Bo de Thi Thu THPT Mon Tieng Anh Nam 2018 Co Dap An 1

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ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 01

KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. tiny B. island C. river D. wind
Question 2: A. removed B. washed C. hoped D. missed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. escape B. before C. enough D. welfare
Question 4: A. determine B. encounter C. consonant D. disaster
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: You mustn’t have seen Linda , for she has left for Australia for almost 2 months.
A. mustn’t have seen B. for C. for D. almost
Question 6: It was the invention of the assembly line instead than the increase in the average pay
of workers that allowed automobiles to be purchased by so many in the early years of the
twentieth century.
A. instead B. purchased C. so D. twentieth century
Question 7: For thousands of years, man has created sweet–smelling substances from wood,
herbs, and flowers and using them for perfume or medicine.
A. man B. sweet–smelling C. using them D. or
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 8: If you have an old blanket, it along so that we have something to sit on at
the beach.
A. bring B. go C. put D. keep
Question 9: Measures must be taken to stop nuclear waste being at sea.
A. dropped B. left C. dumped D. stored
Question 10: The water park we went to yesterday was fantastic, but the entrance was
a bit expensive.
A. fare B. cost C. expense D. fee
Question 11: The couple were finally by the landlord after not paying rent for six
months.
A. demolished B. evicted C. rejected D. evacuated
Question 12: I couldn’t believe it when Marcy accused me of in her relationship with
Joe.
A. intervening B. interacting C. interfering D. intercepting
Question 13: Do you believe in that old about not walking under a ledder?
A. curse B. misfortune C. uncertainty D. superstition
Question 14: My brother together with my parents going to meet my relatives at the
airport this afternoon.
A. are B. were C. is D. was
Question 15: If I had attended the party last night, I able to go to work today.
A. won’t be B. am not C. wouldn’t have been D. wouldn’t be
Question 16: The food being cooked in the kitchen was giving a wonderful smell.
A. up B. off C. round D. over
Question 17: Her parents insisted that she until she her degree.
A. stayed / finished B. would stay / finished
C. stayed / had finished D. stay / finished
Question 18: Computers make it for people to store information and perform their
work.
A. easily B. much easier C. much more easily D. at ease
Question 19: I'm going to an interview. I hope I’ll get the job. Please for me.
A. keep your fingers B. hold your fingers crossed
C. hold your fingers D. keep your fingers crossed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Tom: “I won the gold medal in the race.” You: “ ”
A. Cheers! All the best. B. That’s all right. Don’t mention it.
C. Well done! I knew you could do it. D. Good luck! Better luck next time.
Question 21: Tom: “ the film we watched last night?” Mary: “It is very interesting.”
A. How do you think of B. What is your opinion about
C. How about your thoughts on D. What about your feelings with
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.
Question 22: Developments in micro–technology– computers and telecommunication are bound
to have a huge influence on various aspects of our lives.
A. rarely B. somehow C. uncertain D. likely
Question 23: The kidneys play a vital role in maintaining health by removing impurities from
the bloodstream.
A. viable B. vivid C. trivial D. essential
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Before the match, the team has been stretching to prevent injury.
A. Conversely B. In advance C. Beginning with D. Prior to
Question 25: The newspaper reporters bear out what the Minister told yesterday.
A. define B. confirm C. support D. complain
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: I will take up golf this year.
A. I will begin to play golf this year. B. I will build a golf court this year.
C. I will enter a golf competition this year. D. I will stop playing golf this year.
Question 27: I didn’t know that Joe had to get up early, so I didn’t wake him up.
A. If I had known that Joe had to get up early, I would have woken him up.
B. Provided that I had woken Joe up, I would know that he had to get up early
C. Much as Joe had been woken up, he would have to get up early.
D. Unless I had known that Joe had to get up early, I would have woken him up.
Question 28: John speaks Chinese fluently because he used to live in China for ten years.
A. Suppose John has lived in China for ten years, he can speak Chinese fluently.
B. Provided that John lived in China for ten years, he could speak Chinese fluently.
C. Unless John had lived in China for ten years, he could not have spoken Chinese fluently.
D. John could not speak Chinese fluently if he had not lived in China for ten years.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: The jeans are over there. I told you about them last week.
A. The jeans about whom I told you about last week are over there.
B. The jeans which I told you about them last week are over there.
C. The jeans which I told you about last week are over there.
D. The jeans about that I told you about last week are over there.
Question 30: The government plans to help poorer countries. It plans to cancel all third world
debt.
A. The government plans to help poorer countries so that it cancels all third world debt.
B. The government plans to help poorer countries by cancelling all third world debt.
C. The government plans to cancel all third world debt in case it helps poorer countries.
D. The government plans to help poorer countries with a view to cancelling all third world
debt.
Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.
The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in being an
employee? The schools teach a (31) many things of value to the future accountant,
doctor or electrician. Do they also teach anything of value to the future employee? Yes, they
teach the one thing that it is perhaps most valuable for the future employee to know. But very
few students bother to learn it. This basic is the skill ability to organize and express ideas in
writing and in speaking. This means that your success as an employee will depend on your
ability to communicate with people and to (32) your own thoughts and ideas to
them so they will both understand what you are driving at and be persuaded.
Of course, skill in expression is not enough by itself. You must have something to say in the first
place. The effectiveness of your job depends (33) your ability to make other people
understand your work as they do on the quality of the work itself.
Expressing one’s thoughts is one skill that the school can really teach. The foundations for
(34) in expression have to be laid early: an interest in and an ear for language;
experience in organizing ideas and data, in brushing aside the irrelevant, and above all the
(35) of verbal expression. If you do not lay these foundations during your school
years, you may never have an opportunity again.
Question 31: A. large B. great C. far D. deal
Question 32: A. interpret B. give out C. transfer D. present
Question 33: A. on most B. most on C. much on D. on much
Question 34: A. method B. skill C. way D. pattern
Question 35: A. habit B. routine C. trend D. hobby
indicate the correct answer to each question.
Certainly no creature in the sea is odder than the common sea cucumber. All living
creature, especially human beings, have their peculiarities, but everything about the little sea
cucumber seems unusual. What else can be said about a bizarre animal that, among other
eccentricities, eats mud, feeds almost continuously day and night but can live without eating for
long periods, and can be poisonous but is considered supremely edible by gourmets?
For some fifty million years, despite all its eccentricities, the sea cucumber has subsisted
on its diet of mud. It is adaptable enough to live attached to rocks by its tube feet, under rocks in
shallow water, or on the surface of mud flats. Common in cool water on both Atlantic and
Pacific shores, it has the ability to suck up mud or sand and digest whatever nutrients are present.
Sea cucumbers come in a variety of colors, ranging from black to reddish – brown to sand
– color and nearly white. One form even has vivid purple tentacles. Usually the creatures are
cucumber – shaped – hence their name – and because they are typically rock inhabitants, this
shape, combined with flexibility, enables them to squeeze into crevices where they are safe from
predators and ocean currents.
Although they have voracious appetites, eating day and night, sea cucumbers have the
capacity to become quiescent and live at a low metabolic rate-feeding sparingly or not at all for
long periods so that the marine organisms that provide their food have a chance to multiply. If it
were not for this faculty, they would devour all the food available in a short time and would
probably starve themselves out of existence.
But the most spectacular thing about the sea cucumber is the way it defends itself. It major
enemies are fish and crabs, when attacked; it squirts all its internal organs into the water. It also
casts off attached structures such as tentacles. The sea cucumber will eviscerate and regenerate
itself if it is attacked or even touched; it will do the same if surrounding water temperature is too
high or if the water becomes too polluted.
Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The reason for the sea cucumber’s name B. What makes the sea cucumber unusual
C. How to identify the sea cucumber D. Places where the sea cucumber can be
found
Question 37: The word “bizarre” is closest meaning to….
A. odd B. marine C. simple D. rare
Question 38: According to the passage, why is the shape of sea cucumbers important?
A. It helps them to digest their food.
B. It helps them to protect themselves from danger.
C. It makes it easier for them to move through the mud.
D. It makes them attractive to fish
Question 39: The words “this faculty” refers to the sea cucumber’s ability to…
A. squeeze into crevices B. devour all available food in a short time
C. suck up mud or sand D. live at a low metabolic rate
Question 40: The fourth paragraph of the passage primarily discusses
A. the reproduction of sea cucumbers B. the food sources of sea cucumbers

C. the eating habits of sea cucumbers D. threats to sea cucumbers’ existence
Question 41: The phrase “casts off” is closest in meaning to…
A. grows again B. grabs C. gets rid of D. uses as a weapon
Question 42: Which of the following would NOT cause a sea cucumber to release its internal
organs into the water?
A. A touch B. food C. unusually warm water D. pollution
Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really more sophisticated
than that of a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a variety of points of view
have all concluded that there is a great deal more stored in our minds than has been generally
supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgeon, proved that by stimulating their brains
electrically, he could elicit the total recall of specific events in his subjects’ lives. Even dreams
and other minor events supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in detail.
The memory trace is the term for whatever is the internal representation of the specific
information about the event stored in the memory. Assumed to have been made by structural
changes in the brain, the memory trace is not subject to direct observation but is rather a
theoretical construct that we use to speculate about how information presented at a particular
time can cause performance at a later time. Most theories include the strength of the memory
trace as a variable in the degree of learning, retention, and retrieval possible for a memory. One
theory is that the fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is the result of an almost unlimited
combination of interconnections between brain cells, stimulated by patterns of activity. Repeated
references to the same information support recall. Or, to say that another way, improved
performance is the result of strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory.
Question 43: Compared with a computer, human memory is...................
A. more complex B. more limited C. less dependable D. less durable
Question 44: The word “that” refers to............................
A. the computer B. the efficiency C. the sophistication D. the memory
Question 45: According the passage, researchers have concluded that......................
A. the mind has a much greater capacity for memory than was previously believed
B. the physical basis for memory is clear
C. different points of view are valuable
D. human memory is inefficient
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phí
Question 46: How did Penfield stimulate dreams and other minor events from the past?
A. By surgery B. By electric stimulation
C. By repetition D. By chemical stimulation
Question 47: The word “elicit” is closest in meaning to...........................
A. prove B. prevent C. cause D. reject
Question 48: According to the passage, the capacity for storage in the brain........................
A. can be understood by the examining the physiology
B. is stimulated by patterns of activity
C. has a limited combination of relationship
D. is not influenced by repetition
Question 49: The word “bonds” means….......................
A. promises B. agreements C. connections D. responsibilities
Question 50: All of the following are true of a memory trace EXCEPT that............................
A. it is probably made by structural changes in the brain
B. it is able to be observed
C. it is a theoretical construct
D. it is related to the degree of recall
Đáp án
1-C 2-A 3-D 4-C 5-A 6-A 7-C 8-A 9-C 10-D
11-B 12-C 13-C 14-D 15-D 16-B 17-D 18-B 19-D 20-C
21-B 22-C 23-C 24-D 25-B 26-A 27-A 28-D 29-C 30-B
31-B 32-D 33-C 34-B 35-A 36-B 37-A 38-B 39-D 40-C
41-C 42-B 43-A 44-D 45-A 46-B 47-C 48-B 49-C 50-B

is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question1: A. follows B. titles C. writers D. snacks
Question2: A. terror B. lecturer C. occur D. factor
Question3: A. secure B. prepare C. equal D. progress
Question4: A. endangered B. relevant C. quantity D. mineral
Question5: John used to working in Leeds, but his company had him transfer to a better position
in London.
A. working B. but C. transfer D. better
Question6: All almost the electricity for industrial use comes from large generators driven by
steam turbines.
A. All almost B. industrial use C. from D. driven
Question7: This recipe, is an old family secret, is an especially important part of our holiday
celebrations.
A. is an B. especially C. part D. celebrations
following questions
Question8: Managers claim we are in desperate of greater investment in our
industries.
A. requirement B. excess C. need D. lack
Question9: I’m not lazy but I think we have public holidays. We ought to have more.
A. too little B. too few C. rather a few D. fairly little
Question10: Only after I explained it to him the problem.
A. he understood B. he did understood C. did he understand D. did he understood
Question11: There were one or two voices, although the majority were in favor of
the proposal.
A. acclaiming B. clamoring C. refuting D. dissenting
Question12: It is a sad fact that in our country, along with most other countries in the world, the
environment is still
A. under attack B. under danger C. being endangering D. facing extinction
Question13: The company managed to its best workers and kept its rival from
stealing them.
A. promote B. employ C. retain D. consider
Question14: It was a _ that the driver survived the crash. His car was completely
damaged.
A. misted B. miracle C. secret D. strange Question15:
I woke up late for my interview because I about it all night and didn’t get much sleep.
A. worried B. had been worrying C. have been worrying D. had worried
Question16: This is less satisfactory than the previous offer.
A. fairly B. far C. absolutely D. distant
Question17: I’m afraid my youngest son has never been particularly quick on the
A. upshot B. upturn C. upkeep D. uptake
Question18: Many people think that the advantages of living in a city the
disadvantages
A. outweigh B. outnumber C. outgrow D. outrun
Question19: I will always be to my tutor for his help.
A. invaluable B. impoverished C. indebted D. priceless
Question20: Cynthia: "Hi, Victor. Do you think it's possible for us to have a talk sometime
today?" Victor: "I'd love to, but "
A. I've got a pretty tight schedule today. B. I'm fine now
C. is tomorrow OK. D. I'm pretty tight schedule today.
Question21: – Kate: “ How lovely your cats are!” – David: “ ”
A. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so. B. Really? They are.
C. Can you say it again? D. I love them, too.
Question22: I glanced at the article, but I haven't read it yet.
A. stared B. had swift look C. glimpsed D. had furtive look
Question23: Mr, Mora told his son, “Stop fighting with your sister. If you don’t behave, you
will have to go to bed right now.”
A. stop immediately B. slow down C. act incorrectly D. act correctly
Question24: It is such a prestigious university that only excellent students are entitled to a full
scholarship each year.
A. have the right to refuse B. are refused the right to
C. are given the right to D. have the obligation to
Question25: She came to the meeting late on purpose so she would miss the introductory
speech.
A. aiming at B. intentionally C. reasonably D. with a goal
Question26: David was narrowly defeated and blew his own chance of becoming a champion.
A. But for his title as the former champion, David would not have defeated his rivals.
B. In spite of the narrow defeat, David won the championship.
C. As a result of his narrow defeat, David did not win the championship.
D. Losing the championship came as a terrible blow to David.
Question27: They don’t let anyone enter the area.
A. Nobody is let to enter the area. B. Nobody is allowed to enter the area
C. Nobody is allowed entering the area. D. The area is not allowed entering.
Question28: The local residents have protested against the plan to build a textile factory in their
neighborhood. However, the building work will go ahead.
A. The construction of the textile factory has been stopped by the protests from the local
residents.
B. The textile factory will be built as planned despite the local residents' protests.
C. Protests from the local residents have prevented the construction of the textile factory.
D. Due to protests from the locals, the textile factory construction will not go ahead as
planned.
Question29: "The blouse is too loose. You'd better ask your tailor to take it in."
A. Your tailor is asked to take your blouse in a little.
B. You'd better have the blouse taken in as it is too loose.

C. The blouse is lost as you didn't ask your tailor to take it in.
D. The blouse is little as you asked your tailor to take it in.
Question30: Jane is too short. She can’t apply for the job.
A. Jane is short of money, so she can’t apply for the job
B. Jane could apply for the job if she were taller.
C. If Jane could apply for the job, she wouldn’t be short.
D. Jane would be taller if she could apply for the job
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the number blanks from 31 to 35
A recent (31) of a language learning magazine has consulted a number of experts in the
field of second language acquisition. Their advice may prove invaluable for those considering a
language course. One suggestion is that you access whether you are likely to be successful (32)
learning a language. Did you enjoy studying language at school, for example? Do
you have enough time to learn a language ? The major cost will be your own time and effort.
Therefore, you must make sure that course on offer leads to a recognized qualification. Also, be
realistic in your (33) . If you don’t set achievable aims, you are more likely to give up.
Don’t be deceived into thinking that the most expensive courses are the best. Shop around to get
the best possible value for money. You should also bear in your mind that the quicker you learn a
language, the more quickly you forget it. Sandra Miller, a French teacher, tried to teach herself
German by enrolling on a crash course. Already fluent in four languages and with a sound
knowledge of teaching methodology her chances of (34) progress were high. Three
years on she remembers very little. She feels her biggest mistake was not to follow up her first
experience. "I think the teacher’s role is important. It's so nice to have somebody give you a/an
(35) ”.
Question31: A. volume B. issue C. printing D. version
Question32: A. in B. on C. at D. of
Question33: A. sights B. object C. recognized D. goals
Question34: A. making B. achieving C. gaining D. doing
Question35: A. hand B. encouragement C. help D. aid
Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each for the question.
Tides are the periodic rise and fall of the Earth’s waters that are caused by the Moon’s and
Sun’s forces of gravity acting on the Earth .It is important to distinguish natural tidal phenomena
from huge tsunamis , with the latter being caused by earthquakes and undersea volcanic
eruptions.
The Moon is a main factor controlling ordinary tides. At the location on the Earth closest
to the Moon, it exerts a powerful gravitational pull on the water. The resulting rise in the water
produces higher tides. The water on the side of the Earth farthest away from the Moon also gets
pulled by this lunar gravity, but not as strongly. The Earth itself has its own gravitational force
that is constantly pulling waters downward, which is why the oceans do not simply bulge out
toward the Moon. Ordinary tides usually feature high and low waters alternating in relation to
the Earth’s rotation. Most shores around the world have high waters and two low waters for each
day, which last about 24 hours and 50 minutes. The difference in height between the high water
and low water is called the range of tide, and it can be quite dramatic in narrower bays .Canada’s
bays of Fundy , for example , commonly experiences the world’s most extreme tidal ranges ,
with daily differences of the 16 meters.
Two other types of tides are influenced by the Sun, which is much farther away from the
Earth and exerts less than half of the Moon’s gravitational force. When the Sun, the Moon and
the Earth are directly in line, the solar and lunar gravitational forces add up to produce higher
spring tides. The range of spring tides is intensified, with higher water marks and lower low
water marks. However, when the Moon is in the first or third quarter, it is at a 90–degree angle
with the Sun in relation to the Earth .The opposing solar and lunar forces partially cancel each
other out, and the result is a lower tide. This is called a neap tide, which comes twice a month
and has lower high water marks and higher low water marks. The range of neap tides is
minimum.
Some tides do not occur over water at all. The solid body of the Earth has slight elasticity,
so lunar and solar gravity cause it to stretch very subtly. These changes in the Earth’s shape,
although imperceptible to humans, are known as Earth tides. Another tidal phenomenon,
atmospheric tides, is caused by the Sun’s heating of the Earth’s atmosphere. Like ordinary tides,
they usually occur over 12–hour periods.
Question36: Why does the author mention tsunamis in the passage?
A. To explain that not all tides are caused by gravity.
B. To give an example of an extreme tidal phenomenon.
C. To show that they are not related to natural tides.
D. To suggest that more categories for tides area needed.
Question37: The word exerts in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. mixes with B. bring into use C. infers from D. connects with
Question38: What can be inferred about Canada’s Bay of Fundy ?

A. It may experience tsunamis because of its extreme tides.
B. It may have a longer tide cycle because of its wide variations.
C. It may be very narrow because it has wide tidal variations.
D. It may be influenced more by gravity than other places.
Question39: The word imperceptible in the last paragraph could best be replace by
A. not noticeable B. difficult to explain C. not generally D. not able to be said
Question40: What is true about the Moon’s gravitational force?
A. It pulls water on the far side of the Earth more strongly.
B. It is more than twice as powerful as that of the Sun.
C. It has reduced gravity when it is lined up with the Sun and the Earth.
D. Its force is strongest when it is located at 90 degrees to the Earth.
Question41: Besides ordinary tides, how many other types of tide are mentioned in the passage ?
A. two B. three C. four D. five
Question42: Which of the following does not relate to Ordinary Tides ?
A. Receiving greatest influence from the Moon
B. Influenced by the Sun’s position relative to the Moon.
C. Taking turns the higher and lower water relating to the Earth’s rotation
D. Having the striking range of tide in narrower bays
the correct answer to each for the question from 43 to 50.
Charles Lindbergh was born in Detroit, Michigan, in 1902 but was raised on a farm in
Minnesota, where his father was elected to the U.S. Congress in 1907. From then on, he spent his
boyhood alternately in Washington, D.C. Detroit, and Little Falls, Minnesota. Because
Lindbergh exhibited exceptional mechanical talent, in 1921 he was admitted to the University of
Wisconsing to study engineering. However, the young man was seeking more challenging
endeavors, and two years later he became a stunt pilot who performed feats at county fairs and
public assemblies. This unusual and dangerous undertaking paid off handsomely in the sense
that it allowed him to gain a diverse and well–rounded experience in aeronautics. He particularly
delighted in what he called “wing–walking” and parachute jumping.
After a year of training as a military cadet, Lindbergh completed his program at the
Brooks and Kelly airfields at the top of his class and earned the rank of captain. Robertson
Aircraft Corporation of St. Louis, Missouri, offered him employment as a mail pilot to run the
routes between St. Louis and Chicago, and Lindbergh retained his position with the company
until 1927. During this period, he set out to win the Raymond B. Orteig prize of $25,000 to be
awarded to the first pilot to fly nonstop from New York to Paris. This ambition would
irreversibly change his life and accord him a prominent place in the history of aviation.
Embarking on the greatest adventure of his time, Lindbergh left Roosevelt Field at 7:52
A.M. on May 20, 1927, and landed at Le Bourget Field at 5:24 P.M. the next day. Fearing that he
would be unknown when he arrived, Lindbergh carried letters of introduction to dignitaries in
Paris, but when his plane came to a stop, he was overwhelmed by tremendous welcoming crowds.
He was decorated in France, Great Britain, and Belgium, and President Coolidge sent a specially
designated cruiser, the Memphis, to bring him back, His accomplishments in aeronautics brought
him more medals and awards than had ever been received by any other person in private life.
Question43: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. A Benchmark Adventure in Aeronautics B. The Early Life of Charles Lindbergh
C. Groundbreaking Events in Aviation D. Charles Lindbergh’s Explorations
Question44: According to the passage, Lindbergh did not complete his degree because he
A. opted for the life of an exhibition pilot B. pursued training in the military
C. was seeking a sedentary life–style D. set out to win recognition
Question45: The word “handsomely” is closest in meaning to
A. honorably B. handily C. well D. in time
Question46: The word “undertaking ” refers to…
A. studying at the university B. exhibiting mechanical talents
C. seeking challenging endeavors D. performing feats
Question47: The author of the passage implies that Lindbergh’s job with Robertson Aircraft
Corporation.
A. required regular intercity flights B. was not intended as long–term employment
C. required him to perform dangerous flights D. necessitated his running long distances
Question48: According to the passage, how old was Lindbergh when he carried out his
challenging flight?
A. Twenty–one B. Twenty–three C. Twenty–four D. Twenty–five
Question49: The author of the passage implies that Lindbergh did not anticipate becoming a
A. pilot B. celebrity C. mail carrier D. army captain
Question50: A paragraph following the passage would most probably discuss
A. the development of commercial and military aviation
B. the reaction of the government to Lindbergh’s flight
phí
C. the effect of instant celebrity on Lindbergh

D. Lindbergh’s aircraft and engine modifications
Đáp án
1-D 2-C 3-C 4-A 5-A 6-A 7-A 8-C 9-B 10-C
11-D 12-A 13-C 14-B 15-B 16-B 17-D 18-A 19-C 20-A
21-A 22-A 23-D 24-C 25-C 26-C 27-B 28-B 29-B 30-B
31-B 32-C 33-D 34-A 35-A 36-C 37-B 38-C 39-A 40-B
41-C 42-B 43-B 44-A 45-C 46-D 47-A 48-D 49-B 50-C

is pronounced differently from others.
Question 1: A. nasty B. hasty C. tasty D. wastage
Question 2: A. prose B. whose C. disclose D. chosen
Question 3: A. attract B. marry C. demand D. connect
Question 4: A. independence B. experiment C. individual D. reputation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
Question 5: Ernest Hemingway wrote The Old Man and the Sea, in addition to a number of the
other work.
A. wrote B. in addition C. other D. work
Question 6: Don’t get angry with me for your failure. You are yourself to blame by it and it is
nobody else’s fault.
A. get angry B. yourself C. by D. else's fault
Question 7: In my country we have to do nine core subjects and then we can choose several
other.
A. to do B. core C. and then D. other
Question 8: We be going to France this summer, but we’re not sure yet.
A. can B. must C. would D. might
Question 9: He packed _ his job and went traveling in Nepal.
A. off B. away C. out D. in
Question 10: The jury her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject.
A. paid B. gave C. made D. said
Question 11: Be careful! Don’t your drink on the table.
A. spill B. spread C. flood D. flow
Question 12: “The baby is crying! Will you while 1 prepare his milk?”
A. look him up B. look after him C. care about him D. make him up
Question 13: The driver control of the vehicle and crashed into a bus.
A. lost B. missed C. failed D. dropped

