ (4) LÞwÂõ÷yuÍ
(3) Protease (4) Nucleases 179. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fR h[Lkk {kºk yktíkhzkLkkt hMkktfwh{kt òuðk
179. Which of the following structure is exclusively {¤u Au ?
present in villi of intestine? (1) ÃkÞMðeLke (2) YrÄhfuþefk
(1) Lacteals (2) Blood capillaries
(3) &÷u»{ økútrÚkyku (4) ytÄ:&÷u»{Míkh
(3) Mucous glands (4) Submucosa
180. {kuxkt yktíkhzkLkkt çktÄkhýeÞ ½xfkuLkkt Mkt˼uo yMktøkík
180. Choose the odd one w.r.t. structural constituents
ÃkMktË fhku.
of large intestine
(1) Rectum
(1) {¤kþÞ
(2) Jejunum (2) {æÞktºk
(3) Descending colon (3) yÄkuøkk{e fku÷kuLk
(4) Caecum (4) ytÄktºk

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