Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -94

I B PS PO-X I PRELI M S M T- 94
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-4): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by
(a), (b), (c) and (d) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there is

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any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence.
That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the
errors of punctuation if any.
1. (a) With India’s urban population expected to grow / (b) exponentially over the
next couple of decades / (c) urban housing will be a central issue / (d) to the
government. / (e) No error
2.
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(a) With the crisis of depleting clean water sources / (b) looming over us, / (c)
considerable alternative sources/ (d) is imperative. /(e) No error
3. (a) The Bengaluru Police were proposing to use electronic tags / (b) on habitual
offenders to monitor their movements, / (c) after an analysis revealed that they

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were involved /(d) in more than forty percent crimes reported in the city. / (e) No
d
error
4. (a) Having a visionary and motivating leader, / (b) she thinks out of the box and /
(c) has her own style of doing things, one of which / (d) is treating and respecting
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her employees as assets, /(e) No error

Directions (5-6): Rearrange the following four sentences (A), (B), (C) are (D) in
the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions
given below.
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5. A. How do we have polarized conversations without
B. Many of us face this internal struggle in these turbulent times
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C. Out opposing voices and becoming an echo chamber?

D. Either being complicit in injustice or shutting
1) BADC 2) BCAD 3) ACBD 4) DCAB 5) CABD
6. A. Me in the darkest of times
B. Some of whom espouse ideologies that I oppose
C.Yet those same friends have been there for
D. As a musician, I have made many good friends
C
1) DBCA 2) ABCD 3) CDBA 4) DACB 5) DBAC
Directions (7-9): Which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold in the
sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is
given, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
7. The agreements in Galwan and Pangong Lake, where both sides have put in place
no-patrolling zones, had not been followed at other disputed sites.
1) were not followed 2) was not being followed
3) has not being followed 4) have not been followed 5) No correction required
8. This opinion clearly were not been taken into consideration nor has it been
found to be credible by international observers.
1) has not been taken 2) had not been taken
3) was not been taken 4) No correction required 5) has not taken
9. we had to understand that this is not the only market that is going up.
1) were too understand 2) has to understood
3) have to understand 4) No correction required 5) was to understand

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -94

Directions (10-14): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are given below the passage and against each,
five options are given. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank
appropriately to make grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
The newly built stadium has been———(10) with all the modern facilities and
technologies necessary for present-day cricket. It also has four dressing rooms
which will be ———(11) for hosting back-to-back twenty-twenty matches. The
stadium is ——-(12) over 63 acres and has a seating capacity of 1.10 lakh people.
Melbourne is currently the largest stadium as it can accommodate 90,000 people
simultaneously. The stadium in Ahmedabad has been built at an estimated cost

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of Rs. 800 crores and is——-(13) by Larson & Toubro. The world’s largest stadium
has 76 corporate boxes with a seating capacity of 25 each, an indoor academy, an
Olympic level swimming pool, food courts, four dressing rooms for athletes, and a
GCA clubhouse. A total of 11 clay pitches of five black soil and six red soil have
been prepared in the cricket stadium. It will also be the first stadium to use both
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colored clay for the practice and main pitches. In rain, it can be ——-(14) in only
30 minutes.
10. 1) bare 2) equipped 3) stripped 4) unfurnished 5) deprived
11. 1) additional 2) additional 3) gingerbread 4) extraneous 5) necessary
12. 1) spread 2) halt

