Test ID : 754

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.CUMULATIVE TEST - 4)
Std : XII (S.B - NEET) Max. Marks: 480
Test Date : 04.10.2021 Time : 2 Hrs.
Note :
For every correct answer four marks will be awarded. For every wrong answer one mark
will be reduced. For unanswered questions zero mark.
Choose the correct answer : 120 x 4 = 480
1. A short bar magnet is placed with it’s axis at 1) crowded in material
o
30 with a uniform external magnetic field of 2) sparse in material
0.25 T experiences a torque of magnitude 3) expelled completely
-2
equal to 4.5 x 10 J. Then the magnitude of 4) same as outside of the material
magnetic moment of magnet is 6. The permanent magnets must have
-2 2 -2 2
1) 18 x 10 Am 2) 36 x 10 Am 1) high retentivity and high coercivity
36 18 2) high retentivity and low coercivity
3) x10 2 Am 2 4) x10 2 Am 2
3 3 3) low retentivity and low coercivity
2. A closely wound solenoid of 800 turns and 4) low retentivity and high coercivity
-4 2
area of cross sections 2.5 x 10 m carries a 7. The angle between magnetic equator and
current of 3.0 A. It’s associated magnetic geographic equator approximately is
moment is 1) 4o 2) 8o
1) 0.6 Am2 2) 0.3 Am2 3) 11.3o 4) 9.8o
3) 0.9 Am2 4) 0.45 Am2 8. Statement A : The domain structure of
3. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.5 J/T lies ferromagnetism disintegrates with
aligned with the direction of uniform magnetic temperature.
field of 0.22 T. The workdone by an external Statement B : The disappearance of
agency to turn the magnet so as to align it’s magnetization with temperature is gradual.
moment opposite to the field direction. 1) statement A is true, statement B is false
1) zero 2) 0.44 J 2) both statements A and B are true
3) 0.33 J 4) 0.66 J 3) statement A is false, statement B is true
4. The relative permeability of a magnetic 4) Both statements A and B are false
material is 499. Then its susceptibility is 9. Neutral points are obtained at a distance 10 cm

1) 500 2) 498 from a short magnet on it’s equatorial line if

the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic
3) 501 4) 503
field is 4 x 10-5 Wb/m2, moment of the magnet
5. Field lines in case of perfect diamagnetism of
A-m2 is
a material are
 2 Test ID : 754
1) 0.2 2) 0.4 16. According to Faraday’s law, the total charge
3) 0.8 4) 1.0 passed through the cross-section of the
10. Two magnets have their lengths in the ratio conductor in a closed loop in a uniform
2 : 3 and pole strengths in the ratio 3 : 4. The magnetic field depends upon
ratio of magnetic moments is 1) initial magnetic flux
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 1 2) final magnetic flux
3) 9 : 8 4) 8 : 9 3) rate of change of magnetic flux
11. Two like poles of strengths 10 A-m and 90 4) change of magnetic flux
A-m are separated by a distance of 20 cm. The 17. A cylindrical bar magnet is kept along the axis
distance of the neutral point from the smaller
of a circular coil. If the magnet is rotated
pole is
about it’s axis, then
1) 10 cm 2) 15 cm
1) a current will be induced but emf is zero
3) 5 cm 4) 4 cm
2) emf will be induced but current is zero
12. Two bar magnets with magnetic moments M
3) an emf and a current both will be induced in
and 3 M are rigidly fixed to form a ‘+’.
