Xam Idea Social Science Standard Class 10 Term 1 MCQ

SOCIAL SCIENCE
Class-X (2021-22) Term-1
Time: 90 minutes Max Marks: 40
No. of Periods Marks
Unit–I India and the Contemporary World – I 12 10
Unit–II Contemporary India – I 16 10
Unit-III Democratic Politics – I 14 10
Unit-IV Economics 20 10
Total 62 40
Course Content–X
TERM – 1
Unit–I: India and the Contemporary World – II
Section 1: Events and Processes
1. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe
l The French Revolution and the Idea of the Nation l Enable the leamers to identify and comprehend the
l The Making of Nationalism in Europe forms in which nationalism developed along with the
formation of nation states in Europe in the post-1830
l The Age of Revolutions: 1830-1848
period.
l The Making of Germany and Italy
l Establish the relationship and bring out the difference
l Visualising the Nation between European nationalish and anti-colonial
l Nationalism and Imperialism nationalisms.
l Understand the way the idea of nationalism emerged
and led to the formation of nation states in Europe
and elsewhere.
Unit-II: Contemporary India – II
Themes Learning Objectives
1. Resources and Development
l Types of Resources l Understand the value of resources and the need for
l Development of Resources their judicious utilisation and conservation.
l Resource Planning in India
l Land Resources
l Land Utilisation
l Land use pattern in India
l Land Degradation and Conservation Measures
l Classification of Soils
l Soil Erosion and Soil Conservation
3. Water Resources
l Water Scarcity and the need for Water Conservation
and Management l Comprehend the importance of water as a resource
l Multi-purpose River Projects and Integrated Water as well as develop awareness towards its judicious use
Resources Management and conservation.
l Rainwater Harvesting l Identify different Dams in the country.
Note: The theoretical aspect of chapter “Water Resources” to be
assessed in the Periodic Tests only and will not be evaluated in
Board Examination. However, the map items of this chapter as
listed will be evaluated in Board Examination.
4. Agriculture
l Types of farming l Explain the importance of agriculture in national
l Cropping Pattern economy.
l Major Crops l Identify various types of farming and discuss the
various farming methods; describe the spatial
l Technological and Institutional Reforms
distribution of major crops as well as understand the
l Impact of Globalisation of Agriculture relationship between rainfall regimes and cropping
pattern.
l Explain various government policies for institutional
as well as technological reforms since independence.
Unit-III: Democratic Politics – II
1. Power Sharing
l Case Studies of Belgium and Sri Lanka l Familiarize with the centrality of power sharing in a
l Why power sharing is desirable? democracy.
l Forms of Power Sharing l Understand the working of spatial and social power
sharing mechanisms.
2. Federalism
l Analyse federal provisions and institutions.
l What is Federalism?
l What make India a Federal Country?
l Explain decentralization in rural and urban areas.
l How is Federalism practiced?
l Decentralization in India
Unit-IV: Economics
1. Development
l What Development Promises - Different people different l Familiarize with macroeconomics.
goals
l Understand the rationale for overall human
l Income and other goals development in our country, which includes the rise of
l National Development income, improvements in health and education rather
l How to compare different countries or states? than income.
l Income and other criteria l Understand the importance of quality of life and
l Public Facilities sustainable development.
l Sustainability of development l Identify major employment generating sectors.
2. Sectors of the Indian Economy l Reason out the government investment in different
l Sectors of Economic Activities sectors of economy.
l Comparing the three sectors
l Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Sectors in India
l Division of sectors as organized and unorganized
l Sectors in terms of ownership: Public and Private Sectors
List of Map Tems

Class–X (2021-22) Term-1
A. GEOGRAPHY
Chapter 1: Resources and Development
(a) Major soil Types
Chapter 3: Water Resources
Dams:
(a) Salal (b) Bhakra Nangal (c) Tehri (d) Rana Pratap Sagar
(e) Sardar Sarovar (f ) Hirakud (g) Nagarjuna Sagar (h) Tungabhadra
Note: The theoretical aspect of chapter “Water Resources” to be assessed in the Periodic Tests only and will not be evaluated in
Board Examination. However, the map items of this chapter as listed will be evaluated in Board Examination.
Chapter 4: Agriculture
(a) Major areas of Rice and Wheat
(b) Largest / Major producer States of Sugarcane, Tea, Coffee, Rubber, Cotton and Jute
1
SOCIAL SCIENCE
BASIC CONCEPTS – A FLOW CHART
IMPORTANT EVENTS/TERMS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(Including Competency-based MCQs)
CASE-BASED QUESTIONS
ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
MAP QUESTIONS
Visit https://telegram.me/booksforcbse for more books.
THE RISE OF
1 NATIONALISM IN EUROPE
CHANGES DURING THE 1789

FRENCH REVOLUTION
France was under The revolution transferred the Ideas like ‘La Patrie’ (the The Royal flag was
Absolute monarchy. governmental power or ruling fatherland) and ‘Le replaced by the
power from monarchy to French Citoyen’ (the citizen) were New French Flag.
people or its citizens. adopted.
French became Uniform weights Abolishment of A centralized National Assembly was renamed
the national and measures internal customs administrative system as ‘Estate General’, which was
language. were adopted. duties and dues. was established. elected by the citizens.
NAPOLEON
(1769-1821)
Ruler of France Became the first Napoleonic Code

from 1799-1815. consul by assuming (1804)
absolute powers. or
Civil Code
Simplification of Right to Abolishment of all Equality before law

administrative property for privileges based
divisions. French citizens. on birth right.
Removed Abolishment of There was improvement

restrictions on feudal system & in transport and
guilds in towns. serfdom. communication system.
History: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 5

GREEK REVOLUTION (1830)
Greek War of Since 15th cen., Struggle for Greece’s Support from the Greek culture and
Independence Greece was part of Independence started with West European literature inspired
the Ottoman Empire. the Growth of nationalism countries. the poets and artists
in Europe from the who supported the
Ottoman empire in 1821. revolution.
GERMANY REVOLUTION OF THE LIBERALS (1848)
831 elected Drafted a Prussian King The parliament mainly took Troops forcibly
representatives Constitution for a Friedrich Wilhelm IV interest in the workers and disbanded the
marched to take their German nation based —rejected their artisans – as it was largely assembly.
places in the on constitutional demands. dominated by the middle
Frankfurt Parliament. monarchy. class members.
UNIFICATION OF GERMANY
(1866-71)
Efforts were made by These efforts were The national Otto-Von Bismark of 1871 – Kaiser William I
the middle class suppressed by the unification was taken Prussia played the role was declared as the
Germans to write the monarchy and under by the of a main leader in act new Emperor of a new
different regions of military and the leadership of Prussia. of nation-building. Empire.
German Confederation landowners in
into a nation-state. Prussia.
The unification of Germany Currency, banking, legal and judicial

established Prussian dominance systems were introduced by the New
in Europe. German Empire.
UNIFICATION OF ITALY (1859–1870)
Mid 19th Century Around 1830s Sardinia – 1859 1861

Piedmont’s force Austrian forces Victor Emmanuel
Was divided into 7 For uniting Italian marched into South were defeated by became the king of
states. Republic-Giuseppe Italy and the France + Sardinia United Italy and
Mazzini program was Kingdom of the Two – Piedmont Rome was
Only formed. Sicilies and drove out alliance. declared the
Sardinia-Piedmont the Spanish rulers. capital of Italy.
was ruled by an Young Italy – a secret
Italian princely society was also
house. formed during this time.
North was ruled by Failure of revolutionary

Austrian Habsburgs. uprisings from
1831-1848 by King
Whereas the centre Victor Emmanuel II.
was under Pope.
Count Cavour –Chief
And the south was Minister of Sardinia –
under the Bourbon Piedmont – led the
Kings of Spain. movement for the
unification of Italy.
6 Social Science–X: Term–1

VISUALISING THE NATION
Artists in 18th and Represented Female figures During French Revolution, In French, she
19th centuries country as a person became an allegory artists used female allegory was christened
personified nations. called ‘Allegory’. of the nation. to portray ideas like liberty, ‘Marianne’.
justice and republic.
Germania wears a crown of Germania became In red cap, the tricolor

oak leaves as the German the Allegory of the cockade represented
oak stands for heroism. Germany. liberty and the Republic.
BRITAIN
Before 18th century, Constant growth in England entrenched as An Act of the Union (1707) Scotland and Ireland
it was not a nation power helped English a nation. The power of was formed between were dominated by
state. nations to extend their the monarchy was England and Scotland by England in all aspects.
control over other taken over by the the United Kingdom of
nations and islands. English parliament. Great Britain.
British Nation was formed – After the failed revolution led by

which included various the Wolfe and his United
symbols— flag, National Anthem Irishmen (1798), British took
and the English language. over Ireland forcibly.
IMPORTANT EVENTS
1707 – Act of Union – Between England and Scotland- resulted in the formation of
the United Kingdom of Great Britain.
1789 – The French Revolution occurred.
1797 – Napoleon invades Italy, Napoleonic wars begin.
1801 – Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom.
1804 – Napoleonic Code or the Civil Code was introduced, abolishing privileges
based on birth. Upheld equality before law and secured right to property.
1814-1815 – Defeat of Napoleon by European powers—Britain, Prussia, Russia and Austria.
1815 – The European powers met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe.
The treaty of Vienna was signed.
1815 – Conservative regimes were set up.
1821 – Greek struggle for independence begins.
1830 – The July Revolution sparked an uprising in Brussels, which led to Belgium
breaking away from the United Kingdom of Netherland.
1830s – Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme for a
Unitary Italian Republic. Economic hardship in Europe.

1832 – Treaty of Constantinople was signed and Greece was recognised as an
independent nation.
1848 – Renunciation of the French Monarch.
1848 – 831 elected representatives marched towards the Frankfurt parliament and
drafted the constitution for a German nation.
1852-1860 – Chief Minister Cavour, became the Prime Minister of Piedmont of Italy.
1859-1870 – Unification of Italy.
1861 – Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed King of United Italy.
1864 – Bismarck fought a war against Denmark and took control of Schleswig.
1866-1871 – Unification of Germany. (An assembly comprising the princes of the German
states, representatives of the army, important Prussian ministers (including
the Chief Minister Bismarck) gathered in the Hall of mirrors at Versailles to
proclaim the new German Empire headed by Kaiser William I of Prussia.)
1867 – Habsburg rulers granted more autonomy to the Hungarians.
1905 – Slav nationalism gathers force in the Habsburg and Ottoman Empires.

Choose and write the correct option in the following questions.
1. What major issue was criticised against by the liberal nationalists?
(a) Censorship laws to control the press
(b) Preservation of the Church
(c) A modern army
(d) Efficient bureaucracy
2. What type of conservative regimes set up in 1815 in Europe?
(a) Autocratic (b) Aristocratic
(c) Democratic (d) Dictatorial
3. Which of the following revolutions is called as the first expression of ‘Nationalism’?
[CBSE 2020 (32/1/1)]
(a) French Revolution (b) Russian Revolution
(c) Glorious Revolution (d) The Revolution of the liberals
4. Who was proclaimed the King of United Italy, in 1861?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi (b) Victor Emmanuel II
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Cavour
5. A large part of Balkan region was under the control of:
(a) Russian empire (b) Ottoman empire
(c) German empire (d) Habsburg empire
6. Which of the following did the European conservatives not believe in?
(a) Traditional institution of state policy
(b) Strengthened monarchy
(c) A return to a society of pre-revolutionary days
(d) None of the above

7. Which of the following was not a part of Napoleon’s defeat?
(a) Britain (b) Austria (c) Italy (d) Germany
8. Treaty of Constantinople recognised _____________ as an independent nation.
(a) Greece (b) Austria (c) Italy (d) Japan
9. Who hosted the ‘Treaty of Vienna’?
(a) Frédéric Sorrieu (b) Victor Emmanuel
(c) Duke Metternich (d) Giuseppe Garibaldi
10. Which one of the following was NOT the result of the Treaty of Vienna 1815 ?
[CBSE 2020 (32/2/1)]
(a) The Kingdom of the Netherlands was set up in the North.
(b) Austria was given control of Northern Italy.
(c) Prussia was given important new territories on its western frontiers.
(d) Russia was given German Confederation of 39 states.
11. The meaning of ‘Volksgeist:
(a) Common people (b) Spirit of the nation
(c) Music (d) None of the above
12. Name the customs union formed by Prussia to abolish tariff barriers.
(a) Elle (b) Zollverein
(c) Zweibiicken (d) La Patrie
13. Identify the French artist who prepared a series of four prints visualising his dreams of a
world from the following:
(a) Kitagewa Utamaro (b) Richard M Hoe
(c) Voltaire (d) Frederic Sorrieu
14. Which of the following artist painted the image of Germania?
(a) Philip Veit (b) Frederic Sorrieu
(c) Ernst Renan (d) Richard M Hoe
15. What happened to Poland at the end of the 18th century? Which of the following answers is
correct?
(a) Poland achieved independence at the end of the 18th century.
(b) Poland came totally under the control of Russia and became part of Russia.
(c) Poland became the part of East Germany
(d) Poland was partitioned at the end of the 18th century by three Great Powers: Russia, Prussia
and Austria.
16. Who played the leading role in the unification of Germany?
(a) German Emperor (formerly King of Prussia) – Kaiser William I
(b) Otto Von Bismarck (Prussian Chief Minister)
(c) Johann Gottfried Herder – German philosopher
(d) Austrian Chancellor – Duke Metternich
17. Three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark , Germany and France ended in –
(a) Danish victory (b) Prussian victory (c) French victory (d) German victory
18. The political and constitutional changes brought about by the French Revolution were
(a) it ended the absolute monarchy
(b) it transferred power to a body of the French citizens
(c) it proclaimed that henceforth people would constitute the nation and shape its destiny
(d) all the above

19. What does blindfolded woman carrying a pair of weighing scales symbolise?
(a) Peace (b) Equality
(c) Justice (d) Liberty
20. What was the main intention behind ‘Treaty of Vienna of 1815’?
(a) Restore republics (b) Restore democracies
(c) Restore monarchies (d) None of these
21. What did ‘Das Volk’ stand for?
(a) Democracy (b) Factory workers
(c) Slum dwellers (d) common people
22. Which of the following is true with reference to Romanticism?
(a) concept of government by consent (b) freedom of markets
(c) cultural movements (d) freedom of an individual
23. ‘Nationalism’, which emerged as a force in the late 19th century, means
(a) strong devotion for one’s own country and its history and culture.
(b) strong devotion for one’s own country without appreciation for other nations.
(c) strong love for one’s own country and hatred for others.
(d) equally strong devotion for all the countries of the world.
24. Ernst Renan believed that the existence of nations is a necessity because
(a) it ensures protection to all inhabitants.
(b) it ensures liberty to all inhabitant citizens.
(c) it ensures Parliamentary form of government to its inhabitants.
(d) it ensures jobs and good health to all its inhabitants.
25. Which of the following countries did not attend the Congress of Vienna?
(a) Britain (b) Russia
(c) Prussia (d) Switzerland
26. The French revolutionaries declared that the mission and destiny of the French nation was
(a) to conquer the people of Europe.
(b) to liberate the people of Europe from despotism.
(c) to strengthen absolute monarchies in all the countries of Europe.
(d) to propagate the ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in every part of the world.
27. The Napoleonic Code was exported to which of the following regions?
(a) England (b) Spain
(c) Regions under French control (d) Poland
28. The term ‘Universal Suffrage’ means:
(a) the right to vote and get elected, granted only to men.
(b) the right to vote for all adults.
(c) the right to vote and get elected, granted exclusively to property owning men.
(d) the right to vote and get elected, granted only to educated men and women.
29. Which of the following is not a feature or belief of ‘Conservatism’?
(a) Conservatives believe in established, traditional institutions of state and policy.
(b) Conservatives stressed the importance of tradition and preferred gradual development to
quick change.
(c) Conservatives proposed to return to the society of pre-revolutionary days and were against
the ideas of modernisation to strengthen monarchy.
(d) Conservatives believed in the monarchy, church, and other social hierarchies.

30. What helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain?
(a) The formation of a nation-state in Britain was the result of a sudden upheaval.
(b) In 1688, the monarchy in Britain had seized the power from English Parliament.
(c) The parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy which
gradually led to the emergence of a nation-state.
(d) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales.
31. Elle, the measuring unit in Germany was used to measure:
(a) cloth (b) thread (c) land (d) height
32. Zollevrein started in 1834 in Prussia refers to a:
(a) Trade Union (b) Customs Union
(c) Labour Union (d) Farmer’s Union
33. Romanticism refers to a:
(a) cultural movement (b) religious movement
(c) political movement (d) literary movement
34. Which one of the following types of government was functioning in France before the
revolution of 1789?
(a) Dictatorship (b) Military
(c) Body of French Citizen (d) Monarchy
35. Which of the following countries is considered as the ‘cradle of European civilization’?
(a) England (b) France
(c) Greece (d) Russia
36. The first great revolution which gave the clear idea of nationalism with its core words:
‘Liberty, Equality and Fraternity’ was:
(a) The Russian Revolution (b) The French Revolution
(c) The American Revolution (d) India’s First War of Independence
37. ‘Crown of oak leaves’ symbolises?
(a) heroism (b) Being freed
(c) willingness to make peace (d) Beginning of a new era
38. What did the ‘German Sword’ stand for?
(a) Heroism (b) Readiness to fight
(c) Beginning of a new era (d) Symbol of German empire-strength
39. Which one of the following types of government was functioning before the revolution of 1789?
(a) Dictatorship (b) Military
(c) Monarchy (d) Council of French citizen
40. Which one of the following was not a part of the concept of nation-state?
(a) Clearly defined boundary (b) National identity based on culture and history
(c) Sovereignty (d) Freedom from monarchy
41. What is an “allegory’?
(a) Idealistic state (b) Abstract idea (c) Art form (d) Song
42. What were the contributions of the Grimm Brothers in nation-building?
(a) Fairy tales (b) Folk dances (c) Operas (d) Music
43. Women were admitted in the Frankfurt parliament convened in the Church of St Paul, but
only as:
(a) Opposition (b) Waitresses (c) Guards (d) Observers

44. What did weavers in Silesia, in 1845, revolt against?
(a) Bad quality raw material (b) Insufficient supply of raw material
(c) Contractors who didn’t pay them enough (d) None of these
45. What was the result of Polish being used as the medium of instruction for preaching in all
Church gatherings, in late eighteenth century?
(a) Priests and bishops were jailed (b) Followers were tortured
(c) Preachers were forced to preach in Russian (d) Followers were sent to Siberia
46. How did Karol Kurpinski celebrate the national struggle?
(a) Operas (b) Plays (c) Books (d) Poetry
47. Why was the kingdom of Netherlands, which included Belgium, set up in the North?
(a) To control censorship laws (b) To curb government activities
(c) To prevent French expansion (d) Both (a) and (b)
48. What led to the abolishing of the tariff barriers in the German-speaking regions of Europe
and the reduction of currencies?
(a) Formation of the Customs Union (b) Formation of traditional institutions
(c) Abolition of feudalism (d) State power
49. What was viewed as obstacle to economic change and growth by new commercial classes?
(a) Absence of railways (b) Limited suffrage
(c) Customs duties (d) Reduced status of women
50. A merchant traveling from Hamburg to Nuremberg, in the first half of the nineteenth century,
had to pass through how many customs barriers to sell his goods?
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 9 (d) 11
51. In revolutionary France, who were granted exclusive rights to vote?
(a) All women (b) Property-owning men
(c) Property-owning women (d) All men
52. Nationalism brought about in Europe the emergence of:
(a) The Nation State
(b) The modern state
(c) Multinational Dynastic state
(d) Alliances formed among many European states.
53. The term Plebiscite means:
(a) Adult Franchise
(b) A direct vote by which all the people of a region are asked to accept or reject a proposal
(c) When the rich and the aristocrats select their leaders
(d) A vote by the people to elect their leader.
54. The ideas of a United community enjoying equal rights under a constitution were expressed
by the French as:
(a) La Patrie (b) Le Citoyen
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
55. Liberalism meant to the new middle classes
(a) political freedom
(b) Freedom of the individual and equality of all before law
(c) End of aristocracy
(d) New political rights

56. Which new spirit guided European nations after Napolean’s defeat?
(a) Fascism (b) Conservatism
(c) Nazism (d) Communism
57. When did the French Revolution start?
(a) 1789 (b) 1879 (c) 1780 (d) 1769
58. What emphasised the notion of a united community enjoying equal rights under a
constitution?
(a) la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen)
(b) French people in common
(c) French Flag
(d) idea of one nation state
59. Regional dialects were discouraged and _________, became the common language of the nation.
(a) English (b) Polish language
(c) French (d) Italian
60. What mission did the revolutionaries declare as the destiny to the French people?
(a) to liberate the peoples of Europe from despotism - to help other peoples of Europe to
become nations.
(b) to make a one nation state
(c) to become a democracy
(d) to become sovereign
61. What happened when the news of the events in France reached the different cities of Europe?
(a) There was tumult
(b) The people did not know how to react
(c) Students and other members of educated middle classes began setting up Jacobin clubs
(d) There was confusion and dissatisfaction in the air
62. What idea did the French armies carry abroad through the revolutionary wars?
(a) Despotism (b) Nationalism
(c) War Strategies (d) Violence and bloodshed
63. What did Napoleon do in the territory that was under his control?
(a) set about introducing many reforms (b) set about war strategies
(c) worked for peace (d) worked towards democratic ideas
64. Napoleon had, no doubt, destroyed ___________ in France.
(a) Monarchy (b) Democracy
(c) Federal rule (d) Sovereignty
65. What did Napoleon do to make the system efficient and rational in France?
(a) in the administrative field he had incorporated revolutionary principles
(b) brought about different reforms
(c) worked on military
(d) worked on the financial conditions
66. What did the Civil Code of 1804 bring about?
(a) Right by birth to all facilities of state
(b) did away with all privileges based on birth, established equality before the law and secured
the right to property.
(c) no right to property
(d) No right to equality

67. What did Napoleon do in the rural areas of these regions?
(a) simplified administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from
serfdom and manorial due
(b) made administration strict
(c) encouraged the feudal system
(d) put taxes on the peasants
68. What changes did Napoleon bring about in the towns?
(a) guild restrictions were removed. Transport and communication systems were improved.
Peasants, artisans, workers and new businessmen enjoyed a new-found freedom.
(b) Transport and communication systems were improved.
(c) Peasants, artisans, workers and new businessmen had to pay tax
(d) guild restrictions remained as they were
69. In mid-eighteenth-century Europe what was the status of Germany, Italy and Switzerland?
(a) they were divided into kingdoms, duchies and cantons whose rulers had their autonomous
territories
(b) they were sovereign states
(c) they were democracies (d) they were republics
70. When did Industrialisation take place in France and parts of the German states?
(a) 18th century (b) later 18th century (c) nineteenth century (d) mid 18th century
71. What is Liberalism?
(a) ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber, meaning free-freedom for the individual and
equality of all before the law.
(b) end of autocracy
(c) equal rules for all
(d) liberty to the upper classes
72. What is Suffrage?
(a) Right to property (b) Right to Justice (c) Right to vote (d) Right to complain
73. In revolutionary France, the right to vote and to get elected was granted exclusively to ______.
(a) property-owning men (b) all
(c) Men and women (d) upper class
74. What did the customs union or zollverein do?
(a) abolished tax
(b) abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies from over thirty to two
(c) abolished tariff charges and reduced the currencies to 5
(d) only abolished tariff barriers
75. What was conservatism?
(a) strict rules on the society
(b) social norms became conservative
(c) monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should be preserved
(d) different norms for different classes
76. When did the Treaty of Vienna take place and who were the participants?
(a) 1816, Britain, Russia, Prussia (b) 1815, Britain, Russia, Prussia, Austria
(c) 1820, Britain and Russia (d) 1817, Russia, Prussia, Austria
77. In which year did Louis Philippe flee and the National Assembly was proclaimed a Republic?
(a) 1846 (b) 1848 (c) 1845 (d) 1847

78. Which area was the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871?
(a) Southern Europe (b) mid Europe (c) Balkan States (d) Eastern States
79. What do the saints, angels and Christ symbolise in the utopian vision?
(a) Equality among people (b) Fraternity among nations
(c) Freedom of nations (d) Resentment against nations
80. What territories did the Habsburg Empire rule over?
(a) Austria (b) Romania (c) Hungary (d) Both (a) and (c)
81. Why was the Treaty of Vienna drawn up in 1815?
(a) To abolish tariff barriers (b) To restore the monarchies
(c) To divide the German Confederation of 39 states
(d) None of these
82. Name the Italian revolutionary from Genoa.
(a) Metternich (b) Johann Gottfried (c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) None of these
83. When did Napoleon invade Italy?
(a) 1821 (b) 1905 (c) 1797 (d) 1795
84. What was ‘Young Italy’?
(a) Vision of Italy (b) Secret society
(c) National anthem of Italy (d) None of these
85. Which of the following did not play a role to develop nationalist sentiments?
(a) Art (b) Music (c) Climate
86. German philosopher, Johann Gottfried claimed that true German culture was to be discovered
among the:
(a) Common people (b) Aristocratic (c) Middle class elite
87. The place where the priests and bishops were punished.
(a) Siberia (b) Tundra (c) Mongolia
88. Name the act which resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.
(a) The Act of Union 1707 (b) Tax Reform Act, 1784
(c) Commutation Act 1784 (d) None of the above
89. Who followed the policy of Golden Mean?
(a) Matternich (b) Mazzini (c) Louis Philippe (d) Duke of Orleans
90. What was Helairia Philike?
(a) A Secret Society (b) A Political Party (c) A custom Union (d) An Allegori
91. Who founded the revolutionary militia ‘Red Shirt’?
(a) Wilson (b) Tsar Alexander II (c) Garibaldi (d) Matternich
92. Who was Frederick Sorrieu?
(a) A Revolutionary (b) Chancellor of Austria
(c) King of Frame (d) French Artist
93. Vienna Congress was convened in 1815 for what purpose?
(a) To declare completion of German Unification.
(b) To restore conservative regime in Europe.
(c) To declare war against France.
(d) To start the process of Italian unification.
94. Which year was known as the year of dear bread?
(a) 1830 (b) 1848 (c) 1789 (d) 1815

95. Name the state which led the process of Italian unification?
(a) Rome (b) Prussia (c) Sardinia Piedmont (d) Vienna
96. Who said Cavour, Mazzini, and Garibaldi: three her brain, her soul, her sword?
(a) Victor Emmannual (b) George Meredith (c) Louis XVIII (d) Guizot
97. Who followed the policy of Blood and Iron for national unification?
(a) Garibaldi (b) Otto Von Bismark (c) Mazzini (d) Matternich
98. United Kingdom of Great Britain came into existence in the year -
(a) 1789 (b) 1798 (c) 1707 (d) 1801
99. Who said that, Italy was merely a geographical expression?
(a) Cavour (b) Napoleon (c) Matternich (d) Guizot
100. Which one was not included in the Balkan Region?
(a) Croatia (b) Bosnia Harzegovina
(c) Serbia (d) Spain
101. Who was the king of France at the time of French Revolution?
(a) Marie Antoniate (b) Louis XVI (c) Czar Nicolas (d) Edward II
102. Which one of the following was not the feature of Napoleonic code?
(a) Equality before the law (b) Universal adult franchise
(c) right to property (d) privileges based on birth
103. After Napoleon’s defeat, who captured the power of Europe?
(a) Fascists (b) Conservatives (c) Communists (d) None of the above
104. Who remarked “When France Sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold?
(a) Giuseppe Mazzini (b) Metternich (c) Louis Philippe (d) Johann Gottfried
105. Which country had been part of the ‘Ottoman Empire’ since the 15th century?
(a) Spain (b) Greece (c) France (d) Germany
106. Which country became full-fledged territorial state in Europe in the year 1789?
(a) Germany (b) France (c) England (d) Spain
107. When was the first clear expression of nationalism noticed in Europe?
(a) 1787 (b) 1759 (c) 1789 (d) 1769
108. Which language was spoken for purposes of diplomacy in the mid 18th century in Europe?
(a) German (b) English (c) French (d) Spanish
109. Liberal-national mainly belong to which class?
(a) Elite class (b) Educated middleclass elite
(c) Working class (d) Artisans
110. Where was the first upheaval took place in July, 1803?
(a) Italy (b) France (c) Germany (d) Greece
111. Which newly designed flag was chosen to replace the formal flag ‘Royal Standard’ in France?
(a) Union Jack (b) Tricolour (c) White Saltire (d) Red Cross
112. Which of the following reforms made the whole system in France more rational and efficient?
(a) Administrative reform (b) Social reform
(c) Economic reform (d) Political reform
113. What was the main occupation in the mid 18th century in Europe?
(a) Trade and commerce (b) Peasantry
(c) Craftmanship (d) All of the above

114. What was the main feature of the pattern of land holding prevailing in the Eastern and Central
Europe?
(a) Tenants (b) Vast estates (c) Small owners (d) Landlords
115. Which country began to use language as a weapon of national resistance?
(a) Poland (b) Prussia (c) Hungary (d) Austria
Answers
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a)
9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b)
17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (b)
25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (b)
33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (a)
49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (a)
57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (c) 61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (a)
65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (c) 71. (a) 72. (c)
73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (b) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (a)
89. (c) 90. (a) 91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (b)
97. (b) 98. (c) 99. (c) 100. (d) 101. (b) 102. (d) 103. (b) 104. (b)
105. (c) 106. (b) 107. (c) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (b) 111. (b) 112. (a)
113. (b) 114. (b) 115. (a)
Attempt all sub-parts from each question. Each question carries 1 mark.
1. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called the
Balkans. The Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising modern-day
Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia
and Montenegro whose inhabitants were broadly known as the Slavs. A large part of the Balkans
was under the control of the Ottoman Empire. The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism
in the Balkans together with the disintegration of the Ottoman Empire made this region very
explosive. All through the nineteenth century the Ottoman Empire had sought to strengthen
itself through modernisation and internal reforms but with very little success. One by one, its
European subject nationalities broke away from its control and declared independence. The
Balkan peoples based their claims for independence or political rights on nationality and used
history to prove that they had once been independent but had subsequently been subjugated by
foreign powers. Hence the rebellious nationalities in the Balkans thought of their struggles as
attempts to win back their long-lost independence.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

(i) The Ottoman Empire sought to strengthen itself through:
(a) Modernisation (b) internal reforms
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
(ii) The Balkan people based their claims for __________ or __________ on nationality.
(a) independence, political rights (b) power sharing, federalism
(c) secularism, political rights (d) modernisation, strength

(iii) The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area of
_____________.
(a) Ottoman Empire (b) Balkans (c) Greece (d) Albania
(iv) The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism was responsible for:
(a) disintegration of Greece
(b) Balkans disintegration from the Ottoman Empire
(c) integration of Macedonia
(d) none of the above
From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices
that could create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. The ideas of la patrie
(the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasised the notion of a united community
enjoying equal rights under a constitution. A new French flag, the tricolour, was chosen to
replace the former royal standard. The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens
and renamed the National Assembly. New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs
commemorated, all in the name of the nation. A centralised administrative system was put in
place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory. Internal customs duties
and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted. Regional
dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common
language of the nation. The revolutionaries further declared that it was the mission and the
destiny of the French nation to liberate the peoples of Europe from despotism, in other words
to help other peoples of Europe to become nations. When the news of the events in France
reached the different cities of Europe, students and other members of educated middle classes
began setting up Jacobin clubs. Their activities and campaigns prepared the way for the French
armies which moved into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and much of Italy in the 1790s. With
the outbreak of the revolutionary wars, the French armies began to carry the idea of nationalism
abroad.

