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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

I B PS SO-PRELI M S M ODEL TEST - 55


ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-8): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it.

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After the Bangladesh Liberation War in 1971, there had been a long period
of relative calm among the two neighbours. But during the 1990s,
escalating tensions and conflict with separatists in Kashmir as well as nuclear
tests by both countries in 1998 changed the scenario. Despite the belligerent
atmosphere, both countries signed the Lahore Declaration in February 1999 to
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provide a peaceful and bilateral solution to the Kashmiri issue. However, elements
in the Military of Pakistan covertly trained and sent troops and paramilitary forces,
some allegedly in the guise of mujahideen, into the Indian territory. The aim was

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to sever the link between Kashmir and Ladakhand cause Indian forces to withdraw
from the Siachen Glacier, thus forcing India to negotiate a settlement of the
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broader Kashmir dispute. Pakistan also believed that any tension in the region
would internationalise the Kashmir issue, helping it to secure a speedy resolution.
Yet another goal may have been to boost the morale of the decade-long rebellion
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in Indian-held Kashmir by taking a proactive role. Some writers have speculated


that the operation’s objective may also have been as a retaliation for
India’s Operation Meghdoot in 1984 that seized much of Siachen Glacier.
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According to India’s then army chief Ved Prakash Malik, and many other
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scholars, the infiltration was code named “Operation Badr”, and much of the
background planning, including construction of logistical supply routes, had been
undertaken much earlier. On more than one occasion, the army had given past
Pakistani leaders (namely Zia ul Haq and Benazir Bhutto) similar proposals for
an infiltration in the Kargil region in the 1980s and 1990s. However, the plans
had been shelved for fear of drawing the nations into all-out war. Some analysts
believe that the blueprint of attack was reactivated when Pervez Musharraf was
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appointed chief of army staff in October 1998. In a disclosure made by Nawaz
Sharif, the then Prime Minister of Pakistan, he states that he was unaware of
the preparation of the intrusion, and it was an urgent phone call from Atal Bihari
Vajpayee, his counterpart in India, that informed him about the situation.
Responding to this, Musharaf asserted that the Prime Minister had been briefed
on the Kargil operation 15 days ahead of Vajpayee’s journey to Lahore on February
20. Sharif had attributed the plan to Musharraf and “just two or three of
his cronies”, a view shared by some Pakistani writers who have stated that, only
four generals, including Musharraf, knew of the plan.
There were three major phases to the Kargil War. First, Pakistan captured
several strategic high points in the Indian-controlled section of Kashmir. India
responded by first capturing strategic transportation routes, then militarily pushing
Pakistani forces back across the Line of Control.

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

Because of the extreme winter weather in Kashmir, it was common practice


for the Indian and Pakistan Army to abandon forward posts and reoccupy them in
the spring. That particular spring, the Pakistan Army reoccupied the forward posts
before the scheduled time.
1. Why did tension escalate between both these countries in according to the
passage?
1) because Bangladesh had formed in the early 1970’s.
2) because Pakistani’s have signed truce.
3) Because Pakistani’s allegedly sent terrorists in the name of mujahideen.
4) Because India occupied the land of Pakistan. 5) None of these

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2. How did the Kargil war start between these countries?
1) India occupied several parts of Line of Control.
2) Pakistan sent terrorists like Mujahideen.
3) Pakistan occupied several parts of Indian land in Kashmir.
4) Pakistan and India share a bad relation. 5) None of these
3.
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Which of the following statement is correct according to the passage?
1) The aim of the mujahideen was to sever the link between Kashmir and Ladakh.
2) Pakistan caused all the troubles and disrupted the peace.
3) Pakistan had seized the roadways and logistical supply which are under the
control of India.

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4) All the above options are correct. 5) None of these
4. What is the tone of the passage?
1) sadistic 2) Informative 3) Analytical 4) humorous 5) None of these
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Fill the blank with appropriate option.


5. Despite the __________atmosphere, both countries signed the Lahore Declaration
in February 1999.
1) Hostile 2) Agreeable 3) Calm 4) Suitable 5) None of these
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6. Pick out the synonym of the word “covertly”.
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1) Secretly 2) Frankly 3) Publicly 4) Adversely 5) None of these


7. Pick out the antonym of the word “asserted”.
1) Abandon 2) Conceal 3) Affirm 4) Squander 5) None of these
8. Pick out the synonym of the word “disclosure”.
1) Concealment 2) Denial 3) Secret
4) Acknowledgement 5) None of these
Directions (9-13): In this question, words (A), (B), (C), and (D) are given in bold. If
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two of these words are interchanged, the sentence will be meaningful and
grammatically correct. Identify the pair of words, if interchanged which will make
the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. That pair is your answer. If
all the words are appropriate then mark ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
9. We recede (A) the authorities who asked us to camp (B) there and not contacted
(C) even by an inch. We stood guard (D) for four or five days.
1) A-B 2) C-D 3) A-C 4) B-D 5) All Correct
10. Our nomads (A) have not been there for winter grazing (B) for the past two years
due to some livestock (C) in the illness. (D)
1) A-B 2) C-D 3) A-C 4) B-D 5) All Correct
11. The area is home to nine (A) out of 12 species of kingfishers found in the country
(B) as well rare species (C) such as the Goliath heron and the spoon-billed
sandpiper (D).
1) A-B 2) C-D 3) A-C 4) B-D 5) All Correct

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

12. The publication not only highlights (A) the ecological and conservation aspect of
the encourage (B), but through detailed description of bird species (C) and localities
where they are found we want to Sunderbans (D) bird watching.
1) A-B 2) C-D 3) A-C 4) B-D 5) All Correct
13. It is hard to absence (A) how the manufacturers have arrived (B) at these
conclusions in the understand (C) of any legal interpretation (D) to these terms.
1) A-B 2) C-D 3) A-C 4) B-D 5) All Correct
Directions (14-17): In the following questions two columns are given containing
three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and
C and in the second column the sentences/Phrases are D, E, and F. A sentence/

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phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/
phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. Each question has five options which display the sequence(s) in which
the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually
correct sentence. ha
14. Column I
A. The judge decided that allowing the videotape as
B. This country is in danger of allowing
C. Fossil fuels have caused irreversible
Column II

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D. damage to the environment.
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E. tropical depression its industrial base to wither away.
F. evidence would be prejudicial to the outcome of the trial.
1) A-D and C-E 2) A-E, B-D and C-F 3) B-F and C-E 4) A-F and C-D 5) B-E
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15. Column I
A. The accident was caused by an error
B. The company has to make its accounts
C
C. Mining activities have totally disrupted the
Column II
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D. and operations as transparent as possible.