the coil
They are free to rotate in the horizontal plane
4) both emf and current are zero
about their common point. In the equilibrium
18. A rod of an insulator of length L moves
position, the angle made by the weaker
magnet with the magnetic meridian is uniformly with a velocity ‘v’ in a uniform
magnetic field of induction B being
1) 75o 2) 30o
perpendicular to V and also perpendicular to
3) 60o 4) 45o
the length L. The induce emf between the two
13. A 0.5 m long metallic rod is rotated with an
ends of the rod is
angular velocity of 200 rad/s about axis
normal to the rod passing through one of it’s 1) zero 2) BVL
ends. A constant uniform magnetic field of 0.5 1
3) B2V2L2 4)
T parallel to the axis is exist everywhere. The BVL
emf developed between the ends of the rod is 19. A straight conductor of length 1 m is held
1) 37.5 volt 2) 6.25 volt horizontally along East-west direction and is
3) 12.5 volt 4) 25 volt allowed to fall freely. BH = 4 x 10-5 T. The
14. A coil having 500 square loops each of side 10 potential difference developed between the
cm is placed normal to the magnetic field ends of the conductor at the instant t = 2
which increases at a rate of 1 T/s. The induced seconds is (g = 10 m/s2)
emf in volts is 1) 1.6 mV 2) 0.8 mV
1) 0.1 2) 0.5 3) 0.4 mV 4) 0.2 mV
3) 5 4) 1 20. A cylindrical magnetic field has radius 0.2 m
15. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of and field strength is increasing at a constant
conservation of rate of 2 T/s. A circular wire of radius 0.5 m
1) mass 2) charge and 1  resistance has common centre. This
3) momentum 4) energy wire is perpendicular to the field. The current
through the loop of wire is
 3 Test ID : 754
2
1) 80  mA 2) 40  mA 25. A coil of mean area 500 cm having 4000
3) 20  mA 4) 60  mA turns is held perpendicular to a uniform
21. If the current has to flow as shown in the magnetic field of 2 x 10-5T. The coil is turned
figure, the way that the conductor is to be through 180o about its diameter in 0.1 seconds.
moved in the magnetic field is parallel to itself If the resistance of the coil is 10 , then the
charge induced passing through the coil is
A
1) 80 C 2) 800 C
N S
3) 8 C 4) 0.8 C
B 26. A bar magnet is held with its axis vertical and
then dropped into a horizontal stationary
1) from N to S 2) from S to N
copper ring. It’s acceleration of fall is
3) into the paper 4) out of the paper
1) greater than g
22. Two identical co-axial circular loops carry a
2) less than g
current I each, circulating in the same
direction. If the loops approach each other, 3) same as g
you will observe that 4) sometimes more and sometimes less than
1) the current in each loop increases ‘g’.
2) the current in each loop decreases 27. A paramagnetic material of magnetic
3) the current in each loop remains the same susceptibility 2 x 10-5 is placed in magnetic
4) the current in one increases where as that in field of 0.1 x 10-4 A/m. The intensity of
other decreases magnetization of material in unit A/m is
23. Flux  in weber linked with a closed circuit of 1) 5 x 10-8 2) 2 x 10-10
resistance 10  varies with time ‘t’ (in sec) 3) 3 x 10-10 4) 4 x 10-10
according to the equation  = 6t2 – 5t + 1. 28. The angle of dip at a place where the
Magnitude of induced current at t = 0.25 horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
seconds is is equal to it’s vertical component?
1) 1.2 A 2) 0.8 A 1) 0o 2) 30o
3) 0.6 A 4) 0.2 A 3) 90o 4) 45o
24. A thin semicircular ring of radius R is falling 29. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar
with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic magnet.
field of induction B. At the position MNQ the 1) do not exist
speed of ring is ‘v’. The potential difference 2) depends on the area of cross-section
across the ring is
3) are from N-pole to S-pole of the magnet
4) are from S-pole to N-pole of the magnet
30. The period of oscillations of a magnet at a
place is 6 seconds. When it is remagnetized so
1) zero that the pole strength becomes 4 times, the
time period will be
2) RBV and Q is at higher potential
1) 1 sec 2) 2 sec
BVR 2
3) and M is at higher potential 3) 4 sec 4) 3 sec
2
4) 2RBV and Q is at higher potential
 4 Test ID : 754
31. Which of the following is nearly 100% ionised 36. Match the following
at any dilution? Column – I Column – II
1) 1M CH3COOH 2) 1M HCN E
A) Faraday’s first law P)
3) 1M NaCl 4) NH4OH 96500
32. The degree of dissociation of an electrolyte in Electro chemical W1 W2
B) equivalent Q) 
aqueous solution depends on E1 E 2
A) Temperature C) Faraday’s 2nd law R) S.H.E
B) Concentration of the electrolyte +
D) Pt, H2(1 atm)/H (1M) S) W = ZQ
C) Nature of the electrolyte 1) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
1) only A 2) only A, B 2) A-S, B-Q, C-R, D-P
3) only B, C 4) A, B, C 3) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R
33. A solution of concentration ‘C’ g 4) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
equivalent/litre has a specific resistance ‘R’.
