Gunjan Seniors Material

1.
Let X be a random variable which is uniformly chosen from the set of positive odd numbers
less than 100. The expectation, E[X] is
a. 50
b. 0
c. 25
d. 100
Ans:- a
2. If Y=5X + 20 and X is N(15,25), then mean of Y is

a. 95
b. 70
c. 50
d. 135
Ans:- a
3. Let Uand V be two independent zero mean Gaussian random variables of variances 1/4 and
1/9 respectively. The probability P(3V >= 2U ) is
a. 0.5
b. 0.4
c. 0.9
d. 0.7
Ans:- a
4. The power spectral density of a signal is given by [sinc(f)]^2, where ‘f’ is frequency. The
autocorrelation function of this signal in the time domain is
a. Triangular
b. Delta
c. Rectangular
d. Sinusoidal
Ans:- a
5. The auto-correlation function of an energy signal has

a. Even symmetry
b. Odd symmetry
c. No symmetry
d. Can’t comment
Ans:- a
6. The spectrum of a Gaussian pulse is
a. Gaussian
b. Rayleigh
c. Uniform
d. Delta
Ans:- a
7. The envelope of complex Gaussian is

a. Rayleigh
b. Gaussian
c. Uniform
d. Rician
Ans:- a
8. If the sample functions of a random process are periodic with period T, the auto correlation
function is
a. Periodic with period T
b. Periodic with period 2T
c. Periodic with period T/2
d. Can’t comment
Ans:- a
9. Let X(t) = A cos(wt+ @) Where @ is the phase distributed uniformly in [0, 90 degrees].
The process X(t) is
a. Strict Sense Stationary
b. Wide Sense Stationary
c. Not Wide Sense Stationary
d. Can’t comment
Ans:- c
10. Power spectral density is ------------ function of frequency
a. Real and even
b. Real
c. Even
d. Odd
Ans:- a
11. Sum of two independent uniform random variables has a ------------------ pdf
a. Triangular
b. Uniform
c. Gaussian
d. Exponential
Ans:- a
12. Suppose a zero mean Gaussian white noise with PSD N0/2 is applied to a low pass filter
with a bandwidth of “B” and passband amplitude response of 1. Suppose the filter output is
sampled at the rate of “2B” times per second, the auto correlation function of the sampled
output is
a. Impulse
b. Gaussian
c. Exponential
d. Insufficient information to evaluate
Ans:- a
13. Let X(t) and Y(t) be two independent Poisson processes with parameter λ1 and λ2
respectively. The sum process X(t)+Y(t) is
a. Poisson
b. Gaussian
c. Exponential
d. Undefined
Ans:- a
14. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the
probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?
A)1/2
B) 2/5
C) 8/15
D) 9/20
Ans:- D
15. A random process is called as stationary in strict sense if

a. Its statistics vary with shift in time origin
b. Its statistics does not vary with shift in time origin
c. Its autocorrelation vary with shift in time
d. Its autocorrelation does not vary with shift in time
Ans:- b
16. Let X be a continuous random variable distributed uniformly in [0, 10]. The value of
P(X=2) is
a. 0
b. 0.1
c. 1
d. 0.5
Ans:- a
17. The average noise power of white noise is

a. 0
b. Infinity
c. 1
d. None of the mentioned
Ans:- b
18. According to Parseval’s theorem the energy spectral density curve is equal to?
a. Area under magnitude of the signal
b. Area under square of the magnitude of the signal
c. Area under square root of magnitude of the signal
Ans:- b
19. The binomial distribution is symmetrical if p=?

A) 2
B) 1
C) 1/4
D) ½
Ans:- D
20. If X and Y are two independent variables, then

A) E(XY)=E(X)E(Y)
B) Cov(X,Y)=0
C) Correlation coefficient =0
D) All of the Above
Answer D
21. FM stands for

a) Frequency Modulation
b) Frequency Moderator
c) Frequent Moderator
d) Frequency Demodulation
Answer: a
22. The minimum height of antenna required for transmission in terms of ʎ is

a) 3λ/2
b) λ/4
c) 2λ
d) λ
Answer: b
23. What do you understand by the term analog communication?
a) A continuous signal with varying phase or amplitude
b) A discrete signal
c) A numerical coded signal
d) A suitable method for long distance communication
Answer: a.
24. What is Demodulation?

a) Process of varying one or more properties of a periodic waveform
b) Recovering information from modulated signal
c) Process of mixing a signal with a sinusoid to produce a new signal
d) Involvement of noise
Answer: b
25. Data transmitted for a given amount of time is called

a) Noise
b) Power
c) Frequency
d) Bandwidth
Answer: d
26. Medium which sends information from source to receiver is called

a) Transmitter
b) Transducer
c) Receiver
d) Channel
Answer: d
27. Telephones send information through wires in the form of

a) radio signals
b) electrical signal
c) electromagnetic waves
d) microwaves
Answer: b
28. Cell phones sent information in the form of

a) microwaves
b) electrical signals
c) radio signals
d) electromagnetic waves
Answer: d
29. Ability of receivers to select the wanted signals among various incoming signal is called
a) Selectivity
b) Stability
c) Sensitivity
d) Modulation
Answer: a
30. Which device is used for tuning the receiver according to incoming signal (especially in TV)?
a) Low pass filter

b) High pass filter
c) Zener diode
d) Varacter diode
Answer: d
31. In TV transmission, picture signal is modulated.

a) Phase
b) Amplitude
c) Frequency
d) Pulse
Answer: b
32. In TV transmission, sound signal is modulated.

a) Phase
b) Pulse
c) Frequency
d) Amplitude
Answer: c
33. Square Law modulators are?

a) used for frequency modulation
b) used for pulse width modulation
c) used for amplitude modulation
d) used for phase modulation
Answer: c
.
34. Ring Modulator is
a) used for DSB-SC generation
b) used for SSB-SC generation
c) is a summation modulator
d) consists three diodes connected in form of a ring
Answer: a
35. AVC stands for

a) Abrupt Voltage Control
b) Audio Voltage Control
c) Automatic Volume Control
d) Automatic Voltage Control
Answer: c
36. What is the role of Amplitude limiter in FM receiver?

a) Filtering
c) electromagnetic waves
d) microwaves
Answer: b
28. Cell phones sent information in the form of

a) microwaves
b) electrical signals
c) radio signals
d) electromagnetic waves
Answer: d
29. Ability of receivers to select the wanted signals among various incoming signal is called
a) Selectivity
b) Stability
c) Sensitivity
d) Modulation
Answer: a
30. Which device is used for tuning the receiver according to incoming signal (especially in TV)?
a) Low pass filter

b) High pass filter
c) Zener diode
d) Varacter diode
Answer: d
31. In TV transmission, picture signal is modulated.

a) Phase
b) Amplitude
c) Frequency
41. Super-heterodyne principle provides selectivity at _
a) RF stage
b) IF stage
c) Before RF stage
d) Audio
Answer: b
42. Low frequency noise is

a) Flicker noise
b) Shot noise
c) Thermal noise
d) Burst noise
Answer: a
43. Calculate power in each sideband, if power of carrier wave is 176W and there is 60%
modulation in amplitude modulated signal?
a) 13.36W
b) 52W
c) 67W
d) 15.84W
Answer: d
44. Maximum power efficiency of an AM modulator is?

a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
Answer: b
45. An AM signal is represented by x(t) = (30 + 2Sin(700πt)) Cos(2πt x 10²t)V.

The modulation index is
a) 0.7
b) 0.066
c) 0.341
d) 0.916
Answer: b
b) Amplification
c) Demodulation
d) Remove amplitude variation due to noise
Answer: d
37. What is Fidelity?

a) Equally amplifies all the signal frequencies at receiver
b) Ability of receiver to select wanted signal from various incoming signal
c) Minimum magnitude of input signal required to produced a specified output
d) Process of varying one or more properties of carrier signal
Answer: a
38. In a receiver, noise is usually developed at

a) Audio stage
b) Receiving antenna
c) RF stage
d) IF stage
Answer: c
39. Which oscillator is used as a local oscillator in radio receiver?

a) Wien-bridge
b) Hartley
c) Crystal
d) Phase Shift
Answer: b
40. Figure of merit is

a) Ratio of output signal to noise ratio to input signal to noise ratio
b) Ratio of input signal to noise ratio to output signal to noise ratio
c) Ratio of output signal to input signal to a system
d) Ratio of input signal to output signal to a system
Answer: a
d) Non synchronous TDM
Answer: c
51. What is the modulation index for a single tone modulation, given that positive peak of AM wave
is 20V and minimum value is 2V?
a) 0.81
b) 0.91
c) 0.73
d) 1
Answer: a
52. Power spectral density of thermal noise remains uniform upto frequency
a) 1015 HZ
b) 105 HZ
c) 102 HZ
d) 1013 HZ
Answer: d
53. Waves of which frequency can penetrate the atmosphere?

a) higher than 10 MHz
b) higher than 20 MHz
c) higher than 30 MHz
d) higher than 100 MHz
Answer: c
54. Which one of the following is analog?

a) PCM
b) PWM
c) Delta modulation
d) Differential PCM
Answer: b
55. Which of the following is used to generate PDM?

46. If the modulating frequency of a carrier wave varies between 700Hz and 7KHz, find it’s
bandwidth?
a) 10 KHz
b) 23 KHz
c) 17.3 KHz
d) 12.6 KHz
Answer: d
47. A 400W carrier wave is modulated to a depth of 65%. Find the total power of modulated wave?
a) 512.5W
b) 493W
c) 484.5W
d) 609.6W
Answer: c
48. If modulation index of an AM wave is increased from 1.5 to 2, then the transitted power
a) remains same
b) increases by 20%
c) increases by 41%
d) increases by 50%
Answer: c
49. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals?
a) FDM
b) TDM
c) WDM
d) Both FDM and TDM
Answer: b
50. To get constant time delay, we should use

a) FDM technique
b) WDM technique
c) Synchronous TDM
60. Who invented the super-heterodyne receivers?
a) Hertz
b) Armstrong
c) Foster
d) Seeley
Answer: b
61. What conditions must be fulfilled in a good digital communication system?

a) High data rate
b) High fidelity
c) Low transmit power
d) All of these
Answer: d
62. Which corrects the sampling time problem in a digital system?

a) Interpolator
b) Decimator
c) Equalizer
d) Filter
Answer: a
63. Matched filter technique is used to

a) Increase SNR
b) Decrease SNR
c) SNR is not affected
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
64. Amplitude distortion occurs when

a) Impulse response in not constant
b) Impulse response is constant
c) Frequency transfer function is constant
d) Frequency transfer function is not constant
d) Non synchronous TDM
Answer: c
51. What is the modulation index for a single tone modulation, given that positive peak of AM wave
is 20V and minimum value is 2V?
a) 0.81
b) 0.91
c) 0.73
d) 1
Answer: a
52. Power spectral density of thermal noise remains uniform upto frequency
a) 1015 HZ
b) 105 HZ
c) 102 HZ
d) 1013 HZ
Answer: d
53. Waves of which frequency can penetrate the atmosphere?

a) higher than 10 MHz
b) higher than 20 MHz
c) higher than 30 MHz
d) higher than 100 MHz
Answer: c
54. Which one of the following is analog?

a) PCM
b) PWM
c) Delta modulation
d) Differential PCM
Answer: b
55. Which of the following is used to generate PDM?

a) Mono-stable multi-vibrator
b) Free running multi-vibrator
c) Either mono-stable of free running multi-vibrator
d) JK flip-flop
Answer: a
56. Quantization error occurs in

a) Time Division Multiplexing
b) Frequency Division Multiplexing
c) Pulse Code Modulation
d) Pulse Width Modulation
Answer: c
57. Peak voltage of a carrier is 8kV, each sideband has an amplitude of 800V. Find its modulation
index?
a) 2.8
b) 0.9
c) 0.2
d) 0.8
Answer: c
58. Which modulation technique uses minimum bandwidth?

a) DSB-SC
b) SSB-SC
c) FM
d) VSB
Answer: b
59. What is the two basic specification of a receiver?

a) sensitivity and selectivity
b) superious response and tracking
c) signal and noise
d) number of convertors and number of IFs
Answer: a
60. Who invented the super-heterodyne receivers?
a) Hertz
b) Armstrong
c) Foster
d) Seeley
Answer: b
61. What conditions must be fulfilled in a good digital communication system?

a) High data rate
b) High fidelity
c) Low transmit power
d) All of these
Answer: d
62. Which corrects the sampling time problem in a digital system?

a) Interpolator
b) Decimator
c) Equalizer
d) Filter
Answer: a
63. Matched filter technique is used to

a) Increase SNR
b) Decrease SNR
c) SNR is not affected
Answer: a
64. Amplitude distortion occurs when

a) Impulse response in not constant
b) Impulse response is constant
c) Frequency transfer function is constant
d) Frequency transfer function is not constant
Answer: d
65. Symbol spaced has sample per symbol and fractionally spaced has _ samples per
symbol.
a) One, many
b) Many, one
c) One, one
d) Many, many
Answer: a
66. In differential encoding the different between two wave forms is measured.
a) Magnitude
b) Frequency
c) Phase
d) Time period
Answer: c
67. As the eye opens, ISI

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
Answer: b
68. For AWGN, the noise variance is

a) N0
b) N0/2
c) 2N0
d) N0/4
Answer: b
69. A Gaussian distribution into the non linear envelope detector yields
a) Rayleigh distribution
b) Normal distribution
c) Poisson distribution
d) Binary distribution
Answer: a
70. When two networks are connected in series, its composite noise figure can be given as
a) F1+(F2-1)/G1
b) F1-(F2-1)/G1
c) F2+(F1-1)/G1
d) F1G1+(F2-1)
Answer: a
71. The maximum likelihood function is
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Any of the mentioned
Answer: a.
72. The probability of error of DPSK is than that of BPSK.

a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Same
d) Not predictable
Answer: a
73. For M equally likely messages, M>>1, if the rate of information R ≤ C, the probability of
error is
a) Arbitrarily small
b) Close to unity
c) Not predictable
d) Unknown
Answer: a
74. In a communication system, a process in which statistical averages and time averages are
equal is called as
a) Stationary
b) Ergodic
c) Gaussian
d) Poisson
Answer: b
75. A rectangular pulse of duration T is applied to a matched filter. The output of the filter is a
a) Rectangular pulse of duration T
b) Rectangular pulse of duration 2T
c) Triangular pulse
d) Sine function
Answer: c
76. Gaussian noise has _ power spread over all frequencies.

a) Zero, uniformly
b) Zero, non uniformly
c) Infinite, uniformly
d) Infinite, non uniformly
Answer: c
77. The filter which is used to recover the pulse with less ISI is called as
a) Matched filter
b) Correlator
c) Matched filter & Correlator
Answer: b
78. The composite equalizing filter is the combination of
a) Receiving and equalizing filter
b) Transmitting and equalizing filter
c) Amplifier and equalizing filter
Answer: a
79. Signal to noise ratio increases as increases .

a) Quantization level
b) Square of quantization level
c) Square root of quantization level
Answer: b
80. The capacity relationship is given by

a) C = W log2 ( 1+S/N )
b) C = 2W log2 ( 1+S/N )
c) C = W log2 ( 1-S/N )
d) C = W log10 ( 1+S/N )
Answer: a
81. For a error free channel, conditional probability should be

a) Zero
b) One
c) Equal to joint probability
d) Equal to individual probability
Answer: a
82 The detection method where carrier’s phase is given importance is called as
a) Coherent detection
b) Non coherent detection
c) Coherent detection & Non coherent detection

d) None of these
Ans:- a
83. Antipodal signal sets are those vectors that can be illustrated as
a) Two 180 opposing vector
b) Two 90 opposing vector
c) Two 360 opposing vector
d) None of these
Ans:- a
84. In amplitude phase keying each phase vector is separated by
a) 90
b) 0
c) 45
d) 180
Ans:- c
85. Which waveforms are also called as line codes?
a) PCM
b) PAM
c) FM
d) AM
Ans:- a
86. When pulse code modulation is applied to non binary symbols we obtain waveform called as
a) PCM
b) PAM
c) M-ary
d) line codes
Ans:- c
87. In PCM encoding, quantization level varies as a function of
a) Frequency
b) Amplitude
c) Square of frequency
d) Square of amplitude
Ans:- b
88. What is bit depth?
a) Number of quantization level
b) Interval between two quantization levels
c) Number of possible digital values to represent each sample
d) None of these
Ans:- c
89. DPCM encodes the PCM values based on
a) Quantization level
b) Difference betweent the current and predicted value
c) Interval between levels

d) None of these
Ans:- b
90. For non coherent reception of PSK is used.
a) Differential encoding
b) Decoding
c) Differential encoding & Decoding
d) None of these
Ans:- c
91. Which modulation technique have the same bit and symbol error probability?
a) BPSK
b) DPSK
c) OOK
d) All of these
Ans:- d
92. Which modulation is the most efficient one?
a) BPSK
b) BFSK
c) QPSK
d) QAM
Ans:- d
93. Which modulation requires more bandwidth?
a) QPSK
b) OQPSK
c) BPSK
d) BFSK
Ans:- c
94. Which modulation has lower side lobe levels?
a) QPSK
b) OQPSK
c) BPSK
d) MSK
Ans:- d
95. QAM is a combination of
a) ASK and FSK
b) ASK and PSK
c) PSK and FSK
d) None of these
Ans:- b
96. The length of the code-word obtained by encoding quantized sample is equal to
a) l=log(to the base 2)L
b) l=log(to the base 10)L
c) l=2log(to the base 2)L
d) l=log(to the base 2)L/2

