Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

I B PS SO-PRELI M S M ODEL TEST - 45

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-8): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it.

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Rural development in India has witnessed several changes over the years in
its emphasis, approaches, strategies and programmes. It has assumed a new
dimension and perspective as a consequence. Rural development can be richer
and more meaningful only through the participation of clienteles of development.
Just as implementation is the touchstone for planning, people’s participation is
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the centrepiece in rural development. People’s participation is one of the foremost
prerequisites of development process both from procedural and philosophical
perspectives. For the development planners and administrators, it is important to

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solicit the participation of different groups of rural people, to make the plans
participatory.
d
Rural development aims at improving rural people’s livelihoods in an equitable
and sustainable manner, both socially and environmentally, through better access
to assets and services, and control over productive capital.
ee

The basis objectives of Rural Development Programmes have been alleviation

of poverty and unemployment through creation of basic social and economic
infrastructure, provision of training to rural unemployed youth and providing
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employment to marginal farmer/labourers to discourage seasonal and permanent
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migration to urban areas.

Rural development is the main pillar of nation’s development. In spite of
rapid urbanization, a large section of our population still lives in the villages.
Secondly, rural India has lagged behind in development because of many historical
factors. Though the 11 th plan began in very favourable circumstances with the
economy having grown at the rate of 7.7% per year in the 10th plan period, there
still existed a big challenge to correct the developmental imbalances and to accord
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due priority to development in rural areas. Ministry of Rural Development is
implementing a number of programmes aimed at sustainable holistic development
in rural areas. The thrust of these programmes is on all –round economic and
social transformation in rural areas through a muti-pronged strategy aiming to
reach out to the most disadvantaged sections of the society.
Although concerted efforts have been initiated by the Government of India
through several plans and measures to alleviate poverty in rural India, there still
remains much more to be done to bring prosperity in the lives of the people in
rural areas. At present, technology dissemination is uneven and slow in the rural
areas. Good efforts of organizations developing technologies, devices and products
for rural areas could not yield high success. Experiences of many countries suggest
that technological development fuelled by demand has a higher dissemination
rate. However, in India, technology developers for rural areas have been catering
to needs, rather than creating demand. There is no industry-linkage machinery

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

to create demand-based-technology market for rural communities. Besides, there

is also an imbalance between strategies and effective management programmes.
1. According to the passage, which of the following are the objectives of most Rural
Development Programmers?
A) To promote urbanisation
B) Provide training to youth
C) Reducing unemployment
1) Only A and C 2) Only C 3) Only B and C
4) All the three (A),(B) and (C) 5) Only A
2. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word
‘alleviation’ given in the passage?

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1) mitigation 2) smoothing 3) intensification
4) outpouring 5) comfortable
3. What, according to the passage, is the most important factor of rural development?
1) Alleviation of poverty and unemployment
2) Employment to marginal farmers and labourers
3) Participation of different groups of rural people
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4) Creation of basic social and economic infrastructure
5) None of these
4. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A) Urbanisation has resulted in a majority of Indian population living in urban
areas.

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B) The economic growth of the 10th Five year plan did not translate into
d
proportionate rural development.
C) The efforts of the Government of India for poverty alleviation have met with
complete failure
ee

1) Only A and B 2) Only C 3) Only A and C

4) Only B 5) All the three (A),(B) and (C)
5. According to the passage, what ails the process of technology-aided development
in rural areas?
C
A) Creation of demand for technology-aided development in rural areas is missing.
B) There is lack of participation of rural people in the process of technology-aided
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development.
C) There is a dearth of appropriate linkages needed for bringing about technology-
aided development.
1) Only C 2) Only B and C 3) Only A
4) Only A and B 5) All the three (A), (B) and (C)
6. Which of the following can be the most suitable title for the passage?
1) Technology in Rural India
2) The Rural Indian Communities
C
3) Rural Development-The Participative Way
4) Rural India-Ignored by All the Stakeholders
5) Rural Development-An Impossible Dream
7. What is the current status of the poverty alleviation programme initiated by the
Government of India?
A) Technology dissemination is uneven and slow in rural areas.
B) These still remains much more to be done to bring prosperity in the lives of the
people in rural areas.
C) There is a lack of participation of different stakeholders.
1) Only (A) and (B) 2) Only (B) and (C)
3) Only (A) and (C) 4) All (A),(B) and (C)
5) None of these
8. Which of the following is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word ‘equitable’
given in the passage?
1) troubled 2) unfair 3) separated 4) futuristic 5) just

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

Directions (9-13): In this question, words (A), (B), (C), and (D) are given in bold. If
two of these words are interchanged, the sentence will be meaningful and
grammatically correct. Identify the pair of words, if interchanged which will make
the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. That pair is your answer. If
all the words are appropriate then mark ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
9. The only cronies that the government (A) works for were the questioned (B) of
India, and people (C) a former Congress-led State government’s decision (D) to
invite a ‘crony’ to set up a port.
1) A-B 2) B-C 3) C-D 4) A-D 5) All Correct
10. the Centre could adopt (A) the States to incentivise (B) a similar practice to

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enhance (C) the confidence of investors in India’s overall debt and fiscal deficit
trajectory (D).
1) A-B 2) B-C 3) C-D 4) A-D 5) All Correct
11. He also closely watched (A) the polling process through a network of CCTVs and
gave instructions (B) to the police ensure (C) on duty at the polling booths to be
alert and personnel (D) free and fair elections.
1) A-B 2) B-C
ha 3) C-D 4) A-D 5) All Correct
12. We have written (A) to the government of India to include (B) our staff in the list
of frontline (C) corona warriors who are managing (D) the pandemic.
1) A-B 2) B-C 3) C-D 4) A-D 5) All Correct

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13. We are looking (A) at a double-digit market share across products (B) and sectors
d
to build upon the deal pandemic (C) we achieved during the closures (D).
1) A-B 2) B-C 3) C-D 4) A-D 5) All Correct
Direction (14-18): Select the phrase/connector from the given three alternatives
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which, when used at the beginning, combines them into one. The sentence thus
formed should imply the same meaning as expressed in the two sentences.
14. A. A total of 20 Indian soldiers died in the Galwan Valley clash on June 15,
regarded
C
B. the worst in over four decades at the India-China border.
1) though 2) regards 3) since 4)even 5) None of these
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15. A. flooded with complaints