E. of judgement on the part of the pilot.
F. traditional way of life of the Yanomami Indians.
1) A-D and C-E 2) A-E, B-D and C-F 3) B-F and C-E 4) C-D and A-F 5) B-E
16. Column I
A. The meeting was disrupted by a group of
B. The university has two halls of residence
C
C. She was reported by the hospital
Column II
D. protesters who shouted and threw fruit at the speaker.
E. spokesman to be making excellent progress.
F. directs the executive branch of the federal government
1) A-D and C-E 2) A-E, B-D and C-F 3) B-F and C-E 4) C-D and A-F 5) B-E
17. Column I
A. It was decided that the entire computer
B. The bomb attacks have been
C. Much of his writing can be attributed
Column II
D. more than two years is also prohibited
E. attributed to a group of international terrorists.
F. applies only to presidential elections.
1) A-D and C-E 2) A-E, B-D and C-F 3) B-F and C-E 4) C-D and A-F 5) B-E

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

Directions (18-22): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by
(A), (B), (C) and (D) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there
is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence.
That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the
errors of punctuation of any.
18. Officials in the National Testing Agency /A/ said they want to keep up for /B/ the
schedule and hold the exams in January /C/, but are not certain if that will be
the case. /D/ /E/ No Error
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
19. Rain or thundershowers have been forecasted /A/ towards the evening or night

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and there is no /B/ big change expected /C/ in the temperatures. /D/ /E/ No
Error
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
20. Therefore, it is only /A/ after sufficient time has elapsed /B/ and in retrospect
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that a /C/ country’s peak can be inferred. /D/ /E/ No Error
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
21. Anand is a master chess player who /A/ likes a predator on the prowl, has
mastered /B/ the art of capitalizing on the mistakes /C/ and weakness of their

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opponent in a game. /D/ /E/ No Error
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1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
22. The number of students /A/ competing in the event /B/ has been fallen /C/
because of the prize money. /D/ /E/ No Error
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1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (23-27): Which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold in the
sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is
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given, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
23. Sub urbanisation is a new trend of people move on from congested urban areas
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to cleaner areas outside the city in search of a better quality of living.


1) moving away from congested
2) moving off from congested
3) moving away from congestion
4) moving from congested away
5) No correction required
24. Forest covers are declining rapidly which affects biodiversity as large number of
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species become extinct and it leads for man-animal conflict.
1) extinction and it led to
2) extinct but it leads to
3) extinction but it leads to
4) extinct and it leads to
5) No correction required
25. A single drop of blood contains millions of red blood cells which are constantly
travels out through our body delivering oxygen and removing waste.
1) travels throughout our bodies
2) travelling our body through
3) travelling through our body
4) travels throughout bodies
5) No correction required

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

26. The human brain shows a great advances over that of any other animals in the
size of the cerebral hemisphere as well as the midbrain.
1) advance over that of any
2) advancement of that over any
3) advance over that of many
4) advancing over than of any
5) No correction required
27. The overall richness of species is concentrated in equatorial regions and tends to
decreases for one moves from the equator to polar regions.
1) tending to decreases as one

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2) tended to decrease as one
3) tends to decrease as none
4) tends to decrease as one
5) No correction required
Directions (28-32): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and
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(E) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph. Then answer the
given question.
A. Deforestation can result in more carbon dioxide being released into the
atmosphere.

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B. When trees are burned, this carbon returns to the atmosphere as carbon
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dioxide.
C. That is because trees take in carbon dioxide from the air for photosynthesis
and carbon is locked chemically in their wood.
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D. With fewer trees around to take in the carbon dioxide, this greenhouse gas
accumulates in the atmosphere and accelerates global warming.
E. The Department of Government Information said in a statement.
C
28. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) A 3) D 4) E 5) C
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29. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) A 3) D 4) E 5) C
30. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) D 2) A 3) C 4) E 5) B
31. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) A 3) D 4) E 5) C
32. After rearrangement the given five sentences, which of the following does not fit
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into the same theme as the sentences?
1) C 2) A 3) B 4) E 5) D
Directions (33-37): In the questions given below few sentences are given which
are grammatically correct and meaningful. Connect them by the word given below
the statements in the best possible way without changing the intended meaning.
Choose your answer accordingly from the option to form a correct and meaningful
sentence.
33. A. She has literally waited for the minute
B. we turned our backs and seized the moment.
1) provided 2) further 3) when 4) summarising 5) although
34. A. He was appointed as a chief engineer for all irrigation projects in the state
B. He was well qualified and only efficient senior person in the existing members
on rolls
1) since 2) as 3) but 4) or 5) None of these

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

35. A. All the efforts of most senior doctors to save the old man who is critically ill are
in vain
B. One Junior doctor has come forward to take up the case with lot of positive
hope.
1) in spite of 2) more or less3) nevertheless 4) due to 5) None of these
36. A. The dispensation of equity shares to promoters is a positive step towards the
bank’s stock.
B. The promoter’s share sell overhang is limited to 4%.
1) Since 2) from 3) for 4) there 5) None
37. (I) Thus Mr Smith is now the respondent to this appeal,