(i) The political and constitutional changes brought about by the French Revolution were:
(a) it ended the absolute monarchy.
(b) it transferred power to a body of the French citizens.
(c) it proclaimed that henceforth people would constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
(d) all the above.
(ii) The first clear expression of nationalism came with:
(a) The American Revolution (b) The French Revolution
(c) The Russian Revolution (d) The Industrial Revolution
(iii) The ideas of a United Community enjoying equal rights under a Constitution were
expressed by the French as:
(a) La Patrie (b) Le Citoyen
(iv) The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and it was renamed as:
(a) National Assembly (b) Body of Executives
(c) Rule of Directory (d) None of these
3. Read the source given below and answer the following questions:
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of
conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and

society – like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should
be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-
revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that
modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make
state power more effective and strong. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic
economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of
Europe. In 1815, representatives of the European powers – Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria
– who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe.
The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up
the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about
in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during
the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed
under Napoleon.
(i) Which of the following countries did not attend the Congress of Vienna?
(a) Britain (b) Russia
(c) Prussia (d) Switzerland
(ii) Why was the treaty of Vienna (1815) drawn up?
(a) To establish tariff barriers
(b) To restore the monarchies
(d) To establish democracies
(iii) Who among the following was associated with the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
(a) Bismarck (b) Duke Metternich
(c) Louis Philippe (d) Victor Emmaunel II
(iv) After the Napoleon which dynasty was restored in France?
(a) Bourbon (b) Mazzini
(c) Bouborn (d) none of the above
4. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
When the news of the events in France reached the different cities of Europe, students and other
members of educated middle classes began setting up Jacobin clubs. Their activities and campaigns
prepared the way for the French armies which moved into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and
much of Italy in the 1790s. With the outbreak of the revolutionary wars, the French armies began
to carry the idea of nationalism abroad. Within the wide swathe of territory that came under his
control, Napoleon set about introducing many of the reforms that he had already introduced
in France. Through a return to monarchy Napoleon had, no doubt, destroyed democracy in
France, but in the administrative field he had incorporated revolutionary principles in order to
make the whole system more rational and efficient. The Civil Code of 1804 – usually known as the
Napoleonic Code – did away with all privileges based on birth, established equality before the law
and secured the right to property. This Code was exported to the regions under French control.
In the Dutch Republic, in Switzerland, in Italy and Germany, Napoleon simplified administrative
divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues. In the
towns too, guild restrictions were removed.
(i) The Civil Code of 1804 in France is usually known as:
(a) The French Revolutionary Code (b) Napoleonic Code
(c) European Imperial Code (d) The French Civil Code

(ii) The Napoleonic Code was exported to which of the following regions?
(a) England (b) Spain
(c) Regions under French control (d) Poland
(iii) Match the following
1. Civil code (a) Napoleon
2. Jacobins (b) carried the idea of nationalism abroad
3. Destroyed democracy (c) Napoleonic code in France
4. French armies (d) political club
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1-(c), 2-(d), 3-(a), 4-(b) (b) 1-(b), 2-(c), 3-(a), 4-(d)
(c) 1-(a), 2-(c), 3-(d), 4-(b) (d) 1-(b), 2-(a), 3-(d), 4-(c)
(iv) Which one of the following was not the feature of Napoleonic Code?
(a) Equality before the law (b) Universal Adult Franchise
(c) Right to Property (d) Privileges based on birth
During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme for
a unitary Italian Republic. He had also formed a secret society called Young Italy for the
dissemination of his goals. The failure of revolutionary uprisings both in 1831 and 1848 meant
that the mantle now fell on Sardinia-Piedmont under its ruler King Victor Emmanuel II to
unify the Italian states through war. In the eyes of the ruling elites of this region, a unified Italy
offered them the possibility of economic development and political dominance. Chief Minister
Cavour who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy was neither a revolutionary nor a
democrat. Like many other wealthy and educated members of the Italian elite, he spoke French
much better than he did Italian. Through a tactful diplomatic alliance with France engineered
by Cavour, Sardinia-Piedmont succeeded in defeating the Austrian forces in 1859. Apart from
regular troops, a large number of armed volunteers under the leadership of Giuseppe Garibaldi
joined the fray. In 1860, they marched into South Italy and the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies
and succeeded in winning the support of the local peasants in order to drive out the Spanish
rulers. In 1861 Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed king of united Italy. However, much of the
Italian population, among whom rates of illiteracy were very high, remained blissfully unaware
of liberalnationalist ideology.
(i) Who was proclaimed King of united Italy in 1861?
(a) Victor Emmanuel II (b) Louis Philippe
(c) Mazzini (d) Cavour
(ii) Cavour’s contribution to Italian unification was:
(a) Diplomatic alliance with the enemies of Austria
(b) War with Austrian and Bourbons
(c) Diplomatic alliance with France in 1859 and strengthening Sardinia and Piedmont
(d) Defeated the Bourbon Kings
(iii) Which one of the following is true regarding the ideas promoted by Mazzini?
(a) opposition to monarchy and support to democratic republic
(b) to establish liberty and freedom under a monarchy
(c) disintegration of the German confederation under 39 states
(d) censorship of newspapers, books, plays and songs

(iv) Who amongst the following the Italian leaders was neither a revolutionary nor a democrat?
(a) Mazzini (b) Cavour
(c) Garibaldi (d) Victor Emmanuel II
While it is easy enough to represent a ruler through a portrait or a statue, how does one go about
giving a face to a nation? Artists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries found a way out by
personifying a nation. In other words they represented a country as if it were a person. Nations
were then portrayed as female figures. The female form that was chosen to personify the nation
did not stand for any particular woman in real life; rather it sought to give the abstract idea of
the nation a concrete form. That is, the female figure became an allegory of the nation. You will
recall that during the French Revolution artists used the female allegory to portray ideas such
as Liberty, Justice and the Republic. These ideals were represented through specific objects or
symbols. As you would remember, the attributes of Liberty are the red cap, or the broken chain,
while Justice is generally a blindfolded woman carrying a pair of weighing scales. Similar female
allegories were invented by artists in the nineteenth century to represent the nation. In France
she was christened Marianne, a popular Christian name, which underlined the idea of a people’s
nation. Her characteristics were drawn from those of Liberty and the Republic – the red cap, the
tricolour, the cockade. Statues of Marianne were erected in public squares to remind the public
of the national symbol of unity and to persuade them to identify with it. Marianne images were
marked on coins and stamps.
(i) The allegory of the German nation who wears a crown of oak leaves was a:
(a) Marianne (b) Union Jack
(c) Britannia (d) Germania
(ii) Which of the given aspects signifies the image of ‘Germania’?
(a) Fold and Cultural Tradition (b) Auterity and Asceticism
(c) Revenge and Vengeance (d) Heroism and Justice
(iii) What did Germania symbolise?
(a) French nation (b) German nation
(c) British nation (d) None of the above
(iv) What does a blindfolded woman carrying a pair of weighing scales symbolise?
(a) Peace (b) Equality (c) Justice (d) Liberty
Answers
1. (i) (c) (ii) (a) (iii) (b) (iv) (b) 2. (i) (d) (ii) (b) (iii) (c) (iv) (a)
3. (i) (d) (ii) (b) (iii) (b) (iv) (a) 4. (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (a) (iv) (b)
5. (i) (a) (ii) (c) (iii) (a) (iv) (b) 6. (i) (d) (ii) (d) (iii) (b) (iv) (c)
The following questions consist of two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A) : During the years following 1818, the fear of repression drove many
liberal-nationalists underground.
Reason (R) : Secret societies sprang up in many European states to train revolutionaries and
spread their ideas.
2. Assertion (A) : The development of nationalism did not come about only through wars and
territorial expansion.
Reason (R) : Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation: art and

poetry, stories and music helped express and shape nationalist feelings.
3. Assertion (A) : Language, too, played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments.
Reason (R) : After Russian occupation, the Polish language was welcomed in schools and the

Russian language was forced out.
4. Assertion (A) : The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe.
Reason (R) : National Assembly proclaimed a Republic, granted suffrage to all adult males

above 21, and guaranteed the right to work.
5. Assertion (A) : During the 1830s, Giuseppe Garibaldi had sought to put together a coherent
programme for a unitary Italian Republic.
Reason (R) : Chief Minister Cavour who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy was

neither a revolutionary nor a democratic.
Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d)
zzz

RESOURCES AND
2 DEVELOPMENT
RENEWABLE RESOURCES
Resources whose They can be renewed Renewable resources Biotic resources that Example: Wind, water,
quantity is not or reproduced by like sunlight, wind, are renewable, may forests, etc.
reduced due to use physical, chemical or water are flow be temporarily
and which can be mechanical process. resources, whose diminished but may
repeatedly used stock is continuous be renewed again by
without fear of and are being used natural process and
exhaustion are since time proper management.
termed as renewable immemorial.
resources.
NON-RENEWABLE RESOURCES
Substances whose They cannot be Their quantity is more These resources can Example: fossil fuels
stock gets reduced increased or or less fixed because never be renewed or like coal, petroleum
and are gradually recovered. their formation takes replenished. and minerals.
exhausted with use long geological period
are termed as of millions of years.
non-renewable
resources. They are
exhaustible
resources.
Geography: Resources and Development 23

ON THE BASIS OF OWNERSHIP
Individual Community National International
Owned privately by Accessible to all the Technically, all the resources The oceanic resources
individuals e.g., members of the available in the country are beyond 200 km of the
plots, house, car, community e.g., public national resources e.g., forests, Exclusive Economic
wells, etc. parks, picnic spots, wildlife, land division and the Zone are known as
playgrounds, etc. political territories International resources.
ON THE BASIS OF STATUS OF DEVELOPMENT
Potential Developed Stock Reserves
Which are found in Which are surveyed and Which have the potential to Can be put into use with
a region but have their quality, quantity satisfy human needs but the help of technical
not been yet has been determined they do not have appropriate know-how but their use
utilised for utilisation technology to access them has not been started
DEVELOPMENT OF RESOURCES
Major Problems and Need for Sustainable Development Need for Resource
Planning
Accumulation of resources in few hands dividing the society in

‘haves’ and ‘have-nots’
There are regions which
are rich in certain
Indiscriminate use of resources leading to global warming, ozone resources and deficient in
layer depletion and environmental pollution, land degradation some other resources
Resource planning needed for sustainable existence of all Arunachal Pradesh has
forms of life abundance of water but
lacks infrastructural
development
Sustainable economic development is development that
should take place without damaging the environment
Rajasthan has abundance

of solar and wind energy
The first International Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in but lacks in water resources
1992, attended by 100 countries
Adopted Agenda 21 to achieve global sustainable development

and to combat poverty, disease from the world

RESOURCE PLANNING IN INDIA
A complex process involving Conservation of

three processes Resources
(i) Identification and inventory of resources Vital for any development activity
(ii) Evolving a planning structure Irrational consumption and

overutilisation lead to socio-economic
and environmental problems
(iii) Matching the resource development plan
with national development plans
Five year plans launched after independence
Indian resource development depends on

technology, quality of human resources and
historical experiences of people
LAND RESOURCES
Importance of Land Relief Features Land Utilisation
Perform all economic Variety of relief features in Forests

activities on land India
Land not available for

It’s a natural resource Plains — Covering cultivation—Barren and
supporting natural 43% area wasteland
vegetation, wildlife, economic
activities, transport and
communication systems
Mountains — Covering Permanent pastures and
30% area grazing lands
An asset of a finite
magnitude
Plateaus — Covering Land under miscellaneous
27% area trees and culturable
wastelands
Possesses rich resources in

all these relief features Fallow lands and Net Sown
Area

LAND RESOURCES
Land use Pattern of Land Conservation of

India Degradation Land
Determined by both physical Degraded land — 130 million Afforestation and proper
and human factors hectare. 28% forest management of grazing lands
degraded, 56% water eroded,
certain human activities
Land use data available only Planting of shelter belts
for 93% area
Mining sites are abandoned
Control on overgrazing
Overgrazing and over

irrigation is responsible for
alkalinity Thorny bushes to stabilise
sand dunes
Mineral processing like

cement industry, industrial Control on mining activities
effluents
Proper discharge and disposal

of industrial effluents
SOIL AS A RESOURCE
ALLUVIAL SOIL
The entire northern plains Alluvial soil is also found The alluvial soil consists of Mostly these soils contain
are made up of alluvial soil. in the eastern coastal various proportions of adequate proportion of
plains particularly in the sand, silt and clay. potash, phosphoric acid
deltas of and lime which are ideal for
the growth of sugarcane,
These have been deposited paddy, wheat and other
by these important cereal and pulse crops.
Himalayan river systems. Mahanadi Krishna Alluvial soils are described
river river on the basis of their age.
Godavari Kaveri
Indus Brahmaputra river river
Ganga
(Old) Bangar (New) Khadar
has higher concentration has less concentration of

of ‘Kanker’ nodules ‘Kanker’ nodules than Bangar
less fertile is more fertile

than Khadar than Bangar

BLACK SOIL
These soils are They are ideal for This type of soil is The black soils are These soils are
black in colour growing cotton typical of the made up of sticky when wet
and are also known and is also known Deccan trap extremely fine, i.e., and difficult to
as ‘regur’ soils. as ‘black cotton’ (Basalt) region, clayey material work on unless
soil. spread over tilled immediately
northwest after the first
Deccan plateau shower or during
and is made up of the pre-monsoon
lava flows. period.
RED AND YELLOW SOILS
Red soil develops on Yellow and red soils are These soils develop a
crystalline igneous rocks in found in parts of Orissa, reddish colour due to
areas of low rainfall in the Chhattisgarh, southern parts diffusion of iron in
eastern and southern parts of the middle Ganga plain crystalline and
of the Deccan plateau. and along the piedmont zone metamorphic rocks.
of the western ghats. It looks yellow when it
occurs in a hydrated form.
LATERITE SOIL
The laterite develops This soil is suitable These soils are After adopting
in areas with high for cultivation with mainly found in appropriate soil
temperature and adequate doses of Karnataka, Kerala, conservation
heavy rainfall. manures and Tamil Nadu, Madhya techniques,
fertilizers. Pradesh and the hilly particularly in the hilly
areas of Orissa and areas of Karnataka,
Assam. Kerala and Tamil
Nadu, this soil is very
useful for growing
Tea and Coffee.
ARID SOILS
Arid soils range from They are generally In some areas, the The bottom layer of After proper irrigation,
red to brown in sandy in texture and salt content is very Kankar restricts the these soils become
colour. saline in nature. high and common infiltration of water. cultivable as has
salt is obtained by been in the case of
evaporating the western Rajasthan.
water.

Soil Erosion Soil Conservation
Denudation of soil cover and subsequent Ploughing along contour lines—

washing down is called soil erosion Contour ploughing
Due to human activities like deforestation, Steps can be cut on slopes—

overgrazing, construction and mining Terrace farming
Natural forces like wind, water, glacier and Strips of grass are left to grow between
water lead to soil erosion crops called—strip cropping
Running water cuts through clayey soil and

forms gullies
Also caused due to defective method of

farming-ploughing in a wrong manner
IMPORTANT TERMS
1. Resources: A stock or supply of money, materials, staff, and other assets that can be
drawn on by a person or organization in order to function effectively.
2. Biotic: Relating to or resulting from living organisms. The biotic factors of an ecosystem
are all the living organisms that affect other organisms in an ecosystem and include
animals, plants, microorganisms, dead organisms, and even animal waste.
3. Abiotic: Devoid of life. Non biological factors, material or process which can affect living
or non-living organisms, like rocks, weather and sunlight.
4. Renewable Resources: It is a substance of economic value that can be replaced or
replenished in the same or less amount of time as it takes to draw the supply down.
5. Non-Renewable Resources: It is a resource of economic value that cannot be readily
replaced by natural means on a level equal to its consumption.
6. Natural Vegetation: It refers to the plants and other flora that make up the plant life in
the region.
7. Recycle: To convert (waste) into reusable material.
8. Individual Resources: These types of resources are owned by individuals, for instance,
people in rural areas own lands while in urban areas, people have their own houses,
plots, etc. to live in.
9. Community owned Resources: This type of resources can be accessed by all the
members of a community. This includes public parks, picnic spots, grazing grounds, and
playgrounds, etc. which are accessible by everyone living around.

10. International Resources: The international Resource Panel is a scientific panel of experts
that aim to help nations use natural resources sustainably without compromising
economic growth and human needs.
11. Potential Resources: Resources found in a region but not being used at present.
12. Developed Resources: They are those resources which have been surveyed and identified
for their quantity and quality. Their development depends upon the availability of
technology.
13. Reserves: These are such materials that can be utilised with existing technology but their
use has not yet been started.
14. Conservation: The protection of plants and animals, natural areas, and interesting and
important buildings especially from the damaging effects of human activity.
15. Land Resources: It refers to the land available for exploitation, like non-agricultural lands
for buildings, developing townships, etc. Land resources (natural resources) (economically
referred to as land or raw materials) occur naturally within environments that exist
relatively undisturbed by mankind, in a natural form.
16. Degradation: The process in which the beauty or quality of something is destroyed or
spoiled: environmental degradation.
17. Stock: These are materials in the environment that can be utilised as resources but lack
of adequate technology hampers their usage.
18. Sheet Erosion: Loss of top layers of nutrient rich soil due to water (rain), loosening soil
particles and carrying them across the land.
19. Gullies: A ravine formed by the action of water.
20. Bad Land: It is a type of dry terrain where softer sedimentary rocks and clay-rich soils
have been extensively eroded by wind and water.
21. Soil Erosion: It is a naturally occurring process that affects all landforms. Displacement
of upper layer of soil.
22. Plateau: A large flat area of land that is high above sea level.

1. Which one of the following is an example of Cultivable Wasteland?
(a) Gross cropped Area (b) Uncultivable Land (c) Barren Wasteland (d) Current fallow Land
2. Khadar is a type of:
(a) Black soil (b) Alluvial soil (c) Laterite soil (d) Desert soil
3. The resources of ownership are
(a) plantation (b) pasture land (c) ponds (d) all of the above
4. Resource planning is essential for ___________ existence of all forms of life.
(a) ecological balance (b) sustainable (c) exploitation (d) none of these
5. Which one of the following method is used to break up the force of wind?
(a) Shelter belt (b) Strip cropping (c) Contour ploughing (d) Terrace farming

6. Where was the first international Earth Summit held?
(a) Rio de Janeiro (b) Geneva (c) Switzerland (d) Philippines
7. Geothermal energy in Puga valley and Parvati Valley are
(a) stock resources (b) developed resources (c) reserve resources (d) potential resources
8. Which soil is known as Black cotton soil?
(a) Red soil (b) Arid soil (c) Mountain soil (d) Black soil
9. Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year is called ___________.
(a) culturable wasteland (b) current fallow land
(c) wasteland (d) none of the above
10. Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for
utilisation are known
(a) potential resources (b) stock
(c) developed Resources (d) reserves
11. Which of the following is not a measure for soil conservation?
(a) strip cropping (b) terrace cultivation
(c) shelter belts (d) overdrawing of groundwater
12. Which one of the following types of resource is iron ore?
(a) Renewable (b) Biotic (c) Flow (d) Non-renewable
13. Under which of the following types of resources can tidal energy be put?
(a) Replenishable (b) Human-made (c) Abiotic (d) Non-renewable
14. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation (b) Deforestation (c) Over-grazing (d) Over irrigation
15. In which of the following states is terrace cultivation practiced?
(a) Punjab (b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Haryana (d) Uttaranchal
16. In which of the following states is black soil found?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan (d) Jharkhand
17. What percentage of our land should be under forest cover according to the National Forest
Policy?
(a) 33% (b) 22.5% (c) 31% (d) 30%
18. Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but human
beings do not have appropriate technology to access them are called-
(a) Potential resource (b) Stock (c) Developed resource (d) Reserves
19. India’s territorial water extends up to a distance of-
(a) 12km (b) 12 nautical miles (c) 19.2 miles (d) 200 nautical miles
20. Resources that take long geological time for their formation are called-
(a) Renewable resources (b) Reserve
(c) Community resources (d) Non-renewable resources
21. Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is known as-
(a) Net sown area (b) Forest cover (c) Waste land (d) Gross cropped area
22. The total degraded land in our country is-
(a) 133 million hectares (b) 130 million sq. km.
(c) 140 million hectares (d) 130 million hectares

23. In which of the following states mining gas caused severe land degradation?
(a) Gujarat (b) Jharkhand (c) Kerala (d) Uttaranchal
24. The main cause of land degradation in Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh
is______________.
(a) mining (b) over irrigation (c) deforestation (d) over grazing
25. Which is the most common soil of Northern India?
(a) Black soil (b) Laterite soil (c) Alluvial soil (d) Red soil
26. Red soil is mostly found in-
(a) Parts of Jammu and Kashmir (b) Upper Ganga Plains
(c) Eastern and Southern part of Deccan plateau
27. Red soil is reddish in color due to-
(a) high clay content
(b) presence of kankar nodules in the sub soil
(c) diffusion of iron in igneous and metamorphic rocks
(d) high moisture content
28. Which of the following is not important for soil formation?
(a) Relief (b) Parent Rock (c) Climate (d) Duration of day
29. Black soil is also called-
(a) Bangar (b) Khadar (c) Regur (d) Humus
30. Black soils are common in-
(a) Deccan Trap (b) Kashmir Valley (c) Ganga Valley (d) Northern Plains
31. Laterite soil is very useful for growing-
(a) rice, wheat and mustard (b) tea, coffee and cashew nut
(c) pulses, sugarcane and resin (d) none of the above
32. Black soil is deficient in-
(a) Calcium carbonate (b) Magnesium
(c) Potash (d) Phosphoric contents
33. Which of the following soils has self-aeration capacity?
(a) Alluvial (b) Red soil (c) Black soil (d) Mountain soil
34. Ploughing along the contour lines to decelerate the flow of water down the slopes is called
(a) Strip cropping (b) Sheet erosion (c) Contour ploughing (d) Terrace cultivation
35. Land that is left uncultivated for more than five agricultural years is called-
(a) Pasture land (b) Culturable waste land
(c) Barren land (d) Current fallow land
36. Which one of the following soils is ideal for growing cotton?
(a) Regur soil (b) Laterite soil (c) Desert soil (d) Mountain soil
37. Soil is formed by the process of -
(a) Denudation (b) Deposition (c) Weathering (d) all the above
38. Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year is called-
(a) Culturable waste (b) Current fallow land (c) Waste land (d) None of the above
39. ‘There is enough for everybody’s need but not for anybody’s greed’. Who said this?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Atal Bihari Bajpai
(c) M. K. Gandhi (d) Sunder Lal Bahuguna

40. Resources which are surveyed and their quantity and quality have been determined for
utilization are known as-
(a) Potential resources (b) Stock
(c) Developed resources (d) Reserves
41. Which one of the following statements is correct as regard to international resources?
(a) They are regulated by international institutions.
(b) They lie beyond the territorial waters.
(c) They are found along the international frontier.
(d) They are not yet developed.
42. The most widespread relief feature of India is-
(a) Mountains (b) Forests (c) Plains (d) Plateaus
43. Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilized are known as-
(a) Renewable (b) Developed (c) National (d) Potential
44. Which one of the following statements is true about the term resources?
(a) Resources are all the things that are found in nature.
(b) They are free gifts of nature.
(c) They are the functions of human activities.
(d) Things which cannot be used to fulfill our needs.
45. Soil formed by intense leaching is called-
(a) Alluvial soil (b) Red soil (c) Laterite soil (d) Desert soil
46. Old alluvial soil is also called-
(a) Khadar (b) Hangar (c) Terrai (d) Hangar
47. _________ is a method of growing rows of trees in arid regions.
(a) Shelterbelts (b) Contour ploughing
(c) Terrace farming (d) None of the above
48. Land consisting of many gullies and ravines are called______________.
(a) Gullies (b) Bad lands (c) Basin (d) Slopes
49. Which among the following soils have high water retaining capacity?
(a) Alluvial soil (b) Laterite soil (c) Black soil (d) Arid soil
50. Which soil is the most widespread soil of India?
(a) Black soil (b) Laterite soil (c) Alluvial soil (d) Red and yellow soil
51. Fossil fuels are examples of-
(a) Renewable (b) Non-renewable (c) Non-recyclable (d) All of the above
52. Protection of soil from erosion is called-
(a) Sheet erosion (b) Soil conservation (c) Shelter belts (d) None of the above
53. Solar energy is an example of-
(a) Renewable resource (b) Non-renewable resource
(c) Abiotic resource (d) National resource
54. Anything which can be used for satisfying the human needs is called a-
(a) Human resource (b) International resource
(c) Resource (d) Reserve
55. Which are the two main types of resources?
(a) Abiotic and Biotic (b) Renewable and non-renewable
(c) Natural and human (d) National and international

56. Non-renewable resources are further divided into-
(a) Renewable and non-renewable (b) Biotic and abiotic
(c) Recyclable and non-recyclable (d) None of the above
57. Name any two community owned resources?
(a) Solar energy and wind energy (b) Canals and railways
(c) Public parks and picnic spots (d) Oceans and seas
58. Which one of the following is an example of cultivable waste land?
(a) Uncultivable land (b) Barren wasteland (c) Current fallow land (d) Gross cropped area
59. Which of the following methods does not help in soil conservation?
(a) Contour ploughing (b) Strip cropping
(c) Creating shelter belts (d) Ploughing up and down the slope
60. Which one of the following is a renewable resource?
(a) Coal (b) Petroleum (c) Solar energy (d) Fossil fuel
61. The alluvial soil consists of-
(a) sand (b) clay (c) silt (d) all of the above
62. Which one of the following does not check land degradation?
(a) Control on overgrazing (b) Creating shelter belts
(c) Deforestation (d) Afforestation
63. Burial ground is an example of-
(a) Community owned resource (b) National resource
(c) Individual resource (d) International resource
64. Which cold desert is relatively isolated from the rest of the country?
(a) Leh (b) Kargil (c) Ladakh (d) Dras
65. Which one of the following states has laterite soil?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Rajasthan (d) Meghalaya
66. Which one of the following is not the community owned resources?
(a) Grazing grounds (b) Burial grounds
(c) Village ponds (d) Privately owned house
67. How can the resources be classified on the basis of their origin?
(a) Biotic and Abiotic (b) Renewable and Non-renewable
(c) Individual and community (d) Potential and Reserve
68. Which among the following is a type of resources classified on the basis of exhaustibility?
(a) Biotic and Non-biotic (b) Renewable and Non-Renewable
(c) National and International (d) Potential and Reserve
69. What is the arrangement of soil in different layers or horizons known as?
(a) Soil composition (b) Soil erosion (c) Soil profile (d) Soil texture
70. Khadar is a type of-
(a) Black soil (b) Alluvial soil (c) Laterite soil (d) Desert soil
71. Which one of the following is an example of biotic resources?
(a) Rock (b) Mountain (c) Mineral (d) Flora
72. Which one of the following is an example of non-renewable resource?
(a) Solar energy (b) Tidal energy (c) Petroleum (d) Hydel power
73. On the basis of ownership resources are classified into-
(a) two types (b) three types (c) four types (d) none of the above

74. The process of transformation of things available in our environment involves an interactive
relationship between ______________.
(a) nature and technology (b) nature, technology and institutions
(c) environment and nature (d) environment and technology
75. Are resources free gifts of nature?
(a) Yes, they are.
(b) They are not, resources are a function of human activities.
(c) Yes, resources are nurtured by nature.
(d) No, anything from which a product can be manufactured.
76. Where are biotic resources obtained from?
(a) From biosphere and have life such as human beings, flora and fauna, fisheries, livestock
(b) From composing of non-living things
(c) From reproduction by physical, chemical or mechanical processes
(d) From minerals and fossil fuels
77. What are renewable resources?
(a) These are obtained from biosphere and have life.
(b) These are composed of non-living things.
(c) Which can be renewed or reproduced by physical, chemical or mechanical processes.
(d) These are from biosphere and have life such as human beings, flora and fauna, fisheries, live
stock.
78. Give examples of renewable resources.
(a) Minerals and fossil fuels
(b) Solar and wind energy, water, forests and wildlife
(c) Rocks and metals (d) Flora, fauna, fisheries and livestock
79. Give examples of national resources.
(a) Plots and houses
(b) Public parks, playgrounds, grazing grounds and burial grounds
(c) Oceanic resources
(d) Minerals, water resources, forests, wild life and land.
80. What are potential resources?
(a) Resources which can be renewed or reproduced.
(b) Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilized.
(c) Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for
utilization.
(d) Those things which are composed of non-living things.
81. What are developed resources?
(a) Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilization.
(b) Resources which can be renewed or reproduced.
(c) Those things which are composed of non-living things.
(d) Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilized.
82. What is a stock?
(a) Resources which can be renewed or reproduced.
(b) Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilized.
(c) Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but human
beings do not have the appropriate technology to access these.
(d) Solar and wind energy, water, forests and wildlife.

83. Human beings used resources indiscriminately and this has led to following major problems,
which are these problems?
(a) Not well-planned use of these resources (b) Wastage of resources
(c) Not many problems (d) Accumulation of resources in few hands
84. What is sustainable development?
(a) Well planned use of resources and development.
(b) Accumulation of resources and then using them accordingly.
(c) Development should take place without damaging the environment keeping in mind the
future generations.
(d) Using materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs.
85. Why do we need resource planning?
(a) Because of enormous diversity in the availability of resources
(b) Because we need to think of future generations
(c) Because we need to consider materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy
human needs
(d) Because of the need to collect materials and resources and then using them accordingly
86. What does resource planning in India involve?
(a) Defining the number of resources
(b) Surveying, mapping and qualitative estimation and measurement of the resources
(c) Taking government permission
(d) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans
87. Why is conservation of the resources important?
(a) So that they don’t get wasted
(b) Irrational consumption and over utilization of resources may lead to socio-economic and
environmental problems
(c) For evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and
institutional set up
(d) For matching the resource development plan with overall national developmental plan
88. Which type of land is not used for cultivation?
(a) Already on crop production
(b) Land put to non-agricultural uses, e.g. buildings, roads, factories, etc.
(c) All types of land (d) Black soil land
89. What is the total geographical area of India?
(a) 3.25 million sq km (b) 3.20 million sq km (c) 3.22 million sq km (d) 3.28 million sq km
90. ___________ percentage of our basic needs for food, shelter and clothing are obtained from
land.
(a) 70 (b) 80 (c) 90 (d) 95
91. Which human activities have led to land degradation?
(a) Deforestation and overgrazing (b) Agriculture
(c) Buildings and making roads (d) Factories and industries
92. How can we solve the problem of land degradation?
(a) Afforestation (b) More agricultural crops
(c) Try to grow plants in desert areas (d) Keep agricultural land free
93. Which important river system has formed alluvial soil?
(a) Ganga basin (b) Kaveri basin (c) Beas basin (d) Godavari basin

94. Alluvial soils are favorable for the growth of –
(a) Sugarcane, paddy and wheat (b) Nuts
(c) Palm (d) Cotton
95. Where among the following is black soil mostly found?
(a) Karnataka and Kerala
(b) Plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurashtra and Malwa
(c) Rajasthan and Gujarat (d) Assam
96. Where are red soils mostly found?
(a) Deccan plateau and parts of Odisha (b) Kerala and Karnataka
(c) Rajasthan and Gujarat (d) Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
97. Where is arid soil found in India?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Odisha (c) Assam (d) Madhya Pradesh
98. When the land becomes unfit for cultivation is known as-
(a) Fallow land (b) Bad land (c) Waste land (d) Deserted land
99. The processes of _______ and________, go on simultaneously and generally there is a balance
between two.
(a) denudation and erosion (b) soil formation and erosion
(c) soil formation and denudation (d) climatic conditions and soil erosion
100. The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels known
as___________.
(a) tributaries (b) ravines (c) gullies (d) drains
101. Which one of the following is a human made resource?
(a) Petroleum (b) Forests (c) Machines (d) Land
102. The oceanic resources beyond 200 km of exclusive economic zone can be termed as which of
the following types of resources?
(a) Individual resources (b) Community owned resources
(c) National resources (d) International resources
103. What was the main contribution of the Brundtland Commission Report, 1987?
(a) Sustainable development as means for resource conservation
(b) Advocated resource conservation for the first time
(c) Presented Gandhian philosophy
(d) All the above
104. What is the land used for grazing cattle and livestock known as?
(a) Forest (b) Barren land (c) Pasture (d) Fallow land
105. Which of the following is the root cause for resource depletion at global level according to
Gandhiji?
(a) Conservation of resources
(b) Use of resources
(c) Greedy and selfish individuals and exploitative nature of modern technology
(d) Backward technology
106. Which of the following regions in India possesses rich reserves of minerals and fossil fuels?
(a) Plains (b) Mountains (c) Plateaus (d) Deserts
107. Laterite has been derived from the Greek word Later which means-
(a) Brick (b) Rock (c) Stone (d) Mountain

108. In which of the following states is overgrazing responsible for land degradation?
(a) Jharkhand and Odisha (b) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
(c) Punjab and Haryana (d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
109. The mountain share in the total land area is _________.
(a) 30% (b) 27% (c) 43% (d) 40%
110. What is the percentage share of plains in the total land area?
(a) 43% (b) 23% (c) 33% (d) 27%
111. When the top soil is washed away it is called as-
(a) sheet erosion (b) later erosion (c) soil erosion (d) land erosion
112. What is strip cropping?
(a) Planting lines of trees (b) Planting between water beds
(c) Cultivating making steps
(d) Strips of grass are left to grow between the crops
113. What are shelter belts?
(a) Cultivating making steps (b) Planting lines of trees to create shelter
(c) Planting huge bush plants in desert (d) Planting near water beds
114. What is the contribution of shelter belts?
(a) To conserve water (b) To conserve soil
(c) To stabilize sand dunes (d) To maintain forests
115. What type of resources are rocks?
(a) Abiotic (b) Renewable (c) Potential (d) Biotic
116. Water in the dams, forests, etc. is a _________ resource, which can be used in the future.
(a) potential (b) reserve (c) renewable (d) national
117. What is the main reason behind global ecological crisis such as global warming and
environmental pollution?
(a) Depletion of resources
(b) Accumulation of resources in a few hands
(c) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources (d) Use of resources
118. From which five-year plan has India made concerted efforts for achieving the goals of
resource planning?
(a) First five-year plan (b) Fifth five-year plan (c) Annual plans (d) Tenth five-year plan
119. On the basis of ownership, plantation can be considered as which of the following types of
resources?
(a) Individual resource (b) Community owned resource
(c) National resource (d) International resource
120. What is necessary for sustained quality of life and global peace?
(a) Stopping use of resources (b) Saving resources for future
(c) Exploitation of resources (d) Equitable distribution of resources
Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d)
9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (b)
17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (b)
25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (a) 31. (b) 32. (d)
33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c)

41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (b)
49. (c) 50. (c) 51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (b)
57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (c) 61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (c)
65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (b) 71. (d) 72. (c)
73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (b)
81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (d) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (b)
89. (d) 90. (d) 91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (a) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (b)
97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (c) 101. (c) 102. (d) 103. (a) 104. (c)
105. (c) 106. (c) 107. (a) 108. (b) 109. (a) 110. (a) 111. (c) 112. (d)
113. (b) 114. (c) 115. (a) 116. (b) 117. (c) 118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (d)
Individual Resources: These are also owned privately by individuals. Many farmers own land

which is allotted to them by government against the payment of revenue.
In villages there are people with land ownership but there are many who are landless.
Urban people own plots, houses and other property. Plantation, pasture lands, ponds, water in
wells etc. are some of the examples of resources ownership by individuals.
Community owned resources: There are resources which are accessible to all the members of the

community. Village commons (grazing grounds, burial grounds, village ponds, etc.) public parks,
picnic spots, playgrounds in urban areas are de facto accessible to all the people living there.
National Resources: Technically, all the resources belong to the nation. The country has legal

powers to acquire even private property for public good. You might have seen roads, canals,
railways being constructed on fields owned by some individuals.
Urban Development Authorities get empowered by the government to acquire land.
All the minerals, water resources, forests, wildlife, land within the political boundaries and
oceanic area up to 12 nautical miles (22.2 km) from the coast termed as territorial water and
resources therein belong to the nation. International Resources: There are international
institutions which regulate some resources. The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of
the Exclusive Economic Zone belong to open ocean and no individual country can utilise these
without the concurrence of international institutions.
(i) The resources which are owned by the community are:
(a) plantation (b) pasture land (c) ponds (d) all the above
(ii) Which one of the following is an example of Biotic Resources?
(iii) On the basis of ownership, plantations can be better considered as which of the following
types of resources?
(iv) The oceanic resources beyond 200 km of the Exclusive Economic Zone can be termed as
which of the following types of resource?