B. most of them remained unresolved.
1) even though 2) so 3) but 4) because 5) None of these
16. A. Most marriages fail after between five and nine years.
B. people continue to get married.
1) yet 2) Nevertheless 3) so
4) due to 5) since
C
17. A. A Buddhist monk offered prayers for their health and happiness
B. to the royal couple's general downcast attitude.
1) On account of 2) Seeing that 3) Since
4) Consequently 5) in contrast
18. A. the State government has prohibited open burning of waste on land in 2017
B. there are several instances of garbage burning in the heart of the city.
1) though 2) however 3) so 4) as long as 5) None of these
Directions (19-22): In the questions given below two sentences are given which
are grammatically correct and meaningful. Choose one of the starters from the
options to form a correct and meaningful sentence.
19. Neeraj lost the favour of his master. He was dismissed from his high offices.
A. Lost the ------
B. Having lost-------
C. Dismissed from his ------
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) A and C 5) None of these

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

20. Hellen Keller was born with an extremely rare eye disorder. She has been in a
hospital for months.
A. Being born with…………………..
B. To keep a check…………….
C. Since she has been…….
1) B 2) C 3) A 4) B,C 5) None of these
21. Amazon is rapidly building up its cloud-computing capacity. Amazon developers
surpass their IBM peers.
A. To surpass….
B. By building the……….
C. Since Amazon developers…

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1) A 2) B 3) C 4) All 5) None of these
22. India was just one of 169 countries to present report on the implementation of
Human index goals at the UN this year. It was most anticipated report among all.
A. Although India was ….
B. Being implemented ….
C. In view of …
1) All
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2) A, B 3) B, C 4) A 5) None of these
Directions (23-27): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately

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to make grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
A-------- (23) of high profile cyber attacks in recent months has exposed -----
d
(24) in the critical infrastructure of even advanced nations. This has -------- (25)
the need for improved defenses against actual, and potential, cyber attacks by all
countries across continents. Several -------- (26) cyber attacks were reported
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from the United States during the past several months. Towards the end of 2020,
for instance a major cyber attack headlines ‘solar winds’- and believed to have
been sponsored from Russia- had ----- (27) the U.S.
C
23. 1) array 2) string 3) data 4) column 5) row
24. 1) disparities 2) differences 3) vulnerabilities
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4) obstructions 5) dangers
25. 1) dismantled 2) derived 3) reinforced 4) mutilated 5) proved
26. 1) high-profile 2) celebrities 3) noticed 4) good 5) notorious
27. 1) swayed 2) rocked 3) shattered 4) damaged 5) ruined
Directions (28-32): In the following questions, a word is given along with its
usage in sentences given in the options. Choose the option in which use of the
given word is contextually and grammatically correct.
C
28. Dynamic
I. At this critical juncture, India needs dynamic and sagacious political leaders to
prevent the country from corruption.
II. It is without question that the most dynamic sector of the economy creates the
bulk of new job opportunities.
III. We are dealing with a dynamic and changing universe and with an environment
that adjusts to our changes.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III 4) I & II 5) I, II & III
29. Ecstasy
I. On hearing of the sudden financial wind fall, the family was in ecstasy.
II. Closing his eyes momentarily, he felt a rush of ecstasy pulsing through his
body.
III. Swami Vivekan and always stood out in the crowd because of the ecstasy
reflected on his face.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III 4) I & II 5) I, II & III

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

30. Hostile
I. If this round of talks fails, the world’s trading environment is likely to become
increasingly hostile.
II. Western powers have ever been hostile to India for reasons best known to
them.
III. The ships had travelled thousands of miles through hostile waters to converge
in the Atlantic.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III 4) I & II 5) I, II & III
31. Collusion
I. The local M.P. was found in collusion with the smugglers and drug peddlers

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operating in the town.
II. A judge should never dispense with collusion while dealing with convicts.
III. Even the hardcore criminals have felt compunction to the collusion they had
done to the family of their rivals.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III 4) I & II 5) I, II & III
32. Despise
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I. The Government has been asked to despise all of their economic problems.
II. On account of fire there was despise loss of goods and property in the
neighbourhood.

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III. Strategically we should despise all our enemies, but tactically we should take
them all seriously.
d
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III 4) I & II 5) I, II & III
Directions (33-37): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and
(E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
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questions given below.

(A) At average diameters of about 88 km and 84 km, both components are among
the 500 largest asteroids.
(B) It was discovered on October 1, 1866, by Robert Luther.
C
(C) These asteroids were given a unique sequential identifying number after
their orbit was precisely determined.
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(D) Antiope is a double asteroid in the outer asteroid belt.

(E) In 2000, the double asteriod was found to consist of two almost-equally-sized
bodies orbiting each other.
33. Which of the following will be SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
34. Which of the following will be FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
C
35. Which of the following will be FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
36. Which of the following will be FIFTH (last) sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
37. Which of the following will be THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (38-42): In this question, three sentences A, B and C are given. Decide
which one is/are correct with respect to grammar, meaning and usage and choose
your answer accordingly.
38. Dealing with the corona virus /A/ pandemic is one of the most /B/ important
battles our /C/ administration will be faced. /D/ /E/ No error
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
39. Beside, the government /A/ had already blocked 743 social /B/ media accounts
and URLs /C/ spreading fake news on COVID-19. /D/ /E/ No error
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

40. There are no legal /A/ hurdles for the grama panchayat /B/ elections as they
were conducted /C/ on non-party basis. /D/ /E/ No error
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
41. More students of /A/ the institute got placement in /B/ top companies, according
/C/ to the release. /D/ /E/ No error
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
42. The results were /A/ announced as a company news /B/ release and not in a
scientific journal, implying that a review /C/ by independent experts is pending.
/D/ /E/ No error
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (43-50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions

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given below it.
Buying a house is the single largest financial investment an individual makes.
Yet, in India this act is fraught with risk and individuals depend on weak laws for
justice. Occasionally, deviant promoters are called to account as was the case in
the detention of Unitech’s promoters. This incident shows up the fallout of an
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absence of proper regulation to cover contracts between buyers and real estate
promoters. A real estate bill, which is presently pending in Rajya Sabha, seeks to
fill this gap. It has been debated for over two years and should be passed by
Parliament in the budget session.