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(II) Mr Clark was the claimant below.
1) in conclusion to 2) for example 3) whereas
4) in order to 5) nevertheless
Directions (38-42): In the following questions, a word is given along with its
usage in sentences given in the options. Choose the option in which use of the

38. Obliged
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given word is contextually and grammatically correct.

I. The principal drawback of a limited company is that you are legally obliged to

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file specific information in the Companies Office.
II. In that way it was seen that the medical expenses incurred by the father could
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also be recovered if the father was legally obliged to pay them.
III. Its results depend on the opinion the opponent has of his obliged capability to
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win.
1) Only I 2) only II 3) only III 4) I & II 5) I, II & III
39. Gripe
I. Many women’s sports administrators and officials constantly gripe and complain
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about the lack of support they receive from sponsorship and the media.
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II. So they know that they were uncomfortably put in a position of gripe being in a
cover-up.
III. She didn’t complain or gripe often, but she always wanted to be part of the
conversation, or always wanted someone who would listen to her.
1) Only I 2) only II 3) only III 4) I & III 5) I,II & III
40. Hackneyed
I. His boss can take even a hackneyed phrase and let it dangle suggestively in
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the air until a dozen meanings reveal themselves.
II. It’s a trite and old platitude - but hackneyed sometimes, you do just have to
stop and look at what’s around you.
III. ‘Maybe it’s time to trot out that hackneyed phrase about ‘the pace of modern
life’.
1) Only I 2) only II 3) only III 4) I & II 5) I & III
41. Crude
I. The path was in many places a primitive stairway, or crude stepladder, at first
through a jungle, and later up a very steep, grass-covered slope.
II. At the very beginning, the observatory was only a bungalow, with simple and
crude instruments.
III. I took the construction crude paper offering and admired it like the child had
created something worthy of the great masters.
1) Only I 2) only II 3) only III 4) I & III 5) I & II

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

42. Prospect
I. Maybe the prospect of the landscape turning into a tourist facility will force a
political change in the end.’
II. It painted a rather gloomy view of the employment prospects of current final-
year students.’
III. The company is prospect the of making machine-made pots to meet the demand.
1) Only I 2) only II 3) only III 4) I & II 5) I, II & III
Directions (43-50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it.
The world is amid the Great Migration Clash, a bitter struggle between those who

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want out of their countries and those who want others to keep out of their
countries. More than a billion people would like to move permanently to another
country and no less than a billion people say fewer or no immigrants should be
allowed to move into their countries. The populations with the largest percentages
wanting to emigrate are generally found in poor and violence ridden countries. In
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many of those nations, half or more of the populations say they would like to
migrate permanently to another country, typically to Europe and North America.
The desires of hundreds of millions of men and women who want out of their

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countries and to settle in another are influenced by a broad range of economic,
social, political and environmental factors. Those critical factors interact to produce
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powerful push and pull forces that operate in origin and destination countries,
respectively
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Living conditions in migrant-origin countries are typically difficult and harsh


and have worsened considerably in many regions due to climate change,
environmental degradation and more recently the coronavirus pandemic. Housing
is typically substandard, educational opportunities are limited, health care is
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often lacking and many households struggle at subsistence levels.
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Violence, armed conflict and human rights abuse also contribute to people’s
desires to want out. Consequently, in addition to the large numbers of irregular
migrants overstaying their visitors’ visa, many men, women and children lacking
legal authorization to emigrate are willing to risk their lives to reach their desired
destinations by any means, including crossing seas in flimsy boats, walking across
deserts with limited provisions and hiding in poorly ventilated trucks, with some
dying in their failed attempts.
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In contrast to migrant-origin countries, life in the migrant-destination
countries is a comparative dreamland, offering a wide array of opportunities,
freedoms, rights, safeguards and security. Also, and increasingly important,
potential migrants are convinced that emigration will greatly improve the chances
for better and more secure lives for their children in the future.
Over the recent past the destination countries where potential migrants
say they would like to move have generally remained the same wealthy developed
nations. The most desired destination country, where one in five potential migrants
would like to move, is the United States. In a distant second place is Canada,
followed by Germany, France, Australia and the United Kingdom.In general, those
wanting to emigrate are located mostly in comparatively poor developing countries
where the populations are struggling with poverty, violence and human rights
abuse. The countries where much of the public want to keep others out are found
in both developing and developed regions.

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

43. What is the major concern of the above passage?


1) It concerns about the people who got abused, felt insecure in their own country.
2) It concerns about the giant migration that is happening currently around
the world.
3) To fulfil the desire to reach destination countries like USA, Canada etc.
4) To secure a safe future for their children in developed countries.
5) None of these
44. What are the living conditions of people who want to migrate to other countries?
1) The lives of these people are difficult and harsh.
2) Their countries are subject to violence and armed conflicts.

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3) Their human rights abused and poor living conditions.
4) All the options are correct
5) None of these
45. What facilities do people look for when they migrate to another country?
1) They expect insecure life and social status.
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2) They often look for more employment and good future for their kids.
3) They want to migrate to countries that are under armed conflicts.
4) They look forward to migrate countries with poverty.
5) None of these
46.

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Why do you think some people are desperate in migrating to another country?
1) As their visa’s expired, they want to migrate to another country.
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2) They want to enjoy in developed countries.
3) They want to have a better future for their families and better living conditions.
4) They want countries infested with armed and violent people.
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5) None of these
47. Why USA, Australia and other Europe countries are most preferable to migrate?
1) The living conditions are better in these developed countries.
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2) They offer more education and employment opportunities.
3) The life is more secure with good healthcare support.
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4) All the options are correct.