37. Number of electrons delivered at the cathode
The equivalent conductance of the solution is
during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in
R C 60 seconds is
1) 2)
C R
(Given charge of electron = 1.6  10-19 C)
1000 1000R
3) 4) 1) 6 x 1023 2) 6 x 1020
RC C
3) 3.75 x 1020 4) 7.5 x 1023
34. A graph is drawn between the m values and
38. How many coulomb’s of electricity are
concentrations of an electrolyte. Which of the
required for the reduction of 1 mol of MnO4-
following electrolyte will respond to the graph
to Mn+2?
given?
1) 96500 C 2) 1.93 x 105 C
3) 4.83 x 105 C 4) 9.65 x 106 C
39. Molar conductivity of a solution is 1.26 x 102
m
ohm-1 cm2 mol-1. Its molarity is 0.01M. Its
specific conductance in ohm-1 cm-1 will be
1) 1.26 x 10-5 2) 1.26 x 10-3
C1/2
3) 1.26 x 10-4 4) 1.26 x 10-2
1) KCl 2) BaCl2
3) H2SO4 4) CH3COOH
40. The limiting molar conductivities  
0
for
NaCl, KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and 150 S
35. According to Kohlrausch’s law, the limiting
value of molar conductivity of an electrolyte cm2 mol-1 respectively. The  0 NaBr is
A2B is 1) 128 S cm2 mol-1 2) 302 S cm2 mol-1
1 0 3) 278 S cm2 mol-1 4) 176 S cm2 mol-1
1)  0A   0B2 2)     0B2
2 A 41. The resistance of 0.01N solution of an
1 electrolyte AB at 298K is 100 ohm. The
3) 2 0A   0B2 4) 2 0A   0B2
2 specific conductance of solution is (Cell
constant = 1 cm-1)
 5 Test ID : 754
1) 100 ohm 48. For the cell
-2 -1
2) 10 ohm Tl / Tl+ (0.001M) || Cu+2 (0.1M) / Cu
3) 10-2 ohm-1 cm-1 Ecell can be increased by
2
4) 10 ohm cm a) decreasing [Cu+2] b) decreasing [Tl+]
42. Standard reduction potential of three metals A, c) increasing [Cu+2] d) increasing [Tl+]
B and C are respectively +0.05V and -3.0V 1) a and b 2) b and d
and -1.2V. The reducing powers of 3) a and c 4) b and c
1) B > C > A 2) A > B > C 49. The potential of a hydrogen electrode at
3) C > B > A 4) A > C > B pH = 1 is
43. The corrosion of iron object is favoured by 1) 0.059 V 2) 0 V
+
1) presence of H ions 3) -0.059 V 4) 0.59 V
2) presence of moisture 50. The e.m.f of the following galvanic cells
3) presence of impurities a) Zn/Zn+2 (1M) || Cu+2 (1M) / Cu
4) all of the above b) Zn/Zn+2 (0.1M) || Cu+2 (1M) / Cu
44. Which of the following solution of NaCl has c) Zn/Zn+2 (1M) || Cu+2 (0.1M) / Cu
the higher specific conductance? d) Zn/Zn+2 (0.1M) || Cu+2 (0.1M) / Cu
1) 0.001N 2) 0.01N are represented by E1, E2, E3 and E4
3) 0.1N 4) 1N respectively. Which of the statement is true?