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India is in the midst of rapid urbanisation and urban population is expected
to more than double to about 900 million over the next three decades.
d
Unfortunately, even the current population does not have adequate housing. A
government estimate in 2012 put the shortage at nearly 19 million units. If this
shortage is to be alleviated quickly, India’s messy real estate sector needs reforms.
ee

The real estate bill seeks to set standards for contracts between buyers and
sellers. Transparency, a rare commodity in real estate, is enforced as promoters
have to upload project details on the regulators’ website. Importantly, standard
definitions of terms mean that buyers will not feel cheated after taking possession
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of a house. In order to protect buyers who pay upfront, a part of the money collected
for a real estate project is ring-fenced in a separate bank account. Also, given the
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uncertainty which exists in India on land titles, the real estate bill provides title
insurance. This bill has been scrutinised by two parliamentary committees and
its passage now brooks no delay.
This bill is an important step in cleaning up the real estate market, but the
journey should not end with it. State governments play a significant role in real
estate and they are often the source of problems. Some estimates suggest that
real estate developers have to seek approvals of as many as 40 central and state
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departments, which lead to delays and an escalation in the cost of houses.
Sensibly, NDA government’s project to provide universal urban housing forces
states to institute reforms to access central funding. Without real estate reforms
at the level of states, it will not be possible to meet the ambition of making
housing accessible for all urban dwellers.
43. Which of the following is ‘true’ in the context of the passage?
1) Buying house is not a single largest individual investment.
2) In India no one depends on laws for justice.
3) Urbanisation increasing rapidly.
4) The real estate bill not provides title insurance.
5) None of these
44. According to the passage, What is the pending in Rajya Sabha?
1) NDA governments new Scheme
2) Universal Rural housing programme
3) Universal urban housing programme
4) Real estate bill 5) None of these

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

45. What will not be possible to meet the Ambition of Making housing accessible for
Urban Dwellers?
1) With the Real state reforms at State level.
2) Without support of central government.
3) Without passing the bill the in Rajya Sabha.
4) Without real estate reforms at the level of states 5) None of these
46. Which of the following statement is false in the context of the given passage?
1) Urban population is expected to more than double to about 850 million over the
next three decades.
2) Current population does not have adequate housing in India.
3) India’s real estate sector needs reforms.

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4) Real state bill has been scrutinised by two parliamentary committees.
5) None of these
47. According to the passage, What is the source of Problem in Real estate?
1) Market money Makers 2) State Government
3) Central Government 4) Buyers and sellers 5) None of these
48. Choose a word which is most similar in meaning of the word ‘Possession’ used in
the passage.
1) renting
ha 2) lease 3) proprietary rights
4) Need 5) None of these
49. Choose a word which is most similar in meaning of the word ‘escalation’ used in
the passage.
1) growth 2) Sustain

E 3) decrease 4) reduction 5) None of these

d
50. Choose a word which is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘scrutinise’ used in
the passage.
1) Catechize 2) Neglect 3) audit 4) canvass 5) None of these
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REASONING ABILITY
51. “Television proves to be an easy and effective source of learning for children
at an early age”. - A report.
C
Which of the following may not be a reason to consider television as an effective
source of learning for children ?
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1) It helps develop critical thinking ability in children about good versus bad in
the society.
2) Television provides information in an interesting way about distant places and objects.
3) The audio-visual method of learning proves to be more effective as compared to books.
4) Television aids in providing guidance to children about latest trends in the society.
5) Television offers a world of fantasy in which children can escape real life
problems.
Direction (52-56) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given
C
question.
Seven examiners viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U and V evaluated different number of
papers viz. 8, 12, 17, 25, 29, 37 and 40 on seven different days of the same week
starting from Monday and ending on Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order.
• Q evaluated papers on one of the days before Thursday but not Tuesday. Only
two people evaluated papers between Q and the one who evaluated 25 papers.
• Only three people evaluated papers between T and the one who evaluated 12
papers. T evaluated the papers before the one who evaluated 12 papers. T did not
evaluate the papers on the day immediately after Q.
• The difference between the number of papers evaluated on Thursday and Friday
is less than 5.
• R evaluated 37 papers but not on Tuesday. Only one person evaluated papers
between R and S.
• P evaluated the papers on one of the days before S. P evaluated more number of
papers than S but not the maximum number of papers.

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

• The one who evaluated the papers on the day immediately after P evaluated
even number of papers.
• U did not evaluate the least number of papers. P evaluated more number of
papers than U.
52. How many people evaluated less number of papers than V ?
1) Two 2) Five 3) Three 4) None 5) One
53. Based on the given arrangement, which of the following is TRUE ?
1) S evaluated 29 papers on Friday. 2) None of the given options is true
3) Only one examiner evaluated papers between U and R.
4) R evaluated the papers on Sunday.

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5) P evaluated the papers on Thursday.
54. In which of the following pairs of people did both evaluate even number of papers ?
1) P, Q 2) V, S 3) U, S 4) T, V 5) Q, U
55. Who amongst the following evaluated 17 papers ?
1) S 2) P 3) V 4) U 5) T
56.
ha
What is the difference between the number of papers evaluated on Tuesday and
Saturday ?
1) 4 2) 3 3) 28 4) 12 5) 8

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Direction (57-59) : Study the following information carefully and answer the
given question.
d
Each of the six friends - Harish, Suresh, Sameer, Mohan, Rohit and Naveen
has a different weight (but not necessarily in the same order).
• Sameer weighs more than Naveen but less than Rohit and Mohan.
ee

• Sameer weighs more than only two persons.