5) None of these
48. What is the theme or tone of the passage?
1) descriptive 2) sarcastic 3) humorous 4) analytical 5) None of these
49. pick out the suitable synonym of the word “subsistence”?
1) poverty 2) livelihood 3) ignorance 4) pertain 5) None of these
50. Fill the blank that is most appropriate to the given passage.
C
Life in the migrant-destination countries is a ___________ dreamland.
1) Superlative 2) Comparative 3) Kind of
4) Resembling 5) None of these
REASONING
Directions: (51-55) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table.
Some of them are facing the center and some are facing away from the center.
Each person likes different colors. Not more than two persons facing the same
direction sit adjacent to each other.
There are only three persons sit between the one who likes Green and A.
The one who likes Green is an immediate neighbor of R and B. Only one person
sits between the one who likes Red and A. B is sitting second to the left of R who
is facing the center. One of them likes Purple. The one who likes Black sits to the

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

immediate right of the one who likes Red, who is facing the center. S is second to
the right of R. D likes Green. The one who likes Yellow is an immediate neighbor
of the one who likes Red. C and Q are immediate neighbors of each other. The
one who likes Pink sits to the immediate right of B. The one who likes White is
second to the left of the one who likes Black. C is second to the left of A, who likes
Brown.
51. Who is third to the left of the one who likes Purple?
1) S 2) A 3) P 4) Q 5) R
52. R likes which of the following color?
1) Red 2) Green 3) Brown 4) Purple 5) Yellow

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53. How many persons are sitting between D and the one who likes White?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) One 5) Either 1 and 3
54. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to the group?
1) D-Brown 2) C-Red
ha 3) S-Purple 4) Q-Green 5) R-White
55. Who likes Purple color?
1) S 2) A 3) B 4) Q 5) R
Directions: (56-58) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.

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There are Eight members in the family. M is the granddaughter of F who has
only one son and daughter. Y is the Uncle of M. V is the son-in-law of F. R is the
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father of Y. G is the nephew of B, who is the daughter-in-law of L. S is the sister-
in-law of B. B has only one daughter.
56. How is S related to M?
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1) Aunt 2) Daughter 3) Sister 4) Mother 5) Sister-in-law


57. Who is Grandchild of L?
1) B 2) V 3) Y 4) R 5) M
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58. How is R related to V?
1) Father 2) Cousin 3) Son 4) Father-in-law 5) Son-in-law
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Directions: (59-63) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are living in different floors in a seven
floor building. The lower most floor is numbered one, the above one is numbered
as two and so on until the topmost floor is numbered as seven. Each of them likes
different colors viz. Red, Blue, Yellow, White, Pink, Green and Grey but not
necessarily in the same order.
C
Only two persons live between G and the one who likes Red. Only three
persons live between D and A, who lives above D. The one who likes White lives
on the even numbered floors. Only two persons live between B and the one who
likes pink. The number of persons lives above E is as same number of persons
lives below the one who likes Red. D likes Grey. F lives on an odd numbered floor.
Only one person lives between the one who likes yellow and the one who likes
Green. The one who likes Green lives on one of the floors above the one who likes
Yellow. The number of floors above the one who likes White is as same number of
persons live below B, who does not like White colour. Only three persons live
between E and the one who likes Pink. The number of persons live above C is as
same number of persons live below the one who likes Yellow.
59. How many persons live between C and the one who like Blue?
1) Two 2) Five 3) Four 4) Three 5) One
60. Who among the following likes Blue?
1) A 2) B 3) D 4) C 5) E

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61. Four of the following five are alike in certain way and thus form a group as per
the given arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
1) E 2) D 3) C 4) A 5) F
62. E is related to Yellow in a certain way based on the given arrangement. In the
same way C is related to Red. Which of the following colors is D related to following
the same pattern?
1) Grey 2) Green 3) White 4) Blue 5) Pink
63. Which of the following combinations is correct?
1) F-Pink 2) E-Blue 3) A-Red 4) G-Green 5) All correct
64. IF ‘She Has Say’ is coded as ‘4 6 9’ and ‘Say To Her’ is coded as ‘6 3 1’ and ‘She Go

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Went’ is coded as ‘2 8 9’ then what will be the code of ‘Her’?
1) 6 2) 8 (or) 4 3) 9 4) 1 (or) 3 5) Can’t be determined
65. In a certain code YEGAT is written as ZGJEY and PBSIQ is written as QDVMV.
How is NFUSC ?
1) OHXWH 2) XMOHN
ha 3) OHZWN 4) OHZHW 5) WXHOW
Directions (66-68): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
Two friends Raju and Sumit start walk from the same place, Raju covered a
distance of 12 km from point P walking in the North direction. He then took a left

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turn and walk for 4km. He again took a left turn and walks for 6 km. He again
turns to his left and walks for 8 km to reach at a final point R. Likewise, Sumit
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covered a distance of 12 km from point P walking in the south direction. He then
took a left turn and walks for 4 km. He again turns to his left and walks for 6 km
to reach at a final point S.
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66. If point G is 3 km to the South of point E, which is 3 km to the South of point P


then what will be the shortest distance between point S and point E?
1) 4 km 2) 6 km 3) 3 km 4) 5 km 5) 7 km
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67. If point H is 1 km to the West of point F which is 3 km to the West of point R then
point F is in which direction with respect to point P?
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1) North 2) North-East 3) South-East 4) North-West 5) South


68. Point S is in which direction with respect to point P?
1) South-East 2) North-West 3) North 4) South 5) North-East
Directions: (69-70): In each of the question, relationships between some elements
are shown in the statements. These statements are followed by conclusions
numbered I and II. Read the statements and give the answer.
69. Statements: Q  D = O  T  Z < R > C
C
Conclusions: I) D > C II) R < Q
1) Only conclusion I follows. 2) Only conclusion II follows.
3) Either conclusion I or II follows. 4) Both conclusions I and II follow.
5) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
70. Statements: A > S  R < T  C = U > Q
Conclusions: I) U > S II) C < A
1) Only conclusion I follows. 2) Only conclusion II follows.
3) Either conclusion I or II follows. 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) Both conclusions I and II follow.
Directions: (71-75) Read the given information carefully and answer the given
questions.
Eight persons N, P, A, K, L, S, D, V are sitting in a straight line facing the
North. They all are like different colors viz. Blue, Green, Orange, Purple, Maroon,
Red, White and Pink but not necessarily in the same order.