45. EMF of the cell reaction 1) E1 > E2 > E3 > E4
2Ag +
(aq) + Cu(s)  2Ag(s) + Cu +2
(aq) is 0.46V 2) E3 > E2 > E1 > E4
0 0
If E Cu 2 /Cu
is 0.34V and E Ag  / Ag
is 3) E3 > E1 = E4 > E2
4) E2 > E1 = E4 > E3
1) 0.12V 2) 0.80V
51. The standard EMF of the following cell
3) 0.40V 4) 1.60V
Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq)  Zn+2(aq) + Cu(s) is 1.1 V.
46. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make
salt bridge because Calculate change in Gibb’s free energy.
1) velocity of K+ is greater than that of NO3- 1) -212.3 kJ 2) 212.3 kJ
2) velocity of NO3- is greater than that of K+ 3) 106.15 kJ 4) -106.15 kJ
0
3) velocity of both K+ and NO3- are nearly the 52. If E cell for a given reaction is negative value,
same then which of the following gives the correct
4) KNO3 is highly soluble in water relationships for the values of G° and Kc?
47. For the following cell Zn/Zn+2||Cd2+/Cd 1) G° > 0, Kc < 1 2) G° > 0, Kc > 1
Ecell = 0.30V, E 0
cell = 0.36V, then value of 3) G° < 0, Kc > 1 4) G° < 0, Kc < 1
 Cd 2  53. Metal is used in a galvanization of iron is
is 1) Ag 2) Cu
 Zn 2 
3) Zn 4) Pb
1) 10 2) 0.01
3) 0.1 4) 100
 6 Test ID : 754
54. A device that converts energy of combustion 1) 1F 2) 6F
of fuels like hydrogen and methane directly 3) 3F 4) 2F
into electrical energy is known as 61. Four different types of gametes are produced
1) Electrolytic cell 2) Dynamo in equal proportion from the dihybrid
3) Ni-Cd cell 4) Fuel cell individual due to
55. An aqueous solution of Na2SO4 is electrolysed 1) Linked genes
using Pt electrodes. The products at the 2) Polygenes
cathode and anode are respectively 3) Completely linked genes
1) H2, SO2 2) O2, NaOH 4) Unlinked genes
3) H2, O2 4) O2, SO2 62. Which of the following is suitable for
56. Which of the following is used as electrolyte experiment on linkage at parental generation?
in lead storage battery? 1) aaBB x aaaBB 2) AABB x aabb
1) Paste of NH4Cl and ZnCl2 3) AaBb x AaBb 4) AAbb x AaBB
2) Paste of HgO with KOH 63. Dihybrid test cross ratio with 82% parental
3) 38% of dilute H2SO4 solution type and 18% recombinants type shows that
genes have
4) conc. KOH (or) NaOH solution
1) complete linkage
57. Which of the following relationship is correct?
2) incomplete linkage
1) pH of hydrogen electrode
3) independent assortment
= Electrode potential x 0.0591 at 298 K
4) double crossing over
0.0591
2) Ecell = log K c 64. Dihybrid test cross F2 genotypic ratio for two
n completely linked genes will be
3) cell constant = conductivity / conductance 1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 2) 1 : 7 : 7 : 1
4) G° = nFE° 3) 7 : 1 : 1 : 7 4) 1 : 1
58. An electrochemical cell can behave like an 65. If gene frequency between genes a and c is 2%
electrolytic cell when b and c 14%, b and d is 4%, a and b is 16%
1) Ecell = 0 2) Ecell > Eext and a and d is 20%. What will be the sequence
3) Ecell < Eext 4) Ecell = Eext of these genes in a chromosome?