• Rohit weighs more than Mohan but less than Harish. Naveen does not weigh
the least of all.
C
• The one who weighs the second least weighs 62 kg. Rohit weighs 78 kg.
57. If Mohan weighs 70 kg, then what is probably the weight of Sameer ?
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1) 63 2) 75 3) 79 4) 58 5) 61
58. Who amongst the following possibly weighs 80 kg. ?
1) Naveen 2) Sameer 3) Mohan 4) Harish 5) Suresh
59. How many people weigh more than Naveen ?
1) None 2) Four 3) Two 4) Three 5) Five
60. This question consists of a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I
and II given below it. A course of action is an administrative decision to be taken for
C
improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. You
have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of
the suggested courses of action/s logically follow/s from the given statement.
Statement: Owing to high financial inputs, ‘Moustache’- a store exclusively for
men’s accessories, has discontinued customizing all its regular products as per
individual choices. This has led to a considerable drop in the number of its
customers.
Course of Action I: ‘Moustache’ should limit the customization service to only its
high selling products which are likely to bring higher profits.
Course of Action II: ‘Moustache’ should increase its rates and provide customization
of its products only for its elite customers who are willing to pay hefty amounts.
1) Both I and II follow 2) Only II follows 3) Either I or II follows
4) Neither I nor II follows 5) Only I follows

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

61. Read the given information and answer the question :

A separate area, maintained at 22°C will be built in the factory of Company
X specifically for the new packaging machine which the Company purchased in
order to increase profits. The electricity bills for cooling the area alone will run to
almost Rs.9 lacs per month.
Which of the following can be concluded from the given statement ?
(A) Company X has been making losses to at least some extent at present.
(B) Profit earned per month by the company from this machine is definitely expected
to be more than Rs.9 lacs.
(C) The main revenue generated from the factory is through packaging of goods.
(D) The new machine is temperature sensitive which must be controlled for its

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efficient functioning.
1) Both (A) and (C) 2) Both (B) and (D)
3) Both (A) and (D) 4) Only (C) 5) Only (A)
Direction (62-66) : Study the following information carefully to answer the given
question.
Eight friends - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are seated in a straight line with
equal distance between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some
ha
of them are facing North while some are facing South.
• Only two persons sit to the right of R. W sits second to the left of R.
• V sits fourth to the right of W.
• As many people sit between V and P as between P and R.

E
• Q sits second to the right of T. T does not sit at an extreme end of the line. Q is
not an immediate neighbour of W.
d
• Immediate neighbours of P face opposite directions (i.e, if one neighbour faces
North then the other faces South and vice-versa)
• Persons sitting at extreme ends face the same direction (i.e, if one person faces
North then the other also faces North and vice-versa)
ee

• Immediate neighbours of T face same direction (i.e, if one neighbour faces North
then the other also faces North and vice-versa)
• U faces North. P sits second to the left of U. P faces South.
62. Four of the given five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement
C
and hence form a group. Which of them does not belong to that group ?
1) VR 2) PW 3) UP 4) TU 5) PV
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63. What is the position of V with respect to U?

1) Immediate right 2) Immediate left 3) Third to the right
4) Third to the left 5) Second to the right
64. Who amongst the following sit exactly between T and R ?
1) SU 2) QS 3) UW 4) PQ 5) WP
65. Which of the following pairs represents persons seated at the two extreme ends
of the line ?
1) U, W 2) V, S 3) S, U 4) Q, V 5) W, Q
C
66. Based on the given arrangement, which of the following is TRUE with respect to
S?
1) R is an immediate neighbour of S. 2) S sits second to the right of W.
3) S faces South. 4) None of the given options is true
5) Only three people sit between P and S.
Direction (67-71) : Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question.
Eight people - M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table
facing the centre with equal distance between each other, but not necessarily in
the same order. Each person is dressed as a different superhero- Wolverine,
Batman, Orion, Thor, Hulk, Flash, Cyborg and Deadpool, but not necessarily in
the same order.
P sits third to the left of the one who is dressed as Thor. Only one person
sits between the one who is dressed as Thor and the one who is dressed as
Flash. O sits to the immediate right of the one who is dressed as Flash. Only two
people sit between O and the one who is dressed as Wolverine. S sits to the
immediate right of the one who is dressed as Wolverine. Only one person sits
between S and M. The one who is dressed as Orion sits second to the left of M. Q

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

sits second to the right of the one who is dressed as Hulk. Only three people sit
between Q and R. Only one person sits between M and the one who is dressed as
Batman. S is not dressed as Batman. T is not dressed as Thor. The one who is
dressed as Cyborg is an immediate neighbour of T.
67. How many people sit between P and the one who is dressed as Flash, when
counted from the left of P ?
1) Two 2) None 3) More than three 4) Three 5) One
68. Who sits third to the right of the one who is dressed as Deadpool ?
1) The one who is dressed as Cyborg 2) Q 3) N
4) The one who is dressed as Thor 5) T
69. Which of the following is TRUE with respect to the given arrangement ?

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1) S is dressed as Hulk.
2) The one who is dressed as Cyborg sits to the immediate left of T.
3) Only one person sits between R and the one who is dressed as Flash.
4) The one who is dressed as Deadpool and N are immediate neighbours of each other.
5) None of the given options is true.
70. In the given arrangement, T is related to the one who is dressed as Thor in the
ha
same way as R is related to the one who is dressed as Wolverine. Following the
same pattern, to whom is M related to ?
1) The one who is dressed as Cyborg

E
2) The one who is dressed as Batman.
3) The one who is dressed as Orion.
d
4) The one who is dressed as Deadpool. 5) The one who is dressed as Hulk.
71. Who amongst the following is dressed as Orion ?
1) O 2) S 3) Q 4) N 5) T
ee

Direction (72-75) : In this question, relationship between different elements is

shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the
conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
72. Statements : G  H  I = J < K ; M  J > N ; D  H
C
Conclusion I: G > M Conclusion II: M = G
1) Only conclusion II is true 2) Only conclusion I is true
Sr

3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true

4) Either conclusion I or II is true 5) Both conclusions I and II are true
73. Statements : G  H  I = J < K ; M  J > N ; D  H
Conclusion I: N < K Conclusion II: D  I
1) Either conclusion I or II is true 2) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
3) Both conclusions I and II are true
4) Only conclusion II is true 5) Only conclusion I is true
74. Statement : C  A = M  E ; S  T > A < B
C
Conclusion I: C  B Conclusion II: S > E
1) Either conclusion I or II is true 2) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
3) Both conclusions I and II are true
4) Only conclusion II is true 5) Only conclusion I is true
75. Statements : P < L  A = N  K > S; X  N < Z
Conclusion I:P<Z Conclusion II: X < S
1) Either conclusion I or II is true 2) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
3) Only conclusion II is true 4) Only conclusion I is true
5) Both conclusions I and II are true
Direction (76-78) : Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question.
Rohan starts walking towards West from Point Q. He walks for 18m to reach
Point R. He takes a right turn and walks for 12m and reaches point F. From Point
F he takes a right turn and walks for 4m. He again takes a right turn and reaches
Point K after walking for 6m.