Question 14: On the way the bus stopped to pick up a
A. customer B. rider C. pedestrian D. passenger
Question 15: I am tired to think about that problem at the moment.
A. simply B. nearly C. far too D. much more
Question 16: anything else, please ring the bell for the attendant.
A. Should you require B. You should require C. If you are requiring D. Were you to require
Question 17: Monica is for her ambition and determination by all of her teachers.
A. praised B. approved C. congratulated D. cheered
Question 18: They froze in when they saw the lion.
A. shock B. horror C. panic D. fright
Question 19: I can’t find those new socks I bought. I them in the store.
A. should have left B. must have left C. have left D. ought to have left
Question 20: Kelly: “I think that people are buying more than they actually need. What do you
think?”Jack: , especially in this time of economic crises.”
A. I don’t think so. B. I think the other way
C. I don’t, either. D. I think opposite.
Question 21: Peter: "Is it important? " Tom:
A. not on your life B. It's a matter of life and death
C. No worry, that's nothing D. It's ridiculous
Question 22: The principal objectives of ASEAN, outlined in the Bangkok Declaration (1976),
were to accelerate economic growth and promote peace and stability.
A. maintain B. predict C. speed up D. slow down
Question 23: They are going to demolish the old theater to make way for the new apartment
complex.
A. pull down B. throw away C. rebuild D. decorate
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The difference between British and American English are comparatively small.
A. extremely B. relatively C. surprisingly D. straightly
Question 25: The Present is taking deliberate steps to balance the federal budget
A. thoroughly planned B. intentional C. purposeful D. accidental
Question 26: Tom would sooner do without a car than pay all that money for one.
A. Tom thinks the price is right, but he can’t afford it.
B. Tom thinks the price is too high, but he must have the car.
C. Tom is soon going to buy a car.
D. Tom would never buy a car costs so much.
Question 27: It’s no use trying to persuade Tom to change his mind
A. There’s no point to try to persuade Tom to change his mind
B. It’s worth trying to persuade Tom to change his mind
C. It’s useful trying to persuade Tom change his mind
D. It’s a waste of time trying to persuade Tom to change his mind
Question 28: His story was so funny that it made us all laugh.
A. His story was too funny to laugh.
B. His story couldn’t make us laugh.
C. His story was very funny and we couldn’t help laughing.
D. We all laughed at him for his story.
Question 29: Mike has expertise in gardening. Mike is an accomplished carpenter.
A. Beside gardening, Mike is an accomplished carpenter as well
B. Despite his expertise in gardening, Mike is an accomplished carpenter.
C. Due to his expertise in gardening, Mike is an accomplished carpenter.
D. Besides his expertise in gardening, Mike is also an accomplished carpenter.
Question 30: My friends are good at drawing. I am good at drawing.
A. My friends are good at drawing, and I do, too.
B. Both my friends and I am good at drawing.
C. My friends are good at drawing and so I am.
D. Neither my friend nor I am good at drawing.
THE BENEFITS OF JOINING A SPORTS CLUB
Everyone, old or young, should think about joining a sports club. There are many benefits of
being a (31) of a club. First of all, you have the opportunity not just to play your
favorite sport on a regular basis, but also to improve. Most clubs have training sessions or even
professionals who (32) lessons. Secondly, it’s a chance to meet people who enjoying
doing the same things as you so you will probably get (33) with them and end up with a
good network of friends. Also these clubs usually have an excellent social life as they arrange
parties and special occasions at the club where you can meet to talk and eat together and
generally have a good time. Many people (34) up sports in their early teens but it is
good idea to continue as doing sport is a way of relieving stress and giving you more energy as
well as being a good break from your studies. Best of all, a lot of clubs can arrange to get tickets
for top sporting events that are hard to (35) This means you can often get front row
seats for matches and competitions in your favorite sport, or you may even be able to see your
favorite team. Well worth joining!
Question 31: A. fellow B. member C. representative D. associate
Question 32: A. offer B. present C. hand D. propose
Question 33: A. up B. on C. over D. about
Question 34: A. set B. get C. give D. put
Question 35: A. order B. book C. engage D. register
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
The ruined temples of Angkor are perhaps one of the most impressive Seven
Wonders of the World. Located in modern day Cambodia near Lake Tonle Sap, the largest
freshwater lake in Asia, Angkor was the seat of power for the Khmer Empire for the ninth to
the fifteenth century. The ruins of Angkor are documented as some of the most impressive
ones in the world, rivaling the pyramids of Giza in Egypt. Why this mighty civilization died
out is a question that archeologists are now only beginning to ponder. The answer, it turns
out, may be linked with the availability of fresh water.
One possible explanation for the downfall of the Khmer Empire has to do with the
inhabitant’s irrigation system. The temples and palaces of Angkor were constructed around a
series of artificial reservoirs and canals which were annually flooded to capacity by the
Mekong River. Once filled, they were used to irrigate the surrounding paddies and farmland
during the course of the year. Farmers were completely dependent on the water for water
crucial rice crop. Without consistent irrigation, the farmers would have been unable to
maintain functional crop production.
phí
Scientists speculate that toward the end of the Khmer Empire the hydraulic system of
the reservoirs and canals broke down. The construction of hundreds of sandstone temples and
palaces required an enormous amount of physical labor. In addition, as the capital of Khmer
Empire, Angkor contained upwards of one hundred thousand people who resided in and
around Angkor. In order to feed so many people, the local farmers were driven to grow food
more quickly and more efficiently. After centuries of continual use, the irrigation system was
pushed beyond its capacity. Soil erosion, nutrient depletion, and loss of water led to decrease
in the food supply. With the less food available, the people of Angkor slowly began to
migrate to other parts of Cambodia, thus leaving the marvelous city of Angkor to be
swallowed by the jungle. Therefore, it is speculated that the Khmer Empire may have fallen
victim to its own decrepit infrastructure.
Question 36: The passage preceding most likely discusses .
A. architecture of ancient Asian civilization
B. religious practices of the people of Angkor
C. the form of government practiced by the Khmer Empire
D. the other six wonders of the world
Question 37: According to the passage, Lake Tonle Sap in Cambodia .
A. was unable to supply fish for the people of Angkor
B. is one of the Seven Wonders of the World
C. is an enormous body of fresh water in Asia
D. became polluted due to a population explosion
Question 38: The word “seat” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. battle B. summit C. location D. chief
Question 39: The hydraulic system of reservoirs .
A. supplied irrigation from the Indian Ocean
B. helped transport the sandstone for constructing temples
C. were destroyed by nearby warrior’s tribes
D. became non–functional due to overuse
Question 40: The word “artificial” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. man–made B. numerous C. natural D. insincere
Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to . .
A. reservoirs and canals B. temples and palaces
C. rice paddles D. farmland
Question 42: All of the following are mentioned as events that can affect food supply EXCEPT
.
A. reduction of nutrients B. contamination of soil
C. loss of water supply D. erosion of soil
The quest for sustainable sources of energy study the energy has led humans to study
the energy potential of the sun and the wind, as well as the immense power created by
dammed rivers. The oceans, too, represent an impressive source of potential energy. For
example, it has been estimated that the oceans could provide nearly 3,000 times the energy
generated by hydroelectric dams such as the Hoover Dam. Yet, this source remains quite
difficult to exploit.
But this challenge has not prevented scientists from trying. Within the last few decades,
several technologies that can transform the ocean’s immense forces into usable electricity
have been invented and introduced. Some focus on capturing the power of the changing tides,
while others rely on thermal energy created by oceans in certain tropical regions. However,
the most common and easiest-to-develop technologies are those designed to harness the
power inherent in the ocean’s waves.
There are several methods by which ocean-wave energy can be collected. All of them
work because the movement of the water that the waves induce creates storable energy by
directly or indirectly driving a power generator. In one such technology, the changing water
levels in the ocean that are produced by waves lift a long floating tube comprised of many
sections connected by hinges. As the sections move up and down with the water, they pump a
special fluid through the tube that can be used to drive a generator. Another technique works
on a similar principle, only the floating object rocks back and forth with the motion of the
water instead of up and down. A third method of collecting wave energy relies on the rising
water from the waves to compress air in a partially submerged chamber. As the waves rush
into the chamber, they push the air out through a narrow tunnel. Located inside this tunnel is
a turbine connected to a power generator. The movement of the air turns the turbine, which
feeds energy into the generator.
The drawback to each of these concepts is that the they make it necessary to have many
pieces of machinery linked together. This presents a problem because the larger the device,
the more vulnerable it is to damage from hazardous ocean environments, and the more likely
it is to interfere with otherwise unspoiled coastal scenery. Also, these methods demand the
construction of site-specific machines that take into consideration average local wave heights
and sea conditions. Such a requirement can be quite cost-prohibitive, because engineers must
create unique power generation mechanism for each site. In other words, the ability to get
power from waves differ from region to region.
Japan, Norway, and the UK have attempted to generate energy by capturing the power
of ocean waves. In northern Scotland, the first power plan to use wave power, OSPREY
( Ocean Swell Powered Renewable Energy ), began operating in 1995. It followed the
principle of the third method described above : waves entering a partially submerged
chamber pushed air into turbines to generate electricity. The electricity was then transmitted
to power collectors in the shore via underwater cables. Unfortunately, the OSPREY plant was
destroyed in a large storm, highlighting an unavoidable difficulty associated with this kind of
power generation.
The potential benefits of wave-based energy are hard to ignore. Once the proper
machinery is produced and installed, the energy is free. Maintenance cost are small, and the
equipment does not pose any threats of environmental pollution. And best of all, the amounts
of energy produced are enormous.
However, these theoretical advantages have yet to be fully realized. In many cases, a
lack of government funding has inhibited the technologies from advancing. For example,
despite the relative abundance of proposed wave-power devices, many have not been
adequately tested, and most have been evaluated only in artificial pools where they are not
subjected to the harsh marine conditions that exist in actual oceans. Protecting the equipment
from the sea’s destructive forces, as well as the fundamental task of determining feasible
locations for collecting energy source are substantial and will require more time to overcome.
Question 43: The phrase this source in the passage refers to
A. sun B. wind C. dammed rivers D. oceans
Question 44: The word exploit in the passage is closest meaning to
A. utilize B. declare C. contain D. determine
Question 45: Why does the author mention the Hoover Dam in paragraph one ?
A. To give a current example of ocean–based energy technology
B. To explain that dams are effective producers of sustainable energy
C. To draw a comparison between two sources of renewable energy
D. To show that alternative energy sources have not been successful
Question 46: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is true about wave–power
technologies?
A. Many of them use submerged objects to obtain the waves’ energy

B. Compressed air must be present for them to work properly
C. They undertake three steps in order to collect wave power
D. They rely on the water’s motion to create electricity
Question 47: According to paragraph 5, what part did the cables play in OSPREY’s design?
A. They attached the partially submerged chamber to the sea floor
B. They generated the electricity which was then collected in turbines.
C. They conducted the electricity from the generator to the shore.
D. They provided stability during powerful ocean storms.
Question 48: The word inhibited in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. delivered B. prevented C. protected D. approved
Question 49: What can be inferred from paragraph 7 about governments?
A. They do not believe wave–energy devices can withstand ocean forces.
B. Their interests often conflict with those of the energy industries.
C. They demand much scientific research before they provide funding.
D. Their support is often essential to the success of new endeavors.
Question 50: All of these are problems associated with the collection of wave energy EXCEPT ?
A. the difficulty of finding feasible locations B. the destructive power of the ocean
C. the size of the equipment involved D. the constant changing of the tides
Đáp án
1 A 11 A 21 B 31 B 41 A
2 B 12 B 22 D 32 A 42 B
3 B 13 A 23 C 33 B 43 D
4 B 14 D 24 B 34 C 44 A
5 D 15 C 25 A 35 B 45 C
6 C 16 A 26 D 36 D 46 D
7 D 17 A 27 D 37 C 47 C
8 D 18 B 28 C 38 C 48 B
9 D 19 B 29 D 39 D 49 D
10 A 20 A 30 C 40 A 50 D

differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. shrug B. once C. console D. result
Question 2: A. thread B. breath C. break D. tread
Mark the better A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word about differs from the
Question 3: A. considerate B. cooperate C. knowledgeable D. inhabitant
Question 4: A. dedicate B. cosmonaut C. undertake D. gravity
Question 5: The two coaches collided, but luckily no one was wounded.
A. collided B. but C. luckily D. wounded
Question 6: By itself, technology can be either good nor bad, depends on how people use it.
A. By B. can be C. nor D. depends
Question 7: Having watered the flowers in the rooms, she went on watering those in the kitchen.
A. Having watered B. in the C. watering D. those
Question 8: We don’t want my father to know about the trip. Please, don’t give us
A. off B. in C. on D. away
Question 9: You should at least an effort to find the boy’s address if you don’t want to
lose your last hope.
A. make B. work C. put D. do
Question 10: If only I my temper at the party last night!
A. wouldn’t have lost B. wouldn’t lose C. hadn’t lost D. didn’t lose
Question 11: One of days I’m going to give him a piece of my mind.
A. our B. those C. these D. the
Question 12: “Why did you ride your bike today?” “It’s more than driving my car”
A. economical B. economic C. economy D. economically
Question 13: - “ I understand you have been reading all the boys’ letters. Since when? “ -
“ Since they to me about their weekend plans.”
A. laid B. have laid C. have lied D. lied
Question 14: What about for us? It might be quite interesting, I suppose.
A. to have some of them working B. making some of them work
C. having some of them work D. to make some of them work
Question 15: Scientists say that mass can cause fast environmental pollution.
A. production B. productive C. productively D. product
Question 16: We are going to build a fence around the field with (a)n to
breedingsheep and cattle.
A. goal B. view C. reason D. outlook
Question 17: The ASEAN countries are going to a resolution to establish a free trade
zone.
A. take B. pass C. bring D. order
Question 18: Mrs. Finkelstein demanded that the heater immediately. Her apartment
was freezing.
A. be repaired B. repaired C. should be repair D. would be repaired
Question 19: I can’t give you the answer on the ; I’ll have to think about it for a few
days.
A. place B. minute C. scene D. spot
Question 20: Hoang: “Let’s go to my place for a coffee." Nam: “ _”
A. Done! B. It’s fine. C. Can’t be better. D. Sounds great.
Question 21: Jack: “I think the food in the restaurant is really delicious.” Janny: “ ”
A. Neither do I B. You can say that again
C. You’re welcome. D. That's why I am here
Question 22: The sophisticated design of the vase made it a valuable piece or her collection
A. functional B. simple C. accurate D. complex
Question 23: Having spent all my money on tuition, I’m not affluent enough even to go to the
cinema.
A. arrogant B. wealthy C. afraid D. poor
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
Question 24: Students are expected to be quiet and compliant in the classroom.
A. recalcitrant B. obedient C. compatible D. friendly

Question 25: After many years of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn
Miller finally achieved world fame in 1939 as a big band leader.
A. requesting B. trying C. offering D. deciding
Question 26: The newspaper reports that James was awarded the first prize.
A. It is reported that James wins the first prize.
B. It is reported that James to be awarded the first prize.
C. James is reported to have been awarded the first prize.
D. The first prize is reported to award to James.
Question 27: It is possible that we won’t have to take an entrance exam this year.
A. Perhaps we don’t have to take an entrance exam this year.
B. We mustn’t take an entrance exam this year.
C. We mightn’t take an entrance exam this year.
D. It is very likely that we will take an entrance exam this year.
Question 28: In spite of his tiredness, Joe managed to finish his work.
A. Although he is tired, Joe managed to finish his work.
B. Joe managed to finish his work but he was tired
C. Despite he was tired, Joe managed to finish his work.
D. Tired as he seemed to be, Joe managed to finish his work.
Question 29: We breathe much polluted air. We get weaker
A. Much polluted air is breathed as we get weaker
B. The more polluted air we breathe, the weaker we get
C. The weaker we get, the more polluted air we breathe
D. Polluted air is responsible for out bad health.
Question 30: We missed class several times. This was the cause of our poor grades.
A. Having missed class several times, our poor grades were anticipated.
B. Having missed class several times, our poor grades were anticipated.
C. We received poor grades missing class several time.
D. Receiving poor grades, we missed class several times.
I live on the first floor of a house that has been (31) into three flats. Five months ago, a
couple moved into the flat above and since then my life has been a nightmare. They get up at 6
a.m and make a terrible noise. They listen to the radio at top (32) , talk loudly and stamp
on the floor. In the evening they play the same record on their stereo over and over again. It’s
beginning to (33) me mad. I’ve tried turning my own stereo up to (34) out the
noise but I like peace and quiet and find loud music stressful. I tried to talking to them but it
hasn’t done any good. I realize I should live and (35) live , but I have begun to have
quite irrational revenge fantasies about them – like switching off their electricity or deliberately
making a lot of noise late at night when I know they are asleep. What on earth can I do?
Question 31: A. changed B. converted C. adapted D. remade
Question 32: A. power B. volume C. pitch D. intensity
Question 33: A. drive B. force C. turn D. put
Question 34: A. wipe B. sound C. deafen D. drown
Question 35: A. let B. make C. have D. be
the correct answer to each for the questions.
Telecommuting-substituting the computer for the trip to the job-has been hailed as a solution to
all kinds of problems related to office work. For workers, it promises freedom from the office,
less time wasted in traffic, and help with child-care conflicts. For management, telecommuting
helps keep high performers on board, minimizes tardiness and absenteeism by eliminating
commutes, allows periods of solitude for high-concentration tasks, and provides scheduling
flexibility. In some areas, such as Southern California and Seattle, Washington, local
governments are encouraging companies to start telecommuting programs in order to reduce
rush-hour congestion and improve air quality, but these benefits do not come easily. Making a
telecommuting program work requires careful planning and an understanding of the differences
between telecommuting realities and popular images.
Many workers are seduced by rosy illusions of life as a telecommuter. A computer programmer
from New York City moves to the tranquil Adirondack Mountains and stays in contact with her
office via computer. A manager comes into his Office three days a week and works at home the
other two. An accountant stays home to care for child; she hooks up her telephone modem
connections and does office work between calls to the doctor.
These are powerful images, but they are a limited reflection of reality. Telecommuting workers
soon learn that it is almost impossible to concentrate on work and care for a young child at the
same time. Before a certain age, young children cannot recognize, much less respect, the
necessary boundaries between work and family. Additional child support is necessary if the
parent is to get any work done.
Management, too, must separate the myth from the reality. Although the media has paid a great
deal of attention to telecommuting, in most cases it is the employee’s situation, not the
availability of technology, that precipitates a telecommuting arrangement.
That is partly why, despite the widespread press coverage, the number of companies with work-
at-home programs or policy guidelines remains small.
Question 36: What is the main subject of the passage?
A. Business management policies
B. Commuting to work
C. Extending the workplace by means of telecommutingk
D. Telecommuting for child-care purposes
Question 37: According to the passage, what is the most important tool for a telecommuter to
work at home?
A. telephone B. a camera C. a smart phone D. a computer
Question 38: The word “hailed” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. welcomed B. communicated C. considered D. arranged
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem for office employees?
A. Being restricted to the office B. Incurring expenses for lunches and clothing
C. Taking care of sick children D. Driving in heavy traffic
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem for employers that is
potentially solved by telecommuting?
A. Employees’ lateness for work
B. Employees’ absence from work
C. Employees’ need for time to work intensively alone
D. Employees’ conflicts with second jobs
Question 41: Which of the following does the author mention as a possible disadvantage of
telecommuting?
A. Small children cannot understand the boundaries of work and play.
B. Computer technology is not advanced enough to accommodate the needs of every
situation.
C. Electrical malfunctions can destroy a project.

D. The worker often does not have all the needed resources at home.
Question 42: Which of the following is an example of telecommuting as described in the
passage?
A. A scientist in a laboratory developing plans for a space station
B. A technical writer sending via computer documents created at home
C. A computer technician repairing an office computer network
D. A teacher directing computer-assisted learning in a private school.
Millions of people tune into the weather forecast each evening on televisions. Most of them
imagine that the presenter does little more than arrive at the studio a few minutes before the
broadcast, read the weather, and then go home.
In fact, this imagine is far from the truth. The two-minute bulletin which we all rely on when we
need to know tomorrow’s weather is the result of a hard day’s work by the presenter, who is
actually a highly-qualified meteorologist.
Every morning after arriving at the TV studios, the first task of the days is to collect the latest
data from the national Meteorological Office. This office provides up-to-the-minute information
about weather conditions throughout the day, both in Britain and around the world. The
information is very detailed and includes predictions, satellite and radar pictures, as well as more
technical data. After gathering all the relevant material from this office, the forecaster has to
translate the scientific terminology and maps into images and word which viewers can easily
understand.
The final broadcast is then carefully planned. It is prepared in the same way as other programmes.
The presenter decides what to say and in what order to say it. Next, a “story board” is drawn up
which lay out the script word for word. What make a weather forecast more complicated than
other programmes are the maps and electronic images which are required. The computer has to
be programmed so that the pictures appear in the correct order during the bulletin.
The time allocated for each broadcast can also alter. This is because the weather report is
screened after the news, which can vary in length. The weather forecaster doesn’t always know
how much time is available, which means that he/ she has to be thoroughly prepared so that the
material can be adapted to the time available.
Another related complication is that the weather forecast has to be a live broadcast; it cannot be
pre- recorded. Live shows are very nerve- racking for the presenter because almost anything can
go wrong. Perhaps the most worrying aspect for every weather forecaster is getting the following
day’s predictions wrong. Unfortunately for them this is not an unusual occurrence; the weather is
not always possible to predict accurately.
The weather is a national obsession in Britain, Perhaps because it is so changeable. It’s the
national talking point, and most people watch at least one daily bulletin. It can be mortifying for
a weather man or woman who has predicted rain for the morning to wake up to brilliant
sunshine. These days, a weather forecaster’s job is even more complicated because they are
replied upon to predict other environmental conditions. For example, in the summer the weather
forecast has to include the pollen count for hay fever sufferers. Some also include reports on
ultraviolet radiation intensity to help people avoid sunburn.
The job of the weather forecaster is certainly far more complicated than just pointing at a map
and describing weather conditions. It’s a job for professionals who can cope with stressful and
demanding conditions.
Question 43: What perception do most people have a weather forecasters?
A. They have many qualifications. B. They do a hard day’s work at the studio.
C. They always tell the truth. D. They work very short hours.
Question 44: Meteorologists get their forecasting information from
A. The TV studio B. The country’ s main weather centre
C. Satellite and radar information D. Their office
Question 45: The phrase up- to- the- minute in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. Very brief B. Very short C. ( the) most recent D. Fashionable
Question 46: The computer has to be carefully programmed
A. So that the visual are sequenced correctly
B. So that the script is visible to the presenter
C. Because the script has to be written on a story board
D. Because electric maps are used
Question 47: Weather forecasters have to know the material well because
A. The length of the report may have to change
B. The forecast may be incorporated into the news broadcast
C. The content of the report may have to change
D. The broadcast is pre-recorded
Question 48: What does this in paragraph 6 refer to?
A. The weather forecaster’s worry B. Reading the weather ‘live’

C. Giving a forecast that doesn’t come true D. An accurate prediction
Question 49: The word mortifying in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. embarrassing B. enjoyable C. deceitful D. frightening
Question 50: Nowadays, weather forecasters have to
A. do experiments to determine the pollen count.
B. simply point at maps and describe weather conditions.
C. cope with professionals.
D. be able to cope under pressure.
Đáp án
1 C 11 C 21 B 31 B 41 A
2 C 12 A 22 B 32 B 42 B
3 C 13 D 23 D 33 A 43 D
4 C 14 C 24 B 34 D 44 B
5 D 15 A 25 B 35 A 45 C
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 C 46 A
7 C 17 B 27 C 37 D 47 A
8 D 18 A 28 D 38 A 48 C
9 A 19 D 29 B 39 B 49 A
10 C 20 D 30 B 40 D 50 D

Question 1: A. stopped B. laughed C. realized D. produced
Question 2: A. cool B. food C. boom D. took
Question 3: A. psychology B. speculate C. pedestrian D. preservative
Question 4: A. consistent B. advocate C. apparent D. admission
Question 5: Several people have apparent tried to change the man’s mind, but he refuses to
listen.
A. Several B. apparent C. man's mind D. to listen
Question 6: Lara is a very bright student who learns quickly and do all her course work very
well.
A. very bright B. who learns C. do all D. work
Question 7: After being questioned for a few minutes, John finally admitted to steal his friend’s
money.
A. being B. admitted C. steal D. friend’s
Question 8: He told his sister that he to run away from home.
A. intends B. is intending C. has intended D. intended
Question 9: She applied for training as a pilot, but they turned her _ because of her poor
eyesight.
A. up B. back C. over D. down
Question 10: They live in a of Oxford, and come into town by bus every day.
A. suburb B. area C. centre D. countryside
Question 11: George didn’t attend school for six weeks as he had to stay in hospital where he
was for pneumonia.
A. fixed B. treated C. relieved D. mended
Question 12: You look tired. Why don’t we and have a good rest?
A. call its name B. call on C. call it a day D. call off

Question 13: of the students in our class could solve this math problem.
A. Not B. Neither C. Not much D. None
Question 14: You mustn’t these difficult exercises; do them all.
A. leave off B. leave behind C. leave for D. leave out
Question 15: Water pollution is often caused by industrial from factories.
A. fuels B. waste C. gases D. rain
Question 16: becoming more and more common in children.
A. The diabetes B. The diabetes are C. Diabetes is D. Diabetes are
Question 17: The marathon was postponed the heavy rain.
A. due to B. because C. despite D. when
Question 18: She built a high wall round her garden
A. in order that her fruit not be stolen B. to enable people not taking her fruit
C. so that her fruit would be stolen D. to prevent her fruit from being stolen
Question 19: I enjoy swimming, but I avoid crowded pools.
A. on the contrary B. on the face of it C. as a rule D. in a nutshell
Question 20: Joanne: “You should have flown with the earlier flight!” Alex: “ ”
A. Why not? B. Yes. I did.
C. Oh, I’m sorry to hear that. D. It was fully booked.
Question 21: Stephanie: “Huong, this is Nick.” Huong: “ ”
A. Really? B. Nice to meet you C. An honour D. My dear
Question 22: The environment was nourishing to the young girl’s developing personality.
A. beneficial B. harmful C. cheap D. good
Question 23: The birthday gift Bet’s grandmother gave her is irreplaceable.
A. Possible to replace B. Unable to buy
C. Impossible to find another D. Quite easily found
Question 24: The governor issued a statement in an attempt to negate the accusations against
him.
A. disapprove B. admit C. have no effect D. deny

Question 25: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is
saying or asking you.
A. be related to B. be interested in C. pay all attention to D. express interest to
Question 26: If only I had taken his advice
A. I wish I followed his advice B. I wish I have taken his advice
C. I regret not having taken his advice D. I regret not to take his advice
Question 27: James blamed his younger brother for the damage.
A. James punished his younger brother for the damage.
B. James was responsible for his younger brother’s damge.
C. James said his younger brother had caused the damage.
D. James blamed the damage for his younger brother.
Question 28: If only you had told me the truth about the theft.
A. You should have told me the truth about the theft.
B. Only if you had told me the truth about the theft.
C. Had you told me the truth, there wouldn’t have been the theft.
D. You only told me the truth if there was a theft.
Question 29: Alex bought the big house. He wanted to open a restaurant
A. Alex bought the big house although he wanted to open a restaurant
B. Alex bought the big house with a view to opening a restaurant
C. Alex bought the big house in order to want to open a restaurant
D. Alex bought the house as long as he wanted to open a restaurant
Question 30: Chemical engineers earn a BC degree. Chemical engineers are almost guaranteed a
job with a BC.
A. Whether they earn a BC degree, chemical engineers are almost guaranteed a job.
B. If they earn a BC degree, chemical engineers are almost guaranteed a job
C. To have a BC degree, chemical engineers are almost guaranteed a job
D. Since earning a BC degree, chemical engineers are almost guaranteed a job.
Wind, water, air, ice and heat all work to cause erosion. As the wind blows over the land, it often
(31) small grains of sand. When these grains of sand strike against solid rocks, the
rocks are slowly worn away. In this way even very hard rocks are worn away by the wind. When
particles of rocks or soil became loosened(tơi ra) in any way, running water carries them down
the (32) Some rocks and soil particles are carried into streams and then into the sea.
Land that is covered with trees, grass and other plants wears away very slowly, and so loses very
(33) of its soil. The roots of plants help to (34) the rocks and soil in place.
Water that falls on grasslands runs away more slowly than water that falls on bare ground. Thus,
forests and grasslands (35) to slow down erosion.
Question 31: A. holds up B. picks up C. cleans out D. carries out
Question 32: A. hillsides B. borders C. topside D. topsoil
Question 33: A. few B. much C. little D. large
Question 34: A. stay B. store C. hold D. back
Question 35: A. help B. assess C. facilitate D. aid
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become
extinct or near extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the
jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that
they will become extinct.
What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused
almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in
material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is
contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals such as the Bengal tiger, as well as other
endangered species, are valuable parts of the world/s ecosystem. International laws protecting
animals must be enacted to ensure their survival-and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some
countries, in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal
reserves. They then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks,
and they often must also depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to
invest in equipment and patrols o protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal
extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered species. This has had
some effect, but by itself will not prevent animals from being hunted and killed.
Question 36: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The Bengal tiger B. International boycotts.

C. Endangered species D. Problems with industrialization
Question 37: Which of the following could best replace the word 'case' as used in paragraph 2?
A. Act B. Situation C. Contrast D. Trade
Question 38: The word 'poachers' as used in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by which of the
following?
A. Illegal hunters B. Enterprising researchers
C. Concerned scientists D. Trained hunters
Question 39: What does the word 'this' in paragraph 2 refer to in the passage?
A. Bengal tigers B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction. D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
Question 40: Which of the following could best replace the word ‘allocated’ in paragraph 3?
A. Set aside B. Combined C. Organized D. Taken off
Question 41: What does the term 'international boycott' in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Buying and selling of animal products overseas.
B. A refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. A global increase in animal survival.
D. Defraying the cost of maintaining national parks.
Question 42: Which of the folỉowing best describes the author's attitude?
A. Forgiving B. Concerned C. Vindictive D. Surprised
the correct answer to each of the questions. Though Edmund Halley was most famous because
of his achievements as an astronomer, he was a scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In
addition to studying the skies, Halley was also deeply interested exploring the unknown depths
of the oceans. One of his lesser-known accomplishments that was quite remarkable was his
design for a diving bell that facilitated exploration of the watery depths.
The diving bell that Halley designed had a major advantage over the diving bells that were in use
prior to his. Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so
divers had to surface when the air inside the bell ran low. Halley's bell was an improvement in
that its design allowed for an additional supply of fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to
remain underwater for several hours.
The diving contraption that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell that measured three feet
across the top and five feet across the bottom and could hold several divers comfortably; it was
open at the bottom so that divers could swim in and out at will. The bell was built of wood,
which was first heavily tarred to make it water repellent and was then covered with a half-ton
sheet of lead to make the bell heavy enough to sink in water. The bell shape held air inside for
the divers to breathe as the bell sank to the bottom.
The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this
improvement that made Halley's bell superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in
the bell, air was also supplied to the divers from a lead barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor
close to the bell itself. Air flowed through a leather pipe from the lead barrel on the ocean floor
to the bell. The diver could breath the air from a position inside the bell, or he could move
around outside the bell wearing a diving suit that consisted of a lead bell-shaped helmet with a
glass viewing window and a leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying fresh air from the
diving bell to the helmet.
Question 43: The subject of the preceding passage was most likely Halley's
A. childhood B. work as an astronomer
C. many different interests D. invention of the diving bell
Question 44: Which of the following best expresses the subject of this passage?
A. Halley's work as an astronomer
B. Haley's many different interests
C. Halley's invention of a contraption for diving
D. Halley's experiences as a diver
Question 45: Halley's bell was better than its predecessors because it
A. was bigger B. provided more air
C. weighed less D. could rise more quickly
Question 46: The expression ran low in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. moved slowly B. had been replenished
C. sank to the bottom D. was almost exhausted
Question 47: How long could divers stay underwater in Halley's bell?
A. Just a few seconds B. Only a few minutes C. For hours at a time D. For days on end
Question 48: It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley's bell
A. was wider at the bottom than at the top B. was made of tarred wood
C. was completely enclosed D. could hold more than one diver
Question 49: The word its in paragraph 4 refers to
A. improvement B. Halley's bell C. source of air D. a lead barrel
Question 50: This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on
A. astronomy B. recreation C. oceanography D. physiology
Đáp án
1 C 11 B 21 B 31 B 41 B
2 D 12 C 22 B 32 A 42 B
3 B 13 D 23 A 33 C 43 B
4 B 14 D 24 D 34 C 44 C
5 B 15 B 25 C 35 A 45 B
6 C 16 C 26 C 36 C 46 D
7 C 17 A 27 C 37 B 47 C
8 D 18 D 28 A 38 A 48 C
9 D 19 C 29 B 39 C 49 B
10 A 20 D 30 B 40 A 50 C

Question 1: A. pleasure B. treasure C. leap D. head
Question 2: A. children B. schedule C. watch D. match
Question 3: A. hopeful B. compose C. eject D. admire
Question 4: A. community B. characterize C. negotiate D. identity
Question 5: TheQuestion master tells you three things, and you have to say which are the odd
one out.
A. tells B. and you C. are D. out
Question 6: Have I to tell them that you have come?
A. Have I to B. them C. that D. have come
Question 7: Physical therapists help patients relearn how to use their bodies after disease or
injure.
A. relearn B. to use C. bodies D. injure
Question 8: Nobody took any of the warning and they went swimming in the
contaminated water.
A. information B. attention C. sight D. notice
Question 9: Tom was very emharrassed – it was _ mistake !
A. a so stupid B. so stupid C. a such stupid D. such a stupid
Question 10: She had free time after she retired than previously.
A. much B. more C. most D. many
Question 11: Thieves broke their house while they were on holiday.
A. down B. into C. off D. up
Question 12: Because Mark needed to pass the exam, he made studying a
priority watching his favorite television show.
A. with B. over C. about D. above
Question 13: The new building will be than our present premises.
A. by far the most spacious B. far more spacious
C. much more spaciously D. not so much spacious
Question 14: Many of the children in the area were clearly and suffering from various
diseases.
A. undernourished B. underprivileged C. overrated D. overestimated
Question 15: Mr. Smith is a person; he never spares a penny.
A. arrogant B. vain C. mean D. impulsive
Question 16: Success factors include being prepare to sacrifices and knowing what
your strengths are.
A. do B. make C. create D. have
Question 17: It has never my mind that Jane might be a notorious liar.
A. passed B. entered C. crossed D. reached
Question 18: Theoretical knowledge is no substitution experience.
A. for B. to C. in D. with
Question 19: Most young children people in the Western would have to a decent
education.
A. entrance B. reach C. access D. opportunity
Question 20: Nicole: “It was wonderful evening. Thank you so much for your meal.” Pitt:
“ ”
A. Yes, it’s really good B. All right
C. I’m glad you enjoyed it D. No, it’s very kind of you
Question 21: Hue: “Sorry to keep you waiting.” John: “ ”
A. No problem. B. Don’t mention it.
C. You’re welcome D. I’m glad you apologized
Question 22: Fallout from nuclear power station damaged in the tsunami may endanger the
vegetation .
A. stimulate B. harm C. inhibit D. benefit
Question 23: The Egyptians used a primitive form of distillation to extract the essential oils
from plants
A. fill B. remove C. insert D. express