59. Given : E 0
 0.54V ; E 0 Br /Br   1.09V ; 1) a, b, c, d 2) a, c, b, d
I 2 / I 2
3) d, b, a, c 4) a, d, b, c
E 0
Fe 2 /Fe
 0.44V 66. Which of the following is called cinderella of
Which of the following reactions is non- animal genetics?
spontaneous? 1) Fruitfly 2) Housefly
1) Fe(s) + I2  Fe2+ + 2I- 3) Neurospora 4) Dragonfly
2) Br2 + 2I  2Br + I2- -
67. Genetic maps were first prepared by
3) Fe(s) + Br2  Fe + 2Br 2+ -
1) Sutton and Boveri
4) I2 + 2Br-  2I- + Br2 2) Bateson and Punnet
60. The quantity of charge required to obtain one 3) Morgan
mole of aluminium from Al2O3 is 4) Sturtevant
 7 Test ID : 754
68. Though linkage was known at the time of 1) 46 2) 23
Mendel, then which of the following laws, he 3) 24 4) 22
would not have been able to explain? 73. Match the List – I and List – II correctly
1) law of dominance
List – I List – II
2) law of segregation
A) T.H. Morgan I) Sweet pea
3) law of purity of gametes
B) Bateson and II) Drosophila
4) law of independent assortment
punnet
69. A and B figures represents
C) Mendel III) Independent
assortment
D) Sutton and IV) Chromosomal
Boveri theory of
1) Distance between genes w and m has
inheritance
37.2cM recombinants
1) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
2) Linkage between w and m is lower than Y
and W 2) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II
3) It represents the parental percentage as 3) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
62.8% 4) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV
4) All the above traits are correct 74. Choose the correct option w.r.t linkage in
70. Which of the following traits were selected by Morgan crosses
Morgan for his linkage and recombination 1) The strength of linkage between Y and W is
experiments lower than W and m
1) Yellow bodied and white eyed females 2) The strength of linkage between Y and W
2) Brown bodied and red – eyed males is higher than W and m
3) White – eyed and miniature wings 3) The strength of linkage is directly
proportional to distance between the genes
4) All of the above
on chromosomes
71. Statement – I : The physical association of a
4) If some genes were tightly linked exhibits
genes on chromosome is called linkage.
more recombination
Statement – II : According to Morgan and his
75. Match the following lists correctly
Co-workers, recombination frequency is
always greater than 50% List – I List – II
1) Both the statements are correct A)  x 174 I) 4.6 x 106 bp
2) Both the statements are incorrect bacteriophage
3) Statement – I is correct, Statement – II is B)  - II) 5386nucleotides
incorrect bacteriophage
4) Statement – I is incorrect, Statement – II is C) E.coli III) 3.3 x 109 bp
correct
D) Human genome IV) 48502 bp
72. The number of linkage groups present in
human males is
 8 Test ID : 754
1) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II 80. Given whole processes of the following
2) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III pathway represents?
3) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
4) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV
76. The backbone molecules of polynucleotide 1) Reverse central dogma of molecular
chain are biology
1) nitrogenbase and sugar 2) Central dogma of molecular biology
2) nitrogenbase and phosphate 3) Autocatalysis of DNA
3) sugar and phosphate
4) All of the above
4) two nitrogen bases bonded by hydrogen
81. Which of the following is incorrect with
bonds
reference to nucleosome model?
77. The most important hallmark feature identified
1) The histone octamer has eight histone
by watson and crick in their B - DNA structure
is proteins
1) Esterbond formation between sugar and 2) A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of
phosphate DNA helix
2) Glycosidic bond formation between sugar 3) H1 protein is associated with histone
and nitrogen base octamer
3) Base pairing between the two strands of 4) The length of the super helix of dsDNA of
polynucleotide chains each nucleosome is 680A
4) Formation of hydrogen bonds between
82. The genetic material of DNA was finally
purines and pyrimidines
confirmed by
78. The minimum and maximum number of
1) Watson and Crick
hydrogen bonds formed in between one
complete turn of dsDNA helix is 2) Meselson and Stahl
1) 20 - 25 3) Hershey and Chase
2) 20 - 30 4) Griffith
3) 30 - 40 83. Which of the following properties must full
4) 25 - 30 filled when a molecule is acting as genetic
79. The unique property to the ds polynucleotide material?
chains is the presence of 1) it should be able to generate its replica
1) base pairing between monocyclic and 2) it should maintain chemical and structural
dicyclic ringed molecules stability
2) base pairing between dicyclic and dicyclic
3) it should provide the scope for mutation
ringed molecules
and also should be able to express itself in
3) formation of phosphodiester bonding
the form of Mendelian characters
between sugar and phosphate
4) All of the above
4) all of the above
 9 Test ID : 754
84. DNA replication occurs by 90. Which one of the following correctly
1) Semi conservative method represents Chargaff rule?