10
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

Heena is standing 5m West of Point F. She walks 6m towards South and

takes a left turn. She walks for 13m and reaches Point D. Point X is 6m South of
Point D.
76. In which direction is point R with respect to Heena’s starting position ?
1) North-West 2) North 3) South 4) South-East 5) West
77. If Point C is 12m North of Point X, how far and in which direction is Point F with
respect to Point C ?
1) 10m to the East 2) 10m to the West 3) 8m to the North
4) 8m to the East 5) 8m to the West
78. How far is Point X from Rohan’s starting position ?
1) 18m 2) 16m 3) 13m 4) 10m 5) 8m

r’s
Direction (79-83) : Study the given information carefully and answer the given
question.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words
and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule.The following is an
illustration of input and rearrangement.(All the numbers are two digit numbers)
Input: progress 55 to 64 computerised 21 42 methods 15 soon
ha
Step I 64 progress 55 to 21 42 methods 15 soon computerised
Step II 55 64 progress to 21 42 15 soon computerised methods
Step III 42 55 64 to 21 15 soon computerised methods progress
Step IV 21 42 55 64 to 15 computerised methods progress soon

E
StepV: 15 21 42 55 64 computensed methods progress soon to
Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is
d
obtained
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the
given input
Input: 98 12 of 41 evaluation differs 30 67 further now
ee

79. Which element is exactly between ‘12’ and ‘differs’ in second last step of the given
arrangement ?
1) evaluation 2) now 3) of 4) 98 5) 30
80. What is the position of ‘30’ from the left end of the second step ?
C
1) Seventh 2) Eighth 3) Fifth 4) Sixth 5) Ninth
81. How many elements are there to the right of evaluation in the last step ?
Sr

1) Four 2) Six 3) Three 4) Eight 5) Five

82. In which step are the elements ‘41 30 now differs’ found in the same order ?
1) Fifth 2) The given order of elements is not found in any step.
3) Third 4) Fourth 5) Second
83. What is the position of ‘67’ from the right of ‘41’ in the first step ?
1) Fifth 2) Third 3) Sixth 4) Seventh 5) Second
Direction (84-88) : This question consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in
C
the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements
and choose the most appropriate option.
84. Five different seminars, A, B, C, D and E were conducted in February, March,
June, October and November of the same year (but not necessarily in the same
order). In which month was seminar C conducted ? (No Seminar was conducted
in any other month in that year)
(I) B was conducted in a month having more than 30 days. E was conducted after
B but not in November. Only two seminars were conducted between A and B.
(II) D was conducted in October. No seminar was conducted between D and E.
Only two seminars were conducted between B and C. C was conducted on one of
the months after B.
1) The data in both statements I and II together is necessary to answer the question
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
3) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question

11
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

4) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to

answer the question
5) The data even in both statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer
the question
85. How is ‘create’ definitely coded in the given code language ? (All the given codes
are two letter codes only)
(I) ‘create new rules now’ is coded as ‘vi ko la si’ and ‘rules must create order’ is
coded as ‘bs si mu vi’
(II) ‘now rules create order’ is coded as ‘si la bs vi’ and ‘order now to create’ is
coded as ‘dp si la bs’.
1) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question

r’s
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
3) The data even in both statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question
4) The data in both statements I and II together is necessary to answer the question
5) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
86.
ha
Three books, P, Q and R, each on a different subject. History, Biology and Economics
are kept one above the other (but not necessary in the same order). How many
books (none/one or two) are kept below the Economics book?
(I) Q is kept immediately below the History book. Only one book is kept between R
and the Economics book. P is not the Economics book.

E
(II) R is kept immediately above the History book. Economics book is kept
immediately below P. History book is not the lowermost.
d
1) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question
2) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
ee

data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question

3) The data even in both statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer
the question
4) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
C
5) The data in both statements I and II together is necessary to answer the question
87. Is V the mother of U ?
Sr

(I) S is the grandson of V. S is the only brother of M. Y is the father of M. M is the

only daughter of U.
(II) S is the son of U. U is the only sister of P. P is the mother of Q. Q is the
grandson of V.
1) The data even in both statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer
the question
2) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
C
3) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
4) The data in both statements I and II together is necessary to answer the question
5) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question
88. In a five storey building (consisting of floors numbered 1 to 5, wherein the ground
floor is numbered, the floor above it 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered
5 each of the five friends namely L, M, N, O and P lives on a different floor. On
which floor number does M live ?
(I) Only two persons live between L and O. O lives on one of the floors above L. P
lives on one of the floors below L. M lives on one of the floors above P.
(II) O lives on an odd number floor but not floor number 3. Only two people live
between O and L. Only two people live between N and P. N lives on an even
numbered floor.
1) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
2) The data in both statements I and II together is necessary to answer the
question

12
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

3) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to

answer the question
4) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
5) The data even in both statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer
the question
89. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the third, fifth,
ninth and eleventh letters of the word ‘PURIFICATION’, which would be the third
letter of that word from the left end ? If more than one such word can be formed,
give ‘X’ as your answer. If no such word can be formed, give ‘Z’ as your answer.

r’s
1) O 2) T 3) X 4) Z 5) R
90. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘DESIGNER’ each of which
has as many letters between them (both in forward and backward direction) in
the word as they have in the English alphabetical series ?
1) Three 2) One 3) None 4) Two 5) More than three
91. Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.
ha
Despite introducing several schemes for car loan in the past three years, two-
third of the loan applications received by Bank B were for Home loan. This
year the bank decided to decrease the interest rate on car loan from the
present 9.6% to 8%,

E
Which of the following can be a short term effect of the step taken by Bank B ?
d
1) The interest rate for Home loan of Bank B will increase at least by 1.5% in the
upcoming quarter.
2) The amount disbursed towards car loans by Bank B will increase at least to
ee

some extent this year.

