Chapter - 1 Introduction To Business Research: F. Promotion

CHAPTER – 1
Introduction to Business Research

1. Research involves all of the following except---------------
a. Validation
b. Control
c. Compilation
d. Testing
e. Formulation
f. Promotion
2. According to the authors, research methods are everything except:
a. Unstructured
b. Unbiased
c. Sequential
d. Directed
e. None of the above
f. All of the above
3. The procedures followed at each stage of research are directed, well documented, and, as much as
possible, planned in advance. The previous statement defines the _____ aspect of the definition
of research.
a. Systematic
b. Accuracy
c. Identification of information
d. Collection of information
4. Of the following statementswhich reflects why business research information is advantageous
for a managerial decision?
a. It describes what is occurring in the marketplace.
b. It may provide detailed information about specific mistakes or why failures occurred.
c. It provides information to help managers learn about changing environments.
d. All of the above are reasons
5. The primary function of business research is to:
a. Provide the solution to a business problem.
b. Attempt to predict future behavior.
c. Identify personal needs.
d. Provide information to assist managers in making decisions.
6. A research that is oriented towards building theories and models in the field of management is
called:
a. Theoretical research
b. Model testing research
c. Basic research
d. Management research
f. All of the above
7. Applied research is directed towards
a. Problem solving
b. Action oriented research
c. Real time problems
d. Management decision making
e. a & b
f. All of the above
g. None of the above
8. A company wants to know what are the problems are faced by employees in the night shift duties.
The company is intending to undertake
a. Pure research
b. Applied research
c. Basic research
d. Causal research
9. Which statement best describes the nature of basic research?
a. Basic research requires the use of experimentation.
b. The primary purpose of basic research is to facilitate the managerial decision process.
c. Basic research might lead to theory or model building.
d. Because basic research is exploratory, it does not require the use of scientific
methodology.
10. Exploratory research studies are
a. Loosely structured
b. Followed by conclusive research
c. Involve hypothesis testing
d. Involve hypothesis building
e. Require a skilled investigator
11. Kingfisher wants to evaluate the impact of a promotional offer of thousand rupees off on return
ticket fares on ticket sales. The kind of research being conducted is
a. Applied research
b. Conclusive research
c. Causal research
d. Management research
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
12. The variables in a conclusive research design are
a. Derived on the basis of an exploratory research study
b. Are derived on the conduction of the conclusive study
c. Are structured and definite
d. Are quantifiable
e. b & d
f. c& d
13. How many people visit the mall on a weekend is an example of
a. Applied research
c. Basic research
d. Causal research
e. Descriptive research
f. All of the above
14. The Census carried out by the Government of India is an example of
a. Applied research
c. Basic research
d. Causal research
f. All of the above
15. The impact of higher interest rates in PPF (public provident fund) on individuals investment in
the instrument is an example of
a. Applied research
c. Basic research
d. Causal research
f. All of the above
16. Which of the following statements about the research process is not true?
a. Is structured
b. Is sequential in nature
c. All steps in the process are carried out
d. Reflects the orientation of the researcher
e. All the statements are true
17. Which of the following problems require research
a. Acceptance of a recycled paper packaging at McDonalds
b. Flexible work hours on turnover intentions
c. Acceptance of more women oriented serials on prime time
d. Investments in insurance policies
e. Voting patterns of western versus eastern UP
f. a&b
g. a & c
h. All of the above
18. All of the following are stages in the research process, EXCEPT:
a. Determining sample characteristics
b. Defining the problem.
c. Formulating a research design.
d. Managerial decision making.
e. All the above are stages
19. When attempting a research for a business manager at what stage does the researcher enter the
decision making process?
a. Problem identification and definition
b. Alternative formulation
c. Evaluation of alternatives
d. Implementation
20. Hypotheses formulation is a stage in all the following studies except:
a. Basic research
b. Applied research
c. Exploratory research
d. Descriptive research
21. -------------------is a flexible contract about the proposed methodology and once formalized and
accepted the research is ready for initiation.
a. Research contract
b. Research proposal
c. White paper of research
d. Manager’s contract
22. The method of selecting a small number of items or people to test an assumption or hypotheses is
called:
a. Statistics
b. Sampling
c. dipstick survey
d. Probability theory
e. a & b
f. All of the above
23. Which of the following are examples of primary datacollection methods
a. Company records
b. Focus group discussions
c. Company managers interviews
d. Government policy documents
e. a & b
f. a&c
g. b & c
h. a & d
24. Checking the data collection forms for omissions, legibility, and consistency in
classification is referred to as
a. Auditing
b. Editing
c. Accuracy analysis
d. Processing
e. Coding
f. d&e
25. Which of the following are statistical methods that can be used for business research
a. Univariate analysis
b. Multivariate analysis
c. Parametric tests
d. Bivariate analysis
e. All of the above
26. Critical success factor analysis is a form of
a. Marketing research
b. Production research
c. Operations research
d. Accounting research
e. All of the above
27. Asset pricing is a kind of
b. Production & operation research
c. Personnel &HR research
d. Financial & accounting research
28. Segmentation is a kind of
29. Environmental analysis is a kind of
e. Cross functional research
30. The following are features of a good research study except
a. Should be ethical
b. Should be replicable
c. Should be systematic
d. Should be unbiased& objective
e. All are features
CHAPTER – 2
Formulation of the Research problem and development of the research
hypotheses
1. Deductive logic refers to the:
a. analytical reasoning used to arrive at general propositions on the basis of
observation of certain phenomena.
b. analytical reasoning used for the purpose of leading individuals to reason.
c. analytical reasoning of linking different propositions on the basis of abstraction.
d. logical process of deriving a conclusion from a known premise or established facts.
2. Consider this statement: ‘All research scholars who have studied here are analytical in approach.
Therefore, we conclude that all research scholars are analytical.’ This is an example of:
a. A variable
b. Inductive logic
c. The ladder of abstraction
d. Deductive logic
3. Consider this statement: ‘All research scholars are analytical in approach. Madhavi Mehta is a
research scholar, therefore we conclude that Ms Mehta is analytical.’ This is an example of:
a. A variable
b. Inductive thought
c. The ladder of abstraction
d. Deductive thought
4. _____ is a problem that requires taking a decision on what information is needed and how it can
be obtained in the most feasible way.
a. The environmental context of the problem
b. The management decision problem
c. The management research problem
d. Problem definition
5. A typical problem definition process involves all the following steps except:
a. Discussions with the decision makers
b. Interviews with industry experts
c. Analysis of project costs
d. Analysis of secondary data
6. The opening vignette of the chapter would essentially require
a. A simple research problem
b. Complex research problem
c. Causal research problem
d. Does not require any research
e. Any of the above is possible
7. The process of arriving at the management research problem through a systematic process is
called
a. A research proposal
b. Problem analysis
c. Problem audit
d. Review of literature
e. Dipstick survey
8. In order to arrive at a scientific and meaningful research problem the researcher needs to
understand the nature of the problem that the decision managers face and what they hope to learn
from research is one of the reasons to conduct _____.
a. Discussions with company experts
b. Discussions with subject experts
c. Interview with experts
d. Secondary data analysis
e. Qualitative research
9. Which of the following observations about problem definition is incorrect?
a. Organizational analysis helpsfamiliarize managers (researchers) with the decision area.
b. Research objectives should be stated as broadly as possible to permit flexibility in
applying the research.
c. Business manager is not able to define the problem in specific operational terms.
d. Sometimes the very fact about what exactly is the problem is not clear to the business
manager.
10. Which of the following isa step in the process of problem definition?
a. Obtain permission from the decision maker’s organization to research the problem
b. Establish the business decision maker's objectives
c. Understand the context and background of the problem
d. Determine the cost of collecting data
e. b & c
f. a&b
g. All the above are steps
11. As studied, discussions with experts help to develop a perspective about defining the research
problem. Which of the following statements about this discussion is correct?
a. The experts may be found both within the company as well as outside.
b. Typically primary method of semi-structured interviews is used to collect information from
them.
c. A small group of experts is enough to arrive at a perspective.
d. The stage is loose and flexible in approach.
e. All of the above are true.
12. Which of the following statements about review of literature is true?
a. The literature has been formalized by the researcher for the specific purpose of addressing
the research problem at hand.
b. Literature review generally involves collecting information through secondary sources
of information.
c. Literature review generally involves collecting information through primarysources of
information.
d. Both b and c are true.
e. All the above statements are true
13. A _____ is a set of variables and their interrelationships designed to represent, in whole or in part,
some real system or process.
a. Mathematical framework
b. Graphical framework
c. Verbal framework
d. Theoretical framework
14. When you need to decide about whether your study will require collecting data about organizations,
work groups, or individuals, you need to make a decision about:
a. The unit of analysis
b. The independent variable
c. The hypothesis
d. The dependent variable
15. A survey question about marital status , to be answered as married or unmarried is an example
ofa(n):
a. Dichotomous variable
b. Unknown variable
c. Dependent variable
d. Continuous variable
16. A survey question about liking the new pizza at Pizza Hut on a five-point scale ranging from ‘like
a lot’ to ‘dislike a lot’is an example of a(n):
a. Dichotomous variable
b. Unknown variable
c. Dependent variable
d. Continuous variable
17. In a typical research problem the is expected to influence the .