Ans:- a
97. The signals which are obtained by encoding each quantized signal into a digital word is called as
a) PAM signal
b) PCM signal
c) FM signal
d) Sampling and quantization
Ans:- b
98. What is necessary for digital communication?
a) Precision timing
b) Frame synchronization
c) Character synchronization
d) All of these
Ans:- d
99. Which system uses digital transmission?
a) ISDN
b) LANs
c) ISDN & LANs
d) None of these
Ans:- c
100. Modulation channel consists of
a) Amplifier
b) Signal processing units
c) Amplifier & Signal processing units
d) None of these
Ans:- c
101. Sampling theorem is used for converting
a) Continuous time signal to discrete
b) Discrete to continuous time signal
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
Ans:- c
102. TDMA system uses 25 MHz for the forward link, which is broken into radio channels of 200 kHz. If
8 speech channels are supported on a single radio channel, how many simultaneous users can
accommodated?
a) 25
b) 200
c) 1600
d) 1000
Ans: d
103. The most critical feature of TDMA operation is
a) Dividing the carrier channel bandwidth into time-slots

b) Assignment of time-slots among multiple subscribers
c) Time synchronization to the incoming TDMA frame.
d) Providing different access rates to subscribers
Ans: c
104. The guard time between the time slots in a TDMA frame helps in minimizing the interference due to
along different radio paths in the wireless channel.
a) Propagation delays
b) Adjacent Channel
c) Multipath fading
d) Timing inaccuracies
Ans: a
105. To mitigate the inter-symbol interference problem in TDMA systems, technique

has to be provided.
a) Source coding
b) Channel coding
c) Interleaving
d) Channel Equalization
Ans : d
106. The differentiation between the carrier frequencies of the forward and reverse channels is an
important design parameter related to technique
a) FDMA
b) TDMA
c) CDMA
d) SDMA
Ans : a
107. is used to improve reception by collecting time delayed versions of the required signal.
a) RAKE receiver
b) Equalizer
c) Frequency modulator
d) High pass filter
Answer: a
108. During the period of call, other users can share the same channel in FDMA. State whether True or
False.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
109. In Frequency Selective Fading, the
a. Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is less than bandwidth of transmitted channel
b. Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is more than bandwidth of transmitted channel
c. Coherence Bandwidth of the channel is equal to bandwidth of transmitted channel
d. None of these
Answer: a
110. If coherence time of the channel is smaller than the symbol period of the transmitted signal, it is
a. Fast fading
b. Slow fading
c. Frequency selective fading
d. Frequency non selective fading
Answer: a
111. The power delay profile helps in determining
a. Excess delay
b. rms delay spread
c. Excess delay spread
d. All of these
Answer: d
112. GMSK is a of MSK.
a) Integral
b) Opposite
c) Derivative
d) Similar
Answer: c
113. Which of the following is not a property of MSK?
a) Variable envelope
b) Spectral efficiency
c) Good BER performance
d) Self synchronizing capability
Answer: a
114. MSK is a special form of OQPSK. State whether True or False.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
115. The name minimum phase shift keying implies minimum
a) Frequency separation
b) Amplitude separation
c) Phase change
d) Amplitude deviation
Answer: a
116. MSK stands for
a) Maximum shift keying
b) Minimum shift keying
c) Minimum space keying
d) Maximum space keying
Answer: b
117. The technique that may be used to reduce the side band power is
a. MSK
b. BPSK
c. Gaussian minimum shift keying
d. BFSK
Answer: c
118. QPSK is a modulation scheme where each symbol consists of
a. 4 bits
b. 2 bits
c. 1 bits
d. M number of bits, depending upon the requirement

Answer: b
119. The propagation path loss
a) increases with frequency of transmission but decreases with the distance
b) decreases with frequency of transmission as well as the distance
c) increases with frequency of transmission as well as the distance
d) is always constant, independent of frequency of transmission and distance
Answer: c
120. As the Eb/No ratio increases, the bit rate
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) approaches infinity
Answer: b
121. A is the one which passes all spectral components with approximately equal
gain and linear phase and without any distortion
a) Rayleigh Fading Channel
b) Rician Fading Channel
c) Frequency-selective channel
d) Flat Channel
Answer: d
122. occurs when the radio path between a transmitter and receiver is obstructed
by a surface with sharp irregular edges
a) Scattering
b) Refraction
c) Reflection
d) Diffraction
Answer: d
123. It is difficult to achieve accurate timing, synchronization and phase recovery at the mobile receiver.
It is attributed mainly to the effect of
a) Doppler spread of the received signal
b) multipath propagation reception
c) scattering of the transmitted signal
d) non line of sight propagation
Answer: a
124. Constant envelope modulation techniques occupy bandwidth than linear modulation
schemes.
a) Larger
b) Smaller
c) Same
d) Twice
Answer: a
125. The phase difference between a direct line of sight path and diffracted path is function of
a) Height and position of obstruction
b) Only height
c) Operating frequency
d) Polarization
Answer: a
126. Path loss in free space model is defined as difference of
a) Effective transmitted power and gain
b) Effective received power and distance between T-R
c) Gain and received power
d) Effective transmitter power and receiver power
Answer: d
127. When probability of error during transmission is 0.5, it indicates that

a. Channel is very noisy
b. No information is received
c. Errors are low
d. Channel allows max transmission rate
Ans:- b
128. The capacity of Gaussian channel is

a. C = 2B(1+S/N) bits/s
b. C = B2(1+S/N) bits/s
c. C = B(1+S/N) bits/s
d. C = B(1+S/N)2 bits/s
Ans:- c
129. For M equally likely messages, the average amount of information H is

a. H = log10M
b. H = log2M
c. H = log10M2
d. H = 2log10M
Ans:- a
130. When X and Y are statistically independent, then I (x,y) is

a. 1
b. 0
c. ln 2
d. Cannot be determined
Ans:- b
131. Lempel-Ziv algorithm is

a. Variable to fixed length algorithm
b. Fixed to variable length algorithm
c. Fixed to fixed length algorithm
d. Variable to variable length algorithm
Ans:- a
132. Which is more efficient method?

a. Encoding each symbol of a block
b. Encoding block of symbols
c. Neither of the other options
Ans:- b
133. Entropy of a random variable is

a. 1
b. 0
c. Infinity
d. Cannot be determined
Ans:- b
134. Mutual Information is

a. Symmetric
b. Always non-negative
c. Neither Symmetric nor non-negative
d. Symmetric and non-negative
Ans:- d
135. Entropy and Mutual Information are related as :

a. I(X;Y) = H(X) – H (X| Y)
b. I(X;Y) = H (X| Y) - H (Y| X)
c. I(X;Y) = H(X) - H(Y)
d. I(X;Y) = H(Y) - H(X)
Ans:- A
136. For hamming distance dmin and t errors in the received word, the condition to be able to
correct the errors is .
a. Only 2t + 1 ≤ dmin
b. Only 2t + 2 ≤ dmin
c. Only 2t + 1 ≤ 2dmi
d. 2t + 1 ≤ dmin and 2t + 2 ≤ dmin
Ans:- d
137. ISI may be removed by using

a. Differential coding
b. Manchester coding
c. Polar NRZ
d. Bipolar RZ
Ans:- a
138. If each pulse of the sequence to be detected is in shape, the pulse can be
detected without ISI
a. Sine
b. Cosine
c. Sinc
d. Rectangular
Ans:- c
139. The minimum nyquist bandwidth for the rectangular spectrum in raised cosine filter is
a. 2T
b. 1/(2T)
c. T2
d. 2/T
Ans:- b
140. Roll off factor is the fraction of

a. Excess bandwidth and absolute bandwidth
b. Excess bandwidth and minimum nyquist bandwidth
c. Absolute bandwidth and minimum nyquist bandwidth
Ans:- b
141. The time interval over which the received signal may be sampled without error may be
explained by
a. Width of eye opening of eye pattern
b. Rate of closure of eye of eye pattern
c. Height of the eye opening of eye pattern
d. Excursion over the eye
Ans:- a
142. To guarantee detection of up to “S” errors in all cases, minimum hamming distance in a
block code must be
a. S
b. S +1
c. S -1
d. 0
Ans:- b
143. In a linear block code, exclusive OR (XOR) of any two valid code words creates
a. valid codeword
b. invalid codeword
c. valid data
d. invalid data
Ans:- a
144. Entropy is
a. Information in a signal
b. Average information per message
c. Amplitude of signal
d. Power of signal
Ans:- b
8. Regenerative feedback is also called as_________________
a) Negative feedback
b) Positive feedback
c) No feedback
d) Negative and Positive Feedback
9. Which of the following are the characteristics of regenerative feedback:

a) Zero damping
b) Stable
c) Least sensitive to parameter variations
10. Which of the following are true:

a) Sensitivity of regenerative feedback is more than negative feedback but less than non-
feedback system
b) Sensitivity of regenerative feedback is more non-feedback system but less than negative
feedback system
c) Sensitivity of regenerative feedback is less than both
d) Sensitivity of regenerative feedback is more than both
11. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used?
a) Error detector
b) Final control element
c) Sensor
d) Oscillator
12. In a control system the output of the controller is given to

a) Final control element
b) Amplifier
c) Comparator
d) Sensor
13. A controller, essentially, is a

a) Sensor
b) Clipper
c) Comparator
d) Amplifier
14. Which of the following is the input to a controller?

a) Servo signal
b) Desired variable value
c) Error signal
d) Sensed signal
15. The on-off controller is a _____ system
a) Digital
b) Linear
c) Non-linear
d) Discontinuous
16. The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to

a) Momentum
b) Velocity
c) Displacement
d) Mass
17. The temperature, under thermal and electrical system analogy, is considered
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Capacitance
d) Charge
18. In electrical-pneumatic system analogy the current is considered analogous to

a) Velocity
b) Pressure
c) Air flow
d) Air flow rate
19. The use of feedback element in the feedback loop is:

a) It converts the output variable ‘c’ to another suitable feedback variable ‘b’ to compare with the
input command signal
b) It is the actuating element
c) To increase the stability
20. The major components of a controller are

a) Control element
b) Error detector and control element
c) Feedback element
d) Error detector and feedback element
21. Which of the following is not the feature of modern control system?
a) Quick response
b) Accuracy
c) Correct power level
d) No oscillation
22. The output of the feedback control system must be a function of:
a) Reference input
b) Reference output
c) Output and feedback signal
d) Input and feedback signal
23. In regenerating the feedback, the transfer function is given by

a) C(s)/R(s)=G(s)/1+G(s)H(s)
b) C(s)/R(s)=G(s)H(s)/1-G(s)H(s)
c) C(s)/R(s)=G(s)/1+G(s)H(s)
d) C(s)/R(s)=G(s)/1-G(s)H(s)
24. A transfer function has two zeroes at infinity. Then the relation between the numerator(N)
and the denominator degree(M) of the transfer function is:
a) N=M+2
b) N=M-2
c) N=M+1
d) N=M-1
25. When deriving the transfer function of a linear element

a) Both initial conditions and loading are taken into account
b) Initial conditions are taken into account but the element is assumed to be not loaded
c) Initial conditions are assumed to be zero but loading is taken into account
d) ) Initial conditions are assumed to be zero and the element is assumed to be not loaded
26. Lead compensation leads to:

a) Increases bandwidth
b) Attenuation
c) Increases damping factor
d) Second order
27. The class of linear time varying causal SISO dynamic systems is typically characterized by
a) linear ODEs with constant coefficients
b) nonlinear ODEs with constant coefficients
c) linear ODEs with time varying coefficients
d) nonlinear ODEs with time varying coefficients
28. Rate compensation :

a) Increases bandwidth
b) Attenuation
c) Increases damping factor
d) Second order
29. Which of the following may result in instability problem?
a) Large error
b) High selectivity
c) High gain
d) Noise
30. Routh Hurwitz criterion cannot be applied when the characteristic equation of the system
containing coefficient’s which is/are
a) Exponential function of s
b) Sinusoidal function of s
c) Complex
d) Exponential and sinusoidal function of s and complex
31. Which of the test signals are best utilized by the stability analysis
a) Impulse
b) Step
c) Ramp
d) Parabolic
32. For making an unstable system stable:

a) Gain of the system should be increased
b) Gain of the system should be decreased
c) The number of zeroes to the loop transfer function should be increased
d) The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased
33. OLTF contains one zero in right half of s-plane then

a) Open loop system is unstable
b) Close loop system is unstable
c) Close loop system is unstable for higher gain
d) Close loop system is stable
34. The critical value of gain for a system is 40 and gain margin is 6dB. The system is operating
at a gain of:
a) 20
b) 40
c) 80
d) 120
35. The roots of the characteristic equation of the second order system in which real and
imaginary part represents the :
a) Damped frequency and damping
b) Natural frequency and damping ratio
c) Damping ratio and damped frequency
d) Damping ratio and natural frequency
36. The polar plot of a transfer function passes through the critical point (-1,0). Gain margin is
a) Zero
b) -1dB
c) 1dB
d) Infinity
37. If the gain of the open-loop system is doubled, the gain margin
a) Is not affected
b) Gets doubled
c) Becomes half
d) Becomes one-fourth
38. For the transfer function

G(s) H(s) = 1 / s(s+1) (s+0.5), the phase cross-over frequency is
a) 0.5 rad/sec
b) 0.707 rad/sec
c) 1.732 rad/sec
d) 2 rad/sec
39. . Consider the following statements:

The gain margin and phase margin of an unstable system may respectively be
1. Positive, positive
2. Positive, negative
3. Negative, positive
4. Negative, negative
Of these statements,
a) 1 and 4 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d) 2,3 and 4 are correct
40. For a stable closed loop system, the gain at phase crossover frequency should always be:
a) < 20 dB
b) < 6 dB
c) > 6 dB
d) > 0 dB
41. Which one of the following methods can determine the closed loop system resonance
frequency operation?
a) Root locus method
b) Nyquist method
c) Bode plot
d) M and N circle
42. The critical value of gain for the system is 40. The system is operating at a gain of 20. The
gain margin of the system is :
a) 2 dB
b) 3 dB
c) 6 dB
d) 4 dB
43. The phase angle of the system G(s) =s+5/s2+4s+9;varies between

a) 0° and 90°
b) 0° and -90°
c) 0° and -180°
d) -90° and -180°
44. The main objective of drawing root locus plot is

a) To obtain a clear picture about the open loop poles and zeroes of the system
b) To obtain a clear picture about the transient response of feedback system for various values of
open loop gain K
c) To determine sufficient condition for the value of ‘K’ that will make the feedback system
unstable
d) To obtain a clear picture about the transient response of feedback system for various values of
open loop gain K and To determine sufficient condition for the value of ‘K’ that will make the
feedback system unstable
45. The addition of open loop poles pulls the root locus towards:
a) The right and system becomes stable
b) Imaginary axis and system becomes marginally stable
c) The left and system becomes unstable
d) The right and system becomes unstable
46. Root locus is used to calculate:

a) Marginal stability
b) Absolute stability
c) Conditional stability
d) Relative stability
47. Number of roots of characteristic equation is equal to the number of ______________

a) Branches
b) Root
c) Stem
d) Poles
48. What is the number of the root locus segments which do not terminate on zeroes?
a) The number of poles
b) The number of zeroes
c) The difference between the number of poles and zeroes
d) The sum of the number of poles and the number of the zeroes
49. Which one of the following are correct?
The root locus is the path of the roots of the characteristic equation traced out in the s-plane?
a) As the input of the system is changed
b) As the output of the system is changed
c) As a system parameter is changed
d) As the sensitivity is changed
50. If the gain of the system is reduced to a zero value, the roots of the system in the s-plane,
a) Coincide with zero
b) Move away from zero
c) Move away from poles
d) Coincide with the poles
----------Answer Key----------
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (c)
5. (d)
6. (a)
7. (c)
8. (b)
9. (a)
10. (c)
11. (a)
12. (a)
13. (c)
14. (c)
15. (d)
16. (d)
17. (a)
18. (d)
19. (a)
20. (b)
21. (d)
22. (d)
23. (d)
24. (b)
25. (c)
26. (a)
27. (c)
28. (c)
29. (c)
30. (d)
31. (a)
32. (b)
33. (c)
34. (a)
35. (c)
36. (a)
37. (a)
38. (b)
39. (d)
40. (d)
41. (d)
42. (c)
43. (c)
44. (d)
45. (d)
46. (d)
47. (a)
48. (c)
49. (c)
50. (d)
1. If a signal passing through a gate is inhibited by sending a LOW into one of the inputs, and the output
is HIGH, the gate is
a) AND
b) NAND
c) NOR
d) OR
2. In 2's complement form, 10010011 represents
a) -109
b) +109
c) -91
d) +91
3. Which one of the following expressions does not represent exclusive NOR of x and y
a) xy+x’y’
b) x⊕y’
c) x’⊕y
d) x’⊕y’
4. Define the connective * for the Boolean variables X and Y as: X * Y = XY + X’ Y’. Let Z = X * Y. Consider
the following expressions P, Q and R.
P: X = Y⋆Z
Q: Y = X⋆Z
R: X⋆Y⋆Z=1
Which of the following is TRUE?
a) Only P and Q are valid
b) Only Q and R are valid.
c) Only Q and R are valid.
d) All P, Q, R are valid.
5. Which digital system translates coded characters into a more useful form?
a) Encoder
b) Decoder
c) Counter
d) Display
6. An AND gate has two inputs A and B and one inhibit input S, Output is 1 if
a) A = 1, B = 1, S = 1
b) A = 1, B = 1, S = 0
c) A = 1, B = 0, S = 1
d) A = 1, B = 0, S = 0
7. In a BCD to 7 segment decoder the minimum and maximum number of outputs active at any time is
….
a) 2 and 7
b) 3 and 7
c) 1 and 6
d) 3 and 6
8. In a BCD-to-seven-segment converter, why must a code converter be utilized?
a) To convert the 4-bit BCD into 7-bit code
b) To convert the 4-bit BCD into 10-bit code
c) To convert the 4-bit BCD into gray code
d) No conversion is necessary
9. Max term designation for A + B + C is
a) M0
b) M1
c) M3
d) M4
10. How many gates would be required to implement the following Boolean expression after
simplification? XY + X(X + Z) + Y(X + Z)
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
11. Which of the examples below expresses the distributive law of Boolean algebra?
a) (A + B) + C = A + (B + C)
b) A(B + C) = AB + AC
c) A + (B + C) = AB + AC
d) A(BC) = (AB) + C
12. CMOS logic dissipates _______ power than NMOS logic circuits
a) More
b) Less
c) Equal
d) None of the Mentioned
13. TTL stands for
a) Transistor Transistor logic
b) Tristate Transistor logic
c) Transistor Tristate logic
d) Tristate Tristate logic
14. Which of the following combinations of logic gates can decode binary 1101?
a) One 4-input AND gate.
b) One 4-input AND gate, one OR gate.
c) One 4-input NAND gate, one inverter.
d) One 4-input AND gate, one inverter
15. Which of the following expressions is in the product-of-sums form?
a) (A + B)(C + D)
b) (AB)(CD)
c) AB(CD)
d) AB + CD
16. The complex programmable logic device (CPLD) features ________ type of memory.
42. The critical value of gain for the system is 40. The system is operating at a gain of 20. The
gain margin of the system is :
a) 2 dB
b) 3 dB
c) 6 dB
d) 4 dB
43. The phase angle of the system G(s) =s+5/s2+4s+9;varies between

a) 0° and 90°
b) 0° and -90°
c) 0° and -180°
d) -90° and -180°
44. The main objective of drawing root locus plot is

a) To obtain a clear picture about the open loop poles and zeroes of the system
b) To obtain a clear picture about the transient response of feedback system for various values of
open loop gain K
c) To determine sufficient condition for the value of ‘K’ that will make the feedback system
unstable
d) To obtain a clear picture about the transient response of feedback system for various values of
open loop gain K and To determine sufficient condition for the value of ‘K’ that will make the
feedback system unstable
45. The addition of open loop poles pulls the root locus towards:
a) The right and system becomes stable
b) Imaginary axis and system becomes marginally stable
c) The left and system becomes unstable
d) The right and system becomes unstable
46. Root locus is used to calculate:

a) Marginal stability
b) Absolute stability
c) Conditional stability
d) Relative stability
47. Number of roots of characteristic equation is equal to the number of ______________