Resource planning is a complex process which involves: (i) identification and inventor of
resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative
and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources. (ii) evolving a planning structure
endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource
development plans. (iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national
development plans. India has made concerted efforts for achieving the goals of resource planning
right from the First Five Year Plan launched after Independence. The availability of resources
is a necessary condition for the development of any region, but mere availability of resources in
the absence of corresponding changes in technology and institutions may hinder development.
There are many regions in our country that are rich in resources but these are included in
economically backward regions. On the contrary there are some regions which have a poor
resource base but they are economically developed. The history of colonisation reveals that rich
resources in colonies were the main attractions for the foreign invaders. It was primarily the
higher level of technological development of the colonising countries that helped them to exploit
resources of other regions and establish their supremacy over the colonies. Therefore, resources
can contribute to development only when they are accompanied by appropriate technological
development and institutional changes.
India has experienced all this in different phases of colonisation. Therefore, in India, development
in general, and resource development in particular do not only involve the availability of
resources, but also the technology, quality of human resources and the historical experiences of
the people.
(i) From which Five Year Plan has India made concerted efforts for achieving the goals of
resource planning?
(a) First Five Year Plan (b) Fifth Five Year Plan
(c) Annual Plans (d) Tenth Five Year Plan
(ii) Resource planning is essential for __________ existence of all forms of life.
(a) ecological balance (b) sustainable
(c) exploitation (d) None of these
(iii) What was main attraction of foreign invaders to India?
(a) architecture (b) resource
(c) irrigation method (d) spices
(iv) Which of the following is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life?
(a) Resource planning (b) Resource management
(c) Resource extraction (d) Resource generation
Energy is a basic requirement for economic development. Every sector of the national economy
– agriculture, industry, transport, commercial and domestic – needs inputs of energy. The
economic development plans implemented since Independence necessarily required increasing
amounts of energy to remain operational. As a result, consumption of energy in all forms has
been steadily rising all over the country. In this background, there is an urgent need to develop
a sustainable path of energy development. Promotion of energy conservation and increased use
of renewable energy sources are the twin planks of sustainable energy. India is presently one of
the least energy efficient countries in the world. We have to adopt a cautious approach for the
judicious use of our limited energy resources. For example, as concerned citizens we can do our
bit by using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles; switching off electricity when
not in use, using power-saving devices and using non-conventional sources of energy. After all,
“energy saved is energy produced”.

(i) What is considered to be the basic requirement of economic development?
(a) resources (b) energy (c) technology (d) citizens
(ii) There is an urgent need of _________ development.
(a) unsustainable (b) sustainable (c) non-energy (d) none of the above
(iii) How will using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles help us?
(a) saving resources (b) saving energy (c) saving vehicles (d) all the above
(iv) Meaning of sustainable:
(a) viable (b) temporary (c) conserve (d) none of the above
On the Basis of the Status of Development Potential Resources: Resources which are found
in a region, but have not been utilised. For example, the western parts of India particularly
Rajasthan and Gujarat have enormous potential for the development of wind and solar energy,
but so far these have not been developed properly. Developed Resources: Resources which are
surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation. The development
of resources depends on technology and level of their feasibility. Identify at least two resources
from each category. Do you know that India has got the right to mine manganese nodules
from the bed of the Indian Ocean from that area which lies beyond the exclusive economic
zone. Identify some other resources which are international in nature. Stock: Materials in the
environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but human beings do not have
the appropriate technology to access these, are included among stock. For example, water is a
compound of two gases; hydrogen and oxygen. Hydrogen can be used as a rich source of energy.
But we do not have advanced technical ‘know-how’ to use it for this purpose. Hence, it can be
considered as stock. Reserves are the subset of the stock, which can be put into use with the
help of existing technical ‘know-how’ but their use has not been started. These can be used for
meeting future requirements. River water can be used for generating hydroelectric power but
presently, it is being utilised only to a limited extent. Thus, the water in the dams, forests etc. is
a reserve which can be used in the future.
(i) Identify the correct basis of the Status of Development potential resources.
Basis Potential resources
(a) resources 1. No appropriate technology to use them
(b) stock 2. Not utilised
(c) developed resource 3. Subset of the stock
(d) reserves 4. Surveyed (quantity and quality)
Choose the correct option-
(a) (a)-1, (b)–3, (c)–2, (d)–4 (b) (a)–2, (b)–1, (c)–4, (d)–3
(c) (a)–3, (b)–1, (c)–4, (d)–2 (d) (a)–4, (b)–2, (c)–3, (d)–1
(ii) Resources that take long geological time for their formation are called:
(iii) Which one of the following statements is true about the term resources?
(a) Resources are free gifts of nature.
(b) They are the functions of human activities.
(c) All those things which are found in nature.
(d) Things which cannot be used to fulfill our needs.

(iv) Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for
utilisation are __________.
(a) Potential Resources (b) Individual Resources
(c) Developed Resources (d) Stock
We have shared our land with the past generations and will have to do so with the future
generations too. Ninety-five per cent of our basic needs for food, shelter and clothing are
obtained from land. Human activities have not only brought about degradation of land but
have also aggravated the pace of natural forces to cause damage to land. Some human activities
such as deforestation, over grazing, mining and quarrying too have contributed significantly in
land degradation. Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep
scars and traces of over-burdening. In states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh
and Odisha deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation. In states like
Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra overgrazing is one of the main reasons
for land degradation. In the states of Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh, over irrigation
is responsible for land degradation due to water logging leading to increase in salinity and
alkalinity in the soil. The mineral processing like grinding of limestone for cement industry and
calcite and soapstone for ceramic industry generate huge quantity of dust in the atmosphere. It
retards the process of infiltration of water into the soil after it settles down on the land. In recent
years, industrial effluents as waste have become a major source of land and water pollution in
many parts of the country. There are many ways to solve the problems of land degradation.
Afforestation and proper management of grazing can help to some extent. Planting of shelter
belts of plants, control on over grazing, stabilisation of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes
are some of the methods to check land degradation in arid areas. Proper management of waste
lands, control of mining activities, proper discharge and disposal of industrial effluents and
wastes after treatment can reduce land and water degradation in industrial and suburban areas.
(i) Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation (b) Deforestation
(c) Over-irrigation (d) Overgrazing
(ii) In which of the follo wing States mining has caused severe land degradation?
(a) Gujarat (b) Jharkhand
(c) Kerala (d) Uttarakhand
(iii) One of the following which does not check land degradation-
(a) control on overgrazing (b) creating shelter belts
(c) deforestation (d) afforestation
(iv) In which of the following states is overgrazing responsible for land degradation?
(a) Jharkhand and Orissa (b) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
(c) Punjab and Haryana (d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
Renewable Resources: The resources which can be renewed or reproduced by physical, chemical
or mechanical processes are known as renewable or replenishable resources. For example, solar
and wind energy, water, forests and wildlife, etc. The renewable resource may further be divided
into continuous or flow Non-Renewable Resources: These occur over a very long geological
time. Minerals and fossil fuels are examples of such resources. These resources take millions of
years in their formation. Some of the resources like metals are recyclable and some like fossil
fuels cannot be recycled and get exhausted with their use. On the Basis of Ownership Individual
Resources: These are also owned privately by individuals. Many farmers own land which is
allotted to them by government against the payment of revenue. In villages there are people

with land ownership but there are many who are landless. Urban people own plots, houses and
other property. Plantation, pasture lands, ponds, water in wells etc. are some of the examples
of resources ownership by individuals. Make a list of resources owned by your household.
Community Owned Resources: There are resources which are accessible to all the members of
the community. Village commons (grazing grounds, burial grounds, village ponds, etc.) public
parks, picnic spots, playgrounds in urban areas are de facto accessible to all the people living
there. National Resources: Technically, all the resources belong to the nation. The country has
legal powers to acquire even private property for public good. You might have seen roads, canals,
railways being constructed on fields owned by some individuals. Urban Development Authorities
get empowered by the government to acquire land. All the minerals, water resources, forests,
wildlife, land within the political boundaries and oceanic area up to 12 nautical miles (22.2 km)
from the coast termed as territorial water and resources therein belong to the nation. International
Resources: There are international institutions which regulate some resources. The oceanic
resources beyond 200 nautical miles of the Exclusive Economic Zone belong to open ocean and no
individual country can utilise these without the concurrence of international institutions.
(i) Which among the following is a type of resources classified on the basis of exhaustibility?
(a) National and individual (b) Renewable and non-renewable
(c) Biotic and abiotic (d) Potential and reserves
(ii) Match the following
1. Renewable resource (a) wells
2. Individual resource (b) Ocean
3. National resource (c) solar energy
4. International resource (d) plantation
(a) 1–(a), 2–(c), 3–(d), 4–(b) (b) 1–(c), 2–(d), 3–(a), 4–(b)
(c) 1–(b), 2–(a), 3–(c), 4–(b) (d) 1–(d), 2–(c), 3–(a), 4–(b)
(iii) Resources that take long geological time for their formation are called:
(iv) Which one of the following is not the community owned resource?
(a) Burial grounds (b) Grazing grounds
(c) Privately owned house (d) village ponds
Answers
1. (i) (d) (ii) (d) (iii) (a) (iv) (d) 2. (i) (a) (ii) (b) (iii) (b) (iv) (a)
3. (i) (b) (ii) (b) (iii) (b) (iv) (d) 4. (i) (b) (ii) (d) (iii) (b) (iv) (c)
5. (i) (c) (ii) (b) (iii) (c) (iv) (b) 6. (i) (b) (ii) (d) (iii) (d) (iv) (c)

1. Assertion (A) : Afforestation and proper management of grazing can help land degradation to
some extent.
Reason (R) : Planting of shelter belts of plants, control on overgrazing, stabilisation of
sand dunes by growing thorny bushes are some of the methods to check land
degradation in arid areas.
2. Assertion (A) : Alluvial soils as a whole are very fertile.
Reason (R) : Mostly these soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and
lime which are ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal
and pulse crops.
3. Assertion (A) : The black soils are made up of extremely fine i.e. clayey material.
Reason (R) : They are well known for their capacity to hold dryness.
4. Assertion (A) : Arid soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the
eastern and southern parts of the Deccan plateau.
Reason (R) : Yellow and red soils are also found in parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh, southern parts
of the middle Ganga plain and along the piedmont zone of the Western Ghats.
5. Assertion (A) : Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘later’ which means brick.
Reason (R) : The Forest soil develops under tropical and subtropical climate with alternate

wet and dry season.
Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c)
MAP QUESTIONS
Maps (Identify the shaded regions on the map)
1. The soil marked below is
(a) arid soil (b) alluvial soil (c) laterite soil (d) Black soil

2. The soil marked below is
(a) Black soil (b) Mountainous or Forest soil

(c) Black soil (d) Arid soil
3. Look at the map below and name the marked state where Laterite soil is found.
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Odisha (d) Gujarat
Answers
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a)
zzz

3 WATER RESOURCES
MULTI-PURPOSE PROJECTS
Are meant to take various problems associated with river valleys in an integrated manner.
They help to control flood, check soil erosion, provide water for irrigation and drinking
purpose, generate electricity for industries, villages, cities, provide inland navigation, help
in preservation of wildlife and development or fisheries.
Damodar Valley
Bhakra-Nangal Hirakud Kosi Chambal Valley
Corporation
Built on river Built on Satluj, Built on river Built on river Built over river
Damodar, beneficiary beneficiary states are Mahanadi-beneficiary Kosi-beneficiary state Chambal –
states are Jharkhand Punjab, Haryana, state is Odisha. - Bihar and our beneficiary states are
and West Bengal. Rajasthan & neighbouring Madhya Pradesh &
Himachal Pradesh. country-Nepal. Rajasthan.
RAINWATER HARVESTING
Is a technique of increasing the recharge of groundwater by capturing and storing

rainwater by constructing wells, percolating pits and check dams.
Main objectives of the rainwater harvesting are:

To meet increasing demand of water
To reduce runoff.
To avoid the flooding of roads.
To augment the groundwater storage and raise the water table.
To reduce groundwater pollution.
To improve the quality of groundwater.
To supplement domestic water requirement during summer and long dry spells.
[The chapter is to be assessed in the Periodic Test only and will not be evaluated in Board Examination. However, the
map items of this chapter as listed in the syllabus will be evaluated in Board Exam.]
Geography: Water Resources 45

ADVANTAGES OF MULTI PURPOSE PROJECTS
Irrigation Hydro- Water supply Flood Recreational Inland Pisciculture Soil

electricity for for domestic control facilities navigation fish breeding conservation
our and through
industries industrial afforestation.
and homes. use,
regulating
flow of
water.
DISADVANTAGES OF MULTI PURPOSE PROJECTS
Their failure to fulfil Regulating and The reservoirs that Multi purpose Excessive use of
their basic objectives damming of rivers are created in the projects lead to large water, and
like flood control and affect the natural floodplains overflow scale displacement over-irrigation on
the disadvantages flow of the rivers, and submerge the of local communities account of the
resulting out of cause excessive existing vegetation and to loss of their projects lead to land
building of such sedimentation and and soil livelihood. degradation and
projects. adversely affect consequently leading cause water borne
aquatic life. to their disease, pests and
decomposition. pollution.
IMPORTANT TERMS
1. Hydrological Cycle: The sequence of conditions through which water passes from vapour
in the atmosphere through precipitation upon land or water surfaces and ultimately back
into the atmosphere as a result of evaporation and transpiration —called ‘hydrological cycle’.
2. Scarcity: The state of being scarce or in short supply; shortage.
3. Conservation: The protection of plants and animals, natural areas and interesting and
important buildings especially from the damaging effects of human activity.
4. Non-renewable Resources is a resource of economic value that cannot be readily replaced
by natural means on a level equal to its consumption.
5. Groundwater: Water held underground in the soil or in pores and crevices in rock.
6. Hydroelectric Power: A form of energy generated by the conversion of free-falling water
to electricity; the generation of electricity by using the motive power of water; also
called hydroelectricity.
7. Archaeology: The study of human history and prehistory through the excavation of sites
and the analysis of artefacts and other physical remains.
8. River Basin: The area of land drained by a river and its branches.
9. Dams: A barrier constructed to hold back water and raise its level, forming a reservoir
used to generate electricity or as a water supply.

10. Industrialisation: The development of industries in a country or region on a wide scale.
11. Sedimentation: The process of settling or being deposited as a sediment.
12. Reservoirs: A large natural or artificial lake used as a source of water supply.
13. Decomposition: The state or process of rotting; decay.
14. Flood Plains: An area of low-lying ground adjacent to a river, formed mainly of river
sediments and subject to flooding.
15. Irrigation: The supply of water to land or crops to help growth, typically by means of
channels.
16. Rainwater Harvesting: The harvesting of rainwater simply involves the collection of
water from surfaces on which rain falls, and subsequently storing this water for later use.
Normally water is collected from the roofs of buildings and stored in rainwater tanks.
17. Soil Erosion is a naturally occurring process that affects all landforms. In agriculture, soil
erosion refers to the wearing of a field’s topsoil by the natural physical forces of water
and wind or through forces associated with farming activities such as tillage.
18. Roof top Rainwater Harvesting: Rainwater harvesting is the technique through which
rain water is captured from the roof catchments and stored in reservoirs.

1. Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is located in
(a) Odisha (b) Uttarakhand (c) Rajasthan (d) Andhra Pradesh
2. Bamboo drip irrigation system is prevalent in
(a) Manipur (b) Meghalaya (c) Mizoram (d) Madhya Pradesh
3. Which options are true for dams?
(a) They check the sediment flow in rivers.
(b) Dams have helped provide ample water for agriculture.
(c) Dams have solved problems of drought in Central India.
(d) Dams have helped in power generation.
4. The Narmada Bachao Andolan is associated with
(a) Sardar Sarovar Dam (b) Tehri Dam
(c) Hirakund Dam (d) Gandhi Sagar Dam
5. The remote village that has earned the rare distinction of being rich in rainwater?
(a) Gari (b) Kaza
(c) Gendathur (d) none of the above
6. Name the state where almost all the houses traditionally had tankas.
(a) Rajasthan (b) Odisha (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharashtra
7. Which of the following rivers is not having any multipurpose river project?
(a) Satluj-Beas (b) Mahanadi (c) Narmada (d) Yamuna
8. During whose reign were the dams, lakes and irrigation systems built extensively?
(a) Ashoka (b) Chandragupta Maurya
(c) Akbar (d) None of these

9. What were ‘Guls’?
(a) Reservoirs (b) Artificial lakes
(c) Diversion channels (d) None of these
10. Tehri Dam Aandolan is mainly concerned with the state of
(a) Uttarakhand (b) Jharkhand
(c) Chhattisgarh (d) None of these states
11. Which one of the following statements is not an argument in favor of multi-purpose river projects?
(a) Multi-purpose projects bring water to hose areas which suffer from water scarcity.
(b) Multi-purpose projects by regulating water flow help to control floods.
(c) Multi-purpose projects lead to large scale displacements and loss of livelihood.
(d) Multi-purpose projects generate electricity for our industries and our homes.
12. Which among the following is not a source of fresh water?
(a) Glaciers and ice sheets (b) Groundwater
(c) Surface runoff (d) Oceans
13. According to Falkan Mark, water stress ocean when ____________.
(a) water availability is less than 1000 cubic meter per person per day
(b) there is no water scarcity
(c) there is flood
(d) water availability is more than 2000 cubic meter per person per day
14. Which of the following is not cause of water scarcity?
(a) Growing population (b) Growing water intensive crop
(c) Expansion of irrigational facility (d) Water harvesting techniques
15. Bhakra Nangal River Valley Project is made on the river-
(a) Sutlej-Beas (b) Ravi-Chenab (c) Ganga (d) Son
16. Hirakud dam is constructed on the river-
(a) Ganga (b) Manjira (c) Manas (d) Mahanadi
17. Water of Bhakra Nangal Project is being used mainly for-
(a) Hydel power and irrigation (b) Fish breeding and navigation
(c) Industrial use (d) Flood control
18. The diversion channels seen in the Western Himalayas are called-
(a) Guls or Kuls (b) Khadins (c) Johads (d) Recharge pits
19. Agricultural fields which are used as rainfed storage structures are called-
(a) Kuls (b) Khadins/Johads (c) Recharge pits (d) None of the above
20. Underground tanks seen in Rajasthan to store rainwater for drinking is called-
(a) Tankas (b) Khadin (c) Ponds (d) Kuls
21. In Western Rajasthan today plenty of water is available due to-
(a) rooftop water harvesting (b) perennial Rajasthan canal
(c) construction of Tankas (d) none of the above
22. The only state which has made rooftop rainwater harvesting structure compulsory to all
houses is-
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka (c) Tamil Nadu (d) West Bengal
23. Which one of the following is not an adverse effect of irrigation?
(a) Irrigation changes cropping pattern (b) Water intensive crops are grown in dry areas
(c) Salinization of soil (d) Increases crop yield

24. Which of the following social movements is/are not a resistance to multi-purpose projects?
(a) Narmada Bachao Andolan (b) Navdanya
(c) Chipko Movement (d) Both (b) and (c)
25. The major source of fresh water in India is-
(a) rainfall (b) ground water
(c) atmospheric water (d) ocean water
26. Rooftop rainwater harvesting is a technique to recharge-
(a) ground water (b) river water (c) lake water (d) sea water
27. How much of earth’s surface is covered with water?
(a) One-fourth (b) Half (c) Three-fourth (d) Two-third
28. Sardar Sarovar Dam is situated on the river named-
(a) Ganga (b) Godavari (c) Mahanadi (d) Narmada
29. Underground tanks seen in Rajasthan to store rainwater for drinking is called-
(a) Tankas (b) Khadin (c) Ponds (d) Kuls
30. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built on which river?
(a) Chenab (b) Mahanadi (c) Krishna (d) Satlej
31. On which of the following rivers is Koyena Dam built?
(a) Krishna (b) Kaveri (c) Ganga (d) Mahanadi
32. What percentage of the total volume of world’s water is estimated to exist as oceans?
(a) 94.5% (b) 95.5% (c) 96.5% (d) 97.5%
33. In which of the following regions, people built Guls and Kuls for irrigation?
(a) Northern Plains (b) Western Himalayas
(c) Coastal areas (d) None of the above
34. What is the contribution of hydroelectricity in the total generation of electricity?
(a) 52% (b) 42% (c) 32% (d) 22%
35. On which of the following rivers Mettur dam is constructed?
(a) River kaveri (b) River Krishna (c) River Godavari (d) River Mahanadi
36. Rooftop rainwater harvesting system in Rajasthan is known as-
(a) Guls (b) Kuls (c) Tankas (d) Babos
37. Which of the following structures are known as Tankas?
(a) Underground tankas for storing rainwater from rooftops for drinking purpose.
(b) Tanks constructed on roof tops for storing rainwater.
(c) Tanks constructed in agricultural fields to store rainwater.
(d) Tanks constructed to store flood water.
38. Which one of the following is not an adverse effect of dams?
(a) Inter-state water dispute (b) Excessive sedimentation of reservoir
(c) Displacement of population (d) Flood control
39. Due to which of the following reasons are rooftop rainwater harvesting commonly practiced,
particularly in Rajasthan?
(a) To store water for irrigation (b) To keep house cool
(c) To store drinking water (d) To clean rooftops
40. In which of the following areas are Guls and Kuls used to channel water for agriculture?
(a) Deccan Plateau (b) Deserts of Rajasthan
(c) Western Himalayas (d) Ganga Plains

41. Drip irrigation system is a means of _________ conservation.
(a) water (b) fauna (c) flora (d) forests
42. Different social groups do not have _________ access to water.
(a) special (b) equal (c) different (d) none of the above
43. Multi-purpose dams were launched in India after _________.
(a) 1957 (b) independence (c) 1962 (d) none of the above
44. Why is water scarcity mainly caused?
(a) Water pollution (b) Excessive use and unequal access to water
(c) Water management (d) Using for utility
45. According to hydrological cycle, how can freshwater be obtained?
(a) Snow (b) Rainwater (c) Ground water (d) Drainage
46. Even when water is available in many cities in abundance why is there water scarcity?
(a) Using to utility (b) Unequal distribution of water
(c) Default in technical areas (d) Lack of infrastructure for proper distribution
47. Who is the largest consumer of water?
(a) City dwellers (b) Irrigation (c) Villages (d) Industries
48. How can we revolutionise agriculture?
(a) By building dams
(b) By releasing more water
(c) By making rainwater reserves
(d) Through developing drought resistant crops and dry farming techniques
49. Most farmers own wells and tube wells and their farms for irrigation to increase their
production, what adverse effect can this have?
(a) Falling groundwater levels, adversely affecting water availability
(b) Imbalance in minerals for soil
(c) Unequal distribution of water
(d) Could be technical defaults
50. Post-independence India witnessed intensive _____________.
(a) agriculture (b) economic problems
(c) industrialization and urbanization (d) deforestation
51. How did the increasing number of industries affect the water condition?
(a) No effect on water
(b) Pressure on existing freshwater
(c) Balance between use of water and industry
(d) Unequal distribution of water
52. In India hydroelectric power contributes approximately ___________ percent of the total
electricity produced.
(a) 22 (b) 25 (c) 20 (d) 26
53. Which factors have aggravated the water and energy problems in India?
(a) Multiplying urban centers (b) Dams
(c) Afforestation (d) Agriculture
54. How are most of the housing societies or colonies in the cities resourcing their water needs?
(a) City water works (b) Own groundwater pumping devices
(c) Community water pumps (d) Individual motors

55. Even if there is ample amount of water in certain places there is hazardous water pollution,
what are the causes?
(a) Domestic and industrial wastes (b) Wastage of water
(c) Over storage (d) Community water pumps
56. What are the causes for the Indian rivers to become toxic?
(a) Fossils (b) Agricultural
(c) Conservation of water (d) Industrialization
57. What are the important things to do to prevent degradation of our natural ecosystems?
(a) Urbanization (b) Industrialization
(c) Conserve and manage our water resources to safeguard ourselves from health hazards
(d) Modern agriculture
58. What will impoverish this water resource and cause an ecological crisis that may have a
profound impact on our lives?
(a) Industrialization (b) Modern agriculture
(c) Urbanization
(d) Over exploitation and mismanagement of water resources
59. What is a barrier across flowing water that obstructs, directs or retards the flow, often creating
a reservoir, lake or impoundment?
(a) Canal (b) Embankment (c) Dam (d) Lake
60. What is the purpose of building dams?
(a) For embankment (b) Flood control
(c) Storage (d) Water animals’ conservation
61. Which among the following is a multi-purpose dam which is used for conservation of water
with flood control?
(a) Satluj-Beas river basin (b) Bhakra-Nangal Project
(c) Hirakud Project (d) Tehri Dam
62. Jawaharlal Nehru proudly proclaimed the dams as the _______________.
(a) saviors of India (b) temples of modern India
(c) future of India (d) complexes of India
63. Why did Jawaharlal Nehru call dams as Temples of Modern India?
(a) They were multi-purpose in nature.
(b) Irrigation became better.
(c) Development of agriculture and the village economy with rapid industrialization and growth
of the urban economy.
(d) Hydel power became ample.
64. Why have multi-purpose projects and large dams have come under great scrutiny and
opposition recently?
(a) The positioning of the dams is not technically correct.
(b) Regulating and damming of rivers affect their natural flow, causing poor sedimentation at
the bottom of the reservoir.
(c) Chances of floods.
(d) Dams built recently are not strong enough.
65. Multi-purpose projects and large dams have also been the cause of many new environmental
movements like __________________.
(a) Narmada Bachao Andolan (b) Save Satluj
(c) Save environment (d) Green up to cool down

66. Who are benefitted from the multi-purpose projects?
(a) Landowners, large farmers and industrialists
(b) Local people
(c) Government
(d) The builders
67. Narmada Bachao Andolan or Save Narmada Movement originally focused on-
(a) irrigation strategies
(b) environmental issues related to trees
(c) aim to enable poor citizens, especially the outsees
(d) reservoir planning
68. Which is the largest water resource project of India covering four states?
(a) Satluj Beas Dam (b) Bhakra Nangal Dam
(c) Tehri Dam (d) Sardar Sarovar Dam
69. Which states the largest water resource project of India covers?
(a) Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Gujarat
(b) Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Jharkhand and UP
(c) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan
(d) Assam, West Bengal, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh
70. Irrigation has also changed the cropping pattern of many regions with farmers shifting to
water intensive and commercial crops. This has great ecological consequences for the soil,
what is it?
(a) Salinization of soil (b) Contamination of soil
(c) Pollution of soil (d) Excess of chemicals
71. What reaction did the farmers at Sabarmati-basin farmers have?
(a) Development of agriculture and village economy.
(b) Farmers were agitated and almost caused a riot over the higher priority given to water
supply in urban areas, particularly during droughts.
(c) They were displaced.
(d) They were not rehabilitated.
72. In hill and mountainous regions, people-built diversion channels like-
(a) Gullies (b) Ravines (c) Tributaries (d) Guls or kuls
73. What was the traditional practice in the flood plains of Bengal, for irrigation?
(a) Canals (b) Man-made lakes
(c) Inundation channels (d) Rooftop rainwater
74. In the semi-arid and arid regions of Rajasthan, particularly in Bikaner, Phalodi and Barmer,
where was drinking water stored?
(a) Wells (b) Underground tanks or Tankas
(c) Small village ponds (d) Rooftop tanks
75. In which other places is rooftop rainwater harvesting common other than Rajasthan?
(a) Shillong (b) Gujarat (c) West Bengal (d) Sikkim
76. In spite of the fact that today plenty of water is available due to the perennial Indira Gandhi
Canal in Rajasthan, why do many homes still prefer the Tanka System?
(a) Not enough to reach all homes.
(b) Water is not clean.
(c) Many do not like the taste of tap water.
(d) They feel more secure with the traditional system.

77. Which state is the first state in India which has made rooftop rainwater harvesting structure
compulsory to all the houses across the state?
(a) West Bengal (b) Meghalaya (c) Rajasthan (d) Tamil Nadu
78. In which state is the 200-year-old system by using bamboo pipes still prevalent?
(a) West Bengal (b) Rajasthan (c) Meghalaya (d) Shillong
79. In which place in Karnataka the people have installed, in their households’s rooftop,
rainwater harvesting system to meet their water needs?
(a) Amachawadi in Mysore (b) Gendathur in Mysore
(c) Chatnahalli in Mysore (d) Gohali in Mysore
80. In Rajasthan what is rainwater referred to as?
(a) Barsaat pani (b) Baarish paani (c) Palar pani (d) Badal Pani
81. How is rooftop rainwater filtered?
(a) Using sand and bricks (b) Using electric filters
(c) Using net system (d) Using modern filters
82. Which of the following is a reason for water scarcity in a region with sufficient water to meet
the requirements of the people?
(a) Huge population (b) Less rainfall
(c) Power requirement (d) Pollution
83. Which of the following problems arises due to water pollution?
(a) Sedimentation of water bodies (b) Water-borne diseases
(c) Discharge of industrial water (d) Spawning of aquatic life
84. Which of the following data shows the percentage of global precipitation that is received by
India?
(a) 96.5% (b) 30% (c) 4% (d) 2.5%
85. Which of the following areas would you immediately associate with water scarcity?
(a) Deserts of Rajasthan (b) The Ganga plains
(c) Hills of North-eastern India (d) Coastal areas of Odisha
86. Which of the following is one of the largest artificial lakes of ancient India built in the
11th century?
(a) Govind sagar Lake (b) Hauz-Khas
(c) Bhopal Lake (d) Dal Lake
87. Which of the following hydraulic structures is built in river basins?
(a) Lakes (b) Dams (c) Tanks (d) Water harvesting
88. Which of the hydraulic structures is not a feature of ancient times?
(a) Multi-purpose river valley projects (b) Dams built of stone rubble
(c) Reservoirs or lakes (d) Embankments and canals
89. Which of the following structures was constructed by Illtutmish in the 14th century for
supplying water to Siri Fort area?
(a) Water harvesting at Sringaverapura near Allahabad
(b) Bhopal Lake
(c) Tank in Haus Khas
(d) Irrigation work at Nagarjunakonda
90. In which of the following areas can you find one of the oldest water-harvesting systems of India?
(a) Sringaverapura near Allahabad (b) Kalinga and Odisha
(c) Bennur and Karnataka (d) Nagarjunakonda and Andhra Pradesh

91. Which of the following state governments have raised the Krishna-Godavari dispute?
(a) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat and Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
(d) Karnataka and Maharashtra
92. On which of the following rivers are the Tilaiya, Panchet, Maithon, Konar and Bokaro dams
are located?
(a) Satluj (b) Damodar
(c) Mahanadi (d) Krishna
93. Which of the following environmental damages are not induced due to multi-purpose
projects?
(a) Water-borne diseases and pests
(b) Pollution resulting from excessive use of water
(c) Earthquakes
(d) Volcanic activity
94. Which of the following river projects or groups of river projects provide hydroelectricity to
the industries of Maharashtra?
(a) Pravara Project and Koyna Project
(b) Hirakud Project
(c) Nagarjuna sagar Project and Tungabhadra project
(d) Ghataprabha Project and Mettur Project
95. Due to which of the following reasons are rooftop rainwater harvesting commonly practiced
particularly in Rajasthan?
(a) To store water for irrigation (b) To keep house cool
(c) To store drinking water (d) To clean rooftop
96. Which of the following dams are part of Chambal project?
(a) Maithon, Panchet, Tilaiya, Konar, Bokaro
(b) Pravara, Ramagundam
(c) Rana Pratap Sagar, Gandhi Sagar
(d) Sardar Sarovar Dam
97. Which of the following is not a method of water harvesting used in Rajasthan?
(a) Johads (b) Khadins (c) Guls (d) Tankas
98. On which of the following rivers Tehri Dam is constructed?
(a) Bhagirathi (b) Yamuna (c) Kosi (d) Sutlej
99. Salal Dam is built on which river?
(a) Chenab (b) Mahanadi (c) Krishna (d) Satluj
100. Oceans contain _________ percent volume of water.
(a) 90 percent (b) 75 percent (c) 96.5 percent (d) 98 percent
101. Water is renewable resource because-
(a) it is being recycled by human beings.
(b) it is renewed and recharged through hydrological cycle.
(c) it is being renewed through reduction.
(d) it can be reused again.
102. Nagarjuna sagar Dam is built on which river?
(a) Chenab (b) Mahanadi (c) Krishna (d) Satluj

103. Which of the following contributes approximately 22 percent of the total electricity produced
in India today?
(a) Solar power (b) Hydroelectric power
(c) Geothermal energy (d) Thermal power
104. The release of water from dams during heavy rains aggravated the flood situation in
Maharashtra and Gujarat in the year ________________.
(a) 2005 (b) 2004 (c) 2000 (d) 2006
105. How did the multi-purpose projects affect the local people?
(a) Large scale displacement of local communities.
(b) They gained economically.
(c) The government gave them benefits.
(d) They got housing facilities.
106. What is the rank of India in the world countries in the terms of water availability per person
per annum?
(a) 129th (b) 130th (c) 131st (d) 133rd
107. Ironically, the dams that were constructed to control floods have triggered floods. Which of
the following reasons is responsible for it?
(a) Irrigation of surrounding areas (b) Generation of hydroelectricity
(c) Sedimentation in the reservoir (d) Pisciculture in the reservoir
108. Hauz Khas Tank was built in which present Indian state?
(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Punjab (c) Bihar (d) Delhi
109. Which among the following is not the dam based on structure and the material used?
(a) Timber dams (b) Large dams
(c) Embankment dams (d) Masonry dams
110. The water covered surface of the Earth is
(a) one-fourth (b) three-fourth (c) half of the earth (d) none of these
111. The earth is occupied mostly with water yet freshwater resources are only
(a) 3.5% (b) 5.5% (c) 2.5% (d) 0.5%
112. The primary source of water is
(a) evaporation (b) precipitation (c) rain (d) none of these
113. We need more and more _________ for growing food.
(a) land (b) water (c) minerals (d) none of these
114. In which one of the following states palar pani is considered the purest form of natural water?
(a) Gujarat (b) Rajasthan (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Chhatitisgarh
115. On which of the following issues did the Narmada Bachao Andolan first focus?
(a) Benefits of irrigation to landless farmers
(b) Environmental issues related to submergence of trees under the dam water
(c) Rehabilitation of the people displaced due to construction of the dam
(d) Economic issues of wastage of money for the construction of the dam
116. Which of the following areas were farmers agitation when higher priority was given to water
supply in urban areas, particularly during drought?
(a) Krishna-Godavari basin (b) Konya basin, Maharashtra
(c) Sabarmati basin, Gujarat (d) Rihand basin, Uttar Pradesh
117. In which of the following areas are ‘guls’ and ‘kuls’ used to channel water for agriculture?
(a) Deccan Plateau (b) Deserts of Rajasthan
(c) Western Himalayas (d) Ganga Plains