a. Predictor variable; primary variable
b. Independent variable; dependent variable
c. Dependent variable; independent variable
d. Criterion; hypothesis
18. If one is studying the impact of variable pay component on job satisfaction, then variable pay
component is
a. Moderating variable
b. Independent variable
c. Intervening variable
d. Dependent variable
e. Unknown variable
f. Extraneous variable
19. If one is studying the impact of variable pay component on job satisfaction, then job satisfaction
is
e. Unknown variable
20. If studying the impact of variable pay component on job satisfaction, then the designation of the
employee in the company would be the
e. Unknown variable
21. If studying the impact of variable pay component on job satisfaction, the compensation package
in the competing organization would be the
e. Unknown variable
22. The variable that follows the occurrence of the independent variable and precedes the dependent
variable is called the
a. Moderator variable
b. Extraneous variable
d. Discrete variable
e. Dichotomous variable
23. _____ are statements/assumptions made -about the likely outcomes of the problem-which may or
may not be true.
a. Hypotheses
b. Research questions
c. Marketing research problems
d. Analytical models
24. Which statement about hypotheses is not true?
a. A hypothesis is an assumption or proposition about the topic that is of interest to the

researcher.
b. Hypotheses are in declarative sentence form.
c. It is possible to formulate hypotheses for all research studies.
d. An important role of a hypothesis is to suggest probable relationship between the variables
under study.
25. Which of the following are criteria that need to be kept in mind while designing a hypotheses
a. It must always be a question about the relation between variables.
b. It must have clear implications for testing thestated relationship.
c. There must be a clear mention about the unit of analysis.
d. b&c
e. All of the above statements are important.
26. Job anxiety leads to lowered performance – this is an example of a

a. Relational hypotheses
b. Descriptive hypotheses
c. Non-directional hypotheses
d. Directional hypotheses
e. a & c
f. a&d
g. b & d
27. Women drivers have fewer road accidents – this is an example of a

a. Relational hypotheses
b. Descriptive hypotheses
c. Non-directional hypotheses
d. Directional hypotheses
e. a & c
f. a& d
g. b & d
28. Social media have a significant impact on marketing of teenage products – this is an example of
a. A relational hypotheses
b. A descriptive hypotheses
c. A non-directional hypotheses
d. A directional hypotheses
e. a & c
f. a& d
g. b & d
29. The most significant difference between problems and hypotheses is that
a. The problem mentions the variables under study.
b. The problem is in question form.
c. The problem is part of the research study.
d. All the above are differences and not there in the research hypotheses.
30. A researcher wants to study whether a two-wheeler buyer would buy a Nano car. The unit of
analysis in this case would be the
a. Nano dealer
b. Two-wheeler dealer
c. Two-wheeler owner
d. current Nano owners
CHAPTER – 3
Research Designs: Exploratory and Descriptive
1. Which statement is not true about research design?

a. Research designs are a framework for conducting the research study.
b. Research design specifies the measurement and scaling procedures.
c. Research design is undertaken before developing the approach to the problem.
d. Research design is undertaken after the management research problem has been defined.
2. ------------------is/are the blueprint that has been created to answer research questions in a systematic
and controlled manner.
a. Research design
b. Research methods
c. Research proposal
d. Research classification
3. Research designs require

a. Conversion of research questions into operational variables
b. Specify the process of defining the variables
c. Specify the controls to be used to test the relationship
d. All of the above
4. Which of the following tasks is not a part of research design?