3) The processing fee for car loan of Bank B will definitely increase by 1.6%.
4) The interest rate for Home loan of Bank B will increase atleast by 1.5% in the
upcoming quarter.
C
5) Majority of people will apply for car loan in Bank B after decrease in intrest rate.
Sr

92. “The operations of airlines Queenster of country X had to be shut down as it was
running into heavy losses from past one and a half year.”
Which of the following can be the reason/s for the losses to airlines Queenster ?
(A) The Queenster airlines invested in training its staff in past few months.
(B) The economy of country X was going through a phase of depression since last
two years.
(C) The strategies implemented by the Queenster airlines for its operation were
not at par with the changing trend in the industry.
C
1) All (A), (B) & (C) 2) Only (A) 3) Only (C)
4) Only (B) 5) All (B) & (C)
Direction (93-98) : In this question three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
93. Statements: No guide is a doctor All doctor are tourists
Only a few tourists are smart
Conclusions: I. All tourists are doctor II. No doctor is a smart
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
2) Both Conclusions I and II are true
3) Either Conclusion I or II is true 4) Only Conclusion II is true
5) Only Conclusion I is true

13
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

94. Statements: All cows are owl. All owls are crows.
Only a few crows are dove.
Conclusions: I. All cows are crows. II. All dove are owl is a possibility.
1) Both Conclusions I and II are true 2) Only Conclusion I is true
3) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 4) Either Conclusion I or II is true
5) Only Conclusion II is true
95. Statements: Only a few wall is roof. All roofs are curtain.
No curtain is a speaker.
Conclusions: I. All wall can never be curtain.
II. No roofs are speaker.

r’s
1) Only Conclusion I is true 2) Both Conclusions I and II are true
3) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
4) Either Conclusion I or II is true 5) Only Conclusion II is true
96. Statements: All Tomateos are egg
ha Only a fewegg are potato.
Conclusions: I. At-least some Tomatos are potato.
II. No Tomatos is a potato.
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) Only Conclusion I is true

E
3) Both Conclusions I and II are true
5) Only Conclusion II is true
4) Either Conclusion I or II is true
d
97. Statements: All stone are ring All ring are window.
Only a few windows are hammers.
Conclusions: I. At-least some window are ring
ee

II. All stone being hammers are a possibility.

1) Only Conclusion I is true 2) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
3) Either Conclusion I or II is true 4) Only Conclusion II is true
C
5) Both Conclusions I and II are true
Sr

98. Statements: All M’s are N’s All N’s are S’s
Only a few S’s are T’s
Conclusions: I. No T’s is a S’
II. All N’s are M’s
1) Either Conclusion I or II is true
2) Both Conclusions I and II are true 3) Only Conclusion II is true
4) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 5) Only Conclusion I is true
C
99. Which of the following expressions will be definitely FALSE if the given expressions
‘L > D  R < P  K = J’; T  R’ are definitely TRUE ?
1) P > J 2) R < J 3) T < L 4) D  T 5) J > T
100. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark in the given
expression in order to make the expression ‘M  E’ as well as ‘R > S’ definetly
TRUE ? M  A  R=K?E>T  S
1) Either ‘<’ or ‘  ’ 2) > 3) Either ‘  ’ or ‘>’
4) < 5) =
NUMERICAL ABILITY
101. The ratio between the base and height of a right angled triangle is 4 : 3 respectively,
if the hypotenuse is 10 Cm., What is the area of the triangle ?
1) 27 sq.cm. 2) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
3) 30 sq.cm. 4) 18 sq.cm. 5) 24 sq.cm.

14
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

102. Average of three odd numbers is 21, if the difference between the smallest and
the largest of these three numbers is 18. What is the third number ?
1) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question.
2) 27 3) 21 4) 13 5) 10
103. A is six years elder than B at present. The ratio of their ages after six years will
be 5 : 4 respectively. What is B’s present age ?
1) 12 years 2) 18 years 3) 24 years 4) 20 years
5) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
104. Fifteen percent of thirty percent of forty percent of a number is 9. What is two-
fifth of that number ?

r’s
1) 200 2) 300 3) 100 4) 150 5) 250
105. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 90 metres. The ratio between the breadth
and the length of the field is 1 : 2 respectively. What is the area of the rectangular
field ?
1) 500 sq.m. 2) 300 sq.m. 3) 225 sq.m. 4) 450 sq.m. 5) 900 sq.m.
ha
106. Twelve women can complete a work in 18 days. Sixteen men can complete the
same work in 9 days. In how many days will six men and twelve women complete
the same work ?

1) l0
2
2) 6
4

E 3) 9
5
4) 18
1
5) 12
3
d
7 7 7 7 7
107. The difference between the simple and compound interest on a sum of money at
ee

the end of two years is Rs.20 at the same rate of interest. What is definitely the
rate of interest percent per annum ?
1) 10 2) 15
C
3) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question 4) 5 5) 20
108. The average age of 24 students and a teacher together is 15 years. If the teacher’s
Sr

age is excluded, the average age of only the students become 14, what is the
teacher’s age ?
1) 35 years 2) 39 years
3) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question.
4) 42 years 5) 36 years
109. A earns Rs. 15,000 more than B every month. B’s monthly income is Rs.20,000
C
less than C’s monthly income. If total monthly income of A and C together is
Rs.95,000, what is B’s monthly income ?
1) Rs.50,000 2) Rs.30,000 3) Rs.40,000 4) Rs.15,000 5) Rs.47,000
110. The ratio between the cost price of two articles A and B is 3 : 5 respectively.
Article ‘B’ was sold with a profit of 20 percent. If article ‘A’ also was sold at the
same price, what would have been the profit percent only for Article A ?
1) 200 2) 50 3) 150 4) 100
5) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
Direction(111-115) : What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question ?
(You are not expected to calculate exact value.)
111. 11.832 - 6.152 + (1221.21 + 33.17)  ? = 171
1) 20 2) 35 3) 25 4) 55 5) 45

15
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

112. 470.112 + 549.465  0.05 - 119.632 x ? = 1234.42

1) 85 2) 77 3) 95 4) 62 5) 70
113. 114.879 x 15.98  4.01 + 54.33 = ? + 313.333
1) 195 2) 220 3) 215 4) 190 5) 201
114. 17.999 x 14.001 x 179.989  20.02 = ?
1) 2920 2) 2268 3) 2580 4) 2760 5) 2360
1 5 15
115. 7 of 13 of 22 of 644  ?