2) Semi discontinuous method AG AT
1) 1 2) 1
3) Conservative method CT G C
4) Both (1) and (2) AG
3) 1 4) Both (1) and (2)
85. When dsDNA undergoing replication, 5 CT
okazaki fragments are formed at one ori. The 91. In which one of the following options the two
total number of primers required to complete examples are correctly matched with their
the replication process is particular type of immunity?
1) 11 2) 12 Example Type of immunity
3) 22 4) 10 1) Interferons, NK cells Cellular barrier
86. The ratio of different types of genotypes of 2) PMNL (neutrophils), Physical barrier
double homozygotes and double heterozygotes mucus
in Mendel’s dihybrid cross respectively is 3) Anti-tetanus injection, Passive immunity
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 colostrum
3) 4 : 1 4) 2 : 1 4) HCl in the stomach, Physical barrier
87. The number of monohybrids present in skin
Mendel’s dihybrid cross is 92. Match the following and select the correct
1) 4 2) 8 option.
3) 12 4) 16 Column - I Column - II
88. The fraction of yellow colour progeny present A. Typhoid i) Fungal disease
in Mendel’s dihybrid cross is B. Malaria ii) Protozoan disease
8 9 C. Ringworm iii) Helminthic disease
1) 2)
16 16
D. Elephantiasis iv) Bacterial disease
12 4
3) 4) 1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
16 16
2) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i
89. Which of the following is incorrect?
3) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
1) ABO blood group of human is controlled 4) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii
by I gene with two alleles
93. How many of the following are bacterial
2) The fraction of double heterozygotes in diseases?
4 Typhoid, Pneumonia, Dysentery, Plague,
Mendel’s dihybrid cross is
16 Diphtheria, Ascariasis, Amoebiasis
3) With reference to starch grain size is 1) 5 2) 4
considered as the phenotype, the alleles 3) 3 4) 2
shows incomplete dominance 94. Hepatitis-B vaccine is produced from ____
4) In a dihybrid cross, the percentage of 1) bacteria 2) E.coli
Mendelian recombinants is 37.5% 3) yeast 4) protozoa
 10 Test ID : 754
95. Statement-I: Plasmodium sexual stages 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
(gametocytes) develop in red blood cells of 2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
infected humans. 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
Statement-II: Plasmodium parasites reproduce correct
sexually in RBC, bursting the RBCs and 4) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
causing fever in infected humans. incorrect
1) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is 99. In the given diagram the A and B
correct respectively?
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
incorrect
3) Both Statements I and II are correct
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
96. Which one of the following is not the
treatment of cancer?
1) Radiography
2) Chemotherapy
3) Surgery
4) Immunotherapy 1) C and N
97. Match the following columns and select the 2) N and C
correct option.
3) Ag binding site and N
Column - I Column - II 4) N and Ag binding site
A. Normal cells i) Show contact inhibition 100. Dengue and chikungunya spread by

ii) Do not show contact 1) female Anopheles mosquitoes

B. Cancers cells
inhibition 2) female Culex mosquitoes
iii) Show metastasis 3) houseflies
iv) Growth and 4) Aedes mosquitoes
differentiation is highly 101. Which acts as a filter of the blood by trapping

controlled blood-borne micro-organisms?