a. Design the exploratory, descriptive, and/or causal phases of the research.
b. Construct and pretest a study instrument.
c. Formulate the sampling plan
d. Operationalize the study variables
e. Develop hypotheses
5. Research designs may be broadly classified as _____ or _____ .

a. Exploratory; causal
b. Conclusive; causal
c. Exploratory; conclusive
d. Conclusive; descriptive
6. Exploratory research does the following:

a. Answers questions of fact necessary to determine a course of action.
b. Provides a precise quantitative measurement.
c. Does not require careful and systematic planning.
d. Provides qualitative measures that help clarify problems.
e. All of the above are true
7. The primary objective of _____ is to provide insights into, and an understanding of, the problem
confronting the researcher.
a. Exploratory research
c. Causal research
d. Descriptive research
e. All of the above
8. Cross-sectional and longitudinal designs are types of _____

a. Causal research
b. Exploratory research
c. Descriptive research
d. None of the above
9. A study that explores and frames a research question and then does a more structured design frame
work is referred to as
a. Causal research design
b. Exploratory research design
c. Two-tiered research design
d. Descriptive research design
10. Prakhar needs to determine which variables and relationships she should examine further as
part of the research she is conducting for the ABC Group of companies. Prakhar is about to
embark on what type of research?
a. Simple research
d. Causal research
e. Two-tiered research
11. In the opening vignette the kind of design to be used to study the residents of builder apartments and
society flats to typically describe their buying pattern for real estate, would require a
a. Simple research
d. Causal research
e. Two-tiered research
12. The degree of statistical analysis is highest in which of the following designs?
a. Exploratory research design
b. Descriptive research design
c. Pre experimental designs
d. Quasi experimental designs
e. Experimental designs
13. The degree of structure is highest in a(n)

c. Pre-experimental designs
d. Quasi-experimental designs
f. Statistical designs
14. The unit of analysis in the comprehensive case method is

a. A person
b. A brand
c. An organization
d. A group
e. A country
f. All of the above
15. Expert opinion survey is a technique used in

c. Pre-experimental designs
d. Quasi-experimental designs
16. Ishita and the team working on the Manmade financial research project are developing ways to test
their hypothesis that investors in the professionals categoryprefer instruments linked with equity.
What type of research are they conducting?
a. Longitudinal research design
c. Descriptive research design
d. Experimental research design
e. Two –tiered research design
17. _____ is a type of conclusive research which is especially formulated to give a description about a
phenomena or group.
a. Longitudinal research design
c. Descriptive research design
d. Experimental research design
e. Two-tiered research design
18. Descriptive research is conducted for all of the following reasons except
a. To describe the characteristics of relevant groups, such as consumers, company personnel,
organizations, or territories
b. To determine the occurrence of the study variables
c. To understand which variables are the cause and which variables are the effect of a
phenomenon
d. To determine the perceptions of construct and their features
19. ----------- designsinvolve the collection of information from any given sample of population
elements only once.
a. Exploratory research designs
b. Causal research designs
c. Cross-sectional research designs
d. Longitudinal research designs
20. _____ is a cross-sectional design in which one sample of respondents is drawn from the target
population and information is obtained from this sample once.
a. Multiple cross-sectional design
b. Single cross-sectional design
c. Cohort analysis
21. Single cross-sectional designs are also called_____.

a. Experiment designs
b. Exploratory research designs
c. Expert opinion survey
d. Quasi-experimental research designs
e. Qualitative research designs
22. _____ is a cross-sectional design in which there are two or more samples of respondents and
information is obtained from each sample only once.
a. Multiple cross-sectional design
b. Experimental research designs
c. Single cross-sectional design
d. Quasi-experimental research designs
e. Cohort analysis
23. Which of the following statements is true about cohort analysis?

a. A cohort is a group of respondents who experience the same time zone.
b. It is unlikely that two cohorts have the same individual at different time zones.
c. In a cohort analysis the same trait could be studied across different cohorts.
d. All are correct.
24. _____ is a type of research design involving a fixed sample of population elements that is measured
repeatedly over fixed time intervals.
b. Causal research design
c. Cross-sectional research design
d. Longitudinal research design
25. Television rating performance usually makes use of the
b. Causal research design
c. Cross-sectional research design
d. Longitudinal research design
CHAPTER – 4
Experimental Research Designs
1. Which of the following involves measuring the extraneous variables and adjusting for their
effects through statistical analysis?
a. Randomization
b. Statistical control
c. Matching
d. Statistical regression
2. Improper assignment of test units to treatment conditions is referred to as:
a. Statistical regression
b. Mortality
c. Selection bias
d. Matching
3. When the first observation influences the second observation, we say ________________ has
occurred.
a. Main testing effect
b. Instrumentation
c. Maturation
4. ____________ is concerned with the changes in a test unit occurring with the passage of time.
a. Mortality
b. Main testing effect
c. Instrumentation
d. Maturation
5. The examples of extraneous variable is (are)

a. Government policies
b. Geographical location
c. Temperature
d. Store size
e. All of the above
f. Both (a) and (c) are correct.
g. Both (b) and (c) are correct.
6. Test units are also called

a. Independent variables
b. Experiment
c. Treatment
d. All of the above are false.
7. The relationship between cause and effect is

a. Deterministic
b. Random
c. Probabilistic
d. None of the above is true.
8. Absence of all the factors except the one whose influence we are trying to examine is referred to
as
a. External validity
b. Internal validity
c. Testing
d. Statistical control
9. The main drawback of time series design is the inability of the researcher to control
a. Selection bias
b. Maturation effect
c. Statistical regression
d. History
10. The difference between laboratory experiments and field experiments is

a. Their cost
b. Their ability to manipulate variables
c. The difference in the test units
d. Their environments
e. Their objectives
11. The multiple time series design suffers from the limitation of
a. Interactive testing effect
b. Test unit mortality
c. Instrumentation
d. Maturation
e. History
12. If it is not possible to eliminate the effect of an extraneous variable from the test unit, the variable
is said to be
a. Biased
b. Controlled
c. Confounded
d. Random
13. If extreme cases of phenomena tend to move towards a more central position during the course of
an experiment, it refers to
a. Interactive testing effect
b. Main testing effect
c. Selection bias
e. Maturation
14. If a test unit does not show up for the second observation time period, the study has experienced
a. Selection bias
b. Instrumentation
c. Mortality
d. Maturation
15. In the case of static-group comparison,

a. The two groups are not created randomly.
b. One group is subjected to the treatment whereas the second group is not subjected to any
treatment.
c. The mortality effect could be present.
d. The two groups could differ prior to the application of the treatment.
e. All of the above are true.
16. In the completely randomized design,
a. There is only one independent variable.
b. The independent variable should be measured in nominal scale.
c. The influence of extraneous variable is not taken into consideration.
d. All of the above are true.
17. Which of the following factors does not affect internal validity of the experiment?
a. Testing
b. Instrumentation
c. Matching
d. Selection bias
18. Which of the following is not a method to control extraneous variables?