E 3) compression4) abridgment 5) extreme

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13. 1) destroy 2) disarrange 3) disorder 4) constructed 5) end
14. 1) dampen 2) dried 3) soak 4) wet 5) moisten
Directions (15-17): In each sentence below, four words which are represented as
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(A), (B), (C), (D) have been printed in bold type, one of which may be either
inappropriate in the context to the sentence or wrongly spelt. The corresponding
alphabet of that word is the answer. If all the four words are appropriate and also
correctly-spelt, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as the answer.
C
15. It was a death his well-wishers feared would happen and one he had anticipated.
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Father Stan Swamy, an 84-year-old Jesuit priest, known for his unipolarity and
activism in the cause of Adivasis, died nine months into his unjust imprisonment
on tenuous charges.
1) feared 2) anticipated 3) unipolarity 4) imprisonment 5) All are correct.
16. The Bombay High Court did issue notice on his bail petition, observing that he
was entitled to bail, but his end come in a hospital even before the matter could
be taken up for final disposal.
C
1) notice 2) entitled 3) come 4) taken 5) All are correct.
17. The Centre’s move (A) to take over vaccine (B) administration followed a chaotic
(C) April-May when the second wave roiled (D) India with unpricedented (E) ferocity.
1) move 2) vaccine 3) chaotic 4) All are correct 5) unpricedented
Directions(18-19): In the question given below two statements are given. Connect
them by choosing the word given in options in the best possible way without
changing the intended meaning.
18. (I) Animals with erythroleukemia are anemic despite having a marrow filled with
rubriblasts, 
(II) those with polycythemia Vera have erythrocytosis.
1) but 2) until 3) also 4) where as 5) provided that
19. (I) The source of the information is irrelevant
(II) ,the information need not be confidential.
1) still 2) Moreover 3) likewise 4) even though 5) but

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -94

Directions (20-27): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it.
No longer is asthma considered a condition with isolated, acute episodes of
bronchspasm. Rather, asthma is now understood to be a chronic inflammatory
disorder of the airways—that is, inflammation makes the airways chronically
sensitive. When these hyper responsive airways are irritated, airflow is limited,
and attacks of coughing, wheezing, chest tightness, and breathing difficulty occur.
Asthma involves complex interactions among inflammatory cells, mediators, and
the cells and tissues in the airways. The interactions result in airflow limitation
from acute broncho constriction, swelling of the airway wall, increased mucus

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secretion, and airway remodeling. The inflammation also causes an increase in
airway responsiveness. During an asthma attack, the patient attempts to
compensate by breathing at a higher lung volume in order to keep the air flowing
through the constricted airways, and the greater the airway limitation, the higher
the lung volume must be to keep airways open. The morphologic changes that
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occur in asthma include bronchial infiltration by inflammatory cells. Key effecter
cells in the inflammatory response are the mast cells, T lymphocytes, and
eosinophils. Mast cells and eosinophils are also significant participants in allergic

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responses, hence the similarities between allergic reactions and asthma attacks.
Other changes include mucus plugging of the airways, interstitial edema, and
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micro vascular leakage. Destruction of bronchial epithelium and thickening of
the subbasement membrane is also characteristic. In addition, there may be
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hyper- trophy and hyperplasia of airway smooth muscle, increase in goblet cell
number, and enlargement of sub mucous glands. Although causes of the initial
tendency toward inflammation in the airways of patients with asthma are not yet
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certain, to date the strongest identified risk factor is atopy. This inherited familial
tendency to have allergic reactions includes increased sensitivity to allergens
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that are risk factors for developing asthma. Some of these allergens include
domestic dust mites, animals with fur, cockroaches, pollens, and molds.
Additionally, asthma may be triggered by viral respiratory infections, especially in
children. By avoiding these allergens and triggers, a person with asthma lowers
his or her risk of irritating sensitive airways. A few avoidance techniques include:
keeping the home clean and well ventilated, using an air conditioner in the
summer months when pollen and mold counts are high, and getting an annual
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influenza vaccination. Of course, asthma sufferers should avoid tobacco smoke
altogether. Cigar, cigarette, or pipe smoke is a trigger whether the patient smokes
or inhales the smoke from others. Smoke increases the risk of allergic sensitization
in children, increases the severity of symptoms, and may be fatal in children who
already have asthma. Many of the risk factors for developing asthma may also
provoke asthma attacks, and people with asthma may have one or more triggers,
which vary from individual to individual. The risk can be further reduced by
taking medications that decrease airway inflammation. Most exacerbations can
be prevented by the combination of avoiding triggers and taking anti-inflammatory
medications. An exception is physical activity, which is a common trigger of
exacerbations in asthma patients. However, asthma patients should not
necessarily avoid all physical exertion, because some types of activity have been
proven to reduce symptoms. Rather, they should work in conjunction with a doctor