1) 30 2) 36 3) 19 4) 24 5) 41

r’s
Direction(116-120) : Refer to the graph and answer the given question.
Data related to amounts of investment (in Rs. Hundred) of Amlan and Mohan
in 6 schemes.
Amlan Mohan
1000
ha
Amount of investment (in Rs. Hundred)

900
840 880
800
760 720
700
600

E 680
d
520 500 580
500
440
400
320 360 420
ee

300
200
100
C
0
A B C D E F
Sr

Schemes
116. Amlan’s total investment in schemes A and B together is what percent of Mohan’s
total investment in the same schemes together ?
11 9 1 3 7
1) 77 2) 83 3) 81 4) 74 5) 79
17 17 17 17 17
117. If scheme C offers compound interest @ 6 p.c.p.a. (compounded annually), what
would be the difference between interest accrued by Amlan and Mohan from this
C
scheme after 2 years ?
1) Rs. 1840.20 2) Rs. 1730.40 3) Rs.1684.60 4) Rs.1772.80 5) Rs.1826.20
118. Mohan invested in scheme E for four years. Scheme E offers simple interest @ 6.5
p.c.p.a. for the first two years and compound interest (compounded annually) @
10 p.c.p.a. for the next two years. What will be the total interest accrued by
Mohan from this scheme after four years ?
1) Rs. 13,580 2) Rs.14,960 3) Rs.15,260 4) Rs.14,320 5) Rs.15,540
119. If scheme F offers simple interest @ 8.5 p.c.p.a., what will be the total interest
earned by Amlan and Mohan together from this scheme after 3 years ?
1) Rs.30,950 2) Rs.33,150 3) Rs.34,180 4) Rs.32,300 5) Rs.31,500
120. Total amount invested by Amlan in all the given schemes is approximately what
percent more than the total amount invested by Mohan in all the given schemes ?
1) 16 2) 13 3) 19 4) 10 5) 21

16
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

Direction(121-125) : Study the table carefully answer the given question.

Number of people working in five different companies and the ratio of men
and women
Company Total number of Ratio
people Men Women
F 450 4 5
G 525 3 2
H 600 8 7

r’s
I 430 2 3
J 540 3 1
121. Number of women working in company H is approximately what percent of the
total number of people working in all the companies together ?
ha
1) 21 2) 8 3) 2 4) 17 5) 11
122. What is the total number of men working in companies G and H together ?
1) 600 2) 635 3) 640 4) 622 5) 625

2) 125

E
123. How many women are working in company J ?
1) 135 3) 145 4) 150 5) 110
d
124. What is the average number of people working in all the companies together ?
1) 515 2) 509 3) 518 4) 505 5) 520
ee

125. What is the respective ratio of number of women working in company F to the
number of women working in company I ?
C
1) 114 : 119 2) 129 : 137 3) 125 : 129 4) 121 : 126 5) 115 : 131
Direction(126-130) : In the given question two equations are given. You have to
Sr

solve both the equations and give answer.

126. I.12x2 + 59x + 72 = 0
II. 4y2 + 21y + 26 = 0
1) x  y 2) x  y 3) x > y 4) x < y
5) x = y (or) relationship cannot be decided
127. I. 4x2 + 40x + 99 = 0
II. 4y2 + 30y + 56 = 0
C
1) x > y 2) x  y 3) x < y 4) x  y
5) x = y (or)relationship cannot be decided
128. I. 3x2- 16x + 21 =0
II. y2 -10y + 21 = 0
1) x < y 2) x = y (or)relationship cannot be decided
3) x  y 4) x  y 5) x > y
129. I. 2x2 - 23x + 65 = 0
II. 3y2 - 27y + 60 = 0
1) x > y 2) x  y 3) x  y 4) x < y
5) x = y (or)relationship cannot be decided
130. I. x2 = 169
II. y2-26y + 169 = 0
1) x > y 2) x = y (or)relationship cannot be decided
3) x  y 4) x < y 5) x  y

17
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

Direction(131-135) : What will come in the place of the question mark(?) in the
given number series ?
131. 8 9 ? 75 316 1605
1) 17 2) 14 3) 28 4) 22 5) 30
132. 20 10.5 11.5 18.75 ? 101.25
1) 52.5 2) 44.5 3) 35 4) 39.5 5) 55
133. 111 215 ? 839 1671 3335
1) 471 2) 423 3) 532 4) 468 5) 513
134. 15 ? 63 127 255 511
1) 45 2) 39 3) 20 4) 28 5) 31

r’s
135. 235 237 243 255 275 ?
1) 305 2) 289 3) 322 4) 297 5) 315
Direction(136-140) : Study the table and answer the given question.