a. Randomization
b. Statistical control
c. Matching
d. Environment
19. Which of the following is not correct about true experimental design?
a. Random assignment of test units and treatments to an experimental group
b. Use of statistical techniques for analysing experimental results
c. Ability of the researcher to eliminate the effect of extraneous variables from both the
experimental and the control group
d. Test unit mortality
20. If no measurement is taken before a test treatment, this is

a. One group pre test- post test design
b. A Latin square design
c. A post-test design
21. In an experiment, the researcher manipulates one or more variables in an attempt to determine its
effect on the
a. Independent variable
b. Dependent variable
c. Extraneous variable
d. Treatment
e. Test variable
22. Which of the following designs is suitable for studying the interactions between two different
levels of two or more independent variables?
a. Completely randomized design
b. Latin square design
c. Factorial design
d. Randomized block design
23. Which of the following conditions is not required before making causal influences?
a. Role of evidence
b. Time order of occurrence of variable
c. Concomitant variation
d. Elimination of other possible factor
24. When test units with extreme scores move closer to the average score during the course of
experiment, it is referred to as
a. Selection bias
b. Statistical regression
c. Mortality
d. Maturity
25. Which of the following designs allow for statistical control and analysis of extraneous variables?
a. Pre-experimental design
b. Quasi-experimental design
c. Statistical design
d. True experimental design
26. Which of the following is true about field experiment?

a. High internal validity
b. High external validity
c. High internal and external validity
d. High internal but low external validity
e. None of the above is true
27. Which of the following designs allows for statistical control of two non-interacting extraneous
variables in addition to the manipulation of treatment variable?
a. Completely randomized design
b. Randomized block design
c. Latin square design
d. Factorial design
28. O1 O2 O3 O4 X O5 O6 O7 O8
The above design is an example of a ____________.
a. One group pretest-posttest design
b. Multiple time series design
c. Pretest-posttest control group design
d. Time series design
CHAPTER – 5
Secondary data collection methods
1. The most popular categorization of data available for research is

a. Primary; secondary
b. Company; government
c. Published; unpublished
d. Internal;external
2. In comparison to primary data, secondary data can be collected
a. Rapidly and easily
b. At a relatively low cost
c. In a short time
d. With less effort
e. All of the above
3. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of secondary data?

a. The objectives, nature, and methods used to collect the secondary data may not be
appropriate to the present situation.
b. Secondary data may be lacking in accuracy.
c. Secondary data may be expensive and time consuming.
d. Secondary data may not be completely current or dependable.
e. All the above are disadvantages.
4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of secondary data?

a. The reporting and inference may not be topical.
b. The variables may be defined differently.
c. The unit of measurement may not be the same.
d. The population characteristics might be different.
e. All of the above
5. Which of the following situations can make use of secondary data?

a. Problem identification and formulation
b. Hypothesis testing
c. Telephonic survey
d. All of the above
6. Secondary data methods have a lot of advantages except

a. Time advantage
b. Cost advantage
c. Accuracy advantage
d. Applicability advantage
e. Accessibility advantage
f. All of the above are advantages
7. While authenticating secondary information one needs to do a methodology check in

terms of
a. Analytical tools used
b. Sampling of the respondent population
c. Data collection process
d. a&b
e. a&c
f. All of the above
8. Financial records are a type of

a. Study financial expenditure
b. External data sources
c. Internal data sources
d. Government data sources
9. Data warehouses are (a)n

a. External data source
b. Syndicate data source
c. Internal data source
d. Government data source
10. In the opening vignette, the data source suggested by Nivedita is (a)an
a. External data source
b. Syndicate data source
c. Internal data source
d. Government data source
11. Thompson indices are an example of

a. Syndicate data source
b. Internal data source
c. Government data source
d. Non-government data source
12. Census of India is a

a. Syndicate data source
b. Internal data source
c. Government data source
d. Non-government data source
13. Monthly survey of selected industries is available from

a. Ministry of Industries
b. Ministry of Home
c. Prime Minister’s office
d. CII(confederation of Indian Industries)
14. The National Sample Survey(NSS) reports on which of the following data?
a. Social statistics
b. Economic statistics
c. Demographic statistics
d. Industrial statistics
e. agricultural statistics
f. All of the above
15. Which of following are NOT examples of published data sources

a. Books
b. Trade literature
c. Journals
d. White paper on income
e. All are published data sources
16. Stock exchange directory is a

a. Internal data source
b. Government data source
c. Non-government data source
d. Published data source
e. Unpublished data source
f. b&d
g. c&d
17. Which of the following is not an example of a computerized storage and recovery
mechanism
a. Internet data bases
b. CD-roms
c. Reference
d. Hard disk
e. All are examples of storage and recovery computer sources.
18. A syndicate data source that makes use of samples of respondents whose television
viewing behavior is automatically recorded by electronic devices is called the
a. Scanner diary panels/cable TV
b. Scanner panels
c. Purchase panels
d. Media panels
19. The Journal of Marketing Research is an example of what type of external secondary
data source?
a. Government source
b. Commercial source
c. Trade association source
d. Books and periodicals
e. Syndicate data source
20. TRP refers to

a. Thomson rating performance
b. Town retail performance
c. Television rating performance
d. Thompson retail periodical
21. Net ratings inc. is a syndicate source that provides

a. Usage data of work and home usage
b. Tracking data for a quarter of e-commerce firms
c. data base of all companies that have a e-commerce portal
d. Establishes the most popular sites visited by consumers for a quarter
22. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of panel data
a. Can be used to measure reactions to advertisements
b. Can be used to track promotions
c. Is a true representation of the buyers
d. Can be used to measure customer preference
e. Can be used to study consumer segments
23. Which of the following is not an advantage of retail and wholesale audit data?
a. Identifying shelf space allocation and inventory problems
b. Establishing profiles of specific user groups
c. Developing sales potentials and forecasts
d. Analysing distribution problems
24. When calculating the sales for a particular period which of the following are considered
a. Beginning stocks
b. Ending inventory
c. Deliveries
d. a&b
e. b & c
f. All of the above
25. Emerald is a-----------------secondary source available to the researcher.