Question 24: The vaccine provides longer immunity against flu.
A. protection B. safety C. effect D. fighting
Question 25: Intermarriages between the noble families were very popular in the part.
A. honorable B. hatred C. acquainted D. familiar
Question 26: He put on a mask to avoid being recognized by his friends.
A. He put on a mask to prevent his friends recognise him
B. He put on a mask for fear that his friends might recognise him
. C. He put on a mask so that his friends would recognize him
D. He put on a mask because he doesn’t want his friends to recognize him
Question 27: It rained heavily, so the football match was cancelled
A. The match was cancelled because of the heavy rain.
B. If it didn’t rain, the match wouldn’t be cancelled.
C. Despite the heavy rain the match was cancelled
D. If it hadn’t been for the heavy rain, the match wouldn’t be cancelled.
Question 28: Monica won’t tell lie for any reason
A. There’s no reason for Monica to tell lies B. On no account will Monica tell lies
C. Monica rarely tells lies for any reason D. Never has Monica told lies for any reason
Question 29: The Chinese bicycle is $100. The Japanese one is $250.
A. The Chinese bicycle is more expensive than the Japanese one.
B. The Japanese bicycle is more expensive than the Chinese one.
C. The Japanese bicycle costs less than the Chinese one.
D. The Chinese bicycle has the same price as the Japanese one.
Question 30: Tom wore so many warm clothes. This was not necessary.
A. Tom did not need to wear so many warm clothes.
B. Tom needn’t wear so many warm clothes.
C. Tom needn’t have worn so many warm clothes.
D. Tom wore so many warm clothes which was not necessary.
WHAT’S IN IT FOR ME
Students and jobseekers are keen to get onto the course or into the workplace of their choice
hope that voluntary work will help them stand out from the crowd. This chance to (31)
experience-personally and professionally-is high on the wish list of young people.
A survey carried out last year revealed that young and old alike said volunteering had improved
their lives, particularly those (32) in conservation or heritage work. Businesses
recognize its importance and get to raise their profile in the community, while staff get a break
from their daily routine to develop “soft skill”, (33) initiative and decision-making. One
volunteering organization is conduct another survey to find out if volunteering does make a
difference in the workplace, or if it is something businesses do simply to improve their (34)
Not only are business-sponsored placements becoming more common, the
government is also investing money and aiming to (35) volunteers. The push is clear to
make volunteering as attractive as possible to everyone. And the more people who participate,
the more act fulfils its direction of making the world a better place.
Question 31: A. gain B. achieve C. collect D. win
Question 32: A. committed B. associated C. connected D. involved
Question 33: A. such B. such and such C. such like D. such as
Question 34: A. representation B. image C. look D. figure
Question 35: A. recruit B. claim C. bring D. enter
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Every year about two million people visit Mount Rushmore, were the faces of four U.S
presidents were carved in granite by sculptor Gutzon Borglum and his son, the late Lincoln
Borglum. The creation of the Mount Rushmore monument Line took 14 years – from 1927 to
1941 – and nearly a million dollars. There were times when money was difficult to come by and
many people were jobless. To move more than 400,000 tons of rock, Borglum hired laid-off
workers from the closed-down mines in the Black Hills area. He taught these men to dynamite,
drill, carve, and finish the granite as they were hanging in midair in his specially devised chairs,
which had many safety features. Borglum was proud of the fact that no workers were killed or
severely injured during the years of blasting and carving.
During the carving, many changes in original design had to be made to keep the carved
heads free of large fissures that were uncovered. However, not all the cracks could be avoided,
so Borglum concocted a mixture of granite dust, white lead, and linseed oil to fill them.
Every winter, water from melting snows gets into the fissures and expands as it freezes,
making the fissures bigger. Consequently, every autumn maintenance work is done to refill the
cracks. The repairers swing out in space over a 500-foot drop and fix the monument with the
same mixture that Borglum used to preserve this national monument for future generations.
Question 36: This passage is mainly about
A. the visitors to the Mount Rushmore monument
B. the faces at the Mount Rushmore monument
C. the sculptor of the Mount Rushmore monument
D. the creation of the Mount Rushmore monument
Question 37: According to the passage, Borglum’s son
A. is dead B. was a president
C. did maintenance work D. spent a million dollars.
Question 38: The word ‘which’ is paragraph 1 refers to
A. granite B. these man C. chairs D. features
Question 39: The men who Borglum hired were _
A. trained sculptors B. laid-off stone masons
C. Black Hills volunteers D. unemployed miners
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that
A. the heads are not as originally planned B. the workers made mistakes when blasting
C. the cracks caused serious injuries D. the designs had large fissures in them
Question 41: Borglum’s mixture for filling cracks was
A. very expensive B. bought at the Black Hills mines
C. invented D. uncovered during carving
Question 42: Today, Mount Rushmore needs to be
A. protected from air pollution B. polished for tourists
C. restored during the winter D. repaired periodically
In the late 1960’s, many people in North America turned their attention to
environmental problems and new steel-and-glass skyscrapers were widely criticized.
Ecologists pointed out that a cluster of tall buildings in a city often overburdens public
transportation and parking lot capacities.
Skyscrapers are also lavish consumers, and waster, of electric power. In one recent year,
the addition of 17 million square feet of skyscraper office space in New York City raised the
peak daily demand for electricity by 120,-000 kilowatts-enough to supply the entire city of
Albany, New York, for a day.
Glass-walled skyscrapers can be especially wasteful. The heat loss (or gain) through a
wall of half-inch plate glass is more than ten times that through a typical masonry wall filled
with insulation board. To lessen the strain on heating and air-conditioning equipment,
builders of skyscrapers have begun to use double glazed panels of glass, and reflective
glasses coated with silver or gold mirror films that reduce glare as well as heat gain. However,
mirror-walled skyscrapers raise the temperature of the surrounding air and affect neighboring
buildings.
Skyscrapers put a severe strain on a city’s sanitation facilities, too. If fully occupied, the
two World Trade Center towers in New York City would alone generate 2.25 million gallons
of raw sewage each year-as much as a city the size of Stamford, Connecticut, which has a
population of more than 109,000.
Skyscrapers also interfere with television reception, block bird flyways, and obstruct air
traffic. In Boston, in the late 1960’s some people even feared that shadows from skyscrapers
would kill the grass on Boston Common.
Still, people continue to build skyscrapers for all the reasons that they have always built
them – personal ambition, civic pride, and the desire of owners to have the largest possible
amount of rentable space.
Question 43: The main purpose of the passage is to
A. compare skyscrapers with other modern structures.
B. describe skyscrapers and their effects on the environment.
C. advocate the use of masonry in the construction of skyscrapers.
D. illustrate some architectural designs of skyscrapers.
Question 44: According to the passage, the attitude of many people in North America towards
skyscrapers could be best described as
A. unemotional B. skeptical C. critical D. bitter
Question 45: The word “overburden” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. overwhelm B. overload C. overachieve D. overcome
Question 46: According to the passage, what is one disadvantage of skyscrapers that have
mirrored walls?
A. The exterior surrounding air is heated. B. The windows must be cleaned daily.
C. Construction time is increased. D. Extra air-conditioning equipment is needed.
Question 47: According to the passage, in the late 1960’s some residents of Boston were
concerned with which aspect of skyscrapers?
A. The noise from their construction B. The removal of trees from building sites
C. The harmful effects on the city’s grass D. The high cost of rentable office space
Question 48: The author raises issues that would most concern which of the following groups?
A. Electricians B. Environmentalists C. Aviators D. Teachers
Question 49: In which paragraph does the author compare the energy consumption of
skyscrapers with that of a city?
A. paragraph 2 B. paragraph 3 C. paragraph 4 D. paragraph 5
Question 50: According to the passage, all of the following are mentioned as reasons for
building skyscrapers EXCEPT
A. people’s strong desire to build high.
B. people’s pride for their towns or cities
C. the greed of the owners to have more place for lease
D. the need to accommodate more people.
Đáp án
1 C 11 B 21 A 31 A 41 C
2 B 12 B 22 D 32 D 42 D
3 A 13 B 23 C 33 D 43 B
4 B 14 A 24 A 34 B 44 C
5 C 15 C 25 A 35 A 45 B
6 A 16 C 26 B 36 D 46 A
7 D 17 C 27 A 37 A 47 C
8 D 18 A 28 B 38 C 48 B
9 D 19 C 29 B 39 D 49 A
10 B 20 C 30 C 40 A 50 D

Question1: A. stretch B. natural C. ancient D. question
Question2: A. decent B. recent C. celebrate D. even
Question3: A. marvelous B. courageous C. delicious D. religious
Question4: A. milkmaid B. rival C. title D. defend
Question5: Many of the population in the rural areas is composed of manual labors.
A. Many B. rural areas C. composed of D. labors
Question6: During the school year, I am not allowed to watch television when I have finished
my homewok.
A. During B. to watch C. when D. homework
Question7: We have postponed to tell anyone the news until after Christmas.
A. have B. to tell C. the D. until after
Question8: The maid the beds every morning.
A. has B. does C. takes D. makes
Question9: Turn on the radio. I want to listen to the news
A. report B. crash C. board D. turning
Question10: I have returned books I borrowed to the library.
A. all of B. most of C. all the D. all most
Question11: The plumber couldn’t remember where he’d left the box he kept his
tools.
A. for whom B. in what C. in which D. of which
Question12: The discovery was a major for researchers in the field of space
exploration.
A. breakdown B. breakthrough C. break-in D. outbreak
Question13: Jane’s very modest, always _her success.
A. pushing back B. playing down C. keeping down D. turning around

Question14: The sales assistant talked me buying a bottle of perfume for my wife.
A. to B. into C. onto D. over to
Question15: We don’t have to pay for the food. Everything is on the today.
A. house B. place C. home D. business
Question16: the heavy rain, the ship couldn’t reach its destination on time.
A. Because of B. In spite of C. In case of D. But for
Question17: The stones have buried in the sand for a thousand years.
A. lied B. lying C. laid D. lain
Question18: James should have stayed out of the sun as his skin is so .
A. sensible B. insensible C. sensitive D. senseless
Question19: The students were made their essays.
A. rewriting B. to rewriting C. rewrite D. to rewrite
Question20: “ Would you like ti have noodles, spaghetti, or something different?”
“ ”
A. I’m afraid not. B. Yes, please. C. Never mind. D. Anything will do.
Question21: A: “How many people do you want to invite to your graduation party?” B:
“ ”
A. The most, the best. B. The more, the merrier.
C. The many, the merrier. D. The more, the more happily.
Question22: I used to meet him regularly on Fifth Avenue.
A. one time B. in one occasion
C. once in a blue moon D. normally
Question23: According to a local newspaper, within a year the party had drastically overhauled
its structure.
A. devalued B. established C. appreciated D. improved
Question24: The father has lost his job, so we'll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into
debt.
A. earn money B. save money C. sit still D. economize

Question25: I couldn’t help laughing when he fell in the pool with all his clothes on; it was so
funny!
A. couldn't assist B. couldn't resist C. couldn't face D. couldn’t stand Mark
the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
Question26: They haven’t finished the final test yet
A. The final test hasn’t been finished yet. B. They are not doing the final test
C. The final test will never be finished D. The final test has just been started
Question27: I advise you to send her a postcard
A. Her postcard should be sent to you. B. You’d rather I sent her a postcard
C. You’d better send her a postcard D. I am advised to send you her postcard.
Question28: If I lived in the city, I would go to the cinema every Saturday.
A. I live in the city, but I don’t go to the cinema every Saturday.
B. I don’t live in the city, but I go to the cinema every Saturday.
C. I live in the city, so I go to the cinema every Saturday.
D. I don’t live in the city; that’s why I can’t go to the cinema every Saturday.
Question29: Every day the diversity of life on Earth gets poorer. We are overusing resources
and disregarding the riches of nature.
A. The diversity of life on Earth gets poorer every day because of our overuse of resources
and disregard for the riches of nature
B. Every day the diversity of life on Earth gets poorer, leading to overusing resources and
disregarding the riches of nature.
C. Every day the diversity of life on Earth gets poorer, in return for overusing resources and
disregarding the riches of nature.
D. Although we are overusing resources and disregarding the riches of nature, the diversity of
life on Earth gets poorer every day.
Question30: Many people criticized me yesterday. I objected to this.
A. I objected to many people criticized me yesterday.
B. I objected to many people being criticized yesterday.
C. I did not approve of many people criticized yesterday.
D. I objected to being criticized by many people yesterday.
It is a well-known fact that Japanese people have a longer life expectancy than the
population of most other countries. A (31)_ report shows that the Japanese also expect to
remain healthier for longer. Scientists are trying to work out what keeps elderly Japanese people
so healthy, and whether there is a lesson to be learnt from their lifestyles. Should we (32)
any changes to our eating habits, for instance, or go jogging each day before
breakfast? Is there some secret(33) in the Japanese diet that is particularly beneficial for
the human body? Although the prospect of a longer , healthier life is a good thing for the
individual, it can actually create a social problem. The number of people over the age of 65 in
the population has doubled in the last 50 years and that has increased pension and medical costs.
Japan could soon be (34) an economic problem: there are more elderly people who
need to be looked after. And relatively fewer younger people working and paying taxes to
support them. One solution could be to (35) retirement age from 65 to 70 . After all, the
elderly have a great deal to contribute. If they continue to be active in society, younger
generations will have the chance to learns more from their wisdom and experience.
Question31: A. late B. recent C. morden D. contemporary
Question32: A. do B. make C. set D. give
Question33: A. ingredient B. component C. portion D. helping
Question34: A. facing B. meeting C. adopting D. encountering
Question35: A. put B. move C. rise D. raise
Edward Patrick Francis “Eddie” Eagan (April 26, 1897-June 14, 1967), was an
amateur boxing star of the early 1920s. He was born into a poor family in Denver, Colorado.
His father died in a railroad accident when Eagan was only a year old. He and his four
brothers were raised by his mother, who earned a small income from teaching foreign
languages.
Inspired by Frank Merriwell, the hero of a series of popular novels for boys, Eagan
pursued an education for himself as well as an interest in boxing. He attended the University
of Denver for a year before serving in the U.S. Army as an artillery lieutenant during World
War I. After the war, he entered Yale University and, while studying there, won the U.S.
national amateur heavyweight boxing title. He graduated from Yale in 1921, attended
phí
Harvard Law School, and received a Rhodes scholarship to the University of Oxford where
he received his Master’s Degree in 1928.
While studying at Oxford, Eagan became the first American to win the British amateur
boxing championship. Eagan won his first Olympic gold medal as a light heavyweight boxer
at the 1920 Olympic Games in Antwerp, Belgium. Eagan also fought at the 1924 Olympics in
Paris as a heavyweight but failed to get a medal. Though he had taken up the sport just three
weeks before the competition, he managed to win a second gold medal as a member of the
four-man bobsled team at the 1932 Olympics in Lake Placid, New York. Thus he became the
only athlete to win gold medals at both the Summer and Winter Olympics.
Eagan was a member of the first group of athletes inducted into the U.S. Olympic Hall
of Fame in 1983. Eagan became a respected attorney, serving as an assistant district attorney
for southern New York and as chairman of the New York State Athletic Commission (1945-
51). He married soap heiress. Margaret Colgate and attained the rank of lieutenant colonel
during World War II. He died at the age of 70, in Rye, New York.
Question36: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Eagan’s life shows how a wealthy student can achieve as much as a poor one.
B. Eagan’s life shows that military experience makes athletes great.
C. Eagan’s life shows that a man can be an athlete and a well-educated person.
D. Eagan’s life shows how easy it is to win two gold medals in different Olympic sports.
Question37: According to the passage, how did Eagan’s mother earn a living?
A. Renting rooms to immigrants B. Teaching foreign languages
C. Doing laundry and cleaning D. Writing fiction for women’s magazines
Question38: According to the passage, who was Frank Merriwell?
A. A teacher at Yale B. A fictional character
C. A student at Oxford D. A bobsledder at the Olympics
Question39: The word “artillery” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. large weapons such as cannons B. small weapons such as pistols
C. shoulder weapons such as rifles D. tension weapons such as crossbows
Question40: According to the passage, Eagan won all of the following EXCEPT
A. Light heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal
B. U.S. national amateur heavyweight boxing title.
C. British amateur boxing championship
D. Heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal
Question41: According to the passage, where were the 1920 Olympic Games held?
A. In Antwerp, Belgium B. In Paris, France

C. In London, England D. In Lake Placid, New York
Question42: According to the passage, what special honor did Eagan receive in 1983?
A. He was inducted into U.S. Olympic Hall of Fame.
B. He was promoted to lieutenant colonel in the U.S. Army.
C. He received a gold medal in four-man bobsledding
D. He was appointed assistant district attorney for Southern New York.
What makes it rain? Rain falls from clouds for the same reason anything falls to Earth.
The Earth’s gravity pulls it. But every cloud is made of water droplets or ice crystals. Why
doesn’t rain or snow fall constantly from all clouds? The droplets or ice crystals in clouds are
exceedingly small. The effect of gravity on them is minute. Air currents move and lift
droplets so that the net downward displacement is zero, even though the droplets are in
constant motion.
Droplets and ice crystals behave somewhat like dust in the air made visible in a shaft of
sunlight. To the casual observer, dust seems to act in a totally random fashion moving
about chaotically without fixed direction. But in fact dust particles are much larger than water
droplets and they finally fall. The cloud droplet of average size is only 1/2500 inch in
diameter. It is so small that it would take sixteen hours to fall half a mile in perfectly still air,
and it does not fall out of moving air at all. Only when the droplet grows to a diameter of
1/125 inch or larger can it fall from the cloud. The average raindrop contains a million times
as much water as a tiny cloud droplet. The growth of a cloud droplet to a size large enough to
fall out is the cause of rain and other forms of precipitation. This important growth process
is called “coalescence”.
Question43: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The mechanics of rain. B. The climate of North America.
C. How gravity affects agriculture. D. Types of clouds.
Question44: Which of the following best replaces the word “minute” in paragraph 1?
A. second B. tiny C. slow D. predictable
Question45: What does “in constant motion” in paragraph 1 mean?
A. moving all the time B. always having feeling
C. never changing D. falling down easily
Question46: Why don’t all ice crystals in clouds immediately fall to the Earth?
A. They are balanced by the pressure of rain droplets.

B. The effect of gravity at high altitude is random.
C. They are kept aloft by air currents.
D. The heat from the Sun’s rays melts them.
Question47: What are water droplets?
A. They are ice crystals. B. They are small drops of dew.
C. They are watery fruits. D. They are animals living on ice.
Question48: What can be inferred about drops of water larger than 1/125 inch in diameter?
A. They never occur.
B. They are not affected by the force of gravity.
C. In still air they would fall to the ground.
D. In moving air they fall at a speed of thirty-two miles per hour.
Question49: What is the diameter of the average cloud droplet?
A. 1/16 inch B. 1/125 inch
C. 1/2500 inch D. one millionth of an inch
Question50: What is an example of precipitation?
A. rain B. lightening C. wind D. thunder
Đáp án
1 C 11 C 21 B 31 B 41 A
2 C 12 B 22 C 32 B 42 A
3 A 13 B 23 A 33 A 43 A
4 D 14 B 24 D 34 A 44 B
5 A 15 A 25 B 35 D 45 A
6 C 16 A 26 A 36 C 46 C
7 B 17 D 27 C 37 B 47 A
8 D 18 C 28 D 38 B 48 C
9 A 19 D 29 A 39 A 49 C
10 C 20 D 30 D 40 D 50 A

Question 1: A. treasure B. jealous C. clean D. cleanse
Question 2: A. launch B. fortnight C. haughty D. draughty
Question 3: A. tomorrow B. spectator C. accomplish D. overwhelm
Question 4: A. mausoleum B. coincide C. petroleum D. employee
Question 5: It is generally believed that high level of carbon emissions lead to climate change.
A. generally believed B. high level C. emissions D. to
Question 6: I was in disguise when I met them ; as the result, of course they didn’t recognise
me.
A. in disguise B. as the result C. of course D. recognise
Question 7: I was discouraged to swim when I put my feet in the ice-cold water.
A. to swim B. put C. in D. ice-cold
Question 8: You’d better go to bed early, ?
A. hadn’t you B. wouldn’t you C. didn’t you D. don’t you
Question 9: by his parents at an early age, Paul took to stealing.
A. Be abandoned B. Abandoned C. Having abandoned D. Abandoning
Question 10: I wonder if I some question for our survey
A. might ask you B. would ask you C. am able to ask D. shall ask you
Question 11: “I’ve been working with this puzzle for two hours.” “It must be a hard one .”
A. solve B. solved C. to solve D. solving
Question 12: Don’t worry –it’s natural to lose your temper sometimes.
A. bitterly B. downright C. perfectly D. highly
Question 13: When he came all that money, he thought he would lose his mind.
A. into B. up C. round D. down
Question 14: you need is a good holiday.
A. What B. Why C. Which D. How

Question 15: Burglars tend to away from buildings which are securely locked.
A. go B. shy C. move D. walk
Question 16: Contrary to expectations, South Korea to the semi-finals of the 2002
Word Cup.
A. protected B. provided C. proclaimed D. progressed
Question 17: Jeff, the security guard at the factory, this robbery on his shift
last night.
A. was wishing-hasn’t been occurring B. had wished-shoudn’t occur
C. wishes-hadn’t occurred D. wished-occurred
Question 18: lectures at your university?
A. haven’t students got to have attended B. needn’t students have attended
C. mustn’t students attended D. don’t students have to attend
Question 19: We went into town some new clothes.
A. with buying B. to have bought C. for buying D. to buy
Question 20: Nam: “How about meeting for a coffee next week?” Hai: “ ”
A. Good idea. Let’s do that B. No, thanks.
C. Thank you. D D. Well-done
Question 21: Laurence : “I don’t think Tim should go” Alex: ““ ”
A. Why not? He’s old enough B. Areyou ? Well, I’m not
C. Should he then? D. No, he wouldn’t
Question 22: Water supply to the city and several adjacent areas remains affected by the
earthquake.
A. remote B. surrounding C. suburban D. neighboring
Question 23: Computers in classrooms can have a positive impact on a child’s educational
experience
A. considerable B. beneficial C. major D. harmful
Question 24: Though they were almost identical, a slight difference was noticeable.
A. similarity B. variety C. distinction D. diversity

Question 25: Reading a daily newspaper will make you aware of what is going on in the world.
A. knowledgeable about B. ignorant about
C. dependent on D. blind to
Question 26: My father hasn’t smoked for two years.
A. My father started smoking two years ago.
B. It’s two years since my father started smoking
C. My father gave up smoking two years ago.
D. The first time my father smoked was two years ago.
Question 27: The weather is not nice today, so we will not go to the park.
A. If the weather were nice today, we’d go to the park.
B. We wouldn’t go to the park if the weather were so nice today
C. We would go to the park even if the weather were not nice today
D. The weather is bad today, but we will still go to the park
Question 28: Workers are not allowed to use the office phone for personal calls.
A. They don’t let workers use the office phone.
B. Workers are not permitted to use the office phone for personal purpose.
C. The office phone is supposed to be used by workers only.
D. They don’t allow workers to make phone calls personally.
Question 29: My parents like eating at home. They like eating out even more.
A. My parents prefer eating out to eating at home.
B. My parents prefer to eat at home to eating out.
C. My parents would rather eating at home than eating out.
D. My parents would rather eat at home than eat out.
Question 30: Laura didn’t come to the class yesterday. This made me surprised
A. Laura didn’t come to the class yesterday, that made me surprised.
B. Laura didn’t come to the class yesterday, which made me surprised.
C. Laura didn’t come to the class yesterday which made me surprised.
D. Laura didn’t come to the class yesterday when made me surprised.
GREENFORCE
If you’re interested in having the trip of a lifetime, but also doing something useful at the
same time, then why not try joining a Greenforce expedition as a volunteer. Greenforce, which
was (31) in 1997, is an international research agency that gathers information about the
wildlife and natural habitats in various parts of the world. There is a qualified biologist in (32)
of each team of volunteers and these carry out surveys all year round in some of
the world’s remotest and most beautiful places. Volunteers come from all walks of life. The
minimum age is 18 years, but there is no upper age limit. No previous experience is necessary as
Greenforce provides location training in animal identification and survey methods. You’ll need
to be somebody who enjoys the outdoor life, however, as working in remote (33) can
be challenging. You’ll also need to be passionate about wildlife and prepared to learn a lot about
the place you visit. Each expedition lasts for ten weeks, and training begins in the UK with a
residential weekend where you can get a (34) of expedition life and meet up with some
of your team mates, as well as learning about first-aid and basic survival skills. Each volunteer
(35) ) £2,550 towards the cost of the expedition, but past volunteers say it is worth
every penny.
Question 31: A. brought about B. put on C. set up D. got off
Question 32: A. head B. guide C. lead D. charge
Question 33: A. residences B. positions C. resorts D. locations
Question 34: A. touch B. drop C. trial D. taste
Question 35: A. contributes B. affords C. agrees D. combines
Vitamins, taken in tiny doses, are a major group of organic compounds that regulate the
mechanisms by which the body converts food into energy. They should not be confused with
minerals, which are inorganic in their makeup. Although in general the naming of vitamins
followed the alphabetical order of their identification, the nomenclature of individual
substances may appear to be somewhat random and disorganized. Among the 13 vitamins
known today, five are produced in the body. Because the body produces sufficient quantities
of some but not all vitamins, they must be supplemented in the daily diet. Although each
vitamin has its specific designation and cannot be replaced by another compound, a lack of
phí
one vitamin can interfere with the processing of another. When a lack of even one vitamin in
a diet is continual, a vitamin deficiency may result.
The best way for an individual to ensure a necessary supply of vitamins is to maintain a
balanced diet that includes a variety of foods and provides adequate quantities of all the
compounds. Some people take vitamin supplements, predominantly in the form of tablets.
The vitamins in such supplements are equivalent to those in food, but an adult who maintains
a balanced diet does not need a daily supplement. The ingestion of supplements is
recommended only to correct an existing deficiency due to unbalanced diet, to provide
vitamins known to be lacking in a restricted diet, or to act as a therapeutic measure in medical
treatment. Specifically, caution must be exercised with fat-soluble substances, such as
vitamins A and D, because, taken in gigantic doses, they may present a serious health hazard
over a period of time.
Question 36: According to the passage, vitamins are
A. food particles B. essential nutrients
C. miscellaneous substances D. major food groups
Question 37: How many vitamins must be derived from nourishment?
A. 5 B. 7 C. 8 D. 13
Question 38: The author implies that foods
A. supply some but not all necessary vitamins
B. should be fortified with all vitamins
C. are equivalent in vitamin content
D. supplement some but not all necessary vitamins
Question 39: The phrase “daily diet” is closest in meaning to
A. weight loss or gain B. sufficient quantities C. nourishment intake D. vitamin tablets
Question 40: A continual lack of one vitamin in a person’s diet is
A. contagious B. desirable C. preposterous D. dangerous
Question 41: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. A varied diet needs to be supplemented with vitamins.
B. An inclusive diet can provide all necessary vitamins.
C. Vitamins cannot be consistently obtained from food.
D. Vitamins should come from capsules in purified form.
A. Adopting vitamins to control weight
B. The individual’s diet for optimum health
C. Vitamin categorization and medical application

D. The place of vitamins in nutrition
Geothermal energy is natural heat from the interior of the Earth that is converted to heat
buildings and generate electricity. The idea of harnessing Earth’s internal heat is not new. As
early as 1904 , geothermal power was used in Italy . Today, Earth’s natural internal heat is being
used to generate electricity in 21 countries , including Russia, Japan, New Zealand, Iceland,
Mexico, Ethiopia, Guatemala, EI Salvador, the Philippines, and the United States .Total
worldwide production is approaching 9,000 MW (equivalent to nine large modern coal-burning
or nuclear power plants)-double the amount in 1980 .Some 40 million people today receive their
electricity from geothermal energy at a cost competitive with that of other energy sources. In EI
Salvador , geothermal energy is supplying 30% of the total electric energy used. However, at the
global level, geothermal energy supplies less than 0,15%of the total energy supply.
Geothermal energy may be considered a nonrenewable energy source when rates of
extraction are greater than rates of natural replenishment. However, geothermal energy has its
origin in the natural heat production within Earth , and only a small fraction of the vast total
resource base is being utilized today. Although most geothermal energy production involves the
tapping of high heat sources, people are also using the low-temperature geothermal energy of
groundwater in some applications.
Geothermal Systems
The average heat flow from the interior of the Earth is very low, about 0,06% W/m2.This
amount is trivial compared with the 177 W/m2from solar heat at the surface in the United States.
However, in some areas, heat flow is sufficiently high to be useful for producing energy . For the
most part, areas of high heat flow are associated with plate tectonic boundaries. Oceanic ridge
systems (divergent plate boundaries) and areas where mountains are being uplifted and volcanic
island arcs are forming (convergent plate boundaries) are areas where this natural heat flow is
anomalously high. One such region is located in the western, United States, where recent
tectonic and volcanic activity has occurred.
On the basis of geological criteria, several types of hot geothermal systems (with
temperatures greater than about 800C , or 1760F)have been defined, and the resource base is
larger than that of fossil fuels and nuclear energy combined. A common system for energy
development is hydrothermal convection, characterized by the circulation of steam and / or hot
water that transfers heat from depths to the surface.
Geothermal Energy and the Environment