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -94

to design a proper training regimen, which includes the use of medication. In

order to diagnose asthma, a healthcare professional must appreciate the
underlying dis- order that leads to asthma symptoms and understand how to
recognize the condition through information gathered from the patient’s history,
physical examination, measurements of lung function, and allergic status. Because
asthma symptoms vary throughout the day, the respiratory system may appear
normal during physical examination. Clinical signs are more likely to be present
when a patient is experiencing symptoms; however, the absence of symptoms
upon examination does not exclude the diagnosis of asthma.
20. According to the passage, what is the name for the familial inclination to have

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hypersensitivity to certain allergens?
1) interstitial edema 2) hyperplasia 3) hypertrophy
4) atopy 5) None
21. Why does a person suffering from an asthma attack attempt to inhale more air?
1) to prevent the loss of consciousness
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2) to keep air flowing through shrunken air passageways
3) to prevent hyperplasia
4) to compensate for weakened mast cells,T lymphocytes, and eosinophils
5) None
22.

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The passage suggests that in the past, asthma was regarded as which of the
following?
d
1) a result of the overuse of tobacco products
2) a hysterical condition
3) mysterious, unrelated attacks affecting the lungs
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4) a chronic condition 5) None

23. Which of the following would be the best replacement for the underlined word
exacerbations in this passage?
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1) allergies 2) attacks 3) triggers 4) allergens 5) None
24. The passage mentions all of the following bodily changes during an asthma attack
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except
1) severe cramping in the chest. 2) heavy breathing.
3) airways blocked by fluids. 4) constricted airways. 5) None
25. Although it is surprising, which of the following triggers is mentioned in the
passage a possibly reducing the symptoms of asthma in some patients?
1) using a fan instead of an air conditioner in summer months
2) exposure to second-hand cigarette smoke
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3) the love of a family pet 4) performing physical exercise 5) None
26. Why might a patient with asthma have an apparently normal respiratory system
during an examination by a doctor?
1) Asthma symptoms come and go throughout the day.
2) Severe asthma occurs only after strenuous physical exertion.
3) Doctor’s offices are smoke free and very clean.
4) The pollen and mold count may be low that day. 5) None
27. What is the reason given in this article for why passive smoke should be avoided
by children?
1) A smoke-filled room is a breeding ground for viral respiratory infections.
2) Smoke can stunt an asthmatic child’s growth.
3) Smoke can heighten the intensity of asthma symptoms.
4) Breathing smoke can lead to a fatal asthma attack.
5) None

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -94

Directions (28-30): In this question, words (A), (B), (C), and (D) are given in bold.
If these words are interchanged, the sentence will be meaningful and
grammatically correct. Identify the pair of words, if interchanged which will make
the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. That pair is your answer. If
all the words are appropriate then mark ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
28. First, we must acknowledge that it is an enormous debate (A)  for us to be in the
position to even privilege (B) the question of how much foundations should be
suffering (C)in this moment while so many are spending (D) 
1) ABCD 2) DBCA 3) CADB 4) BADC 5) BDCA
29. She knew that anyone looking at the two of them would like act (A) better, and
she wouldn’t be able to hate (B) them. So she would blame (C) her instead in a

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silent Lin (D) of protest against this inevitable fate.
1) BCDA 2) CDAB 3) ACDB 4) CDBA 5) DCBA
30. A mobile phone is a radio (A) telephone that can make and receive calls over a
portable (B) frequency link while the user is moving within a telephone service
area. The radio frequency link establishes (C) a connection to the switching
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systems of a mobile phone operator, which provides (D)access to the public switched
telephone network .
1) ACDB 2) BDCA 3) CDAB 4) BACD 5) BCDA

31.

EQUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
P and Q started a business with the investments in the ratio of 4 : 3 respectively.
d
After 6 months from the start of the business R joined and the respective ratio
between the investments of Q and R was 5 : 2. If the annual profit earned by them
was Rs. 7,980, what was the difference between P’s share and Q’s share in the
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profit ?
1) Rs. 900 2) Rs. 1050 3) Rs. 1150 4) Rs. 1250 5) Rs. 850
32. Sum invested in scheme Y is 2 times of the sum invested in Scheme X. Investment
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in Scheme X is made for 4 years at 14% p.a simple interest and in Scheme Y for
2 years at 8% p.a simple interest. The total interest earned from both the schemes
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is Rs.2464. How much was invested in Scheme X ?

1) Rs. 3200 2) Rs. 2400 3) Rs. 2000 4) Rs. 2200 5) Rs. 2800
33. A man sold an article for Rs. 9250 and incurred a loss. Had he sold the article for
Rs.10750, his gain would have been twice the amount of loss. At what price
should he sell the article so as to earn 10% profit ?
1) Rs. 10,725 2) Rs. 10,560 3) Rs. 10,175 4) Rs. 9750 5) Rs. 10,802
34. Respective ratio between total number of students studying in College A and
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College B is 2 : 3. In college B, out of the total number of students 7/15th are
girls, out of which 40% study Arts and the remaining 504 girls study in other
streams. What is the total number of students in College A?
1) 2100 2) 900 3) 1200 4) 1500 5) 1800
35. A bag contains 5 red balls, 4 yellow balls and 7 pink balls. If two balls are drawn at
random from the bag, one after another, what is the probability that the first ball
is yellow and the second ball is red ?
1 3 1 1 5
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
6 8 8 12 12
36. Amar and Baji are travelling from point P to Q, which are 150 kms apart. Travelling
at a certain speed Amar takes 1 hour less than Baji to reach point Q. If Amar
doubles his speed, he will take 2 hours 30 mins less than Baji to reach point Q. At
what speed was Amar driving from point P to Q ?
1) 55 kmph 2) 50 kmph 3) 45 kmph 4) 40 kmph 5) 60 kmph
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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -94

37. A tank has two inlets A & B. A alone takes 6 hours and B alone takes 8 hours to
fill the empty tank completely when there is no leakage. A leakage was caused
which would empty the full tank completely in ‘X’ hours when no inlet is open.
Now, when only inlet A was opened, it took 12 hours to fill the empty tank
completely. How much time will B alone take to fill the empty tank completely
?(in hours)
1) 12 2) 20 3) 24 4) 28 5) 18
38. At present, the respective ratio between the ages of A and B is 4 : 7 and that
between A and C is 1 : 4. 3 years hence, the sum of the ages of A, B and C will be
90 years. What is the present age of A ?
1) 15 years 2) 12 years 3) 21 years 4) 25 years 5) 5 years

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Direction (39-42):In the given question two quantities are given, one as Quantity
I and another as Quantity II. You have to determine the relationship between the
two quantities and choose the appropriate option.
39. Quantity I : The probability of getting a ‘3’ on a single throw of a dice.
Quantity II: The probability of getting a card of spades from a pack of 52 cards in
a single draw.
ha
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I  Quantity II
3) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established from the
information given

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4) Quantity I < Quantity II 5) Quantity I  Quantity II
d
40. Quantity I : 30% of 50% of 1400
Quantity II: 25% of 30% of 3100
1) Quantity I  Quantity II
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2) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established from the

information given
3) Quantity I < Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
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5) Quantity I > Quantity II
41. Quantity I : The circumference of a circle with a radius of 21cm.
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Quantity II : Perimeter of a square with side 32 cm.