118. Which among the following regions of India experience low rainfall and is drought prone?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat (c) Bihar (d) Telangana
119. Which of the following remote backward village in Mysore, Karnataka installed household
rooftop rainwater harvesting system?
(a) Gendathur (b) Vanasthalipuram (c) Chilkunda (d) Kallahalli
120. In which part of India, rooftop rainwater harvesting is the most common practice?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Kerala
(c) Rajasthan (d) Shilong
Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b)
9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (d)
17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (d)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (c)
33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (d)
49. (a) 50. (c) 51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (d)
57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (b) 61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (c) 64. (b)
65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (d)
73. (c) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (c)
81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (b) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (a)
89. (c) 90. (a) 91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (a) 94. (a) 95. (c) 96. (d)
97. (c) 98. (a) 99. (a) 100. (c) 101. (b) 102. (c) 103. (b) 104. (d)
105. (a) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (d) 109. (b) 110. (b) 111. (c) 112. (c)
113. (b) 114. (b) 115. (b) 116. (c) 117. (c) 118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (d)
Many thought that given the disadvantages and rising resistance against the multipurpose projects,
water harvesting system was a viable alternative, both socio-economically and environmentally. In
ancient India, along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures, there existed an extraordinary
tradition of water-harvesting system. People had in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and
soil types and developed wide ranging techniques to harvest rainwater, groundwater, river
water and flood water in keeping with the local ecological conditions and their water needs.
In hill and mountainous regions, people built diversion channels like the ‘guls’ or ‘kuls’ of the
Western Himalayas for agriculture. ‘Rooftop rainwater harvesting’ was commonly practised to
store drinking water, particularly in Rajasthan. In the flood plains of Bengal, people developed
inundation channels to irrigate their fields. In arid and semi-arid regions, agricultural fields
were converted into rain fed storage structures that allowed the water to stand and moisten the
soil like the ‘khadins’ in Jaisalmer and ‘Johads’ in other parts of Rajasthan. In the semi-arid and
arid regions of Rajasthan, particularly in Bikaner, Phalodi and Barmer, almost all the houses
traditionally had underground tanks or tankas for storing drinking water.
(i) The diversion channels seen in the Western Himalayas are called:
(a) Guls or Kuls (b) Khadins (c) Johads (d) Recharge pits

(ii) Agricultural fields which are used as rainfed storage structures are called:
(a) Kuls (b) Khadins/Johads
(c) Recharge pits (d) None of the above
(iii) Underground tanks seen in Rajasthan to store rainwater for drinking is called:
(a) Tankas (b) Khadis
(c) Ponds (d) Kuls
(iv) In which of the following regions, people built ‘Guls’ and ‘Kuls’ for irrigation?
(a) Northern Plains (b) Western Himalayas
(c) Coastal areas (d) None of these
Today, dams are built not just for irrigation but for electricity generation, water supply for
domestic and industrial uses, flood control, recreation, inland navigation and fish breeding.
Hence, dams are now referred to as multi-purpose projects where the many uses of the
impounded water are integrated with one another. For example, in the Sutluj-Beas river basin,
the Bhakra – Nangal project water is being used both for hydel power production and irrigation.
Similarly, the Hirakud project in the Mahanadi basin integrates conservation of water with flood
control. Multi-purpose projects, launched after Independence with their integrated water
resources management approach, were thought of as the vehicle that would lead the nation
to development and progress, overcoming the handicap of its colonial past. Jawaharlal Nehru
proudly proclaimed the dams as the ‘temples of modern India’; the reason being that it would
integrate development of agriculture and the village economy with rapid industrialisation and
growth of the urban economy.
(i) Hirakund dam is built on which river?
(a) Chenab (b) Mahanadi
(c) Krishna (d) Satluj
(ii) Which one of the following is not an adverse effect of dams?
(a) Interstate water disputes
(b) Excessive sedimentation of Reservoir
(c) Displacement of population
(d) Flood control
(iii) Which of the following multipurpose projects is found in the Satluj-Beas river basin?
(a) Hirakud project
(b) Damodar Valley Corporation
(c) Bhakra Nangal Project
(d) Rihand Project
(iv) For which of the following purposes were dams traditionally built?
(a) For generating electricity
(b) For supplying water to industries
(c) For Flood control
(d) To impound river and rain water for irrigation
Answers
1. (i) (a) (ii) (a) (iii) (a) (iv) (b) 2. (i) (b) (ii) (d) (iii) (c) (iv) (d)

1. Assertion (A) : In ancient India, along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures, there existed
an extraordinary tradition of water-harvesting system.
Reason (R) : Rainwater, or palar pani, as commonly referred to in these parts, is considered
the purest form of natural water.
2. Assertion (A) : Today, dams are built not just for irrigation but for electricity generation,
water supply for domestic and industrial uses, flood control, recreation, inland
navigation and fish breeding.
Reason (R) : Hence, dams are now referred to as multi-purpose projects where the many
uses of the impounded water are integrated with one another.
3. Assertion (A) : In Gujarat, the Sabarmati-basin farmers were agitated and almost caused a
riot over the higher priority given to water supply in urban areas, particularly
during droughts.
Reason (R) : Inter-state water disputes are also becoming less common with regard to sharing

the costs and benefits of the multi-purpose project.
4. Assertion (A) : Most of the objections to the projects arose due to their success to achieve the
purposes for which they were built.
Reason (R) : Ironically, the dams that were constructed to control floods have triggered

floods due to sedimentation in the reservoir.
5. Assertion (A) : It was observed that the multi-purpose projects induced earthquakes, caused
water-borne disease.
Reason (R) : People had in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and soil types and

developed wide ranging techniques to harvest rainwater, groundwater, river
water and flood water in keeping with the local ecological conditions and their
water needs.
Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a)

MAP QUESTIONS
Maps (Identify the followings)
1. Identify the name of the dam marked on the map.
(a) Salal dam (b) Bhakra Nangal (c) Sardar sarovar (d) Tehri
(a) Tehri (b) Bhakra Nangal (c) Hirakund (d) Rana Pratap Sagar

(a) Rana Pratap Sagar (b) Tehri (c) Salal (d) Nagarjuna Sagar
Answers
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b)
zzz

4 AGRICULTURE
TYPES OF FARMING
Primitive Subsistence Farming Intensive Subsistence Farming Commercial Farming
Is practised on small patches It is practised in areas of high The main characteristics of the
of land with the help of population pressure on land. type of farming are used of
primitive tools like hoe, dao and It is labour intensive farming, higher doses of modern inputs,
digging sticks and where high doses of e.g. high yielding variety (HYV)
family/community. biochemical inputs and seeds, chemical fertilizers,
It is a ‘slash and burn’ irrigation are used for obtaining insecticides and pesticides in
agriculture. higher production. order to obtain higher
productivity.
THREE MAIN CROP SEASONS OF INDIA
Kharif Rabi Zaid
It starts with the onset of the It starts with the beginning of This is a short crop season in
monsoon and continues till the winter and continues till the between the rabi and kharif
beginning of winter (June-July beginning of summer (Oct-Dec season.
to September-October). to April-June). Crops like watermelons,
The Kharif crops include, rice, The rabi crops include wheat, cucumber, some vegetables
maize, millet, cotton, jute, barley, gram and oilseeds. and fodder crops are the major
groundnut, moong, urad, etc. crops.
Geography: Agriculture 61
MAJOR CROPS OF INDIA
RICE WHEAT MILLETS MAIZE PULSES

It is the staple food It is the main food Jowar, Bajra and Rabi It is a crop which is India is the largest
crop of a majority of crop in north and are the important used both as food and producer as well as
the people in India. north-western part of millets grown in India. fodder. the consumer of
It is a kharif crop the country. It is a main-fed crop It is a kharif crop pulses in the world.
which requires high This rabi crop requires mostly grown in the which requires These are the major
temperature and high a cool growing season moist areas which temperature between source of protein in
humidity with annual and a bright sunshine hardly needs irrigation. 21°C to 27°C and vegetation diet.
rainfall above 100 cm. at the time of ripening. Rabi is a crop of dry grows well in old Major pulses that are
Rice is grown in the It requires 50 to 70 cm regions and grows alluvial soil. grown in India are tur,
plains of north and of annual rainfall. well on red, black, Major maize urad, moong, masur,
north-eastern India, There are two sandy, loamy and producing states are peas and gram.
coastal areas and the important wheat shallow black soils. Karnataka, UP, Bihar, Pulses need less
deltaic regions of growing zones in the Karnataka is the Andhra Pradesh and moisture and survive
canal irrigation and country- the Ganga largest producer of Madhya Pradesh. even in dry
tubewells have made Satluj plains in the ragi followed by Tamil conditions.
it possible to grow rice north-west and black Nadu. Major pulses
in areas of less rainfall soil region of the producing states in
such as Punjab, Deccan. India are Madhya
Haryana and Western The major wheat Pradesh, UP,
U.P. and parts of producing states are Rajasthan,
Rajasthan. Punjab, Haryana, UP, Maharashtra and
Bihar, Rajasthan and Karnataka.
parts of Madhya
Pradesh.
NON-FOOD CROPS
Rubber Fibre Crops Cotton Jute

It is an equatorial crop, Cotton, jute, hemp and Cotton grows well in It is also known as
but under special natural silk are the drier parts of the black Golden fibre.
conditions, it is also four major fibre crops cotton soil of the Jute grows well on
grown in tropical and grown in India. Deccan plateau. well-drained fertile
sub-tropical areas. The first three are It requires high soils in the flood
It requires moist and derived from the crops temperature, light plains, where soils are
humid climate with grown in the soil, the rainfall or irrigation, renewed every year.
rainfall of more than latter is obtained from 210 frost-free days It requires high
200 cm and cocoons of the and bright sunshine temperature.
temperature above silkworms fed on for its growth. Major jute producing
25°C. green leaves specially It is a kharif crop and states are Bihar,
It is mainly grown in mulberry. requires 6-8 months to Assam, West Bengal,
Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Rearing of silk worms mature. Odisha, Meghalaya.
Karnataka, and for the production of Cotton producing
Andaman and Nicobar silk fibre is known as states are MP,
Islands and Garo hills sericulture. Karnataka, Andhra
in Meghalaya. Pradesh, Tamil Nadu,
Punjab, UP & Haryana.

IMPORTANT TERMS
1. Primitive Subsistence Agriculture is practised with small patches of land with the help of
primitive tools like hoe, Dao and digging sticks, and family/community labour. This type
of farming depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and suitability of other
environmental conditions to the crops grown.
2. Slash and Burn Agriculture is a method of agriculture used in the tropics, in which forest
vegetation is felled and burned, the land is cropped for a few years, then the forest is
allowed to reinvade.
3. Intensive Subsistence Agriculture is a method of agriculture, where farmers get more
food per acre compared to other subsistence farming methods. This allows farmers to
make the most of each harvest.
4. Plantation usually a large farm or estate, especially in a tropical or semitropical country,
on which cotton, tobacco, coffee, sugar cane, or the like is cultivated, usually by resident
labourers.
5. Commercial Farming: Farming for a profit, where food is produced by advanced
technological means for sale in the market.
6. Cropping Pattern means the proportion of area under various crops at a point of time.
7. Fodder Crops: Crops that are cultivated primarily for animal feed. By extension, natural
grasslands and pastures are included whether they are cultivated or not.
8. Tube Wells: A well consisting of an iron pipe with a solid steel point and lateral
perforations near the end, which is driven into the earth until a water-bearing stratum is
reached, when a suction pump is applied to the upper end.
9. Millets: A cereal grown in warm countries and regions with poor soils, bearing a large
crop of small seeds which are chiefly used to make flour.
10. Pulses are part of the legume family, but the term ‘pulse’ refers only to the dried seed.
Dried peas, edible beans, lentils and chickpeas are the most common varieties of pulses.
Pulses are very high in protein and fibre, and are low in fat.
11. Non-food Crops: An industrial crop, also called a non-food crop, is a crop grown to
produce goods for manufacturing, for example – of fibre for clothing, rather than food
for consumption.
12. GDP: Gross Domestic product is the total monetary value of goods produced and services
provided in a country during one year or over a specific time period.
13. Public Distribution System is a government-sponsored chain of shops entrusted with the
work of distributing basic food and non-food commodities to the needy sections of the
society at very cheap prices.
14. Food Corporation of India: FCI is a statutory body established via Food Corporation
Act 1964 to meet the following objectives of the Food Policy: Effective price support
operations for safeguarding the interests of the farmers. Distribution of food grains
throughout the country for public distribution system.
15. BPL (Below Poverty Line) is an economic benchmark used by the government of India
to indicate economic disadvantage and to identify individuals and households in need
of government assistance and aid. It is determined using various parameters which vary
from state to state and within states.
16. MSP: Minimum Support Price is a form of market intervention by the Government
of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.
MSP is price fixed by Government of India to protect the producer - farmers - against
excessive fall in price during bumper production years.
17. Globalisation: The process by which businesses or other organizations develop
international influence or start operating on an international scale.
18. Bio-diversity: The variety of plant and animal life in the world or in a particular habitat,
a high level of which is usually considered to be important and desirable.

1. Which of the following describes a system of agriculture, where a single crop is grown on a
large area?
(a) Shifting agriculture (b) Plantation agriculture
(c) Horticulture (d) Intensive agriculture
2. Tick the characteristics of Commercial farming
(a) Plots of land are fragmented.
(b) Transport and communication plays an important role.
(c) The yield is usually low.
(d) The pressure of population is high on land.
3. Choose the correctly matched pair about the agriculture in India from the following options:
(a) Rabi crops are sown - October to December
(b) Gram – paddy crops
(c) Aus, Aman and Boro – Government schemes
(d) Kissan Credit Card – Increased the production
4. Which of the following pulses does not help in restoring soil fertility.
(a) Moong (b) Gram (c) Peas (d) Arhar
5. The crop that is used both, as food and fodder
(a) ragi (b) jowar (c) maize (d) none of these
6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the non-food crops in India from the following
options:
(a) Cotton – Karnataka (b) Rubber – Assam
(c) Jute - UP (d) Fibre Crops – Nicobar Islands
7. Which out of the following is a Zaid crop?
(a) Moong (b) Mustard (c) Urad (d) Watermelon
8. What is ‘Boro’?
(a) Kharif crop (b) Zaid crop (c) Rabi crop (d) None of these
9. Jhumming in Brazil is called
(a) Ladang (b) Masole (c) Roca (d) None of these
10. Fill in the blank:
Kharif: ______________, Rabi : barley, Zaid : watermelon
(a) gram (b) wheat (c) oilseeds (d) moong

11. Which one of the following is a Rabi crop?
(a) Rice (b) Gram (c) Millets (d) Cotton
12. Which one of the following is a leguminous crop?
(a) Pulses (b) Jawar (c) Millets (d) Sesamum
13. Which one of the following is announced by the government in support of a crop?
(a) Maximum support price (b) Minimum support price
(c) Moderate support price (d) Influential support price
14. Which of the following is not correct about plantation crop?
(a) In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area.
(b) The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.
(c) Plantation cover large tracts of land called estates.
(d) Farmers clear a patch of land by felling the trees and burning them, to produce cereals and
other food crops.
15. Which of the following are plantation crops?
(a) Rice and maize (b) Wheat and pulses
(c) Tea, coffee, banana and sugarcane (d) None of the above
16. The three crop seasons of India are-
(a) Aus, Aman and Boro (b) Rabi, Kharif and Zaid
(c) Baisakh, Paus and Chait (d) None of the above
17. Rabi crops are-
(a) sown in winter and harvested in summers.
(b) sown during rainy season and harvested in winter.
(c) sown in summer and harvested in winter.
18. Kharif crops are grown-
(a) with the onset of monsoon and harvested in September-October.
(b) with the onset of winter and harvested in summer.
(c) with the onset of Autumn and harvested in summer.
19. The main food crop of Kharif season is-
(a) Mustard (b) Pulses (c) Rice (d) Wheat
20. The main food crop of Rabi season is-
(a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Maize (d) Jowar
21. A short season in between Rabi and Kharif season is known as-
(a) Aus (b) Boro (c) Zaid (d) None of the above
22. Important non-food crops of our country are-
(a) Tea and coffee (b) Millets and pulses (c) Cotton and jute (d) None of the above
23. Which is the main food crop of the eastern and southern parts of our country?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Maize (d) Sugarcane
24. The two main wheat growing regions are-
(a) The Ganga-Satluj plains and the Deccan trap
(b) North-Eastern part and Eastern-Coastal plains
(c) Deccan Plateau and Konkan Coast
25. Wheat requires annual rainfall between-
(a) 50 and 75 cm (b) About 200 cm
(c) 200 and 300 cm (d) Less than 20 cm
26. The third most important crop of our country is-
(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Jowar (d) Ragi
27. Which state is the largest producer of bajra?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat (d) Haryana
28. Which is the right condition for the growth of maize?
(a) Temperature between 21 to 27 degrees Celsius and old alluvial soil
(b) Temperature below 17 degree Celsius and shallow black soil
(c) Temperature of 25 degrees Celsius and 200 cm of rainfall
29. Which of the following crops is a major source of protein in a vegetarian diet?
(a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Pulses (d) Oilseeds
30. Which one of the following is not true for pulses?
(a) Pulses are grown in both rabi and kharif seasons.
(b) Pulses are leguminous crops.
(c) They are grown in rotation with other crops.
(d) Pulses require intensive irrigation facilities.
31. Which is the ideal condition for the growth of sugarcane?
(a) Temperature of 21 to 27 degrees Celsius and an annual rainfall between 75 cm and 100 cm
(b) Temperature below 17 degrees Celsius and 50 to 75 cm of rainfall
32. What percentage of our cropped area is covered by oilseeds?
(a) 21% (b) 12% (c) 2% (d) 4%
33. Which of the following conditions spoil tea crop?
(a) Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year
(b) Frost free climate
(c) Deep fertile well drained soil
(d) Clayey soil which has high water holding capacity
34. Coffee cultivation was first introduced in _______________ .
(a) Himalayas (b) Aravallis
(c) Garo Hills (d) Baba Buden Hills
35. Which of the following crops is an important raw material for automobile industry?
(a) Pulses (b) Ragi (c) Rubber (d) None of the above
36. Rearing of silk worms for the production of silk fibre is known as-
(a) Sericulture (b) Aquaculture (c) Horticulture (d) Pisciculture
37. Which one of the following is known as golden fibre?
(a) Cotton (b) Jute (c) Hemp (d) Silk
38. Primitive subsistence farming is also known as-
(a) Mixed farming (b) Cooperative farming
(c) Slash and burn agriculture (d) Commercial farming

39. Plantation agriculture is a type of-
(a) Subsistence farming (b) Commercial farming
(c) Mixed farming (d) None of the above
40. How much India’s population is engaged in agriculture?
(a) Two-thirds (b) Half (c) One-thirds (d) Almost fifty percent
41. Over these years, cultivation methods have changed significantly depending upon the
characteristics of-
(a) Type of crop (b) Technological know-how
(c) Type of season (d) Government intervention
42. Farming has varied from subsistence to _________ type.
(a) intensive (b) extensive (c) commercial (d) plantation
43. Agriculture is practiced on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe and
digging sticks, and family/community labour. What type of agriculture is this?
(a) Intensive (b) Primitive
(c) Extensive (d) Plantation
44. What has been the main dependency of primitive farming?
(a) Monsoon (b) Labour
(c) Suitability of environment (d) Technical
45. Which type of agriculture is called ‘slash and burn’ agriculture?
(a) Plantation (b) Intensive
(c) Primitive subsistence (d) Extensive
46. What among the following is the primitive subsistence farming?
(a) Large amount of labour
(b) When the soil fertility decreases, the farmers shift and clear a fresh patch of land
(c) Canals are used
(d) Use of fertilizers
47. What is slash and burn agriculture called in North Eastern states?
(a) Jhumming (b) Milpa (c) Masole (d) Ray
48. Intensive subsistence farming is _________ farming.
(a) machine based (b) crop rotation
(c) labour intensive (d) soil consistent
49. Why is there an enormous pressure on agricultural land?
(a) Due to the law of inheritance and division of land
(b) Overpopulation
(c) Small scale farmers are not able to earn livelihood
(d) Farmers of less land holdings are not able to afford the right technique
50. If rice is commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, in which state is it a subsistence crop?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
(c) Odisha (d) Rajasthan
51. What are the characteristics of plantation farming?
(a) Multiple crops
(b) Using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant laborer
(c) The produce is used for various reasons
(d) Crop rotation on the same piece of land
52. Name important plantation crop?
(a) Tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane and banana (b) Cotton
(c) Wheat and rice (d) Nuts
53. Which state is known for growing tea?
(a) Assam (b) Shillong (c) Meghalaya (d) Sikkim
54. How many cropping seasons does India have?
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 3
55. When are Rabi crops harvested?
(a) October (b) April (c) December (d) July
56. Identify the Rabi crop.
(a) Jowar (b) Rice (c) Soyabean (d) Peas
57. Which state is known for growing rabi crops?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Rajasthan
(c) Odisha (d) Punjab
58. Availability of ____________ during winter months due to western temperate cyclones helps
in the success of Rabi crops.
(a) monsoons (b) precipitation (c) frost (d) winds
59. Which among the following states is known for their success in the Green Revolution?
(a) Punjab (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand (d) Gujarat
60. When are kharif crops harvested?
(a) September-October (b) December-January
(c) June-July (d) April-May
61. Name a crop grown during the Kharif season.
(a) Barley (b) Gram (c) Rice (d) Jowar
62. Which of the following crop is grown in Zaid season?
(a) Peas (b) Urad (c) Cucumber (d) Maize
63. Name an important rice growing regions from the following:
(a) Assam (b) Kerala (c) West Bengal (d) Maharashtra
64. In Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, how many crops of paddy are grown in a year?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4
65. Name a crop grown in Zaid period.
(a) Groundnut (b) Jute (c) Mustard (d) Watermelon
66. How long does sugarcane take to grow?
(a) Almost 4 months (b) Almost 6 months
(c) Almost a year (d) Almost 3 months
67. India is the ____________ largest producer of rice in the world.
(a) first (b) second (c) third (d) fourth
68. Rice requires high humidity with _______________ cm of rainfall.
(a) above 100 cm (b) below 100 cm (c) above 75 cm (d) above 60 cm
69. How has it been possible to grow rice in areas of less rainfall such as Punjab, Haryana and
Western Uttar Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan?
(a) With rooftop water reserves (b) Canals
(c) Lakes (d) Rivers

70. What kind of weather conditions are favorable for the growth of wheat?
(a) Hot-wet weather
(b) Monsoon
(c) Dry hot weather
(d) Cool growing season and a bright sunshine
71. Which crops come under the classification of millets?
(a) Peas and maize (b) Mustard and soyabean
(c) Urad and moong (d) Jowar and Bajra
72. Millets have high nutritional value and are rich in-
(a) Iron and calcium (b) Minerals (c) Phosphate (d) Proteins
73. Jowar is the ___________ most important food crop with respect to area and production.
74. Jowar is rain-fed crop mostly grown in the moist areas which needs ________ irrigation.
(a) high (b) medium (c) less (d) no
75. Name a major Jowar producing state.
(a) Haryana (b) Punjab
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
76. Bajra grows well on _______ soil.
(a) alluvial soil (b) red soil (c) arid soil (d) black soil
77. Which of the following crops is used both for food and fodder?
(a) Jowar (b) Maize (c) Bajra (d) Wheat
78. India is the ______________ largest producer as well as consumer of pulses in the world.
79. Which crop needs manual labour from sowing to harvesting?
(a) Water melon (b) Sugarcane (c) Maize (d) Bajra
80. Name a major banana producing state of India.
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Telangana
(c) Meghalaya (d) Kerala
81. Where is rubber mainly grown?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka
(c) Andaman and Nicobar (d) Madhya Pradesh
82. Which fibre crop is obtained from cocoons of the silkworms fed on green leaves?
(a) Jute (b) Silk (c) Cotton (d) Hemp
83. Name a state which is major producer of jute?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) West Bengal
84. In 2016, India was the _____________ largest producer of fruits and vegetables in the world.
85. Which one of the following is not a food crop?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Cotton (d) Maize
86. Muskmelon grows in-
(a) Rabi season (b) Kharif season (c) Zaid season (d) All the above
87. It takes almost a year to grow-
(a) Rice (b) Sugarcane (c) Maize (d) Bajra
88. The second largest producer of groundnut is ___________.
(a) Gujarat (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Kerala
89. Which country is the largest producer of fruits and vegetables in the world?
(a) China (b) USA (c) Pakistan (d) India
90. Arabic variety of coffee was initially brought to India from which of the following countries?
(a) Yemen (b) Vietnam (c) Japan (d) Korea
91. Which country is the largest producer of oilseeds in the world?
(a) China (b) India (c) USA (d) Pakistan
92. Of which one of the following beverage crops, India is the leading producer as well as
exporter in the world?
(a) Coffee (b) Pulses (c) Tea (d) Curd
93. Which of the following types of farming is practiced in areas with high population pressure
on land?
(a) Primitive subsistence farming (b) Intensive subsistence farming
(c) Commercial farming (d) Plantations
94. Which of the following is the principal crop grown in areas of intensive subsistence farming?
(a) Yams and sweet potato (b) Wheat
(c) Rice (d) Cotton
95. India is the largest producer as well as the consumer of which of the following crops?
(a) Rice (b) Millet (c) Pulses (d) Oilseeds
96. Which of the following types of economic activity is agriculture?
(a) Primary activity (b) Secondary activity
(c) Tertiary activity (d) All the above
97. Which of the following are known as coarse grains?
(a) Wheat and rice (b) Millets-Jowar, bajra and ragi
(c) Pulses-urad, arhar, gram (d) Oilseeds
98. Which of the following crops is the main source of jaggery, khandsari and molasses?
(a) Arhar (b) Coconut (c) Linseed (d) Sugarcane
99. Which of the following is the primary objective of India’s food security policy?
(a) To ensure availability of food grains to the common people at an affordable price
(b) To diversify crop production to increase income of farmers
(c) To provide insurance against crop failure
(d) To shift from food grain production to commercial crops
100. India is believed to be the original home of which of the following fiber crops?
(a) Cotton (b) Jute (c) Hemp (d) Silk
101. In which of the following states of India rice is considered a commercial crop?
(a) West Bengal (b) Odisha (c) Bihar (d) Punjab
102. In which type of soil does maize grow well?
(a) Black (b) Light domat (c) Old alluvial (d) None of the above
103. Grapes are mainly produced in the state of ____________ .
(a) Meghalaya (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Mizoram (d) Andhra Pradesh
104. Bhoodan—Gramdan movement was initiated by—
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Vinoba Bhave (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

105. Grouping of small land holdings into a bigger one is called-
(a) Ceiling on land holdings (b) Collectivization
(c) Cooperative farming (d) Consolidation of land holdings
106. Oranges are mainly produced in the state of-
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
(c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
107. Intensive subsistence farming is practiced in the area of-
(a) high population (b) low population
(c) deserts (d) thick forests
108. Which one of the following statements is incorrect as regards to commercial farming?
(a) Use of heavy doses of modern inputs
(b) Crops are grown for sale
(c) Family members are involved in growing crops
(d) Practiced on large land holdings
109. The largest tea producing state of India is-
(a) Karnataka (b) Assam
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Arunachal Pradesh
110. A type of millet rich in iron, calcium, other micronutrient and roughage is-
(a) Bajra (b) Rajma (c) Jowar (d) Ragi
111. White revolution involves improvement in the production of which of the following products?
(a) Cotton (b) Wheat (c) Maize or corn (d) Milk
112. Which type of farming has the use of higher doses of modern inputs like HYV seeds, chemical
fertilizers, insecticides and pesticides?
(a) Primitive subsistence (b) Plantation
(c) Extensive (d) Commercial
113. India is the second largest producer of sugarcane only after-
(a) China (b) USA (c) Brazil (d) Mexico
114. The oil seed in India grown in both Rabi and Kharif season is-
(a) Ground nut (b) Coconut (c) Castor seeds (d) Mustard
115. Ragi is very rich in:
(a) Zinc (b) Iodine (c) Iron (d) Phosphorous
116. Choose the correctly matched pair about the major crops of India from the following options:
(a) Millets – North eastern part of the country (b) Wheat – North western part of the country
(c) Pulses – South western part of the country (d) Rice – South eastern part of the country
Agriculture contributes __________ to the national income of India.
(a) 33% (b) 22% (c) 40% (d) none of these
118. Choose the correctly matched pair about the main crop growing states of India from the
following options:
(a) Cotton – Meghalaya (b) Rubber – Garo hills of Meghalaya
(c) Fibre Crops – UP (d) Jute – Nicobar islands
Moong : Kharif , ______ : Rabi , watermelons : Zaid
(a) Jute (b) Jowar (c) Wheat (d) Soyabean
Jute : Odisha, Cotton : __________, Rubber : Garo hills of Meghalaya
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) West Bengal
(c) Meghalaya (d) all the above
121. Choose the correctly matched pair about the agriculture pattern of India from the following
options:
(a) Primitive subsistence agriculture – Dao and digging sticks
(b) Slash and burn agriculture – cotton and tobacco
(c) Intensive Subsistence agriculture – felled and burned vegetation
(d) Commercial farming - hoe
______________ farming is practised on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools
like hoe, dao and digging sticks and family/community.
(a) Commercial (b) Intensive Subsistence
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) Primitive Subsistence
Jowar – Karnataka, bajra – Uttar Pradesh, maize - ____________
(a) Bihar (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Haryana (d) Odisha
124. The commercial crop of Punjab and Haryana is
(a) rice (b) sugarcane
(c) cotton (d) wheat
125. By what name is Jhumming known as in the Himalayan belt?
(a) Milpa (b) khil
(c) Kuruwa (d) Penda
126. Which out of the following is a plantation crop?
(a) Jute (b) Sugarcane
(c) Cotton (d) Muskmelon
127. Which of the following is not used in ‘subsistence farming’?
(a) Hoe (b) Digging sticks (c) Thresher
128. What is ‘Milpa’?
(a) A type of agriculture (b) type of animal
(c) A type of tribe
129. The crops grown with the onset of monsoon.
(a) Rabi (b) Kharif (c) Zaid
130. Which one of the following rights has led to fragmentation of landholding size?
(a) Right to succession (b) Right to information
(c) Right to inheritance (d) Right to land ceiling
131. Cultivation of fruits and vegetables is called:
(a) Floriculture (b) Sericulture
(c) Horticulture (d) Agriculture
132. About 90% of Rubber demand is met by
(a) Kerala (b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharashtra

Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c)
9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (b)
17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (a)
25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (d) 31. (a) 32. (b)
33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (c)
49. (a) 50. (c) 51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (d)
57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (a) 61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (b)
65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (d) 71. (d) 72. (a)
73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (a) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (b)
89. (a) 90. (a) 91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (c) 96. (a)
97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (a) 100. (a) 101. (a) 102. (c) 103. (d) 104. (c)
105. (d) 106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (d) 111. (d) 112. (d)
113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (c) 116. (b) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (c) 120. (a)
121. (a) 122. (d) 123. (b) 124. (a) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (c) 128. (a)
129. (b) 130. (c) 131. (c) 132. (a)
Agriculture has been practised in India for thousands of years. Sustained uses of land without
compatible techno-institutional changes have hindered the pace of agricultural development.
Inspite of development of sources of irrigation most of the farmers in large parts of the country
still depend upon monsoon and natural fertility in order to carry on their agriculture. For a
growing population, this poses a serious challenge. Agriculture which provides livelihood for
more than 60 per cent of its population, needs some serious technical and institutional reforms.
Thus, collectivisation, consolidation of holdings, cooperation and abolition of zamindari, etc.
were given priority to bring about institutional reforms in the country after Independence.
‘Land reform’ was the main focus of our First Five Year Plan. The ‘right of inheritance’ had
already led to fragmentation of land holdings necessitating consolidation of holdings.
(i) Which of the following is the most important occupation of the people of India?
(a) Food gathering (b) Agriculture (c) Manufacturing (d) Services
(ii) In spite of development of irrigation , farmers still depend on ____________.
(a) artificial water resources (b) monsoon
(c) wells (d) none of the above
(iii) What do you understand by the term ‘collectivisation’?
(a) Combining land of various farmers and then performing the agricultural activities on
collective basis
(b) Combining land of various farmers and then performing the agricultural activities on
individual basis
(c) Comparing land of various farmers and then performing the agricultural activities on
pocket basis
(iv) What was the main objective of First Five Year Plan?
(a) Land forms (b) Land degradation
(c) Land reforms (d) all the above
Globalisation is not a new phenomenon. It was there at the time of colonisation. In the nineteenth
century when European traders came to India, at that time too, Indian spices were exported
to different countries of the world and farmers of south India were encouraged to grow these
crops. Till today it is one of the important items of export from India. During the British period
cotton belts of India attracted the British and ultimately cotton was exported to Britain as a
raw material for their textile industries. Cotton textile industry in Manchester and Liverpool
flourished due to the availability of good quality cotton from India. You have read about the
Champaran movement which started in 1917 in Bihar. This was started because farmers of
that region were forced to grow indigo on their land because it was necessary for the textile
industries which were located in Britain. They were unable to grow foodgrains to sustain their
families. Under globalisation, particularly after 1990, the farmers in India have been exposed to
new challenges. Despite being an important producer of rice, cotton, rubber, tea, coffee, jute and
spices our agricultural products are not able to compete with the developed countries because of
the highly subsidised agriculture in those countries. Today, Indian agriculture finds itself at the
crossroads. To make agriculture successful and profitable, proper thrust should be given to the
improvement of the condition of marginal and small farmers. The green revolution promised
much. But today it’s under controversies. It is being alleged that it has caused land degradation
due to overuse of chemicals, drying aquifers and vanishing biodiversity. The keyword today is
“gene revolution”, which includes genetic engineering.
(i) What was grown in Champaran?
(a) Indigo (b) Cotton
(c) Jute (d) all the above
(ii) Cotton textile industry in ______________ and Liverpool flourished due to the availability
of good quality cotton from India.
(a) Boston (b) Manchester
(c) California (d) New York
(iii) In the 19th century which concept was not new?
(a) liberalisation (b) Democracy
(c) Globalisation (d) None of the above
(iv) What do you understand by ‘gene revolution’?
(a) white revolution (b) green revolution
(c) genetic engineering (d) all the above
3. Identify the soil with the help of the following features.
 also known as regur soil.
 made of extremely fine i.e. clayey material
 ideal for growing cotton
You have studied the physical diversities and plurality of cultures in India. These are also reflected
in agricultural practices and cropping patterns in the country. Various types of food and fibre
crops, vegetables and fruits, spices and condiments, etc. constitute some of the important crops
grown in the country. India has three cropping seasons — rabi, kharif and zaid. Rabi crops
are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June.
Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard. Though, these
crops are grown in large parts of India, states from the north and north-western parts such as

Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh
are important for the production of wheat and other rabi crops. Availability of precipitation
during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones helps in the success of these crops.
However, the success of the green revolution in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh and
parts of Rajasthan has also been an important factor in the growth of the above mentioned rabi
crops. Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and
these are harvested in September-October. Important crops grown during this season are paddy,
maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soyabean. Some of
the most important ricegrowing regions are Assam, West Bengal, coastal regions of Odisha,
Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra, particularly the (Konkan
coast) along with Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. Recently, paddy has also become an important crop
of Punjab and Haryana. In states like Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, three crops of paddy are
grown in between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there is a short season during the summer
months known as the Zaid season. Some of the crops produced during ‘zaid’ are watermelon,
muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops. Sugarcane takes almost a year to grow.
(i) Which of the following crops is produced during zaid cropping season?
(a) sugarcane (b) muskmelon
(c) groundnut (d) moong
(ii) Rabi crops are:
(a) sown in winter and harvested in summer
(b) sown during rainy season and harvested in winter
(c) sown in summer and harvested in winter
(iii) Which of the following is a kharif crop?
(a) Barley (b) Peas
(c) Bajra (d) Mustard
(iv) Match the following
1. Kharif (a) Watermelon
2. Rabi (b) Aus
3. Zaid (c) millet
4. paddy crop (d) oilseeds
(a) 1–(d), 2–(c), 3–(b), 4–(c) (b) 1–(b), 2–(c), 3–(d), 4–(a)
(c) 1–(c), 2–(d), 3–(a), 4–(b) (d) 1–(c), 2–(a), 3–(b), 4–(d)
The main characteristic of this type of farming is the use of higher doses of modern inputs,
e.g. high yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides in order
to obtain higher productivity. The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies from one
region to another. For example, rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in Odisha,
it is a subsistence crop. Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. In this type of farming, a
single crop is grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.
Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant
labourers. All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries. In India, tea, coffee,
rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops. Tea in Assam and North Bengal
coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation crops grown in these states. Since the
production is mainly for market, a welldeveloped network of transport and communication
connecting the plantation areas, processing industries and markets plays an important role in
the development of plantations.
(i) Which of the following describes a system of agriculture, where a single crop is grown on
a large area?
(a) Shifting agriculture (b) Plantation agriculture
(c) Horticulture (d) Intensive agriculture
(ii) Which one of the following crops is a beverage crop?
(a) Tea (b) Cotton (c) Wheat (d) Bajra
(iii) Which one of the following is the example of plantation agriculture?
(a) Jute (b) Wheat (c) Tea (d) Oilseeds
(iv) Which of the following crops is the main source of jaggery, khandsari and molasses?
(a) Arhar (b) Coconut (c) Linseed (d) Sugarcane
Answers
1. (i) (b) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (c) 2. (i) (b) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (c)
3. Black soil 4. (i) (b) (ii) (a) (iii) (c) (iv) (b)
5. (i) (b) (ii) (a) (iii) (c) (iv) (d)
1. Assertion (A) : Indian coffee is known in the world for its good quality.
Reason (R) : The Asian variety initially brought from Yemen is produced in the country.
2. Assertion (A) : India is believed to be the original home of the cotton plant.
Reason (R) : Cotton, jute, hemp and natural silk are the four major fibre crops grown in India.