10
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

The one who is immediate left of D likes Red. A is second to the right of P.
Only one person sitting between K and D, who likes Pink. Only two persons are
sitting between D and one who likes Maroon. The number of persons to the right
of P is one less than to left of P. N is second to the left of P. D is immediate to N
but not to P. The one who likes White is not immediate to A. V is second to the
right of the one who likes White. L is the immediate right of one who likes Blue.
The one who likes Green is to the right of the one who likes Blue. S and N don’t
like Purple.
71. Who likes Green?
1) L 2) S 3) D 4) V 5) A

r’s
72. S likes which color?
1) Blue 2) Orange 3) Red 4) Green 5) Maroon
73. How many persons sit to the right of one who likes White?
1) Three 2) Two 3) Four 4) Five 5) No one
74. What is the position of V from one who likes Orange?
ha
1) Third right 2) Fourth right 3) Third left 4) Fourth left 5) Fifth left
75. Which among the following is the odd one?
1) S-Orange 2) N-Maroon 3) D-Orange 4) V-Green 5) K-Purple
Directions: (76-78) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below

E
In a certain code language-
d
Boy reading jungle book is coded as gl nt hr cg
Reading book take away is coded as hr gl js lv
Away from jungle boy is coded as cg nt lv bg
ee

That boy book here is coded as nt ms hr lr


76. What is the code for the word ‘here’?
1) ms 2) nt 3) hr 4) lr 5) either ms or lr
C
77. Which word has the code of ‘nt’?
1) reading 2) book 3) boy 4) jungle 5) either boy or book
Sr

78. What is the code for the ‘take book from’?


1) js gl hr 2) gl bg lr 3) bg hr js 4) js cg ms 5) js bg ms
79. In a row of twenty-three students, who are facing north, Divya is seventh from
left end and Bhanu is Fifth from right end. Kavya is third to the left of Bhanu
then what is the position of Kavya from Divya?
1) Ninth left 2) Eighth right 3) Ninth right 4) Eighth left 5) Tenth left
Directions: (80-84) Study the following information carefully and answer the
C
questions given below
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are born in four different months of
MARCH, APRIL, MAY and JUNE on the dates of 14th and 27th of each month but
not necessarily in the same order. Each one likes different colors viz. Blue, Green,
Yellow, Pink, Purple, Violet, Brown and Orange but not necessarily in the same
order.
D is born in the month which has even-number of days but not on the even-
numbered date. Two persons are born between D and one who likes Violet. C is
born immediate before to the one who likes Violet. The number of persons born
between C and D is same as between one who likes Yellow and one who likes
Violet. Two persons are born between one who likes Green and one who likes
Yellow. G likes neither Yellow nor Violet. The one who likes Green and E are
born in the same month. Only one person is born between E and A. A likes either
Violet or Orange. B and D are born on the same date. G is just younger to the one

11
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

who likes Blue. The one who likes Purple is elder to C. One person is born between
one who likes Brown and one who likes Purple. F is younger to H.
80. Who likes Yellow?
1) G 2) C 3) A 4) H 5) F
81. F likes which color?
1) Yellow 2) Purple 3) Orange 4) Violet 5) Pink
82. A born on which date and month?
1) may-14th 2) May-27th 3) April-14th 4) April-27th 5) June-14th
83. How many persons born between one who likes Blue and F?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six 5) Two

r’s
84. Which among the following is the odd one?
1) A-Purple 2) C-Violet 3) E-Green 4) H-Brown 5) F-Pink
Directions: (85-88) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
A3PIµB$QZ8%1L@4Z5G2€TDßU&CV9
ha
Step 1: Symbols which are immediately preceded by letters then interchange the
positions of those symbols with that Letter.
Step 2: After the completion of step 1, Alphabets which are immediately preceded

E
by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter, then write such type of alphabets
in reverse alphabetical order from the left end.
d
Step 3: After the completion of step 2, Numbers which are immediately followed
by an alphabet then delete such type of numbers from the step 2.
ee

85. Which of the following element is exactly placed between ‘B’ and ‘&’ in step 3?.
1) 8 2) % 3) L 4) 1 5) @
86. How many consonants are there to the left of ‘D’ in the step 2?
1) Seven 2) Eight 3) Ten 4) Nine 5) Eleven
C
87. Which of the following element is 12th to the left of the element which is 25th
Sr

from the left end step 1?


1) 8 2) % 3) L 4) 1 5) @
88. What is the position of ‘9’ with respect to the element which is 5th to the right of
‘1’ in step 2?
1) 11th to the right 2) 10th to the right 3) 12th to the right
4) 8th to the right 5) 9th to the right
89. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word “GEOGRAPHY” each of
C
which has as many Letters in the same sequence between them in the word as
in the English alphabet?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) One 5) Five
Direction: (90-92) In the question below contains there statements followed by
two conclusions I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
90. Statements: Some Cups are Mugs Only a few Mugs are Caps
All Jugs are Cups
Conclusions: I. All Cups can be Caps II. All Caps can be Jugs
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5) Both conclusions I and II follow

12
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

91. Statements: All Mangos are Apples Only a few Apples are Grapes
All Grapes are Bananas
Conclusions: I. All Apples can be Bananas II. All Grapes can be Mangos
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5) Both conclusions I and II follow
92. Statements: Only a few Cats are Dogs All Dogs are Rats
All Rats are Birds
Conclusions: I. Some Rats are Cats II. Some Cats are not Birds
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

r’s
5) Both conclusions I and II follow
Directions: (93-94) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F attend an exam and got different ranks. No
two persons got same marks. B got more marks than A but not D. B got more
ha
marks than C and he got second highest marks of 96. C got more marks than F
but not E. persons who got second least marks is got one third of the marks of
persons who got second highest marks. A doesn’t get the least and second least
marks.
93.
2) 63