1) Quantity I < Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II
4) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established li nin the
inter mation given
5) Quantity I  Quantity II
42. Consider the equations : I.13x + 5= 200 II. 3y - 11 = 43
C
Quantity I : x
Quantity II : y
1) Quantity I < Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
3) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established from the
information given
4) Quantity I  Quantity II 5) Quantity I  Quantity II
Direction(43-47) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given
number series ?
43. 1 2 6 21 88 ?
1) 498 2) 236 3) 298 4) 385 5) 445
44. 298 296 305 277 342 ?
1) 285 2) 216 3) 274 4) 258 5) 206
45. 65 33 17 9 5 ?
1) 0.5 2) 2 3) 1 4) 0.6 5) 3

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -94

46. 17 9 10 16.5 35 ?
1) 90 2) 75 3) 69 4) 87 5) 48
47. 64 71 85 113 ? 281
1) 184 2) 169 3) 140 4) 170 5) 154
Direction (48-51) : In this question two equations numbered I & II are given. You
have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option.
48. I. 2x2 - 24x + 70 = 0 II. y2 - 8y + 15 = 0
1) Relationship between X and Y cannot be established (or) X=Y
2) X  Y 3) X  Y 4) X < Y 5) X > Y
2
49. I. 4x - 23x + 15 = 0 II. 4y2 - 19y + 12 = 0

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1) X  Y 2) X < Y 3) X > Y 4) X  Y
5) Relationship between X and Y cannot be established (or) X=Y
50. I. 3x2 + 17x + 22 = 0 II. 3y2 + 25y + 52 = 0
1) X  Y 2) X > Y 3) X < Y
4) Relationship between X and Y cannot be established (or) X=Y 5) X  Y
51. I. x2 = 49
II.y2 + 3y - 28 = 0
ha
1) X  Y 2) X > Y 3) X < Y
4) Relationship between X and Y cannot be established (or) X=Y 5) X  Y

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Direction(52-55) : Study the table and answer the given question.
Data related to number of employees in 5 different companies in June 2021.
d
O u t o f to ta l n u m b e r o f em p lo y e e s
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C o m p an ie s T o tal P e rc e n ta g e P e rce n tag e P e rc e n ta g e

num ber of o f S cie n ce of o f A rts
e m p lo y e e s g rad u a te s C o m m e rce g rad u a te s
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g ra d u ate s
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J --- --- 28% 30%

K 1500 33% 45% ---

L 1250 --- 34% ---

M --- 40% 40% ---

N --- 45% --- 30%

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Note: (I) Employees of the given companies can be categorized only in three types:
Science graduates, Commerce graduates and Arts graduates.
(II) Few values are missing in the table (indicated by —). A candidate is expected
to calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer the given question, on
the basis of the given data and information.
52. What was the difference between number of Commerce graduate employees and
Arts graduate employees in company K ?
1) 288 2) 272 3) 276 4) 312 5) 345
53. The average number of Science graduate employees and Commerce graduate
employees in company N was 336. What was the total number of employees in
company N ?
1) 880 2) 840 3) 800 4) 960 5) 920

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -94

54. If the respective ratio between number of Science graduate employees and Arts
graduate employees in company L was 6 : 5, what was the number of Arts graduate
employees in company L ?
1) 375 2) 428 3) 312 4) 236 5) 444
55. Total number of employees in company M was 3 times the total number of employees
in company J. If the difference between number of Arts graduate employees in
company J and that in company M was 240, what was the total number of
employees in company M ?
1) 400 2) 1440 3) 1200 4) 800 5) 2400
56. Total number of employees in company K increased by 10% from June, 2021 to
June, 2022. If 30% of total number of employees in company K in June, 2022 were

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Science graduates, what was the number of Science graduate employees in
company K in June, 2022 ?
1) 396 2) 372 3) 495 4) 414 5) 384
Direction(57-60) : What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact
value)
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57. ? % of 399.95 + 69.99 % of 460.02 = 433.95
1) 20 2) 30 3) 28 4) 10 5) 15
58.
2) 550

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242.02 + 457.98 - 399.97  8.02 = ?
1) 825 3) 750 4) 425 5) 650
d
59. 257 x 2.99 + 480.98 = ?2
1) 64 2) 25 3) 529 4) 23 5) 625
ee

60. 251  25 x 31.95  15.99 = ?