The environmental impact of geothermal energy may not be as extensive as that of other
sources of energy , but it can be considerable. When geothermal energy is developed at a
particular site, environmental problems include on-site noise, emissions of gas, and disturbance
of the land at drilling sites, disposal sites, roads and pipelines, and power plants. Development of
geothermal energy does not require large-scale transportation of raw materials or refining of
chemicals, as development of fossil fuels does. Furthermore, geothermal energy does not
produce the atmospheric pollutants associated with burning fossil fuels or the radioactive waste
associated with nuclear energy. However, geothermal development often does produce
considerable thermal pollution from hot waste-waters, which may be saline or highly corrosive,
producing disposal and treatment problem.
Geothermal power is not very popular in some locations among some people. For instance,
geothermal energy has been produced for years on the island of Hawaii, where active volcanic
processes provide abundant near surface heat. There is controversy, however, over further
exploration and development .Native Hawaiians and others have argued that the exploration and
development of geothermal energy degrade the tropical forest as developers construct roads,
build facilities , and drill wells.
In addition, religious and cultural issues in Hawaii relate to the use of geothermal energy.
For example, some people are offended by using the “breath and water of Pele” ( the volcano
goddess) to make electricity. This issue points out the importance of being sensitive to the values
and cultures of the people where development is planned.
Future of Geothermal energy
At present, geothermal energy supplies only a small fraction of the electrical energy
produced in the United States. However, if developed, known geothermal resources in the United
States could produce about 20,000 MW which is about 10% of the electricity needed for the
western states. Geohydrothermal resources not yet discovered could conservatively provide four
times that amounts (approximately 10% of total U.S electric capacity). About equivalent to the
electricity produced from water power today.
Question 43: What is true about geothermal energy production worldwide?
A. Because it is a new idea, very few countries are geothermal energy sources
B. Only countries in the Southern Hemisphere are using geothermal energy on a large scale
C. Until the cost of geothermal energy becomes competitive, it will not be used globally
D. Geothermal energy is already being used in a number of nations, but it is not yet a major
source of power
Question 44: The word "approaching" in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. hardly B. mostly C. nearly D. briefly
Question 45: The word "that" in the passage refers to
A. electricity B. cost C. energy D. people
Question 46: In paragraph 2, the author states that geothermal energy is considered a
nonrenewable resource because
A. The production of geothermal energy is a natural process
B. Geothermal energy comes from the Earth
C. We are not using very much geothermal energy now
D. We could use more geothermal energy than is naturally replaced
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, the heat flow necessary for the production of
geothermal energy
A. Is like solar heat on the Earth’s surface B. Happens near tectonic plate boundaries
C. Must always be artificially increased D. May be impractical because of its location
Question 48: The word considerable in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. large B. dangerous C. steady D. unexpected
Question 49: In paragraph 5, the author mentions the atmospheric pollution and waste products
for fossil fuel and nuclear power
A. To introduce the discussion of pollution caused by geothermal energy development and
production
B. To contrast pollution caused by fossil fuels and nuclear power with pollution caused by
geothermal production
C. To argue that geothermal production does not cause pollution like other sources of energy
do
D. To discourage the use of raw materials and chemicals in the production of energy because
of pollution
Question 50: According to paragraph 6, the production of geothermal energy in Hawaii is
controversial for all of the following reason EXCEPT
A. The volcanoes in Hawaii could be disrupted by the rapid release of geothermal energy
B. The rainforest might be damaged during the construction of the geothermal energy plant
C. The native people are concerned that geothermal energy is disrespectful to their cultural
traditions
D. Some Hawaiians oppose using geothermal energy because of their religious beliefs.
Đáp án
1 C 11 C 21 A 31 C 41 B
2 D 12 C 22 D 32 D 42 D
3 D 13 A 23 D 33 D 43 D
4 C 14 A 24 C 34 D 44 C
5 B 15 B 25 A 35 A 45 B
6 B 16 D 26 C 36 D 46 D
7 A 17 C 27 A 37 C 47 B
8 A 18 D 28 B 38 A 48 A
9 B 19 D 29 A 39 C 49 B
10 A 20 A 30 B 40 D 50 A

Question 1: A. barred B. car C. charter D. back
Question 2: A. disastrous B. association C. devastate D. cause
Question 3: A. justice B. diverse C. women D. public
Question 4: A. establish B. domestic C. activity D. education
Question 5: Killer whales tend to wander in family clusters that hunt,play and resting together.
A. Killer whales B. to wander C. clusters D. resting
Question 6: Prior to an extermination programe early in the last century, alive wolves roamed
across nearly all of North America.
A. Prior to B. early C. alive D. nearly
Question 7: The remains of Homo erectus, an extinct species of early man, was first discovered
on the island of Java by Dutch physician Eugene Debois.
A. an B. early man C. species D. was
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 8: Can you me to your parents when you next see him.
A. excuse B. remind C. remember D. forget
Question 9: Some people believe that books are species, fighting for survival in
competition with TV, film, the Internet and CD.
A. danger B. dangerous C. endangered D. dangerously
Question 10: Take of the chance to do some sightseeing while you are here.
A. exploit B. advantage C. benefit D. profit
Question 11: Mary was surprised when her guests late for the party.
A. came up B. turned up C. looked up D. put up
Question 12: Liam was born in Ireland, but his brother
A. was B. didn’t either C. wasn’t D. was neither
Question 13: The body of a fish is quite different from a land animal.
A. body B. one of C. that of D. those of

Question 14: A man whom people cannot trust will have friends.
A. little B. few C. a few D. a lot
Question 15: She asked for these apples.
A. some more B. any more C. any more of D. some more of
Question 16: They went from one shop to to buy gifts for their mother.
A. each other B. other C. the rest D. another
Question 17: A: “How _ is your house from here?” B: “It’s about two hours by taxi.”
A. far B. long C. much D. many
Question 18: rapid population increases and industrial growth, some groups of
people have been able to live in harmony with the planet.
A. although B. In spite C. Despite D. While
Question 19: Neither Canada nor Mexico requires that citizens of the United States
passports.
A. has B. have C. having D. will have
Question 20: A: “I have passed my driving test.” B: “ ”
A. No worries B. Good luck C. Bad luck D. Congratulations
Question 21: A: Anything else? B:
A. Right now. B. Not today, thanks. C. No, it isn’t. D. Not at all.
Question 22: The change in population distribution was barely noticeable to the demographers
conducting the study.
A. often B. hardly C. never D. softly
Question 23: The cake was heavenly so I asked for more.
A. terrible B. edible C. in the sky D. cheap
Question 24: The same questions repeated over and over soon made them weary.
A. suspicious B. tired C. worried D. annoyed
Question 25: Jim's decided to buy a phonograph even though they are now redundant.
A. old-fashioned B. reproduced C. unnecessary D. expensive
Question 26: The way he kept clicking his fingers was very irritating.
A. How he clicked his fingers made me irritated.
B. I found it irritating to keep on clicking his fingers.
C. I was very irritated by the way he kept clicking his fingers.
D. His clicking fingers made me irritated.
Question 27: You can try as hard as you like but you won’t succeed.
A. However hard you try, you won’t succeed.
B. You can hardly try as you like, but you won’t succeed
C. You won’t succeed because you can’t try as hard.
D. Although you won’t succeed, you can try as hard as you like.
Question 28: If we had lost the map, we would never have found our way.
A. We will find our way unless we lose the map.
B. We didn’t lose our way because we didn’t lose the map.
C. We would have lost our way provided we had lost the map.
D. Supposing we lose the map, we would not find our way.
Question 29: Our car broke down. We missed our plane because of this.
A. It was due to the car broke down that we missed our plane.
B. It was because the car broke down that we missed our plane.
C. It is the car broke down that we missed our plane.
D. It is due to the car that broke down that we missed our plane.
Question 30: I don’t know what to do about this problem. It is a pity!
A. I wish I know what to do about this problem.
B. I wish I can solve this problem.
C. I wish I could know what to do about this problem.
D. I wish I knew what to do about this problem.
Education was not formally integrated into the European Union policy portfolio until the
1993 Maastricht Treaty, although the first Community legislation with an impact on the
education sector was adopted as long as the 1960s. These early (31) dealt with
mutual recognition of qualifications. Achieving recognition by one member state of a

qualification obtained in another was an important pre-condition for implementing the free
movement of workers.
Citizens of EU (32) who are students now enjoy the same rights to access to
higher education in all member states as they do in their home country, provided that they have
the relevant qualifications for entry. Growing numbers of student (33) activities
have been developed, of which the oldest and most famous is 1987 Erasmus program. By
recognizing course credits, Erasmus (34) university students to study for one year
in a different member state. A separate program, Leonardo, gives young school leavers, students
and graduates the chance to receive educational training.
Few EU initiatives enjoy (35) wholehearted and widespread political
support as these higher education programs. The key issue for future initiatives is to build on this
success without being over- ambitious. Unfortunately, these programs are becoming very
expensive, and this is now the primary areas of concern.
Question 31: A. rules B. directors C. laws D. policies
Question 32: A. provinces B. countries C. organizations D. agencies
Question 33: A. exchange B. change C. trade D. replace
Question 34: A. admits B. submits C. offers D. allows
Question 35: A. so a B. such a C. so D. such
Although management principles have been implemented since ancient times, most
management scholars trace the beginning of modern management thought back to the early
1900s, beginning with the pioneering work of Frederick Taylor (1856-1915) Taylor was the first
person to study work scientifically. He is most famous for introducing techniques of time and
motion study, differential piece rate systems, and for systematically specializing the work of
operating employees and managers. Along with other pioneers such as Frank and Lillian
Gilbreth, Taylor set the stage, labeling his philosophy and methods “scientific management’. At
that time, his philosophy, which was concerned with productivity, but which was often
misinterpreted as promoting worker interests at the expense of management, was in marked
contrast to the prevailing industrial norms of worker exploitation.
The time and motion study concepts were popularized by Frank and Lillian Gilbreth. The
Gilbreths had 12 children. By analyzing his children’s dishwashing and bedmaking chores, this
pioneer efficiency expert, Frank Gilbreth, hit on principles whereby workers could eliminate
waste motion. He was memorialized by two of his children in their 1949 book called “Cheaper
by the Dozen”.
The Gilbreth methods included using stop watches to time worker movements and special
tools (cameras and special clocks) to monitor and study worker performance, and also involved
identification of “therbligs” (Gilbreth spelled backwards) – basic motions used in production
jobs. Many of these motions and accompanying times have been used to determine how long it
should take a skilled worker to perform a given job. In this way an industrial engineer can get a
handle on the approximate time it should take to produce a product or provide a service.
However, use of work analysis in this way is unlikely to lead to useful results unless all five
work dimensions are considered: physical, psychological, social, cultural, and power.
Question 36: The word “which” in the passage refers to
A. scientific management B. Philosophy
C. productivity D. time and motion study
Question 37: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that
A. workers welcomed the application of scientific management
B. Talor’s philosophy is different from the industrial norms
C. by the early 1900s science had reached a stage where it could be applied to the workplace
D. workers were no longer exploited after the introduction of scientific management.
Question 38: According to the passage, Frank Gilbreth discovered how workers could eliminate
waste motion by
A. using special tools such as cameras and clocks
B. using stop watches
C. applying scientific management principles
D. watching his children do their chores
Question 39: The word “motions” is closest in meaning to
A. stop watches B. habits C. actions D. special tools
Question 40: Where in the passage does the author comment that the principles of scientific
management were often misunderstood?
A. Lines 1-5 B. Lines 6-10 C. Lines 11-15 D. Lines 16-20
Question 41: The word “ dimensions” in line 24 is closest in meaning to
A. sizes B. extents C. aspects D. standards
Question 42: All of the following are true except
A. scientific management was concerned with productivity.
B. the beginnings of modern management thought commenced in the 19th century.
C. Frank Gilbreth’s fame was enhanced by two of his children writing a book.
D. analyzing work to increase productivity is not likely to be useful unless all of the
dimensions are considered.
Perhaps better known than the Cullinan Diamond is the Hope Diamond, a valuable and
blue gem with a background of more than 300 years as a world traveler.The 112-carat blue stone
later became the Hope Diamond was mined in India sometime before the middle of the
seventeenth century and was first known to be owned by Shah Jahan, who built the Taj Mahal in
memory of his beloved wife. From India, the celebrated blue stone has changed hands often,
moving from location to location in distant corners of the world.
In the middle of the seventeenth century, a trader from France named Jean Baptiste
Tavernier acquired the large blue diamond, which was rumored to have been illegally removed
from a temple Tavemier returned to France with the big blue gem, where the stone was
purchased by the Sun King Louis XIV. Louis XIV had it cut down from 112 to 67 carats to make
its shape symmetrical and to maximize its sparkle. The newly cut diamond, still huge by any
standards, was passed down through the royal family of France, until it arrived in the hands of
Louis XVI and Marie Antoinette. During the French Revolution, Louis XVI and his wife met
their fate on the guillotine in 1793, and the big blue diamond disappeared from public sight.
The diamond somehow managed to get from France to England, where banker Henry Hope
purchased it from a gem dealer early in the nineteenth century. The huge blue stone was cut into
a 45.5-carat oval, and at this point it took on the name by which it is known today. The diamond
stayed in the Hope family for around a century, when deep indebtedness brought on by a serious
gambling habit on the part of one of Henry Hope's heirs forced the sale of the diamond.
From England, the Hope Diamond may have made its way into the hands of the Sultan of
Turkey; whatever route it took to get there, it eventually went on to the United States when
American Evelyn Walsh McLean purchased it in 1911. Mrs. McLean certainly enjoyed showing
the diamond off guests in her home were sometimes astounded to notice the huge stone
embellishing the neck of Mrs. McLean’s Great Dane as the huge pet trotted around the grounds
of her Washington, D.C. home. The Hope Diamond later became the property of jeweler Harry
Winston, who presented the stunning 45.5- carat piece to the Smithsonian in 1958. The Hope
Diamond is now taking a well-earned rest following its rigorous travel itinerary and is on display
at the Smithsonian Institution in Washington, D.C., where it has been since 1958.
Question 43: The paragraph preceding the passage most likely discussed
A. why gems are considered valuable B. how the Hope Diamond was mined
C. a diamond other than the Hope Diamond D. methods for mining diamonds
Question 44: The main idea of this passage is that the Hope Diamond
A. came from India B. has moved around a lot
C. has been cut several times D. now resides in the Smithsonian
Question 45: The pronoun "it" in the passage refers to
A. its shape B. the newly cut diamond
C. the royal family D. the French Revolution
Question 46: It can be inferred from the passage that the author is not certain
A. who bought the Hope Diamond in England
B. who sold the Hope Diamond in England
C. how the Hope Diamond went from France to England
D. how big the Hope Diamond was in the nineteenth century
Question 47: It can be determined from the passage that Henry Hope most likely had how many
carats cut off the Hope Diamond?
A. 21.5 B. 45 C. 66.5 D. 67
Question 48: According to the passage, Mrs. McLean
A. donated the Hope Diamond to the Smithsonian
B. let her dog wear the Hope Diamond
C. purchased the Hope Diamond from the French
D. had the Hope Diamond cut to its present size of 45.5 carats
Question 49: Which country is NOT mentioned in the passage as a place where the Hope
Diamond spent some time?
A. India B. France C. England D. Denmark
Question 50: Where in the passage does the author describe what happened to the royal French
owners of the diamond?
A. Lines 7-8 B. Lines 10-11 C. Lines 12-14 D. Lines 15-16
Đáp án
1 D 11 B 21 B 31 C 41 C
2 D 12 C 22 A 32 B 42 B
3 B 13 C 23 A 33 A 43 C
4 D 14 B 24 B 34 D 44 B
5 D 15 D 25 C 35 D 45 B
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 B 46 C
7 D 17 A 27 A 37 B 47 B
8 C 18 C 28 B 38 D 48 B
9 C 19 B 29 B 39 C 49 D
10 B 20 D 30 D 40 B 50 C

Question 1: A. bury B. fury C. pure D. secure
Question 2: A. sodium B. solid C. solitude D. solvent
Question 3: A. submissive B. deductive C. attentive D. relative
Question 4: A. attract B. marry C. demand D. connect
Question 5: We should also take into account a fact that unemployment causes poverty.
A. also B. a C. that D. causes
Question 6: Whoever said this he must have been a liar because it is something that even a child
knows to be true.
A. he must B. something C. that D. be true
Question 7: Your brother spoke in a more interesting way, even though he mentioned less
details.
A. in a more B. way C. even D. less
Question 8: New tax cut is designed to make life easier for
A. all of poor B. most the poor C. the poor people D. the poor
Question 9: I’m sure you'll have no the exam.
A. difficulty passing B. difficulties to pass
C. difficulty to pass D. difficulties of passing
Question 10: The safe _ of nuclear waste is a major international problem
A. disposal B. abandon C. display D. sale
Question 11: I’m afraid we can only afford to pay you a sum for your services.
A. nominal B. titular C. complete D. calculated
Question 12: If you don’t decrease the speed soon, you may not be able to stop
A. shortly B. at times C. on time D. in time
Question 13: He hasn’t tried it himself . He would like to ,
A. although B. though C. even though D. despite

Question 14: She said that she to have a baby.
A. was going B. is going C. has gone D. will go
Question 15: Safety experts are trying to establish the of yesterday’s train crash.
A. creation B. reason C. grounds D. cause
Question 16: At the moment we’re holding on to our shares but in value, we would
probably sell them.
A. if they were rise B. for them to rise C. unless they rose D. were they to rise
Question 17: No one should be exempt prosecution if they have committed a crime.
A. of B. about C. against D. from
Question 18: The ………..of food during that long winter left many families in despair.
A. scarcity B. availability C. variety D. abundance
Question 19: Peter: “Did you enjoy roller coaster ride?” Kate: “No! It was experience
of life.”
A. The most terrifying B. far more terrifying
C. the most terrified D. A most terrified
Question 20: Teacher: “It’s so far away. How do you get to school?” Boy: “ ”
A. I have no idea. B. In my neighbour’s van.
C. Nothing special. D. About 7 kilometers, I think
Question 21: Host: “I’m terribly sorry for this inconvenience.” Guest: “ ”
A. It’s mine. I came late B. It’s not your fault
C. I’ll do better next time D. Fine, thanks
meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following Question .
Question 22: As all of us cannot be available today , let’s put off the discussion till later.
A. absent for the event B. scheduled for the event
C. arranged for the event D. appointed for the event
Question 23: When the rent increased from 200to200to400 a month, they protested against such
a tremendous increase.
A. slight B. difficult C. huge D. numerous
Question 24: If you build a structure next to this river, you must be sure it is safe against
floods.
A. hut B. sentence C. pattern D. building
Question 25: Within a week on display at the exhibition, the painting was hailed as a
masterpiece.
A. an expensive work of art B. a down-to-earth work of art
C. an excellent work of art D. a large work of art
Question 26: He didn’t hurry so he missed the plane.
A. If he hurried he wouldn’t miss the plane.
B. If he had hurried he might catch the plane.
C. If he had hurried he could have caught the plane.
D. He didn’t miss the plane because he hurried.
Question 27: They are building a new school in the village.
A. A new school has been built in the village.
B. The building of a new school in the village has just finished.
C. A new school is built in the village.
D. A new school is being built in the village.
Question 28: This conference wouldn’t have been possible without your organization
A. If you didn’t organize, this conference wouldn’t have been possible.
B. If it had been for your organization, this conference wouldn’t have been possible.
C. Your organization made it possible for this conference to take place.
D. It’s possible that your organization made this conference impossible.
Question 29: It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.
B. Unless it was an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
Question 30: I understand why you detest her. I’ve finally met her.
A. I understand why you don’t like her due to I’ve lastly met her.
B. Now that I have finally met her, I understand why you hate her.
C. I met her and I know your feeling.

D. Since I finally met her, I understand why you like her.
THE TOURIST TRAP
Tourism is the fastest-growing industry in the world. As well as bringing prosperity to an area,
however, it can also destroy the qualities which (31) visitors in the first place. If it is
not carefully controlled, tourism can also create problems for local people, as is shown by
various examples from around the world. When Phuket in Thailand first became a popular tourist
(32) , people there were unable to cope with the increase in rubbish that 2 million
visitors a year produce and a huge incinerator had to be built in the countryside to deal with it.
New hotels at Goa in India caused a huge increase in water consumption, (33) many
local people to walk considerable distances to get clean water. And Egypt’s desert landscapes are
being destroyed by the litter (34) by tourists. Moving sands are difficult to clean, and
the white desert to the west of the Nile Valley may be permanently affected. It’s encouraging,
therefore, to read about the efforts of certain tour companies who are organising environmental
holidays in some of the worst hit areas. Regular tours now go to places (35) the
Himalayas and Atlas mountains in North Africa with the aim of combining a bit of sightseeing
with the chance to help clear up some of the mess left by previous visitors.
Question 31: A. convinced B. persuaded C. attracted D. appealed
Question 32: A. position B. destination C. terminus D. departure
Question 33: A. encouraging B. making C. forcing D. urging
Question 34: A. dropped B. sunk C. lowered D. fallen
Question 35: A. as well as B. as for C. such as D. so as to
Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each for the questions.
Children learn to construct language from those around them. Until about the age of three,
children tend to learn to develop their language by modeling the speech of their parents, but from
that time on, peers have a growing influence as models for language development in children. It
is easy to observe that, when adults and older children interact with younger children, they tend
to modify their language to improve children communication with younger children, and this
modified language is called caretaker speech.
Caretaker speech is used often quite unconsciously; few people actually study how to
modify language when speaking to young children but, instead, without thinking, find ways to
reduce the complexity of language in order to communicate effectively with young children. A
caretaker will unconsciously speak in one way with adults and in a very different way with
young children. Caretaker speech tends to be slower speech with short, simple words and
sentences which are said in a higher-pitched voice with exaggerated inflections and many
repetitions of essential information. It is not limited to what is commonly called baby talk, which
generally refers to the use of simplified, repeated syllable expressions, such as ma-ma, boo-boo,
bye-bye, wa-wa, but also includes the simplified sentence structures repeated in sing-song
inflections. Examples of these are expressions such as “ say bye-bye” or “where’s da-da?”
Caretaker speech serves the very important function of allowing young children to acquire
language more easily. The higher-pitched voice and the exaggerated inflections tend to focus the
small child on what the caretaker is saying, the simplified words and sentences make it easier for
the small child to begin to comprehended, and the repetitions reinforce the child’s developing
understanding. Then, as a child’s speech develops, caretakers tend to adjust their language in the
response to the improved language skills, again quite unconsciously. Parents and older children
regularly adjust their speed to a level that is slightly above that of a younger child; without
studied recognition of what they are doing, these caretakers will speak in one way to a one-year-
ago and in a progressively more complex way as the child reaches the age of two or three.
An important point to note is that the function covered by caretaker speech, that of
assisting a child to acquire language in small and simple steps, is an unconsciously used but
extremely important part of the process of language acquisition and as such is quite universal. It
is not merely a device used by English-speaking parents. Studying cultures where children do not
acquire language through caretaker speech is difficult because such cultures are not difficult to
find. The question of why caretaker speech is universal is not clear understood; instead
proponents on either side of the nature vs. nature debate argue over whether caretaker speech is a
natural function or a learned one. Those who believe that caretaker speech is a natural and
inherent function in humans believe that it is human nature for children to acquire language and
for those around them to encourage their language acquisition naturally; the presence of a child
is itself a natural stimulus that increases the rate of caretaker speech develops through nurturing
rather than nature argue that a person who is attempting to communicate with a child will learn
by trying out different ways of communicating to determine which is the most effective from the
reactions to the communication attempts; apparent might, for example, learn to use speech with
exaggerated inflections with a small child because the exaggerated inflections do a better job of
attracting the child’s attention than do more subtle inflections. Whether caretaker speech results
from nature or nurture, it does play an important and universal role in child language acquisition.
Question 36: According to paragraph 1, children over the age of three

A. Learn little language from those around them
B. Are no longer influenced by the language of their parents
C. Are influenced more and more by those closer to their own age
D. First begin to respond to caretaker speech
Question 37: The word “modeling” in paragraph 1 could best replaced by
A. demonstrating B. mimicking C. building D. designing
Question 38: It can be inferred from part.2 that people generally seem
A. To be able to adapt their language to the level of a child’s language without thinking
consciously about it
B. Quite aware of the use of caretaker speech
C. To have difficulty using caretaker speech
D. To use caretaker speech conscious by reducing the complexity of their language
Question 39: All of the following are mentioned in par.3 as characteristics of caretaker speech
EXCEPT
A. Overemphasized inflections B. The use of rhyming sounds
C. The tendency to repeat oneself D. The use of easier words and structures
Question 40: It is indicated in paragraph 3 that parents tend to
A. Speak in basically the same way to a one-year-old and a three-year-old
B. Use language that is far above the language level of a child
C. Speak in a progressively less complex way as a child matures
D. Modify their speech according to the language development of a child
Question 41: The word “reaches” in paragraph 3 could best replaced by
A. holds on to B. takes charge of C. arrives at D. extends out to
Question 42: The word “that” in par.4 refers to
A. an important point B. the function C. caretaker speech D. a child
Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of
pollution, it is very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by different
individuals is highly subjective and, therefore, variable. Exposure to lower levels of noise may
be slightly irritating, whereas exposure to higher levels may actually cause hearing loss.
Particularly in congested urban areas, the noise produced as a by product of our advancing
technology causes physical and psychological harm, and detracts from the quality of life for
those who are exposed to it.
Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the ear has no
lid, and is, therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection.
Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes
accustomed. Loud noises instinctively signal danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism,
including human beings. In response, heartbeat and respiration accelerate, blood vessels
constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general increase in functioning
brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in response to fear, and some of these responses
persist even longer than the noise, occasionally as long as thirty minutes after the sound has
ceased.
Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly
responding in the same way that we would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have
concluded that noise and our response may be much more than an annoyance. It may be a serious
threat to physical and psychological health and well-being, causing damage not only to the ear
and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long known that hearing loss is America’s
number one nonfatal health problem, but now we are learning that some of us with heart disease
and ulcers may be victims of noise as well. Fetuses exposed to noise tend to be overactive, they
cry easily, and they are more sensitive to gastrointestinal problems after birth. In addition, the
psychic effect of noise is very important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and anxiety increase,
affecting the quality of rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during waking hours, as
well as the way that we interact with each other.
Question 43: Which of the following is the author’s main point?
A. Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health.
B. Loud noises signal danger.
C. Hearing loss is America’s number one nonfatal health problem
D. The ear is not like the eye.
Question 44: According to the passage, what is noise?
A. Unwanted sound B. A by-product of technology
C. Physical and psychological harm D. Congestion
Question 45: Why is noise difficult to measure?
A. It causes hearing loss.
B. All people do not respond to it in the same way.
C. It is unwanted
D. People become accustomed to it

Question 46: The word "congested" in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by
A. hazardous B. polluted C. crowded D. rushed
Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that the eye
A. responds to fear B. enjoys greater protection than the ear
C. increases functions D. is damaged by noise
Question 48: According to the passage, people respond to loud noises in the same way that they
respond to
A. annoyance B. disease C. damage D. danger
Question 49: The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to
A. the noise B. the quality of life
C. advancing technology D. a by-product
Question 50: With which of the following statements would the author most probably agree?
A. Noise is not a serious problem today
B. Noise is America’s number one problem
C. Noise is an unavoidable problem in an industrial society
D. Noise is a complex problem
Đáp án
1 A 11 A 21 B 31 C 41 C
2 A 12 D 22 A 32 B 42 B
3 D 13 B 23 A 33 C 43 A
4 B 14 A 24 D 34 A 44 A
5 B 15 D 25 C 35 C 45 B
6 A 16 D 26 C 36 C 46 C
7 D 17 D 27 D 37 B 47 B
8 D 18 A 28 C 38 A 48 D
9 A 19 A 29 D 39 B 49 A
10 A 20 B 30 B 40 D 50 C

Question 1: A. sorry B. correct C. commit D. corrupt
Question 2: A. dessert B. dissolve C. possess D. assist
Question 3: A. physical B. musical C. possible D. domestic
Question 4: A. alive B. ancient C. central D. vacant
Question 5: I’d like to see him in my office the moment he will arrive.
A. to see B. in C. office D. will arrive
Question 6: She wishes we didn't send her the candy yesterday because she's on a diet
A. didn't send B. candy C. because D. on a
Question 7: You needn’t give me any more advices because, from now on, I can cope with it on
my own.
A. needn't B. advices C. now on D. with it
Question 8: The press puts on the police forces who were unable to cope with the
crowd of savage hooligans.
A. blame B. charge C. fault D. guilt
Question 9: Can you hear the wind? It’s blowing a !
A. drizzle B. gale C. breeze D. gust
Question 10: Our team was losing but we managed to the score
A. get B. notice C. even D. have
Question 11: My mother told me to for an electrician when her fan was out of order.
A. send B. write C. rent D. turn
Question 12: I _this letter around for days without looking at it.
A. carry B. must carry C. have been carrying D. am carrying
Question 13: We bought our father a beautiful set of golf for his birthday.
A. racquets B. bats C. clubs D. shoes
Question 14: My son dropped college and joined the army.

