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inflows first.
=14000*((((1+0.08)^10)-1)/(0.08*(1+0.08)^10))
= Rs. 93,941.14
Option ii)
=14000*((((1+0.08)^20)-1)/(0.08*(1+0.08)^20))
= Rs. 1,37,454.06
Option iii)
=14000*((((1+0.08)^15)-1)/(0.08*(1+0.08)^15))
= Rs. 1,19,832.70
So, we can see that only option i has a present value of annuity greater that the lumpsum Ms. Punam is
paying at the beginning of the period and there is a profit of Rs. 13,941.14. In the rest of the options Ms.
Punam is incurring a loss. So, she should go for option i.