a. Online data base
b. Government publication
c. Non-government publication
d. Company records
e. Syndicate source
CHAPTER – 6
Qualitative Methods of Data Collection
1. All statements about qualitative research are true except:

a. The information is in-depth and rich in content.
b. Requires a lot of skill in interpretation.
c. Is more time and cost consuming than quantitative research.
d. Can be used to test causal hypotheses.
e. Data interpretation is usually contextual.
2. Qualitative research
a. Is essentially the same as quantitative research.
b. Generally employs rigorous mathematical analysis.
c. Is subjective in nature.
d. Is objective in nature
3. As a practice in most management research studies _____ research is preceded by appropriate

_____ research.
a. Qualitative; quantitative
b. Observational; experimental
c. Quantitative; qualitative
d. Experimental; observational
4. Qualitative methods are usually used in the following research design(s):

a. Exploratory research designs
b. Quasi experimental research designs
c. Cross sectional research designs
d. Statistical research designs
e. a & b
f. a&c
g. b &c
5. Investigation of household trash in Gujarat shows that the most popular snack food there is khankra,
while banana chips are the main snack in Kerala households. This is an example of:
a. Ethical issues in observation research
b. Participant observation
c. Voice pitch analysis
d. Trace analysis
6. When a researcher identifies himself as a researcher to a management group and then joins a meeting
of this group in order to observe the behaviour of individuals at that meeting, this is an example of:
a. Participant observation
b. Indirect observation
c. Observer bias
d. Response latency
7. The Pupilometer, is used to measure:

a. Television viewing of children
b. Television viewing of adults
c. Consumer reaction to advertised images
d. All of the above
8. When one is making an inventory of the brands, sizes, and quantities of food in a respondent’s
kitchen, we are said to be conducting :
a. A contrived observation
b. A mechanical observation
c. A pantry audit
d. A hidden observation
e. none of the above
9. Observation allows for all of the following EXCEPT:

a. The systematic recording of non-verbal behaviour
b. The validation of the data obtained from other data collection methods
c. The gathering of evidence to explain respondent intentions
d. The reporting on actual respondent behaviour
e. The reporting of the events as they take place
10. Which of the following types of content cannot be observed?
a. Physical actions and evidences such as investment patterns
b. Verbal behavior such as consumer conversations
c. Expressive behavior such as gestures and voice tone
d. Attitudinal reactions such as preference
e. All of the above can be observed.
11. The best method to track how many times the inflation figure rose above 8% is:
a. Response latency
b. Hidden observation
c. Mechanical observation
d. Trace analysis
e. People meter
f. Content analysis
12. Which of the following are the formats for the universe of content in a content analysis?
a. Word
b. character
c. Theme
d. Space
e. Item
f. All are formats of defining the content.
13. The researcher utilizing the of data collection witnesses and records information as the
phenomena occurs.
a. Survey method
b. Observation method
c. Content analysis
d. Secondary data method
e. experimental method
14. TEXTPACK can be effectively used for analysis in the -----------------method of data collection
a. Survey method
c. Content analysis
d. Secondary data method
e. Experimental method
15. In a focus group, the discussion guide is:

a. The moderator's written broad outline of topics to be discussed
b. An experienced researcher who guides the group's discussion
c. A word association test administered to focus group participants
d. A form of research that uses a focused stimulus and discusses that at length
16. In a typical focus group the ideal group size is between

a. 6-8
b. 2-6
c. 4-8
d. 8-12
e. 8-15
f. All group sizes are alright
17. Focus group techniques has been derived from the following branch
a. Psychology
b. Sociology
c. Anthropology
d. Behaviorist school
e. Genealogy
18. Which of the following is not a stage in group formation?

a. Forming
b. Conforming
c. Mourning
d. Storming
e. Norming
f. All are stages
19. A focus group discussion where there are two moderators,one being responsible for the
managing of the discussion task and the other trying to optimize group performance, is called a
a. Two-way focus group
b. Dueling-moderator group
c. Dual-moderator group
d. Respondent-moderator group
20. Which of the following is not a focus group type

a. Friendship group
b. Dual moderator group
c. Fencing –moderator group
d. Creativity group
e. Mini-group
f. All are group types
21. Which of the following statements is not an advantage of online focus groups?
a. The research study can have a wider reach.
b. It is possible to go back to the group members at a later time period also.
c. The method is cost effective.
d. Only people that have and know how to use a computer can participate.
e. All are advantages.
22. A technique in which a single respondent is questioned one-on-one by a highly skilled

interviewer to uncover underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, and feelings on a topic is called-
a. Focus group
b. Qualitative interview
c. Projective interview
d. In-depth interview
e. Unstructured interview
23. A typical interview might take --------------

a. 20 minutes to one hour
b. Two to three hours
c. Approximately half a day
d. 10 minutes to half an hour
e. There is no fixed time for an interview
24. Which of the following is NOT type of a personal interview

a. Low structured
b. Unstructured
c. Semi- structured
d. Structured
e. All are types of interviews
25. Personal interviewing can be of which type?

a. Mall intercept
b. Computer assisted
c. At home
d. All are types of personal interviews
e. None are types of personal interviews
26. Personal interviews are like focus group discussions in all of the following ways except
a. Both are unstructured interviews
b. Both are direct ways of obtaining information
c. Both are qualitative research methods
d. Both are one-on-one interviews
27. The most powerful and accurate method of qualitative data collection is
a. Projective techniques
c. Personal interviews
d. Structured interviews
e. Focus group discussions
f. Online focus group discussions
28. Projective techniques have their origin in

a. Physics
b. Metaphysics
c. Sociology
d. Anthropology
e. Psychology
29. The method where the respondent is presented with a stimulus and asked to respond with the first
thing that comes to his/her mind is
a. Completion techniques
b. Focus groups
c. Association techniques
d. In-depth interviews
e. unstructured interviews
30. Thematic apperception test(TAT) is a type of

a. Association technique
b. Completion technique
c. Construction technique
d. Choice technique
e. Expressive technique
31. Cartoon tests are a type of

d. Choice technique
32. Rorschach inkblot is a type of

d. Choice technique
33. Sociometric matrices are n x n matrix where n is the

a. Variable under study
b. Tasks assigned to the group
c. Choices indicated by group members
d. Number of people in the group
34. ---------------- is a graphical representation of answers to a sociometric question