A. away from B. out of C. off D. by
Question 15: We with a swim in the lake.
A. gave in B. took up C. got out D. cooled off
Question 16: The summer course in English conversation, grammar and listening
classes.
A. contains B. concludes C. consists D. comprises
Question 17: According to a recent survey, most people are their neighbors.
A. acquaintance with B. on good terms with C. on good relationships with D. in relation
to
Question 18: My was right. The result of the game was exactly what I said it would be.
A. expectation B. prediction C. prospect D. outlook
Question 19: Unemployment is on the rise again, which means that good jobs are
A. far and away B. far from it C. as far as they go D. few and far between
Question 20: Mai: “We’re going to have a few friends over on Wednesday and I’d love you to
come.”
A. Not Wednesday again.
B. Sorry. I’ve already made plans for Wednesday.
C. I’m busy on Wednesday.
D. Can I come another day?
Question 21: Alice: “Well, the chicken is delicious.” Nike: “ ”
A. I cooked it. B. The chicken is mine.
C. Thank you. I’m glad you like it. D. You’re go nice.
Question 22: Harry displays enthusiasm whenever he is posed with a problem.
A. eagerness B. weakness C. indifference D. softness
Question 23: The Civil War created feverish manufacturing activity to supply crucial material,
especially in the North.
A. extremely rapid B. slow C. very dangerous D. understandable
Question 24: Earthquakes are regarded as one of most devastating forces known to man.
A. terrifying B. mysterious C. fascinating D. destructive
Question 25: The recycling of aluminum converses ninety percent of the energy needed to make
new metal.
A. cleaning B. crushing C. reselling D. reprocessing
Question 26: The concert wasn’t as good as we had expected.
A. The concert was as good as we had thought.
B. We expected the concert to be worse.
C. We thought the concert would be much better.
D. The concert was thought to be good.
Question 27: Please don’t ask her to the party.
A. I’d rather you didn’t invite her to the party. B. I’d rather not ask her to the party.
C. Please don’t ask her about the party. D. You ask her to the party, don’t you?
Question 28: She broke down the moment she heard the news.
A. She was broken for a moment when she heard the news.
B. On hearing the news, she broke down.
C. She broke her leg when hearing the news.
D. When she heard the news, she was sick.
Question 29: Sam was all ready to leave the office. The phone rang.
A. Sam was on the point of leaving the office when the phone rang.
B. Sam was bound to leave the office when the phone rang.
C. Sam was about to leave the office then the phone rang.
D. Sam was leaving the office as soon as the phone rang.
Question 30: She keeps disagreeing with her boss. She’s likely to lose her job.
A. When she keeps disagreeing with her boss, she may get sacked from her job.
B. Although she keeps disagreeing with her boss, she’s in danger of being fired from her job.
C. She may have lost her job if she keeps disagreeing with her boss.
D. If she keeps disagreeing with her boss, she’s in danger of getting dismissed from her job.
TRAVEL TIPS
Travelling abroad is getting easier and easier for young people nowadays. If you take the time to
talk to travel (31) and shop around, some really good deals can be found. Eurorail and
Interail are two travel cards which allow people aged 20 or under, unlimited travel in Europe,
mainly by train. It’s quite a good idea to plan your route before you set off. Most young travelers
stay on campsites or in youth (32) , as they are quite cheap. Unbelievable bargains can
be found by making last-minute bookings for charter flights. Remember to check in with your
luggage two hours before (33) for international flights. But don’t take too much with
you or you won’t be able to carry it to the bus or taxi that will take you to your hotel. It is
advisable to carry traveler’s (34) rather than cash, and keep them in a money belt
around your waist. Look after your passport and tickets carefully. If disaster strikes and all your
valuables are stolen, contact your nearest (35) there they’ll help you with all the
paperwork and make sure you get home safely.
Question 31: A. officers B. agents C. guides D. representatives
Question 32: A. hostels B. villas C. hotels D. apartments
Question 33: A. lift-out B. lifting C. take-off D. departing
Question 34: A. cheques B. receipts C. bills D. notes
Question 35: A. council B. bureau C. ambassador D. embassy
Martin Luther King, Jr., is well known for his work in civil rights and for his many famous
speeches, among them is his moving “I Have A Dream” speech. But fewer people know much
about King’s childhood. M.L., as he was called, was born in 1929 in Atlanta, Georgia, at the
home of his maternal grandfather. M.L.’s grandfather, the Reverend A.D. Williams, purchased
their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909, twenty years before M.L. was born. The Reverend
Williams, an eloquent speaker, played an important role in the community since so many
people’s lives centered around the church. He allowed his church and his home to be used as a
meeting place for a number of organizations dedicated to the education and social advancement
of blacks. M.L. grew up in this atmosphere, with his home being used as a community gathering
place, and was no doubt influenced by it.
M.L.’s childhood was not especially eventful. His father was a minister and his mother was
a musician. He was the second of three children, and he attended all-black schools in a black
neighborhood. The neighborhood was not poor, however. Auburn Avenue was the main artery
through a prosperous neighborhood that had come to symbolize achievement for Atlanta’s black
people. It was an area of banks, insurance companies, builders, jewelers, tailors, doctors,
lawyers, and other black-owner, black-operated businesses, and services. Even in the face of
Atlanta’s segregation, the district thrived. Dr. King never forgot the community spirit he had
known as a child, nor did he forget the racial prejudice that was a seemingly insurmountable
barrier that kept black Atlanta from mingling with whites.
Question 36: What is this passage mainly about?
A. the prejudice that existed in Atlanta B. Martin Luther King’s childhood
C. Martin Luther King’s grandfather D. the neighborhood King grew up in
Question 37: The word “gathering” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by
A. picking B. learning C. exciting D. meeting
Question 38: According to the author, King was influenced by
A. community spirit. B. black lawyers. C. his mother D. his speeches
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. achievement B. neighborhood C. segregation D. services
Question 40: According to the author, blacks in King’s neighborhood were involved in all the
following businesses and services EXCEPT.
A. dentistry B. medicine C. law D. banking
Question 41: The word “tailors” in paragraph 2 describes people who are associated with which
of the following trades?
A. flower arranging B. shoe making C. garment making D. book binding
Question 42: According to the author, M.L.
A. had a difficult childhood B. was a good musician as a child.
C. loved to listen to his grandfather speak D. grew up in a relatively rich area of Atlanta.
CUTTING THE APRON STRINGS
There is substantial evidence that students going off to college have changed over the
years. For one thing, studies show that they are emotionally closer to their parents and their
parents to them. One thing that means is that they depend on each other more for happiness. It
puts a burden on children for parents to use their children as vehicles for their own happiness-
although today’s young people seem complicit in this arrangement, perhaps because they’ve
known no other way-even if it creates anxiety in the children. That’s one reason parents like to
be involved in their children’s college experiences, and colleges have had to devise novel ways
of getting parents off campus when they transport their kids to school.
There’s also evidence that students today seem to be choosing schools with reference to
proximity to home. The closer a student is to home, the easier it is to bring the laundry home and
to land in your old bed with tea and sympathy when you have the sniffles. And the easier it is for
parents to visit you at university whenever the mood strikes. The amount of visiting parents do is
far more than in generations past.
But in a real sense, students don’t really leave their parents behind. Their parents go to
college right along with them - in their front pockets. That is, the parents are a speed dial away
by cell phone. This, of course, significantly reduces independence. A student doesn’t get the
chance to solve minor problems on his own - he just calls Mom or Dad. A student has initial
problems getting along with a roommate? A roommate doesn’t do laundry as often as the other
roommate wishes? A student gets a C grade on her first paper? Instead of absorbing the negative
information and figuring out how to resolve the problem or how to do better, the call gets made
to home, where Mom or Dad solves the problem, often by calling the school administration. This
kind of behavior is, sadly, commonplace today and is a mark of the lack of coping skills among
students because all the lumps and bumps have been taken out of life for them until now.
In addition to being tethered to parents, incoming freshmen are now very heavily
connected by cell phone to classmates from high school, who are presumably at other colleges.
So there isn’t the great impetus to mix and venture forth to meet new people, to get out of one’s
comfort zone, to get drawn into new experiences, that has traditionally marked the beginning of
freshman year. The laws of physics still apply, and it is difficult to be meeting new people and
seeking novel experiences while you are talking to your old pals.
Question 43: The provision of mobile phones for children, according to the author, .
A. reduces children’s dependence on their parents
B. increases positive control by parents
C. decreases parental interference
D. increases children’s dependence
Question 44: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that children and their parents .
A. emotionally need each other
B. only temporarily depend on each other
C. emotionally and physically depend on each other
D. eternally depend on each other
Question 45: The author remarks that students nowadays tend to .
A. refuse to go to a college that is far from home
B. go to college to satisfy their parents’ wish
C. choose an institution that is close to their home

D. choose a foreign institution rather than a domestic one
Question 46: Parents like to be involved in their children’s college experiences because
A. they are worried about the school’s carelessness
B. the school often neglects their children
C. they are afraid of being deprived of happiness
D. they find their children a source of happiness
Question 47: The word “vehicles” in the first paragraph may be replaced by .
A. means B. methods C. ways D. instruments
Question 48: Colleges have had to devise ways of getting parents off campus because
.
A. children want complete freedom from their parents’ control
B. the colleges want to keep parents in the dark about their activities
C. parents tend to get more involved in their children’s schoolwork
D. teachers themselves do not want to share information with the parents
Question 49: By quoting the laws of physics, the author implies that _ .
A. one should study physics whenever possible
B. one should never forget old relationships
C. one should only care about new relationships
D. one should build more relationships
Question 50: “Cutting the Apron Strings”, the title of the passage, can be interpreted as
.
A. parting with old relationships B. being financially independent
C. standing on your own feet D. looking for your own devices
Đáp án
1 A 11 A 21 C 31 B 41 C
2 D 12 C 22 C 32 A 42 D
3 D 13 C 23 B 33 C 43 D
4 A 14 B 24 D 34 A 44 A
5 D 15 D 25 D 35 D 45 C
6 A 16 D 26 C 36 B 46 D
7 B 17 B 27 A 37 D 47 A
8 A 18 B 28 B 38 A 48 C
9 B 19 D 29 D 39 B 49 D
10 C 20 B 30 D 40 A 50 C

Question 1: A. cholera B. character C. charcoal D. mechanic
Question 2: A. apple B. any C. applicant D. absent
Question 3: A. expression B. vegetable C. instruction D. promotion
Question 4: A. discard B. suspect C. accuse D. sentence
Question 5: Had I been interested in that subject, I would try to learn more about it.
A. Had I B. in C. try to learn D. about
Question 6: Tim is different from John in that the first is smart and the latter rather unintelligent.
A. from B. the first C. and D. latter rather
Question 7: Because the high risk of the fire during the drought, the officials ordered that no
outside fire of any sort could be set.
A. Because B. during C. ordered D. be set
Mark the better A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word from the four words or
phrases (A, B, C or D) choose the one that best completes the sentence.
Question 8: A pet could a very special purpose in our life, as a companion.
A. build B. define C. serve D. form
Question 9: What at 10 o’clock last night?
A. have you done B. were you doing C. have you been doing D. had you done
Question 10: Their army invaded the neighbouring country’s
A. territory B. region C. site D. district
Question 11: Greg has, to all intents and , finished his degree course, with the
exception of his final dissertation.
A. reasons B. purposes C. aims D. proposals
Question 12: At time did I ever promise you a pay rise.
A. some B. all C. any D. no
Question 13: The young man objects to do all the work himself.
A. to being asked B. to asking C. being asked D. on being asked
Question 14: A young tourist has been declared _ after he got lost in the mountains last
Monday
A. absent B. deserter C. vanished D. missing
Question 15: She got the highest marks in all the tests, which was not surprising because she
was always the most student.
A. industrial B. industry C. industrialized D. industrious
Question 16: Tristan felt to help Louise, because he had received so much assistance
from her in the past.
A. necessary B. impressed C. voluntary D. obliged
Question 17: Young children need nutritious food if they are to grow up .
A. strong and healthy B. strongly and healthily
C. strongly and health D. strong and healthily
Question 18: The woman looked the photos carefully to identify the pickpocket, but
there were so many that it was soon hard to distinguish one another.
A. at-of B. in-onto C. for-with D. over-from
Question 19: Derek was wearing at the party.
A. the most ridiculous wide, yellow, silk tie B. very ridiculous wide, yellow, silk tie
C. a tie, yellow, wide and ridiculous D. a yellow, silk ridiculous tie
Question 20: Mike : “I still can’t get used to it” Jane: “ ”
A. You’re hopeless. B. You’re welcome.
C. It was nice of you. D. Sounds easy enough.
Question 21: Jack accidentally spilt coffee over Jenny’s dress in a buffet.Jack: “Forgive me. I’m
terribly sorry about the dress.”Janny: “ ”
A. I see what you mean. B. That’s quite all right.
C. You’re welcome. D. Don’t mention it.
Question 22: In about one-third of all cases of hepatitis B, it is unknown how the patient
contracted the virus
A. .became smaller with B. Spread
C. got rid of D. became infected with
Question 23: If we met a man in a courthouse who was wearing exotic clothes, speaking a
language other than ours, and carrying food that looked strange, we would not assume that we
understood his thoughts.
A. improper B. familiar C. outdoor D. formal
Question 24: It has rained so much, the ground is now saturated with water.
A. drained B. soaked C. empty of D. absorbed
Question 25: The two scientists are contemporaries. Both of them are in their late 40s.
A. familiar with each other B. equally capable
C. defeated to each other D. living in the same time period
Question 26: That smoking has a bad effect on our health has been proved.
A. That smoking, which has bad effect on our health, has been proved.
B. It has been proved that smoking is harmful for our health.
C. Smoking badly affects our health is true.
D. That bad effect of smoking on our health has been proved.
Question 27: It’s the first time I’ve been to a flower show.
A. I haven’t been to a flower show for years. B. It’s the first time I’ve seen so many flowers.
C. I haven’t been to a flower show before. D. This is the first flower show I know.
Question 28: His comment bears little relation to the topic
A. His comment is close to the topic
B. His comment is directly to the point.
C. His comment and the topic are not the same.
D. What he said is irrelevant to the topic.
Question 29: Alex bought the big house. He wanted to open a restaurant
A. Alex bought the big house although he wanted to open a restaurant.
B. Alex bought the big house with a view to opening a restaurant.
C. Alex bought the big house in order to want to open a restaurant.
D. Alex bought the house as long as he wanted to open a restaurant.
Question 30: The artist attempted to vivify the painting. The artist added people dressed in
bright colors in the foreground.
A. Vivifying the painting, the artist added people dressed in bright colors in the foreground.
B. The artist attempted to vivify the painting because he added people dressed in bright colors
in the foreground.
C. The artist attempted to vivify the painting by adding people dressed in bright colors in the
foreground.
D. Whereas the artist attempted to vivify the painting, he added people dressed in bright
colors in the foreground.
Read the passages and the questions or unfinished sentences. Then choose the answer (A, B,
C or D) that you think fits best.
THE VIDEO LOGGERS
One rather unlike word that has recently entered the language is “blog”, a shortened form of
“web log”. A blog is a diary on the Internet by the person writing it – the “blogger” – who
presumably expect other people to read it. Modern technology is being used to (31)
new life into such an old-fashioned form as the personal journal. And now, as the
technology behind video camera is making them easier to use, we have the video log, or “vlog”.
Vlogging does not require (32) sophisticated equipment: a digital video camera, a high-
speed Internet connection and a host are all that is needed. Vloggers can put anything that takes
their fancy onto their personal web site. Some vloggers have no ambition (33) than to
show films they have shot while on holiday in exotic places. However, vlogs can also serve more
ambitious purposes. For instance, amateur film-makers who want to make a (34) for
themselves might publish their work on the Internet, eager to receive advice or criticism. And
increasingly, vlogs are being used to publicize political and social issues that are not noteworthy
enough to earn coverage by the mass media. It is still too early to predict whether vlogging will
ever (35) off in a major way or if it is just a passing fad, but its potential is only now
becoming apparent.
Question 31: A. add B. inhale C. insert D. breathe
Question 32: A. absolutely B. highly C. utterly D. largely
Question 33: A. except B. other C. rather D. apart
Question 34: A. name B. fame C. publicity D. promotion
Question 35: A. fly B. take C. show D. make
Researchers in the field of psychology have found that one of the best ways to make an
important decision, such as choosing a university to attend or a business to invest in, involves the
utilization of a decision worksheet. Psychologists who study optimization compare the actual
decisions made by people to theoretical ideal decisions to see how similar they are. Proponents
of the worksheet procedure believe that it will yield optimal, that is, the best decisions. Although
there are several variations on the exact format that worksheets can take, they are all similar in
their essential aspects.
Worksheets require defining the problem in a clear and concise way and then listing all
possible solutions to the problem. Next, the pertinent considerations that will be affected by each
decision are listed, and the relative importance of each consideration or consequence is
determined. Each consideration is assigned a numerical value to reflect its relative importance. A
decision is mathematically calculated by adding these values together. The alternative with the
highest number of points emerges as the best decision.
Since most important problems are multifaceted, there are several alternatives to choose
from, each with unique advantages and disadvantages. One of the benefits of a pencil and paper
decision-making procedure is that it permits people to deal with more variables than their minds
can generally comprehend and remember. On the average, people can keep about seven ideas
in their minds at once. A worksheet can be especially useful when the decision involves a large
number of variables with complex relationships. A realistic example for many college students is
the question “What will I do after graduation?” A graduate might seek a position that offers
specialized training, pursue an advanced degree, or travel abroad for a year.
A decision-making worksheet begins with a succinct statement of the problem that will
also help to narrow it. It is important to be clear about the distinction between long-range and
immediate goals because long-range goals often involve a different decision from short-range
ones. Focusing on long-range goals, a graduating student might revise the question above to
“What will I do after graduation that will lead to a successful career?”
A. A tool to assist in making complex decisions.
B. A comparison of actual decisions and ideal decisions.
C. Research on how people make decisions.
D. Differences between long-range and short-range decision making.
Question 37: The word “essential” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. introductory B. changeable C. beneficial D. fundamental
Question 38: Of the following steps, which occurs before the others in making a decision
worksheet?
A. Listing the consequences of each solution
B. Calculating a numerical summary of each solution.
C. Deciding which consequences are most important.
D. Writing down all possible solutions.
Question 39: According to decision-worksheet theory, an optimal decision is defined as one
that.
A. has the fewest variables to consider
B. uses the most decision worksheets
C. has the most points assigned to it
D. is agreed to by the greatest number of people
Question 40: The author states in paragraph 3 that “On the average, people can keep about
seven ideas in their minds at once” to explain that
A. most decisions involve seven steps
B. human mental capacity has limitations
C. some people have difficulty making minor as well as major decisions
D. people can learn to keep more than seven ideas in their minds with practice.
Question 41: Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
A. Proponents (para.1) B. Optimal (para.1)
C. Variables (para.3) D. Long-range goals (para.4)
Question 42: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to
A. worksheet B. problem C. distinction D. decision
The National Automobile Show in New York has been one of the top auto shows in the
United States since 1900. On November 3 of that year, about 8,000 people looked over the
“ horseless carriages”. It was opening day and the first opportunity for the automobile
industry to show off its wares to large crowd; however, the black-tie audience treated the
occasion more as a social affair than as sales extravaganza. It was also on the first day of this
show that William Mckinley became the first U.S Present to ride in a car.
The automobile was not invented in the United States. That distinction belongs to
Germany. Nikolaus Otto built the first practical internal-combustion engine there in 1876.
Then, German engineer Karl Benz built what are regarded as the first modern automobiles in
the mid-1880s. But the United States pioneered the merchandising of the automobile. The
auto show proved to be an effective means of getting the public excited about automotive
products.
By happenstance, the number of people at the first New York show equaled the entire
car population of the United States at that time. In 1900, 10 million bicycles and an unknown
number of horse-drawn carriages provided the prime means of personal transportation. Only
about 4,000 cars were assembled in the United States in 1900, and only a quarter of those
were gasoline powered. The rest ran on steam or electricity.
After viewing the cars made by forty car makers, the show’s audience favored electric
cars because they were quiet. The risk of a boiler explosion turned people away from
streamers, and the gasoline-powered cars produced smelly fumes. The Duryea Motor Wagon
Company, which launched the American auto industry in 1895, offered a fragrant additive
designed to mask the smells of the naphtha that is burned. Many of the 1900 models were
cumbersome – the Gas mobile, the Franklin, and the Orient, for example, steered with a tiller
like a boat instead of with a steering wheel. None of them was equipped with an automatic
starter.
These early model cars were practically handmade and were not very dependable. They
were basically toys of the well-to-do. In fact, Woodrow Wilson, then a professor at Princeton
University and later President of the United States, predicted that automobiles would cause
conflict between the wealthy and the poor. However, among the exhibitors at the 1900 show
was a young engineer named Henry Ford. The cars he exhibited at the 1900 show apparently
attracted no special notice. But before the end of the decade, he would revolutionize the
automobile industry with his Model T Ford. The Model T, first produced in 1909, featured a
standardized design and a steamlined method of production – the assembly line. Its lower
costs made it available to the mass market.
Cars at the 1900 show ranged in price from 1,000 dollars to 1,500 dollars, or roughly
14,000 dollars to 21,000 in today’s prices. By 1913, the Model T was selling for less than 300
dollars , and soon the price would drop even further. “I will build cars for the multiudes,”
Ford said, and he kept his promise.
Question 43: The passage implies that the audience viewed the 1900 National Automobile Show
primarily as a(n)
A. formal social occasion
B. chance to buy automobiles at low prices.
C. opportunity to learn how to drive.
D. chance to invest in one of thirty-two automobile manufacturers.

Question 44: According to the passage, who developed the first modern car ?
A. Karl Benz B. Nikolaus Otto C. William McKinley D. Henry Ford
Question 45: Approximately how many cars were there in the United States in 1900 ?
A. 4,000 B. 8,000
C. 10 million D. An unknown number
Question 46: Approximately how many of the cars assembled in the year 1900 were gasoline
powered?
A. 32 B. 1,000 C. 2,000 D. 4,000
Question 47: According to the passage, people at the 1900 National Automobile Show favored
cars powered by
A. electricity B. naphtha C. gasoline D. steam
Question 48: The purpose of the additive mentioned in paragraph 4 was to
A. increase the speed of cars B. make engines run more efficiently
C. hide strong smells D. make cars look better
Question 49: The word well-to-do in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. good condition B. rich
C. obedient children D. good-natured people
Question 50: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as steering with a tiller
rather than with a steering wheel ?
A. a Franklin B. a Duryea C. an Orient D. a Gasmobile
Đáp án
1 C 11 B 21 B 31 D 41 B
2 B 12 D 22 C 32 B 42 B
3 B 13 A 23 B 33 B 43 A
4 D 14 D 24 B 34 A 44 A
5 C 15 D 25 D 35 B 45 B
6 B 16 D 26 B 36 A 46 B
7 A 17 A 27 C 37 D 47 A
8 C 18 D 28 D 38 D 48 C
9 B 19 A 29 B 39 C 49 B
10 A 20 A 30 C 40 B 50 B

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. flown B. brown C. crown D. frown
Question 2: A. swear B. spear C. hare D. bear
Question 3: A. machine B. memory C. ceiling D. cottage
Question 4: A. attack B. forever C. supply D. military
Question 5: A schedule of the day’s events can obtain at the front desk.
A. A schedule B. day’s C. obtain D. the front desk
Question 6: Medical research indicates that large amount of histamine can be responsible for
colds, hay fever, and other respiratory reactions.
A. amount B. can C. colds D. respiratory
Question 7: A lot of ancient paintings and sculptures can be found in this museum but there are
a few works of Hugo because he is relatively unknown in this country.
A. ancient B. sculptures C. a few D. he is
Question 8: Almost one hundred people have died as a direct result of food in the
capital.
A. lacking B. shortage C. desire D. famine
Question 9: By the housework done, my mother has more time to pursue her career.
A. ordering B. taking C. having D. making
Question 10: Although this is far from certain, the age of the universe is about 4.6
billion years.
A. approximate B. general C. near D. rough
Question 11: I got some bread at a .
A. jewelry B. boutique C. bakery D. drugstore
Question 12: The salary they offered me exceeded my wildlest !
A. expecting B. expectations C. expect D. expectant
Question 13: Michael was a terrible , he was even afraid to stay at home alone.
A. culprit B. boaster C. fiance' D. coward
Question 14: Because she is so voluble, she has no trouble meeting new people or talking
a crowd
A. on behalf of B. in favour of C. in front of D. in aid of
Question 15: , it would have been a super weekend.
A. If it were nice weather B. But for the weather
C. If the weather hadn’t been nice D. Had it been the weather
Question 16: We have invested sums of money in improving our equipment.
A. expanding B. even more greater C. ever- increasing D. large amounts of
Question 17: It took my sister some time to get used to living on an island, but she
began to like it.
A. initially B. instantly C. eventually D. constantly
Question 18: I the result tomorrow. As soon as I hear, I you.
A. am going to know/will tell B. will know/tell
C. will know/tell D. am going to know/tell
Question 19: My parents don’t like politics, and
A. I don’t neither B. neither do I C. so do I D. I don’t, too
Question 20: "Good bye, Susie!" “ ”
A. So so B. The same C. Yeah D. So long
Question 21: Jack: “I think listening to music while learning is good.” Janny: “ ”
A. Sorry, but I am not in agreement with you B. I'm sorry I couldn't agree more.
C. Me neither D. I don't agree. You can say that again.
Question 22: Physical and mental strength must be the decisive factors in the success of any
sportsmen.
A. main B. unimportant C. initiative D. last
Question 23: Ten prisoners were released last week after their 5-year imprisonment.
A. killed B. arrested C. freed D. jailed
Question 24: Every time he opens his mouth, he immedieately regrets what he said. He's always
putting his foot in his mouth.
A. speaking indirectly B. making a mistake
C. doing things in the wrong order D. saying embarrassing things
Question 25: Petra had to abandon the idea of completing her university degree in two years
instead of four.
A. return to often B. give up C. approve of D. transform quickly
Question 26: We don’t care whether Nick leaves or stays
A. We don’t want Nick to leave or stay
B. Whether Nick leaves or stays is important to us
C. We don’t know whether Nick wants to leave or stay
D. It makes no difference to us whether Nick leaves or stays
Question 27: Tim never considered the possibility of studying abroad
A. Tim never thought he couldn’t study abroad
B. It occurred to Tim that he would think of studying abroad
C. It never crossed Tim’s mind that he could study abroad
D. There was no possibility of Tim studying abroad
Question 28: Please don’t say things like that.
A. Stop saying things like that. B. I wish you wouldn’t say things like that.
C. I would rather not say things like that. D. You mightn’t say things like that.
Question 29: We never eat candy or ice cream. We do drink soda
A. Although we never eat candy or ice cream, we do drink soda
B. Because we never eat candy or ice cream, we drink soda
C. We never eat candy or ice cream if we do drink soda
D. We never eat candy or ice cream and drink soda
Question 30: She didn’t want to leave the room. She was afraid that she would miss the
beginning of the film.
A. She didn’t want to leave the room because she missed the beginning of the film.
B. She didn’t want to leave the room for fear that missing the beginning of the film
C. She didn’t want to leave the room for fear of missing the beginning of the film
D. She didn’t want to leave the room so that she would miss the beginning of the film
CRITICISM
It can take a long time to become successful in your chosen field, however talented you are. One
thing you have to be (31) of is that you will face criticism along the way. The world is
full of people who would rather say something negative than positive. If you’ve made up your
(32) to achieve a certain goal, such as writing a novel, don’t let the negative criticism of
others prevent you from reaching your target and let constructive criticism have a positive (33)
on your work. If someone says you’re totally lacking in talent, ignore them. That’s
negative criticism. If, however, someone advises you to revise your work and gives you good
reasons for doing so, you should (34) their suggestions carefully. There are many film
stars who were once out of work. There are many famous novelists who made a complete mess
of their first novel - or who didn’t, but had to keep on approaching hundreds of publishers before
they could get it published. Being successful does depend on luck, to a certain extent. But things
are more likely to (35) well if you persevere(in/ at/ with: kiên nhẫn) and stay positive.
Question 31: A. clever B. aware C. kept in mind D. intelligent
Question 32: A. thought B. decision C. idea D. mind
Question 33: A. effect B. change C. affect D. result
Question 34: A. reckon B. consider C. cautious D. remember
Question 35: A. get out B. carry out C. turn out D. bring out
The pain of a migraine headache can virtually disable a person who suffers from it.
Millions and millions of people suffer from migraines, although many of them do not even
recognize that a migraine is different from a regular headache. A migraine is not at all the same
as a normal headache, and it seems to have a very physical cause.
One symptom of a migraine is a precursor, which is a visual aura before an attack. Yet
only about a third of patients actually experience that, and it is therefore not a requirement in the
diagnosis. Other symptoms include increased pain when a person moves, nausea, and sensitivity
to light and sound. Scientists now believe that migraines are caused, not by abnormal blood
vessels as previously believed, but instead by a unique electrical disorder of brain cells.
Physicians used to treat migraines with medicine to constrict blood vessels because of the belief
that dilated blood vessels were the cause.
The new research has been enhanced by imaging devices that allow scientists to watch
patients' brains during an attack. The results show that sufferers have abnormally excitable
neurons, or brain nerve cells. Prior to the attack, the neurons suddenly fire off electrical pulses at
the back of the brain, which ripple like waves on a lake after a stone hits the water. They ripple
across the top and then the back of the brain, ultimately affecting the brain stem where the pain
centers are located. The pain then generates possibly from the brain stem itself or from blood
vessels inflamed by the rapidly changing blood flow, or perhaps from both.
Scientists have experimented by applying a powerful magnet to stimulate the neurons and
discovered that some people's brains react differently than others'. When stimulation was applied
to the brains of people who had suffered migraines, they saw the initial aura, and some actually
suffered migraines. When the same stimulation was applied to the brains of people who had
never suffered migraines, they realized no effect and the neurons showed no change.
Scientists and doctors continue to work on the research in an attempt to find the perfect
treatment. It is considered important to treat migraines because it is believed that prolonged
untreated attacks could cause physical changes in the brain leading to chronic pain.
Question 36: The author implies that a migraine
A. is just a strong headache.
B. can be treated with regular aspirin.
C. is caused by the same things that cause a headache
D. has a specific scientific cause, unlike a headache.
Question 37: The word “it “ in paragraph 1 refers to
A. pain B. migraine C. person D. suffering
Question 38: The prior treatment for migraines included medicine that
A. eliminated any pain. B. tightened blood vessels
C. eliminated the aura. D. eliminated stress.
Question 39: The word enhanced in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. hindered B. augmented C. described D. studied
Question 40: The new research indicates that the neurons in the brain of migraine sufferers
A. have more electrical charge than those of people who do not suffer migraines.
B. tend to fire in an unusual pattern when a migraine begins.
C. do not react.
D. have no effect on migraines
Question 41: According to the passage, now that scientists know that unusual neurons in certain
people are the cause of migraines, they
A. know all they need to know about the cause of migraines.