3. Assertion (A) : Globalisation is not a new phenomenon.
Reason (R) : It was there at the time of colonisation.

4. Assertion (A) : During the British period cotton belts of India attracted the British and ultimately
silk was exported to Britain as a raw material for their textile industries.
Reason (R) : Cotton textile industry in Manchester and Liverpool flourished due to the

availability of good quality cotton from India.
5. Assertion (A) : Organic farming is much in vogue today because it is practised without factory
made chemicals such as fertilisers and pesticides.
Reason (R) : Hence, it does not affect environment in a negative manner.

Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a)

MAP QUESTIONS
Maps (Identify the shaded regions on the map)
1. The marked state on the map below is a major producer of sugarcane.
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Haryana (d) Maharashtra
2. The marked state on the map below is a producer of rubber.
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Telangana
3. The marked state on the map below is a major producer of cotton.
(a) Odisha (b) Assam

(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka
Answers
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c)
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5 POWER SHARING

BELGIUM
Geographical Position Area and population Ethnic Composition Capital
• Small country in Europe. • Smaller in area than the Indian • 59% speak Dutch • 80% speak French
• Shares borders with Netherlands, state of Haryana (population little • 40% speak French • 20% speak Dutch.
France & Germany. over one crore). • 1% speak German.
Note: In Brussels, the Dutch –speaking people are in minority, which is opposite of the rest of the country, where they are in
majority.
SRI LANKA
Geographical Position Population Ethnic Composition Religion
• A Smaller island in Asia, off the • About two crore people • 74% Sinhalese speaking people, • Most of the Sinhalese
southern coast of Tamil Nadu. (same as Haryana’s) • 18% Tamil speaking people, speaking people are
• 13% are natives of Sri Lanka, Buddhists.
known as Sri Lankan Tamil. • Most of the Tamils are
Hindus or Muslims.
Note: Majoritarianism in Sri Lanka

A belief that only the majority community should circle a country, make laws for everyone and with total disregard to the
wishes and needs of the minority. V
ACCOMMODATION IN BELGIUM
Equal number of Special Laws to State Government A separate government A third government
Dutch and French become Acts are not made for Brussels, equal called the Community
speaking Minister need majority subordinate to representation for both government elected by
in the Central from each central government. the linguistic groups. the Dutch, French and
Government. language group. German speaking
people in change of
language, cultural and
educational issues.
Political Science: Power Sharing 79

POWER SHARING
(Two reasons which make power sharing desirable)
Reasons
Prudential Moral
• Reduces the possibility of conflicts between different • The spirit of democracy calls for power sharing.
social groups. Social conflicts led to violence, political • People who are affected by the policies must have a hand
instability. in shaping those policies
• Prevents groups from overstepping their rights to enhance • Citizens participation is a must
their own power. • Moral reasons make power sharing essential and valuable.
• No single group can subvert the constitution power
sharing writes the nation.
• When power is not shared, it oppressed the minority and
even the majority.
POWER IS SHARED AMONG
Different Among the

Social Pressure Political Different
organs of the governments
Movements groups parties social groups
government at different levels
• Force the • Legislative •They influence the • Lead the •Religious (a) Central or Union
governments to • Executive government and competition. or Government,
change Laws. • Judiciary force them to • Coalition Linguistic State Government.
• Dowry, early change policies. governments groups. (b) Municipality and
marriage. •They are famous are formed if Panchayats, Local
workers and any party Self government
industrialists. fails to get (known as federalism).
the majority.
• Parties have
to perform to
remain in
power.
MORE POINTS TO REMEMBER

1. Majoritarianism: Rule by a majority, especially the belief that those constituting a simple
majority should make the rules for all the members of a group, nation, etc.
2. Ethic: A set of moral principles, especially ones relating to or affirming a specified group,
field, or form of conduct.
3. Minority: The smaller number or part, especially a number or part representing less than
half of the whole.
4. Majority: The greater number.
5. Native: A person born in a specified place or associated with a place by birth, whether
subsequently resident there or not.

6. Community: A group of people living in the same place or having a particular characteristic
in common.
7. Accommodation: A convenient arrangement; a settlement or compromise.
8. Civil War: A war between the citizens of the same country.
9. Power Sharing: A policy agreed between political parties or within a coalition to share
responsibility for decision-making and political action.
10. Prudential: Involving or showing care and forethought, especially in business.
11. Democracy: A system of government by the whole population or all the eligible members
of a state, typically through elected representatives.
12. Community Government: A social group of any size whose member resides in a specific
locality, share government, and often have a common cultural and historical heritage.
13. Pressure Groups: A group that tries to influence public policy in the interest of a particular
cause.

1. Which two languages among the following are prominently spoken by Belgium Nationals?
[CBSE 2020, 32/2/1]
(a) French and English (b) Dutch and French (c) Russian and Dutch (d) Russian and French
2. Power struggle demanding separate Eelam was launched by
(a) Sinhalese (b) Buddhists (c) Tamilians (d) none of the above
3. Belgium shares its border with
(a) France (b) Germany (c) Luxembourg (d) all the above
4. Under which of the following is power shared in the ‘Community Government’ of Belgium?
[CBSE 2020, 32/4/1]
(a) Different social groups (b) Different organs of government
(c) Central and State government (d) State government and Community government
5. Power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of
(a) population (b) political order (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
6. Power shared among governments at different levels is also called
(a) horizontal distribution (b) vertical distribution
(c) slant distribution (d) none of the above
7. Belgium has worked on the principles of
(a) majoritarianism (b) accommodation (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
8. Which of the following is the majority group in Sri Lanka? [CBSE 2020, 32/4/1]
(a) Tamils (b) Christians (c) Sinhalese (d) Muslims
9. Which one of the following is a major caste group of Sri Lanka? [CBSE 2020, 32/1/1]
(a) Christian and Tamil (b) Buddhist and Hindu
(c) Sinhala and Tamil (d) Sinhala and Christian
10. Which of the following is not the form of power sharing?
(a) Vertical division of power (b) Horizontal division of power
(c) Division of power between people (d) Division of power among social groups

11. The belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it
wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is
(a) Power sharing (b) Absolutism
(c) Majoritarianism (d) Community government
12. Which one of the following statements about power sharing arrangement is correct?
(a) Power sharing is necessary only in societies which have religious, linguistic or ethnic divisions.
(b) Power sharing is suitable only for big countries that have regional divisions.
(c) Every society needs some form of power sharing even if it is small or does not have social
divisions.
(d) Power sharing is not necessary at all.
13. The people whose forefathers came from India to Sri Lanka as plantation workers during the
colonial period are called
(a) Sri Lankan Tamils (b) Indian Tamils (c) Tamil Indians (d) Indian Sri Lankans
14. Most of the Sinhalese speaking people in Sri Lanka are
(a) Hindus (b) Christians (c) Muslims (d) Buddhists
15. When did Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country?
(a) 1949 (b) 1950 (c) 1948 (d) 1951
16. In ______, an Act was passed to recognize Sinhalese as the only official language, thus
disregarding the Tamil.
(a) 1956 (b) 1957 (c) 1958 (d) 1948
17. By the 1980s several political organizations were formed demanding ________.
(a) certain rights (b) independent Tamil Eelam (State)
(c) sovereign state (d) priority in jobs for Tamils
18. When did the civil war of Sri Lanka end?
(a) 2010 (b) 2009 (c) 2005 (d) 2011
19. How many times was the constitution of Belgium amended between 1970 and 1993?
(a) Three times (b) Two times (c) Four times (d) Once only
20. Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers ___________
in the central government.
(a) shall be equal (b) shall be more (c) shall be less (d) none of the above
21. Give reason as to why power sharing can be good for a country?
(a) It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
(b) It is a good way to ensure the stability of political order.
(c) It does not lead to confusion.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
22. Which of the following is an example of horizontal distribution of power?
(a) Power sharing between different states
(b) Power sharing between different organs of the government
(c) Power sharing between different levels of the government
(d) Power sharing between different social groups
23. Who elects the community government in Belgium?
(a) People belonging to one language community only.
(b) The leader of Belgium.
(c) The citizens of whole country.
(d) The community leaders of the Belgium.

24. The word Ethnic signifies
(a) different religions. (b) social division on shared culture.
(c) a violent conflict among opposite groups. (d) a careful calculation of gains and losses.
25. Power sharing is the
(a) very spirit of democracy. (b) separation of powers at different levels.
(c) system of checks and balances. (d) type of balancing powers.
26. Power sharing is desirable as it helps
(a) to increase pressure on government. (b) to reduce possibilities of conflict.
(c) to generate awareness among people. (d) all the above
27. In dealing with power sharing, which one of the following statements is NOT correct about
democracy?
(a) People are the source of all political power.
(b) In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self-governance.
(c) In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society.
(d) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is not possible to take quick decision
and enforce them.
28. What does the coalition government imply?
(a) Power-sharing between different communities
(b) Power-sharing among the different organs of the government
(c) Power-sharing by two or more political parties
(d) Power-sharing within the government at different levels
29. The idea of power-sharing has emerged in opposition to the notions of ________ .
(a) democracy (b) dictatorship
(c) monarchy (d) undivided political power
30. Give one moral reason as why power-sharing is good?
(b) It does not lead to confusion in managing the state.
(c) People have a right to be consulted on how they are governed.
(d) Power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order.
31. Prudential reasons of power sharing stresses more on
(a) reducing the possibility of conflict between various social groups.
(b) fair chance to minority.
(c) bringing stability in the political order. (d) all the above
32. What is the percentage of major social group of Sinhala speakers in Sri Lanka?
(a) 78% (b) 87% (c) 74% (d) 72%
33. Which language was spoken by the majority people in Wallonia?
(a) Dutch (b) French (c) German (d) Spanish
34. The majoritarian measures taken by Sri Lankan government increased the feeling of ________
among the Sri Lankan Tamils.
(a) anger (b) anguish (c) jealousy (d) alienation
35. Which country has been chosen by European Union as its headquarters?
(a) Belgium (b) Germany (c) Switzerland (d) France
36. “Power sharing is a good way to ensure stability of political order.” Which among the
following is the reason for power sharing?
(a) Moral (b) Prudential (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

37. One basic principle of democracy is that people are the source of-
(a) encouragement (b) political power (c) public policies (d) none of the above
38. When power is shared among different organs of the government, it is called
(a) horizontal distribution of power (b) vertical division of power
(c) political division of power (d) division of power
39. When power is shared among governments at different levels, it is also called
(a) horizontal distribution of power (b) system of checks and balances
(c) vertical division of power (d) none of the above
40. In India, provincial government is also called
(a) Federal government (b) State government
(c) Central government (d) Local government
41. What kind of arrangement is made to give space to the different social groups?
(a) Community government (b) Local government
(c) Linguistic division (d) Reserved constituencies
42. 20% of the people of Brussels speak __________.
(a) Dutch (b) English (c) German (d) Italian
43. Identify the major social group that constituted the largest share in the population of Sri
Lanka.
(a) Sri Lankan Tamils (b) Indian Tamils
(c) Muslims (d) Sinhala
44. Among the given options what power sharing does not imply?
(a) Speed up the decision-making process
(b) Accommodating diversities
(c) Increases conflicts among different communities
(d) All of the above
45. In India, power sharing mechanism does not involve directly
(a) Legislature (b) Judiciary (c) Industry (d) Executive
46. Which of the following features are common to Indian and Belgian form of power sharing?
A. Power is shared among governments at different levels.
B. Power is shared among different organs of government.
C. Power is shared among different social groups.
D. Power is shared among different parties and takes the form of competition.
(a) A, B, C, D (b) B, C and D (c) A and C (d) A, C and D
47. What was the result of majoritarianism in Sri Lanka?
(a) There were clashes between the different community groups.
(b) There was formation of respect in different social groups.
(c) There was formation of different government by different social groups.
48. How leaders of Sri Lanka dealt with the question of power sharing?
(a) The government adopted series of majoritarian measures to establish Sinhala supremacy in
Sri Lanka.
(b) The government denied equal political rights.
(c) The government adopted equality in power sharing.

49. What is the role of Community government in Belgium?
(a) This government is elected by respective language community.
(b) This government have power regarding cultural, educational and language related issues.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
50. Which of the following is an element of Belgian model?
(a) Equal number of Dutch and French speaking ministers in central government. No single
community can make decisions itself.
(b) Transfer of power from central government to state government.
(c) Brussel government have equal representation for both communities.
51. How leaders of Belgium dealt with the question of power sharing?
(a) The majority group tried to suppress minority group that results in clashes in society.
(b) The leaders realized the need of respecting the feelings and interests of different communities
and regions and thus promoted equality in power sharing.
(c) The leaders of Belgium established military rule and controlled the entire country.
(d) None of these
52. Why there is need to share power among different social groups?
(a) To give minority communities a share (b) To maintain unity in the nation
(c) To avoid conflicts in the nation (d) All of the above
53. In which part of Sri Lanka are the Sri Lankan Tamils concentrated?
(a) North and South (b) North and East (c) East and West (d) South and East
54. What is the capital city of Belgium?
(a) Wallonia (b) Brussels (c) Bonn (d) Paris
55. Which is the state religion of Sri Lanka?
(a) Buddhism (b) Christianity (c) Hinduism (d) Islam
56. 59 percent of the country’s total population who speaks Dutch, lives in
(a) Wallonia region (b) Brussels (c) Flemish region (d) None of the above
57. Why did the Sri Lankan Tamils launch parties and struggle?
(a) To adopt majoritarianism
(b) To recognize Sinhalese as the only official language
(c) To recognize Tamil as an official language
(d) To dominate other languages
58. Main significance of Belgium Model of power sharing is
(a) Majoritarianism
(b) Power shared in all ethnic groups according to their population
(c) On the basis of adult franchise
59. Where is the Parliament of European Union located?
(a) Belgium (b) Britain (c) Germany (d) France
60. Which one of the following is the third tier of government in India?
(a) Community Government (b) State Government
(c) Panchayati Raj Government (d) Both (b) and (c)
61. Division of powers between higher and lower levels of government is called
(a) Horizontal division (b) Parallel division (c) Vertical division (d) None of the above

62. Which of the following is not a major social group in Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhala speakers (b) Sri Lankan Tamils (c) Anglo Indians (d) Indian Tamils
63. Which of the statements about power sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri Lanka is
correct?
(i) In Belgium, the Dutch speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on the
minority French speaking people.
(ii) In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of the Sinhala-
speaking majority.
(iii) The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power sharing to protect their
culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs.
(iv) The transformation of Belgium from a unitary government to a federal one prevented the
division of country on linguistic lines.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
64. What led to tensions between the Dutch-speaking communities and French-speaking
communities in Belgium during the 1950s and 1960s?
(a) Both the communities demanded special powers.
(b) The minority French-speaking community was richer and more powerful than the majority
Dutch-speaking community.
(c) The majority Dutch-speaking community was richer and more powerful than the minority
French-speaking community.
(d) Both the communities were equal in socio-economic ladder and this was resented by the
French-speaking community.
65. Which of the following countries have federal division of powers?
(a) India (b) Belgium (c) Sri Lanka (d) Both (a) and (b)
66. Non-sharing of power leads to
(a) peace among all communities.
(b) tyranny of the majority and oppression of the minority.
(c) negotiation of the very spirit of democracy.
(d) both (b) and (c)
67. Choose the incorrect statement among the following.
(a) Belgium and Sri Lanka are democracies.
(b) Both of them dealt with the question of power sharing similarly.
(c) In Belgium, leaders realized that unity of the country was possible only by respecting the
feelings and interests of all communities.
(d) In Sri Lanka, majority community forced its domination over others and refused to share power.
68. Which among the following is a prudent reason for power sharing?
(a) It reduces the possibility of conflict between communities and ensures the stability of political
order.
(b) Power-sharing is the very spirit of democracy.
69. Which of the following was not one of the initial demands of the Sri Lankan Tamils?
(a) Recognition of Tamil as an official language
(b) Regional autonomy
(c) Equality of opportunity in securing jobs and education
(d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam

70. Power can be shared in modern democracies in which of the following ways?
(a) Among various levels
(b) Among different social groups
(c) Among different organs of the government
(d) All the above
71. Among which of the following countries principle of Majoritarianism led to civil war?
(a) Pakistan (b) Sri Lanka (c) Vietnam (d) Belgium
72. Which one of the following is not a valid reason for power sharing?
(a) For majoritarianism (b) Being part and parcel of democracy
(c) For political stability (d) To reduce tensions
73. Which one of the following communities is not related to Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhala (b) Indian Tamils (c) Parsis (d) Sri Lankan Tamils
74. Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are called
(a) Sri Lankan Tamils (b) Indian Tamils (c) Muslim Tamils (d) None of the above
75. What is the percentage of German speaking people in Belgium?
(a) 59% (b) 40% (c) 60% (d) 01%
76. What is the advantage of Horizontal distribution of power?
(a) Each government work separately and these never keep check on functioning of other.
(b) None of the governmental body exercise unlimited powers and each organ checks the other.
(c) Each community in the society grows.
(d) None of these
77. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) In a democracy, all important decisions are taken by the majority community.
(b) In a democracy, people rule themselves through the institution of self-government.
(c) Political power is distributed in a democracy.
(d) In a democratic country, respect is given to various diverse groups.
78. Belgium solved its problem successfully by
(a) developing the power-sharing mechanism
(b) rejecting the policy of majoritarianism
(c) respecting the interests of different communities
(d) all the above
79. Which among the following is not an interest group?
(a) Trade unions (b) Business groups (c) Farmers union (d) Political parties
80. Consider the following statements about the ethnic composition of Sri Lanka, which among
the following is correct?
A. Major social groups are the Sinhala-speaking (74%) and Tamil-speaking (18%).
B. Among the Tamils, there are two sub-groups, Sri Lankan Tamils and Indian Tamils.
C. There are about 7% Christians, who are both Tamil and Sinhala.
D. Most of the Sinhala speaking are Hindu or Muslims and most of the Tamil speaking are
Buddhists.
(a) A, B, C (b) A, B, D (c) B, C, D (d) A, B, C, D
81. A government for the entire country is usually called
(a) Central government (b) State government
(c) Federal government (d) None of the above

82. _________ was amended four times between 1970 and 1993.
(a) Indian constitution (b) American constitution
(c) Sri Lankan constitution (d) Belgium constitution
83. When the power is divided between higher and lower levels of government, then it is called
as
(a) Horizontal division (b) Parallel division
(c) Vertical division (d) None of the above
84. System of Checks and Balances means
(a) horizontal distribution of powers.
(b) separation of powers.
(c) put a check on the exercise of unlimited powers of the organs of the government by
maintaining a balance of power among various institutions.
(d) federal division of power.
85. Which of the following is not one of the three organs of government sharing power?
(a) Legislature (b) Bureaucracy (c) Executive (d) Judiciary
86. Which of the following is not one of the aspects of federal division of powers?
(a) Sharing of powers among central provincial and local governments.
(b) Division of powers involving higher and lower levels of government.
(c) The constitution clearly lays down powers of different levels of government.
(d) There is no vertical division of powers.
87. What led to non-sharing of power?
(a) Peace among all communities.
(b) Tyranny of the majority and oppression of minority.
(c) Negotiation of the very spirit of democracy.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
88. __________ is referred to as social division based on culture and language.
(a) Pressure group (b) Ethnic group
(c) Interest group (d) None of the above
89. In the long run, power is shared among different political parties that represent
(a) different ideologies and social groups. (b) different communities.
(c) different divisions. (d) different government.
Answers
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c)
9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (a)
17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b)
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c) 31. (d) 32. (c)
33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a)
49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (c)
57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (c) 61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (b)
65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (d) 71. (b) 72. (a)
73. (c) 74. (a) 75. (d) 76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (d) 80. (a)
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (b) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (b)
89. (a)

1. Read the given extract and answer the following questions:
Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and
judiciary. Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of
government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Such a separation ensures
that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks the others. This results
in a balance of power among various institutions. We studied that in a democracy, even though
ministers and government officials exercise power, they are responsible to the Parliament or
State Assemblies. Similarly, although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the
functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of
checks and balances.
(i) Power sharing is between –
(a) legislature, executive and parliament
(b) legislature, executive and judiciary
(c) legislature, high court and judiciary
(ii) It allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different
powers is known as ___________.
(a) circular distribution of power (b) vertical distribution of power
(c) horizontal distribution of power (d) all the above
(iii) Judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or
laws made by the legislatures, known as ____________.
(a) horizontal distribution of power (b) checks and balances
(c) vertical distribution of power (d) all the above
(iv) Power sharing means –
(a) system of political arrangements in which power is shared between ministers of the
government
(b) system of political arrangements in which power is shared between different organs of
the government
(c) system of political arrangements in which power is shared between different levels of
government
(d) all the above
Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and
movements control or influence those in power. In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom
to choose among various contenders for power. In contemporary democracies, this takes the
form of competition among different parties. Such competition ensures that power does not
remain in one hand. In the long run, power is shared among different political parties that
represent different ideologies and social groups. Sometimes this kind of sharing can be direct,
when two or more parties form an alliance to contest elections. If their alliance is elected, they
form a coalition government and thus share power. In a democracy, we find interest groups such
as those of traders, businessmen, industrialists, farmers and industrial workers. They also will
have a share in governmental power, either through participation in governmental committees
or bringing influence on the decision-making process.

(i) What is the meaning of coalition?
(a) one party (b) oppose (c) alliance (d) multi party
(ii) What does the competition amongst the political parties ensure?
(a) power remains in one hand (b) power is shared
(c) power does not remain in one hand (d) all the above
(iii) None-sharing of power leads to
(a) peace among all the communities
(b) tyranny of the majority and oppression of the majority
(c) negation of the very spirit of democracy
(iv) What do you understand by pressure groups?
(a) organisations that attempt to oppose government policies
(b) organisations that attempt to influence government policies
(c) organisations that attempt to reject government policies
Power may also be shared among different social groups such as the religious and linguistic
groups. ‘Community government’ in Belgium is a good example of this arrangement. In some
countries there are constitutional and legal arrangements whereby socially weaker sections
and women are represented in the legislatures and administration. Last year, we studied the
system of ‘reserved constituencies’ in assemblies and the parliament of our country. This type
of arrangement is meant to give space in the government and administration to diverse social
groups who otherwise would feel alienated from the government. This method is used to give
minority communities a fair share in power. Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in
the way political parties, pressure groups and movements control or influence those in power.
In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom to choose among various contenders for power.
In contemporary democracies, this takes the form of competition among different parties. Such
competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand. In the long run, power is shared
among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups. Sometimes
this kind of sharing can be direct, when two or more parties form an alliance to contest elections.
(i) Which one of the following statements about community government is true?
(a) Power is shared among different organs of the government
(b) Power is shared among governments at different levels
(c) Power is shared by different social groups
(d) Power is shared by two or more political parties
(ii) Power can be shared in modern democracies in the following ways:
(a) Among different organs of the government
(b) Among various levels
(c) Among different social groups (d) All the above
(iii) Power sharing is good because:
(a) It increase the conflict between social groups
(b) It ensures the instability of political order
(c) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups
(d) It leads to violence

(iv) Which is a prudential reason for power – sharing?
(a) It reduces the possibility of conflict between communities and ensures the stability of
political order
(b) Power- sharing is the very spirit of democracy
(c) both the above
The Belgian leaders took a different path. They recognised the existence of regional differences
and cultural diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times
so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same
country. The arrangement they worked out is different from any other country and is very
innovative. Here are some of the elements of the Belgian model: Constitution prescribes that
the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the central government.
Some special laws require the support of majority of members from each linguistic group.
Thus, no What’s wrong if the majority community rules? If Sinhalas don’t rule in Sri Lanka,
where else will they rule? single community can make decisions unilaterally. Many powers of
the central government have been given to state governments of the two regions of the country.
The state governments are not subordinate to the Central Government. Brussels has a separate
government in which both the communities have equal representation. The Frenchspeaking
people accepted equal representation in Brussels because the Dutch-speaking community has
accepted equal representation in the Central Government. Belgium is a small country in Europe,
smaller in area than the state of Haryana. It has borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany
and Luxembourg. It has a population of a little over one crore, about half the population of
Haryana. The ETHNIC composition of this small country is very complex. Of the country’s
total population, 59 per cent lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language. Another
40 per cent people live in the Wallonia region and speak French. Remaining one per cent of the
Belgians speak German. In the capital city Brussels, 80 per cent people speak French while 20
per cent are Dutchspeaking.
(i) Who elects the community government in Belgium?
(a) The citizens of the whole country
(b) By the leader of Belgium
(c) People belonging to one language community only
(d) The community leader to Belgium
(ii) Which two languages are generally spoken in Belgium?
(a) Dutch and English (b) French and English
(c) French and Dutch (d) Dutch and Sinhala
(iii) What led to tensions between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities?
(a) Both the communities were equal in socio-economic ladder and this was resented by
the French-speaking community.
(b) He minority French – speaking community was richer and more powerful than the
majority Dutch-speaking community.
(c) The majority Dutch- speaking community was richer and more powerful than the
minority French-speaking community.
(d) Both the communities demanded special powers
(iv) Which language is spoken by the majority of Belgians?
(a) Dutch (b) French (c) German (d) English

Answers
1. (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (b) (iv) (b) 2. (i) (c) (ii) (c) (iii) (c) (iv) (b)
3. (i) (c) (ii) (d) (iii) (c) (iv) (a) 4. (i) (c) (ii) (c) (iii) (b) (iv) (a)
1. Assertion (A) : Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1946.
Reason (R) : The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over
government by virtue of their majority.
2. Assertion (A) : In Belgium, the Dutch community could take advantage of its numeric majority
and force its will on the French and German-speaking population.
Reason (R) : In Sri Lanka, the Sinhala community enjoyed an even bigger majority and

could impose its will on the entire country.
3. Assertion (A) : Sri Lanka has a diverse population.
Reason (R) : The major social groups are the Sinhala-speakers (74 per cent) and the

Tamil-speakers (18 per cent).
4. Assertion (A) : Power can be shared among governments at different levels – a general
government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or
regional level.
Reason (R) : Such a general government for the entire country is usually called federal

government.
5. Assertion (A) : Although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning
of executive or laws made by the legislatures.
Reason (R) : The arrangement of monarchy is called a system of chess and balances.

Answers
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c)
zzz

6 FEDERALISM

FEDERALISM
• Has two sets or • Two sets of • There are • No fundamental • An independent • Sources of
levels of identities – different terms provision of the judiciary revenue for each
government, one people belong to of government. constitution can prevents level of
at a regional level the region as Each has its be changed at conflicts government are
and two at the well as the own jurisdiction any level between centre clearly specified
national level. country. in matters of arbitrarily. and states in the to ensure
• Each region has legislation, Changes require exercise of their stability.
a separate taxation and the consent of powers.
system of administration, both levels of
government, central, regional government.
distinct powers and local.
and
responsibilities.
LEGISLATIVE POWERS
The Union List The State List Concurrent List
• Has 97 subjects. • Has 59 subjects. • Has 47 subjects.

• Subjects of national interests – • Subjects like police local • Both the centre and the
defence, foreign policy, atomic energy, governments, trade and commerce states can make Laws on
banking, post and telegraph are within the state and agriculture are the subjects such as
included in this. included in it. education, forest, trade
• Only the union government can pass • Only the state governments can unions, marriage, adoption
laws on these subjects. pass laws on this list. and succession.
Political Science: Federalism 93

how

1. Jurisdiction: The official power to make legal decisions and judgements.
2. Federal having or relating to a system of government in which several states form a
unity but remain independent in internal affairs.
3. Federalism: The federal principle or system of government.
4. State Government or provincial government is the government of a country subdivision
in a federal form of government, which shares political power with the federal or national
government.
5. Central Government: The central government is the political authority that governs an
entire nation.
6. Coming together Federation: It involves independent states coming together on their
own to form a bigger unit so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity, they can
increase their security.
7. Holding together Federation is a type of federation, where a large country decides to
divide its power between.
8. Constitution: A body of fundamental principles or established precedents according to
which a state or other organization is acknowledged to be governed.
9. Three List: The constitution clearly provides a three fold distribution of legislative powers
between Union Government and the State government. Thus, it contains three lists –
l Union List in this list subjects of national importance are included, such as defence
of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communications, and currency.

l State List: It includes subjects of state and local importance such as police, trade,
commerce, agriculture and irrigation.

l Concurrent List: It includes subjects of common interest to both the Union and
state governments such as education, forest, trade unions, marriages, adoption and
succession.
10. Legislative: Having the power to make laws.
11. Legislature: The legislative body of a country.
12. Supreme Court: It’s the highest judicial court in a country or a state.
13. High Court: It’s the second highest judicial court in India.
14. Union Territory is a type of administrative division in the Republic of India. Unlike the
states, which have their own elected governments, union territories are ruled directly by
the Union Government (Central Government), hence the name ‘union territory’.
15. Linguistic: Relating to language or study of language.
16. Linguistic State: The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 was a major reform of the
boundaries of India’s states and territories, organising them along linguistic lines.
17. Coalition Government is a cabinet of a parliamentary government, in which several
political parties cooperate, reducing the dominance of any one party within that coalition.
18. Decentralisation: The transfer of authority from central to local government.
19. Panchayat: A village council
20. Municipal Council is the local government of a municipality.