a. Sociometric matrix
b. Sociometric index
c. Choice status
d. Dendrogram
35. -----------------is the qualitative study of human consumption in history

a. Sociometry
b. Netnography
c. Monticello corrections
d. Monte Carlo simulations
CHAPTER – 7
Attitude Measurement and Scaling
1. Arithmetic Mean can be calculated on the following type of measurements:

a. Nominal scale
b. Ordinal scale
c. Interval scale
d. Ratio scale
e. Both (c) and (d) are true
2. The salary of Ram is twice as much as the salary of Shyam – this is an example of:
a. Nominal scale measurement
b. Ordinal scale measurement
c. Interval scale measurement
d. Ratio scale measurement
3. Eno salt is good for digestion – this is an example of:
a. Cognitive component
b. Affective component
c. Intention or action component
d. None of the above is true
4. If there are three items offered to a person, the number of paired comparisons would be:
a. Six
b. Four
c. Three
d. Twelve
5. The constant sum rating scale would result in which type of measurement?
a. Nominal scale
b. Ordinal scale
c. Interval scale
d. Ratio scale
6. Paired comparison scale is an example of:

a. Non forced scale
b. Graphic rating scale
c. Itemized rating scale
d. None of the above is true
7. In constructing a Likert scale, which of the following statements are included?

a. Odd number of statements
b. Even number of statements
c. Statements resulting in ordinal scale data
d. Discriminating statements
e. None of the above is true
8. The sensitivity of a scale can be increased by:

a. Increasing the number of items in the scale
b. Decreasing the number of items in the scale
c. Keeping the number of items to five
d. Having a few options to choose from
9. The actual measurement may differ from its true value because of the following reasons:
a. The question may be ambiguous
b. There can be errors in coding and entering the data from questionnaire to spreadsheet
c. The respondent’s inability to understand the question
d. All of the above are true
10. Social class is an example of:

a. Nominal scale
b. Ordinal scale
c. Interval scale
d. Ratio scale
11. The coefficient of variation can be computed for:

a. Nominal scale
b. Ordinal scale
c. Interval scale
d. Ratio scale
12. The first step in constructing a Likert scale is:

a. To list out various items using exploratory research.
b. To list out statement using focus group discussion.
c. To list out statements by reviewing the literature.
d. All of them are true.
13. In a balanced scale, there should be

a. Even number of categories
b. Odd number of categories
c. Equal number of favourable and un-favourable statements
d. Both (b) and (c) are true
14. The limitations of graphic rating scale are:

a. The assumption that respondent is able to distinguish between the fine shade in
differences in the attitude.
b. Coding becomes difficult.
c. Measurement becomes difficult.
d. (a) and (c) are the problems.
e. (a) and (b) are the problems.
f. (a), (b) & (c) are the problems
15. Which of the following scales possess an absolute zero?

a. Nominal scale
b. Ordinal scale
c. Interval scale
d. Ratio scale
16. In which of the following scales the objects are arranged according to their magnitude in an
ordered relationship?
a. Nominal scale
b. Ordinal scale
c. Interval scale
d. Ratio scale
17. The validity of the scale means
a. There is no systematic error.
b. The correlation coefficient between the observations taken at two different time periods is
high and significant.
c. It measures what it is supposed to measure.
d. It has only three categories so that it becomes easy for the respondents to answer.
18. The scale which uses bi-polar adjectives to anchor each end of the scales is the
a. Likert scale
b. Stapel scale
c. Semantic Differential scale
d. Q-sort technique
19. To make a scale more sensitive one should

a. Use more number of categories
b. Avoid dichotomous questions
c. Apply Likert scale
d. Use balanced scale
20. We measure the following:

a. Objects
b. Person
c. Motorcycle
d. Quantities of objects
21. In which of the following scales does difference in scores have meaningful interpretation?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Ratio
d. Interval
e. Both c and d
22. ‘Aishwarya Rai is more beautiful than Katrina Kaif’ – this is an example of
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Ratio
d. Interval
23. In which of the following scales can all possible statistical techniques be applied?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Ratio
d. Interval
24. Which of the following measures of central tendency can be applied for ordinal scale
measurement?
a. Geometric and harmonic means
b. Arithmetic means
c. Median and mode
d. Arithmetic mean and mode
25. The numbers assigned to the members of Team India is an example of

a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Ratio
d. Interval
26. A person scores 82 out of a possible score of 100 on a Likert scale. This means
a. The person has a very favourable attitude towards the object.
b. The person has a favourable attitude compared to the average score of 70.
c. The person is neutral toward the object.
d. None of the above.
27. In comparative rating scales

a. Judgments are arranged in a particular order.
b. Relative judgments are involved.
c. Halo effect plays an important role in getting a correct response.
d. Response categories are numbered.
28. Which of the following statements is true?

a. A Likert scale is an example of a comparative scale.
b. A Semantic differential scale is an example of an itemized scale.
c. There is no difference between itemized and graphic rating scale.
d. If a scale is reliable, it must have a high validity.
Chapter – 8
Questionnaire Designing
1. The-------------------is the most frequently used primary method of data collection in any area of
business research. It involves a predetermined set of queries in a structured format.
a. Indepth interviews
c. Projective techniques
d. Sociometric analysis
e. Questionnaire
2. The most structured type of questionnaires arereferred to as:
a. Formalized; unconcealed
b. Formalized;concealed
c. Non-formalized;concealed
d. Non-formalized-unconcealed
3. The questionnaire that is the most flexibly structured is
a. Formalized; unconcealed
b. Formalized; concealed
c. Non-formalized; concealed
d. Non-formalized-unconcealed
4. The--------------------is a questionnaire type in which the respondent does not fill in his/her
responses. The interviewer asks and makes a note of the answers.
a. Structured interview
c. Mall intercept questionnaire
d. Schedule
e. Semi-structured interviews.
5. Which of the following is not an objective of a questionnaire?
a. The information asked from the respondent must be specific to the study
b. The questionnaire must de simple to understand and answeranswer.
c. A questionnaire must be easy to use.
d. A questionnaire must engage the respondent and not cause boredom and stress
e. A questionnaire should minimize response error.
6. Which of the following is not a part of the questionnaire design process?
a. Specify the type of questioning method.
b. Arrange questions in proper order.
c. Reproduce the questionnaire.
d. Develop the sampling plan.
e. Work on the question wording
7. The first step in the questionnaire design process is _____.
a. Specify the type of questioning method
b. Identify the form and layout
c. Specify the information needed
d. Determine the content of individual questions
e. Convert the study objective into information needs
8. Which is the best method of questionnaire administration if the research study is on a sensitive
topic/issue?
a. E-mail questionnaire
b. Telephone interview
c. Schedule
d. Mail questionnaire
e. Web-based questionnaire
9. In which of the following interviewer bias is very high and thus a problem?
a. E-mail questionnaire
b. Telephone interview
c. Mail questionnaire
d. Web-based questionnaire
10. Similar questions asked at different points in the questionnaire increase its
a. Physical appearance
b. Authencity of asking questions
c. Length of the questionnaire
d. Reliability of the questionnaire
11. The reason for the respondent’s inability to answer the questions in a questionnaire could be
because of:
a. The person might not have the required information
b. The person might not remember the answer
c. The person might not be able to articulate the answer
e. All of the above
12. A _____ is a type of question that might attempts to cover two issues.
a. Structured question
b. Dichotomous question
c. Double-barrelled question
d. Branching question
13. What type of question is the following:
If you were to select your favorite holiday destination and what are the reasons for this. What
would be your answer?
a. Leading question
b. Loaded question
c. Fixed-alternative question
d. Open-ended question
14. What type of question is the following:

I like my coffee to be strong and sweet yes/no
a. Leading question
b. Loaded question
c. Fixed-alternative question
d. Open-ended question
15. Consider the following question:
Don’t you think the current government has an excellent poverty alleviation programme? Yes/no
a. Is a leading question
b. Is a loaded question
c. Is a double-barrelledquestion
d. Is an interval scaled question
f. All of the above
16. Open-ended response questions:

a. Require less interviewer skill.
b. Are good for exploratory research
c. Take less time to answer than fixed-alternative questions.
d. Ask the respondent to answer in his own words.
e. a&d
f. b&d
g. All of the above
17. What type of question is the following?
How many times during the last trimester have you called in sick for class or played basketball during
a weekday?
a. Double-barreled
b. Forced choice
c. Open-ended
d. Dichotomous
e. Loaded question
18. The information that is a necessary condition and extremely important to the research study and
should be obtained first is _____.
a. Instructions
b. Screening information
c. Identification information
d. Basic information
e. Classification information
19. Do you think taking dowry is the right of every Indian male? Is an example of a
a. double-barreled
b. Forced choice
c. Open-ended
d. Dichotomous
e. Loaded question
20. A person’s predisposition to select an alternative because it is at a particular place is called
a. Location bias
b. Order of position
c. Researcher bias
d. Questionnaire bias
e. Both a & b are correct
21. The tendency of respondent to pick up the last option from a list of alternatives is alled
a. Recency effect
b. Primacy effect
c. Latency effect
d. Bothe a & b are correct
22. -------------------------are kind of questions that cover various possibilities for answering and have a
separate set of questions for each answer.
a. Scales
b. Multiple choice questions
c. Checklists
d. Branching questions
23. The return ratio refers to
a. The number of people who did not fill in the questionnaire
b. The number of people who filled in the questionnaire
c. The number of unfilled questionnaire
d. The ratio of male female in the filled questionnaire
24. Which of the following is an example of an ambiguous response category
a. One
b. Three
c. Seven
d. Sometimes
e. Ten
25. The demographic questions should generally come at
a. The end of a questionnaire
b. Beginning of the questionnaire
c. Middle of the questionnaire
d. Can be placed anywhere where they look appropriate.
26. The process of administering the first draft of the questionnaire on a small group of respondent in
order to refine it and arrive at the final version is called
a. Primary testing
b. Draft testing
c. Pilot testing
d. Questionnaire testing
e. Field testing
27. A multiple choice question in which a person can select more than one response category is called
a. Dichotomous question
b. Likert scale question
c. Multiple response question
d. Ambiguous question
e. Checklist
28. Which of the following is not an advantage of the traditional questionnaire

a. Adaptability
b. Time advantage
c. Cost advantage
d. It assures anonymity
e. It has universal applicability
f. All of the above are advantages.
29. A major disadvantage of the questionnaire method is

a. It requires a lot of skill for administration.
b. It does not provide for spontaneity of response.
c. There is pressure for immediate response.
d. It can be simultaneously conducted on a large sample.
CHAPTER – 9
Sampling Consideration
1. Before drawing a sample one must

a. Determine the sample size.
b. Select a sampling scheme.
c. Identify a sampling frame.
d. Define the population.
2. The advantage of sampling over census is in the following cases except

a. It has lower cost.
b. Lower sampling error.
c. Greater precision.
d. Both (a) and (b).
3. A census is preferred over sampling when

a. The size of the population is very small.
b. There is a large variation in the population units.
c. Most of the elements in the population are identical.
d. Both (a) and (b) are true.
4. A sampling frame
a. Is a list of all elements of population with proper identification from which a sample
is drawn.
b. Is a form of probability sampling.
c. Is a requirement when a non-probability sampling scheme is used to draw the sample.
d. Gives unbiased estimates.
5. Which of the following is not a probability sampling plan?

a. Systematic sampling
b. Cluster sampling
c. Convenience sampling
d. Stratified sampling
6. Selecting every fifth female entering the mall is an example of
a. Quota sampling
b. Cluster sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Simple random sampling
7. In simple random sampling design each element of the population has the following chance of
being selected in the sample.
a. Equal
b. Unequal
c. Known
d. Equal and known
e. Unequal and known
8. Non-probability sampling design is used in

a. Descriptive research
b. Causal research
c. Exploratory research
d. Both (a) and (b) are correct
9. Which of the following sampling methods could be used to make an estimate of the sampling
error?
a. Convenience sampling
b. Probability sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Snow-ball sampling
e. Judgment sampling
a. Samples are less expensive.
b. Non-sampling error reduces with increase in sample size.
c. Simple random sampling is more efficient than stratified sampling.
11. In the proportionate stratified random sampling

a. The bigger a population stratum, the larger is the number of sample units allocated
to it.
b. Population is divided into strata in such a way that the elements within the strata are
heterogeneous.
c. The cost of choosing a sample is of main consideration.
12. Judgment samples can be used

a. To generalize the results of the sample to that of population.
b. To gain insight into a research problem.
c. To decide how to phrase a question.
d. To choose the members of the focus group discussion.
e. (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
13. Non-probability sampling design is preferred to probability sampling design