a) Branches
b) Root
c) Stem
d) Poles
48. What is the number of the root locus segments which do not terminate on zeroes?
a) The number of poles
b) The number of zeroes
c) The difference between the number of poles and zeroes
d) The sum of the number of poles and the number of the zeroes
a) A + B
b) B+C
c) A’+ B+ C
d) A’+B’+C’
21. The main stairway in a block of flats has two switches for controlling the lights. Switch A is located at
the top of the stairs, and switch B is positioned at the bottom of the stairs. The light is ON when both
switches are in the same position, the light is OFF otherwise. Obtain the Boolean expression to control
the light on the staircase.
a) A + B
b) AB + A’B’
c) A’+ B+ C
d) A’+B’+C’
22. The Universal gates are
a) AND,OR
b) NAND, NOR
c) XOR, XNOR
d) NOR, OR
23. A typical TTL gate has a fan-out of
a) 2
b) 4
c) 10
d) 3
24. Assume a 4 X 1 Multiplexer's four inputs presently have the following values i0 = 1, i1 = 1, i2 = 0,
and i3 = 0 . What would be the output of MUX for the select input 11?
a) 11
b) 0
c) 1
d) 10
25. How many select lines are there in a 16 X 1 MUX?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
26. Convert binary 111111110010 to hexadecimal.
a) EE2
b) FF2
c) 2FE
d) FD2
27. Convert the binary number 1001.0010 to decimal
a) 90.125
b) 9.125
c) 125
d) 12.5
28. Which of the following is the most widely used alphanumeric code for computer input and output?
a) Gray
b) ASCII
c) Parity
d) EBCDIC
29. If a typical PC uses a 20-bit address code, how much memory can the CPU address?
a) 20 MB
b) 10 MB
c) 1 MB
d) 580 MB
30. Assign the proper odd parity bit to the code 111001.
a) 1111011
b) 1111001
c) 0111111
d) 0011111
31. A binary number's value changes most drastically when the ________ is changed.
a) MSB
b) frequency
c) LSB
d) duty cycle
32. The sum of the two BCD numbers, 0111 + 0011, is ________.
a) 1001
b) 0111
c) 0011
d) 1100
33. Convert 1100101000110101 to hexadecimal.
a) 121035
b) CA35
c) 53AC1
d) 530121
34. Two’s complement of decimal 111 is ________.
a) 0001011
b) 0001100
c) 0010001
d) 0010010
35. Convert the binary number 1100 to Gray code.
a) 0011
b) 1010
c) 1100
d) 1001
36. Which of the following is an invalid BCD code?
a) 0011
b) 1101
c) 0101
d) 1001
37. Determine the decimal equivalent of the signed binary number 11110100 in 1's complement.
a) 116
b) –12
c) 11
d) 128
38. In Boolean algebra, the word "literal" means ________.
a) a product term
b) all the variables in a Boolean expression
c) the inverse function
d) a variable or its complement
39. An AND gate with schematic "bubbles" on its inputs performs the same function as a(n)________
gate.
a) NOT
b) OR
c) NOR
d) NAND
40. How many two input gates would be required to implement the following Boolean expression before
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
41. What is the primary motivation for using Boolean algebra to simplify logic expressions?
a) It may make it easier to understand the overall function of the circuit.
b) It may reduce the number of gates.
c) It may reduce the number of inputs required.
d) all of the three options
42. AC + ABC in reduced form is equal to
a) 1
b) 0
c) ABC
d) AC
43. When A' B ' are the inputs to a NAND gate, according to De Morgan's theorem, the output
expression could be:
a) X = A + B
b) X=(AB)'
c) X = (A)(B)
d) X=AB'
44. Applying DeMorgan's theorem to the expression ((X+Y)'+Z ' ) ' , we get ________
a) (X+Y)Z
b) (X '+Y' )Z
c) (X+Y)Z '
8. In a BCD-to-seven-segment converter, why must a code converter be utilized?
a) To convert the 4-bit BCD into 7-bit code
b) To convert the 4-bit BCD into 10-bit code
c) To convert the 4-bit BCD into gray code
d) No conversion is necessary
9. Max term designation for A + B + C is
a) M0
b) M1
c) M3
d) M4
10. How many gates would be required to implement the following Boolean expression after
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
11. Which of the examples below expresses the distributive law of Boolean algebra?
a) (A + B) + C = A + (B + C)
b) A(B + C) = AB + AC
c) A + (B + C) = AB + AC
d) A(BC) = (AB) + C
d) NAND
49. Which of the following combinations cannot be combined into K-map groups?
a) corners in the same row
b) corners in the same column
c) diagonal
d) overlapping combinations
50. AND operation can be produced with
a) 2 NAND gates
b) 3 NAND gates
c) 1 NOR gate
d) 3 NOR gates
51. When four 1s are taken as a group on a Karnaugh map, the number of variables eliminated from the
output expression is ________.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
52. A certain digital-to-analog converter has a step size of 0.25V and a full-scale output of 7.75V.
Determine the percent of resolution and the number of input binary bits.
a) 3.23% 5 bits
b) 3.23% 4 bits
c) 31% 4 bits
d) 31% 5 bits
53. An actuator is usually a device that:
a) converts analog data to meaningful digital data.
b) stores digital data and then processes that data according to a set of specified instructions.
c) controls a physical variable.
d) is a microprocessor
54. When comparing the conversions from digital-to-analog and analog-to-digital, the A/D conversion is
generally:
a) more complicated and more time consuming than the D/A conversion.
b) less complicated but more time consuming than the D/A conversion.
c) more complicated but less time consuming than the D/A conversion.
d) less complicated and less time consuming than the D/A conversion.
55. The quantization error in an analog-to-digital converter can be reduced by:
a) decreasing the number of bits in the counter and increasing the number of bits in the DAC.
b) decreasing the number of bits in the counter and DAC.
c) increasing the number of bits in the counter and decreasing the number of bits in the DAC.
d) increasing the number of bits in the counter and DAC.
56. Two principal advantages of the Dual-Slope ADC are its:
a) high speed and low cost
b) high sensitivity to noise and low cost.
c) low sensitivity to noise and low cost.
d) low sensitivity to noise and high speed.

57. An analog quantity varies from 0-7V and is input to a 6-bit A/D converter. What analog value is
represented by each step on the digital output?
a) 1.17V
b) 0.857V
c) 0.111V
d) 0.109V
58. What is the major advantage of the R/2R ladder DAC as compared to a binary-weighted-input DAC?
a) The virtual ground is eliminated and the circuit is therefore easier to understand and troubleshoot.
b) It has fewer parts for the same number of inputs.
c) It uses only two different resistor values.
d) Its operation is much more easily analyzed.
59. What is the percentage resolution of a D/A converter?
a) It is the deviation between the ideal straight-line output and the actual output of the converter
expressed as a percentage.
b) It is the reciprocal of the number of discrete steps in the D/A output expressed as a percentage.
c) It is the comparison between the actual output of the converter and its expected output expressed as
a percentage.
d) It is the ability to resolve between forward and reverse steps when sequenced over its entire range of
inputs.
60. What is the resolution, in percent, of a 12-bit DAC?
a) 8.33
b) 0.000488
c) 0.0244
d) 0.083
61. A 4-bit digital-ramp A/D converter has a clock frequency of 100kHz and maximum input voltage of
10V.
a) The maximum number of samples per second will be 6250.
b) The minimum sample rate will be 6250 samples/second.
c) The minimum sample rate will be 100,000 samples/second.
d) The maximum sample rate will be 100,000 samples/second.
62. What is the main disadvantage of the digital-ramp A/D converter?
a) It requires a precision clock in order for the conversion to be reliable.
b) It requires an enable signal together with precision clock
c) The counter must count up from zero at the beginning of each conversion sequence, and the
conversion time will vary depending on the input voltage.
d) It requires a counter.
63. Which of the following describes the basic operation of a single-slope A/D converter.
a) Any of the above could be correct, depending on the specific type of A/D converter involved.
b) A ramp voltage and analog input voltage are applied to a comparator. As the input voltage causes the
integrating capacitor to charge, it will at some point equal the ramp voltage. The ramp voltage is
measured and displayed on the digital panel meter.
c) A ramp generator is used to enable a counter through a comparator. When the ramp voltage equals
the input voltage the counter is latched and then reset. The counter reading is proportional to the input
voltage since the ramp is changing at a constant V/second rate.
d) The input voltage is used to set the frequency of a voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO). The VCO quits
changing frequency when the input voltage stabilizes. The frequency of the VCO, which is proportional
to the analog input voltage, is measured and is displayed on the digital display as a voltage reading.
64. One disadvantage of the tracking A/D converter is:

a) A + B
b) B+C
c) A’+ B+ C
d) A’+B’+C’
21. The main stairway in a block of flats has two switches for controlling the lights. Switch A is located at
the top of the stairs, and switch B is positioned at the bottom of the stairs. The light is ON when both
switches are in the same position, the light is OFF otherwise. Obtain the Boolean expression to control
the light on the staircase.
a) A + B
b) AB + A’B’
c) A’+ B+ C
d) A’+B’+C’
22. The Universal gates are
a) AND,OR
b) NAND, NOR
c) XOR, XNOR
d) NOR, OR
23. A typical TTL gate has a fan-out of
a) 2
b) 4
c) 10
d) 3
enables the counter until the capacitor is discharged, at which time the counter value is loaded into the
output latches.
d) A ramp generator is used to enable a counter through a comparator. When the ramp voltage equals
the input voltage, the counter is latched and then reset. The counter reading is proportional to the input
voltage since the ramp is changing at a constant V/second rate.
68.
What is the linearity error of a D/A converter?
a) It is the comparison between the actual output of the converter and its expected output.
b) It is the maximum deviation in step size from the ideal step size.
c) It is the reciprocal of the number of discrete steps in the D/A output.
d) The ability to resolve between forward and reverse steps when sequenced over its entire range of
inputs.
69. What is full-scale error of a D/A converter?
a) It is the deviation between the ideal straight-line output and the actual output of the converter.
b) It is the reciprocal of the number of discrete steps in the D/A output.
c) The ability to resolve between forward and reverse steps when sequenced over its entire range of
inputs.
d) It is the maximum deviation of the output of the converter from its expected output.
70. Which of the equations below expresses the voltage gain relationship for an operational amplifier?
a) Vin/Vout = Rout/Rin
b) Vout/Vin = -Rf/Rin
c) Vout/Vin = -Rin/Rf
d) Vout/Vin = Rout/Rin
71. Which of the following characterizes an analog quantity?
a) Discrete levels represent changes in a quantity.
b) Has a continuous set of values over a given range.
c) Its values follow a logarithmic response curve.
d) Can be described with a finite number of steps.
72. An analog-to-digital converter has a four-bit output. How many analog values can it represent?
a) 0.0625
b) 0.25
c) 4
d) 16
73. What is the purpose of a sample-and-hold circuit?
a) To hold data after a multiplexer has selected an output
b) To hold a voltage constant so an ADC has time to produce an output
c) To hold a voltage constant so a DAC has time to produce an output
d) To keep temporary memory
74. The difference between analog voltage represented by two adjacent digital codes, or the analog step
size, is the:
a) Resolution
b) Quantization
c) Accuracy
d) Monotonicity
75. A binary-weighted digital-to-analog converter has an input resistor of 100 k . If the resistor is
connected to a 5 V source, the current through the resistor is:
a) 50 µA
b) 50 mA
c) 5 mA
d) 500 µA
76. A binary input 000 is fed to a 3bit DAC/ADC. The resultant output is 101. Find the type of error?
a) Settling error
b) Gain error
c) Offset error
d) Linearity error
77. 8051 Microcontroller has how many 16 bit registers?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 0
78. How are the bits of the register PSW affected if we select Bank2 of 8051?
a) PSW.5=0 and PSW.4=1
b) PSW.2=0 and PSW.3=1
c) PSW.3=1 and PSW.4=1
d) PSW.3=0 and PSW.4=1

79. On power up, the 8051 uses which RAM locations for register R0- R7?
a) 00-2F
b) 00-07
c) 00-7F
d) 00-0F
80. The 8051 can handle ________ interrupt sources.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
81. In 8051, I/O ports that are used as address and data for external memory are
a) port 1 and 2
b) port 1 and 3
c) port 0 and 2
d) port 0 and 3
82. How is the status of the carry, auxiliary carry and parity flag affected in 8051 PSW register, if
following instruction get executed,
MOV A,#9C
ADD A,#64H
a) CY=0,AC=0,P=0
b) CY=1,AC=1,P=0
c) CY=0,AC=1,P=0
d) CY=1,AC=1,P=1
83. The contents of the accumulator after this operation,
MOV A,#0BH
ANL A,#2CH
a) 11010111
b) 11011010
c) 00001000
d) 00101000
84. Which commands are used for addressing the off-chip data and associated codes respectively by
data pointer in 8051 instructions?
a) MOVX & MOVC
b) MOVY & MOVB
c) MOVZ & MOVA
d) MOVC & MOVY
85. What is the correct order of priority that is set after a controller gets reset?
a) TI/RI > T1 > T0 >EX1 > EX0
b) TI/RI < T1 < T0<EX1 < EX0
c) EX0 > T0 > EX1 >T1> TI/RI
d) EX0 < T0 < EX1 < T1 < TI/RI
86. Find the number of times the following loop will be executed by the 8051 microcontroller?
MOV R6,#200
BACK:MOV R5,#100
HERE:DJNZ R5, HERE
DJNZ R6,BACK
END
a) 100
b) 200
c) 20000
d) 50000
87. What should be done if we want to double the baud rate in 8051 serial communication?
a) change a bit of the TMOD register
b) change a bit of the PCON register
c) change a bit of the SCON register
d) change a bit of the SBUF register
88. What steps are followed when we need to turn on any timer in 8051 microcontroller?
a) load the count, start the timer, keep monitoring it, stop the timer
b) load the TMOD register, load the count, start the timer, keep monitoring it, stop the timer
c) load the TMOD register, start the timer,load the count, keep monitoring it, stop the timer
d) load the TCON register and SCON register
89. Does the two instructions mean the same in 8051 microcontroller?
1)BACK: DEC R0
JZ BACK
2) BACK: DJNZ RO, BACK
a) yes
b) no
c) can’t be determined
d) yes and second one is preferred
90. How many bytes of bit addressable memory is present in 8051 based micro controllers?
a) 8 bytes
b) 32 bytes
c) 16 bytes
d) 128 bytes
91. The total external data memory that can be interfaced to the 8051 is,
a) 32K
b) 64K
c) 128K
d) 256K
92. How many registers can be utilized to write the programs by an effective selection of register bank in
program status word (PSW)?
a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
d) 64
93. in 8051, Auto reload mode is allowed in which mode of the timer?
a) Mode 0
b) Mode 1
c) Mode 2
d) Mode 3
94. Which among the below mentioned reasons is/are responsible for the generation of 8051 Serial Port
Interrupt?
A. Overflow of timer/counter 1
B. High to low transition on pin INT1
C. High to low transition on pin INT0
D. Setting of either TI or RI flag
a) A & B
b) Only B
c) C & D
d) Only D
95. In 8051 which interrupt has highest priority?
a) INT1
b) TF0
c) INT0
d) TF1
96. Which of the following supprots bit-level operations?
i.SP
ii.P2
iii.TMOD
iv.SBUF
v.IP
a) ii, v only
b) ii, iv, v only
c) i, v only
d) iii, ii only
97. In 8051, a valid division instruction always makes,
a) CY=0,AC=1
b) CY=1,AC=1
c) CY=0,AC=0
d) no relation with AC and CY
98. Which one of the following is valid for MOV SCON, #88H?
a) 8-bit, 1-start bit, 1-stop bit, Receive enabled
b) 9-bit, 1-start bit, 1-stop bit, Receive disabled
c) 9-bit, 1-start bit, 1-stop bit, Receive enabled
d) 8-bit, 1-start bit, 1-stop bit, Receive disabled
99. In 8051, I/O port that does not have a dual-purpose role is?
a) Port-0
b) Port-1
c) Port-2
d) Port-3
100. In 8051, MOV A, @ R1 will perform the operation of
a) copy R1 to the accumulator

b) copy the accumulator to R1
c) copy the contents of memory whose address is in R1 to the accumulator
d) copy the accumulator to the contents of memory whose address is in R1
101. Find out the roll over value for the 8051 timer in Mode 0, Mode 1 and Mode 2?
a) 00FFH,0FFFH,FFFFH
b) 1FFFH,0FFFH,FFFFH
c) 1FFFH,FFFFH,00FFH
d) 1FFFH,00FFH,FFFFH
102. MOV A,0FFh
XRL A,#15h yields
a) A=77h
b) A=FFh
c) A=15h
d) A=00h
103. Since, ROM has the capability to read the information only then also it has been designed, why?
a) For controlling purpose
b) For loading purpose
c) For booting purpose
d) For erasing purpose
104. The ROM is a
a) Sequential circuit
b) Combinational circuit
c) Magnetic circuit
d) Static circuit
105. ROM is made up of
a) NAND and OR gates
b) NAND and AND gates
c) Decoder and OR gates
d) NAND and decoder
106. Why are ROMs called non-volatile memory?
a) They lose memory when power is removed
b) They do not lose memory when power is removed
c) They lose memory when power is supplied
d) They do not lose memory when power is supplied
107. In ROM, each bit is a combination of the address variables is called
a) Memory unit
b) Storage class
c) Data word
d) Address
108. The MOS technology based semiconductor ROMs are classified into _____ categories.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
109. MOS ROM is constructed using
a) FETs
b) Transistors
c) MOSFETs
d) BJTs
110. Which ROM can be erased by an electrical signal?
a) ROM
b) Mask ROM
c) EPROM
d) EEPROM
111. What is the major difference between DRAM and SRAM?
a) Dynamic RAMs are always active; static RAMs must reset between data read/write cycles
b) SRAMs can hold data via a static charge, even with power off
c) The only difference is the terminal from which the data is removed—from the FET Drain or Source
d) DRAMs must be periodically refreshed
112. On execcuting
MOV A, #0A5h
RRC A
yields
a) A=25h
b) A=52h
c) A=22h
d) A=55h
113. By which technology, semiconductor memories are constructed?
a) PLD
b) LSI
c) VLSI
d) Both LSI and VLSI
114. The chip by which both the operation of read and write is performed
a) RAM
b) ROM
c) PROM
d) EPROM
115. RAM is also known as
a) RWM
b) MBR
c) MAR
116. Computers invariably use RAM for
a) High complexity
b) High resolution
c) High speed main memory
d) High flexibility
117. Static RAM employs
a) BJT or MOSFET
b) FET or JFET
c) Capacitor or BJT
d) BJT or MOS
118. The magnetic core memories have been replaced by semiconductor RAMs, why?
a) Semiconductor RAMs are highly flexible
b) Semiconductor RAMs has highest storing capacity
c) Semiconductor RAMs are smaller in size
d) All of the Mentioned
119. The memory capacity of a static RAM varies from
a) 32 bit to 64 bit
b) 64 bit to 1024 bit
c) 64 bit to 1 Mega bit
d) 512 bit to 1 Mega bit
120. Which of the following RAM is volatile in nature?
a) SRAM
b) DRAM
c) EEPROM
d) Both SRAM and DRAM
121. Which of the following IC implements the static MOS RAM?
a) TMS 4015
b) TMS 4014
c) TMS 4016
d) TMS 2114
122. Dynamic RAM is more preferable than static RAM, why?
a) DRAM is of the lowest cost, lowest density
b) DRAM is of the highest cost, reduced size
c) DRAM is of the lowest cost, highest density
d) DRAM is more flexible and lowest storage capacity
123. The DRAM stores its binary information on
a) MOSFET
b) Transistor
c) Capacitor
d) BJT
124. Dynamic RAM is used as main memory in a computer system as
a) It has lower cell density
b) It needs refreshing circuitry