E
What is the possible difference between the marks of A and E?
1) 62 3) 64 4) 65 5) 66
d
94. If the combine marks of all the persons is 380 and the combined marks of A and C
is 87 and the combined marks of E and B is 170 marks then what is the possible
marks got by D and F
ee

1) 127 2) 126 3) 125 4) 124 5) 123


95. Eight members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing
the center but not necessarily in the same order. Who are immediate neighbors
C
of D ?
I) H is second to right of G. Two members are sitting between C and G. D is
Sr

immediate left of C.
II) Three persons are sitting between E and B. F is not immediate neighbor of H
.Two persons are sitting between G and B.
1) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) The data, even in both statements I and statement II together, are not sufficient
to answer the question.
3) The data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
C
data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.
4) The data in either statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
5) The data in both statement I and statement II together are necessary to answer
the question.
96. Six persons M, N, O, P, Q and R are living in a building which has six floors.
Ground floor is numbered as 1 and the top floor is numbered as 6. They all are
like different colors viz. Red, Black, Yellow, Orange, Blue and Pink but not
necessarily in the same order. Who lives on top floor?
I) The one who likes black is lives on an even numbered floor but lives above third
floor. Two persons live between P and one who likes blue, who lives immediately
above one who likes black.
II) The one who likes yellow lives on an odd- numbered floor but not on ground
floor and lives immediately above O. Three persons live between the one who
likes red and O who lives below to red.

13
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

1) The data in either statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to


answer the question.
2) The data in both statement I and statement II together are necessary to answer
the question.
3) The data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.
4) The data, even in both statements I and statement II together, are not sufficient
to answer the question.

r’s
5) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I are not sufficient to answer the question.
97. Eight persons S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are living in a building which has eight
floors. Ground floor is numbered as 1 just above to it is numbered as 2 till the top
floor is numbered 8. Who lives on third floor?
ha
I) Three persons live between W and S. X lives immediately below W and lives on
even numbered floor below to fifth floor.

E
II)Only one person lives above V.T lives on odd numbered floor.One person lives
between X and Y who lives below X.
d
1) The data, even in both statements I and statement II together, are not sufficient
to answer the question.
ee

2) The data in either statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to


answer the question.
3) The data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
C
data in statement II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Sr

4) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) The data in both statement I and statement II together are necessary to answer
the question.
Directions: (98-100) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
C
867 354 769 962 458 641
98. If the first and last digits are interchanged of the odd numbers and interchange
the second and third digits of the all the even numbers then find out the difference
between second least and second highest numbers?
1) 422 2) 421 3) 580 4) 581 5) 582
99. If all the odd number’s digits are arranged in descending order within the number
and all the even number’s digits are arranged in ascending order within the
number then find the sum of the number of highest and least numbers?
1) 1145 2) 1245 3)1345 4)1445 5) 1045
100. If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order then the find the product of
third digit of the highest number and second digit of the second least number?
1) 8 2) 9 3)10 4)12 5) 15

14
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions:(101-105): Study the given graph carefully and answer the following
questions
The following Line graph shows different number of Mobile gadgets sold by
Redmi, Realme and Vivo in five different years.

Redmi Realme Vivo

2500

r’s
2000 2000
1500
1500
1250 1250 1250 1250
1000
ha
750 600
1000 1000
1000
900

500 500

E
350 400
d
2015 2016 2017 2018 2019
ee

101. What is the ratio between the total number of Redmi gadgets sold by the company
in the year 2017, 2018 and 2019 to the total number of Realme gadgets sold by
the company in the year 2016, 2017 and 2018?
1) 2 : 1 2) 3 : 2 3) 1 : 1 4) 3 : 4 5) 5 : 3
C
102. In which two successive years the difference between the total number of Vivo
gadgets and Redmi gadgets is zero?
Sr

1) 2016 and 2017 2) 2015 and 2016 3) 2018 and 2019


4) 2017 and 2018 5) None of these
103. Find the average of the Redmi gadgets sold by the company in the five years?
1) 850 2) 1250 3) 750 4) 475 5) 625
104. Vivo gadgets sold by the company in 2015 to 2019 are approximately how much
percent more than the Realme gadgets sold by the company in 2015 to 2019?
1) 9% 2) 12% 3) 14% 4) 7% 5) 16%
C
105. What was the average number of Realme gadgets sold by the company over all the
years together?
1) 2060 2) 5120 3) 515 4) 1030 5) 560
Direction(106-110) In the given question, two equations numbered I and II are
given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer
106. I: m2 - 144 = 0
II: n2 - 28n + 195 = 0
1) m > n 2) m < n 3) m  n 4) m  n 5)m=n or no relation
2
107. I: 2m – 11m – 30 = 0
II: n2 – 8m + 15 = 0
1) m > n 2) m < n 3) m  n 4) m  n 5) m=n or no relation
108. I: m2 – 18m + 77 = 0
II: n2 – 11n + 30 = 0
1) m > n 2) m < n 3) m  n 4) m  n 5)m=n or no relation

15
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

109 I: 3m2 – 13m + 12 = 0 II: 2n2 – 15n + 28 = 0


1) m > n 2) m < n 3) m  n 4) m  n 5) m=n or no relation
2 2
110. I: m + 42m + 152 = 0 II: n + 15n + 54 = 0
1) m > n 2) m < n 3) m  n 4) m  n 5) m=n or no relation
111. The compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 5% is Rs.656,
what is the sum?
1)6500 2) 6600 3) 6200 4) 6300 5) 6400
112. Twenty litres of a milk solution having 25% milk and remaining water. How many
litres of water must be added to make it a 20% solution of milk?
1) 4lt 2) 10lt 3) 8lt 4) 5lt 5) 2.5lt

r’s
113. 9 years ago, the average age of a family of 3 members was 27 years. A baby having
been born, the average age of the family remains the same today. What is the age
of baby after 9 years?
1) 8 2) 12 3) 9 4)13 5)18
114. Curved surface area of a cylinder is 660 sq cm. If circumference of its base is 44