1. Belgium shifted from a unitary form of government to
(a) democratic (b) federal
(c) authoritarian (d) none of the above
2. In federalism, power is divided between various constituent units and
(a) central authority (b) states
3. In federal system, central government cannot order the
(a) principal (b) local government
(c) state government (d) none of the above
4. State government has powers of its own for which it is not answerable to the
(a) central government (b) executive
5. Power to interpret the constitution is with the
(a) courts (b) central government
(c) state government (d) none of the above
6. The coming together federation is
(a) India (b) Spain (c) USA (d) Australia
7. Who can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the Union list?
(a) Local government (b) State government
(c) Union government (d) State and Union
8. The municipal corporation officers are called
(a) Mayors (b) MLAs (c) Sarpanchs (d) none of these
9. Federations have been formed with the two kinds of
(a) states (b) routes (c) people (d) none of the above
10. When power is taken away from Central and State governments and given to local government,
it is called:
(a) Centralisation (b) Decentralisation
(c) Panchayat samiti (d) None of these
11. Which among the following are examples of ‘coming together’ federations?
(a) India, Spain and Belgium (b) India, USA and Spain
(c) USA, Switzerland and Australia (d) Belgium, Sri Lanka and India
12. The Union List includes subjects like-
(a) education, forests, trade unions, marriages, adoption and succession
(b) residuary subjects like computers
(c) police, trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation
(d) defense, foreign affairs, banking, currency, communications
13. Which one of the following states has become union territory of India?
(a) Uttarakhand (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) J & K (d) Nagaland
14. Which one of the following countries is an example of ‘coming together’ federation?
(a) USA (b) India (c) Spain (d) Belgium

15. Given are three reactions to the language policy followed in India. Which of the following
holds true in the case of India?
(a) The policy of accommodation has strengthened national unity.
(b) Language based states have divided us by making everyone conscious of their language.
(c) The language policy has only helped to consolidate the dominance of English over other
languages.
(d) All the above
16. If there is a clash between the laws made by the state and the center on a subject in the
concurrent list
(a) the central law prevails.
(b) the state law prevails.
(c) the supreme court has to intervene to decide.
(d) both the laws prevail in their respective jurisdiction.
17. Which of the following subjects are included in the ‘State list’?
(a) Police, trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation
(b) Education, forests, trade unions, marriages, adoption and succession
(c) Defense, foreign affairs, banking, currency and communications
(d) Residuary subjects like computers
18. In India’s federal system, the state government consists of the power to legislate on all those
subjects that are included in which of the following list?
(a) State list (b) Concurrent list
(c) Union list (d) Residuary subjects
19. Which of the given subjects is not included in the State List?
(a) National defence (b) Law and order
(c) Agriculture (d) Education
20. Identify the government that consists of two or more levels.
(a) Coalition government (b) Community government
(c) Unitary government (d) Federal government
21. Identify the distinguishing feature of a federal government.
(a) Power is distributed between the legislature, executive and judiciary.
(b) National government gives some powers to the provincial government.
(c) Governmental power is divided between different levels of government.
(d) Elected official exercise supreme power in the government.
22. The constitution of India has
(a) divided the power between centre and state into three lists.
(b) divided the power between center and state into two lists.
(c) listed the powers of state and left undefined powers to the state.
(d) specified the powers of the state and left the residuary powers with the state.
23. The number of seats reserved for women in the panchayats and municipalities is
(a) One-fourth (b) One-third (c) Half (d) One-fifth
24. ‘Holding together’ federations are not found in
(a) India (b) Spain (c) Belgium (d) Australia
25. Subjects like computer software comes in
(a) Union List (b) State List
(c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary Powers

26. The number of scheduled languages in India is
(a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 28
27. What is the third tier of the government known as?
(a) Village panchayat (b) State government
(c) Local-self government (d) Zila Parishad
28. What is true regarding sources of revenue in a federal system?
(a) States have no financial powers or independent sources of revenue.
(b) States are dependent for revenue or funds on the central government.
(c) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial
autonomy.
(d) States have no financial autonomy.
29. Which of the following is incorrect regarding a unitary government?
(a) There is either only one level of government or sub-units are subordinate to the Central
Government.
(b) The Central Government can pass on orders to the Provincial Government
(c) A State Government is conservable to the Central Government.
(d) The powers of State Governments are guaranteed by the Constitution.
30. What are the kinds of routes through which federations have been formed?
(a) One route involves independent states coming together on their own to form a bigger unit.
(b) The second route is where a large country decides to divide its powers between the states
and the national government.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
31. Which period saw the rise of regional political parties in many states of the country?
(a) Period after 1990 (b) Period after 2000 (c) Period after 1980 (d) Period after 1970
32. Which of the following languages is recognized as national language by the constitution of
India?
(a) Hindi (b) English (c) Tamil (d) None of these
33. Which level of government in India has the power to legislate on the residuary subjects?
(a) Union government (b) State government
(c) Local-self government (d) Both (a) and (b)
34. ________ is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority
and various constituent units of the country.
(a) Dictatorship (b) Unitary system (c) Monarchy (d) Federalism
35. In a federal system the central government ____________ order the state government to do
something.
(a) can (b) cannot (c) may (d) both (a) and (c)
36. On which of the given subjects can both the Union as well as the State Governments make
laws?
(a) Currency (b) Defence (c) Trade unions (d) Agriculture
37. What is meant by Residuary powers?
(a) Subjects under Union List
(b) Subjects under State List
(c) Subjects under both State and Union List
(d) Subjects which are not under any list

38. States such as Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram enjoy special powers under
certain provisions of the constitution of India (Article 371). Under which context do they get
these provisions?
(a) Trade and commerce
(b) Protection of land rights of indigenous people
(c) Special provisions for agriculture
(d) For defence purposes
39. The creation of ________ was the first and a major test for democratic politics in our country.
(a) states according to religion (b) states according to culture
(c) linguistic states (d) states according to topography
40. On which basis were states like Nagaland, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand created?
(a) On the basis of language (b) On the basis of culture and ethnicity
(c) On the basis of religion (d) On the basis of commerce and trade
41. Hindi is the mother tongue of only about ___________ percent of Indians?
(a) 60% (b) 30% (c) 40% (d) 50%
42. When did the era of coalition governments at the Centre begin which led to a new culture of
power sharing and respect for autonomy of State Governments?
(a) 1980s (b) 1990s
(c) 1870s (d) 2000 onward
43. Census of India held in 2011, recorded more than _______ distinct languages which people
mentioned as their mother tongues?
(a) 200 (b) 500 (c) 1200 (d) 1300
44. In the data for scheduled languages of India, which is the second highest in proportion of
speakers (%) after Hindi?
(a) Telegu (b) Tamil
(c) Bengali (d) Urdu
45. When was the constitution amended to make the third-tier of democracy more powerful and
effective?
(a) 1990 (b) 1992 (c) 1989 (d) 1993
46. What is the percentage of seats reserved for women in the elections of local government?
(a) One-third (b) Two-third (c) 50% (d) 25%
47. How many levels of government does a federation usually have?
(a) Single (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Multiple
48. State government has powers of its own which __________.
(a) is answerable to central government
(b) is not answerable to central government
(c) is answerable to the people
49. Which among the following is the feature of Union Territories?
(a) They have powers of a state.
(b) They enjoy independent powers.
(c) The Central Government has special powers in running these areas.
(d) These are areas which are too small to become an independent state but which can be
merged with any of the existing states.

50. Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India. Identify those which
hold true for decentralization after 1992.
A. Local governments did not have any power to resources of their own.
B. It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies.
C. The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government
bodies.
D. No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other
backward classes.
(a) B and C (b) A and C (c) A and D (d) B and D
51. The real success of federalism in India can be attributed to the
(a) clearly laid out constitutional provisions (b) democratic politics in our country
52. The creation of linguistic states was the first and major test for
(a) federal government of India. (b) peace in India.
(c) democratic politics in our country. (d) none of the above
53. New states were created in India to
(a) ensure that people who spoke the same language lived in the same state.
(b) ensure proper safety of the people.
(c) ensure proper rule.
54. Some states were created not on the basis of language but to recognize differences based on
(a) Culture (b) Ethnicity (c) Geography (d) All the above
55. According to the constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in
(a) 1948 (b) 1955 (c) 1965 (d) 1975
56. Restructuring the centre-state relations is one more way in which
(a) democracy is strengthened. (b) socialism is strengthened.
(c) federalism is strengthened. (d) none of the above
57. When power is taken away from the central and state governments and given to local
governments, it is called-
(a) Centralization (b) Decentralization
(c) Take over government (d) None of the above
58. An independent institution to conduct panchayat and municipal elections, in each state is
called
(a) State Election Commission (b) Central Election Commission
(c) Local Election Commission (d) None of the above
59. Rural local government is popularly known by the name
(a) Rural Raj (b) Local Raj
(c) Panchayati Raj (d) None of the above
60. The head of the Gram Panchayat is called
(a) Panch (b) Sarpanch (c) Mukhia (d) President
61. The political head of the Zila Parishad is the
(a) Sarpanch (b) President (c) Chairperson (d) All the above
62. After 1993, Belgium shifted from a unitary to ___________ .
(a) Central Government (b) State Government
(c) Federal form of government (d) None of the above

63. Federalism is a system in which power is divided between
(a) Central authority and various constituent units of the country
(b) State Authority and various constituent units of the country
(c) State Government and local government
64. In a federal system, the central government
(a) can order the state government to take relevant action.
(b) cannot order the state governments to take relevant action.
(c) can order the state to take relevant action on certain occasions.
65. The jurisdiction of the respective levels of tiers of government
(a) are not specified in the constitution
(b) are specified in the constitution
(c) are written in the constitution
(d) all the above
66. Why Hindi was not given the status of national language?
(a) Because there were only 40% people speaking Hindi language
(b) To protect other languages
67. The subjects of National importance such as defence, currency is handled by-
(c) Local government bodies (d) None of the above
68. Which type of government rule the union territories?
(a) These have their own governments
(b) These are looked after by the center
(c) These are ruled by the governments of neighbouring bigger states
(d) None of these
69. Gram Panchayats are grouped together to form
(a) Gram Sabha (b) Panchayat Samiti
(c) Zila Parishad (d) None of the above
70. What is the role of judiciary in federal system of government?
(a) Judiciary plays an important role in implementing constitutional rules and procedures
(b) High courts and supreme court make decisions in case of disputes
(d) None of these
71. All panchayat samitis in the district forms
(a) Gram Sabha (b) Block committee
(c) Zila Parishad (d) None of the above
72. What is meant by ‘coming together’ federations?
(a) All independent states come together to form bigger unit that have equal power and strong
relation to federal government.
(b) Large country divides its power between states and national government.
(c) Different social groups in a country come together to form government.

73. An ideal federal system must have
(a) mutual trust between different levels of government
(b) agreement to live together
(c) both of (a) and (b)
74. When a large country divides its power between the constituent states and national
government this is
(a) Coming together federation (b) Holding together federation
(c) Both are same (d) None of the above
75. How is federalism practiced in India?
(a) By the creation of linguistic states (b) By the creation of state based on religion
(c) By the creation of states based on caste (d) None of the above
76. What is federalism?
(a) The form of government in which power is in the hands of Central Government.
(b) The form of government in which power is shared between central and individual states or
provinces.
(c) The form of government in which the ultimate power is given to State Government or
provinces.
77. Transfer of powers from Central or State Governments to local governments is called
(a) Distribution (b) Segregation
(c) Decentralization (d) None of the above
78. What is the advantage of forming linguistic states in India?
(a) Formation of Unity (b) Easy administration
79. What is a coalition government?
(a) The government formed at the centre is called coalition government.
(b) The government formed by two or more political parties together is called coalition
government.
(c) The government formed by minority community people is called coalition government.
80. Why there is need of local governments in India?
(a) People have better knowledge of problems in their localities thus these problems could be
best solved at local levels.
(b) People also know where to spend money and manage things efficiently.
(c) People directly participate in decision making.
81. The sharing of power between the union government and the state governments is __________
to the structure of the constitution.
(a) basic (b) important (c) significant (d) none of the above
82. A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions may opt to
take examinations in any one of-
(a) 24 languages (b) 22 languages (c) 27 languages (d) 23 languages
83. Which among the following states demanded the use of English along with Hindi as official
language?
(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh

84. Gram Sabha consists of
(a) executive in villages. (b) all the voters of a village.
(c) all the members of panchayat. (d) none of the above
85. Zila Parishad chairperson is the
(a) President (b) Political head of Zila Parishad
(c) Member of parliament (d) Member of legislative assembly
86. Prime Minister runs the country, Chief Minister runs the state and _________ runs the district.
(a) Collector (b) Chairperson
(c) Sarpanch (d) None of the above
87. Which among the following subjects was not included in the three lists of the Indian Union?
(a) Adoption (b) Computer software
(c) Trade unions (d) Succession
88. The report of States Reorganization Commission (SRC) was implemented on
(a) Nov 1, 1950 (b) Nov 1, 1956 (c) Oct 1, 1950 (d) Nov 1, 1953
89. Which among the following governments look after residuary powers?
(a) Union Government (b) State Government
(c) Local Government (d) None of the above
90. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of
(a) Central Government (b) Local Government
(c) Different levels of government (d) None of the above
91. Which among the following countries is not federal?
(a) Argentina (b) UK (c) Germany (d) Brazil
92. Who sets the power of different levels of government in federal government?
(c) Constitution (d) None of the above
93. A major step towards decentralization was taken in
(a) 1991 (b) 1992 (c) 1993 (d) 1994
94. The central government can pass orders to the provincial or-
(a) the local government (b) the State Government
(c) the Central Government (d) Union Territory
95. What are the demerits of local government?
(a) Gram Sabhas are not held regularly.
(b) Most State Governments have not transferred significant powers to local governments.
(c) Local government lack adequate resources.
96. A Panchayat Samiti is also called a
(a) Gram Sabha (b) Gram Panchayat
(c) Block or mandal (d) None of the above
97. Which of the following subjects is not included in the union list?
(a) Defense (b) Foreign affairs
(c) police (d) banking
98. Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure
(a) its validity (b) its finances
(c) its financial autonomy (d) None of the above

Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a)
9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (b)
17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b)
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (a)
33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (d)
49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (c)
57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (b) 61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (b)
65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (c) 71. (a) 72. (a)
73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (b)
89. (a) 90. (c) 91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (d) 96. (c)
97. (c) 98. (c)
The exact balance of power between the central and the state government varies from one
federation to another. This balance depends mainly on the historical context in which the
federation was formed. There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been
formed. The first route involves independent States coming together on their own to form a
bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their security.
This type of ‘coming together’ federations include the USA, Switzerland and Australia. In this
first category of federations, all the constituent States usually have equal power and are strong
vis-à-vis the federal government. The second route is where a large country decides to divide its
power between the constituent States and the national government. India, Spain and Belgium
are examples of this kind of ‘holding together’ federations. In this second category, the central
government tends to be more powerful vis-à-vis the States.

(i) Which of the following is not an example of ‘coming together’ federations?
(a) India (b) USA
(c) Switzerland (d) Australia
(ii) In a ‘Holding together federation’:
(A) A large country divides its power between constituent states and the national government.
(B) The Central government tends to be more powerful vis-a-vis the States.
(C) All the constituent states usually have equal powers.
(D) Constituent states have unequal powers.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D) (b) (A) and (D)
(c) (B) and (C) (d) (A), (B) and (D)
(iii) Which one of the following countries is good example of ‘holding together’ federations?
(a) USA (b) Switzerland
(c) Australia (d) India

(iv) Which are the basic objectives of a federal system?
(a) To safeguard and promote unity of the country
(b) To accommodate regional diversity
(c) To share powers among different communities
A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give the
status of national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language. But
Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of Indians. Therefore, there were many
safeguards to protect other languages. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised
as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. A candidate in an examination conducted for the
Central Government positions may opt to take the examination in any of these languages. States
too have their own official languages. Much of the government work takes place in the official
language of the concerned State. Unlike Sri Lanka, the leaders of our country adopted a very
cautious attitude in spreading the use of Hindi. According to the Constitution, the use of English
for official purposes was to stop in 1965. However, many non-Hindi speaking States demanded
that the use of English continue. In Tamil Nadu, this movement took a violent form. The Central
Government responded by agreeing to continue the use of English along with Hindi for official
purposes. Many critics think that this solution favoured the English speaking elite. Promotion
of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of India. Promotion does not
mean that the Central Government can impose Hindi on States where people speak a different
language. The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders helped our country avoid the kind of
situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.
(i) Here are three reactions to the language policy followed in India. Which of the following
holds true in the case of India?
(a) The policy of accommodation has strengthened national unity.
(b) Language based states have divided us by making everyone conscious of their language.
(c) The language policy has only helped to consolidate the dominance of English over all
other languages.
(d) All the above
(ii) The number of Scheduled Languages in India is
(a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 25
(iii) Which language is recognised as the national language by the ©Constitution of India?
(a) Hindi (b) English (c) Tamil (d) None of these
(iv) When was the use of English for official purpose stopped?
(a) 1956 (b) 1958 (c) 1960 (d) 1965
A third tier of federalism was added in the form of Panchayats and Municipalities. As in any
federation, these different tiers enjoy separate jurisdiction. The Constitution clearly provided
a threefold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government and the State
Governments. Thus, it contains three lists: Union List includes subjects of national importance
such as defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency. They
are included in this list because we need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the
country. The Union Government alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in
the Union List. State List contains subjects of State and local importance such as police, trade,
commerce, agriculture and irrigation. The State Governments forest, trade unions, marriage,
adoption and succession. Both the Union as well as the State Governments can make laws on the

subjects mentioned in this list. If their laws conflict with each other, the law made by the Union
Government will prevail. According to our constitution, the Union Government has the power
to legislate on these ‘residuary’ subjects.
(i) Subjects like computer software comes in the
(a) Union List (b) State List
(c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary List
(ii) The Constitution of India
(a) divided powers between centre and states in three lists.
(b) divided powers between centre and states in two lists.
(c) listed the powers of the states and left the undefined powers to the state.
(d) Specified the powers of the states and left the residuary powers with the centre.
(iii) What is the third tier of government known as?
(a) Village Panchayats (b) State government
(c) Local self-government (d) Zila Parishad
(iv) Which of the following subjects is not included in the Union list?
(a) Defence (b) Foreign affairs
(c) Police (d) Banking
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community
sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority. As a result, the
democratically elected government adopted a series of MAJORITARIAN measures to establish
Sinhala supremacy. In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language,
thus disregarding Tamil. The governments followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhala
applicants for university positions and government jobs. A new constitution stipulated that the
state shall protect and foster Buddhism. All these government measures, coming one after the
other, gradually increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that
none of the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their
language and culture. They felt that the constitution and government policies denied them
equal political rights, discriminated against them in getting jobs and other opportunities and
ignored their interests. As a result, the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities
strained over time.
(i) A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way
it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is:
(a) Power Sharing (b) Central Government
(c) Majoritarianism (d) Community Government
(ii) Identify the major social group that constituted the largest share in the population of Sri
Lanka.
(a) Sri Lankan Tamils (b) Indian Tamils
(c) Muslims (d) Sinhalas
(iii) Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are called the:
(a) Indian Tamils (b) Muslim Tamils
(c) Sri Lankan Tamils (d) Christian Tamils
(iv) What is the state religion of Sri Lanka?
(a) Buddhism (b) Hinduism
(c) Islam (d) Christianity

Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority
and various constituent units of the country. Usually, a federation has two levels of government.
One is the government for the entire country that is usually responsible for a few subjects of
common national interest. The others are governments at the level of provinces or states that
look after much of the day-to-day administering of their state. Both these levels of governments
enjoy their power independent of the other. In this sense, federations are contrasted with unitary
governments. Under the unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-
units are subordinate to the central government. The central government can pass on orders to
the provincial or the local government. But in a federal system, the central government cannot
order the state government to do something. State government has powers of its own for which it
is not answerable to the central government. Both these governments are separately answerable
to the people.
(i) What is true regarding sources of revenue in a federal system?
(a) States have no financial powers or independent sources of revenue.
(b) States are dependent on revenue or funds on the central government.
(c) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its
financial autonomy.
(d) States have no financial autonomy.
(ii) Which of the following is incorrect regarding a unitary government?
(a) There is either only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the
central government.
(b) The central government can pass on orders to the provincial government.
(c) A state government is conservable to central government.
(d) The powers of state governments are guaranteed by the Constitution.
(iii) Identify the Government that consists of two or more levels.
(a) Coalition Government (b) Community Government
(c) Unitary Government (d) Federal Government
(iv) The Constitution of India originally provided for:
(a) a two-tier system of government (b) a three-tier system of government
(c) a single-tier system of government (d) a four-tier system of government
Answers
1. (i) (a) (ii) (d) (iii) (a) (iv) (d) 2. (i) (a) (ii) (b) (iii) (d) (iv) (d)
3. (i) (d) (ii) (a) (iii) (c) (iv) (c) 4. (i) (c) (ii) (d) (iii) (c) (iv) (a)
5. (i) (c) (ii) (d) (iii) (d) (iv) (a)

1. Assertion (A) : Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one
language.
Reason (R) : Restructuring the Centre-State relations is one more way in which federalism
has been strengthened in practice.
2. Assertion (A) : A major step towards decentralisation was taken in 1992.
Reason (R) : The Constitution was amended to make the third-tier of democracy more

powerful and effective.
3. Assertion (A) : The local government structure goes right up to the state level.
Reason (R) : A few gram panchayats are grouped together to form what is usually called a

panchayat samiti or block or mandal.
4. Assertion (A) : Rural local government is popularly known by the name panchayati raj.
Reason (R) : Zilla parishad chairperson is the political head of the zilla parishad.

5. Assertion (A) : Third-tier of government is local government.
Reason (R) : The fourth tier of Indian democracy is weak.

Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c)
zzz

7 DEVELOPMENT
DEVELOPMENT
Defined as growth, some of the important goals are, Different people have different development goals.
seeking more income, equal treatment, freedom, What way be development for one may not be for the
security, respect from others, etc. other. It may even be destructive for the other.
INCOME AND OTHER GOALS
People desire Also seek equal Money or material Quality of our Before accepting a Hence, for
regular work, treatment, things that one life also job, one looks at development,
better wages and freedom, security, can buy with it, is depends on facilities for your people look at
decent price for respect of others one factor on non-material family, working mix of goals.
their crops or and resent which life things. atmosphere or
other products. discrimination. depends. opportunity to learn.
CRITERION TO COMPARE ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT OF COUNTRIES
Is earned per person It is also known as Standard of living of Countries with higher It is calculated by
in a given area. per capita income. people in a country per capita income dividing the area’s
depends on their per are considered to be total income by its
capita income. more developed than total population.
with less per capita
income.
INCOME AND OTHER CRITERION
In comparison of per capita In this case Punjab would be But in another comparison This shows besides
income of states, Punjab considered most developed of infant mortality rate income, all other goals are
has ` 60,746/- and Bihar and Bihar least developed. Punjab - 34 per thousand equally important.
has ` 16,715/- per capita Kerala - 13 per thousand
income respectively. Bihar - 48 per thousand.
Economics: Development 109

PUBLIC FACILITIES
Money in your pocket Income is not completely e.g., Money cannot buy a Kerala has low mortality
cannot buy all the goods adequate indicator of pollution free environment rate since it has adequate
and services that is needed material goods and or ensure that you get provision of basic health
to live a good healthy life. services that citizens are unadulterated medicine and educational facilities.
able to use. and is not able to protect
you from infectious
diseases.
SUSTAINABILITY OF DEVELOPMENT
Development should e.g., Groundwater is Groundwater is an Consequences of Sustainability of

take place but under serious threat example of environmental development is a new
without harming of overuse. renewable resource; degradation do not area of knowledge in
environment. it is replenished by respect national or which scientists,
nature as in the state boundaries. economists,
case of crops and Our future is linked philosophers and other
plants. together. social scientists are
working together.
HUMAN DEVELOPMENT INDEX
Is defined as a composite statistic of life expectancy, education and per capita income
indicators, which are used to rank countries in four tiers of human development.
It has three indicators
Life expectancy defined as the Gross Enrolment Ratio is Per Capita Income is the
average number of years that a determined by the number mean income of the people
new-born could expect to live if of students enrolled in in an economic unit,
her or she were to pass through school at several different calculated by total income
life, subject to the age-specific grade levels. divided by the total
mortality rates of a given period. population.
adding the three indicators and dividing it by 3, gives you the human development index.
Life exp. Index + Gross Enrolment Ratio + Per capita Income Index
HDI =
3
It is prepared by the United Nation’s Global Development Network (UNDP).

1. Development: Development is defined as growth. Some of the important goals are,
seeking more income, equal treatment, freedom, security, respect from others, etc.
2. Income and Other Goals: One would consider earning more income, being a common
factor among people. With this income, they buy services and goods for their daily
needs.
3. National Development: National development refers to the ability of a nation to improve
the lives of its citizens. Measures of improvement may be material, such as availability
of healthcare, etc.
4. Average Income: Average income is earned per person in a given area.
5. Infant Mortality Rate: Infant Mortality Rate is the number of deaths under one year of
age occurring among the live births in given geographical area during a given year.
6. Literacy Rate: Literacy rate is the total percentage of the population of an area at a
particular time aged seven years or above who can read and write with understanding.
7. Net Attendance Ratio: Net Attendance ratio is defined as the ratio of the number of
people in the official age-group attending any educational institution in a particular class-
group to the total number of people in the age-group.
8. Public Facilities: Public facilities are those which are provided by the government to
satisfy the collective needs of the people. Examples – hospitals, schools, community
halls, etc.
9. Human Development Index: Human Development Index is a composite statistic of life
expectancy, education and per capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries
in four tiers of human development.
10. Sustainable Development: Sustainable development is development that meets the
needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet
their own needs.

1. Meaning of development is different for
(a) different people (b) alien people
(c) same people (d) none of these
2. Classical view of economic development includes
(a) per capita income (b) national income
(c) none of these (d) both (a) and (b)
3. Human Development Report is published by
(a) UNDP (b) World Bank (c) IMF (d) WHO
4. IMR stands for
(a) Infant Mortality Rate (b) Indian Mortality Ratio
(c) International Mortality Ratio (d) none of these

5. Development criteria include
(a) income (b) equal treatment
(c) freedom (d) all of these
6. Full form of SED is
(a) sustainable economic development (b) simple economic development
(c) sound economic development (d) none of these
7. Per capita income hides
(a) disparities (b) average income
(c) total population (d) none of these
8. Which of the following is the most important component for comparing different countries?
(a) Population (b) Income
(c) Per capita income (d) Resources
9. Which is the most common method of measuring economic development?
(a) Profit loss (b) Income (c) Sales (d) Import-export
10. What are the developmental goals of landless rural labourers?
(a) More days of work and better wages (b) Acquirement of land for self-tilling
(c) More hours of work (d) Self-reliance
11. What brings about stable income?
(a) Better wages
(b) Work opportunities
(c) Regular work
(d) Decent price for their crops or other products
12. Besides seeking more income, there is something people resent, what is it?
(a) Getting fewer wages for more work (b) Discrimination
(c) No work (d) Poverty
13. What is the one factor on which our life depends?
(a) Employment (b) Security of work
(c) Money, or material things that one can buy with it
(d) Freedom
14. If women are engaged in paid work, what difference does it make?
(a) Their dignity in the household and society decreases
(b) No difference
(c) No dignity
(d) Their dignity in the household and society increases
15. Different persons could have ________ notions of a country’s development.
(a) different as well as conflicting (b) same
(c) indifferent (d) no
16. What is considered to be one of the most important attributes when we compare countries at
the level of development?
(a) Industrial development (b) Resources of the country
(c) Income (d) Import-export
17. More income means ___________.
(a) average out of needs of people. (b) more of all things that human beings need.
(c) no effect on the common man. (d) more business.

18. ___________ is the total income of the country divided by its total population.
(a) Per capita income (b) Gross income
(c) Net income (d) Total income
19. In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, which criterion is used in
classifying countries?
(a) Total income (b) Gross income
(c) Per capita income (d) Net income
20. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of human
development than India?
(a) Bangladesh (b) Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal (d) Pakistan
21. Countries with per capita income of US$ __________ per annum and above in 2017, are called
rich countries.
(a) 12,126 (b) 11,246 (c) 12,056 (d) 10,056
22. Countries with per capita income of US$ __________ or less are called low-income countries.
(a) 995 (b) 885 (c) 955 (d) 855
23. Which category does India come under?
(a) High-income countries (b) Low middle-income countries
(c) Low-income countries (d) High middle-income countries
24. What was India’s per capita income in 2017?
(a) US$ 1950 per annum (b) US$ 1880 per annum
(c) US$ 1930 per annum (d) US$ 1820 per annum
25. What can money not buy you?
(a) Unadulterated medicines (b) Water
(c) Pollution-free environment (d) Organic food
26. Why does Kerala have a low infant mortality rate?
(a) Adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities
(b) Suitable climate
(c) Pollution Free environment
(d) Good water
27. Over the past decade or so, __________ indicators have come to be widely used along with
income as a measure of development.
(a) health and nutrition (b) health and education
(c) child development (d) human development
28. According to the Human Development Report, 2018, United Nations Development
Programme, which two countries have a higher Life expectancy at Birth rate than India?
(a) Sri Lanka and Myanmar (b) Pakistan and Nepal
(c) Pakistan and Bangladesh (d) Nepal and Bangladesh
29. Per Capita Income is calculated in __________ for all countries.
(a) pounds (b) euros
(c) dollars (d) rupees
30. Since the second half of the twentieth century, a number of scientists have been warning
that__________.
(a) health and nutrition is declining (b) per capita income is unstable
(c) levels of resources are not sustainable (d) levels of development are not sustainable

31. How can we find out if we are properly nourished?
(a) Through good weight and scale (b) Body mass index
(c) Nutrient table (d) Height and weight table
32. The literacy rate for the rural population of males in Uttar Pradesh is __________.
(a) 73% (b) 70% (c) 76% (d) 78%
33. In the comparative data on Haryana, Kerala, and Uttar Pradesh which state has the highest
literacy rate?
(a) Haryana (b) Kerala (c) UP (d) All are equal
34. In the data for the Per Capita Income of Haryana, Kerala, Bihar-which state has the lowest
per capita income?
(a) Haryana (b) Kerala (c) Bihar (d) All are equal
35. Development is sustained by the ____________.
(a) conservation of resources and the environment
(b) conservation of the factors of production
(c) continuous increase in per capita income
(d) all the above
36. Green GNP concept is related to ______________.
(a) economic development (b) growth of a country
(c) green colour (d) green revolution
37. The World Development Report is published by _____________.
(a) UNDP (b) World Bank (c) UNO (d) UNESCO
38. According to the 2004 survey, the literacy rate of the population for 15+ in India was
__________.
(a) 41% (b) 61% (c) 91% (d) 51%
39. What is a creative way of using resources?
(a) Export them (b) Import them
(c) Use them to the maximum extent (d) Preserve them as much as possible
40. _________ is a method to find out if adults are under-nourished.
(a) BMI (b) SSI (c) BSI (d) SMI
41. Which among the following is considered as the most important attribute for calculating the
development of a country?
(a) Per capita income of the people
(b) Availability of natural resources
(c) Population
(d) Existence of a democratic structure in a country
42. Which of the following countries rank above India in HDI?
(a) Pakistan (b) Bangladesh (c) Sri Lanka (d) Nepal
43. What portion of India’s energy comes from the use of non-renewable sources at present?
(a) 87 percent (b) 99 percent (c) 67 percent (d) 88 percent
44. Identify the criteria used by the World Bank to classify countries.
(a) Household income (b) Individual income
(c) Average income (d) Sectoral income
45. Which of these neighbouring countries occupies a better rank than India in every respect?
(a) Bangladesh (b) Pakistan (c) Sri Lanka (d) Nepal

46. What does HDI stands for?
(a) Human development index (b) Human development indicator
(c) High development index (d) Hampered development indicator
47. ___________ is a long and healthy life measured in terms of life expectancy in years.
(a) Longevity (b) Literacy rate (c) Comfortable life (d) Development
48. Which among the following is more likely to be the developmental goal of a landless labour?
(a) To be able to visit abroad frequently
(b) More days of work with better wages
(c) To send his children in one of the best school in a nearby city
(d) To be able to buy expensive clothes from the nearby market
49. Which of the following states has the highest per capita income?
(a) Punjab (b) Bihar (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
50. As per statistics of the Government of India, Infant Mortality Rate is the highest in the state
of ____________.
(a) Bihar (b) West Bengal (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Punjab
51. Which of the following states has a low infant mortality rate?
(a) Punjab (b) Kerala (c) Bihar (d) Jharkhand
52. Consider that in country A, one million children were born in the year 2005. Out of these,
50,000 children died before the age of one. What is the infant mortality rate of country A?
(a) 60 (b) 50 (c) 40 (d) 55
53. Which of the following is most likely to be a development goal for landless rural labourers:
(a) High literacy rate (b) Highest support prices
(c) Settle the children abroad (d) Raised Wages
54. Life expectancy at Birth means:
(a) Average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth.
(b) Average expected length of life of a person at time of death.
(c) Average expected length of a child at time of birth.
(d) None of above
55. Which one of the following countries has the largest size of illiterate population in the age
group of 15 in the world.
(a) Myanmar (b) India (c) Bangladesh (d) Srilanka
56. What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of a landless labourer?
(a) Expansion of rural banking (b) More days of work and better wages
(c) Metal roads for transportation (d) Establishment of a high school
57. What will be the aspiration of an educated urban unemployed youth?
(a) An educated urban unemployed youth will aspire for better opportunities in agriculture.
(b) Support from government at every step in life for his upward movement.
(c) An urban educated unemployed will aspire for good job opportunities where his education
can be made use of.
(d) Better facilities of recreation for his leisure time.
58. Pick out the correct meaning listed below to define ‘average income’.
(a) Average income of the country means the total income of the country.
(b) The average income in a country is the income of only employed people.
(c) The average income is the same as per capita income.
(d) The average income includes the value of property held.