c) Consumes less power
d) Has higher speed
125. Which characteristic of RAM memory makes it not suitable for permanent storage?
a) Unreliable
b) Too slow
c) Too bulky
d) It is volatile
126. A ripple counter's speed is limited by the propagation delay of:
a) each flip-flop
b) all flip-flops and gates
c) the flip-flops only with gates
d) only circuit gates
127. What type of register would shift a complete binary number in one bit at a time and shift all the
stored bits out one bit at a time?
a) PIPO
b) SISO
c) SIPO
d) PISO
128. Synchronous counters eliminate the delay problems encountered with asynchronous (ripple)
counters because the:
a) input clock pulses are applied only to the first and last stages
b) input clock pulses are applied only to the last stage

c) input clock pulses are not used to activate any of the counter stages
d) input clock pulses are applied simultaneously to each stage
129. One of the major drawbacks to the use of asynchronous counters is that:
a) Low-frequency applications are limited because of internal propagation delays
b) High-frequency applications are limited because of internal propagation delays
c) Asynchronous counters do not have major drawbacks and are suitable for use in high- and low-
frequency counting applications.
d) Asynchronous counters do not have propagation delays, which limits their use in high-frequency
applications.
130. Mod-6 and mod-12 counters are most commonly used in:
a) Frequency counters
b) Multiplexed displays
c) Digital clocks
d) Power consumption meters
131. What is/are the crucial function/s of memory elements used in the sequential circuits?
a) Storage of binary information
b) Specify the state of sequential
c) Both A & B
132. Which memory elements are utilized in asynchronous & clocked sequential circuits respectively?
a) Time- delay devices & registers
b) Time- delay devices & flip-flops

c) Time- delay devices & counters
d) Time-delay devices & latches
133. The characteristic equation of D-flip-flop implies that _____.
a) The next state is dependent on previous state
b) The next state is dependent on present state
c) The next state is independent of previous state
d) The next state is independent of present state
134. What is the bit storage binary information capacity of any flip-flop?
a) 1 bit
b) 2 bits
c) 16 bits
d) infinite bits
135. What is/are the directional mode/s of shifting the binary information in a shift register?
a) Up-Down
b) Left - Right
c) Front - Back
136. A counter is fundamentally a _________ sequential circuit that proceeds through the
predetermined sequence of states only when input pulses are applied to it.
a) Register
b) Memory unit
c) Flip-flop
d) Arithmetic logic unit
137. Match the following sequential Circuits with associated functions
1. Counter -------- A. Storage of Program & data in a digital computer
2. Register -------- B. Generation of timing variables to sequence the digital system operations
3. Memory --------- C. Design of Sequential Circuits
a) 1-A , 2-B , 3-C
b) 1-C , 2-B , 3-A
c) 1-C , 2-A , 3-B
d) 1-B , 2-C , 3-A
138. What contributes to the triggering of clock pulse inputs for all the flip-flops excluding the first flip-
flop in a ripple counter?
a) Incoming Pulses
b) Output Transition
c) Double Clock Pulses
139. Latches constructed with NOR and NAND gates tend to remain in the latched condition due to
which configuration feature?
a) Low input voltages
b) Synchronous operation
c) Gate impedance
d) Cross coupling
140. The truth table for an S-R flip-flop has how many VALID entries?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
141. Which of the following is correct for a gated D-type flip-flop?
a) The Q output is either SET or RESET as soon as the D input goes HIGH or LOW
b) The output complement follows the input when enabled
c) Only one of the inputs can be HIGH at a time
d) The output toggles if one of the inputs is held HIGH
142. A basic S-R flip-flop can be constructed by cross-coupling of which basic logic gates?
a) AND or OR gates
b) XOR or XNOR gates
c) NOR or NAND gates
d) AND or NOR gates
143. The logic circuits whose outputs at any instant of time depends only on the present input but also
on the past outputs are called
a) Combinational circuits
b) Sequential circuits
c) Latches
d) Flip-flops
144. Whose operations are more faster among the following?
a) Combinational circuits
b) Sequential circuits
c) Latches
d) Flip-flops
145. When an 8 bit SISO register is used for time delay of 25micro seconds, the clock frequency must be
a) 41.67 KHz
b) 333 KHz
c) 125 KHz
d) 8 MHz
146. The basic latch consists of
a) Two inverters
b) Two comparators
c) Two amplifiers
147. What is a trigger pulse?
a) A pulse that starts a cycle of operation
b) A pulse that reverses the cycle of operation
c) A pulse that prevents a cycle of operation

148. In Mealy models output are functions of both
a) Present state
b) Input state
c) Next state
d) Reset state
149. Time sequence for flip-flop can be enumerated by
a) State table
b) Map
c) Truth table
d) Graph
150. With a 100KHz frequency supply, 8 bits can be entered in a shift register in
a) 80 microseconds
b) 8 microseconds
c) 80 ms
d) 8 ms
----------Key----------
1. (b)
2. (a) (b)
3. (d)
4. (d)
5. (b)
6. (b)
7. (a)
8. (a)
9. (a)
10. (b)
11. (b)
12. (b)
13. (a)
14. (d)
15. (a)
16. (b)
17. (a)
18. (a)
19. (d)
20. (d)
21. (b)
22. (b)
23. (c)
24. (b)
25. (d)
26. (b)
27. (b)
75. A binary-weighted digital-to-analog converter has an input resistor of 100 k . If the resistor is
connected to a 5 V source, the current through the resistor is:
a) 50 µA
b) 50 mA
c) 5 mA
d) 500 µA
76. A binary input 000 is fed to a 3bit DAC/ADC. The resultant output is 101. Find the type of error?
a) Settling error
b) Gain error
c) Offset error
d) Linearity error
77. 8051 Microcontroller has how many 16 bit registers?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 0
78. How are the bits of the register PSW affected if we select Bank2 of 8051?
a) PSW.5=0 and PSW.4=1
b) PSW.2=0 and PSW.3=1
c) PSW.3=1 and PSW.4=1
d) PSW.3=0 and PSW.4=1

53. (c)
54. (a)
55. (d)
56. (c)
57. (c)
58. (c)
59. (b)
60. (c)
61. (b)
62. (c)
63. (c)
64. (c)
65. (c)
66. (b)
67. (c)
68. (b)
69. (d)
70. (b)
71. (b)
72. (d)
73. (c)
74. (a)
75. (a)
76. (c)
77. (a)
78. (d)
79. (b)
80. (c)
81. (c)
82. (b)
83. (c)
84. (a)
85. (c)
86. (c)
87. (b)
88. (b)
89. (b)
90. (c)
91. (b)
92. (c)
93. (c)
94. (d)
95. (c)
96. (a)
97. (c)
98. (b)
99. (b)
100. (c)
101. (c)
102. (a)
103. (c)
104. (b)
105. (c)
106. (b)
107. (d)
108. (b)
109. (c)
110. (d)
111. (d)
112. (b)
113. (d)
114. (a)
115. (a)
116. (c)
117. (d)
118. (d)
119. (c)
120. (d)
121. (c)
122. (c)
123. (c)
124. (d)
125. (d)
126. (a)
127. (b)
128. (d)
129. (b)
130. (c)
131. (c)
132. (b)
133. (d)
134. (a)
135. (b)
136. (a)
137. (d)
138. (b)
139. (d)
140. (c)
141. (a)
142. (c)
143. (b)
144. (a)
145. (b)
146. (a)
147. (a)
148. (d)
149. (a)
150. (a)
Electromagnetics Questions- 2019
1. Magnetic field is produced by
a) stationary charge
b) moving charge
c) both stationary and moving charge
d) none of the mentioned
2. The unit of electric field intensity is
a) Tesla
b) V/m
c) N/C
d) not defined
3. Magnetic force on a electric charge is zero when
a) only when charge is at rest
b) only when charge is moving parallel to field
c) when charge is at rest or when is moving parallel to field.
d) not defined
4. The work done by the static electric field around a closed path
a) always positive
b) always zero
c) always negative
d) not defined
5. Curl of a uniform electric field is
a) not defined
b) zero
c) always negative
d) positive
6. Electric potential at a given point due to a electric dipole is inversely proportional to
a) the distance
b) the square of the distance
c) product of charges
d) the cube of distance
7. Displacement current is due to
a) time varying electric field
b) time varying magnetic field.
c) constant magnetic field
8. The unit of electric dipole moment is
a) Ampere-meter
b) Coulomb-meter
c) Tesla

9. Impedance of free space is
a) zero
b) 100 ohm
c) 377 ohm
10. Vortex electric field is produced by
a) Time varying magnetic field
b) Time varying electric field
c) constant magnetic field
d) constant electric field
11. Faraday’s law states that the induced EMF is
a) Proportional to the change in magnetic flux linkage.
b) Equal to the negative rate of change of magnetic flux linkage with respect to time
c) Equal to the negative change in magnetic flux linkage
d) Equal to the change of magnetic flux
12. Two thin parallel wire carrying currents along the same direction. The force expe-
rienced by one due to the other is
a) Parallel to the lines.
b) Perpendicular to the lines and attractive.
c) Perpendicular to the lines and repulsive.

13. For an electromagnetic wave, the direction of vector cross product of electric and magnetic field
gives the direction of
a) electric field.
b) magnetic field.
c) phase velocity
14. The force between the two charges is F Newnons. When the distance between the two charges is
doubled, the force is
a) F/4
b) 4F
c) F/2
d) 2F
15. The electric field line and equipotential surfaces are
a) always parallel.
b) inclined at any angle.
c) always at 45 degree.
d) always at 90 degree.
16. A sheet of mica is inserted between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor, then the capacitance will
a) decrease
b) become zero
c) increase
d) remain same
17. When a conductor is placed in external electric field, the field inside the conductor is
a) less than external field.
b) more than external field
c) zero
d) remain same
18. When a dielectric material is kept in external electric field, the field inside the dielectric is
a) less than the external field
b) more than the external field
c) zero
d) remain same
19. The unit of relative permittivity
a) Farad-meter
b) Farad/meter
c) Farad
d) it is dimensionless.
20. The material that can be used for shelding or screening the magnetic field is
a) plastic
b) mica
c) wood
d) copper
21. A point is represented in Cartesian coordinate as P(2,6,3),the radial component ρ in cylindrical

coordinate will be
b) no
c) can’t be determined
d) yes and second one is preferred
90. How many bytes of bit addressable memory is present in 8051 based micro controllers?
a) 8 bytes
b) 32 bytes
c) 16 bytes
d) 128 bytes
91. The total external data memory that can be interfaced to the 8051 is,
a) 32K
b) 64K
c) 128K
d) 256K
92. How many registers can be utilized to write the programs by an effective selection of register bank in
program status word (PSW)?
a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
d) 64
93. in 8051, Auto reload mode is allowed in which mode of the timer?
a) Mode 0
b) Mode 1
a) work done in moving unit charge between the two points.
b) difference between the forces at the two points.
c) change in momentum of charge between two points.
d) work done in moving arbirary charge between the two points
26. Point charges 30nC,-20nCand 10nC are located at (-1,0,2),(0,0,0) and (1,5,-1), respectively. The total
flux leaving a cube of side 6m centered at the origin is
a) -20nVm
b) 10nVm
c) 20nVm
d) zero
27. The electric flux density on a spherical surface of radius r=b is the same when a point charge Q
located at the origin and in the second case when the charge Q uniformly distributed on surface r=a
(a<b)
a) yes
b) No
c) Not necessarily
d) zero
28. Suppose a uniform electric field exists in the room in which you are working, such that the lines of
force are horizontal and at right angles to one wall. As you walk toward the wall from which the lines of
force emerge into the room, are you walking toward
a) Points of higher potential
b) Points of lower potential
c) points of constant potential

d) It will be higher
29. When a potential difference is applied across human heart, its behaviour can be modeled as that of
electric dipole. Abnormal hearts can be detected by mapping
a) equipotential surfaces
c) Not necessarily
30. Inside a hollow conducting sphere which is kept in a external electric field
a) electric field is zero
b) constant but non zero
c) electric field increase
d) electric field decrease
31. The magnetic flux density (B) and a vector magnetic potential (A) are related by
a) B=▼ X A
b) electric flux lines
c) electric fields
d) B=▼A
32. Of the following,the incorrect relation is
a) D=εE
b) B=μH
c) J=σE
d) B=μE
33. Two potential junctions V1 and V2 satisfy Laplace equation within a closed region and assume the
same values on its surface, then
a) V1 must be equal to V2
b) V1<V2
c) V1>V2
d) B=μE
34. Faraday's law is valid for both open and closed loops. The Lenz's law is valid for
a) Only open loop
b) only closed loop.
c) both open and closed loop
d) multiple open loop
35. An electric charge Q is placed in a dielectric medium. Which one of the following quantities are
independent of the dielectric constant ɛ of the medium.
a) Electric potential V
b) only closed loop.
c) both open and closed loop
d) multiple open loop
36. The Poynting Vector has the dimensions of
a) Power/Unit area
b) Volts
c) Power
d) Volt/Unit length
37. Two thin parallel wires are carrying current in opposite direction. The force experienced by one due
to other is
a) repulsive force
b) zero force
c) attractive force
38. An electric potential field is produced in air by point charges 1µc and 4µc located at (-2,1,5) and
(1,3,1) respectively. The energy stored in the field is
a) 2.57mJ
b) 5.14mJ
c) 10.28mJ
d) 12.5mJ
39. Laplacian of a scalar function V is
a) always zero
b) proportional to charge density
c) proportional to current
40. The capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor is given by ɛoɛr(A/d) where A is the area of each plate
and d is the distance between the plates. Considering fringing field, under which of the following
conditions is the above expression valid?
a) A/d is tending towards 0
b) A/d is tending towards infinity

c) A/d is 1
d) A/d is 1/ɛoɛr
41. The force between two point charges of 1 nC each with a 1 mm seperation in air is
a) 9 mN
b) 9N
c) 90N
d) 9000N
42. Which one is the source of magnetic field
a) constant electric field
b) time-varying electric field
c) constant electric potential
d) stationary electric charges
43. For an electromagnetic wave incident on a conducting medium, the depth of penetration is given by
a) wave length of wave
b) skin depth
c) conductivity of conducting medium
44. A parallel plate capacitor of 5pf capacitance has a charge of 0.1µC on its plates. What is the energy
stored in the Capacitor?
a) 10mJ
b) 1mJ
c) 1J
d) 1kJ
45. What does the expression J.A where J current density and A perpendicular cross sectional are
through which current flows
a) total electric field
b) total current
c) potential
d) magnetic field
46. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Both laplace and poisson’s equation are non-linear equations
b) Both laplace and poisson’s equation are linear equations
c) Has logarithmic relationship with the attenuation constant
d) magnetic field
47. A charge of 1 coulumb is placed near a grounded conducting plate at a distanceof 1m. what is the
force between them?
a) 1/(4πɛ0)
b) 1/(8 πɛo)
c) 1/(16 πɛo)
d) magnetic field
48. What is the effect of earth's magnetic field in the reflected wave at frequencies in the vicinity of
gyro-frequency?
a) total attenuation of reflected wave.
b) partial attenuation of reflected wave.
c) No attenuation in the reflected wave

49. Two small diameter 5g dielectric balls can slide freely on a vertical nonconducting thread.Each ball
carries a negative charge of 2µc.If the lower ball is restricted from moving,then the seperation between
the two balls will be
a) 8570 mm
b) 857 mm
c) 85.7 mm
50. What is the magnetic dipole moment in Am for a square current loop having vertices at the points
A(10m,0,0), B(0,10m,0),C(-10m,0,0) and D(0,-10m,0) and with current 1 A flowing in the sense ABCDA?
a) 100
b) 199.9
c) 1000
d) 19.9
51. A quarter wave transmission line shorted at the end
a) Has the characteristics of a series tuned circuit
b) Has the characteristics of parallel tuned circuit
c) Has a minimum current at the end
d) Reflects a low impedance to the supply
52. Which value of VSWR indicate best matching of antenna to transmission line?
a) 100
b) infinity
c) 1
d) 0
53. The mode at which a waveguide operates is determined by the
a) shape of the waveguide
b) method used to couple the signal into the waveguide
c) Length of the waveguide
d) 0
54. When does a transmission line have an SWR equal to1?
a) when load is not matched to transmission line
b) when load is matched to transmission line
c) Length of the waveguide 100m
d) impedance of the waveguide 100ohm
55. For a parallel-resonant circuit, quarter wavelength stub must be _____ at the ends.
a) shorted
b) open
c) complex
d) loaded
56. A transmission line of pure resistive characteristic impedance is terminated with an unknown load.
The measured value of VSWR on the line is equal to 2 and a voltage minimum point is found to be at the
load. The load impedance is then
a) complex.
b) purely capacitive.
c) purely resistive.
d) purely inductively
57. What is the length of a quarter-wave stub, in free space at 4GHz?
a) 19 m
b) 18.75 m
c) 19 cm
d) 18.75 mm
58. A 50 ohm lossless transmission line has a pure reactance of j100 ohms as its load. The VSWR in the
line is
a) 1 2 (Half)
b) 2 (Two)
c) 4 (Four)
d) Infinity
59. A matching stub should be placed _____.
a) midway between load and transmitter
b) nearest to the load
c) nearest to transmitter
d) Anywhere
60. What would be the SWR of a transmission line if power is being delivered to a 75Ω load by a line
with a characteristic impedance of 50Ω?
a) 4
b) 1/5
c) 5
d) 10
61. A quarter-wave stub shorted at the end has high impedance
a) at the shorted end
b) quarter wavelength from the short end
c) half wavelength from the short end
d) at the center
one end and connected to an ideal voltage source of 1 V at the other end. The current drawn from the
voltage source is
a) 0
b) 0.02 A
c) Infinity
d) None of thes
63. The characteristic impedance of a coaxial transmission line does not depend upon its ______.
a) length
b) conductor diameter
c) conductor spacing
d) conductor radius
64. A 300 ohm line is terminated to a load impedance of 100 + j200 ohm. What is the reflection
coefficient for this line?
a) 0.85<212.1°
b) 1
c) 1.2
d) 0.90<901°
65. A flat transmission line delivers 5 kW at 10 A. What is its impedance?
a) 50 Ohms
b) 20 Ohms
c) 200 Ohms
d) 500 Ohms
66. Which one is used in higher frequency range, coaxial cable or rectangular wave guide or parallel
wires.
a) rectangular waveguide
b) coaxial cable
c) parallel wires
67. The VSWR can have any value between
a) 0 and 1
b) – 1 and +1
c) 0 and infinite
d) 1 and infinite
68. A rectangular waveguide acts as a
a) Low Pass Filter
b) balanced line
c) strip line
d) waveguide
69. What is condition of distortionless line for a tranmission line model having primary per unit
parameters R,L,G and C
a) RL=GC
b) RC=GL
c) RG=CL
70. A transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohm and a resistance of 0.1 ohm/m . If the
line is distortionless, the attenuation constant (in Np/m) is
a) 500
b) 5
c) 0.014
d) 0.002
71. Which statement is incorrect
a) Phase velocity inversaly proportional to phase constant
b) Phase velocity dirctly proportional to frequency
c) Phase velocity inversaly proportional to phase constant and directly proportional to frequency
d) Phase velocity directly proportional to permeability
72. A transmission line with a characteristic impedance of 100 ohm is used to match a 50 ohm section to
a 200 ohm section. If the matching is to be done both at 429 MHz and 1 GHz, the length of the
transmission line can be approximately
a) 82.5 cm
b) 1.05 m
c) 1.58 m
d) 1.75 m
73. A rectangular air – filled waveguide has a cross section of 4cm × 10cm.
The minimum frequency which can propagation in the waveguide is
a) 1.5 GHz
b) 2.0 GHz
c) 2.5 GHz
d) 3.0 GHz
74. Which among the following is also regarded as Twin-lead transmission line?
a) underground cable
b) coaxial cable
c) Open-wire
d) wave guide
75. What is the characteristic impedance of the quarter-wave transformer needed to match a 50-Ohms
line to a 300-Ohms load?
a) 122 ohms
b) 200 Ohms
c) 312 Ohms
d) 400 Ohms
c) Consumes less power
d) Has higher speed
125. Which characteristic of RAM memory makes it not suitable for permanent storage?
a) Unreliable
b) Too slow
c) Too bulky
d) It is volatile
126. A ripple counter's speed is limited by the propagation delay of:
a) each flip-flop
b) all flip-flops and gates
c) the flip-flops only with gates
d) only circuit gates
127. What type of register would shift a complete binary number in one bit at a time and shift all the
stored bits out one bit at a time?
a) PIPO
b) SISO
c) SIPO
d) PISO
128. Synchronous counters eliminate the delay problems encountered with asynchronous (ripple)
counters because the:
a) input clock pulses are applied only to the first and last stages
b) input clock pulses are applied only to the last stage