2) 10
ha
cm, what is the height of the cylinder?
1) 22 3) 66 4) 15 5) 33
115. By selling a toy at 2/3 of the marked price, there is a loss of 10%. The profit
percent, when the toy is sold at the marked price?
1) 35% 2) 60%

E 3) 40% 4) 65% 5) 25%


Directions (116 - 120): In each of the given questions two quantities numbered I
d
and II are given. You have to solve both the quantities and mark the appropriate
answer
ee

116. Quantity I: A and B started a business in partnership by investing in the ratio 1:2
respectively. At the end of the year they earned a profit of Rs.15000. What will be
A’s share?
Quantity II: A, B and C started a business in partnership by investing in the ratio
C
4: 2: 3 respectively. At the end of the year they earned a profit of Rs.27000. What
will be B’s share?
Sr

1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I  Quantity II


3) Quantity II > Quantity I 4) Quantity II   Quantity I
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
117. Quantity I: Area of square, if Side of square is 18cm?
Quantity II: Area of rectangular, if perimeter of rectangular is 70cm2. And Ratio
of Length and breadth of rectangular is 3:2?
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I  Quantity II
C
3) Quantity II > Quantity I 4) Quantity II   Quantity I
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
118. Quantity I: If sum is Rs.10000 and rate of interest is 10% Find CI for 3years?
Quantity II: If sum is Rs.10000 and rate of interest is 5% Find SI for 7 years?
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I  Quantity II
3) Quantity II > Quantity I 4) Quantity II   Quantity I
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
119. Quantity I: The ratio of two numbers is 2: 3 and product of that numbers is 54.
What is the sum of these numbers?
Quantity II: The ratio of three numbers A, B and C is 1: 2: 3 and sum of that
numbers is 24. What is the sum B and C?
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I  Quantity II
3) Quantity II > Quantity I 4) Quantity II   Quantity I
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

16
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

120. Solve the equations: i) 7x – 4y = 15, ii) 19x – 21y = -10


Quantity I: Value of ‘x’
Quantity II: Value of ‘y’
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I  Quantity II
3) Quantity II > Quantity I 4) Quantity II   Quantity I
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Direction (121-125): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions correctly
The bar graph shows the number of fruits sold by three different
salespersons A, B and C

r’s
1400
1200 ha
1000
500 C
800 400 250
B
600 200 300
400 250

E300 450
200
300 A
d
200 300 400
250 200 250
0
ee

Pomogranate Orange Apple Banana Guava


C
121. The number of pomegranate sold by B is what percentage of the total number of
apple sold by C?
Sr

1 2
1) 25% 2) 33 % 3) 50% 4) 66 % 5) 75%
3 3
122. What is the ratio of the average number of fruits sold by A to C?
1) 28 : 33 2) 33 : 28 3) 28 : 17 4) 17 : 28 5) 17 : 33
123. The number of apple, pomegranate and banana sold by B is what percentage of
the number of banana, orange and pomegranate together sold by C?
C
1) 25% 2) 50% 3) 75% 4) 100% 5) 125%
124. If the number of Custard apple sold by A is 80% of the number of Guava sold by C
and the number of custard apple sold by B is 25% more than the number of
Orange sold by A and the number of Custard apple sold by C is 40% more than the
total number of pomegranate sold by B, then what is the total number of Custard
apple sold by A, B and C together?
1) 725 2) 775 3) 850 4) 750 5) 925
125. If each fruit of pomegranate, Orange, Banana, Apple and Guava sold by B at
Rs.20, Rs.10, Rs.5, Rs.25 and Rs.10 respectively, then find the amount earned by
B?
1) 18250 2) 20500 3) 21750 4) 23250 5) 25000
126. Mounish was four times old as his son 9 years back and he will be 2 times old as
his son after 9 years. Calculate his son’s age?
1) 36yrs 2) 27yrs 3) 18yrs 4) 9yrs 5) 15yrs

17
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

127. 40 men can complete a piece of work in 18 days. After 12 days from the start of
the work, some men left. If the remaining work was completed by the remaining
men in 12 days, then how many men left after 12 days from the start of the work?
1) 15 2) 10 3) 20 4) 25 5) 22
1
128. A steamer can travel a distance downstream that is 2 times the distance travelled
5
upstream at the same time. If the speed of the steamer is 18 kmph, then find the
speed of the stream (in kmph)?
1) 6kmph 2) 6.75kmph 3) 8kmph 4) 10kmph 5) 5kmph

r’s
129. Krishna and Sireesha started a partnership business investing some amount in
the ratio of 6: 7. Alekya joined them after six months with an amount equal to
that of Krishna. In what proportion should the profit at the end of one year be
distributed amount Krishna, Alekya, and Sireesha?
1) 6:7:3 2) 6:3:7 3) 3:7:6 4) 6:7: 4 5) 4:5:6
ha
130. Pipe A and Pipe B are two inlets that can fill a tank in 20 minutes and 30 minutes
respectively, Pipe C is an outlet that can empty a full tank in 40 minutes. Both
Pipe A and B together opened for 8 minutes then pipe A closed and pipe C opened.
Find the total time taken to fill the tank?