59. Which country can be considered as a developed country in the modern world? Select your
answer from the following statements.
(a) Countries which have accumulated huge amount of wealth and always secures the future of
their citizens. These countries are considered to be developed.
(b) Countries which are among the highest in the ‘Human Development Index’ are considered
to be the developed countries.
(c) Only rich countries are considered to be developed because people have money to buy
everything needed for human beings—both material and non-material.
(d) Iran is a rich country and therefore it is a developed country.
60. Money cannot buy all the goods and services that we may need to have a good life. A list of
things required for a good life is given below. Which among the following are things money
cannot buy?
(i) Full protection from infectious diseases
(ii) High quality education
(iii) A luxury home
(iv) A pollution-free atmosphere in every part of the country
(a) (i) and(ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
61. HDI stands for ‘Human Development Index’ that focuses on Fill in the blanks with one of the
following options:
(a) life expectancy
(b) gross enrolment ratio for three levels of schooling
(c) national income
(d) All the above
62. What would be the most promising source of energy fifty years from now and why?
(a) Petroleum energy, because it is obtained from fossil fuels.
(b) Solar energy, because it is not exhaustible.
(c) Coal based energy, because it is pollution- free.
(d) Forest product based energy, because India has abundant forests.
63. The total number of children attending school as a percentage of total number of children in
the same age group is called
(a) net attendance ratio (b) literacy rate
(c) gross enrollment ratio (d) level of education
64. Dividing the total income of country with its population, we get
I. Per-Capita income II. National income
III. Average Income IV. Total Income
(a) Only III (b) I and II
(c) All of the above (d) None of these
65. The per-capita income of different countries is counted in which currency?
(a) Rupees (b) Pounds
(c) US Dollars (d) Canadian Dollars
66. Among Haryana, Kerala and Bihar, the lowest percapita income state is Bihar. It shows that
(a) Bihar has high standard of living
(b) People are earning less in Kerala
(c) Maharashtra has more number of rich people
(d) On an average, people in Bihar have low income

67. Development of an individual refers to
(a) mental development (b) physical development
(c) spiritual development (d) overall development
68. Development goal for landless agricultural labour is
(a) high prices for crops (b) more days of work
(c) cheap labour (d) pollution free environment
69. If industrialists want more dams then why do local people resist it?
(a) They will be displaced.
(b) Their lands will be submerged.
(c) Their will be no source of earning for them.
70. People may have different developmental goals; what is development for one, may even be
___________ for the other.
(a) destructive (b) constructive
(c) same (d) equal
71. The Human Development Report (HDR) published by UNDP compares countries based on
literacy rate, health status and ___________
(a) National income (b) Per-capita income
72. A good way to measure the quality of life in countries across the world is by comparing their
___________
(a) per capita Income (b) human development index
(c) gross national income (d) sustainable development
73. Which among the following is not a public facility?
(a) Transport and electricity (b) Roads and bridges
(c) Private schools (d) Government hospitals
74. The __________ helps in maintaining the nutritional levels of poor people by providing food
at lower cost.
(a) BMI body mass indez (b) PDS public distribution system
(c) GNI gross national income (d) HDI human development index
75. Economic development by maintaining the natural resources for present and future use is
known as
(a) sustainable development (b) planned development
(c) human development Index (d) development
Answers
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c)
9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c)
17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (d)
25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d) 31. (b) 32. (c)
33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (b)
49. (d) 50. (c) 51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (c) 56. (b)
57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (d) 61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (a)
65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (b)
73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (a)

For comparing countries, their income is considered to be one of the most important attributes.
Countries with higher income are more developed than others with less income. This is based
on the understanding that more income means more of all things that human beings need.
Whatever people like, and should have, they will be able to get with greater income. So, greater
income itself is considered to be one important goal. Now, what is the income of a country?
Intuitively, the income of the country is the income of all the residents of the country. This gives
us the total income of the country. However, for comparison between countries, total income is
not such an useful measure. Since, countries have different populations, comparing total income
will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn. Are people in one country better off than
others in a different country? Hence, we compare the average income which is the total income
of the country divided by its total population. The average income is also called per capita
income.
(i) Per capita income is :
(a) Income per person (b) Income per family
(c) Income per earning person (d) Income per month
(ii) In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, which criterion is used
in Classifying countries?
(a) Total income (b) Gross income
(c) per capita income (d) Net income
(iii) The average income is also called:
(a) Per capita profit (b) Per capita income
(c) Limited income (d) None of the above
(iv) What is the most important attribute while comparing countries?
(a) Their population (b) Their political status
(c) Their income (d) None of the above
Once it is realised that even though the level of income is important, yet it is an inadequate
measure of the level of development, we begin to think of other criterion. There could be a long
list of such criterion but then it would not be so useful. What we need is a small number of the
most important things. Health and education indicators, such as the ones we used in comparison
of Kerala and Haryana, are among them. Over the past decade or so, health and education
indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development. For
instance, Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on the
educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income. It would be interesting
to look at certain relevant data regarding India and its neighbours from Human Development
Report 2019.
(i) HDI stands for:
(a) Heavy Developed Industry (b) Human Development Index
(c) Heavy Developed Infrastructure (d) Heavy Industries Development
(ii) The Human Development Report compares countries on the basis of:
(a) The educational levels of the people (b) Health status of the people
(c) Per capita income of the people (d) All the above factors

(iii) Which organisation publishes the Human Development Report:
(a) WHO (b) UNDP (c) WTO (d) IMF
(iv) Which one of the following criteria is the basis to measure the development of a country
according to UNDP?
(a) Per capita income (b) Educational levels of the people
(c) Health status of the people (d) All the above
Data analysis questions:
1. Read the given data and find out which country has most equitable distribution of income.
Countries Monthly income of citizens in four countries in 2015
Citizens I Citizen II Citizen III Citizen IV Citizen V Average
Country A 5500 6000 2000 1000 2000 3300
Country B 700 6000 600 500 600 1680
Country C 10500 11000 12500 9500 7000 10100
Country D 900 4900 600 4000 670 2214
(a) Country A (b) Country B (c) Country C (d) Country D
Countries Monthly Income of Citizens in four countries in 2019
Citizen I Citizen II Citizen III Citizen IV Citizen V Average
Country A 11500 12000 10200 13000 12000 11740
Country B 700 6000 600 500 600 1680
Country C 500 10000 500 6500 3000 4100
Country D 900 4900 600 4000 670 2214
Countries Monthly Income of Citizens in four countries in 2018
Citizen I Citizen II Citizen III Citizen IV Citizen V Average
Country A 11600 10000 12200 12500 11000 11460
Country B 800 5000 700 400 800 1540
Country C 400 11000 800 7500 4000 4740
Country D 700 6900 400 5000 870 2774
Answers
1. (i) (a) (ii) (c) (iii) (b) (iv) (c) 2. (i) (b) (ii) (d) (iii) (b) (iv) (d)
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a)

1. Assertion (A) : Money in your pocket cannot buy all the goods and services that you may need
to live well.
Reason (R) : So, income by itself is not a completely adequate indicator of material goods and
services that citizens are able to use.
2. Assertion (A) : Non-renewable resources are those which will get exhausted after years of use.
Reason (R) : Kerala has a low Infant Mortality Rate because it has adequate provision of basic
health and educational facilities.
3. Assertion (A) : Money, or material things that one can buy with it, is one factor on which our
life depends.
Reason (R) : But the quality of our life does not depend on nonmaterial things.
4. Assertion (A) : We compare the average income which is unevely distibuted income of the
country divided by half of its population.
Reason (R) : The average income is also called per capita income.
5. Assertion (A) : The developmental goals that people have are not only about better income but
also about other important things in life.
Reason (R) : A safe and secure environment may allow more women to take up a variety of
jobs or run a business.
Answers
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)
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SECTORS OF THE
8 INDIAN ECONOMY
SECTORS OF INDIAN ECONOMY ARE

DIVIDED INTO THREE CATEGORIES
PRIMARY SECTOR SECONDARY SECTOR TERTIARY SECTOR
When we produce Covers activities in which natural products These activities by themselves do not
a good by are changed into other forms through produce a good but they are an aid or a
exploiting natural ways of manufacturing that we associate support for the production process.
resources, it is an with industrial activities.
activity of primary
sector.
For example, goods that are produced in
Example – using cotton fibre from plants, the primary or secondary sector would
we spin yarn and weave cloth, etc. need to be transported by trucks or trains
Example –
and then sold in wholesale and retail
agriculture, dairy,
shops.
fishing, forestry, etc.
This sector gradually became associated
with the different kinds of industries that
came up, it is also called as industrial
This sector is known sector. Since, these activities generate services
as agricultural and rather than goods, it is also known as the
related sector. service sector.
Adding the sum of all the three sectors

would give you the GDP; Gross Domestic
Product.
Primary sector + Secondary Sector +

Tertiary Sector = GDP
GDP – shows how big the economy is.
Economics: Sectors of the Indian Economy 121

VALUE OF GOODS AND SERVICES IN THE THREE
SECTORS ARE CALCULATED, AND THEN ADDED UP
Economists suggest that the values of goods and services

should be used rather than the adding up the actual numbers.
For example
A farmer grows cotton and sells it to the textile industry.
Now, the textile industry makes it into a shirt, adds buttons and thread.
And sells it on a higher rate.
IMPORTANCE OF TERTIARY SECTOR
In any country, there The development of Due to the demand in New services based
are several services agriculture and income levels, there is on information and
which are required – industry leads to the rise in demand for technology and
hospitals, educational development of more services. communication have
institutions, telegraph services like transport, become important and
services, police storage, trade. essential.
stations, etc.
UNDEREMPLOYMENT/DISGUISED EMPLOYMENT
When more people are working than is needed, this situation is

called underemployment or disguised unemployment
IN RURAL AREAS IN URBAN AREAS
All the family members There are thousands of casual workers in the service
sector, who search for daily employment
This means that even if we

remove a lot of people
from agricultural sector
and provide them work There are many others like rikshaw pullers or cart pushers on
somewhere else, the the street selling something, where they may spend the
agricultural production will whole day but earn very little
not be affected

GOVERNMENT POLICIES PROMOTE EMPLOYMENT
Banks can provide a loan to construct wells to irrigate their lands
Dam construction will provide employment opportunities as well as

irrigation facilities
Better rural roads and more transportation facilities to be provided

to farmers to sell their crops
On the credit of local banks, inputs like seeds, fertilisers, agricultural

equipment and pumpsets can be bought
Government can promote and locate industries in the semi-rural

areas to generate employment
Mills like–Dal mill, cold storage, honey collection centres,

processing of vegetables etc.
More schools will lead to employment to teachers, builders, peons

and other staff
For improving health situation, more doctors, nurses, health

workers are needed to work in rural areas
Employment can be generated in tourism, regional craft industry or

new services like IT
The central government in India made a law implementing the Right

to work in 200 districts of India and then to 130
Known as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee

Act 2005 (MGNREGA)
All those who are able to and are in need of work are guaranteed
100 days of employment in a year by the government.
If the government fails in its duty to provide employment, it will give

unemployment allowances to the people.

DIVISION OF SECTOR AS
ORGANISED SECTOR UNORGANISED SECTOR
Terms of employment regular Small scattered units outside the

control of government
Follow rules and regulation of Factory Act,

Minimum Wages Act, Gratuity Act, etc. Rules and regulations not followed
Employees register themselves with the Jobs are low paid and often not regular
government
No provision for overtime, paid leave,

Security of work holidays or leave due to sickness
Work for a fixed number of hours Employment is not secure
If work more, paid overtime They may be told to leave the job any time
Get benefits likes paid leave, payment during Lot of them are employed on their own
holidays, provident fund, gratuity, etc. doing small jobs
Get medical benefits, drinking water, safe

working environment
HOW TO PROTECT THE UNORGANISED SECTOR
RURAL AREAS URBAN AREAS SC/ST
Vulnerable people are—landless Comprise of workers in Majority workers from

agricultural labourers, small and small scale industry, SC/ST and backward
marginal farmers, sharecroppers casual workers, trade and communities are in
and other artisans (weavers transport, vendors head unorganised sectors
carpenters) load workers, garment
makers, rag pickers etc.
Besides irregular and low
Nearly 80% rural households are paid work, they face social
marginal and small farmers Need government’s discrimination
support for providing raw
material and marketing of
output Protection and support is
Can be supported by adequate
facilities for timely delivery of needed to get economic
needs, agricultural inputs, etc. and social development

SECTORS ON THE BASIS OF OWNERSHIP
PUBLIC SECTOR PRIVATE SECTOR
Government owns most of the assets and Ownership of assets and delivery of services is
provides all the services in the hands of private individuals
e.g., Railways, post office

e.g., Tata Iron and Steel company of
Reliance Industries
Meant for social benefit
Guided by motive to earn profit

Government raises money through taxes and other
ways to meet expenses on the services rendered by it
To get services, we have to pay money

Government provide subsidies and bear
part of the cost to support industries
Is unable to provide several things needed
by the people at reasonable rates
Government must spend on provision of
health and educational facilities

1. Primary Sector: It is a sector of an economy making direct use of natural resources. This
includes agriculture, forestry, fishing and mining.
2. Secondary Sector: The portion of an economy that includes light and heavy industrial
manufacturers of finished goods and products from raw materials.
3. Tertiary Sector: This sector focuses on tertiary productions, which are commercial
services that work to provide support to distribution and production processes such as
warehousing, transport services, insurance services, teaching, health care and advertising
services.
4. GDP – Gross Domestic Product: GDP is a monetary measure of the market value of all
final goods and services produced in a period. Sum of Primary sector + Secondary Sector
+ Tertiary sector = GDP.
5. Disguised Unemployment is a kind of unemployment in which some people look
like being employed but are actually not employed fully. It is also known as Hidden
unemployment .
6. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005: The act provides
100 days of assured employment every year to rural household. If the government is
unable to provide employment due to any reason, in exchange, 100 days allowance is
provided to the worker.
7. Organised Sector is a sector where the employment terms are fixed and regular, and the
employees get assured work.
8. Unorganised Sector is a sector where the employment terms are not fixed and regular,
as well as the enterprises, are not registered with the government.
9. Private Sector is the part of a country’s economic system that is run by individuals and
companies, rather than the government.
10. Public Sector is usually comprised of organisation that are owned and operated by the
government and exist to provide services for its citizens.

1. Animal Husbandry is a part of
(a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) tertiary sector (d) none of these
2. Converting iron ore to steel is a part of
(a) primary activity (b) secondary activity (c) tertiary activity (d) all of these
3. ATM is an example of
(a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) tertiary sector (d) all of these
4. Service is
(a) tangible (b) intangible (c) both (a) and (b) (d) physical Product
5. GDP of a country is based on
(a) total value of good and services (b) final value of goods and services
(c) initial value of goods and services (d) all of these
6. MGNREGA guarantees job to poor for
(a) 100 days (b) 90 days (c) 60 days (d) 50 days
7. Which of the following profession belongs to the Tertiary Sector of economy?
(a) Fisherman (b) Farmer (c) Factory worker (d) Teacher
8 Read the given statements in context of ‘globalization’ and choose the correct option
[CBSE Sample Paper 2020]
(a) It is the only way for economic development of the country.
(b) Interlinks only production based activities in dispersed locations in the world.
(c) It has always given only positive results in all the countries.
(d) Leads to spread of technology, cultures and diseases from a region to another.
9. Public health is responsibility of
(a) primary sector (b) government (c) private sector (d) none of these
10. Hidden unemployment is also called
(a) organised sector (b) disguised unemployment
(c) tertiary sector (d) contractual unemployment
11. Name one type of classification of the economy?
(a) Urban (b) Rural (c) Public/Private (d) State/National
12. From where the employment and non-employment figures are taken to study the data?
(a) Real-Time Handbook of Statistics on Indian Economy
(b) National Statistical Office (NSO)
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Statistics Information Bureau
13. What are the groups of classification of an economy called?
(a) Sectors (b) Centers (c) Types (d) Categories
14. When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources it is called ___________?
(a) tertiary sector (b) primary sector (c) service sector (d) public sector
15. Which activities come under the agriculture and related sectors?
(a) Dairy (b) Mineral excavation
(c) Using cotton fiber from the plant
(d) Selling agricultural products in the market

16. What is the secondary sector?
(a) Production of a good by exploiting natural resources.
(b) Activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of
manufacturing.
(c) Activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or support for the
production process.
(d) Mineral excavation.
17. Using sugarcane as raw material, we make sugar or gur, under what sector does this activity
come?
(a) Primary (b) Private (c) Industrial (d) Tertiary
18. Those activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or support for the
production process, are called __________.
(a) primary (b) private (c) industrial (d) tertiary
19. Name one functioning activity of the tertiary sector.
(a) Goods that are produced would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in
wholesale and retail shops.
(b) This sector gradually became associated with the different kinds of industries.
(c) Activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of
manufacturing.
(d) Produce a good by exploiting natural resources.
20. Which sector is also called the service sector?
(a) Primary (b) Public (c) Industrial (d) Tertiary
21. The sum of production in the three sectors gives what is called the __________ of a country.
(a) Gross income (b) Gross domestic product
(c) Net domestic product (d) Net income
22. The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year
provides the __________.
(a) average production of the sector for that year
(b) net production of the sector for that year
(c) total production of the sector for that year
(d) gross production of the sector for that year
23. ________ gradually became the most important in total production and employment.
(a) Secondary sector (b) Tertiary sector (c) Public sector (d) Primary sector
24. Which one is a primary occupation?
(a) Tailor (b) Basket weaver (c) Flower cultivator (d) Milk vendor
25. Not every good (or service) that is produced and sold needs to be counted. It makes sense
only to include the _________ to get the total production.
(a) values of goods and services in production (b) final goods and services
(c) adding up the actual numbers of goods (d) goods and services in the three sectors
26. Give an example of an intermediate good?
(a) Woven basket (b) Chair production from wood
(c) Wheat flour (d) Biscuits
27. It has been noted from the histories of many, now developed, countries that at initial stages of
development, ________ sector was the most important sector of economic activity.
(a) public (b) tertiary (c) secondary (d) primary

28. As the methods of farming changed and the agriculture sector began to prosper, most of the
goods produced were ________ from the primary sector and most people were also employed
in this sector.
(a) synthetic products (b) involved machines (c) natural products (d) mixed products
29. Why did the secondary sector later become the most important sector?
(a) People began to use many more goods that were produced in factories at cheap rates
(b) Employment increased
(c) Agriculture declined (d) Both (a) and (b)
30. In developed countries, the ________ sector has become the most important in terms of total
production.
(a) primary (b) industrial (c) service (d) public
31. In the data given of GDP, which was the most productive sector in 1974?
(a) primary sector (b) tertiary sector
(c) secondary sector (d) equal production sector
32. The primary sector is also called ________.
(a) service sector (b) agriculture and related sector
(c) pre-industry sector (d) unorganized sector
33. In the data given of GDP which was the most productive sector in 2013-14?
(a) primary sector (b) tertiary sector
(c) secondary sector (d) equal production sector
34. The secondary sector is also called ________.
(a) organised sector (b) service sector (c) industrial sector (d) public sector
35. Which sector has grown the most over forty years?
(a) Primary sector (b) Tertiary sector
(c) Secondary sector (d) Equal production sector
36. Which of these can be considered as basic services?
(a) Growing of wheat (b) Transport (c) Storage (d) Police station
37. Greater the development of the primary and secondary sectors, ________would be the demand
for such services?
(a) equal (b) more (c) less (d) uneven
38. When income levels rise, certain sections of people start demanding many more services
like________ .
(a) more food (b) hospitals (c) defense (d) tourism
39. Over the past decade or so, certain new services such as ________ have become important and
essential?
(a) private hospitals (b) professional training
(c) information and communication technology
(d) insurance
40. Underemployment is hidden in contrast to someone who does not have a job and is clearly
visible as unemployed. It is also called ________ .
(a) hidden employment (b) disguised unemployment
(c) unstable employment (d) less employment
41. The task of measuring GDP is undertaken by the
(a) central government (b) state government
(c) provincial government (d) all of the above

42. The motive of the public sector enterprises is
(a) profit making (b) entertainment
(c) social welfare and security (d) none of the above
43. How do big private companies contribute in the development of a nation?
(a) By increasing the demands for their products through advertisements.
(b) By increasing their profits.
(c) By increasing productivity of the country in the manufacturing of industrial goods.
(d) By providing private hospital facilities for the rich.
44. Employment figures of a country are based on data collected from 5-yearly survey on
employment and unemployment. Which organisation conducts this survey?
(a) NSSO – National Sample Survey Organisation
(b) NREGA 2005 – National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
(c) ILO – International Labour Organisation
(d) Census of India
45. Protection and support to the unorganised sector workers is necessary for both:
(a) rural and urban areas (b) economic and political development
(c) social and political development (d) economic and social development
46. The sector in which the government owns most of the assets and provides all the services is
called:
(a) Public sector (b) Private sector (c) Mixed sector (d) None of the above
47. Railways and Post office, are example of:
(a) Public sector (b) Private sector (c) Mixed sector (d) All the above
48. Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited, Reliance Industries Limited are examples of:
(a) Public sector (b) Private sector (c) Mixed sector (d) none of the above
49. Production in the period 1973-2003 has increased the most in:
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (c) Tertiary sector (d) all the above
50. The economy is classified into public and private sectors on the basis of :
(a) employment conditions (b) the nature of economic activity
(c) ownership of enterprises (d) number of workers employed in the enterprise
51. Percentage share of employment is highest in
(a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) tertiary sector (d) public sector
52. Who carries economic activities?
(a) individuals (b) firms (c) government (d) All of the above
53. In which sector activities are not guided by profit motive?
(a) organised sector (b) public sector (c) private sector (d) unorganised sector
54. In which type of unemployment more people are employed than required?
(a) seasonal unemployment (b) disguised unemployment
(c) educated unemployment (d) All of the above
55. In the last 100 years, the sector gaining prominance is
(a) secondary sector (b) primary sector (c) tertiary sector (d) all of these
56. Information and Technology is a part of
(a) tertiary sector (b) primary sector (c) secondary sector (d) all of these
57. The goods produced by exploiting natural resources comes under the category of:
(a) Tertiary (b) Secondary (c) Primary

58. Transport, communication and banking come under:
(a) Secondary (b) Tertiary (c) Primary
59. Tertiary sector is larger in a:
(a) Developing country (b) Developed country
(c) Underdeveloped country
60. Development in the primary and secondary sectors leads to the development of:
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (c) Tertiary sector
61. If some people are removed from agricultural activities without affecting its production, it is
said that the sector is
(a) Underemployed (b) Overemployed (c) Unemployed
62. If the workers work less than their potential, it is said that they are:
(a) Underemployed (b) Overemployed (c) Unemployed
63. The workers in an organised sector enjoy:
(a) High salary (b) Security of employment
(c) Less working hours
64. Which of the following is not an example of tertiary sector?
(a) Banking (b) Transport (c) Trade (d) Forestry
65. Which among the following is a feature of unorganised sector?
(a) Fixed number of work hours (b) Paid holidays
(c) Employment is insecure (d) Registered with the government
66. Which among the following activities is not related to primary sector?
(a) Fishing (b) Natural gas extraction
(c) Making of sugar (d) Mining
67. Which among the following workers are not very productive in tertiary sector?
(a) Educated and trained professionals (b) Repair persons and daily wage earners
(c) People in defence services (d) People working in health centres and hospitals
68. Places of work which follow rules and regulation are termed as
(a) organised sector (b) unorganised sector (c) tertiary sector (d) secondary sector
69. All economic activities that directly involve conversion of natural resources are classified
under
(a) secondary sector (b) primary sector (c) tertiary sector (d) government sector
70. The sector in which the productive units are owned, maintained and managed by government
(a) organised sector (b) primary sector (c) public sector (d) industrial sector
71. The sum total of production of all goods and services in the three sectors are combined.
(a) NDP (b) NI (c) GNI (d) GDP
Answers
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d)
9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b)
17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (b)
33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (b)
49. (c) 50. (c) 51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (a)

57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (c) 61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (d)
65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (c) 71. (d)
The organised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after. But the employment opportunities
in the organised sector have been expanding very slowly. It is also common to find many
organised sector enterprises in the unorganised sector. They adopt such strategies to evade taxes
and refuse to follow laws that protect labourers. As a result, a large number of workers are forced
to enter the unorganised sector jobs, which pay a very low salary. They are often exploited and
not paid a fair wage. Their earnings are low and not regular. These jobs are not secure and have
no other benefits. Since the 1990s, it is also common to see a large number of workers losing their
jobs in the organised sector. These workers are forced to take up jobs in the unorganised sector
with low earnings. Hence, besides the need for more work, there is also a need for protection
and support of the workers in the unorganised sector.
(i) Which of the following examples does not fall under unorganized sector?
(a) A farmer irrigating his field.
(b) A daily wage labourer working for a contractor.
(c) A doctor in a hospital treating a patient.
(d) A handloom weaver working on a loom in her house.
(ii) Which of the following is not applicable for a worker, who works in the organised sector?
(a) She gets a regular salary at the end of the month.
(b) She is not paid for leave.
(c) She gets medical allowance.
(d) She got an appointment letter stating the terms and conditions of work when she joins
work.
(iii) Manufacturing units in unorganised sector are:
(a) not subject to government regulations
(b) subjects to government regulations
(c) subject to central bank’s regulations
(iv) Choose the correct meaning of organised sector.
(a) It covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular.
(b) It is outside the control of the government.
(c) Jobs are not regular.
(d) It provides low salaries.
The secondary sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into other forms
through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step
after primary. The product is not produced by nature but has to be made and therefore some
process of manufacturing is essential. This could be in a factory, a workshop or at home. For
example, using cotton fibre from the plant, we spin yarn and weave cloth. Using sugarcane
as a raw material, we make sugar or gur. We convert earth into bricks and use bricks to make
houses and buildings. Since this sector gradually became associated with the different kinds of
industries that came up, it is also called as industrial sector. After primary and secondary, there

is a third category of activities that falls under tertiary sector and is different from the above
two. These are activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors.
These activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or a support for the
production process. Transport, storage, communication, banking, trade are some examples of
tertiary activities. Since these activities generate services rather than goods, the tertiary sector is
also called the service sector.
(i) Which sector includes the units producing services?
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (c) Tertiary sector (d) All the above
(ii) Which of the following types of activities are covered in the secondary sector?
(a) It generates services rather than goods.
(b) Natural products are changed through manufacturing.
(c) Goods are produced by exploiting natural resources.
(d) It includes agriculture, forestry and dairy.
(iii) The service sector includes activities such as
(a) agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry (b) making sugar, gur, and bricks
(c) transport, communication and banking (d) none of these
(iv) Which one of the following economic activities is not in the tertiary sector?
(a) Banking (b) Bee keeping
(c) Teaching (d) Working in a call centre
3. Read the information given below and select the correct option:
Rahul is an agricultural labourer. There are several months in a year when he has no work and
needs credit to meet his daily expenses. He depends upon his employer, the landowner for
credit who charges an interest rate of 8 per cent per month. Rahul repays the money by working
physically for the landowner on his farmland.
Over the years his debt will –
(a) Increase - because of increasing interest and non-payment of monthly amount
(b) Remain constant - as he is working for the employer but is repaying less
(c) Reduce - as amount equivalent to his salary is being counted as monthly repayment
(d) Be totally repaid - as he is repaying the debt in the form of physical labour
OR
Most of the agricultural labourers like Rahul depend upon loans from informal sector. Which
of the following statements about this sector is correct?
(a) There are government bodies to supervise informal sector.
(b) Money lenders ask for a reasonable rate of interest.
(c) Cost of informal loans to the borrower is quite high.
(d) Money lenders use fair means to get their money back.
The product of this activity, cotton, is a natural product. Similarly, in the case of an activity like
dairy, we are dependent on the biological process of the animals and availability of fodder etc.
The product here, milk, also is a natural product. Similarly, minerals and ores are also natural
products. When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the primary
sector. Why primary? This is because it forms the base for all other products that we subsequently
make. Since most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry,
this sector is also called agriculture and related sector. The secondary sector covers activities in
which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we
associate with industrial activity. It is the next step after primary. The product is not produced

by nature but has to be made and therefore some process of manufacturing is essential. This
could be in a factory, a workshop or at home. After primary and secondary, there is a third
category of activities that falls under tertiary sector and is different from the above two. These
are activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors. These activities,
by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or a support for the production process
Service sector also includes some essential services that may not directly help in the production
of goods. For example, we require teachers, doctors, and those who provide personal services
such as washermen, barbers, cobblers, lawyers, and people to do administrative and accounting
works. In recent times, certain new services based on information technology such as internet
cafe, ATM booths, call centres, software companies etc have become important.
(i) Which sector converts raw materials into goods?
(a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) unorganised sector (d) organised sector
(ii) Which sector includes the units producing services?
(a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) tertiary sector (d) all the above
(iii) Manufacturing sector is associated with
(a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) tertiary sector (d) private sector
(iv) Production of a commodity through exploitation of natural resources is an activity in the
(a) primary sector (b) secondary sector
(c) tertiary sector (d) information technology sector
The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides
the total production of the sector for that year. And the sum of production in the three sectors
gives what is called the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country. It is the value of all final
goods and services produced within a country during a particular year. GDP shows how big
the economy is. In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a central
government ministry. This Ministry, with the help of various government departments of all
the Indian states and union territories, collects information relating to total volume of goods
and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP. After primary and secondary, there
is a third category of activities that falls under tertiary sector and is different from the above
two. These are activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors.
These activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or a support for the
production process. For example, goods that are produced in the primary or secondary sector
would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in wholesale and retail shops.
At times, it may be necessary to store these in godowns. We also may need to talk to others
over telephone or send letters (communication) or borrow money from banks (banking) to help
production and trade. Transport, storage, communication, banking, trade are some examples of
tertiary activities. Since these activities generate services rather than goods, the tertiary sector is
also called the service sector.
(i) Life insurance is an activity of the
(a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) service sector (d) none of the above
(ii) Which sector has emerged as the largest producing sector in India. Select one from the
following alternatives:
(a) Secondary sector (b) Tertiary sector
(c) Primary sector (d) Science and Technology sector
(iii) The money value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a
particular year is called:
(a) Gross domestic product (b) Net domestic product
(c) National product (d) Production of secondary sector

(iv) Information and communication technology is associated with
(a) primary sector (b) secondary sector (c) tertiary sector (d) none of the above
Answers
1. (i) (c) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (a) 2. (i) (c) (ii) (b) (iii) (c) (iv) (b)
3. (a) OR (c) 4. (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (b) (iv) (a)
5. (i) (c) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (c)
1. Assertion (A) : The Government of India buys wheat and rice from farmers at fair price.
[CBSE 2020, 32/5/1]
Reason (R) : Public sector contributes to the economic development.

2. Assertion (A) : The unorganised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after.
Reason (R) : But the employment opportunities in the organised sector have been expanding
very slowly.
3. Assertion (A) : The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods
that are used in making the final good.
Reason (R) : The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular
year provides the total production of the sector for the next two years.
4. Assertion (A) : In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a state
government ministry.
Reason (R) : With the help of various government departments of all the Indian states and
union territories, the central ministry collects information relating to total
volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP.
5. Assertion (A) : Since the 1890s, it is common to see a large number of workers losing their jobs
in the organised sector.
Reason (R) : Service sector also includes some essential services they may not directly help in
the production of goods.
Answers
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d)
zzz

1
SOCIAL SCIENCE
BLUE PRINTS
PRACTICE PAPERS
OMR SHEETS
BLUE PRINT–1
(FOR PRACTICE PAPER–01)
Multiple Assertion-
Case-based Map
Choice Reason
S. No. Chapters Questions Questions Total
Questions Questions
(1 Mark) (1 mark)
(1 Mark) (1 Mark)
1. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 4(4) 4(4) 2(2) — 10(10)
2. Resources and Development — 4(4) — —
3. Water Resources — — — 2(2) 10(10)
4. Agriculture 2(2) — 2(2) —
5. Power Sharing 3(3) 4(4) 1(1) —

10(10)
6. Federalism 1(1) — 1(1) —
7. Development 3(3) 4(4) 1(1) —

10(10)
8. Sectors of the Indian Economy 1(1) — 1(1) —
Total 14(14) 16(16) 8(8) 2(2) 40(40)
BLUE PRINT–2
Multiple Assertion-
Case-based Map
Choice Reason
Questions Questions
(1 Mark) (1 mark)
(1 Mark) (1 Mark)
2. Resources and Development — 4(4) 1(1) —
3. Water Resources — — — 2(2) 10(10)
4. Agriculture 2(2) — 1(1) —
5. Power Sharing 4(4) 4(4) 1(1) —

10(10)
6. Federalism — — 1(1) —
7. Development 1(1) 4(4) 2(2) —

10(10)
8. Sectors of the Indian Economy 3(3) — — —
Total 14(14) 16(16) 8(8) 2(2) 40(40)

BLUE PRINT–3
Multiple Assertion-
Case-based Map
Choice Reason
Questions Questions
(1 Mark) (1 mark)
(1 Mark) (1 Mark)
2. Resources and Development — — 1(1) —
3. Water Resources — — — 2(2) 10(10)
4. Agriculture 2(2) 4(4) 1(1) —
5. Power Sharing 4(4) 4(4) — —

10(10)
6. Federalism — — 2(2) —
7. Development 2(2) 4(4) — —

10(10)
8. Sectors of the Indian Economy 2(2) — 2(2) —
Total 14(14) 16(16) 8(8) 2(2) 40(40)
Note: 1. Number of question(s) is/are given in the brackets.

2. Case-based and Map Questions contain Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).
3. The above Blue Print is only a sample. Suitable internal variations may be made for generating
similar Blue Prints keeping the overall weightage to different form of questions and typology of
questions same.
1 PRACTICE PAPER
Time allowed : 90 Minutes Max. marks: 40

General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) There are 40 questions in all.
(iii) This question paper contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), Case-based MCQs,
Assertion-Reason MCQs and Map Questions.
(iv) Only one of the options in every question is correct.
(v) An OMR sheet of every practice paper is given. The candidate has to give his/her answer
of the question by darkening the circle against that question.