b) TE011
c) TM110
d) MT111
80. At which angles does the front to back ratio specify an antenna gain?
a) 0° & 180°
b) 90° & 180°
c) 180° & 270°
d) 180° & 360°
81. The term critical frequency in Ionospheric propagation is
a) Lowest frequency reflected by Ionosphere
b) Highest frequency reflected by the Ionosphere at vertical incidence
c) Lowest frequency reflected by the Ionosphere at vertical incidence
d) Lowest communication frequency possible
82. Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to _____.
a) Single line wire
b) Ground
c) Microstrip
d) Twin-lead
83. Skin effect describes the tendency of:

a) ac conductors to carry the circuit current on their surface
b) ac conductors to carry the circuit current at the centre of the conductor
c) dc conductors to carry the circuit current on their surface
84. A major and basic advantage for the use of a klystron.
a) High power
b) low power
c) dc conductors to carry the circuit current on their surface
d) no power
85. A transmission line capable of handling high-powered signal is _____.
a) coax
b) Waveguide
c) Micro strip line
d) strip line
86. Pulse dispersion in an optical fiber restricts
a) Transmission distance
b) frequency
c) input power
d) The phase changes of propagation light
87. Numerical aperture of an optical fiber represents
a) The cone outside which the light is incident on fiber end
b) frequency
c) input power
88. The fundamental mode of rectangular wave guide is
a) TE10 mode
b) TE01
c) TE11
89. The power emitted by an optical source is measured to be 0 dBm. In linear this corresponds to
a) Zero milli-watt
b) One watt
c) 0.1 watt
d) One milli-watt
90. In a semiconductor if the charge carriers can make a transition from conduction band to
Valence band without change in momentum value , the material is known as -------------------- material
a) dielectric
b) magnetic
c) indirect bandgap
d) direct bandgap
91. In the case of photodiode, p-i-n structure is preferred rather than p-n structure, because of
a) Fast response
b) Temperature independence
c) Less noise
d) direct bandgap
92. In the structure of fiber optic cable, the refractive index of core is always _______the refractive
index of cladding.
a) more than
b) same as
c) Less than
93. If a noisy channel has a bandwidth of 4 MHz with signal to noise ratio of about 1, what would be the
maximum capacity of the channel?
a) 2 Mb/sec
b) LED
c) none of the mentioned
d) APD
94. Which among the following is provided by an optical receiver for the regeneration of data signal
with minimum error?
a) photo resistor
b) LED
d) APD
95. In an optical fiber communication system, which among the following is not a transmitter
a) Laser diode
b) LED
d) APD
96. Which one is not a detector in optical communication
a) PIN diode
b) APD
c) PD
d) LED
97. If an antenna draws 12 A current and radiates 4 kW, then what will be its radiation resistance?
a) 22.22 ohm
b) 27.77 ohm
c) 33.33 ohm
d) 39.77 ohm
98. Which mode of radiation occurs in an helical antenna due to smaller dimensions of helix as
compared to a wavelength?
a) parallel mode
b) Normal mode
c) circular mode
99. Antenna converts
a) electrical energy into electromagnetic energy
b) heat energy to electrical energy
c) optical energy to heat energy
100. A dipole carries r.m.s. current of about 300A across the radiation resistance 2 Ω. What would be
the power radiated by an antenna?
a) 90 kW
b) 10kW
c) 1kW
d) 1000kW
101. A rectangular horn antenna operating at 4GHz has the wavelength of 0.075m and gain of about
13dBi. What will be its required capture area?
a) 0.0149 meter square
b) 0.0475 meter square
c) 0.5521 meter square
d) . 0.9732meter square
102. In an electrically large loop, an overall length of the loop is equal to ______
a) λ/2
b) λ
c) 10λ
103. Ideal physical antenna length is ________ than its electrical length.
a) greater
b) smaller
c) equal
104. Dish antenna (parabolic) is having .................. radiation pattern
a) Bi-directional
b) omni-directional
c) uni-directional
105. If one or more elements in an antenna array are eletromagnetically connected, it is termed an
________ array.
a) Parasitc array
b) Phased array
c) Isotropic
d) Omni-directional
106. Point source is having -------------radiation
a) Uni-directional
b) Isotropic
d) Omni-directional
107. Which among the following is regarded as a condition of an ordinary endfire array?
a) α < βd
b) α > βd
c) α = ±βd
d) α ≠ ±βd
108. Helical antenna has -------------------- polarization
a) Unidirectional
b) omni-directional
c) bidirectional
d) directional
109. The largest frequency that will be returned to earth when transmitted vertically under given
ionosphere conditions is called the_________.
a) MUF
b) Circular
c) linear
d) Elliptical
110. In sky propagation the shortest distance covered by the single frequency untouched to the ground
is called as_____________.
a) line-of -sight
b) Circular
c) linear
d) 73 ohm
111. If the maxima of 10-elements array is directed towards theta=90 degree, It is called _____________
array.
a) skip distance
b) broad side
c) 2-ray distance
d) 73 ohm
112. The feed point impedance of the half wave dipole antenna is..............................
a) 100 ohm
b) 120 ohm
c) 73 ohm
113. The radiation prattern is usually measured in ..........................region.
a) Fraunhofer region
148. In Mealy models output are functions of both
a) Present state
b) Input state
c) Next state
d) Reset state
149. Time sequence for flip-flop can be enumerated by
a) State table
b) Map
c) Truth table
d) Graph
150. With a 100KHz frequency supply, 8 bits can be entered in a shift register in
a) 80 microseconds
b) 8 microseconds
c) 80 ms
d) 8 ms
----------Key----------
1. (b)
2. (a) (b)
b) 1mw
c) Noise
d) 0
118. A transmission line is feeding 1W of power to the Horn antenna having a gain 10 dB. The total
power radiated by the antenna into free space is
a) 10W
b) 1mw
c) Noise
d) 0
119. At 20 GHz, the gain of the parabolic dish antenna of 1 meter diameter and 70% efficiency is
a) 15dB
b) 1W
c) 0.1W
120. Spiral antenna is a
a) Linear polarized antenna
b) Circular Polarized antenna
c) Elliptical Polarized antenna
121. Microstrip antenna fundamental mode of operation is
a) TM11
b) TM12
c) TM21
122. For the parasitc Yagi-Uda array, the refector of the antenna is kept at ------------------------ distance.
a) 1/8 lambda
b) 1/16 lambda
c) 1/4 lambda
d) 1/5 lambda
123. In ionosphere propagation, the refractive index of the layer is ....................... to the electron
desnsity of the layer.
a) directely proportional
b) constant
c) inversely proportional
124. In an electrical circuit, which nature of impedance causes the current & voltages in phase?
a) Reactive
b) Resistive
c) Capacitive
d) d. Inductive
125. Frequency range of satellite communication is ............................
a) L-Band
b) D-Band
c) A-Band
126. If the diameter of the halfwave dipole antenna is incresead from lambda/100 to lamba/50 then its
a) Bandwidth increases
b) Bandwidth decreases
c) Gain increases
d) Gain decreses
127. The radiation resistance of a quarterwave antenna is
a) 72 ohms
b) 92 ohms
c) 40 ohms
d) 15 ohms
128. What is the IEEE operating range of GPS
a) 1.5 GHz
b) 5 GHz
c) 2.4 GHz
d) 6 GHz
129. If the input impedance of an antenna is 300 ohms and it is fed with a 600 ohm balanced
transmission line, the SWR on the line is
a) 2
b) 1
c) 10
d) 5
130. An antenna having directivity of 2 at a frequecny of 300 MHz will have a maximum effective
aperature area of
a) 1/8 (Pi) metersquare
b) 1/(4 xPi ) metersquare
c) 1/(2xPi) metesquare
d) 1/pi metersquare
131. The ratio of the reflected voltage to the incident voltage on the transmission line is termed as
a) VSWR
b) loss
c) reflection coefficient
d) standing wave
132. Internal antenna for mobile handset is ...........................
a) Inverter-F antenna
b) Horn antenna
c) Spiral antenna
d) Dish antenna
133. Under which conditions of two unit vectors, the polarization loss factor (PLF) is equal to unity?
a) Perpendicular
b) Horn antenna
c) Spiral antenna
d) Dish antenna
134. If the maximum electron density for F-layer in ionosphere is 4 x 106 electrons/cm3, then what will
be the critical frequency of EM wave for F-layer?
a) 4 MHz
b) 9 MHz
c) 18 MHz
d) 25 MHz
135. The concept used to make one Smith chart universal is called
a) ionization
b) rationalization
c) normalization
d) termination
136. Linear polarization can be obtained only if the wave consists of ________
a) Ex
b) Ey
c) Both Ex & Ey & in phase
d) Both Ex & Ey & out of phase
137. What is the nature of radiation by a infinitely long straight wire with ac current?
a) Spherical
b) plane
c) cylindrical
138. In retarded potentials, what factor of time delay is generally introduced in A & V equations?
a) R + c
b) R - c
c) R/c
d) R x c
139. According to the geometry, how many sterdians are present in a full sphere?
a) 360
b) pi
c) 4xpi
d) 2xpi
140. Sterdian is a measurement unit of __________
a) Point angle
b) Linear angle
c) Plane angle
d) Solid angle
141. Which pattern is generated due to plotting of square of amplitude of an electric field?
a) current pattern
b) field pattern
c) voltage pattern
d) power pattern
142. What kind of beamwidth is/are produced by Chebyshev arrays for given side lobe level (SLL)?
a) Widest
b) Narrowest
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
143. In lens antenna, what kind of wave energy is transformed into plane waves?
a) convergent
b) congruent
c) divergent
144. What would be the depth of penetration for copper at 2 MHz frequency with σ = 5.8 x 107?
a) 46.72 μm
b) 56.90 μm
c) 66.08 μm
d) 76.34 μm
145. If an antenna draws 12 A current and radiates 4 kW, then what will be its radiation resistance?
a) 27.77 ohm
b) 22.22 ohm
c) 46 ohm
d) 3 ohm
146. Determine the physical lenght of the horn antenna, if the E-plane aperture is 10λ and delta is 0.2λ
a) 62.5 λ
b) 14 λ
c) 30 λ
d) 0 λ
147. Calculate the distance beyond which the curvature of the earth is accounted at frequency 1MHz in
ground wave propagation
a) 50 miles
b) 100 miles
c) 110 miles
d) 200 miles
148. Find the free space loss (basic path loss) for communication between two points 3000 km apart at a
frequency of 3 GHz.
a) 171.534 dB
b) 100 miles
c) 110 miles
d) 200 miles
149. The radiation resistance of dipole antenna is
a) 72 ohm
b) 36.5 ohm
c) 377 ohm
d) 50 ohm
150. Calculate the average power available at 1 km distance, if an element radiates maximum in the Θ =
60° and carries maximum current of 5 amp
a) 79.5 μW
b) 80 μW
c) 70 μW
d) 75 μW
----------Key----------
1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (c)
4. (b)
5. (b)
6. (b)
7. (a)
8. (b)
9. (c)
10. (a)
11. (b)
12. (b)
13. (c)
14. (a)
15. (d)
16. (c)
17. (c)
18. (a)
19. (d)
20. (d)
21. (a)
22. (d)
23. (a)
24. (a)
25. (a)
26. (b)
27. (a)
28. (a)
29. (a)
30. (a)
31. (a)
32. (a)
33. (a)
34. (b)
35. (b)
36. (a)
37. (a)
38. (b)
39. (b)
40. (b)
41. (b)
42. (b)
43. (b)
44. (b)
45. (b)
46. (b)
47. (a)
48. (c)
49. (c)
50. (b)
51. (b)
52. (c)
53. (a)
54. (b)
55. (a)
56. (c)
57. (d)
58. (d)
59. (b)
60. (b)
61. (b)
62. (a)
63. (a)
64. (a)
65. (a)
66. (a)
67. (d)
68. (a)
69. (b)
70. (d)
71. (c)
72. (c)
73. (a)
74. (c)
75. (a)
76. (b)
77. (b)
78. (a)
79. (a)
80. (a)
81. (b)
82. (b)
83. (a)
84. (a)
85. (b)
86. (a)
87. (a)
88. (a)
89. (c)
90. (c)
91. (c)
92. (c)
93. (d)
94. (d)
95. (d)
96. (d)
97. (b)
98. (b)
99. (a)
100. (a)
101. (a)
102. (a)
103. (a)
104. (a)
105. (b)
106. (b)
107. (c)
108. (a)
109. (a)
110. (a)
111. (b)
112. (c)
113. (a)
114. (d)
115. (d)
116. (d)
117. (a)
118. (a)
119. (a)
120. (b)
121. (a)
122. (c)
123. (c)
124. (b) (c)
125. (a)
126. (a)
127. (a)
128. (a)
129. (a)
130. (c)
131. (c)
132. (a)
133. (a)
134. (c)
135. (c)
136. (c)
137. (c)
138. (c)
139. (c)
140. (d)
141. (d)
142. (a)
143. (c)
144. (a)
145. (a)
146. (a)
147. (a)
148. (a)
149. (a)
150. (a)
Comprehension Question
1.Electron-hole pairs are produced by

(a) Recombination
(b) Thermal energy
(c) Ionization
(d) Doping
Ans: (b)
2. The area within a semiconductor diode where no mobile current carriers exist when it is
formed is called .......... region.
(a) Depletion
(b) Saturation
(c) Potential barrier
(d) Space charge.
Ans: (a)
3.Electronic components which are made of a semiconductor material are often called
................... devices.
(a) Solid-state
(b) Silicon
(c) Germanium
(d) Intrinsic.
Ans: (a)
4.The process of adding impurities to a pure semiconductor

is called
(a) Mixing
(b) Doping
(c) Diffusing
(d) Refining.
Ans: (b)
5. Semiconductor materials have ................. bonds.

(a) Ionic
(b) Covalent
(c) Mutual
(d) Metallic.
Ans: (b)
6. In a transistor push pull amplifier

(a) There is no dc present at the output
(b) There is no distortion in the output
(c) There are no even harmonics in the output
(d) There are no odd harmonics in the output
Ans: c
7. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of free electrons ………
(a)Equals the number of holes
(b)Is greater than the number of holes
(c)Is less than the number of holes
(d)None of these
Ans: (a)
8.The impurity level in an extrinsic semiconductor is about ….. of pure semiconductor.

(a)10 atoms for 108 atoms
(b)1 atom for 108 atoms
(c)1 atom for 104 atoms
(d)1 atom for 100 atoms
a) less than r in spherical coordinates
b) greater than r in spherical coordinates
c) equal to r in spherical coordinates
d) unrelated to r in spherical coordinates
22. By saying that the electrostatic field is conservative, we mean that
a) it is curl of the scalar potential
b) it is product of the scalar potential and distance
c) it is sum of the scalar potential and distance
d) it is gradient of the scalar potential
23. Stokes theorem relates
a) surface integral and line integral
b) surface integral and volume integral
c) volume integral and contour integral
d) line integral and volume integral
24. Under electrostatic equilibrium conditions where does the excess charges lie in a conductor?
a) on the surface of the conductor
b) only inside the conductor and not on surface.
c) at the centre of the conductor
d) outside the conductor
25. The electric potential difference between two points in a electric field is the
15.Impurities like boron, aluminum, gallium or indium are added to intrinsic semiconductor to
form
a. N-type doped semiconductor
b. P-type doped semiconductor
c. A junction diode
d. All of these
Ans: (a)
16 Calculate the electric field when the conductivity is 20 units, electron density is 2.4 units and
the velocity is 10m/s. Assume the conduction and convection current densities are
same. a)2.4
b)4.8
c)3.6
d)1.2
Explanation: The conduction current density is given by J = σE and the convection current density is J = ρe
v. When both are equal, ρe v = σE. To get E, put σ = 20, ρe = 2.4 and v = 10, E = 2.4 x 10/20 = 1.2 units.
Ans: (d)
17. continuity equation is…….