Name of Total Number of

ha Percentage of Number of invalid
Villages Registered Voters Voters Cast votes
(Males and Female) out of total Votes Cast
P 42000 68 2145
Q 32800 72 1749
R 44200

E 80 2363
d
S 40400 60 3140
T 36800 75 1983
ee

136. Total number of registered voters in village P is what percent more than the total
number of registered voters in village T ?
8 11 19 15 3
1) 16 2) 12 3) 10 4) 17 5) 14
C
23 23 23 23 23
137. In village T,respective ratio of male and female registered voters is 13 : 10. If
Sr

number of registered male voters who could cast their votes is 14976. What percent
of registered female voters could cast their votes ?
1) 75.6 2) 78.9 3) 83.7 4) 77.5 5) 81.3
138. What is the average number of invalid votes cast in all the given villages together ?
1) 2276 2) 2468 3) 2332 4) 2148 5) 2386
139. What is the difference between number of valid votes cast in village Q and number
of valid votes cast in village R ?
C
1) 11540 2) 11130 3) 11260 4) 10920 5) 10630
140. In village S only two candidates (A and B) - were contesting election. If A got 68%
of total valid votes cast in that particular village, how many valid votes did B get ?
1) 6224 2) 5572 3) 5922 4) 6752 5) 6108
Direction (141-145) : In the following questions, two statements numbered I and
II are given. On solving them, we get quantities I and II respectively. Solve for both
the quantities and choose the correct option.
141. Quantity I: Percentage of cement in Mortar. 900 kg of mortar consists of 45%
sand, 144 kg of lime and the rest cement.
Quantity II: Percentage of apples thrown by vendor. A vendor sells 60% of apples
he had and throws away 15% of the remainder. Next day he sells 50% of the
remainder and throws away the rest.
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II (or) No relation

18
Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

142. Quantity I: Highest score. The average marks of a student in 8 subjects is 87. Of
these, the highest marks are 2 more than the next in value. If these two subjects
are eliminated, the average marks of the remaining subjects is 85.
Quantity II: Number of officers. The average monthly salary of employees,
consisting of officers and workers of an organization is Rs. 3000. The average
salary of an officer is Rs. 10000 while that of a worker is Rs. 2000 per month.
There are a total 400 employees in the organization.
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II (or)No relation

r’s
143. Quantity1: Cost price of article. If an article is sold at 8% profit instead of 8%
loss, it would have brought Rs. 12 more.
Quantity II: Cost price of the book. A man sells a book at a profit of 20%. If he had
bought it at 20% less and sold it for Rs. 18 less he would have gained 25%.
1) Quantity I > Quantity II
ha 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II (or)No relation
144. Ajit can complete a piece of work in 60 days whereas Kailash and Shailendra
working together can complete it in 15 days. When Ajit and Shailendra alternately

E
work for a day each the work gets completed in 40 days.
Quantity I: No. of days in which Kailash will complete twice the work.
d
Quantity II: No. of days in which Shailendra will complete twice the work.
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
ee

3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II

5) Quantity I = Quantity II (or)No relation
145. In the given figure, PT is the tangent to the circle,  BTP = 56° And ‘A’ is any point
on the minor arc BT.
C
Sr
C
Quantity I:  BAT
Quantity II:  BOT
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Direction(146-150) : Study the following information carefully to answer the
question. The findings of a survey of private hospitals are as follows.
1. A total of 2400 patients admitted were considered for the survey.
2. Out of which 30% were suffering from liver dysfunction. 45% were suffering
from kidney dysfunction and remaining were admitted due to various common
issues
3. Out of those suffering from liver dysfunction. 15% had no issues in meeting the
expenditure out of which one - third were rich and remaining had an insurance
policy.

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS SO Pr el i m s - M T–45

4. Of the remaining 85% suffering from liver dysfunction three - fourth could
manage half the expenditure on their own and was met through the monetary
help received from some of the trusts Rest of the liver dysfunction patients required
complete monetary help from the trusts
5. Out of those suffering from kidney dysfunction 20% had no issues in meeting
the expenditure out of which three - eighth were rich and remaining had an
insurance policy.
6. Of the remaining 80% suffering from kidney dysfunction two - third could
manage half the expenditure on their own and was met through the monetary
help received from some of the trusts Rest of the kidney dysfunction patients

r’s
required complete monetary help from the trusts
7. Out of those suffering from various common issues 65% could bear the
expenditure out of which three - fifth are insured and remaining are rich while
rest of the patients could manage by getting partial help from the hospitals trusts
by getting the treatment at concessional rates.
ha
146. What is the ratio between liver dysfunction patients requiring 50% help and the
kidney dysfunction patients requiring 50% help respectively ?
1) 53 : 64 2) 52 : 63 3) 51 : 59 4) 49 : 64 5) 51 : 64
147. Total how many patients are able to meet full expenses since having insurance
policy ?
1) 486 2) 363

E
3) 417 4) 441 5) 387
d
148. What percent of the total number of patients are suffering from disease other
than liver and kidney dysfunction and require partial help to meet the expenses ?
1) 9.25 2) 8.75 3) 8.25 4) 9.75 5) 6.5
ee

149. Out of the total number of patients who are able to meet the total expenses, what
is the ratio between rich and insured respectively ?
1) 13 : 23 2) 13 : 22 3) 13 : 21 4) 11 : 21 5) 12 : 23
C
150. What percent of the total number of patients who are able to meet the expenses
being rich ?
Sr

2 1 1 3 3
1) 11 2) 12 3) 12 4) 11 5) 9
3 8 3 8 8
C
KEY
1.3 2.1 3.3 4.4 5.5 6.3 7.4 8.2 9.2 10.1 11.3 12.5 13.3
14.2 15.1 16.2 17.5 18.1 19.2 20.3 21.2 22.4 23.2 24.3 25.3 26.1
27.2 28.5 29.4 30.5 31.1 32.3 33.2 34.4 35.1 36.3 37.5 38.4 39.1
40.3 41.1 42.5 43.3 44.4 45.4 46.1 47.2 48.3 49.1 50.2 51.5 52.4
53.4 54.2 55.5 56.1 57.1 58.4 59.2 60.1 61.2 62.2 63.4 64.3 65.4
66.3 67.1 68.5 69.4 70.1 71.2 72.4 73.3 74.4 75.4 76.4 77.5 78.4
79.3 80.4 81.3 82.2 83.2 84.2 85.4 86.1 87.1 88.1 89.5 90.4 91.2
92.3 93.1 94.1 95.5 96.4 97.5 98.4 99.1 100.5 101.5 102.1 103.2 104.1
105.4 106.1 107.3 108.2 109.2 110.4 111.1 112.1 113.5 114.2 115.4 116.5 117.2
118.2 119.2 120.2 121.5 122.5 123.4 124.3 125.1 126.5 127.3 128.4 129.3 130.3
131.4 132.4 133.2 134.5 135.1 136.5 137.2 138.1 139.2 140.4 141.1 142.1 143.2
144.5 145.2 146.5 147.4 148.2 149.3 150.4

20