B. have developed medicine to permanently reverse the neurons' charge.
C. still do not know exactly what causes the pain.
D. know that the defective neurons reside in the brain stem.
Question 42: The best title for this passage would be what?
A. Imaging As a Means of Studying Migraines
B. How Migraines and Headaches are Different
C. New Evidence of How Migraines Are Formed
D. New Treatments for Migraines
Line Europeans who arrived in the Americas, the first American Indians were immigrants.
Because Indians were nomadic hunters and gatherers, they probably arrived in search of new
hunting grounds from Asia when they crossed the ice-covered Bering Strait to Alaska.
Anthropologists estimate that the entire Indian population north of Mexico was slightly greater
than 1,020,000 when the first settlers arrived from Europe. Although Native Americans belonged
to one geographic race, their cultures and languages were only marginally similar, and by and
large, they had different ways of life. Nomadic migrations required Indians to construct shelters
that did not need to be transported, but could be easily erected from the materials found in their
new location.
Eastern Woodland Indian tribes lived in bark-covered wigwams that were shaped like cones
or domes. The frame for the hut was made of young trees firmly driven into the ground, and then
bent overhead to tie together with bark fibers or strings of animal hides. Sheets and slabs of bark
were attached to the frame to construct the roof and walls, leaving an opening to serve as a door
and to allow smoke to escape. The Iroquois in north eastern regions built longhouses that were
more spacious than wigwams because five to a dozen families lived under one roof. During the
winter, they plastered clay to the poles of the frame to protect the inhabitants from wind and rain.
Pueblo Indians who lived in the southwest portion of the United States in northern Arizona
and New Mexico constructed elaborate housing with several stories and many rooms. Each
family unit had only one room, and their ancestors dug shelters in the walls of cliffs and canyons.
The ground story of a Pueblo dwelling had no doors or windows in order to prevent enemies
from entering. The next level was set back the width of one room, and the row of rooms above it
was set back once again, giving their houses the appearance of a terrace Pueblos used ladders to
climb to the upper levels and pulled them in when all family members returned for the night.
Indians living in deserts used sandstone and clay as construction materials. Those who lived
in the valleys of rivers even made bricks of clay with wood chips to add strength and to prevent
the clay from cracking. To make roofs, Pueblos tied logs together to make rafters and laid them
across the two outside walls. On top of the rafters, layers of tree branches, sticks, grass, and
brush created a solid roof to preclude the water from leaking inside. Pueblo dwellings were dark
because windows were often not large enough to allow much light.
A. Different Indian tribes B. Types of households among Indians
C. Types of shelters built by Indians D. Different Indian cultures
Question 44: The word “marginally” is closest in meaning to
A. markedly B. minimally C. temporarily D. tentatively
Question 45: The phrase “by and large” is closest in meaning to
A. mostly B. conversely C. occasionally D. notably
Question 46: The author of the passage implies that Indians
A. carried their construction materials to new locations
B. lived in settlements, similar to the Europeans
C. liked the climate in the Southwest
D. constructed shelters every time a tribe moved
Question 47: The author of the passage implies that Eastern Indians
A. constructed huts without roofs
B. planted trees to harvest crops
C. made fires inside their huts
D. used sheets and blankets as bedding
Question 48: The phrase “under one roof” is closest in meaning to
A. in separate sections B. in several shelters C. comfortably D. together
Question 49: What was the main difference between the dwelling of Pueblo and Woodland
Indians?
A. The Pueblos lived in permanent structures, but the Woodland Indians lived in transient
shelters.
B. The Pueblos used wood in their constructions, but the Woodland Indians relied mostly on
animal hides.
C. The Woodland Indians lived on flat ground, but the Pueblos lived in canyons.
D. The Woodland Indians built small shelters, but the Pueblo rooms were large.
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that Pueblo dwellings were designed to protect
inhabitants from
A. attacks by enemies and cold winters
B. attacks by enemies and against rain water
C. wind storms and water from rain
D. wild animals, cold winters, and desert sands.
Đáp án
1 A 11 C 21 A 31 B 41 C
2 B 12 B 22 B 32 D 42 C
3 A 13 D 23 D 33 A 43 C
4 D 14 C 24 D 34 B 44 B
5 C 15 B 25 B 35 C 45 A
6 A 16 C 26 D 36 D 46 D
7 C 17 C 27 C 37 B 47 C
8 B 18 A 28 B 38 B 48 D
9 C 19 B 29 A 39 B 49 A
10 A 20 D 30 C 40 B 50 B

Question 1: A. what B. where C. why D. who
Question 2: A. laughter B. bought C. brought D. fought
Question 3: A. artificial B. inhabitant C. mausoleum D. integration
Question 4: A. energy B. applicable C. household D. appliance
Question 5: Most of the guests turned up two hours early, that took us by surprise.
A. of the B. up C. that D. by
Question 6: When I got to the cinema Jack had been waiting for me.
A. to B. the C. had been D. for
Question 7: All applications ask for your address, telephone number and the title of the job for
whom you are applying.
A. ask for B. and C. the title D. for whom
Question 8: Lan: “I can’t understand how you missed the exit.” Mai: “Well, it was so dark that
”
A. we could see hardly the road signs B. we could see the road signs hardly
C. hardly could we see the road signs D. we could hardly see the road signs
Question 9: As we waited on the pavement, a black Mercedes beside us.
A. pulled up B. pulled down C. pulled off D. pulled through
Question 10: Ann had to use my ruler because she had left at home.
A. her B. she C. herself D. hers
Question 11: We took the children to the park last weekend. They really enjoyed
going on all the rides.
A. wildlife B. amusement C. national D. entertainment
Question 12: did Janet accept the job.
A. Only because it was interested work B. The work was interesting
C. Only because it was interesting work D. Because it was interesting work

Question 13: As the sea level is getting _many areas of land will no longer exist.
A. high B. the higher C. higher and higher D. the highest
Question 14: I’ll lend you some money _I get paid.
A. until B. as soon as C. whenever D. while
Question 15: “Did Susan have a chance to you?” “Oh, yes, she called me up last
night”
A. call contacts with B. keep in touch for C. get in touch with D. find contacts for
Question 16: Not only _ , it also performs an essential function in the reproduction of
the plant.
A. the flower is looking beautiful B. does the flower look beautiful
C. the beautiful flower D. the flower looks beautiful
Question 17: When I rang the bell, her husband _ the door.
A. received B. responded C. replied D. answered
Question 18: without animals and plants?
A. What would life on earth be like B. How would life on earth be for
C. What will life on earth be like D. How will life on earth be like
Question 19: He wanted to get to the town centre but he got the wrong bus and ended
up at the station.
A. in B. out of C. off D. on
Question 20: Ann: “How well you are playing!” Peter: “ ”
A. Say it again. I like to hear your words. B. I think so. I’m proud of myself.
C. Thank you so much. I’m always the best. D. Many thanks. That’s a nice compliment.
Question 21: A: “Thanks for helping me out.” B: “ ”
A. It’s kind of you to say so. B. That’s right.
C. You bet. D. Don’t mention it.
Question 22: The famous racehorse Secretariat had to be destroyed because of a painful,
incurable hoof disease.
A. disabling B. vexatious C. dangerous D. reparable
Question 23: Charles W. Eliot, the president of Harvard in 1869, initiated a system under which
most required courses were dropped in favor of elective courses.
A. initial B. compulsory C. optional D. necessary
Question 24: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
Question 25: American children customarily go trick-or-treating on Halloween.
A. inevitably B. readily C. happily D. traditionally
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
Question 26: If Janet had checked her purse, she wouldn’t have forgotten her license at home.
A. Janet forgot her purse and her license.
B. Janet forgot her license but not her purse.
C. Janet forgot her purse but not her license.
D. Janet forgot neither her license nor her purse.
Question 27: She reminded her daughters of theirs table manners.
A. She wanted her daughters to be more polite while eating.
B. She wanted her daughters to leave the dinner table.
C. She wanted her daughters to eat a little more slowly.
D. She wanted her daughters to remember all meal time.
Question 28: We hoped Rick would tell us what his new house was like.
A. We wanted to know the directions to Rick’s new house.
B. We wanted Rick to describe his new house for us.
C. We wanted Rick to tell us if he liked his new house.
D. We wanted Rick to tell us the price of his new house.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.
A. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me.
B. He cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it.
C. As long as he cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me.
D. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.
Question 30: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
A. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.

B. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.
D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour.
How men first learnt to invent words is unknown; in other words, the origin of language is a (31)
. All we really know is that men, unlike animals, somehow invented certain sounds to
express thoughts and feelings, actions and things so that they could communicate with each
other; and that later they agreed (32) certain signs, called letters, which could be
combined to represent those sounds, and which could be written down. These sounds, (33)
spoken or written in letters, are called words. Great writers are those who not only have
great thoughts but also express these thoughts in words that appeal powerfully to our minds and
emotions. This charming and telling use of words is what we call literary (34) _ . Above
all, the real poet is a master of words. He can convey his meaning in words which sing like
music, and which by their position and association can (35) men to tears. We should,
therefore, learn to choose our words carefully, or they will make our speech silly and vulgar.
Question 31: A. story B. secret C. mystery D. legend
Question 32: A. at B. upon C. with D. about
Question 33: A. if B. however C. whether D. though
Question 34: A. prose B. work C. form D. style
Question 35: A. take B. send C. break D. move
The problem of cardiac arrest has become a major problem these days. A lot of patients
have acute pain after suffering from a stroke. There are plenty of medicines, surgical methods
developed in the field of medicine to treat such cardiac problems. These solutions are time
consuming and costly. In the process of rehabilitation, the medicines also have a lot of side
effects on the human body and take time to give relief. Therefore, a lot of people go for
alternative therapies that help in rehabilitation of patients who suffer from cardiac stroke. The
alternative therapies help in relieving pain, stress and make the body healthy and fit through
exercise, yoga as well as meditation.
Those who have the cardiac complaint have to take a good care of their diet. Also, they
must look after their regular exercise in order to stay fit and make sure that they do not take
undue stress. These are some of the precautions that you need to take while you are in the
process of rehabilitation. The cardiac rehabilitation can be carried out at the rehabilitation centers
as well as at the residence of the patients. Once the patient learns all the exercise and techniques
of meditation and understands what diet he or she should include in their meals as the
instructions of the doctor’s and dieticians, then it is possible to accomplish the rehabilitation
process at home with little guidance and monitoring. But the best results are seen at the center,
where the program is given to a group of patients together.
The alternative therapies used for cardiac rehabilitation are stress management, physical
exercises and diet. Stress management is very much essential in the rehabilitation process
because it has a lot of effects on the patient’s body. A lot of relaxation techniques are taught to
the patients that helps them in stress management, among them meditation is one of the main
focuses.
The various rehabilitation programs also give you information on how to have a stress free
lifestyle. The patients are supported and encouraged to discuss their problems with the counselor
or fellow patients. This helps them to vent their feelings and feel comforted. Breathing exercises
are also of great help for the patients who are undergoing cardiac rehabilitation.
In addition to stress management, physical exercises are also given a lot of importance in
the rehabilitation program. The patients are asked to perform various forms of physical exercise
which are suitable to them depending on their age and the severity of their problems. These
activities include activities like walking, jogging, cycling, and some other sports like badminton,
tennis etc., to maintain their health and keep their muscles, bones, and body tissues in a good
state. Cardio exercise in a gymnasium is also encouraged. This helps in strengthening the
muscles and managing weight.
The diet of these patients also needs to be looked upon very carefully. Such people should
stay away from alcohol and tobacco consumption in order to improve their health. Make sure
that their meals include plenty of organic foodstuffs as well as fruits and juices. Do not include
junk and oily foodstuffs in your diet because they are very difficult to digest. The intake of
calories should also be done at required level. It is a significant fact that the patients have to
understand and work accordingly.
Question 36: What does the passage primarily discuss?
A. Medical treatment of cardiac arrest
B. Alternative therapies in the treatment of cardiac arrest
C. The rehabilitation process of cardiac arrest
D. Alcohol and tobacco consumption in cardiac patients’ diet
Question 37: All of the following are mentioned as the negative aspects of medical treatment
EXCEPT
A. causing acute pains B. costing a lot of money
C. having side effects on people’s body D. prolonging over a long period of time
Question 38: The word “undue” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. regular B. daily C. excessive D. severe
Question 39: Which is one of the main areas focused in the stress management program?
A. Relaxation B. Breathing
C. Meditation D. Weight management
Question 40: According to the passage, what do people with cardiac arrest need to do to have a
stress-free life?
A. They need to meditate on their problems
B. They need to talk to others about their problems.
C. They need to stop worrying about their problems.
D. They need to deal with their problems.
Question 41: The author mentions gymnasium in the passage to imply that
A. gymnasium is an ideal place for doing cardio exercise.
B. gymnasium is also a good place for doing cardio exercise
C. gymnasium is the place for doing cardio exercise when it rains.
D. gymnasium is the only place for doing cardio exercise.
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?
A. It is of vital important that patients of cardiac arrest understand and follow the instructions
from doctors and dieticians
B. Managing stress is considered the most important therapy in rehabilitation programs.
C. The cardiac rehabilitation carried out at home of the patients is less effective than in the
rehabilitation center.
D. Patients of cardiac arrest perform different forms of physical exercise based on their age
and their health condition.
ACADEMICS AREN’T THE PROBLEM
Studies about how students use their time might shed light on whether they face increased
academic and financial pressures compared with earlier eras.
Based on data about how students are spending time, academic or financial pressures don’t
seem to be greater now than a generation ago. The data show that full-time students in all types
of colleges study much less now than they did a generation ago - a full 10 hours a week less.
Students are also receiving significantly higher grades. So it appears that academic pressures are,
in fact, considerably lower than they used to be.
The time-use data don’t suggest that students feel greater financial pressures, either. When
the time savings and lower opportunity costs are factored in, college appears less expensive for
most students than it was in the 1960s. And though there are now full-time students working to
pay while in college, they study less even when paid work choices are held constantly.
In other words, full-time students do not appear to be studying less in order to work more.
They appear to be studying less and spending the extra time on leisure activities or fun. It seems
hard to imagine that students feeling increased financial pressures would respond by taking more
leisure.
Based on how students are spending their time, then, it doesn’t look as though academic or
financial pressures are greater now than a generation ago. The time- use data don't speak directly
to social pressures, and it may well be that these have become more intense lately.
In one recent set of data, students reported spending more than 23 hours per week either
socializing with friends or playing on the Computer for fun. Social activities, in person or on
Computer, would seem to have become the major focus of campus life. It is hard to tell what
kinds of pressures would be associated with this change.
Question 43: Research studies have shown that pressures put on students nowadays are .
A. much greater than the past B. not greater than the past
C. getting ever greater D. more diversified
Question 44: The study’s conclusion that students’ workload now is not greater than before is
based on .
A. how students spend their time B. what students achieve with greater load
C. how students work through college D. what college demands from students
Question 45: Students get higher grades as _.
A. students study much harder B. academic workload appears less demanding
C. academic workload appears more attractive D. college’s facilities are much better
Question 46: All factors considered, college now seems .
A. ever more expensive B. more costly
C. much more expensive D. less expensive
Question 47: The word “focus” in the last paragraph can be replaced with .
A. headline B. biggest importance C. primary theme D. central activity

Question 48: According to the author, the fact that more full-time students are working for pay
.
A. shows that students are financially pressured
B. is not an indication of pressures
C. does not change students’ campus life
D. indicates that students are academically pressured
Question 49: Ạccording to the author, the fact that students have more time for leisure is a proof
that .
A. financial pressure on students is not a problem
B. they cannot find extra jobs
C. academic work disinterests them
D. they are active with extra-curricular activities
Question 50: The word “Academics” in the title mostly means .
A. college students and tutors B. professors and research students
C. students’ workload in college D. graduate students’ workload
Đáp án
1-D 2-A 3-B 4-D 5-C 6-C 7-D 8-D 9-A 10-D
11-B 12-C 13-C 14-B 15-C 16-B 17-D 18-A 19-D 20-D
21-D 22-D 23-C 24-C 25-D 26-B 27-A 28-B 29-B 30-B
31-C 32-B 33-C 34-D 35-D 36-B 37-A 38-C 39-C 40-B
41-B 42-B 43-B 44-A 45-B 46-D 47-D 48-B 49-A 50-C

Question 1: A. attach B. alternative C. attendance D. again
Question 2: A. illegal B. islander C. inflation D. intervention
Question 3: A. scientific B. biology C. geography D. activity
Question 4: A. passionate B. magnetic C. luxurious D. majority
Question 5: Hardly had we arrived at the hotel, that there was a power cut.
A. had we B. at C. that D. a
Question 6: Not until the office phoned me had I found out about the meeting.
A. Not B. phoned C. had I found D. about
Question 7: I tried to convince him several times but I failed because he was unwilling to
consider what I have said.
A. him B. failed C. to consider D. have said
From the four words or phrases (A, B, C or D) choose the one that best completes the
sentence.
Question 8: The new director of the company seems to be an intelligent and man.
A. well-educated B. well-educate C. well-educational D. well- education
Question 9: My brother has been getting so __ with me recently - I've no idea what's the
matter with him.
A. nervous B. irritable C. envious D. unkind
Question 10: If you have a to make about the food, I am willing to listen.
A. dislike B. complaint C. trouble D. discontent
Question 11: They say that a friend in is a friend indeed.
A. need B. lack C. wish D. miss
Question 12: Michael was with anger when he saw his car had been scratched.
A. filled B. fixed C. loaded D. stored
Question 13: Never before in an earnest attempt to resolve their differences.
A. have the leaders of those two countries met B. the leaders of these two countries have met
C. have the leaders the two countries meet D. met the leaders of the two countries
Question 14: I’m sure you’ll find someone to friends with at the summer camp.
A. create B. set C. join D. make
Question 15: Looking after a pet can take quite a lot of time.
A. on B. over C. in D. up
Question 16: One of the men was lying on the ground after down by a piece of rock.
A. knocking B. being knocked C. knocking him D. was knocked
Question 17: Solar energy is considered as one kind of fuels.
A. various B. alternative C. replacing D. changing
Question 18: I had no problems on the test, except for question 36, which I found really
A. rough B. upset C. tough D. strict
Question 19: entering the hall, he found everyone waiting for him.
A. With B. In C. At D. On
Question 20: Lan: "That millions of people attended General Vo Nguyen Giap's funeral made a
special impression on almost every foreigner."Nga: “ ”
A. My pleasure B. Me neither C. I'm afraid I can't D. I'll say
Question 21: "Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti, or something different!" “ ”
A. I'm afraid not B. Yes, please C. Never mind D. Anything will do
Question 22: The coach takes every opportunity to censure his players, yet he ignores every
opportunity to praise them.
A. criticise B. praise C. approve of D. choose
Question 23: Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year’s harvest.
A. hungry B. rich C. poor D. full
Question 24: Workers tried to extinguished the flames. Their efforts proved futile, as piles of
fabric ignited all over the eighth floor.
A. became wet B. caught fire C. exploded D. spread
Question 25: In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew two years ago.
A. new counselors B. first-year students C. new students D. young professors
Question 26: He would never agree to sell his business, even if he received a very tempting
offer.
A. He wanted to sell his business although the offer was tempting.
B. He would never agree to sell his business unless the offer was tempting.
C. However tempting the offer, he would never agree to sell his business.
D. Although he’d never agree to sell his business, the offer was very tempting.
Question 27: I was shocked that John stole the car.
A. John’s stolen car was very shocking.
B. John was shocked that he could not take the car.
C. My car was stolen, and John was shocked.
D. That John stole the car shocked me.
Question 28: Scarcely had he got out of the house when it started raining.
A. He was getting out of the house when it started raining.
B. He had no sooner got out of the house when it started raining.
C. He got out of the house after it started raining.
D. It started raining right after he got out of the house.
Question 29: Jim is my best friend. I borrowed his car yesterday.
A. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend.
B. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday is my best friend.
C. Jim, who is my best friend, borrowed my car yesterday.
D. Jim, whose car I lent yesterday, is my best friend.
Question 30: Joe does a lot of exercise. He’s still very fat.
A. Despite the fact that doing a lot of exercise, Joe’s still very fat.
B. Joe does a lot of exercise, so he’s very fat.
C. Even though Joe does a lot of exercise, he’s very fat.
D. Joe’s very fat, but he does a lot of exercise.
Around the age of sixteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life. “Do I stay on
at school and hopefully go on to university (31) ? Do I leave and start work or begin a
training course. The decision is yours, but it may be (32) remembering two things: there
is more unemployment among those who haven’t been to university, and people who have the
right skills will have a big advantage in the competition for jobs. If you decide to go (33)
into a job, there are many opportunities for training. Getting qualifications will help
you to get on more quickly in many careers, and evening classes allow you to learn (34)
you earn. Starting work and taking a break to study when you are older is another possibility. In
this way, you can save up money for your student days, as well as (35) _ practical work
experience.
Question 31: A. former B. past C. later D. after
Question 32: A. necessary B. important C. useful D. worth
Question 33: A. instant B. just C. straight D. direct
Question 34: A. while B. what C. where D. which
Question 35: A. doing B. getting C. making D. taking
The official residence of the president of the United States is the White House, located at
1600 Pennsylvania Avenue, in Washington, D.C. The Commissioners of the District of
Columbia held a meeting in 1792 and decided to hold a contest for the best design for the
Presidential House. James Hoban, an architect born in Ireland, was the winner. His bid for the
construction of the mansion asked for $200,000, but the final cost of the building came to twice
that amount. The work on the project began during the same year, and the grounds of
approximately one and a half miles west of the Capitol Hill were chosen by Major Pierre-Charles
L’Enfant, who was in charge of city planning. However, the construction continued for several
more years, and George Washington had stepped down as president before the building was
habitable. When John Adams, the second president of the United States and his wife Abigail
moved in 1800, only six rooms had been completed.
The grey sandstone walls of the house were painted white during construction, and the
color of the paint gave the building its name. The building was burned on August 24, 1814, and
James Hoban reconstructed the house for President James Monroe and his family, who moved
there in 1817. The north portico was added to the building in 1829, water pipes were installed in
1833, gas lighting in 1848, and electricity in 1891. In 1948, inspectors announced that the
building was so dilapidated that it was beyond repair and suggested that it was cheaper to
construct a new one than repair the existing dwelling. However, the national sentiment was to
keep the original form intact, and Congress appropriated $5million dollars for repairs. In 1961,
Jacqueline Kennedy launched a pro.4 gram to redecorate the rooms and appointed a Fine Arts
Committee to make choices of furnishing and colors.
The house of the president accords its residents a great deal of space. The living quarters
contain 107 rooms, 40 corridors, and 19 baths. The White House contains a doctor’s suite, a
dentist’s office, a large solarium, a broadcasting room, and a two-floor basement for storage and
service rooms. The office in which the president works is not located in the White House, but in
a separate building called the West Wing. The White House stands on 16 acres of park like land
and overlooks a broad lawn, flower gardens, and wood groves.
Question 36: The word “contest” is closest in meaning to
A. hearing B. concourse C. competition D. computation
Question 37: What does the passage imply about the cost of the White House construction?
A. It was proposed at the meeting of the commissioners.
B. It did not adhere to the original estimate.
C. It was not included in the architectural design.
D. It was considered excessive for the presidential home.
Question 38: The word “grounds” is closest in meaning to
A. high ground B. several lots C. site D. hills
Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that
A. George Washington often used the White House steps
B. George Washington contributed to the White House design
C. George Washington never lived in the White House
D. The White House was excluded from the city planning
Question 40: The author of the passage implies that the construction of the main White House
building continued
A. up to 1800 B. after 1800 C. until 1814 D. until 1792
Question 41: What can be inferred about the White House from the information in the second
paragraph?
A. Few changes occurred in the structure in the first half of the 20th century.
B. The building was modernized extensively during one decade.
C. Running water was installed in the second half of the 19th century.
D. Each president added new features to the building’s conveniences.
Question 42: The passage mentions all of the following White House premises EXCEPT
A. hallways B. kitchen C. medical offices D. storage rooms
In the course of history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average
amount of energy available for use per person. Primitive people in cold regions burned wood
and animal dung to heat their caves, cook food, and drive off animals by fire. The first step
toward the developing of more efficient fuels was taken when people discovered that they could
use vegetable oils and animal fats in lieu of gathered or cut wood. Charcoal gave off a more
intensive heat than wood and was more easily obtainable than organic fats. The Greeks first
began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4th century, but it did not come into extensive use
until the Industrial Revolution.
In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United
States and other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and renewable
sources, such as wood, water streams, domesticated animal labor, and wind. These were
predominantly locally available supplies. By mid-1800s, 91 percent of all commercial energy
consumed in the United States and European countries was obtained from wood. However, at the
beginning of the 20th century, coal became a major energy source and replaced wood in
industrializing countries. Although in most regions and climate zones wood was more readily
accessible than coal, the latter represents a more concentrated source of energy. In 1910, natural
gas and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of fuel because they are lighter and, therefore,
cheaper to transport. They burned more cleanly than coal and polluted less. Unlike coal, oil
could be refined to manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles, a very important consideration in the
early 1900s, when the automobile arrived on the scene.
By 1984, nonrenewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over 82
percent of the commercial and industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of energy
were derived from nuclear fission, and the remaining 16 percent came from burning direct
perpetual and renewable fuels, such as biomass. Between 1700 and 1986, a large number of
countries shifted from the use of energy from local sources to a centralized generation of
hydropower and solar energy converted to electricity. The energy derived from nonrenewable
fossil fuels has been increasingly produced in one location and transported to another, as is the
case with most automobile fuels. In countries with private, rather than public transportation, the
age of nonrenewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite resource that will have to be
replaced.
A. Applications of various fuels B. Natural resources and fossil fuels
C. A history of energy use D. A historical overview of energy rates

Question 44: The phrase “per person” is closest in meaning to
A. per capita B. per year C. per family D. per day
Question 45: The phrase “in lieu” is closest in meaning to
A. in spite B. in place C. in every way D. in charge
Question 46: The author of the passage implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy were
A. used for commercial purposes B. used in various combinations
C. not derived from mineral deposits D. not always easy to locate
Question 47: The phrase “the latter” refers to
A. wood B. coal C. most regions D. climate zones
Question 48: The word “They” refers to
A. coal and wood B. main sources of fuel
C. natural gas and oil D. industrializing countries
Question 49: According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel?
A. It was a concentrated source of energy.
B. It was lighter and cheaper than coal.
C. It replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution.
D. It could be converted to automobile fuel.
Question 50: According to the passage, the sources of fossil fuels will have to be replaced
because
A. they need to be transported B. they are not efficient
C. their use is centralized D. their supply is limited
Đáp án
1 B 11 A 21 D 31 C 41 A
2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 B
3 A 13 A 23 D 33 C 43 C
4 A 14 D 24 B 34 A 44 A
5 C 15 D 25 B 35 B 45 B
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 C 46 C
7 D 17 B 27 D 37 B 47 B
8 A 18 C 28 D 38 C 48 C
9 B 19 D 29 A 39 C 49 D
10 B 20 D 30 C 40 B 50 D

differs from other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. favour B. harbor C. flour D. vapor
Question 2: A. bull B. dull C. full D. put
Question 3: A. harbor B. mature C. enable D. container
Question 4: A. domestic B. applicant C. wilderness D. heritage
correction in each of the following question.
Question 5: From the monitoring of earthquake waves it is evidence that the Earth’s outer core
is liquid, whereas the inner core is solid.
A. From B. earthquake C. evidence D. whereas
Question 6: In nowadays, commercial breakeries use complex, automated machines, but the
basic principles of baking have changed little for thousands of years.
A. In nowadays B. of baking C. little D. for thousands
Question 7: Philosopher Theodore A. Langerman was interested in the fields of literary and
music.
A. Philosopher B. interested C. literary D. music
From the four words or phrases (A, B, C or D), choose the one that best completes the
sentence.
Question 8: It seems our application has been refused
A. point blank B. bull ‘s eye C. carte blanche D. about- face
Question 9: A product, , will be highly desired by many, as customers are misguided to
ignore the products’ downsides.
A. when is promoted well B. when promoted well
C. if it promoted well D. if promoting well
Question 10: I don’t think it's fair to a comparison between the two sisters.
A. do B. strike C. draw D. take
Question 11: I love you, I can’t let you do whatever you like.
A. Much as B. Whatever C. Whether D. Despite
Question 12: I think you need a holiday to _your batteries.
A. get back B. recharge C. take up D. change

Question 13: When the Titanic started sinking, the passengers were _.
A. weather- beaten B. horrifying C. apprehensive D. panic- stricken
Question 14: Making mistakes is all of growing up.
A. chalk and cheese B. from top to bottom C. part and parcel D. odds and ends
Question 15: I've asked Mike not to leave his car in front of my gates, but he always
forgets.
A. time and again B. at times C. in the nick of time D. on time
Question 16: There was a sudden and we ran for cover.
A. downpour B. fallout C. outburst D. outbreak
Question 17: What would be the qualification in your own country ?
A. equivalent B. same C. similar D. corresponded
Question 18: The children can get to school ten minutes earlier if they take a short
through the park.
A. link B. cut C. pass D. path
Question 19: The offer of a place at university is not to be at.
A. sneezed B. shrugged C. winked D. coughed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
Question 20: Annie: ‘Do you prefer traveling by plane or by train? Peter: ' '
A. I don't really use either. B. No, not at all.
C. Sometimes. D. It terrifies me.
Question 21: Tom: "What would you like to do at the weekend?" Lisa: “ ”
A. I like to do a lot B. I'd like to see a football match.
C. I can't stand it D. I don't like to see a football match.
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
Question 22: Teachers must enforce certain rules in the classroom to ensure the safety and fair-
treatment of all students.
A. impose B. obtain C. overlook D. derive
Question 23: Proximity to the court house makes an office building more valuable.
A. interest in B. nearness to C. similarity to D. usefulness for
Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Video cameras attached to sea turtles and sharks reveal an underwater world
hidden to humans.
A. exposed B. unrelated C. invisible D. phenomenal
Question 25: We managed to get to school in time despite the heavy rain.
A. earlier than a particular moment B. later than expected
C. early enough to do something D. as long as expected
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 26: Only their own mother can tell Simon and Mike apart.
A. It’s very difficult to distinguish Simon and Mike.
B. Except for their own mother, no one can talk to Simon and Mike.
C. No one other than their mother can separate Simon and Mike.
D. Simon and Mike bear some resemblance to each other.
Question 27: You can cancel your ticket with a full refund only if you do so one week before
your scheduled departure.
A. In order to get all the money you’ve paid for the ticket back , the cancellation has to be
done seven days prior to your plane’s scheduled take-off.
B. When you purchase a ticket for a flight , it’s impossible to get a refund on it in advance of
the date that your flight will be leaving.
C. You can apply for a full refund for your ticket within a week if you’ve had a change of
plans and can’t make the flight.
D. When a flight has been cancelled by the airlines, you must asks for a full refund within one
week of the date of departure.
Question 28: This medicine will relieve the pain, but it will not cure everything.
A. Although this medicine will relieve the pain, but it cannot cure everything.
B. Only if this medicine works as a painkiller, it will cure everything.
C. While relieve the pain, this medicine will not cure everything.
D. Although this medicine will bring some pain relief, it will not work miracles.
Question 29: Mt. Everest is the highest mountain in the world. It's in the Himalayas.
A. Mt. Everest, the highest mountain in the world, is in the Himalayas.
B. Mt. Everest is the highest mountain in the world, it's in the Himalayas.
C. Mt. Everest is the highest mountain in the world, is in the Himalayas.
D. Mt. Everest is the highest mountain in the world, in the Himalayas.