𝜌
)− = 𝜇𝜌∇V + D∇ρ
𝑡
𝜌
) = −(𝜇𝜌∇V + D∇ρ
𝑡
𝜌
)
𝑡 = −𝜇𝜌∇V + D∇ρ
𝜌
) = 𝜇𝜌∇V − D∇ρ
𝑡
Ans:a
18.Possion equation is……

) − ∇2𝑉 =
∈
2
𝜌
)∇ 𝑉 = −
∈
2
𝜌
)∇ + 𝑉 = −
∈
2
𝜌
)∇ + 𝑉 =
∈
Ans:a
19. Compute the conductivity when the current density is 12 units and the electric field is 20 units. Also
identify the nature of the material.
a)1.67,dielectric
b)1.67,conductor
c)0.6,dielectric
d)0.6,conductor
Ans:c
Explanation: The current density is the product of conductivity and electric field intensity. J = σE.
20. Resistance to current flow along length L is

a) R=ρL/A
b)R=L/ρA
c)R=L/A
d) None of these
Ans: (a)
21) Drift current for semiconductor device is
Ans: A
J=qρμE
J=-qρμE𝜇
J=-qμE
J=μρE
Answer: a
22) Diffusion Current for P type Semi conductor device is
J=-eDp (dp/dx)
J=-Dp (dp/dx)
J=-p (dp/dx)
J=(dp/dx)
Ans: A
23) Energy band gap size for insulators is in the range eV.
(a)1-2 (b) 2-3 (c) 3-4 (d) > 4
24) Most commonly used semiconductor material is
a) Silicon
b) Germanium
c) Mixture of silicon and germanium
d) None of these.
Ans: (a)
25) Which is a donor atom?
a) Trivalent Atom
b) Aluminium
c) Boron
d) Pentavalent Atom
Ans: d
26. For an n-channel MOS shown in Fig., the threshold voltage Vth is 0.8V. Neglect channel
length modulation effects. When the drain voltage VD = 1.6V, the drain current ID
was found to be 0.5 mA. If VD is adjusted to 2V, by changing R and VDD, the new value of
ID in mA is -----
a) 1.125 mA
b) 1.25 mA
c) 1 mA
d) 0 mA
Ans: (a)
27. In MOSFET operating in saturation region, the channel length modulation effect causes
a) An increase in gate source capacitance
b) A decrease in Transconductance
c) A decrease in unity gain bandwidth product
d) A decrease in output resistance
Ans: (d)
28. For an N channel MOSFET, if the source is connected at a higher potential than that of the
bulk (i.e. VSB > 0 volts), the threshold voltage VT of the MOSFET will
a) Remain unchanged
b) Decrease
c) Change polarity
d) Increase
Ans: (d)
29. The level of doping of source and drain in MOSFET is

a) Lightly doped
b) Moderately doped
c) Heavily doped
d) No doping (instrinsic)
Ans: (c)
30. With source and body grounded, if both the gate and drain of the MOSFET is connected to VDD,
then the MOSFET’s region of operation is
a) Cut-off
b) Linear
c) Saturation
d) Does not work
Ans: (c)
31. In p-channel enhancement MOSFET, the threshold voltage is

a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Zero
d) undefined
Ans: (a)
32. On the application of positive gate voltage in PMOS, is accumulated in the Si/SiO2
interface.
a) Acceptor ions
b) Electrons
c) Donor ions
d) Holes
Ans: (b)
33. The drain current in MOSFET depends on

a) Carrier Mobility
b) Distance between source and drain
c) Dielectric constant of the gate insulator
d) All of these
Ans: (d)
34. In saturation region, if the drain voltage is increased, the drain current of the MOSFET
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remain constant
d) None of these
Ans: (c)
35. The threshold voltage of the MOSFET does not depend on

a) Gate conductor material
b) Gate insulation material
c) Channel doping
d) Source and Drain doping
Ans: (d)
36. Calculate the flatband voltage of a silicon nMOS and pMOS capacitor with a substrate doping Na
= 1017 cm-3 and an aluminum gate ( ΦM = 4.1 V). Assume there is no fixed charge in the oxide or at
the oxide-silicon interface
a) -0.93 V & -0.09 V
b) -0.55 V & 0.14 V
c) -0.98 V & -0.14 V
d) -1.5 V & -0.98 V
Ans: (a)
37. For a MOS capacitor fabricated on a P-type semiconductor, strong inversion occurs when
a) Surface potential is equal to Fermi level
b) Surface potential is zero

c) Surface potential is negative and equal to Fermi potential in magnitude
d) Surface potential is positive and equal to twice the Fermi potential
Ans: (d)
38. Consider the following statements S1 and S2.

S1: the threshold voltage (V T) of a MOS capacitor decreases with increase in gate oxide thickness
S2: the threshold voltage (VT) of a MOS capacitor decreases with increase in substrate doping
concentration
Which of the following is correct?
a) S1 is FALSE and S2 is TRUE
b) Both S1 and S2 are TRUE
c) S1 is TRUE AND S2 is FALSE
d) Both S1 and S2 are FALSE
Ans: (d)
39. At room temperature MOS capacitor with N a = 1018 cm-3 and an oxide thickness of 2 nm with K O
= 3.9 . What is фF = ( Ei-EF)/q
a) 0.383
b) 0.479
c) 0.521
d) 0.347
Ans: (b)
40. At room temperature MOS capacitor with N a = 1018 cm-3 and an oxide thickness of 2 nm with K O
= 3.9 . What is the depletion layer thickness, W, when ф S = 2фF
a) 40.23 nm
b) 35.4 nm
c) 21.5 nm
d) 42.54 nm
Ans: (b)
41 In an n – channel JFET, VGS is held constant. VDS is less than the breakdown voltage. As VDS is
increased
(a) Conducting cross – sectional area of the channel ‘S’ and the channel current density ‘J’ both
increase
(b) ‘S’ decrease and ‘J’ decreases
(c) ‘S’ decrease and ‘J’ increases
(d) ‘S’ increases and ‘J’ decreases
Ans: c
42. The figure shows the high-frequency capacitance–voltage (C-V) characteristics of a

Metal/SiO2/silicon (MOS) capacitor having an area of 1×10 -4 cm2. Assume that the permittivity (ε 0εr)
of silicon and SiO 2 are 1×10-12 F/cm and 3.5×10-13 F/cm respectively. The gate oxide thickness in the
MOS capacitor is ---.
a) 50 nm
b) 143 nm
c) 350 nm
d) 1um
Ans: (a)
43. In a CMOS inverter, when Vin = 0, the source to gate voltage(V sg) of a PMOS transistor is
a) VDD/2
a) work done in moving unit charge between the two points.
b) difference between the forces at the two points.
c) change in momentum of charge between two points.
d) work done in moving arbirary charge between the two points
26. Point charges 30nC,-20nCand 10nC are located at (-1,0,2),(0,0,0) and (1,5,-1), respectively. The total
flux leaving a cube of side 6m centered at the origin is
a) -20nVm
b) 10nVm
c) 20nVm
d) zero
27. The electric flux density on a spherical surface of radius r=b is the same when a point charge Q
located at the origin and in the second case when the charge Q uniformly distributed on surface r=a
(a<b)
a) yes
b) No
c) Not necessarily
d) zero
28. Suppose a uniform electric field exists in the room in which you are working, such that the lines of
force are horizontal and at right angles to one wall. As you walk toward the wall from which the lines of
force emerge into the room, are you walking toward
a) Points of higher potential
c) points of constant potential

49. In CMOS logic circuit the p-MOS transistor acts as:
a) Pull down network
b) Pull up network
c) Load
d) Short to ground
Answer: (B)
50. In a CMOS inverter, Mn(NMOS) is in cutoff region and Mp(PMOS) is in Triode region when
.
a) Vin < Vtn
b) Vin < Vtp
c) Vin > Vtn
d) Vtn = Vtp
Ans: (a)
51. Doubling the voltage gain causes a dB .

a) 10, increase
b) 6, increase
c) 10, decrease
d) 6, decrease
Ans: (b)
52. frequencies are values of frequency at which the RC circuits reduce the voltage gain to
70.7% of its midrange value.
a) Critical
b) Cutoff
c) Corner
d) All of these
Ans: (d)
53. A roll-off of 20 dB per decade is equivalent to a roll-off of per octave.

a) 3dB
b) 13dB
c) 12dB
d) 6dB
Ans: (d)
54. An amplifier has an Rin = 1.2 k . The coupling capacitor is 1 F. Determine the approximate
lower cutoff frequency.
a) 133Hz
b) 1.33kHz
c) 13.3kHz
d) 133kHz
Ans: (a)
55. Refer to this figure. The output voltage at fcl = 12 mV. What is the output voltage at the midpoint
frequency?
a) 12 mV
b) 12mVp-P
c) 16.97mV
d) 8.48mV
Ans : (c)
56. Internal transistor junction capacitances affect the high-frequency response of amplifiers by
a) reducing the amplifier's gain
b) Introducing phase shift as the signal frequency increases.
c) having no effect
d) Reducing the amplifier's gain and introducing phase shift as the signal frequency increases.
Ans : (d)
57. Refer to this figure. The capacitor C3 affects
a) high-frequency response.
b) low-frequency response.
c) midrange response.
d) nothing.
Ans: (b)
58. An amplifier has an output voltage of 7.6 V p-p at the midpoint of the frequency range. What is
the output at fc?
a) 3.8Vp-p
b) 3.8Vrms
c) 5.4Vrms
d) 5.4Vp-P
Ans: (d)
59. Refer to this figure. The upper cutoff frequency of this amplifier is 22 kHz. The output at that
frequency is 6.71 V p-p. What is the output voltage at 220 kHz?
a) 9.49 V p-p
b) 6.71Vp-p
c) 0.671Vp-p
d) 0.0671Vp-p
Ans: (c)
60. In a LC filter, the ripple factor,

(a) Increases with the load current
(b) increases with the load resistance
(c) remains constant with the load current
(d) has the lowest value
Ans: c
61. An RC network has values of R = 1.2 k and C = 0.22 F. Find fc

a) 3.79 kHz
b) 1.89 kHz
c) 603Hz
d) 60Hz
Ans : (c)
62. Channel length modulation is taken into consideration in the small signal model by:
a) Placing a resistor between gate and source
b) Placing a capacitor between gate and drain
c) Placing a resistor between source and drain
d) None of these.
Ans: (c)
63. Output resistance of a MOSFET is:

a) Directly proportional to VGS
b) Independent of VGS
c) Inversely proportional to VGS
d) None of these.
Ans: (c)
64. For low frequency operations, input impedance at the gate of the MOSFET can be approximated
to be:
a) Zero
b) Of the order of ohms
c) Directly proportional to frequency
d) infinity.
Ans: (d)
65. For a sinusoidal input of 20 Vpeak to the given circuit, what is the peak value of the output
waveform?
a) 20 V
b) 25 V
c) 0 V
d) -25 V
Ans: (d)
66. For the given input waveform to the given circuit, what is the minimum value of the output
waveform?
a) 0 V
b) 16 V
c) 12 V
d) None of these
Ans: (a)
67. For the given circuit, what is the minimum peak value of the output waveform if the input
waveform is 10V square wave with switching time of 1 second?
Assume that the input switches between +10V and -10V DC levels.
a) 0 V b)
-5 V c) -
20 V d)
-10 V
Ans: (c)
68. For the given circuit and input waveform, the peak value of the output is +30V.
a) True
b) False
Ans: (a)
69. In a positive clipper, the diode conducts when
a) Vin < Vref

b) Vin = Vref
c) Vin > Vref
d) None of these
Ans: (b)
70. A circuit with a predetermined dc level is added to the output voltage of the op-amp is called
a) Clamper
b) Positive clipper
c) Halfwave rectifier
d) None of these
Ans: (a)
71. In a center tap full wave rectifier, if Vm is the peak voltage between center tap and one end of the
secondary, the maximum voltage coming across the reverse bias diode is
a) Vm
b) 2 Vm
c) Vm/2
d) Vm/√2
Ans: (a)
72. To get a peak load voltage of 40V out of a bridge rectifier. What is the approximate rms value of
secondary voltage?
29. When a potential difference is applied across human heart, its behaviour can be modeled as that of
electric dipole. Abnormal hearts can be detected by mapping
a) equipotential surfaces
c) Not necessarily
30. Inside a hollow conducting sphere which is kept in a external electric field
a) electric field is zero
b) constant but non zero
c) electric field increase
d) electric field decrease
31. The magnetic flux density (B) and a vector magnetic potential (A) are related by
a) B=▼ X A
b) electric flux lines
c) electric fields
d) B=▼A
32. Of the following,the incorrect relation is
a) D=εE
b) B=μH
c) J=σE
d) B=μE
d) 98 V
Ans: (c)
77. Zener diodes are also known as

a) Voltage regulators
b) Forward bias diode
c) Breakdown diode
d) None of these
Ans: (c)
78. The thermal runway is avoided in a collector to base bias because

a) of its independence on β
b) of the positive feedback produced by the base resistor
c) of the negative feedback produced by the base resistor
d) of its dependence on β
Ans: (c)
79. When the power dissipation increases in a transistor, the thermal resistance
a) increases
b) cannot be predicted
c) decreases
d) remains same
Ans: (c)
80. The absence of in LEDs limits the internal quantum efficiency.

a) Proper semiconductor
b) Adequate power supply

c) Optical amplification through stimulated emission
d) Optical amplification through spontaneous emission
Ans: (c)
81. The excess density of electrons Δn and holes Δp in an LED is

a) Equal
b) Δp more than Δn
c) Δn more than Δp
d) Does not affects the LED
Ans: (a)
82. The phenomenon leading to avalanche breakdown in reverse-biased diodes is known as

a) Auger recombination
b) Mode hopping
c) Impact ionization
d) Extract ionization
Ans: (c)
83. is fully depleted by employing electric fields.

a) Avalanche photodiode
b) P-I-N diode
c) Varactor diode
d) P-n diode
Ans: (a)
84. The amount of photo generated current increases slightly with increase in
a) Temperature
b) Photons
c) Diode current
d) Shunt current
Ans: (a)
85. is a direct band gap material.

a) Copper Indium Gallium Selenide
b) Copper Selenide
c) Copper Gallium Telluride
d) Copper Indium Gallium Diselenide
Ans: (a)
86. The dc output polarity from a half-wave rectifier can be reversed by reversing
(a) the diode
(b) transformer primary
(c) transformer secondary
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans: a
87. Find out the integrating type analog to digital converter?

a) Flash type converter
b) Tracking converter
c) Counter type converter
d) Dual slope ADC
Ans: (d)
88. Which A/D converter is considered to be simplest, fastest and most expensive?
a) Servo converter
b) Counter type ADC
c) Flash type ADC
d) All of these
Ans: ©
89. In a D-A converter with binary weighted resistor, a desired step size can be obtained by
a) Selecting proper value of VFS
b) Selecting proper value of R
c) Selecting proper value of Rf
d) All of these
Ans: (C)
90. The smallest resistor in a 12 bit weighted resistor DAC is 2.5kΩ, what will be the largest resistor
value?
a) 40.96MΩ
b) 10.24MΩ
c) 61.44 MΩ
d) 18.43MΩ
Ans: (b)
91. How to overcome the limitation of binary weighted resistor type DAC?
a) Using R-2R ladder type DAC
b) Multiplying DACs
c) Using monolithic DAC
d) Using hybrid DAC
Ans: (a)
92. A function generator can produce

a) Many identical waves
b) Square and sine waves only
c) Different types of waves simultaneously
d) None of these
Ans: ©
93. An IC function generator can allow the signals for

a) Amplitude Modulation (AM)
b) Frequency Modulation (FM)
c) Frequency Shift Keying (FSK)
d) All of these
Ans: (d)
94. The value of current and frequency of the output waveform are 5A and 13.33kHz. Find the
capacitance value in function generator?
a) 250µF
b) 120µF
c) 850µF
d) 370µF
Ans: (b)
95. Usually circuit producing sine waves are called as

a) Oscillators
b) Generators
c) Multivibrators
d) All of these
Ans: (a)
96. The value of series resistance in the square wave generator should be 100kΩ or higher in order to
a) Prevent excessive differential current flow
b) Increase resistivity of the circuit
c) Reduce output offset voltage
d) All of these
Ans: (a)
97. Why zener diode is used at the output terminal of square wave generator?
a) To reduce both output and capacitor voltage swing
b) To reduce output voltage swing
c) To reduce input voltage swing
d) To reduce capacitor voltage swing
Ans: b & d
98. The output voltage of phase detector is

a) Phase voltage
b) Free running voltage

c) Error voltage
d) None of these
Ans: (c)
99. At which state the phase-locked loop tracks any change in input frequency?
a) Free running state
b) Capture state
c) Phase locked state
d) All of these
Ans: ©
100. What is the need to generate corrective control voltage?

a) To maintain the lock
b) To track the frequency change
c) To shift the VCO frequency
d) All of these
Ans: (d)
101. An ideal OP-AMP is an ideal

a) current controlled current source
b) current controlled voltage source
c) voltage controlled voltage source
d) voltage controlled current source
Ans: (c)
102. An OP-AMP has a slew rate of 5 V/uS The largest sinewave output voltage possible at a
frequency of 100 kHz
a) 2 V
b) 4 V
c) 8 V
d) 12 V
Ans: (c)
103. A 741 type OP-AMP has a gain-bandwidth product of 1 MHz. A non-inverting amplifier using
this OP-AMP and having voltage gain of 40 dB will exhibit -3 dB bandwidth of
a) 10 kHz
b) 20 kHz
c) 30 kHz
d) 40 kHz
Ans: (a)
104. A differential amplifier has differential gain of 10,000 and CMRR= 70 dB. The common mode
gain is given by
a) 0.25
b) 0.32
c) 0.4
d) 0.5
Ans: (b)
105. For an ideal OP-AMP which one is not true

a) Output resistance is zero
b) The differential voltage across the input terminal is zero
c) The current from output terminal is zero
d) slew rate is infinity
Ans: (c)
106. When a step input given to an OP-AMP integrator , the output will be
a) A ramp
b) Impulse
c) A parabolic
d) A triangular wave
Ans: (a)
107. The center frequency of a band-pass filter is always equal to the

a) Bandwidth
b) bandwidth divided by Q
c) cut-off frequency
d) geometric average of the critical frequencies
Ans: (d)
108. A digital-to-analog converter is an application of the

a) scaling adder
b) voltage-to-current converter
c) noninverting amplifier
d) adjustable bandwidth circuit
Ans: (A)
109. Initially, the closed-loop gain (Acl) of a Wien-bridge oscillator should be

a) > 3
b) < 3
c) 0
d) =1
Ans: (a)
110. A two pole single zero band-pass filter would have a net roll-off rate
a) 20 dB/dec
b) 40 dB/dec
c) -20 dB/dec
d) -40 dB/dec
Ans: (c)
111. A triangular-wave oscillator can consist of an op-amp comparator, followed by

a) Amplifier
b) Differentiator
c) Summer
d) Integrator
Ans: (d)
112. CMRR value of 741 type OP-AMP

a) 60 dB
b) 70 dB
c) 80 dB
d) 90 dB
Ans: (d)
113. Which is not the internal circuitry of a OP-AMP
a) differential amplifier
b) level translator
c) output driver
d) clamper
Ans: (d)
114. The purpose of level shifter the OP-AMP internal circuit is to

a) adjust DC voltage
b) increase impedance
c) provide high gain
d) increase bandwidth
Ans: (a)
115. The large signal bandwidth of a OP-AMP is limited by its

a) slew rate
b) loop gain
c) output impedance
d) input impedance
Ans: (a)
116. For generating 1 kHz signal, the most suitable circuit is

a) colpitts oscillator
b) Hartly Oscillator
c) Wien Bride oscillator
d) Tuned Oscillator
Ans: (c)
117. When a sinusoidal voltage wave is fed to a Schmitt trigger, the output will be
a) triangular wave
b) rectangular wave
c) sine wave
d) asymmetrical square wave
Ans: (d)
118. Pulse stretching, time-delay, and pulse generation are all easily accomplished with which type of
multivibrator circuit?
a) Astable
b) Monostable
c) Multistable
d) Bistable
Ans: (b)
119. An astable multivibrator requires

a) balanced time constants
b) a pair of matched transistors
c) no input signal
d) dual J-K flip-flops
Ans: (c)
120. An astable 555 timer has the following number of stable states
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Ans: (a)
121. If the resistor in the Schmitt trigger astable multivibrator is a variable resistor, what part of the
output voltage waveform will change when the resistance is changed?
a) the shape of the waveform
b) the amplitude of the waveform
c) the period of the waveform
d) none of these
Ans: (c)
122. Butterworth sallen-key LPF has

a) multiple real poles
b) complex conjugate poles
c) simple poles
d) purely imaginary poles
Ans: (b)
123. The Transfer function of all pass filter is

a) Proper
b) biProper
c) imProper
d) none of these
Ans: (b)
124. At which state the phase-locked loop tracks any change in input frequency?
a) Free running state
b) Capture state
c) Phase locked state
d) All of these
Ans: (c)
125. Negative feedback in an amplifier

a) increase noise
b) reduce noise
c) increase bandwidth
d) both b and c
Ans: (d)
126. An ideal OPAMP should have

(a) Low gain at low frequencies and high gain at high frequencies
(b) High gain at low frequencies and low gain at high frequencies
(c) High gain at all frequencies.
Ans: (c)
127. Drift of an amplifier means
(a) Variation of gain with load
(b) Variation of gain with frequency
(c) Change in sensitivity with temperature
Ans: (c)
128. Identify the following circuit:
(a)Adder
(b) Subtractor
(c) Differentiator
Ans: (b)
129. In a linear OPAMP circuit, the
(a) Gain band width is constant.
(b) Op- amp does not go into saturation
(c) Op- amp goes into saturation
Ans: (b)
130.
(a) voltage output is -2 vin1+vin2+4vin3

(b) voltage output is +2 vin1-vin2+4vin3
(c) voltage output is -2 vin1+vin2-4vin3
Ans: (a)
131. What is Slew Rate and what causes slew rate?