1) 12 2) 14 3) 18 4) 20 5) 22
Directions(61-65): Given below information read carefully and answers the
questions.
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SBI clerk exam was conducted in Vijayawada in a four different centres, i.e.
Shailesh, Kandrika, SS technology and Q technology . The exam took place in
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three slots in each centre: slot-1, slot-2 and slot-3.

Shailesh: There were a total of 2500 examinees out of which 32% were in slot-
1. There were 100 more examinees in slot-2 than in slot-3.
Kandrika: The ratio of the number of examinees in slot-1 to that in slot-3 was
1
3:2. 33 % of the examinees were in slot-2.
3
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SS technology: There are 450 less examinees in slot-1 than in slot-1 in Kandrika.
There were 420 more examinees in slot-3 than in slot-2. There were 2850
examinees in total. 35% of the total number of examinees in slot-3 across all
centres was in SS technology.
Q technology: There were a total of 4000 examinees in slot-1 across all centers
out of which 31.25% were in Q technology centre and 31.5% of all examinees in
slot-2 across all centers were in Q technology centre.
61. In SS technology centre, the male to female ratio of examinees in slot-1, slot-2
and slot-3 are 3:2, 4:3 and 11:7 respectively. What is the overall male to female
ratio of examinees in SS technology centre?
1) 25 : 33 2) 21 : 19 3) 14 : 29 4) 15 : 19 5) 34 : 23
62. What is the ratio of the number of examinees in slot-2 in Q technology centre to
the number of examinees in slot-3 in SS technology centre?
1) 1:1 2) 3:2 3) 5:9 4) 5:4 5) 11:14

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -94

63. What is the ratio of the difference between the number of examinees in slot-1 in
Shailesh centre and Kandrika centre to the difference between the number of
examinees in slot-3 in SS technology centre and Q technology centre?
1) 11:18 2) 22:29 3) 10:13 4) 71:93 5) 31:21
64. The sum of the number of examinees in slot-1 in SS technology centre and Q
technology centre is what percent greater than the sum of the number of
examinees in slot-3 Shailesh and Kandrika centres?
1) 15 2) 25 3) 30 4) 40 5) 65
65. Total number of students writes examination in all centres in slot-2?
1) 3000 2) 3500 3) 4000 4) 5210 5) 5900
REASONING

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Direction (66-69): In this question three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II are given. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide
which of the given conclusion logically follows.
66. Statements: A few Plastics are Covers Only a few Metals are Covers
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No Metal is Sliver
Conclusions: I. All Slivers are Covers is a possibility.
II. No Plastic is Metal.

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1) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows
2) Only conclusion I follows
4) Both conclusions I and II follow
d
5) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
67. Statements: No Apple is Mango Only a few Mangoes are Grapes
All Grapes are Melon
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Conclusions: I. All Apples are Grapes.

II. All Apples are Melon is a possibility.
1) Either conclusion I or II follows 2) Both conclusions I and II follow
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3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 4) Only conclusion II follows
5) Only conclusion I follows
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68. Statements: Each ring is Gold All Gold’s are News

Only a few News are Metals
Conclusions: I. All rings are News.
II. Some Metals are Gold.
1) Only conclusion II follows 2) Only conclusion I follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Both conclusions I and II follow
5) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
C
69. Statements : No Letter is a Word All Words are Sentences
Only a few Sentences are Paragraph
Conclusions: I. All Letters can never be Paragraphs.
II. Some Sentences are definitely not letters.
1) Both conclusions I and II follow 2) Either conclusion I or II follows
3) Only conclusion II follows 4) Only conclusion I follows
5) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
70. If all the digits of the number ‘738562419’ are arranged in descending order
within the number then, the position of how many digits will remain unchanged
in the resultant number as compared to the original number ?
1) More than three 2) Three 3) One 4) Two 5) None
71. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
English alphabetical order and thus form a group. Identify the one which does not
belong to that group ?
1) KIF 2) WUR 3) QOL 4) XVT 5) USP
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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -94