E
1) 40 minutes 2) 56 minutes 3) 48 minutes 4) 32 minutes 5) 25 minutes
d
Direction (131 - 135): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions
given below.
The table given below shows the school-wise percentage distribution of the
ee

total number of students, the ratio of the number of boys and girls, and also
the ratio of passed students and failed students in each school. The total
number of students in five different schools is 90,000.
C
Distribution
Sr

of students Passed :
Schools Boys : Girls
in Failed
Percentage.
A 25% 62:63 4:1
B 11.11% 27:23 7:1
C
C 16 11:13 14:1

D 33.33 13:12 5:1

E 13.88% 11:14 7:3

131. If 80% of the numbers of girls in school D is passed, how many boys in the school
failed?
1) 2120 2) 2880 3) 3184 4) 3240 5) 2400
132. Which of the following school has the minimum pass rate?
1) D 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) E
133. If 20% of the number of boys of school A failed, what percentage of the total
number of girls in the school is passed?
1) 90% 2) 75% 3) 40% 4) 80% 5) 65%

18
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

134. What is the difference between the number of passed students of school C and
failed students of school E?
1) 8250 2) 11250 3) 12250 4) 15250 5) 10250
135. What is the difference between the number of girls in school B and school E?
1) 1200 2) 3600 3) 2400 4) 4800 5) 6000
Direction (136 - 140): Find the wrong term in the following given series.
136. 143, 145, 150, 160, 187, 203
1) 145 2) 187 3) 160 4) 150 5) 143
137. 398, 254, 423, 328, 452, 196, 485
1) 254 2) 328 3) 452 4) 485 5) 398
138. 2, 3, 10, 21, 36, 55, 81

r’s
1) 10 2) 21 3) 36 4) 55 5) 81
139. 64 96 144 216 324 512 729
1) 512 2) 144 3) 64 4) 96 5) 729
140. 6 12 30 56 128 182 306
1) 12 2) 128 3) 182 4) 6 5) 306
Direction ( 141 - 145): Study the data carefully and answer the following questions.
ha
The pie chart shows the percentage of employees fired in India from five
different companies in June.

Number of employees fired

E
d
E, 13.5%
A, 4500
ee

D, 15%
C
C, 17.5% B, 31.5%
Sr

141. What is the difference between the number of employees fired in company C and
Company E?
1) 800 2)1000 3) 750 4) 1250 5) 1500
142. The number of employees fired from company A is what percent more than
employees fired from company D?
C
1) 80% 2) 75% 3) 110% 4) 130% 5) 50%
143. If the number of female employees fired from companies A and E is 30% and 45%
respectively, the number of male employees fired from those companies together
is __?
1) 4520 2) 3955 3) 4635 4) 3400 5) 4250
144. The number of employees fired from company B is ______times the number of
employees fired from company E?
2 4 7 1 3
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
7 5 3 2 4
145. If the number of employees fired in July is 15% increased from June and in
August, it was 3000 less than the previous month. What is the overall change in
percent (From June to August)?
1) 10% 2) 5% 3) 15% 4) 0% 5) 7.5%

19
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–55

Direction (146 – 150): Read the following information carefully and answer the
following questions.
A certain number of employees worked in an organization of three different
departments (i.e. teaching, management and content). The ratio of the number of
employees in teaching and content departments is 7 : 10. The number of employees
in both management and content departments is 40 and the ratio of the number
of employees only in teaching and the only in the content department is 1 : 4. The
1
number of employees who worked in the teaching department is 33 % less than
3

r’s
2
the number of employees in the management department and 14 % of employees
7
who worked in only teaching department out of the employees who worked in
teaching. The number of employees who worked in all three departments is 25
ha
and the number of employees who worked only in the content department is 60%
more than the number of employees who worked in all three departments.
146. Find the ratio of the number of employees who worked only the management

E
department to the number of employees who worked in both the teaching and
management department?
d
1) 3 : 8 2) 1 : 1 3) 7 : 8 4) 2 : 5 5) 5 : 4
147. The number of employees who worked in exactly two departments is how much
ee

more than the number of employees who worked in both teaching and content but
not management departments?
1) 20 2) 30 3) 28 4) 36 5) 35
148. The number of employees who worked in the computer department is 40% less
C
than the number of employees who worked in the content department and the
ratio of the number of boys and girls who worked in the computer department is 7
Sr

: 5. Then find the number of girls who worked the computer department?
1) 20 2) 25 3) 18 4) 8 5) 35
149. What is the total number of employees who worked in these three departments of
the organization?
1) 120 2) 125 3) 175 4) 116 5) 86
150. The number of employees who worked in only the content department is what
percentage of the number of employees who worked in exactly one department?
C
1) 0 2) 10 3) 20 4) 30 5) 40

KEY
1.3 2.3 3.4 4.2 5.1 6.1 7.3 8.4 9.3 10.2 11.5 12.4 13.3
14.4 15.2 16.1 17.5 18.2 19.1 20.5 21.4 22.3 23.1 24.4 25.3 26.1
27.4 28.5 29.1 30.1 31.2 32.4 33.3 34.1 35.3 36.1 37.3 38.4 39.4
40.5 41.5 42.4 43.2 44.4 45.2 46.3 47.4 48.4 49.2 50.2 51.3 52.5
53.5 54.4 55.3 56.1 57.5 58.4 59.3 60.5 61.3 62.2 63.5 64.4 65.1
66.4 67.2 68.1 69.5 70.1 71.1 72.3 73.3 74.1 75.3 76.5 77.3 78.3
79.3 80.4 81.4 82.3 83.3 84.2 85.4 86.2 87.5 88.1 89.2 90.5 91.2
92.1 93.1 94.5 95.5 96.4 97.5 98.4 99.2 100.3 101.3 102.3 103.1 104.1
105.4 106.2 107.5 108.1 109.2 110.5 111.5 112.4 113.3 114.4 115.1 116.3 117.1
118.3 119.3 120.1 121.3 122.1 123.4 124.5 125.1 126.3 127.3 128.2 129.2 130.3
131.1 132.5 133.4 134.5 135.3 136.2 137.2 138.5 139.1 140.2 141.1 142.5 143.3
144.3 145.4 146.5 147.2 148.2 149.3 150.5

20

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