1. What major issue was criticised against by the liberal nationalists?
(a) Censorship laws to control the press (b) Preservation of the Church
(c) A modern army (d) Efficient bureaucracy
2. Under which of the following is power shared in the ‘Community Government’ of Belgium?
[CBSE 2020, 32/4/1]
(a) Different social groups
(b) Different organs of government
(c) Central and State government
(d) State government and Community government
3. Which one of the following is not true for pulses?
(a) Pulses are grown in both rabi and kharif seasons.
(b) Pulses are leguminous crops.
(c) They are grown in rotation with other crops.
(d) Pulses require intensive irrigation facilities.
4. Which of the following is not the form of power sharing?
(a) Vertical division of power (b) Horizontal division of power
(c) Division of power between people (d) Division of power among social groups
5. What did ‘Das Volk’ stand for?
(a) Democracy (b) Factory workers (c) Slum dwellers (d) common people
(c) Every society needs some form of power sharing even if it is small or does not have social
divisions.
7. Development is sustained by the ____________.
(a) conservation of resources and the environment
Practice Papers 139

(b) conservation of the factors of production
(c) continuous increase in per capita income
(d) continuous increase in gross domestic product
8. The term ‘Universal Suffrage’ means:
(a) the right to vote and get elected, granted only to men.
(b) the right to vote for all adults.
(c) the right to vote and get elected, granted exclusively to property owning men.
(d) the right to vote and get elected, granted only to educated men and women.
9. The task of measuring GDP is undertaken by the
(a) central government (b) state government
(c) provincial government (d) all of the above
10. Which among the following is more likely to be the developmental goal of a landless labour?
(a) To be able to visit abroad frequently
(b) More days of work with better wages
(c) To send his children in one of the best school in a nearby city
(d) To be able to buy expensive clothes from the nearby market
11. Which is the right condition for the growth of maize?
(a) Temperature between 21 to 27 degrees Celsius and old alluvial soil
(b) Temperature below 17 degree Celsius and shallow black soil
12. The belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it
wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is
(a) Power sharing (b) Absolutism
(c) Majoritarianism (d) Community government
13. Which of the following is not a feature or belief of ‘Conservatism’?
(a) Conservatives believe in established, traditional institutions of state and policy.
(b) Conservatives stressed the importance of tradition and preferred gradual development to
quick change.
(c) Conservatives proposed to return to the society of pre-revolutionary days and were against
the ideas of modernisation to strengthen monarchy.
(d) Conservatives believed in the monarchy, church, and other social hierarchies.
14. How do big private companies contribute in the development of a nation?
(a) By increasing the demands for their products through advertisements.
(b) By increasing their profits.
(c) By increasing productivity of the country in the manufacturing of industrial goods.
(d) By providing private hospital facilities for the rich.
Case-based Question–I :
Read the source given below and answer the questions (15-18) that follow:
The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called the Balkans. The
Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising modern-day Romania, Bulgaria,
Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro whose
inhabitants were broadly known as the Slavs. A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the
Ottoman Empire. The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism in the Balkans together with the
disintegration of the Ottoman Empire made this region very explosive. All through the nineteenth

century the Ottoman Empire had sought to strengthen itself through modernisation and internal
reforms but with very little success. One by one, its European subject nationalities broke away from
its control and declared independence. The Balkan peoples based their claims for independence or
political rights on nationality and used history to prove that they had once been independent but had
subsequently been subjugated by foreign powers. Hence the rebellious nationalities in the Balkans
thought of their struggles as attempts to win back their long-lost independence.
15. The Ottoman Empire sought to strengthen itself through:
(a) Modernisation (b) internal reforms (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
16. The Balkan peoples based their claims for __________ or __________ on nationality.
(a) independence, political rights (b) power sharing, federalism
(c) secularism, political rights (d) modernisation, strength
17. The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area of __________.
(a) Ottoman Empire (b) Balkans (c) Greece (d) Albania
18. The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism was responsible for:
(a) disintegration of Greece
(b) Balkans disintegration from the Ottoman Empire
(c) integration of Macedonia (d) none of the above
Case-based Question–II :
Individual Resources: These are also owned privately by individuals. Many farmers own land which is
allotted to them by government against the payment of revenue.
In villages there are people with land ownership but there are many who are landless.
Urban people own plots, houses and other property. Plantation, pasture lands, ponds, water in wells etc.
are some of the examples of resources ownership by individuals.
Community owned resources: There are resources which are accessible to all the members of the
community. Village commons (grazing grounds, burial grounds, village ponds, etc.) public parks, picnic
spots, playgrounds in urban areas are de facto accessible to all the people living there.
National Resources: Technically, all the resources belong to the nation. The country has legal powers
to acquire even private property for public good. You might have seen roads, canals, railways being
constructed on fields owned by some individuals.
Urban Development Authorities get empowered by the government to acquire land.
All the minerals, water resources, forests, wildlife, land within the political boundaries and oceanic area up
to 12 nautical miles (22.2 km) from the coast termed as territorial water and resources therein belong to
the nation. International Resources: There are international institutions which regulate some resources.
The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of the Exclusive Economic Zone belong to open ocean
and no individual country can utilise these without the concurrence of international institutions.
19. The resources which are owned by the community are:
(a) plantation (b) pasture land (c) ponds (d) all the above
20. Which one of the following is an example of Biotic Resources?
21. On the basis of ownership, plantations can be better considered as which of the following
types of resources?
Practice Papers 141

22. The oceanic resources beyond 200 km of the Exclusive Economic Zone can be termed as
which of the following types of resource?
Case-based Question–III :
For comparing countries, their income is considered to be one of the most important attributes. Countries
with higher income are more developed than others with less income. This is based on the understanding
that more income means more of all things that human beings need. Whatever people like, and should
have, they will be able to get with greater income. So, greater income itself is considered to be one
important goal. Now, what is the income of a country? Intuitively, the income of the country is the income
of all the residents of the country. This gives us the total income of the country. However, for comparison
between countries, total income is not such an useful measure. Since, countries have different populations,
comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn. Are people in one country
better off than others in a different country? Hence, we compare the average income which is the total
income of the country divided by its total population. The average income is also called per capita income.
23. Per capita income is:
(a) Income per person (b) Income per family
(c) Income per earning person (d) Income per month
24. In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, which criterion is used in
Classifying countries?
(a) Total income (b) Gross income (c) per capita income (d) Net income
25. The average income is also called:
(a) Per capita profit (b) Per capita income
(c) Limited income (d) None of the above
26. What is the most important attribute while comparing countries?
(a) Their population (b) Their political status
(c) Their income (d) None of the above
Case-based Question–IV :
Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary.
Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at
the same level to exercise different powers. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise
unlimited power. Each organ checks the others. This results in a balance of power among various institutions.
We studied that in a democracy, even though ministers and government officials exercise power, they are
responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies. Similarly, although judges are appointed by the executive,
they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a
system of checks and balances.
27. Power sharing is between –
(a) legislature, executive and parliament (b) legislature, executive and judiciary
(c) legislature, high court and judiciary (d) none of the above
28. It allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers
is known as ___________.
(a) circular distribution of power (b) vertical distribution of power
(c) horizontal distribution of power (d) all the above

29. Judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws
made by the legislatures, known as _____________.
(a) horizontal distribution of power (b) checks and balances
(c) vertical distribution of power (d) all the above
30. Power sharing means –
(a) system of political arrangements in which power is shared between ministers of the
government
(b) system of political arrangements in which power is shared between different organs of the
government
(c) system of political arrangements in which power is shared between different levels of
government
(d) all the above
The following questions (31-38) consist of two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:

32. Assertion (A) : Arid soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the
eastern and southern parts of the Deccan plateau.
Reason (R) : Yellow and red soils are also found in parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh, southern

parts of the middle Ganga plain and along the piedmont zone of the Western
Ghats.
33. Assertion (A) : In Belgium, the Dutch community could take advantage of its numeric majority
and force its will on the French and German-speaking population.
Reason (R) : In Sri Lanka, the Sinhala community enjoyed an even bigger majority and

could impose its will on the entire country.
34. Assertion (A) : Money, or material things that one can buy with it, is one factor on which our
life depends.
Reason (R) : But the quality of our life does not depend on nonmaterial things.

Reason (R) : This arrangement is called a system of chess and balances.



Practice Papers 143


wet and dry season.
The following questions (39 - 40) are based on map. Answer the questions by selecting the correct
option marked on the map.
39. Select the correct name of the dam that is marked on the map.
(a) Rana Pratap Sagar (b) Bhakar Nagal

(c) Tehri (d) Salal

(a) Rana Pratap Sagar (b) Sardar Sarovar

(c) Tungabhadra (d) Tehri
zzz
Practice Papers 145

PRACTICE PAPER 2
General Instructions: Same as Practice Paper–1.

1. Which of the following revolutions is called as the first expression of ‘Nationalism’?
[CBSE 2020 (32/1/1)]
(a) French Revolution (b) Russian Revolution
(c) Glorious Revolution (d) The Revolution of the liberals
2. In dealing with power sharing, which one of the following statements is NOT correct about
democracy?
(a) People are the source of all political power.
(b) In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self-governance.
(c) In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society.
(d) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is not possible to take quick decision
and enforce them.
3. Rabi crops are-
(a) sown in winter and harvested in summers.
(b) sown during rainy season and harvested in winter.
(c) sown in summer and harvested in winter.
4. Which of the following is an example of horizontal distribution of power?
(a) Power sharing between different states
(b) Power sharing between different organs of the government
(c) Power sharing between different levels of the government
(d) Power sharing between different social groups
5. ‘Nationalism’, which emerged as a force in the late 19th century, means:
(a) strong devotion for one’s own country and its history and culture.
(b) strong devotion for one’s own country without appreciation for other nations.
(c) strong love for one’s own country and hatred for others.
(d) equally strong devotion for all the countries of the world.
6. By the 1980s several political organizations were formed demanding ________.
(a) certain rights (b) independent Tamil Eelam (State)
(c) sovereign state (d) priority in jobs for Tamils
7. Why did the secondary sector later become the most important sector?
(a) People began to use many more goods that were produced in factories at cheap rates
(b) Employment increased
(c) Agriculture declined

8. What helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain?
(a) The formation of a nation-state in Britain was the result of a sudden upheaval.
(b) In 1688, the monarchy in Britain had seized the power from English Parliament.
(c) The parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy which
gradually led to the emergence of a nation-state.
(d) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales.
9. Over the past decade or so, __________ indicators have come to be widely used along with
income as a measure of development.
(a) health and nutrition (b) health and education
(c) child development (d) human development
10. Underemployment is hidden in contrast to someone who does not have a job and is clearly
visible as unemployed. It is also called ________ .
(a) hidden employment (b) disguised unemployment
(c) unstable employment (d) less employment
11. Which of the following is not correct about plantation crop?
(a) In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area.
(b) The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.
(c) Plantation cover large tracts of land called estates.
(d) Farmers clear a patch of land by felling the trees and burning them, to produce cereals and
other food crops.
(c) Every society needs some form of power sharing even if it is small or does not have social divisions.
13. Zollevrein started in 1834 in Prussia refers to a:
(a) Trade Union (b) Customs Union (c) Labour Union (d) Farmer’s Union
14. Since the second half of the twentieth century, a number of scientists have been warning
that__________.
(a) health and nutrition is declining (b) per capita income is unstable
(c) levels of resources are not sustainable (d) levels of development are not sustainable.
From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices
that could create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. The ideas of la patrie (the
fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasised the notion of a united community enjoying equal
rights under a constitution. A new French flag, the tricolour, was chosen to replace the former royal
standard. The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National
Assembly. New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated, all in the name of
the nation. A centralised administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all
citizens within its territory. Internal customs duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of
weights and measures was adopted. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken
and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation. The revolutionaries further declared
that it was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the peoples of Europe from
despotism, in other words to help other peoples of Europe to become nations. When the news of the
events in France reached the different cities of Europe, students and other members of educated middle
classes began setting up Jacobin clubs. Their activities and campaigns prepared the way for the French
Practice Papers 147

armies which moved into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and much of Italy in the 1790s. With the
outbreak of the revolutionary wars, the French armies began to carry the idea of nationalism abroad.
15. The political and constitutional changes brought about by the French Revolution were:
(a) it ended the absolute monarchy.
(b) it transferred power to a body of the French citizens.
(c) it proclaimed that henceforth people would constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
(d) all the above.
16. The first clear expression of nationalism came with:
(a) The American Revolution (b) The French Revolution
(c) The Russian Revolution (d) The Industrial Revolution
17. The ideas of a United Community enjoying equal rights under a Constitution were expressed
by the French as:
(a) La Patrie (b) Le Citoyen (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
18. The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and it was renamed as:
(a) National Assembly (b) Body of Executives
(c) Rule of Directory (d) None of these
Resource planning is a complex process which involves: (i) identification and inventor of resources across
the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation
and measurement of the resources. (ii) evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate
technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans. (iii) Matching
the resource development plans with overall national development plans. India has made concerted
efforts for achieving the goals of resource planning right from the First Five Year Plan launched after
Independence. The availability of resources is a necessary condition for the development of any region,
but mere availability of resources in the absence of corresponding changes in technology and institutions
may hinder development. There are many regions in our country that are rich in resources but these
are included in economically backward regions. On the contrary there are some regions which have a
poor resource base but they are economically developed. The history of colonisation reveals that rich
resources in colonies were the main attractions for the foreign invaders. It was primarily the higher
level of technological development of the colonising countries that helped them to exploit resources
of other regions and establish their supremacy over the colonies. Therefore, resources can contribute
to development only when they are accompanied by appropriate technological development and
institutional changes.
India has experienced all this in different phases of colonisation. Therefore, in India, development in
general, and resource development in particular do not only involve the availability of resources, but also
the technology, quality of human resources and the historical experiences of the people.
19. From which Five Year Plan has India made concerted efforts for achieving the goals of
resource planning?
(a) First Five Year Plan (b) Fifth Five Year Plan
(c) Annual Plans (d) Tenth Five Year Plan
20. Resource planning is essential for __________ existence of all forms of life.
(a) ecological balance (b) sustainable (c) exploitation (d) None of these
21. What was main attraction of foreign invaders to India?
(a) architecture (b) resource (c) irrigation method (d) spices

22. Which of the following is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life?
(a) Resource planning (b) Resource management
(c) Resource extraction (d) Resource generation
Once it is realised that even though the level of income is important, yet it is an inadequate measure of
the level of development, we begin to think of other criterion. There could be a long list of such criterion
but then it would not be so useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things. Health
and education indicators, such as the ones we used in comparison of Kerala and Haryana, are among
them. Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along
with income as a measure of development. For instance, Human Development Report published by
UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per
capita income. It would be interesting to look at certain relevant data regarding India and its neighbours
from Human Development Report 2019.
23. HDI stands for:
(a) Heavy Developed Industry (b) Human Development Index
(c) Heavy Developed Infrastructure (d) Heavy Industries Development
24. The Human Development Report compares countries on the basis of:
(a) The educational levels of the people (b) Health status of the people
(c) Per capita income of the people (d) All the above factors
25. Which organisation publishes the Human Development Report:
(a) WHO (b) UNDP (c) WTO (d) IMF
26. Which one of the following criteria is the basis to measure the development of a country
according to UNDP?
(a) Per capita income (b) Educational levels of the people
(c) Health status of the people (d) All the above
Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and movements
control or influence those in power. In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom to choose among
various contenders for power. In contemporary democracies, this takes the form of competition among
different parties. Such competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand. In the long run,
power is shared among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups.
Sometimes this kind of sharing can be direct, when two or more parties form an alliance to contest
elections. If their alliance is elected, they form a coalition government and thus share power. In a
democracy, we find interest groups such as those of traders, businessmen, industrialists, farmers and
industrial workers. They also will have a share in governmental power, either through participation in
governmental committees or bringing influence on the decision-making process.
27. What is the meaning of coalition?
(a) one party (b) oppose (c) alliance (d) multi party
28. What does the competition amongst the political parties ensure?
(a) power remains in one hand (b) power is shared
(c) power does not remain in one hand (d) all the above
Practice Papers 149

29. None-sharing of power leads to
(a) peace among all the communities
(b) tyranny of the majority and oppression of the majority
(c) negation of the very spirit of democracy
30. What do you understand by pressure groups?
(a) organisations that attempt to oppose government policies
(b) organisations that attempt to influence government policies
(c) organisations that attempt to reject government policies
31. Assertion (A) : Money in your pocket cannot buy all the goods and services that you may need
to live well.
Reason (R) : So, income by itself is not a completely adequate indicator of material goods and

services that citizens are able to use.
32. Assertion (A) : Sri Lanka has a diverse population.
Reason (R) : The major social groups are the Sinhala-speakers (74 per cent) and the Tamil-

speakers (18 per cent).
33. Assertion (A) : The local government structure goes right up to the state level.
Reason (R) : A few gram panchayats are grouped together to form what is usually called a

panchayat samiti or block or mandal.
34. Assertion (A) : Organic farming is much in vogue today because it is practised without factory
made chemicals such as fertilisers and pesticides.
Reason (R) : Hence, it does not affect environment in a negative manner.

35. Assertion (A) : During the 1830s, Giuseppe Garibaldi had sought to put together a coherent
programme for a unitary Italian Republic.
Reason (R) : Chief Minister Cavour who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy was

neither a revolutionary nor a democratic.

37. Assertion (A) : Alluvial soils as a whole are very fertile.
Reason (R) : Mostly these soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and

lime which are ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal
and pulse crops.
38. Assertion (A) : Language, too, played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments.
Reason (R) : After Russian occupation, the Polish language was welcomed in schools and the

Russian language was forced out.

(a) Rana Pratap Sagar (b) Salal

(c) Tehri (d) Hirakund
Practice Papers 151

(a) Tungabhadra (b) Nagarjuna Sagar

(c) Hirakund (d) Tehri
zzz

3 PRACTICE PAPER

General Instructions: Same as Practice Paper–1.

1. A large part of Balkan region was under the control of:
(a) Russian empire (b) Ottoman empire
(c) German empire (d) Habsburg empire
2. What does the coalition government imply?
(a) Power-sharing between different communities
(b) Power-sharing among the different organs of the government
(c) Power-sharing by two or more political parties
(d) Power-sharing within the government at different levels
3. Choose the correctly matched pair about the agriculture in India from the following options:
(a) Rabi crops are sown – October to December
(b) Gram – paddy crops
(c) Aus, Aman and Boro – Government schemes
(d) Kissan Credit Card – Increased the production
4. Give one moral reason as why power-sharing is good?
(b) It does not lead to confusion in managing the state.
(c) People have a right to be consulted on how they are governed.
(d) Power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order.
5. The political and constitutional changes brought about by the French Revolution were –
(a) it ended the absolute monarchy
(b) it transferred power to a body of the French citizens
(c) it proclaimed that henceforth people would constitute the nation and shape its destiny
(d) all the above
6. Prudential reasons of power sharing stresses more on-
(a) reducing the possibility of conflict between various social groups.
(b) fair chance to minority.
(c) bringing stability in the political order.
(d) all the above
7. Not every good (or service) that is produced and sold needs to be counted. It makes sense
only to include the_________ to get the total production.
(a) values of goods and services in production
(b) final goods and services
(c) adding up the actual numbers of goods
(d) goods and services in the three sectors
Practice Papers 153

8. The first great revolution which gave the clear idea of nationalism with its core words:
‘Liberty, Equality and Fraternity’ was:
(a) The Russian Revolution
(b) The French Revolution
(c) The American Revolution
(d) India’s First War of Independence
9. Why does Kerala have a low infant mortality rate?
(a) Adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities
(b) Suitable climate
(c) Pollution Free environment
(d) Good water
10. What is the secondary sector?
(a) Production of a good by exploiting natural resources.
(b) Activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of
manufacturing.
(c) Activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or support for the
production process.
(d) Mineral excavation.
11. Tick the characteristics of Commercial farming.
(a) Plots of land are fragmented.
(b) Transport and communication plays an important role.
(c) The yield is usually low.
(d) The pressure of population is high on land.
12. “Power sharing is a good way to ensure stability of political order.” Which among the
following is the reason for power sharing?
(a) Moral (b) Prudential
(c) Both of the above (d) None of the above
13. Which one of the following was not a part of the concept of nation-state?
(a) Clearly defined boundary
(b) National identity based on culture and history
(c) Sovereignty
(d) Freedom from monarchy
14. What is considered to be one of the most important attributes when we compare countries at
the level of development?
(a) Industrial development
(b) Resources of the country
(c) Income
(d) Import-export
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism.
Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society – like the monarchy,
the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should be preserved. Most conservatives,
however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from
the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions
like the monarchy. It could make state power more effective and strong. A modern army, an efficient

bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic
monarchies of Europe. In 1815, representatives of the European powers – Britain, Russia, Prussia and
Austria – who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The
Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of
Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during
the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution,
was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
15. Which of the following countries did not attend the Congress of Vienna?
(a) Britain
(b) Russia
(c) Prussia
(d) Switzerland
16. Why was the treaty of Vienna (1815) drawn up?
(a) To establish tariff barriers
(b) To restore the monarchies
(d) To establish democracies
17. Who among the following was associated with the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
(a) Bismarck
(b) Duke Metternich
(c) Louis Philippe
(d) Victor Emmaunel II
18. After the Napoleon which dynasty was restored in France?
(a) Bourbon (b) Mazzini
(c) Bouborn (d) none of the above
Agriculture has been practised in India for thousands of years. Sustained uses of land without
compatible techno-institutional changes have hindered the pace of agricultural development. Inspite of
development of sources of irrigation most of the farmers in large parts of the country still depend upon
monsoon and natural fertility in order to carry on their agriculture. For a growing population, this poses
a serious challenge. Agriculture which provides livelihood for more than 60 per cent of its population,
needs some serious technical and institutional reforms. Thus, collectivisation, consolidation of holdings,
cooperation and abolition of zamindari, etc. were given priority to bring about institutional reforms
in the country after Independence. ‘Land reform’ was the main focus of our First Five Year Plan. The
‘right of inheritance’ had already led to fragmentation of land holdings necessitating consolidation of
holdings.
19. Which of the following is the most important occupation of the people of India?
(a) Food gathering (b) Agriculture
(c) Manufacturing (d) Services
20. In spite of development of irrigation , farmers still depend on ____________.
(a) artificial water resources (b) monsoon
(c) wells (d) none of the above
Practice Papers 155

21. What do you understand by the term ‘collectivisation’?
(a) Combining land of various farmers and then performing the agricultural activities on
collective basis
(b) Combining land of various farmers and then performing the agricultural activities on
individual basis
(c) Comparing land of various farmers and then performing the agricultural activities on pocket
basis
22. What was the main objective of First Five Year Plan?
(a) Land forms (b) Land degradation
(c) Land reforms (d) all the above
The product of primary activity, cotton, is a natural product. Similarly, in the case of an activity like dairy,
we are dependent on the biological process of the animals and availability of fodder etc. The product
here, milk, also is a natural product. Similarly, minerals and ores are also natural products. When we
produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector. Why primary?
This is because it forms the base for all other products that we subsequently make. Since most of the
natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry, this sector is also called agriculture
and related sector. The secondary sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into
other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step
after primary. The product is not produced by nature but has to be made and therefore some process
of manufacturing is essential. This could be in a factory, a workshop or at home. After primary and
secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under tertiary sector and is different from the
above two. These are activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors. These
activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or a support for the production
process Service sector also includes some essential services that may not directly help in the production
of goods. For example, we require teachers, doctors, and those who provide personal services such
as washermen, barbers, cobblers, lawyers, and people to do administrative and accounting works. In
recent times, certain new services based on information technology such as internet cafe, ATM booths,
call centres, software companies etc have become important.
23. Which sector converts raw materials into goods?
(a) primary sector
(b) secondary sector
(c) unorganised sector
(d) organised sector
24. Which sector includes the units producing services?
(a) primary sector
(c) tertiary sector
(d) all the above
25. Manufacturing sector is associated with
(a) primary sector
(c) tertiary sector
(d) private sector

26. Production of a commodity through exploitation of natural resources is an activity in the
(a) primary sector
(c) tertiary sector
(d) information technology sector
Power may also be shared among different social groups such as the religious and linguistic groups.
‘Community government’ in Belgium is a good example of this arrangement. In some countries
there are constitutional and legal arrangements whereby socially weaker sections and women are
represented in the legislatures and administration. Last year, we studied the system of ‘reserved
constituencies’ in assemblies and the parliament of our country. This type of arrangement is meant
to give space in the government and administration to diverse social groups who otherwise would
feel alienated from the government. This method is used to give minority communities a fair share
in power. Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups
and movements control or influence those in power. In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom
to choose among various contenders for power. In contemporary democracies, this takes the form
of competition among different parties. Such competition ensures that power does not remain in
one hand. In the long run, power is shared among different political parties that represent different
ideologies and social groups. Sometimes this kind of sharing can be direct, when two or more parties
form an alliance to contest elections.
27. Which one of the following statements about community government is true?
(a) Power is shared among different organs of the government
(b) Power is shared among governments at different levels
(c) Power is shared by different social groups
(d) Power is shared by two or more political parties
28. Power can be shared in modern democracies in the following ways:
(a) Among different organs of the government
(b) Among various levels
(c) Among different social groups
(d) All the above
29. Power sharing is good because:
(a) It increase the conflict between social groups
(b) It ensures the instability of political order
(c) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups
(d) It leads to violence
30. Which is a prudential reason for power – sharing?
(a) It reduces the possibility of conflict between communities and ensures the stability of political
order
(b) Power-sharing is the very spirit of democracy
(c) both the above
Practice Papers 157

31. Assertion (A) : Indian coffee is known in the world for its good quality.
Reason (R) : The Asian variety initially brought from Yemen is produced in the country.

32. Assertion (A) : The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods
that are used in making the final good.
Reason (R) : The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular

year provides the total production of the sector for the next two years.
33. Assertion (A) : Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one
language.
Reason (R) : Restructuring the Centre-State relations is one more way in which federalism

has been strengthened in practice.
34. Assertion (A) : In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a state
government ministry.
Reason (R) : With the help of various government departments of all the Indian states and

union territories, the central ministry collects information relating to total
volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP.

Reason (R) : This arrangement is called a system of chess and balances.


wet and dry season.


(a) Salal (b) Tungabhadra

(c) Tehri (d) Hirakund
Practice Papers 159

(a) Sardar Sarovar (b) Tungabhadra (c) Bhakra Nangal (d) Nagarjuna Sagar
Answers of Practice Paper–01

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b)
9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (a)
17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (d)
33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (a)

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c)
9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (b)
17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (d)
25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (d)
33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (d)

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b)
9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (b)
17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (c)
33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (d)
zzz

SIDE-1
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

1. Use Blue/Black Ball Point only to write on this Answer Sheet. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The candidate should check carefully that the Test Booklet Code on SIDE-2 of the ANSWER SHEET is the same
as printed on Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the
invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
3. Do not use white/correction fluid on this Answer Sheet.
4. Overwriting, Cutting and Erasing on the Answer Sheet is not allowed. Do not make any stray mark on the Answer
Sheet.
5. Rough work must not be done on this Answer Sheet. Use last page of the Test Booklet for rough work.
6. Use English Numbers/letters only to write on SIDE-2 of the Answer Sheet
7. Write Centre Number, Roll Number, Test Booklet Number (as given on top left hand side comer of the Test
Booklet) on the Answer Sheet as shown in the example.
8. Candidates should write his/her name in CAPITAL LETTERS as given in Admit Card in the space earmarked
for Candidate’s Name. Each letter should be written in one box as shown below. One box should be left blank
between each part of the name.
Candidate’s Name : RAJ KUMAR SHARMA
R A J K U M A R S H A R M A
9. (i) Darken the complete circle. A light or faintly darkened circle is liable to be rejected by the optical scanner.
(ii) Darken only one circle for response against each question. The response once marked is not liable to be
changed. More than one response indicated against a question will be deemed as incorrect response.
(iii) If the candidate does not want to attempt any question, he/she should not darken the circle against that
question.
(iv) For the purpose of evaluation, the Test Booklet Code as printed in the Answer Sheet on SIDE-2 will be
accepted as final.
(v) Way of marking: If your response for question number 3 is a, darken as shown in correct method:
EXAMPLE-HOW TO FILL SIDE-2 CORRECT METHOD

If your Centre Number is 2009, If your Text Booklet Q. No. a b c d
write as Number is 056789 03 b c d
write as
Centre Number 2 0 0 9 Test Booklet Number WRONG METHOD

Q. No. a b c d
0 5 6 7 8 9
If your Roll Number is 6101234, 03 a b d
write as
03 a b c d
Roll Number
in figures 6 1 0 1 2 3 4 03 a b c d
03 a b c d
Roll Number SIXTY ONE LAKH ONE THOUSAND TWO
in words HUNDRED THIRTY FOUR 03 a b d
SIDE - 2
ANSWER SHEET NUMBER
ANSWER SHEET
Use English Numbers/letters only. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to write in box.
Test Booklet Code Test Booklet Number

Centre Number
Roll Number
in figures
Roll Number
in words
IMPORTANT
The Candidate should check that the Test Booklet Code printed on the Answer Sheet is the same as
printed on the Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter
to the invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
Candidate's Name in CAPITAL letters as given in Admit Card
Darken only one circle for each question.
Q. No. Response Q. No. Response Q. No. Response

a b c d a b c d a b c d
01 a b c d 15 a b c d 29 a b c d
02 a b c d 16 a b c d 30 a b c d
03 a b c d 17 a b c d 31 a b c d
04 a b c d 18 a b c d 32 a b c d
05 a b c d 19 a b c d 33 a b c d
06 a b c d 20 a b c d 34 a b c d
07 a b c d 21 a b c d 35 a b c d
08 a b c d 22 a b c d 36 a b c d
09 a b c d 23 a b c d 37 a b c d
10 a b c d 24 a b c d 38 a b c d
11 a b c d 25 a b c d 39 a b c d
12 a b c d 26 a b c d 40 a b c d
13 a b c d 27 a b c d
14 a b c d 28 a b c d
Signature of Candidate (in running hand) Signature of Invigilator
Before handing over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator, the candidate should check that Centre Number,
Roll Number, Test Booklet Number and Candidate’s Name have been filled in correctly.
SIDE-1

Sheet.
question.
accepted as final.

write as

Q. No. a b c d
0 5 6 7 8 9
write as
03 a b c d
Roll Number
in figures 6 1 0 1 2 3 4 03 a b c d
03 a b c d
SIDE - 2
ANSWER SHEET NUMBER
ANSWER SHEET

Centre Number
Roll Number
in figures
Roll Number
in words
IMPORTANT

01 a b c d 15 a b c d 29 a b c d
02 a b c d 16 a b c d 30 a b c d
03 a b c d 17 a b c d 31 a b c d
04 a b c d 18 a b c d 32 a b c d
05 a b c d 19 a b c d 33 a b c d
06 a b c d 20 a b c d 34 a b c d
07 a b c d 21 a b c d 35 a b c d
08 a b c d 22 a b c d 36 a b c d
09 a b c d 23 a b c d 37 a b c d
10 a b c d 24 a b c d 38 a b c d
11 a b c d 25 a b c d 39 a b c d
12 a b c d 26 a b c d 40 a b c d
13 a b c d 27 a b c d
14 a b c d 28 a b c d
SIDE-1

Sheet.
question.
accepted as final.

write as

Q. No. a b c d
0 5 6 7 8 9
write as
03 a b c d
Roll Number
in figures 6 1 0 1 2 3 4 03 a b c d
03 a b c d
SIDE - 2
ANSWER SHEET NUMBER
ANSWER SHEET

Centre Number
Roll Number
in figures
Roll Number
in words
IMPORTANT

01 a b c d 15 a b c d 29 a b c d
02 a b c d 16 a b c d 30 a b c d
03 a b c d 17 a b c d 31 a b c d
04 a b c d 18 a b c d 32 a b c d
05 a b c d 19 a b c d 33 a b c d
06 a b c d 20 a b c d 34 a b c d
07 a b c d 21 a b c d 35 a b c d
08 a b c d 22 a b c d 36 a b c d
09 a b c d 23 a b c d 37 a b c d
10 a b c d 24 a b c d 38 a b c d
11 a b c d 25 a b c d 39 a b c d
12 a b c d 26 a b c d 40 a b c d
13 a b c d 27 a b c d
14 a b c d 28 a b c d

Xam Idea Social Science Standard Class 10 Term 1 MCQ

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SOCIAL SCIENCE

Class-X (2021-22) Term-1

Time: 90 minutes Max Marks: 40

No. of Periods Marks

Unit–I India and the Contemporary World – I 12 10

Unit–II Contemporary India – I 16 10

Unit-III Democratic Politics – I 14 10

Themes Learning Objectives

List of Map Tems

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

BASIC CONCEPTS – A FLOW CHART

CHANGES DURING THE 1789

Ruler of France Became the ﬁrst Napoleonic Code

Simpliﬁcation of Right to Abolishment of all Equality before law

Removed Abolishment of There was improvement

History: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 5

GERMANY REVOLUTION OF THE LIBERALS (1848)

The uniﬁcation of Germany Currency, banking, legal and judicial

UNIFICATION OF ITALY (1859–1870)

Mid 19th Century Around 1830s Sardinia – 1859 1861

North was ruled by Failure of revolutionary

6 Social Science–X: Term–1

Germania wears a crown of Germania became In red cap, the tricolor

British Nation was formed – After the failed revolution led by

History: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 7

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

8 Social Science–X: Term–1

History: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 9

10 Social Science–X: Term–1

History: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 11

12 Social Science–X: Term–1

History: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 13

14 Social Science–X: Term–1

History: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 15

16 Social Science–X: Term–1

History: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 17

18 Social Science–X: Term–1

History: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 19

20 Social Science–X: Term–1

History: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 21

22 Social Science–X: Term–1

BASIC CONCEPTS – A FLOW CHART

Geography: Resources and Development 23

Individual Community National International

ON THE BASIS OF STATUS OF DEVELOPMENT

Potential Developed Stock Reserves

Accumulation of resources in few hands dividing the society in

Rajasthan has abundance

Adopted Agenda 21 to achieve global sustainable development

24 Social Science–X: Term–1

A complex process involving Conservation of

(ii) Evolving a planning structure Irrational consumption and

Five year plans launched after independence

Indian resource development depends on

Importance of Land Relief Features Land Utilisation

Perform all economic Variety of relief features in Forests

Land not available for

Possesses rich resources in

Geography: Resources and Development 25

Land use Pattern of Land Conservation of

Overgrazing and over

Mineral processing like

Proper discharge and disposal

has higher concentration has less concentration of