Question 30: He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work.
A. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.
B. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.
D. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
The quality of life these days is something most of us take for (31) It takes some
radically different experience to bring this fact home to people. In my case, it was spending three
weeks aboard a yacht with twelve other people, competing in a major sailing race. (32) I
was officially a guest, it was made clear to me from the start that there was to be no room for
passengers, and that I’d have to (33) my weight.
For the first few nights, none of us was able to sleep for more than a couple of hours at a time
before being rudely awoken by an aggressive command. Then we’d do physically exhausting
work in total darkness. Every few minutes we’d be completely soaked to the (34) by a
large wave we couldn’t see coming. I shared sleeping quarters with six other women, with barely
enough room to stretch my legs. Soon I found myself (35) for my comfortable sheets
back home, a hot chocolate and a warm bath.
Question 31: A. given B. accepted C. granted D. read
Question 32: A. Although B. However C. But D. Therefore
Question 33: A. offer B. move C. use D. pull
Question 34: A. flesh B. skin C. bones D. tones
Question 35: A. desiring B. yearning C. dreaming D. craving
Puerto Rico, a Caribbean island rich in history and remarkable natural beauty, has a
cuisine all its own. Immigration to the island has helped to shape its cuisine, with people from all
over the world making various contributions to it. However, before the arrival of these
immigrants, the island of Puerto Rico was already known as Borikén and was inhabited by the
Taíno people. Taíno cuisine included such foods as rodents with sweet chili peppers, fresh
shellfish, yams, and fish fried in corn oil.
(1) Many aspects of Taíno cuisine continue today in Puerto Rican cooking, but it has been
heavily influenced by the Spanish, who invaded Puerto Rico in 1508, and Africans, who were
initially brought to Puerto Rico to work as slaves. (2)Taíno cooking styles were mixed with ideas
brought by the Spanish and Africans to create new dishes. (3) Africans also added to the island’s
food culture by introducing powerful, contrasting tastes in dishes like piñon–plantains layered in
ground beef. In fact, much of the food Puerto Rico is now famous for—plantains, coffee,
sugarcane, coconuts, and oranges—was actually imported by foreigners to the island. (4)
A common assumption many people make about Puerto Rican food is that it is very spicy.
It’s true that chili peppers are popular; ajícaballero in particular is a very hot chili pepper that
Puerto Ricans enjoy. However, milder tastes are popular too, such as sofrito. The 25 base of
many Puerto Rican dishes, sofrito is a sauce made from chopped onions, garlic, green bell
peppers, sweet chili peppers, oregano, cilantro, and a handful of other spices. It is fried in oil and
then added to other dishes.
(Adapted from: Reaing Explorer 2, by Paul MacIntyre, 2009, Heinle, Cengage Learning)
Question 36: Who lived in Puerto Rico first?
A. the Taíno people B. the Africans C. the Spanish D. the Americans
Question 37: What is the main idea of the second paragraph?
A. Taíno dishes are important in Puerto Rican cooking.
B. Puerto Rican cooking has had many influences.
C. Food that has been imported by foreigners isn’t really Puerto Rican.
D. American foods have probably had the most influence.
Question 38: The word it in paragraph 1 refers to
A. immigration B. Puerto Rican cuisine
C. Caribbean history D. the island’s natural beauty
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Many people think Puerto Rican food is spicy.
B. Puerto Rican cuisine uses a lot of chili peppers.
C. Sofrito is an extremely spicy type of food.
D. Ají caballero is a type of chili pepper.
Question 40: How is sofrito used?
A. It is eaten before meals. B. It is added to other dishes.
C. It is used when foods are too spicy. D. It is eaten as a main dish.
Question 41: Look at the four numbers (1), (2), (3), and (4) in paragraph 2 that indicate where
this sentence can be added to the passage. Where would the sentence fit best? The Spanish
extended food choices by bringing cattle, pigs, 15 goats, and sheep to the island.
A. (1) B. (2) C. (3) D. (4)
Question 42: The word "cuisine" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _
A. kind of cake B. kind of food C. style of cooking D. way of living

the correct answer to each for the question
Where one stage of child development has been left out, or not sufficiently experienced, the
child may have to go back and capture the experience of it. A good home makes this possible -
for example, by providing the opportunity for the child to play with a clockwork car or toy
railway train up to any age if he still needs to do so. This principle, in fact, underlies all
psychological treatment of children in difficulties with their development, and is the basic of
work in child clinics.
The beginnings of discipline are in the nursery. Even the youngest baby is taught by gradual
stages to wait for food, to sleep and wake at regular intervals and so on. If the child feels the
world around him is a warm and friendly one, he slowly accepts its rhythm and accustoms
himself to conforming to its demands. Learning to wait for things, particularly for food, is a
very important element in upbringing, and is achieved successfully only if too great demands are
not made before the child can understand them. Every parent watches eagerly the child's
acquisition of each new skill: the first spoken words, the first independent steps, or the beginning
of reading and writing. It is often tempting to hurry the child beyond his natural learning rate, but
this can set up dangerous feelings of failure and states of anxiety in the child. This might happen
at any stage. A baby might be forced to use a toilet too early, a young child might be encouraged
to learn to read before he knows the meaning of the words he reads. On the other hand, though, if
a child is left alone too much, or without any learning opportunities, he loses his natural zest for
life and his desire to find out new things for himself.
Learning together is a fruitful source of relationship between children and parents. By playing
together, parents learn more about their children and children learn more from their parents.
Toys and games which both parents and children can share are an important means of achieving
this co-operation. Building-block toys, jigsaw puzzles and crosswords are good examples.
Parents vary greatly in their degree of strictness or indulgence towards their children. Some
may be especially strict in money matters; others are severe over times of coming home at night,
punctuality for meals or personal cleanliness. In general, the controls imposed represent the
needs of the parents and the values of the community as much as the child's own happiness and
well-being.
With regard to the development of moral standards in the growing child, consistency is very
important in parental teaching. To forbid a thing one day and excuse it the next is no foundation
for morality. Also, parents should realize that "Example is better than precept". If they are
hypocritical and do not practice what they preach, their children may grow confused and
emotionally insecure when they grow old enough to think for themselves, and realize they have
been, to some extent, deceived. A sudden awareness of a marked difference between their
parents' ethics and their morals can be a dangerous disillusion.
Question 43: The principle underlying all treatment of developmental difficulties in children
A. is in the provision of clockwork toys and trains

B. is to send them to clinics
C. is to capture them before they are sufficiently experienced
D. offers recapture of earlier experiences
Question 44: Learning to wait for things is successfully taught
A. in spite of excessive demands being made
B. only if excessive demands are avoided
C. because excessive demands are not advisable
D. is achieved successfully by all children
Question 45: The encouragement of children to achieve new skills
A. should be focused on only at school B. can never be taken too far
C. will always assist their development D. should be balanced and moderate
Question 46: Parental controls and discipline
A. serve a dual purpose
B. are designed to promote the child's happiness
C. reflect only the values of the community
D. should be avoided as far as possible
Question 47: The practice of the rule "Example is better than precept"
A. only works when the children grow old enough to think for themselves
B. would help avoid the necessity for ethics and morals
C. will free a child from disillusion when he grows up
D. is too difficult for all parents to exercise
Question 48: In the 1st paragraph, the author lays some emphasis on the role of the in
helping the child in trouble.
A. psychiatrists B. community C. family D. nursery
Question 49: The phrase 'conforming to' in the 2nd paragraph means
A. adapting to B. accepting C. agreeing with D. following
Question 50: Hypocrisy on the part of the parents may
A. result in their children's wrong behaviour B. make their children lose faith in them
C. disqualify their teachings altogether D. impair their children's mind
Đáp án
1 C 11 A 21 B 31 C 41 C
2 B 12 D 22 A 32 A 42 C
3 A 13 D 23 B 33 D 43 D
4 A 14 C 24 A 34 B 44 B
5 C 15 A 25 B 35 B 45 D
6 A 16 A 26 A 36 A 46 A
7 C 17 A 27 A 37 B 47 C
8 A 18 B 28 D 38 B 48 C
9 B 19 A 29 A 39 C 49 A
10 C 20 A 30 B 40 B 50 B

Question 1: A. decent B. recent C. celebrate D. even
Question 2: A. begged B. canned C. booked D. buttoned
Question 3: A. possible B. excellent C. industrial D. attitude
Question 4: A. prohibit B. discover C. determine D. interrupt
Question 5: Trung wishes that he can have a chance to visit Singapore.
A. that B. can C. a chance D. visit
Question 6: The manager told me you could give me an information about the new toys you will
be selling in the new year.
A. The manager B. an information C. new toys D. in the new year
Question 7: Chocolate is prepared by a complexity process of cleaning, blending, and roasting
cocoa beans, which must be ground and mixed with sugar.
A. a complexity B. blending C. which D. mixed with
Question 8: It is imperative _ towards a solution to global warming before the climate
patterns of the world are disrupted irreparably.
A. that the world worked B. that the world work
C. the world to work D. the word would work
Question 9: I’d rather you to the English-speaking club with me this Sunday.
A. will come B. came C. come D. to come
Question 10: I to have to inform you that your ticket is not valid.
A. regret B. sorry C. apologize D. resent
Question 11: few species that live on the ground, most monkeys live in trees.
A. There are B. A C. All but D. Except for
Question 12: The effects of the anesthetic _ after a couple of hours.
A. wiped out B. finished off C. dried up D. wore off
Question 13: These girls are heading for a_ They get to work late and spend hours
talking on the phone.
A. drop B. fall C. trip D. decrease
Question 14: I think everyone should be with the way office machinery works.
A. conversant B. mindful C. answerable D. attuned
Question 15: We can’t possibly make any _ for her, however sweetly she asks.
A. allowances B. license C. permissions D. liberties
Question 16: It’s time you up your mind about what you are going to do with your life.
A. have made B. made C. make D. had made
Question 17: He was the greatest of the time.
A. science B. scientist C. scientific D. scientifically
Question 18: It seems that the world record for this event is almost impossible to _
A. take B. achieve C. break D. get
Question 19: It is difficult to assess grass _ opinion on the subject of the President ‘s
actions.
A. leaves B. cutting C. stems D. roots
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
Question 20: Henry : “ do you think they will lose ? ” Kathy : “Oh ! .”
A. It’s hopeless B. I don’t hope so C. I don’t hope D. I hope not
Question 21: –“If only I hadn’t lent him all my money!” –“ ”
A. Well, it’s no use crying over spilt milk. B. All right. You’ll be OK soon.
C. Sorry, I can’t help. D. I’m afraid. That’s what you did.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 22: As children we were very close, but as we grew up we just drifted apart.
A. Not as friendly as before B. Not as serious as before
C. Not as sympathetic as before D. Not as childlike as before
Question 23: The newly-weds agreed to be very frugal in their shopping because they wanted to
save enough money to buy a house.
A. interested B. economical C. wasteful D. careless
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 24: As a newspaper reporter she always wanted to get information at first hand.
A. indirectly B. directly C. easily D. slowly

Question 25: Swallows are among the most agile passerine birds.
A. idle B. swift C. fragile D. slow
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 26: As I didn’t want to disappoint my parents, I agreed to go to medical school.
A. Not wanting to let down my parents, I agreed to go to medical school.
B. To my disappointment, my parents made me go to medical school.
C. My parents are no longer disappointed in me now that I have agreed to go to medical
school.
D. If I didn’t agree to go to medical school, my parents would be disappointed.
Question 27: Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the
night.
A. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.
B. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.
C. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.
D. We chose to find a place for the night once the bad weather had really begun.
Question 28: She forgot about the money until she got home.
A. Not until she got home was the money forgotten.
B. Not until she got home did she forget about the money.
C. Not until she got home did she remember about the money.
D. Not until she forgot about the money did she get home.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each
of the following pairs of sentences in each of the questions.
Question 29: Most scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard of
him.
A. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public.
B. Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name.
C. Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public.
D. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.
Question 30: We stayed out all night. We wanted to watch a meteor storm.
A. We stayed out all night in order to watching a meteor storm.
B. We stayed out all night because we had been able to watch a meteor storm.
C. We stayed out all night in order for watching a meteor storm.
D. We stayed out all night so that we could watch a meteor storm.

Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
LIVING A HEALTHIER LIFE
Keeping fit and healthy may seem difficult, but there are a few easy-to-follow guidelines. Firstly,
a balanced diet is absolutely essential. This (31) selecting food that is low in salt and
sugar. Experts recommend reducing the amount of fat in your diet, as too much can lead to heart
problems. They also suggest increasing the (32) of high fiber food we eat. This comes in
the form of fresh fruit, vegetables, whole meal bread and pasta. As well as being packed with
vitamins and minerals, they are delicious too. Secondly, it’s important to fit exercise into your
daily (33) This can be done by simply walking as much as possible and climbing stairs
instead of taking the lift. Exercise is necessary to maintain a healthy body, as well as increasing
energy levels and (34) you feel generally fitter and happier. Finally, staying relaxed is
important for good health. Too much stress can lead to a variety of illnesses, from headaches to
high blood pressure. (35) possible, do things you enjoy and treat yourself occasionally.
So the message is simple- enjoy yourself but learn to respect your body too. It’s all a question of
getting the balance right.
Question 31: A. contains B. means C. points D. suggests
Question 32: A. amount B. bulk C. number D. mass
Question 33: A. time B. custom C. routine D. practice
Question 34: A. providing B. doing C. making D. assisting
Question 35: A. Whenever B. Whichever C. However D. How
Sir Anthony Van Dyck, one of the world’s greatest masters of portraiture, was born in
Antwerp and was the seventh of twelve children. His affluent father apprenticed him to a painter
when he was just a little over ten. Having become a member of the Antwerp Guild of painters
before he was nineteen, he worked in the studio of Peter Paul Rubens for several years. In Italy,
Van Dyck studied the great Venetian masters and painted flattering portraits of gorgeous ladies
and haughty nobles in gilded velvet robes with lace and pearls. While he was sought after by the
aristocracy for his acclaimed loose brushwork, his engravings and etchings also evinced his
outstanding talent. Upon his return to Antwerp in 1628, he was influenced by Rubens’s
interpretation of the artistic form and produced numerous religious paintings while holding an
appointment as the court painter. During his tenure, he proved that his use of color, his sensitive
elegance, and his remarkable insight were unexcelled.
His fame preceded him to England, where he was invited by King Charles I. After years of
faithful service, he was knighted in recognition of his achievements in painting countless
portraits of the king, the queen, the royal children, and the titled nobility of England.
However, Van Dyck’s greatest piece is one of his religious works, a true masterpiece
displayed in the Antwerp gallery. This group scene exhibits his artful polish in painting the
folds of fabric, the delicacy of human skin, landscape, and other externals, and puts him above
other accomplished contemporary masters. Although Charles paid Van Dyck a salary and
granted him a pension, the painter’s extravagant life-style and penchant for luxuries led him into
debt, and he died without means.
Question 36: It can be inferred from the passage that Van Dyck was raised
A. in a large and wealthy family B. in a stable and loving household
C. by his father alone D. without good work habits
Question 37: The author of the passage implies that Van Dyck
A. had produced great paintings before he turned nineteen
B. had a great artistic talent even when he was young
C. joined other painters when he had little to occupy him
D. worked very hard in his youth to make a living
Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that after Van Dyck left Rubens
A. he accrued considerable wealth B. he became a militant aristocrat
C. he refined his artistic tastes and skills D. he incorporated southern styles in his art
Question 39: The author of the passage implies that Van Dyck’s fame had largely to do with his
A. artful portraits B. wealthy family C. elegance in clothing D. religiousbeliefs
Question 40: The word “acclaimed” is closest in meaning to
A. reclaimed B. recognized C. recommended D. rectified
Question 41: How did Charles I honor Van Dyck?
A. Van Dyck painted members of the royal court.
B. Van Dyck received a noble title.
C. Van Dyck was allowed to travel widely.
D. Van Dyck displayed his work in the royal palace.
Question 42: What are the reasons given for Van Dyck’s financial decline?
A. His employer’s lack of generosity B. His ill health and lack of revenue.
C. His lavish spending D. His miserly attitudes
ACID DUST
“ Calcite- containing dust particles blow into the air and combine with nitric acid in
polluted air from factories to form an entirely new particle – calcium nitrate , ” said Alexander
Laskin, a senior research scientist at the Department of Energy’s Pacific Northwest National
Laboratory in Richland, Washington .These nitrates have optical and chemical properties that are
completely different from those of the originally dry dust particles . Due to this, climate models
need to be updated to reflect this chemistry. Calcite dust is common in arid areas such as Israel,
where scientists collected particles for analysis.
Working from a mountaintop, the team collected dust that had blown in from the northern
shores of Egypt, Sinai,and southern Israel. The particles had combined with air containing
pollutants that came from Cairo.They analyzed nearly 2,00 individual particles and observed the
physical and chemical changes at the W.R Wiley Environmental Sciences Laboratory.
A key change in the properties of the newly formed nitrate particles is that they begin to
absorb water and retain the moisture .These wet particles can scatter and absorb sunlight-
presenting climate modelers, who need to know where the energy is going , a new wild card to
deal with . Companion studies of dust samples from the Sahara and the Saudi coast and loess
from China show that the higher the calcium in the mineral , the more reactive they are in with
nitric acid .And once the particle is changed , it stays that way.
“When dust storms kick up these particles and they enter polluted areas , the particles
change ,” Laskin said . “To what extent this is happening globally, as more of the world becomes
industrialized , we don’t know . But now we have the laboratory and field evidence that shows it
is definitely happening . The story is much more complicated than anybody thought .”
Question 43: What is the main idea of the passage ?
A. There is a new particle called calcium nitrate
B. Factories are polluting the environment
C. Climate models have to be updated because of the new particle calcium nitrate.
D. Calcium nitrate has chemical properties different from other dust particles.
Question 44: Why do climate models need to be updated to reflect the chemistry of calcium
nitrate ?
A. The new particles can absorb water and retain moisture.
B. The new particles can scatter and absorb sunlight.
C. To stop acid dust.
D. Both A and B.
Question 45: Do the particles react with nitric acid ?
A. No , but they continue to absorb the sun’s energy.

B. No , and the particles do not change.
C. Yes, but the changes are temporary.
D. Yes, and the changes are permanent .
Question 46: Which of the following may be true ?
A. The change of an ice age is increased. B. We may see more rainbows.
C. The greenhouse effects are increased D. Calcite dust is common in arid areas.
Question 47: Why does the passage begin with a description of the properties of calcium nitrate?
A. To give background information so the reader can understand the topic better.
B. Because calcium nitrate is the main idea.
C. They show how elements combine to create calcium nitrate .
D. To prove the existence of calcium nitrate
Question 48: The word “those ” in paragraph 1 refers to .
A. Nitrates B. Properties C. Particles D. Models
Question 49: It can be inferred that the word “retain ” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
.
A. hold B. lose C. increase D. need
Question 50: In the third paragraph , what does the term “ wild card ” mean ?
A. An unknown card in a card game.
B. An unknown item in the scientists’ calculations
C. A large amount of acid dust.
D. A,B and C are incorrect .
Đáp án
1 C 11 D 21 A 31 B 41 B
2 C 12 D 22 A 32 A 42 C
3 C 13 B 23 B 33 C 43 C
4 D 14 A 24 A 34 C 44 D
5 B 15 A 25 D 35 A 45 D
6 B 16 B 26 A 36 A 46 D
7 A 17 B 27 D 37 B 47 A
8 B 18 C 28 C 38 C 48 B
9 B 19 D 29 C 39 A 49 A
10 A 20 D 30 D 40 B 50 B

Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
Question 1: A. teenager B. genius C. cacti D. technique
Question 2: A. assume B. bullet C. dubious D. huge
Question 3: A. commentary B. voluntary C. compensate D. preparatory
Question 4: A. realize B. reside C. argue D. access
Question 5: The destructive force of running water depends entirely almost on the velocity of its
flow.
A. destructive force B. running C. entirely almost D. of its flow
Question 6: It was suggested that he thought twice before giving up the previous job.
A. thought B. before C. giving up D. previous
Question 7: Asparagus grows well in soil that is too much salty for most crops to grow.
A. grows well B. in C. too much D. most crops
Question 8: , often of a religious character, were developed from fundamental
African forms.
A. Ancient dancing of Egyptians B. Ancient Egyptian dancing
C. Ancient Egyptian dance D. Ancient Egyptian dances
Question 9: It suddenly dawned me where I had seen her before.
A. in B. over C. to D. on
Question 10: Her excellent in the exams helped her find a job.
A. notes B. reports C. marks D. degrees
Question 11: stay the night if it’s too difficult to get home.
A. At all costs B. By all means C. In all D. On the whole
Question 12: She a bad cold just before Christmas.
A. went down with B. got up with C. went through with D. got down with
Question 13: What milk shake do you want strawberry, chocolate or orange”
A. taste B. kind C. flavor D. sort

Question 14: He was wearing a heavy overcoat to himself against the cold.
A. conceal B. cover C. protect D. shelter
Question 15: Tony was clearly nervous; he was sitting right on the of his chair.
A. outside B. edge C. tip D. border
Question 16: These buses are to run every 15 minutes, but I’ve been waiting here for
25 minutes already.
A. assumed B. promised C. presumed D. supposed
Question 17: It was ten years ago I last saw her.
A. when B. that C. since D. when that
Question 18: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they
are as different as
A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese C. salt and pepper D. here and there
Question 19: I think I’ll a chance and leave my flight booking till the last minute. I
may get a cheaper ticket.
A. take B. make C. do D. bring
Question 20: - “ Would you mind if I borrowed your dictionary?” – “ ”
A. I’m sorry B. Not at all C. Yes, I would D. Yes, ok
Question 21: - “ I’ve never seen eyeglass frames like that. Where did you find them?” -
A. There’s a new optical store at the mall.

B. While I was on vacation.
C. It’s so nice that you noticed. I bought them at the mall.
D. Thanks. I got it at the mall.
Choose the word which has CLOSEST meaning to the underlined word
Question 22: He insisted on listening to the entire story.
A. part B. funny C. whole D. interesting
Question 23: Tryouts for community orchestras are frequently judged by committees.
A. Advertisements B. Performances C. Auditions D. Novelties
Question 24: You should put yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the
graduation exam.
A. criticize yourself B. wear a backpack C. praise yourself D. check up your back
Question 25: Alaska boasts of several climates due to its lofty mountains, warm ocean currents,
and frozen seas.
A. towering B. rocky C. ageless D. low
Question 26: They didn’t discover that the picture had been stolen until they came back home.
A. Until they came back home that they discovered that the picture had been stolen.
B. It is not until they came back home that they discovered that the picture had been stolen.
C. Not until they came back home had the picture been stolen.
D. Only after they came back home did they discover that the picture had been stolen.
Question 27: “Why don’t you participate in the volunteer work in summer?" said Sophie.
A. Sophie suggested me to participate in the volunteer work in summer.
B. Sophie asked me why not participate in the volunteer work in summer.
C. Sophie suggested my participating in the volunteer work in summer.
D. Sophie made me participate in the volunteer work in summer.
Question 28: The manager contributes generously, so I can continue my plan.
A. Had it not been for the manager’s generous contribution, I couldn’t continue my plan.
B. The manager’s generous contribution gets my plan continue.
C. But for the manager’s generous contribution, I couldn’t continue my plan.
D. Should the manager contribute generously, I could continue my plan.
Question 29: “I spoke slowly. The foreigner could understand me.”
A. I spoke slowly so that the foreigner could understand me.
B. I spoke slowly in order to the foreigner could understand me.
C. I spoke slowly that the foreigner could understand me.
D. I spoke slowly to make the foreigner could understand me.
Question 30: I had never seen her before. However, I recognized her from a photograph.
A. Although I had never seen her before, I recognized her from a photograph.
B. I recognized her from a photograph before I had never seen her.
C. Although I had never seen her before but I recognized her from a photograph.
D. After I had seen her, I recognized her from a photograph.

Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
Choosing clothes can be difficult. Some people want to be fashionable, but they don’t want to
look exactly like everybody else. Not all clothes are (31) for work or school, perhaps
because they are not formal enough, or simply not comfortable. It is easy to buy the
(32) size, and find that your trousers are too tight, especially if you are a little bit
overweight. Very (33) clothes make you feel slim, but when they have shrunk in the
washing machine, then you have the same problem! If you buy light cotton clothes, then they
might not be (34) enough for winter. If your shoes are not waterproof and if you
aren’t (35) for the cold, you might look good, but feel terrible!
Question 31: A. fitted B. suitable C. comfort D. equal
Question 32: A. false B. mistake C. wrong D. error
Question 33: A. loose B. lose C. loosened D. lost
Question 34: A. warm B. cold C. hot D. cool
Question 35: A. worn B. clothed C. dressed D. fitted
What geologists call the Basin and Range Province in the United States roughly coincides
in its northern portions with the geographic province known as the Great Basin. The Great Basin
is hemmed in west by the Sierra Nevada and on the east Line by the Rocky Mountains; it has no
outlet to the sea. The prevailing winds in the Great Basin are from the west. Warm, moist air
from the Pacific Ocean is forced upward as it crosses the Sierra Nevada. At the higher altitudes it
cools and the moisture it carries is precipitated as rain or snow on the western slopes of the
mountains. That which reaches the Basin is air wrung dry of moisture. What little water falls
there as rain or snow, mostly in the winter months, evaporates on the broad, flat desert floors. It
is, therefore, an environment in which organisms battle for survival. Along the rare watercourses,
cottonwoods and willows eke out a sparse existence. In the upland ranges, pinion pines and
junipers struggle to hold their own.
But the Great Basin has not always been so arid. Many of its dry, closed depressions were
once filled with water. Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley were once a string of
interconnected lakes .The two largest of the ancient lakes of the Great Basin were Lake Lahontan
and Lake Bonneville. The Great Salt Lake is all that remains of the latter, and Pyramid Lake is
one of the last briny remnants of the former. There seem to have been several periods within the
last tens of thousands of years when water accumulated in these basins. The rise and fall of the
lakes were undoubtedly linked to the advances and retreats of the great ice sheets that covered
much of the northern part of the North American continent during those times. Climatic changes
during the Ice Ages sometimes brought cooler, wetter weather to mid latitude deserts worldwide,
including those of the Great Basin. The broken valleys of the Great Basin provided ready
receptacles for this moisture.
Question 36: What is the geographical relationship between the Basin and Range Province and
the Great Basin?
A. The Great Basin is west of the Basin and Range Province.
B. The Great Basin is larger than the Basin and Range Province
C. The Great Basin is in the northern part of the Basin and Range Province.
D. The Great Basin is mountainous; the Basin and Range Province is flat desert.
Question 37: According to the passage, what does the Great Basin lack?
A. Snow B. Dry air
C. Winds from the west D. Access to the ocean
Question 38: The word "prevailing" is closest in meaning to
A. most frequent B. occasional C. gentle D. most dangerous
Question 39: The word "it" refers to
A. Pacific Ocean B. air C. west D. the Great Basin
Question 40: Why does the author mention cottonwoods and willows?
A. To demonstrate that certain trees require a little of water
B. To give examples of trees that are able to survive in a difficult environment
C. To show the beauty of the landscape of the Great Basin
D. To assert that there are more living organisms in the Great Basin than there used to be
Question 41: The words "the former" refer to
A. Lake Bonneville B. Lake Lahontan C. the Great Salt Lake D. Pyramid Lake
Question 42: According to the passage, the Ice Ages often brought about
A. desert formation B. warmer climates C. broken valleys D. wetter weather
Coincident with concerns about the accelerating loss of species and habitats has been a
growing appreciation of the importance of biological diversity, the number of species in a
particular ecosystem, to the health of the Earth and human well-being. Much has been written
about the diversity of terrestrial organisms, particularly the exceptionally rich life associated with
tropical rain-forest habitats. Relatively little has been said, however, about diversity of life in the
sea even though coral reef systems are comparable to rain forests in terms of richness of life.
An alien exploring Earth would probably give priority to the planet's dominant, most-
distinctive feature ― the ocean. Humans have a bias toward land that sometimes gets in the way
of truly examining global issues. Seen from far away, it is easy to realize that landmasses occupy
only one-third of the Earth's surface. Given that two- thirds of the Earth's surface is water and
that marine life lives at all levels of the ocean, the total three-dimensional living space of the
ocean is perhaps 100 times greater than that of land and contains more than 90 percent of all life
on Earth even though the ocean has fewer distinct species.
The fact that half of the known species are thought to inhabit the world's rain forests does
not seem uprising, considering the huge numbers of insects that comprise the bulk of the species.
One scientist found many different species of ants in just one tree from a rain forest. While every
species is different from every other species, their genetic makeup constrains them to be insects
and to share similar characteristics with 750,000 species of insects. If basic, broad categories
such as phyla and classes are given more emphasis than differentiating between species, then the
greatest diversity of life is unquestionably the sea. Nearly every major type of plant and animal
has some representation there.
To appreciate fully the diversity and abundance of life in the sea, it helps to think small.
Every spoonful of ocean water contains life, on the order of 100 to 100,000 bacterial cells plus
assorted microscopic plants and animals, including larvae of organisms ranging from sponges
and corals to starfish and clams and much more.
Question 43: Why does the author compare rain forests and coral reefs in the first paragraph?
A. They are approximately the same size. B. They share many similar species.
C. Most of their inhabitants require water. D. Both have many different forms of life.
Question 44: The word "bias" is closest in meaning to
A. concern B. disadvantage C. attitude D. prejudice
Question 45: The passage suggests that most rain forest species are
A. insects B. bacteria C. mammals D. birds
Question 46: The word "there" refers to
A. the sea B. the rain forests C. a tree D. the Earth's surface
Question 47: The author argues that there is more diversity of life in the sea than in the rain
forests because
A. more phyla and classes of life are represented in the sea
B. there are too many insects to make meaningful distinctions
C. many insect species are too small to divide into categories

D. marine life-forms reproduce at a faster rate
Question 48: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an example of microscopic sea life?
A. Sponges B. Coral C. Starfish D. Shrimp
Question 49: Which of the following conclusions is supported by the passage?
A. Ocean life is highly adaptive.
B. More attention needs to be paid to preserving ocean species and habitats.
C. Ocean life is primarily composed of plants.
D. The sea is highly resistant to the damage done by pollutants.
Question 50: The word "dominant" is closest in meaning to
A. imperious B. chief C. impotent D. strange
Đáp án
1 C 11 B 21 C 31 B 41 B
2 B 12 A 22 C 32 C 42 D
3 D 13 C 23 C 33 A 43 D
4 B 14 C 24 A 34 A 44 D
5 C 15 B 25 D 35 C 45 A
6 A 16 D 26 D 36 C 46 A
7 C 17 B 27 C 37 D 47 A
8 D 18 B 28 C 38 A 48 D
9 D 19 A 29 A 39 B 49 B
10 C 20 B 30 A 40 B 50 B

Question 1: A. invited B. attended C. celebrated D. displayed
Question 2: A. war B. water C. warm D. bank
Question 3: A. forest B. argue C. unless D. index
Question 4: A. deposit B. aquatic C. abolish D. souvenir
Question 5: A beaver uses its strong front teeth to cut down trees and peel off its bark.
A. its B. front teeth C. peel off D. its
Question 6: The clerks who are happy to wait for their customers will get promoted soon.
A. clerks B. wait for C. customers D. get promoted
Question 7: Although lacking in calcium and vitamin A, grains have most carbohydrates than
any other food.
A. Although B. in C. grains D. most
Question 8: These shoes won’t your trousers.
A. suit B. fit C. match D. consistent
Question 9: I can’t wear this coat to work because there are two buttons
A. missing B. loosing C. falling D. tearing
Question 10: The movie is Shakespeare’s Hamlet in a number of ways.
A. like to B. alike with C. similar to D. same as
Question 11: I all members by tomorrow night.
A. will contact B. will have contacted with C. will contact with
D. will have contacted
Question 12: The Internet has enabled people to with each other more quickly.
A. interact B. interlink C. intervene D. interconnect
Question 13: Houses in big cities are expensive because land is in supply.
A. brief B. slight C. little D. short
Question 14: Solar heat penetrates more deeply into water than _
A. it is penetration into the soil B. it does into soil
C. does it into soil D. that it does into soil

Question 15: She’s got 100 percent on the exam and the other students were below 70 percent.
She’s above the rest.
A. head and neck B. shoulders and arms C. head and shoulders D. neck and ears
Question 16: orangutans live alone.
A. Near all B. Almost all C. The all D. The most
Question 17: The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil fuel will
have by 2015.
A. used over B. used off C. run out D. run out of
Question 18: The poor child was in because his bike had been stolen.
A. floods of crying B. floods of tears C. mood of weeping D. mood of tears
Question 19: As soon as she home, she took off her shoes and her
slippers.
A. had arrived/ put in B. arrived/ put over
C. arrived/ put on D. had arrived/ put over
Question 20: Mr Black: “ I’d like to try on these shoes, please.” Salesgirl: “ ”
A. That’s right, sir. B. Why not? C. Me too. D. By all means, sir.
Question 21: Susan: “I had a really good weekend at my uncle’s.” Peter: “_ ”
A. Oh, that’s very nice of you. B. Congratulations.
C. It’s pleasure. D. Oh, I’m glad to hear that.
Choose the word which has CLOSEST meaning to the underlined word
Question 22: Drivers who break traffic rules will be photographed.
A. destroy B. hit C. violate D. assault
Question 23: The students came up with some novel ideas for fund-raising.
A. unique B. bookish C. educational D. radical
Choose the word which has OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined word
Question 24: A tangerine, which is flatter than an orange, peels and separates more readily.
A. daintly B. tastefully C. easily D. difficultly
Question 25: Catherine made a negligible effort to extend the freedoms of most Russians.
A. marginal B. ignorant C. significant D. accidental
Question 26: You are obliged to stop when the lights turn red.
A. You must stop when the lights turn red.
B. You have to stop when the lights turn red.
C. You should stop when the lights turn red.
D. You are allowed to stop when the lights turn red.
Question 27: If he had known the road was icy, he wouldn’t have been driving very fast.
A. He was driving very fast because he didn’t know the road was icy.
B. He has been driving very fast because he doesn’t know the road was icy.
C. If only he knew the road was icy, he wouldn’t be driving very fast.
D. He had been driving very fast because he didn’t know the road was icy.
Question 28: In the end, I felt I had been right to leave the club.
A. I had no regrets about leaving the club in the end.
B. I regretted to leave the club in the end.
C. It’s a pity that I had left the club in the end.
D. I don’t regret to leave the club in the end.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each
of the following pairs of sentences in each of the questions.
Question 29: She doesn’t have a car. She doesn’t go out in the evening.
A. If she had a car, she would go out in the evening.
B. If she had a car, she will go out in the evening.
C. If she has a car, she would go out in the evening.
D. If she had had a car, she would go out in the evening.
Question 30: What was the name of the man? You met and talked to him this morning.
A. What was the name of the man who you met and talked to him this morning?
B. What was the name of the man you met and talked to this morning?
C. What was the name of the man you met and talked to whom this morning?
D. What was the name of the man whose you met and talked to this morning?
The future of the African elephant depends on man. No (31) can human beings and
wild animals live in harmony throughout vast area of the continent as was possible in days gone
by, for man’s needs have increased as well as his numbers. There are regions, such as the Congo
forests and the equatorial Sudan, (32) the old relationship may remain for a few more
years or even generations, but in general it has gone. Conservation, if it is to be effective, should
be a positive, constructive policy, and it is wishful thinking to imagine otherwise, (33)

in the case of the elephant. And this is not yet true of the whole of Africa, it soon
will be, for the increase in the human population is almost universal. Where human beings and
wild animals find themselves in competition with each other, the animals will (34)
Even if there appears to be enough room for both, man will not tolerate long a situation in which
elephants and other (35) make even occasional raids on his fields of food or economic
crops. For many years this has been a major cause of conflicting interests and one of the reasons
why so many elephants have been shot to control their numbers.
Question 31: A. more B. condition C. circumstance D. longer
Question 32: A. where B. when C. how D. why
Question 33: A. certainly B. particularly C. only D. entirely
Question 34: A. win B. lose C. disappear D. fight
Question 35: A. people B. plants C. descendants D. creatures
Fifty-five delegates representing all thirteen states except Rhode Island attended the
Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia from May to September 1787. The delegates had been
instructed by the Continental Congress to revise the old Articles of Confederation, but most
believed that a stronger central government was needed. There were differences, however, about
what structure the government should take and how much influence large states should have.
Virginia was by far the most populous state, with twice as many as people as New York,
four times as many as New Jersey, and ten times as many as Delaware. The leader of the
Virginia delegation, James Madison, had already drawn up a plan for government, which became
known as the Large State Plan. Its essence was that congressional representation would be based
on population. It provided for two or more national executives. The smaller states feared that
under this plan, a few large states would lord over the rest. New Jersey countered with the Small
State Plan. It provided for equal representation for all states in a national legislature and for a
single national executive. Angry debate, heightened by a stifling heat wave, led to deadlock.
A cooling of tempers seemed to come with lower temperatures. The delegates hammered
out an agreement known as the Great Compromise- actually a bundle of shrewd compromises.
They decided that Congress would consist of two houses. The larger states were granted
representation based on population in the lower house, the House of Representatives. The
smaller states were given equal representation in the upper house, the Senate, in which each state
would have two senators regardless of population. It was also agreed that there would be a single
executive, the president. This critical compromise broke the logjam, and from then on, success
seemed within reach.
A. James Madison’s plan to create a stable structure for the government of the United States
B. A disagreement at the Constitutional Convention and a subsequent compromise
C. The differences in population and relative power between the original states
D. The most important points of the Small State Plan
Question 37: According to the passage, how many states were represented at the Constitutional
Convention?
A. 12 B. 13 C. 14 D. 15
Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that the Articles of Confederation
A. were supported by a majority of the delegates at the Convention
B. were revised and presented as the Large State Plan
C. allowed small states to dominate large ones
D. provided for only a weak central government
Question 39: According to the passage, in 1787 which of the following states had FEWEST
people?
A. Virginia B. Delaware C. New York D. New Jersey
Question 40: The phrase “this plan” refers to
A. the Small State Plan B. a plan suggested by the national legislature
C. the Large State Plan D. a compromise plan
Question 41: The word “shrewd” is closest in meaning to
A. practical B. unfair C. important D. clever
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as one of the provisions of the
Great Compromise?
A. There would be only one national executive.
B. The President would be elected by popular vote.
C. Each state would have two senators.
D. Congress would be divided into two bodies.
The biologist's role in society as well as his moral and ethical responsibility in the
discovery and development of new ideas has led to a reassessment of his social and scientific
value systems. A scientist can no longer ignore the consequences of his discoveries; he is as
concerned with the possible misuses of his findings as he is with the basic research in which he
is involved. This emerging social and political role of the biologist and all other scientists
requires a weighing of values that cannot be done with the accuracy or the objectivity of a
laboratory balance. As a member of society, it is necessary for a biologist now to redefine his
social obligations and his functions, particularly in the realm of making judgments about such
ethical problems as man's control of his environment or his manipulation of genes to direct
further evolutionary development.
As a result of recent discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms, genetic engineering,
by which human traits are made to order, may soon be a reality. As desirable as it may seem to
be, such an accomplishment would entail many value judgments. Who would decide, for
example, which traits should be selected for change? In cases of genetic deficiencies and disease,
the desirability of the change is obvious, but the possibilities for social misuse are so numerous
that they may far outweigh the benefits.
Probably the greatest biological problem of the future, as it is of the present, will be to find
ways to curb environmental pollution without interfering with man's constant effort to improve
the quality of his life. Many scientists believe that underlying the spectra of pollution is the
problem of surplus human population. A rise in population necessitates an increase in the
operations of modern industry, the waste products of which increase the pollution of air, water,
and soil. The question of how many people the resources of the Earth can support is one of
critical importance.
Although the solutions to these and many other problems are yet to be found, they do
indicate the need for biologists to work with social scientists and other members of society in
order to determine the requirements necessary for maintaining a healthy and productive planet.
For although many of man's present and future problems may seem to be essentially social,
political, or economic in nature, they have biological ramifications that could affect the very
existence of life itself.
Question 43: According to the passage, a modern scientist should be more concerned
about .
A. the consequences of his discoveries B. his basic research
C. his manipulation of genes D. the development of new ideas
Question 44: The pronoun "it" in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. genetic engineering B. an accomplishment C. hereditary mechanism D. a reality
Question 45: It is implied in the passage that genetic engineering .
A. will change all human traits B. is no longer desirable
C. is the most desirable for life D. may do us more harm than good
Question 46: The pronoun "they" in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. possibilities for genetic deficiencies
B. cases of genetic deficiencies
C. discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms
D. effects of genetic engineering misuse
Question 47: The word "which" in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. the waste products dumped into our environment
B. serious environmental pollution
C. activities of surplus human population
D. activities of an overpopulated society's industry
Question 48: According to the passage, to save our planet, biologists should work
A. with other social scientists B. accurately and objectively
C. on social and political purposes D. harder and harder
Question 49: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "ramifications" in
paragraph 4?
A. effective techniques B. latest developments
C. harmful consequences D. useful experiments
Question 50: What is the author's purpose in this passage?
A. To urge biologists to solve the problem of surplus human population
B. To conduct a survey of the biologist's role in society
C. To advise biologists to carry out extensive research into genetic engineering
D. To emphasize the biologist's role in solving the world's problems
Đáp án
1 D 11 D 21 D 31 D 41 D
2 D 12 A 22 C 32 A 42 B
3 C 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 A
4 D 14 B 24 D 34 B 44 A
5 D 15 C 25 C 35 D 45 D
6 B 16 B 26 A 36 B 46 D
7 D 17 C 27 A 37 A 47 D
8 C 18 B 28 A 38 D 48 A
9 A 19 C 29 A 39 B 49 C
10 C 20 D 30 B 40 C 50 D

Question 1: A. stretch B. natural C. ancient D. question
Question 2: A. land B. stable C. stab D. exam
Question 3: A. justice B. workforce C. compete D. capture
Question 4: A. hopeful B. compose C. eject D. admire
Question 5: I have never dived in a twenty-metre-deep lake before, so I’m a bit afraid of doing
it.
A. in B. before C. a bit D. of doing
Question 6: You have little to boast about, haven’t you?
A. have B. little C. about D. haven't you
Question 7: Not surprisingly, poverty is a problem worth of concern in every country.
A. surprisingly B. poverty C. worth D. every country
Question 8: This story has been passed down by of mouth.
A. word B. phrase C. memory D. speaking
Question 9: This is less satisfactory than the previous offer.
A. fairly B. far C. absolutely D. distant
Question 10: It ‘s knowledge that the Chancellor has not been entirely discreet in his
private life.
A. universal B. general C. common D. full
Question 11: The professor wasn’t with the current political affairs in his country after
his long stay abroad.
A. present B. familiar C. knowledgeable D. actual
Question 12: You will not be successful in business if you don’t risks.
A. put B. get C. try D. take
Question 13: I personally don’t believe you can _ of his support.
A. count B. depend C. rely D. be sure

Question 14: You must know how to between what is good for you and what is not.
A. differ B. vary C. solve D. distinguish
Question 15: Paul asked Maria to him to the dentist’s because he didn’t want to go by
himself.
A. unify B. join C. interfere D. accompany
Question 16: People are becoming aware of healthy eating, exercise, and relaxation,
and want to incorporate them into their daily lives.
A. hardly ever B. rather than C. more and more D. much as
Question 17: As a small boy he was used to in the house for an hour or two.
A. being left alone B. eaving alone C. leave alone D. be left alone
Question 18: One of the areas of multimedia that is growing quickly is sound.
A. yet is easily overlooked B. is easily overlooked
C. it is easily overlooked D. that is easily overlooked
Question 19: She’s so depressed. All these problem are really .
A. getting her down B. getting round her C. talking her on D. toning her down
Question 20: A: Shouldn't we pay before we leave? B: “ ”
A. No, I don't like to pray. B. I'm not sure.
C. No, they'll bill us later. D. Yes, we should have paid.
Question 21: Bill: "I like your bike, Helen." Helen: “ ”
A. Just kidding B. I wish I could afford it.
C. Thanks, but it isn't new D. I don't wear it very often
Question 22: When she fell ill, her daughter took over the business.
A. took a chance B. took control of C. took a loss D. lost control of
Question 23: Biogas can be utilized for electricity production, cooking, space heating, water
heating and process heating.
A. sparing B. generation C. increase D. reformation
Question 24: In the first two decades of its existence, the cinema developed rapidly.
A. shortly B. sluggishly C. leisurely D. weakly

Question 25: I find it hard to work at home because there are too many distractions.
A. attentions B. unawareness C. unconcern D. carelessness
meaning to each of the following sentences.
Question 26: It’s your duty to finish your homework before you go to school.
A. You were supposed to finish your homework before you go to school.
B. Your homework is supposed to be finished before going to school.
C. That your homework is finished before you go to school is your duty.
D. Your duty finishing your homework before you go to school is necessary.
Question 27: The Prime Minister is unlikely to call an early general election.
A. The likelihood is that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
B. The likelihood is great that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
C. It’s likely that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
D. There is little likelihood of the Prime Minister calling an early general election.
Question 28: What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.
A. The politician fell deaf when he was speaking last night.
B. What the politician was saying deafened the listeners last night.
C. No one took notice of what the politician was saying last night.
D. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night because they had deaf ears.
Question 29: Joan broke her right leg in the accident last week. Her parents worried a lot.
A. If Joan didn’t broke her leg last week, her parents wouldn’t worry a lot.
B. If Joan doesn’t broke her leg last week, her parents will not worry a lot.
C. Joan’s parents worried because of her broken leg.
D. The fact that Joan broke her leg made her parents worry.
Question 30: The box was too heavy. John could not move it.
A. The box was too heavy that John could not move it.
B. The box was such heavy that John could not move it.
C. The box was so heavy that John could not move it.
D. The box was heavy that John could not move it.
Many people love boats. Going out on the water on a warm summer day is a lot of (31) .
(32) , different people like different kinds of boats. Two of the most popular kinds of
boat are sailboats and speedboats. Sailboats use the (33) to give them power. They only
have small engines. In contrast, speedboats have large engines and go very fast. Furthermore,
speedboats are usually not as (34) as sailboats. Speedboats are small so that they can go
fast. Sailboats, on the other hand, are big so that they are more comfortable. ( 35) ,
sailboats can travel into the ocean, but this would be very dangerous in a speedboat. You can
only use speedboats on rivers or lakes.
Question 31: A. funny B. fun C. funs D. funnies
Question 32: A. However B. Although C. Because D. Unless
Question 33: A. water B. speed C. weather D. wind
Question 34: A. small B. fast C. warm D. big
Question 35: A. Unfortunately B. At first C. In addition D. Except for
Read the following passage and circle A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the question from 36 to 42
George Washington Carver showed that plant life was more than just food for animals and
humans. Carver’s first step was to analyze plant parts to find out what they were made of. He
then combined these simpler isolated substances with other substances to create new products.
The branch of chemistry that studies and finds ways to use raw materials from farm
products to make industrial products is called chemurgy. Carver was one of the first and greatest
chemurgists of all time. Today the science of chemurgy is better known as the science of
synthetics. Each day people depend on and use synthetic materials made from raw materials. All
his life Carver battled against the disposal of waste materials and warned of the growing need to
develop substitutes for the natural substances being used up by humans.
Carver never cared about getting credit for the new products he created. He never tried to
patent his discoveries or get wealthy from them. He turned down many offers to leave Tuskegee
Institute to become a rich scientist in private industry. Thomas Edison, inventor of the electric
light, offered him a laboratory in Detroit to carry out food research. When the United States
government made him a collaborator in the Mycology and Plant Disease Survey of the
Department of Agriculture, he accepted the position with the understanding that he wouldn’t
have to leave Tuskegee. As an authority on plant diseases – especially of the fungus variety –
Carver sent hundreds of specimens to the United States Department of Agriculture. At the peak
of his career, Carver’s fame and influence were known on every continent.
Question 36: With what topic is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The work and career of George Washington Carver.

B. The research conducted at Tuskegee Institute
C. The progress of the science of synthetics. D. The use of plants as a source of nutrition
Question 37: The word “step” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced with
A. footprint B. action C. scale D. stair
Question 38: According to the passage, chemurgical can be defined as the
A. combination of chemistry and metallurgy
B. research on chemistry of the soil
C. study of the relationship between sunlight and energy
D. development of industrial products from farm products
Question 39: The phrase “getting credit” in paragraph 3 can be best replaced with
A. taking responsibility B. earning money
C. winning praise D. advertising
Question 40: Why does the author mention Thomas Edison’s offer to Carver?
A. To illustrate one of Carver’s many opportunities
B. To portray the wealth of one of Carver’s competitors
C. To contrast Edison’s contribution with that of Carver
D. To describe Carver’s dependence on industrial support
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT discussed in the passage as work done by Carver?
A. Research on electricity B. Analysis of plant parts
C. Invention of new products D. Research on plant diseases
Question 42: One of Carver’s main concerns is most similar to which of the following present-
day causes?
A. Preventive medicine B. Recycling of used materials
C. Preservation of old buildings D. Prevention of cruelty of animals.
Atomic were once thought to be fundamental pieces of matter, but they are in turn made of
smaller subatomic particles. There are three major subatomic particles neutrons, protons, and
electronic. Protons and neutrons can be broken into even smaller units, but these smaller units do
not occur naturally in nature and are thought to only be produced in manmade particle
accelerators and perhaps in extreme stellar events like supernovas. The structure of an atom can
best be described as a small solar system, with the neutrons at the center and the electrons
circling them in various orbits, just as the planets circle the sun .In reality, the structure of an
atom is far more complex, because the laws of physics are fundamentally different at the atomic
level than of the level of the observable word. The true nature of atomic structure can only be
expressed accurately through complex mathematical formulas .This explanation, however, is of
little use to most average people.
Protons and neutrons have nearly equal mass and size, but protons carry a positive
electrical charge, while neutrons carry no charge at all. Protons and neutrons are bound together
by the strong nuclear force, one of the four basic forces in the universe. Protons and neutrons
give atoms some of their most basic properties. Elements are defined by two numbers; their
atomic number , which is equal to the number of protons they have, and their atomic weight ,
which is equal to total number of their neutrons and protons. In most lighter atoms , the number
of neutrons and protons is equal , and the element is stable. In heavier atoms, however, there are
more neutrons than protons , and the element is unstable, eventually losing neutrons through
radioactive decay until a neutral state is reached.
Electrons are negatively charged particles. They are bound to their atoms through
electromagnetic attraction. Opposite electrical charges attract one another, so the positive
charge of the proton helps keep the negatively charged electron in orbit around the nucleus of the
atom. Electrons are different from neutrons in that they cannot be broken down into smaller
particles. They are also far smaller and lighter than neutrons and protons. An electron is about
one thousandth of the diameter of a proton and an even smaller fraction of its mass. Electrons
circle the protons and neutrons at the center of the atom in orbit. These orbits are often called
electron shells. The closer the orbit is to the center of the atom, the lower its energy is. There are
seven electron shells, and each higher level can hold more electron than the previous shell.
Electrons naturally seek to occupy the lowest shell possible .So if there is space in a lower shell,
an electron will drop down to occupy that space. At temperatures higher than a few hundred
degrees, electrons will gain energy and move to a higher shell, but only momentarily. When the
electrons drop back down to their natural shell, they emit light .This is why fires and other very
hot objects seem to glow.
Electrons are also primarily responsible for many of the chemical properties of atoms.
Since electrons seek to occupy the lowest electron shell possible, they will move from one atom
to another if there is a space available in a lower electron shell. For example, if there is an atom
with an open space in its third shell, and it comes into contact with an atom with electrons in its
fourth shell, the first atom will take one of these electrons to complete its third shell. When this
happens, the two atoms will be chemically bonded to form a molecule. Furthermore, atoms
sometimes lose electrons in collisions with other atoms. When it happens, the radio of protons
and electrons in the atom changes, and therefore, the overall electrical charge of the atom
changes as well. These atoms are called isotopes, and they have significantly different chemical
properties from their parent atoms.
Question 43: In paragraph 1, why does the author compare the structure of an atom to a solar
system?
A. To provide an explanation of atomic structure that will be easily understood.
B. To show that the complex mathematical formulas used to explain atomic structure are
inaccurate.
C. To show the influence of atomic structure on the world at the observable level.
D. To contrast the size of atoms with the size of objects at the observable level.
Question 44: According to paragraph 2, an atom’s atomic number is determined by
A. The sum of its protons and electrons.
B. The different in the mass of its neutrons and protons.
C. The strength of the bond between its protons and neutrons
D. The total number of protons it has.
Question 45: The word stable in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to
A. Neutral B. Unchanging C. Heavy D. Equal
Question 46: According to the information in paragraph 2, what will happen if an atom has more
neutrons than protons?
A. It will not have enough of a positive electrical charge to keep its electrons in orbit.
B. Its nucleus will explode in a supernova.
C. It will slowly give off neutrons until the atom becomes stable.
D. Its extra neutrons will be converted into light energy.
Question 47: The phrase one another in paragraph 3 refers to
A. Particles B. Electrical charges C. Electrons D. Atoms
Question 48: According to paragraph 3, when does an atom produce light?
A. When it has more electrons than its electron shells can hold
B. When an electron drops back to its original electron shell
C. When an electron is transferred from one atom to another
D. When energy is added to the outermost electron shell
Question 49: According to the passage, all of the following are true of electrons EXCEPT
A. Their energy levels are fixed and unchanging.
B. They are kept in orbit by electromagnetic attraction
C. They are elementary particles and cannot be broken down
D. They are considerably smaller than neutrons or protons

Question 50: According to paragraph 4, which property of electrons is responsible for chemical
bonding?
A. Their ability to break free of their atom during a collision
B. Their electromagnetic attraction to protons
C. The fact that they cannot be broken into smaller particles
D. Their tendency to occupy the lowest possible electron shell
Đáp án
1 C 11 B 21 C 31 B 41 A
2 B 12 D 22 B 32 A 42 B
3 C 13 D 23 B 33 D 43 A
4 A 14 D 24 B 34 D 44 D
5 D 15 D 25 A 35 C 45 B
6 D 16 C 26 C 36 A 46 C
7 C 17 A 27 D 37 B 47 B
8 A 18 A 28 C 38 D 48 B
9 B 19 A 29 D 39 C 49 A
10 C 20 C 30 C 40 A 50 D
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ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 01

A. the reproduction of sea cucumbers B. the food sources of sea cucumbers

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 02

B. You'd better have the blouse taken in as it is too loose.

Question38: What can be inferred about Canada’s Bay of Fundy ?

C. the effect of instant celebrity on Lindbergh

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 03

A. lost B. missed C. failed D. dropped

A. Many of them use submerged objects to obtain the waves’ energy

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 04

A. recalcitrant B. obedient C. compatible D. friendly

C. Electrical malfunctions can destroy a project.

A. The weather forecaster’s worry B. Reading the weather ‘live’

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 05

A. call its name B. call on C. call it a day D. call off

A. disapprove B. admit C. have no effect D. deny

A. The Bengal tiger B. International boycotts.

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 06

A. fill B. remove C. insert D. express

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 07

A. pushing back B. playing down C. keeping down D. turning around

A. earn money B. save money C. sit still D. economize

A. In Antwerp, Belgium B. In Paris, France

A. They are balanced by the pressure of rain droplets.

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 08

A. What B. Why C. Which D. How

A. similarity B. variety C. distinction D. diversity

C. Vitamin categorization and medical application

Geothermal Energy and the Environment

Question 44: The word "approaching" in the passage is closest in meaning to

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 09

A. body B. one of C. that of D. those of

mutual recognition of qualifications. Achieving recognition by one member state of a

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 10

A. although B. though C. even though D. despite

C. I met her and I know your feeling.

Question 36: According to paragraph 1, children over the age of three

D. People become accustomed to it

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 11

Question 14: My son dropped college and joined the army.

C. choose an institution that is close to their home

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 12

D. chance to invest in one of thirty-two automobile manufacturers.

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 13

A. know all they need to know about the cause of migraines.

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 14

C. Only because it was interesting work D. Because it was interesting work

A. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.

A. headline B. biggest importance C. primary theme D. central activity

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 15

C. A history of energy use D. A historical overview of energy rates

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 16

A. get back B. recharge C. take up D. change

D. Mt. Everest is the highest mountain in the world, in the Himalayas.

A. kind of cake B. kind of food C. style of cooking D. way of living

A. is in the provision of clockwork toys and trains

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 17

A. indirectly B. directly C. easily D. slowly

D. We stayed out all night so that we could watch a meteor storm.

A. No , but they continue to absorb the sun’s energy.

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 18

A. taste B. kind C. flavor D. sort