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CF - Mid-term exam (Semester 1 - 2021-2022) -đã chuyển đổi
CF - Mid-term exam (Semester 1 - 2021-2022) -đã chuyển đổi
MIDTERM EXAMINATION
Date: from November 10, 2021, 3:15 pm to November 11, 2021, 3:15 pm
Duration: 1 day
Signature: Signature:
Full name:
Full name: Trinh Thu Nga
GENERAL INSTRUCTION(S)
GOOD LUCK!
1
There are five questions.
Question 1: (20 points)
Read the article in the link below. The content is also in the Appendix of this exam.
https://www.federalreserve.gov/econres/notes/feds-notes/equity-issuance-and-retirement-by-
nonfinancial-corporations-20170616.htm
a. Were U.S. nonfinancial corporations on average issuing new equity or buying their
shares back? Provide evidence from the article.
According to the article, from 1996 to 2016, U.S. nonfinancial corporations on average retire their
shares rather than issue new equity.
Below is the graph extracting from the article
The figure shows that over the given period, the U.S. equity retirements (red line) have been
consistently greater than the gross issuance (black line) which results in negative net equity
issuance. Besides distributing earnings for sharesholders by saving their tax expenses from
dividends payout, repurchasing equity also reflects a common incentive compensation device for
existing shareholders.
b. The pattern of corporate financing is discussed in the textbook (Figure 15.2 page 487
and the discussion on page 488). Explain the reasons for this pattern of financing using
all relevant topics/theories of capital structure.
The figure 15.2 breaks down total financing in U.S. businesses into internal financing, debt
financing and financing through new equity. It is easy to recognize that internal financing
dominants as a source of financing compared to financing through debt and equity, the reason for
that is the cost of internal financing is cheaper than external financing. When using external
financing, the companies need to issue bonds, shares or borrow from the banks and they have to
pay for these costs which is much higher than the costs of internal financing such as retained
earnings.
The figure also indicates that when corporations use external finance, they tend to issue debt
rather than issue new equity. The reason can be explained by using pecking-order theory which
states that corporates should issue the safest securities first. Debt has relatively less risk compared
with equity because if financial distress is avoided, investors would receive a fixed return.
Besides, M&M Proposition I under taxes claimed that the value of firms is positively related to
leverage (ignore the financial distress and bankruptcy cost) and firms can take advantage from tax
shields which is not occurred in dividend payouts.
The negative net equity indicates corporates repurchased more stock then issued new equity
because they found it more attractive to repurchase stocks rather than payout dividends. This
trend accelerated in 2002-2007 and just declined at the beginning in 2008 which is the result of
financial crisis.
a. What is this type of voting called? What is the number of votes you can cast?
The type of voting is cummulative voting because there are three seats on the board of directors
need to be voted at once in a single election.
Numbers of shares holding = 50,000 + 5,000 x 1 = 55,000
Number of votes can cast = 55,000 x 3 = 165,000 votes
b. With this type of voting, suppose the company has 1 million+(100,000xA) shares outstanding
(with A defined above), how many more shares must you buy to be assured of earning a seat
on the board?
Question 3:
*Input data:
EBIT = 31,000 + 200 x 1 = $31,200
R0 =14 %
The present value of the unlevered firm is the present of EBIT x (1-T c ¿
b. Suppose the company can borrow at 7%. What will the value of the company be if it takes on
debt equal to 30 percent of its unlevered value?
B = 0.3 x 162,685.71=$48,805.71
c. What will the value of the company be if it takes on debt equal to 30 percent of its
levered value?
V L=V U +T C B
V L=V U +T c × 0.3 V L
V L=162,685.71+0.27 × 0.3 V L
V L=$ 177,024.71
a. If the company were financed entirely by equity, how much would it be worth?
R S=0.13168
c. Use the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) approach to calculate the value of the
company. What is the value of the company’s equity? What is the value of the company’s
debt?
B S
WACC= × RB × ( 1−T c ) + × RS
B+ S B+S
0.4 1
WACC= ×0.08 × ( 1−.27 ) + ×0.13168=0.110743=11.0743 %
0.4 +1 0.4+1
S 1
Value of the company’s equity = ×V L= ×41,759,298.56 = $29,828,070.4
S +B 0.4 +1
Value of the company’s debt = 41,759,298.56 - 29,828,070.4 = $11,931,228.16
d. Use the flow to equity (FTE) approach to calculate the value of the company’s equity (Hint:
use the value of debt calculated in part c to calculate interest expense).
Sales 18,100,000
Levered CF 3,927,766.28
Levered CF 3,927,766.28
V E= = =¿ $29,828,115.72
RS 0.13168
There are some main differences between static trade-off and pecking-order theory:
- Trade-off theory focuses on target debt-equity ratio and the firm should borrow up to the point
where tax benefit from debt is equal to the bankruptcy cost. By contrast, the pecking-order
theory does not focus on a target amount of debt, it stated that the firm prefers to use internal
financing whenever possible and issuing debt and equity come after respectively.
- With pecking-order theory, profitable firms do not need to finance externally and usually rely
on less debt. However, according to trade-off theory, the higher profit firms generate, the
higher debt they should use to capture tax benefits.
- Financial slacks are valuable for pecking-order theory as they can help the company go
through a difficult period, so they use less external financing. However, the trade-off theory
assumes that managers of firms with large free cash have more incentive to pursue wasteful
activities, therefore, firms should issue debt to limit these opportunities.
b.
*Input data:
R S=R F + β × ( R M −R F )
R S=0.05+1.1 ×0.08=0.138=13.8 %
B
R S=R0 + ( 1−T c ) ( R0−R B )
S
0.25
0.138=R0 + × ( 1−0.27 ) × ( R0 −0.09 )
0.75
Applying the assumption that business risk of GP venture if all equity is equal to business risk of
ASA which is already in the business. Therefore, R0of these two firms are the same.
B
R S=R0 + ( 1−T c ) ( R0−R B )
S
0.2
R S=0.128606+ × ( 1−0.27 ) × ( 0.128606−0.1 )
0.8
R S=0.133827=13.3827 %
B S
WACC= × RB ( 1−T c ) + × RS
B+ S B+ S
WACC=0.2× 0.1× ( 1−0.27 )+ 0.8× 0.133827=0.1217=12.17 %