(a) Maximum change in output with respect to a change in the step input voltage, C
(b) Maximum change in output with respect to a change in frequency ,C
(c) Increases speed ,Temperature

Ans: (a)
132. Identify this amplifier:

a) Diode Log Converter
(b) Logarithmic Amplifier
(c) Anti –Logarithmic Amplifier
Ans: (b)
133. Identify the circuit

Monostable Multivibrator
(b) Astable Multivibrator
(c) Bistable Multivibrator
Ans: (b)
134. An 8 bit successive approximation ADC is driven by a 1 MHz clock . Find its conversion time.
(a)1µsec
(b) 8 µsec
(c) 9 µsec
Ans: (c)
135. One input terminal of high gain comparator circuit is connected to ground and a sinusoidal
voltage is applied to the other input. The output of comparator will be
(a) A sinusoid
(b) Inverted Sinusoid
(c) Square waveform
Ans: (c)
136. A comparator is an example for a

(a) Linear Circuit
(b) Non-Linear circuit
(c) Active filter
Ans: (b)
137. A zero-level detector is a

(a) Comparator with a trip point referenced to zero
(b) Peak detector
(c) Limiter
Ans: (a)
138. A basic series regulator is a

(a) Reference voltage
(b) Reference voltage
(c) Error detector and reference voltage
Ans: (c)
139. A triangular-wave oscillator can consist of an op-amp comparator, followed by an

(a) Multivibrator
(b)Integrator
(c)Amplifier
Ans: (b)
140. The time for which the output is active divided by the total period of the output signal.
(a) ON time
(b) Active Ratio
(c) Duty cycle
Ans: (c)
141. Voltage regulators keep a constant output voltage when the input or load varies within
limits.
(a)DC
(b)AC
(c)Ripple
Ans: (a)
142. What is the range of the voltage level of the LM317 adjusted voltage regulator?
(a) 0 to 5 V
(b)1.2 V to 37 V
(c) –5 V to –24 V
Ans: (b)
143. A voltage regulator with a no-load output dc voltage of 12 V is connected to a load with a
resistance of 10 . If the load resistance decreases to 7.5 , the load voltage will decrease to 10.9 V. The
load current will be , and the percent load regulation is .
(a) 1.45 A, 90.8%
(b) 1.45 A, 10.09%
(c)1.2 A, 90.8%
Ans: (b)
144.Identify the circuit:
a) a series-pass voltage regulator.

b) a shunt voltage regulator.
c) a step-up switching regulator.
Ans: (b)
145. The current gain of BJT

a. gmr0
b. gm\r0
c. gm rπ
d. gm\rπ
Ans: c
146. What is the purpose of an additional RC filter section in a power supply circuit?
(a) Increase the dc voltage component
(b) Increase the ac voltage component
(c) Decrease the ac voltage component
Ans: (c)
147. The regulator is less efficient than the type, but offers inherent short-circuit
protection.
(a)series,shunt
(b) shunt, series
(c)series,series
Ans: (b)
148. In which of the following applications is a pulsating dc voltage suitable?
(a) Battery charger

(b)Computer
(c)Radio
Ans: (a)
149. Which component(s) set(s) the voltage across the load in a basic transistor shunt regulator?
(a) Zener diode
(b) Transistor base-emitter voltage

(c) Both the Zener diode and the transistor base-emitter voltage
Ans: (c)
150. What type of regulator offers inherent short-circuit protection?

(a) Shunt Regulators
(b) series regulators
(c) switching regulators
Ans: (a)
SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS / NEURAL NETWORKS
1. Which among the following assertions represents a necessary condition for the existence of
Fourier Transform of discrete time signal (DTFT)?
a) Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely summable
b) Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely multipliable
c) Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely integrable
d) Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely differentiable
2. Which property of periodic signal in DTFS gets completely clarified / identified by the
equation
x (n – n0)?
a) Conjugation
b) Time Shifting
c) Frequency Shifting
d) Time Reversal
3. If the signal to be analyzed is an analog signal, we would pass it through an anti-aliasing

filter with B as the bandwidth of the filtered signal and then the signal is sampled at a rate:
a) Fs ≤ 2B
b) Fs ≤ B
c) Fs ≥ 2B
d) Fs = 2B
4. If x(n)=cosω0n and W(ω) is the Fourier transform of the rectangular signal w(n), then what
is the Fourier transform of the signal x(n).w(n)?
a) 1/2[W(ω-ω0)- W(ω+ω0)].
b) 1/2[W(ω-ω0)+ W(ω+ω0)].
37. Two thin parallel wires are carrying current in opposite direction. The force experienced by one due
to other is
a) repulsive force
b) zero force
c) attractive force
38. An electric potential field is produced in air by point charges 1µc and 4µc located at (-2,1,5) and
(1,3,1) respectively. The energy stored in the field is
a) 2.57mJ
b) 5.14mJ
c) 10.28mJ
d) 12.5mJ
39. Laplacian of a scalar function V is
a) always zero
b) proportional to charge density
c) proportional to current
40. The capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor is given by ɛoɛr(A/d) where A is the area of each plate
and d is the distance between the plates. Considering fringing field, under which of the following
conditions is the above expression valid?
a) A/d is tending towards 0
b) A/d is tending towards infinity

9. How many complex multiplications are need to be performed for each FFT algorithm?
a) (N/2)logN
b) Nlog2N
c) (N/2)log2N
10. How many complex additions are required to be performed in linear filtering of a
sequence using FFT algorithm?
a) (N/2)logN
b) 2Nlog2N
c) (N/2)log2N
d) Nlog2N
11. For a decimation-in-time FFT algorithm, which of the following is true?
a) Both input and output are in order
b) Both input and output are shuffled
c) Input is shuffled and output is in order
d) Input is in order and output is shuffled
12. Which property of periodic signal in DTFS gets completely identified by the equation x
(n+17)?
a) Time scaling
b) Time Shifting
c) Frequency Shifting
d) Time Reversal
13. Which among the following assertions represents a necessary condition for the existence
of Fourier Transform of discrete time signal (DTFT)?
a) Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely summable
b) Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely multipliable
c) Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely integrable
d) Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely differentiable
14. The 4-point discrete Fourier Transform (DFT) of a discrete time sequence {1, 0, 2, 3} is
a) [0,−2+2j,2,−2−2j]
b) [2,2+2j,6,2−2j]
c) [6,1−3j,2,1+3j]
d) [6,−1+3j,0,−1−3j]
15. How many complex additions are performed in computing the N-point DFT of a
sequence using divide-and-conquer method if N=LM?
a) N(L+M+2)
b) N(L+M-2)
c) N(L+M-1)
d) N(L+M+1)
16. The first six points of the 8-point DFT of a real valued sequence are 5,1−j3,0,3−4j, and
3+j4. The last two points of the DFT are respectively
a) 0, 1 −j3
b) 0, 1+j3
c) 1+j3, 5
d) 1−j3, 5
17. Fourier transform and its inverse are infinitely

a) aperiodic
b) periodic
c) linear
d) non linear
18. What is the circular convolution of the sequences x1(n)={2,1,2,1} and x2(n)={1,2,3,4}?
a) {14,14,16,16}
b) {16,16,14,14}
c) {2,3,6,4}
d) {14,16,14,16}
19. Which of the following is true regarding the number of computations required to compute
DFT at any one value of ‘k’?
a) 4N-2 real multiplications and 4N real additions
b) 4N real multiplications and 4N-4 real additions
c) 4N-2 real multiplications and 4N+2 real additions
d) 4N real multiplications and 4N-2 real additions
20. What is the value of x(n)*h(n), 0≤n≤11 for the sequences x(n)={1,2,0,-3,4,2,-1,1,-
2,3,2,1,-3} and h(n)={1,1,1} if we perform using overlap add fast convolution technique?
a) {1,3,3,1,1,3,5,2,2,2,3,6}
b) {1,2,0,-3,4,2,-1,1,-2,3,2,1,-3}
c) {1,2,0,3,4,2,1,1,2,3,2,1,3}
d) {1,3,3,-1,1,3,5,2,-2,2,3,6}
21. What is the total number of quantization errors in the computation of single point DFT of
a sequence of length N?
a) 2N
b) 4N
c) 8N
d) 12N
22. What is/are the crucial purposes of using the Fourier Transform while analyzing any
elementary signals at different frequencies?
a) Transformation from time domain to frequency domain
b) Plotting of amplitude & phase spectrum
c) Transformation from time domain to frequency domain and plotting of amplitude & phase
spectrum
d) None of these
23. Given that W=e-I (2π/N) , where N=3. Then F=WN can be computed as F=
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) e
24. Given that W=e-I (2π/N) , where N=3. Then F=W(N/2) can be computed as F=
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) e
25. DTFT is the representation of
a) Periodic Discrete time signals
b) Aperiodic Discrete time signals
c) Aperiodic continuous signals

d) Periodic continuous signals
26. A system which is linear is said to obey the rules of
a) scaling
b) additivity
c) both scaling and additivity
27. A time invariant system is a system whose output
a) increases with a delay in input
b) decreases with a delay in input
c) remains same with a delay in input
d) vanishes with a delay in input
28. A system is said to be defined as non causal, when
a) the output at the present depends on the input at an earlier time
b) the output at the present does not depend on the factor of time at all
c) the output at the present depends on the input at the current time
d) the output at the present depends on the input at a time instant in the future
29. All causal systems must have the component of
a) memory
b) time invariance
c) stability
d) linearity
30. H(S) is a transfer function of LTI system, the system is causal when
a) The ROC is left side of leftmost pole
b) The ROC is right side of rightmost pole
c) ROC covers the entire S-Plane
d) No ROC
31. Which property of delta function indicates the equality between the area under the
product of function with shifted impulse and the value of function located at unit impulse
instant?
a) Replication
b) Sampling
c) Scaling
d) Product
32. The trignometric Fourier series of an even function of time does not have
a) dc term
b) cosine term
c) sine term
d) odd harmonic terms
33. An equalizer used to compensate the distortion in the communication system by faithful
recovery of an original signal is nothing but an illustration of
a) Static system
b) Dynamic system
c) Invertible system
34. A LTI system is said to be initially relaxed system only if ____
a) Zero input produces zero output

b) Zero input produces non-zero output
c) Unity input produces zero output
d) Unity input produces infinite output
35. Which theorem states that the total average power of a periodic signal is equal to the sum
of average powers of the individual fourier coefficients?
a) Parseval’s Theorem
b) Rayleigh’s Theorem
c) Both a & b
36. What causes the gibbs phenomenon?
a) Abruptly integrating the signals
b) Abruptly terminating the signals
c) x(t) should be continuous only
d) Signal should be discontinuous
37. When is fourier convergence theorem applicable?
a) Continuous function limit
b) Discrete function limit
c) Infinite series limit
d) Break point limits
38. The impulse response h[n] of a linear time invariant system is given by h[n] = ∪[n + 3 ] +
∪[n - 2] -2∪[n -7]. The above system is
a) stable but non-casual

b) stable and casual
c) casual but unstable
d) unstable and not casual
39. If f(t) is in volts, then F(jω) is in
a) volts
b) volts sec
c) volts/sec
d) volts/(sec)^2
40.
A 1 kHz sinusoidal signal is ideally sampled at 1500 samples/sec and the sampled signal is
passed through an ideal low pass filter with cut off frequency 800 Hz. The output signal has
the frequency.
a) 0 Hz
b) 0.75 kHz
c) 0.25 kHz
d) 0.5 kHz
41. The impulse fourier transform of impulse function is
a) unit step function
b) unit ramp function
c) unit impulse function
d) one
42. The Nyquist theorem for sampling
1) Relates the conditions in time domain and frequency domain
2) Helps in quantization
3) Limits the bandwidth requirement
4) Gives the spectrum of the signal
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) All the four are correct
43. Effect caused by under sampling is called
a) smoothing
b) sharpening
c) summation
d) aliasing
44. Product of two functions in spatial domain is what, in frequency domain
a) correlation
b) convolution
c) Fourier transform
d) fast Fourier transform
45. Which one of the following statement is not true for a continuous time causal and stable
LTI system?
a) All poles should lie on the left side of the jw axis
b) Zeros of the systems can lie anywhere in the S-plane
c) All the poles must lie within the |s| =1
d) All the roots of the characteristic equation must be located on the left of jw axis
46. Two systems h1(t) and h2(t) are connected in cascade. Then overall response of the
system is
a) product of h1(t) and h2(t)
b) sum of of h1(t) and h2(t)
c) convolution of of h1(t) and h2(t)
d) correlation of of h1(t) and h2(t)
47. A bandlimited signal with a maximum frequency of 5kHz is to be sampled. According, to

the sampling theorem the sampling frequency which is not valid is
a) 5 kHz
b) 10 kHz
c) 15 kHz
d) 12 kHz
48. The system y(n) = nx(-n) is a
1. Dymanic
2. non causal
3. linear
4. Time invariant
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,3,4
c) 1,2,3
d) 2,3,4
49. . If x[n ] and h[n ] both are odd signals, that is, x[-n ]= -x[n] and h[- n] = -h[n], then the
output signal y[n ] will be a
a) an even signal
b) an odd signal
c) such that y[0] =0

b) 1
c) 1.2
d) 0.90<901°
65. A flat transmission line delivers 5 kW at 10 A. What is its impedance?
a) 50 Ohms
b) 20 Ohms
c) 200 Ohms
d) 500 Ohms
66. Which one is used in higher frequency range, coaxial cable or rectangular wave guide or parallel
wires.
a) rectangular waveguide
b) coaxial cable
c) parallel wires
67. The VSWR can have any value between
a) 0 and 1
b) – 1 and +1
c) 0 and infinite
d) 1 and infinite
68. A rectangular waveguide acts as a
a) Low Pass Filter
b) balanced line
54. What is the ROC of z-transform of finite duration anti-causal sequence?
a) z=0
b) z=∞
c) Entire z-plane, except at z=0
d) Entire z-plane, except at z=∞
55. What is the ROC of the system function H(z) if the discrete time LTI system is BIBO
stable?
a) Entire z-plane, except at z=0
b) Entire z-plane, except at z=∞
c) Contain unit circle
56. What are the values of z for which the value of X(z)=0?
a) Poles
b) Zeros
c) Solutions
57. What are the values of z for which the value of X(z)=∞?
a) Poles
b) Zeros
c) Solutions
58. The z-transform X(z) of the signal x(n)=anu(n) has:
a) One pole at z=0 and one zero at z=a

b) One pole at z=0 and one zero at z=0
c) One pole at z=a and one zero at z=a
d) One pole at z=a and one zero at z=0
59. The frequency ωP is called as:
a) Pass band ripple
b) Stop band ripple
c) Pass band edge ripple
d) Stop band edge ripple
60. What is the pass band edge frequency of an analog low pass normalized filter?
a) 0 rad/sec
b) 0.5 rad/sec
c) 1 rad/sec
d) 1.5 rad/sec
61. If all the poles have small magnitudes, then the rate of decay of signal is:
a) Slow
b) Constant
c) Rapid
62. If the phase ϴ(ω) of the system is linear, then the group delay of the system:
a) Increases with frequency of signal
b) Constant
c) Decreases with frequency of signal
d) Independent of frequency of signal

63. If the low pass filter described by the difference equation y(n)=0.9y(n-1)+0.1x(n) is
converted into a high pass filter, then what is the frequency response of the high pass filter?
a) 0.1/(1+0.9ejω )
b) 0.1/(1+0.9e-jω)
c) 0.1/(1-0.9ejω )
64. The filter with the system function H(z)=z -k is a:
a) Notch filter
b) Band pass filter
c) All pass filter
65. As the value of the frequency Ω tends to ∞, then |H(jΩ)| tends to:
a) 0
b) 1
c) ∞
66. If a system is said to be invertible, then:
a) One-to-one correspondence between its input and output signals
b) One-to-many correspondence between its input and output signals
c) Many-to-one correspondence between its input and output signals

67. If the frequency response of an FIR system is given as H(z)=6+z-1-z-2, then the system
is:
a) Minimum phase
b) Maximum phase
c) Mixed phase
68. If the frequency response of an FIR system is given as H(z)=1-z-1-z-2, then the system is:
a) Minimum phase
b) Maximum phase
c) Mixed phase
69. If M and N are the orders of numerator and denominator of rational system function
respectively, then how many multiplications are required in direct form-I realization of that
IIR filter?
a) M+N-1
b) M+N
c) M+N+1
d) M+N+2
70. If we reverse the directions of all branch transmittances and interchange the input and
output in the flow graph, then the resulting structure is called as:
a) Direct form-I
b) Transposed form
c) Direct form-II