Direction (72-76) : These given questions are based on the following five three letter
words.
CAT PAD LAD ROW EAR
72. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical order between third letter
of the second word from the right and first letter of the third word from the left ?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) More than three 5) None
73. If letter ‘B’ is added before the first letter of each of the given words, how many
words thus formed will form meaningful English words ?
1) None 2) Two 3) One 4) Three 5) More than three
74. If the last and the first letters of each of the given words are interchanged within

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the word then how many words thus formed will be meaningful English words ?
1) Two 2) Three 3) One 4) None 5) More than three
75. If in each of the given words, each vowel is changed to the next letter and each
consonant is changed to the previous letter as per the English alphabetical order,
in how many words thus formed will atleast one vowel appear ?
ha
[Note : The words formed after the said operation may or may not be meaningful
English words]
1) One 2) Three 3) None 4) More than three 5) Two
76.

E
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in the English
dictionary from right to left, which of the following will be the third word from the
d
right ?
1) EAR 2) CAT 3) ROW 4) LAD 5) PAD
Direction (77-81): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
ee

question.
Eight people are sitting in a straight line facing North. G sits at one of the
positions to the left of B. P sits third to the right of E. Only one person sits
C
between P and O. K sits at one of the positions to the right of O. K does not sit at
any of the extreme ends of the line. Only three people sit between K and N. More
Sr

than two people sit between N and H. E sits fourth from one of the extreme ends
of the line.
77. Which of the following statements is TRUE based on the given arrangement ?
1) Only one person sits between E and G.
2) None of the given options is true.
3) Only three people sit between H and N.
C
4) No one sits to the right of B. 5) O sits third to the left of H.
78. N is related to E in the same way as K is related to H following a certain pattern
based on the given arrangement. Following the same pattern whom is G related
to ?
1) B 2) N 3) O 4) K 5) P
79. As per the given arrangement how many people sit between B and O ?
1) Three 2) More than three 3) Two 4) None 5) One
80. As per the given arrangement which of the following represents the position of G ?
1) Fourth from the right end of the line 2) First from the left end of the line
3) Fifth from the left end of the line 4) Second from the right end of the line
5) Second from the left end of the line
81. As per the given arrangement, as many people sit to the right of P as to the left
of______
1) G 2) H 3) B 4) K 5) N

10
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -94

Direction(82-84): Study the given information carefully and answer the given
question.
Each of six people - U, C, X, L, P and Z is of a different height. Only two
people are taller than U. C is shorter than U but taller than X. L is shorter than
C. P is taller than C but not the tallest. L is not the shortest. U is 178cm tall. The
one who is second shortest is 143 cm tall. (Note : All heights are in whole numbers
only).
82. What may be the probable height of C ?
1) 163cm 2) 195cm 3) 141cm 4) 137cm 5) 185cm
83. If the sum of heights of L and P is 330cm and the sum of heights of U and Z is 372

r’s
cm then what would be the sum of heights of Z and P ?
1) 390cm 2) 375cm 3) 430cm 4) 381cm 5) 368cm
84. Who amongst the following is the third highest ?
1) P 2) L 3) X 4) C 5) U
Direction(85-88): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
question.
ha
Seven boxes are kept one above the other in a stack. Box J is kept at one of
the positions below box H but above box L. Box R is kept immediately above box B.
Only one box is kept between box R and box O. Only one box is kept between box O

85.

E
and box C. Only four boxes are kept between box H and box R.
As per the given arrangement, as many boxes are kept above box R as below box
d
1) L 2) J 3) H 4) C 5) B
86. Which of the following statements is TRUE based on the given arrangement ?
ee

1) Only one box is kept between box J and box O.