1) Lymph node 2) Tonsil
1) A - i and iv, B - ii and iii
3) Spleen 4) Liver
2) A - i and iii, B - ii and iv
102. AIDS was first reported in
3) A - i, iii and iv, B - ii only
1) 1981 2) 1971
4) A - ii only, B - i, iii and iv
3) 1891 4) 1918
98. Statement-I: Non- ionizing radiations like
103. Which of the following are quickly reduce the
UV-rays and ionizing radiations like X-ray
symptoms of allergy?
and gamma rays cause DNA damage leading
to neoplastic transformation. 1) Histamine, adrenalin and steroids
Statement-II: Cancer causing viruses called 2) Histamine, adrenalin and antisteroids
oncogenic viruses have genes called cellular 3) Adrenalin, steroids and anti-histamine
oncogenes. 4) Nor adrenalin, histamine and steroids
 11 Test ID : 754
104. Select the incorrect statement. 109. Which one of the following is responsible for
1) Sometimes due to genetic and other the graft rejection?
unknown reasons the body attacks self cells. 1) HI
This is known as auto immune disease 2) CMI
2) The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by 3) B- cells
mother during the initial days of lactation 4) Antibody mediated immunity
has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the 110. Statement-I: Either natural infection or
foetus injecting the microbes deliberately during
3) MALT constitutes about 50% of the immunization induce active immunity.
lymphoid tissue in human body Statement-II: Either natural entry or artificial
4) Bone - marrow and thymus provide micro entry of antibodies induce passive immunity.
environments for the development and 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
maturation of T-lymphocytes 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
105. Which one of the following produce incorrect
antibodies? 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
1) T-lymphocytes correct
2) B- lymphocytes 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
3) NK cells 111. Arrange the following according to
4) Interferons mechanism of HIV in humans.
106. Which is the major cause of death among non- A. Viral DNA gets incorporated into host
infectious diseases? cell’s DNA.
1) Corona 2) AIDS B. Viral RNA is introduced into cell
3) Cancer 4) Plague (macrophages)
107. Select the correct statement. C. RNA genome of the virus replicates to
1) The eggs of the parasite (Ascaris) are form viral DNA with the help of the
excreted along with the faeces of non- enzyme reverse transcriptase.
infected persons which contaminate water D. The infected cells produce new viruses.
2) Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, 1) C - A - B - D
anaemia and blockage of the intestinal 2) B - C - A - D
passage are the symptoms of filariasis 3) C - A - D - B
3) Microsporum, Trichophyton and 4) B - C - D - A
Epidermophyton species are responsible for 112. A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is
ringworms 1) Western blotting 2) ELISA
4) Drinking water and food contaminated by 3) Southern blotting 4) Widal
faecal matter are the main source of 113. Which of the following is not related to
amoebiasis infection AIDS?
108. Which of the following mediate CMI?
1) Deficiency of immune system
1) T - lymphocytes 2) Congenital disease
2) B - lymphocytes
3) Not a congenital disease
3) both 1 and 2 4) Anti-retroviral drugs
4) Lysozyme
 12 Test ID : 754
114. Which uses strong magnetic fields and non- 118. The lobed organ located near the heart and
ionizing radiations to accurately detect beneath the sternum is a
pathological and physiological changes in the 1) thyroid 2) thymus
living tissue? 3) lymph node 4) spleen
1) Antibodies 119. What is the total number of ssRNA in the
2) MRI HIV?
3) Computed tomography 1) 1 2) 2
4) X-ray 3) 3 4) 4
115. Which of the following activate the immune 120. Which of the following is/are not involved in
system and help in destroying the tumor? prevention of AIDS?
1) α - interferons 2) carcinogens 1) NACO
3) proto oncogenes 4) oncogenes 2) NGOs
116. Rheumatoid arthritis is a/an ___ disease. 3) Medical fraternity
1) allergy 2) auto - immune 4) Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay
3) immuno deficiency 4) hypersensitive
117. Where do immature lymphocytes differentiate
into antigen - sensitive lymphocytes?
1) Bone marrow only 2) Thymus only
3) Spleen only 4) both 1 and 2

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