71. What is the duration of the unit sample response of a digital filter?
a) Finite
b) Infinite
c) Impulse(very small)
d) Zero
72. Which of the following methods are used to convert analog filter into digital filter?
a) Approximation of Derivatives
b) Bilinear transformation
c) Impulse invariance
d) All of the mentioned
73. Low pass Butterworth filters are also called as:
a) All-zero filter
b) All-pole filter
c) Pole-zero filter
74. Which of the following is not suitable either as low pass or a high pass filter?
a) h(n) symmetric and M odd
b) h(n) symmetric and M even
c) h(n) anti-symmetric and M odd
d) h(n) anti-symmetric and M even
75.
What is the region between origin and the pass band frequency in the magnitude frequency
response of a low pass filter?
a) Stop band
b) Pass band
c) Transition band
76. One sine wave has a period of 2 ms, another has a period of 5ms, and other has a period
of 10ms.Which sine wave is changing at a faster rate?
a) sine wave with period 2 ms
b) sine wave with period of 5 ms
c) all are at the same rate
d) Sine wave with a period of 10ms
77. How many cycles does a sine wave go through in 10 s when its frequency is 60Hz?
a) 10 cycles
b) 60 cycles
c) 600 cycles
d) 6 cycles
78. A sine wave has a positive going zero crossing at 0ᵒ and an rms value of 20V.What is its
instantaneous value at 145ᵒ.
a) 7.32V
b) 16.22V
c) 26.57V
d) 21.66V
79. A sine wave voltage is applied across a capacitor, when the frequency of the voltage is
increased, the current
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) is zero
80. A sine wave voltage is applied across an inductor, when the frequency of the voltage is
increased, the current
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) is zero
81. A 1 KHz sinusoidal voltage is applied to an RL circuit, what is the frequency of the
resulting current?
a) 1 KHz
b) 0.1KHz
c) 100KHz
d) 2KHz
82. A series RL circuit has a resistance of 33 KΩ, and an inductive reactance of 50 KΩ.What
is its impedance and phase angle?
a) 56.58 Ω,59.9ᵒ
b) 59.9 KΩ,56.58ᵒ
c) 59.9 Ω,56.58ᵒ
d) 5.99 Ω,56.58ᵒ
83. When the frequency of the applied voltage in a series RL circuit is increased, what
happens to the inductive reactance?
a) decreases
b) remains the same
c) increases
d) becomes zero
84. What is the phase angle between the inductor current and the applied voltage in a parallel
RL circuit?
a) 0ᵒ
b) 45ᵒ
c) 90ᵒ
d) 30ᵒ
85. When the resistance in an RC circuit is greater than the capacitive reactance, the phase
angle between the applied voltage and the total current is closer to
a) 90ᵒ
b) 0ᵒ
c) 45ᵒ
d) 120ᵒ
86. In a certain series RC circuit, VR =4 V and VC =6 V. What is the magnitude of the total
voltage?
a) 7.2 V
b) 4 V
c) 6 V
d) 52 V
87. In a given series RLC circuit, XC is 150 Ω, and XL is 80 Ω, what is the total
reactance?What is the type of reactance?
a) 70 Ω, inductive
b) 70 Ω, capacitive
c) 70 Ω, resistive
d) 150 Ω, capacitive
88. In a certain series RLC circuit VR =24 V, VL = 15 V and VC =45 V.What is the source
voltage.
a) 38.42 V
b) 45V
c) 15V
d) 24V
89. The phasor combination of resistive power and reactive power is called
a) true power
b) apparent power
c) reactive power
d) average power
90. In a certain series RC circuit, the true power is 2 W, and the reactive power is 3.5 VAR.
What is the apparent power?
a) 3.5 VA
b) 2 VA
c) 4.03 VA
d) 3 VA
91. Maximum power transfer occurs at a
a) 100% efficiency
b) 50% efficiency
c) 25% efficiency
d) 75% efficiency
92. The Laplace transform of first derivative of a function f(t) is
a) F(s)/s
b) sF(s) - f(0)
c) F(s) – f(0)
d) f(0)
93. The Laplace transform of integral of function f(t) is
a) (1/s)F(s)
b) sF(s) – f(0)
c) F(s) – f(0)
d) f’(0)
94. The initial value of 20 – 10t – e25t is
a) 20
b) 19
c) 10
d) 25
95. The final value of (2S + 1)/(s4 + 8s3 +16s2 + s) is
a) 2
b) infinite
c) zero
d) 1
96. The inverse laplace transform of 1/s( 1 – e-as ) is
a) u(t) – u (t-a)
b) u(t)
c) u(t –a)
d) zero
97. In the solution of network differential equations,the constants in the complementary

function have to be evaluated from the initial conditions, and then the particular integral is to
be added. This procedure is
a) correct.
b) incorrect.
c) the one to be followed for finding the natural response.
d) the one to be followed for finding the natural and forced responses.
98. A unit impulse voltage is applied to one port network having two linear components. If
the current through the network is 0 for t<0 and decays exponentially for t>0 then the
network consists of
a) R and L in series
b) R and L in parallel
c) R and C in parallel
d) R and C in series
99. Wave A = 100 sin ωt and wave B = 100 cos ωt. Then
a) rms values of the two waves are equal
b) rms values of A is more than that of B
c) rms values of A is less than that of B
d) rms values of the two waves may or may not be equal

100. The impedance of an RC series circuit is 12 Ω at f= 50 Hz. At f= 200 Hz, the impedance
will be
a) more than 12
b) less than 3
c) more than 3 Ω but less than 12 Ω
d) more than 12 Ω but less than 24 Ω
101. An RL low-pass filter consists of a 5.6 mH coil and a 3.3 k ohm resistor. The output
voltage is taken across the resistor. The circuit's cut-off
frequency is
a) 93.8 kHz
b) 93.8 Hz
c) 861 Hz
d) 86.12 kHz
102. The maximum output voltage of a certain low-pass filter is 15 V. The output voltage at
the cut-off frequency is
a) 0 V
b) 15 V
c) 10.60 V
d) 21.21 V
103. A sinusoidal voltage with a peak-to-peak value of 18 V is applied to an RC low-pass

filter. If the reactance at the input frequency is zero, the
output voltage is
a) 18 V peak-to-peak
b) zero
c) 9 V peak-to-peak
d) 12.74 V peak-to-peak
104. What do the high pass filters generally comprise of?
a) Capacitive series arm
b) Capacitive shunt arm
c) Resistive series arm
d) None of these
105. Which of the following is also known as a notch filter?
a) low-pass
b) high-pass
c) bandpass
d) band-reject
106. A band pass filter is one which :
a) attenuates frequencies between two designated cut-off frequencies and passes all other
frequencies
b) passes frequencies between two designated cut-off frequencies, and attenuates all other
frequencies
c) passes all frequencies
d) none of these
107. A voltage source supplies a signal of constant amplitude, from 0 to 40 kHz, to an RC
lowpass filter. A load resistor, connected in parallel across the
capacitor, experiences the maximum voltage at
a) dc
b) 10KHz
c) 20KHz
d) 40KHz
108. In a certain parallel resonant band-pass filter, the resonant frequency is 14 kHz. If the
bandwidth is 4 kHz, the lower frequency
a) 7 kHz
b) 10 kHz
c) 12 kHz
d) cannot be determined
109. A parallel resonant band-pass filter consists of a 90 ohm resistor in series with a parallel
network made up of a 60 mH coil and a 0.02 uF capacitor.
The output is taken across the capacitor/coil. The coil winding has a resistance of 20 ohm.
What is the center frequency of the filter?
a) 459 Hz
b) 4,591 Hz
c) 999 Hz
d) 2,176 Hz
110. A parallel resonant band-pass filter consists of a 6.8 ohm resistor in series with a parallel
network made up of an 8 uH coil and a 120 pF capacitor.
The output is taken across the capacitor/coil. What is the center frequency of the filter?
a) 5.14 MHz
b) 514 kHz
c) 5.03 MHz
d) 503 kHz
111. A series resonant band-pass filter consists of a 2 mH coil, a 0.005 uF capacitor, and a
120 ohm resistor. The winding resistance of the coil is 12 ohm. The output voltage is taken
off the resistor. Input voltage is 12 Vrms. What is the output voltage magnitude at the center
frequency?
a) 10.9 V
b) 1.09 V
c) 1.1 V
d) 12 V
112. A sinusoidal voltage with a peak-to-peak value of 18 V is applied to an RC high-pass

filter. If the reactance at the input frequency is zero, the
output voltage is
a) 18 V peak-to-peak
b) zero
c) 9 V peak-to-peak
d) 12.73 V peak-to-peak
113. How much inductance is needed to resonate at 5 kHz with a capacitance of 12 nF?
a) 2,652 H
b) 11.844 H
c) 3.333 H
d) 84.43 mH
114. In a series RLC circuit, which of these quality factors has the steepest magnitude
response curve near resonance
a) Q=20
b) Q=12
c) Q=08
d) Q=04
115. Which among the following represents the precise condition of reciprocity for
transmission parameters?
a) AB - CD = 1
b) AD – BC = 1
c) AC – BD = 1
116. If the two ports are connected in cascade configuration, then which arithmetic operation
should be performed between the individual transmission parameters in order to determine
overall transmission parameters?
a) Addition
b) Subtraction
c) Multiplication
d) Division
117. If the two ports are connected in series configuration, then which arithmetic operation
should be performed between the individual Z parameters in order to determine overall Z
parameters?
a) Addition
b) Subtraction
c) Multiplication
d) Division
118. The poles of driving point impedance are those frequencies corresponding to
___________ conditions?
a) short circuit
b) voltage source
c) open circuit
d) current source
119. The zeros of driving point impedance are those frequencies corresponding to
___________ conditions?
a) current source
b) open circuit
c) voltage source
d) short circuit
120. Transfer admittance function is the ratio of Laplace transforms of ________
a) Current at one port to voltage at other port
b) Voltage at one port to current at other port
c) Current at one port to current at other port
d) Voltage at one point to voltage at other port
121. When a network function is expressed as a ratio of Laplace transforms of output to input
variables of a system, then it is regarded as _______
a) System function
b) Transfer function
c) Impedance
d) Admittance
122. Power factor of a series RLC resonant circuit will be
a) 0.5
b) 0.75
c) 1
d) cannot be determined
123. The reactance offered by a capacitor to ac of frequency 50 Hz is 10Ω If the frequency is

increased to double, reactance becomes
a) 20 ohm
b) 5 ohm
c) 2.5 ohm
d) 10 ohm
124. Quality factor of a series RLC circuit possessing resonant frequency of 10 Hz and
bandwidth of 5 Hz is
a) 0.5
b) 2
c) 2.5
d) 50
125. A parallel resonant circuit has a resistance of 2K Ω and half power frequencies of 96
KHz and 100 KHz. The value of capacitor is
a) 6 uF
b) 20 nF
c) 2 nF
d) 60 uF
126. For a voltage source to be neglected, the terminals across the source should be
a) Replaced by an inductance
b) Short circuited
c) Open circuited
d) Replaced by a resistance
127. Pick the incorrect statement among the following
a) Capacitor is a passive element
b) Resistor is a passive element
c) Current source is a passive element
d) Voltage source is an active element
128. In a practical voltage source, the terminal voltage
a) cannot be less than source voltage
b) is twice the source voltage
c) is always less than source voltage
d) is always equal to source voltage
129. A practical current source can be represented as
a) A resistance in parallel with an ideal voltage source
b) A resistance in series with an ideal current source
c) A resistance in series with an ideal voltage source
d) A resistance in parallel with an ideal current source
130. Which element(s) behave as an open circuit especially under the consideration of direct
current (d.c.)?
a) Inductor
b) Resistor
c) Capacitor
d) All of these
131. A network has 12 branches, 8 independant loops. How many nodes are there in the
network
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
132. Three resistances 60 Ω, 60 Ω and 30 Ω are connected in parallel. Their combined

resistance is
a) 30 Ω
b) 15 Ω
c) 20 Ω
d) 45 Ω
133. Kirchhoff’s voltage law states that
a) Net current flow at the junction is positive
b) Algebraic sum of the currents meeting at the junction is zero
c) Algebraic sum of the voltages meeting at the junction is zero
d) Algebraic sum of the voltages around the loop is zero
134. The maximum current that a 2W, 80KΩ resistor can safely conduct is
a) 5mA
b) 2mA
c) 40mA
d) 10mA
135. The current through a branch in a network is 2A when input voltage is 10V.If the
voltage is changed to 1V, then the current through the branch is
a) 4.5A
b) 0.2A
c) 0.5A
d) 2A
136. Which law plays a significant role in the loop analysis of the network?
a) Kirchhoff’s Current Law
b) Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law
c) Law of Superposition Theorem
d) Ohm's Law
137. Regarding loop/mesh analysis (in application level), which among the following
statements is/are true?
a) Utilizes loop currents instead of branch currents for writing equations
b) Appropriate for circuit containing more nodes than meshes.
c) Better choice than the nodal analysis when the circuit has more nodes than meshes
d) All of these
138. In which among the following cases, the nodal analysis become a clearly better choice
than the mesh analysis
a) Circuit has more nodes than meshes
b) Circuit has equal number of nodes and meshes
c) Circuit has a crossover

d) None of these
139. The number of loops within a mesh is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
140. In nodal analysis, how many nodes are taken as reference nodes?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
141. The superposition theorem is applicable to
a) voltage only
b) current only
c) both current and voltage
d) current, voltage and power
142. In Superposition theorem, while considering a source, all other current sources are
a) short circuited
b) kept as such
c) open circuited
d) removed from the circuit

143. What should be done, if any dependent voltage source is present in a circuit while
applying the Superposition Theorem?
a) Replace it by an open circuit
b) Replace it by a short circuit
c) Keep it in its original form without replacing by either open or short circuit
d) None of the these
144. The superposition theorem requires as many circuits to be solved as there are
a) sources, nodes and meshes
b) sources and nodes
c) sources
d) nodes
145. While calculating the equivalent resistance in Thevenin’s /Norton’s theorem
a) all independent sources are made dead
b) only current sources are made dead
c) only voltage sources are made dead
d) all sources are made dead
146. Which among the following is not required while applying Thevenin’s theorem?
a) Calculation of Thevenin’s equivalent voltage
b) Removal of branch impedance for which the current flow is to be estimated
c) Estimation of equivalent impedance between the two terminals of the branch
d) Calculation of Norton’s equivalent current
147. Application of Norton’s theorem to a circuit yields
a) equivalent current source and impedance in series

b) equivalent current source and impedance in parallel
c) equivalent impedance
d) equivalent current source
148. For transfer of maximum power, the internal resistance of the source should be
a) equal to the load resistance
b) less than the load resistance
c) more than the load resistance
d) twice the load resistance
149. Consider a source transferring the maximum power to a load resistance, through a
network. The ratio of the power transferred to the load to the total power transferred by the
source
a) is always 0.5
b) is 0.5 or less
c) is 0.5 or more
d) is always 1
150. If the source impedance is complex, then the maximum power transfer occurs when the
load impedance is
a) equal to the source impedance
b) negative of the source impedance
c) complex conjugate of the source impedance
d) negative of complex conjugate of the source impedance

----------Key----------
1. (a)
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. (b)
5. (d)
6. (c)
7. (d)
8. (d)
9. (c)
10. (b)
11. (c)
12. (b)
13. (a)
14. (d)
15. (b)
16. (b)
17. (b)
18. (d)
19. (d)
20. (a)
21. (b)
22. (c)
23. (b)
24. (c)
25. (b)
26. (c)
27. (c)
28. (d)
29. (a)
30. (b)
31. (b)
32. (c)
33. (c)
34. (a)
35. (a)
36. (b)
37. (c)
38. (a)
39. (b)
40. (d)
41. (d)
42. (c)
43. (d)
44. (b)
45. (d)
46. (c)
47. (a)
48. (c)
49. (b)
50. (c)
51. (a)
52. (c)
53. (a)
54. (d)
55. (c)
56. (b)
57. (a)
58. (d)
59. (c)
60. (c)
61. (c)
62. (b)
63. (b)
64. (c)
65. (a)
66. (a)
67. (a)
68. (b)
69. (c)
70. (b)
71. (b)
72. (d)
73. (b)
74. (c)
75. (b)
76. (a)
77. (c)
78. (b)
79. (a)
80. (b)
81. (a)
82. (b)
83. (c)
84. (c)
85. (b)
86. (a)
87. (b)
88. (a)
89. (b)
90. (c)
91. (b)
92. (b)
93. (a)
94. (b)
95. (b)
96. (a)
97. (a)
98. (d)
99. (a)
100. (c)
101. (a)
102. (c)
103. (b)
104. (a)
105. (d)
106. (b)
107. (a)
108. (c)
109. (b)
110. (a)
111. (a)
112. (a)
113. (d)
114. (a)
115. (b)
116. (c)
117. (a)
118. (c)
119. (d)
120. (a)
121. (b)
122. (c)
123. (b)
124. (b)
125. (b)
126. (b)
127. (c)
128. (c)
129. (d)
130. (c)
131. (b)
132. (b)
133. (d)
134. (a)
135. (b)
136. (b)
137. (d)
138. (c)
139. (d)
140. (a)
141. (d)
142. (c)
143. (c)
144. (c)
145. (a)
146. (d)
147. (b)
148. (a)
149. (a)
150. (c)

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1.

2. If Y=5X + 20 and X is N(15,25), then mean of Y is

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24. What is Demodulation?

25. Data transmitted for a given amount of time is called

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28. Cell phones sent information in the form of

a) Low pass filter

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32. In TV transmission, sound signal is modulated.

33. Square Law modulators are?

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36. What is the role of Amplitude limiter in FM receiver?

28. Cell phones sent information in the form of

a) Low pass filter

31. In TV transmission, picture signal is modulated.

42. Low frequency noise is

44. Maximum power efficiency of an AM modulator is?

45. An AM signal is represented by x(t) = (30 + 2Sin(700πt)) Cos(2πt x 10²t)V.

37. What is Fidelity?

38. In a receiver, noise is usually developed at

39. Which oscillator is used as a local oscillator in radio receiver?

40. Figure of merit is

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54. Which one of the following is analog?

55. Which of the following is used to generate PDM?

50. To get constant time delay, we should use

61. What conditions must be fulfilled in a good digital communication system?

62. Which corrects the sampling time problem in a digital system?

63. Matched filter technique is used to

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53. Waves of which frequency can penetrate the atmosphere?

54. Which one of the following is analog?

55. Which of the following is used to generate PDM?

56. Quantization error occurs in

58. Which modulation technique uses minimum bandwidth?

59. What is the two basic specification of a receiver?

61. What conditions must be fulfilled in a good digital communication system?

62. Which corrects the sampling time problem in a digital system?

63. Matched filter technique is used to

64. Amplitude distortion occurs when

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79. Signal to noise ratio increases as increases .

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b) Non coherent detection

c) Coherent detection & Non coherent detection

a) Two 180 opposing vector

b) Two 90 opposing vector

c) Two 360 opposing vector

84. In amplitude phase keying each phase vector is separated by

85. Which waveforms are also called as line codes?