2) None of the given options is true.
3) Box C is kept at the top of the stack.
4) Only two boxes are kept above box O.
C
5) As many boxes are kept below box H as above box B.
Sr

87. As per the given arrangement which box is kept immediately above box C ?
1) O 2) H 3) J 4) L 5) B
88. As per the given arrangement, how many boxes are kept between box H and box J ?
1) Three 2) None 3) More than three 4) One 5) Two
Direction(89-91): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
question.
N is the grandfather of R. N has only two children. G is the wife of B. L is the
C
brother of G. Q is the mother-in-law of L. Q has only one child. A is the only
grand-Daughter of Q. R is the nephew of L. K is married to O. B is the only son of O.
89. If A is the daughter of C, then how is C related to N ?
1) Niece 2) Daughter 3) Sister-in-law 4) Daughter-in-law 5) Sister
90. How is B related to N ?
1) Brother-in-law 2) Son-in-law 3) Nephew 4) Brother 5) Son
91. How is R related to K ?
1) Uncle 2) Son 3) Grandson 4) Father 5) Nephew
Direction: (92-94) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Eight members - L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S, are born in eight different years,
1972, 1976, 1987, 1995, 2000, 2004, 2008, and 2014 but not necessarily in the
same order. The ages of all persons are calculated based on the present year
2021. The age of O is one-third of the age of P. The age of S is a prime numbered

11
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -94

age. Only two persons born between S and N. L is younger than N but not to S.
The age difference between Q and L is 13 years. The number of person elder to O
is one more than the number of persons younger than R.
92. Who is the eldest person?
1) N 2) O 3) R 4) Q 5) M
93. How many persons are younger than S?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five
94. What is the age of one who is just elder to L?
1) 26 years 2) 21 years 3) 34 years 4) 17 years 5) 13 years
Direction(95-99): Study the given information carefully to answer the given

r’s
question.
Eight people are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only one
person sits between U and C (either from left or right). L sits third to the right of
C. Only three people sit between L and Q. W sits second to the left of Q. Only
three people sit between W and V. N sits second to the right of O. O is not an
immediate neighbour of W.
ha
95. As per the given arrangement as many people sit between C and O when counted
from the right of C as between N and one, when counted from the left of N.
1) U 2) O 3) V 4) Q 5) W

2) Q

E
96. As per the given arrangement who sits third to the right of L ?
1) V 3) U 4) O 5) W
d
97. Which of the following statements is TRUE based on the given arrangement ?
1) All of the given options are true.
ee

2) V is an immediate neighbour of C.
3) Only two people sit between C and W (either from left or right).
4) U sits to the immediate left of Q.
5) Only one person sits between L and W (either from left or right).
C
98. As per the given arrangement what is the position of Q with respect to V ?
Sr

1) Second to the left 2) Immediate right

3) Third to the right 4) Third to the left 5) Immediate left
99. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
given arrangement and thus form a group. Identify the one which does not belong
to that group.
1) C-O 2) W-Q 3) V-L 4) U-W 5) N-U
100. O correctly remembers that D’s birthday is in the month of December. H correctly
C
remembers D’s birthday is after 12th December. K correctly remembers that D’s
birthday is on a Friday and before 22nd December If the first day of December
was a Tuesday that year then on which date is D’s birthday ?
1) 20th 2) 17th 3) 18th 4) 15th 5) 16th

KEY
1.4 2.3 3.5 4.1 5.1 6.1 7.4 8.1 9.3 10.2 11.5 12.1 13.4
14.2 15.3 16.3 17.5 18.4 19.2 20.4 21.2 22.3 23.2 24.1 25.4 26.1
27.4 28.4 29.5 30.4 31.2 32.5 33.1 34.3 35.4 36.2 37.3 38.2 39.1
40.3 41.2 42.1 43.5 44.2 45.5 46.1 47.2 48.3 49.5 50.2 51.4 52.5
53.4 54.1 55.5 56.3 57.3 58.5 59.4 60.4 61.5 62.1 63.3 64.2 65.3
66.2 67.4 68.2 69.3 70.5 71.4 72.4 73.2 74.4 75.1 76.4 77.5 78.1
79.5 80.2 81.5 82.1 83.4 84.5 85.4 86.5 87.2 88.4 89.4 90.2 91.3
92.5 93.2 94.3 95.2 96.3 97.1 98.1 99.4 100.3

12