a. Because it is more economical.
b. Because it takes less time.
c. Because it helps in estimating sampling error.
d. Because it could be used when the project is exploratory in nature.
14. Which of the following statements is false:

a. The criteria for stratification should be related with the objective of the study.
b. The stratified sampling allows for the comparison of variables between strata.
c. In proportionate stratified sampling, the number of elements selected from each
stratum varies directly with homogeneity of each stratum.
d. Systematic sampling gives a more representative sample than a simple random sampling.
15. Which of the following statement is true?
a. Probability sampling is used to select the initial set of respondents for snow-ball
sampling.
b. In non-probability sampling each and every element of the population as an equal
probability of being selected in the population.
c. A census can decrease the non-sampling error.
d. We should not use more than five strata in a stratified sampling design.
16. If the confidence coefficient increases from 90 to 95%, it will

a. Decrease the sample size.
b. Increase the sample size.
c. The sample size would decrease by 5%.
d. The sample size would increase by 5%.
e. The sample size would remain ineffective.
17. In which of the probability sampling design, the first element is chosen at random and the
remaining elements are picked up by adding the sampling interval to it successively.
a. Cluster sampling
b. Stratified sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Simple random sampling
18. Which of the following is not a source of non-sampling error?

a. Sampling frame error
b. Non representativeness of the sample
c. Error at the time of coding tabulation and computation.
d. Population of the study not clearly define
19. Which of the following is not used while determining sample size using confidence interval
approach?
a. Variability of the population
b. Cost of sampling per unit
c. Margin of error
d. The confidence attached to the estimate
20. The maximum value of pq where p is the population proportion and q = 1 – p is

a. Zero
b. 0.5
c. 0.25
d. One
21. Requesting people to volunteer to test products is an example of

a. Quota sampling
b. Judgmental sampling
c. Random sampling
d. Convenience sampling

a. In systematic sampling, the population is arranged in a particular order.
b. Simple random sampling always results in a representative sample.
c. Higher the numbers of strata in a stratified sampling, more accurate are the result.
d. In cluster sampling, the elements within each cluster are homogeneous.
23. The advantage of sampling is

a. That it is representative.
b. Fatigue is reduced.
c. Time is saved.
d. Decision making could be faster.
e. (b), (c) and (d) are true.
24. Which of the following statements is false:

a. The starting number is chosen arbitrarily while using a random number table.
b. In simple random sampling, every element of the population has an equal chance of being
selected in the population.
c. The process of selecting an adequate number of elements from the population is called
sampling.
d. A census study is more appropriate in case the units of interest for research are
human beings.
25. For a 95% confidence interval (use Z = 1.96), the required sample size with margin of error equal
to 100 and estimated population standard deviation equal to 500 is given by:
a. 96
b. 156
c. 500
d. 1000
e. Not enough information given to answer the question.
Chapter – 10
Data Processing
1. Which of the following is not a step in the data-processing stage?

f. Editing
g. Select a research design
h. Validation
i. Tabulating
j. Data cleaning
31. The _____ step of the data-processing consists of carefully reviewing the data collection process
to assess if there are any gaps or inconsistencies in the same.
a. Coding
b. Data cleaning
c. Field work validation
d. Editing
e. Tabulating
32. At the editing stage the researcher carries out the following steps except:
a. Recoding unsatisfactory responses
b. Assigning missing values
c. Discarding unsatisfactory responses
d. Ensuring that the correct response categories have been used
e. The data is complete in all respects
f. All the above are steps in editing
33. Which of the following is a problem that the researcher might face when he starts the validation
process?
a. The filled in form has been filled by someone other than one representative of the population
to be investigated.
b. The form that is received is not complete.
c. The respondent has used the same response category regardless of difference in instructions
given for different questions.
d. The form received is not in the proportion of the sampling plan.
e. All the above are problems that the researcher might face during validation.
34. Data editing is generally done at---------------level(s)

a. Single
b. Two levels
c. Multi level
d. Three levels
35. The process of giving a numeral value to the responses given by the respondent is called
a. Coding
b. Tabulating
c. Field validation
d. Data analysis
e. Data monitoring
36. While conducting post coding the researcher must take care of all of the following steps except:
a. Category codes should be mutually exclusive
b. Category codes must be exhaustive.
c. Category codes should be assigned even for answers that have not been obtained from all
d. Answers should be shortened as much as possible.
e. Data should be coded to retain as much detail as possible
37. If after post-coding categories have been established and all data have been coded and one ends up
with too many code categories. The researcher should:
a. Discard the coding
b. Go back to the respondent and collect answers on the question again to match the coded
categories.
c. Recode the entire set
d. Collapse the categories
38. Which of the following is an option available for the treatment of missing values?
a. Substitute a neutral value
b. Substitute an extrapolated value
c. Both a and b are correct
d. Discarding unsatisfactory respondents
39. In which of the following categories questions it is not possible to carry out a pre-coding?
a. Open-ended questions
b. Multiple choice questions
c. Dichotomous questions
d. Scaled questions
e. Checklists
40. A rectangular arrangement of data into rows and columns is called-

a. A file
b. A record
c. A data matrix
d. A test tabulation
41. Field editing is primarily done by

a. The business decision maker
b. The principal researcher
c. The data analyst
d. The field investigators
e. All of the above
42. Field editing helps to assess all of the following except
a. Inconsistencies in data entry
b. Check non-response to certain questions
c. Whether the respondent has understood how to fill the questionnaire
d. Whether the surveyor has understood how to get the questionnaire filled in
e. Ascertain what should be the preliminary data analysis that can be done
43. Central editing is done by

a. The business decision maker
b. The principal researcher
c. The data analyst
d. The field investigators
e. All of the above
44. The process of going back to the respondent to get the answers to inconsistencies or non-response
is called
a. Field work validation
b. Backtracking
c. Data cleaning
d. Data validation
e. Data authentication
45. Data is generally coded in all the following except:

a. Frequencies
b. Field
c. Record
d. File
e. All of the above
46. In a data matrix the field (variable) is usually denoted on the

a. Row head
b. Column head
c. Either ways it does not matter
d. The field is not denoted on a data matrix
47. The usual ways to code a dichotomous question is

a. 0 and 1
b. 1 to 5
c. 0, 1 and 2
48. In case the researcher has asked the respondent to rank 10 brands then the number of columns
needed would be
a. 1
b. As many as the respondent has ranked
c. 10
d. Is the researcher’s discretion
49. In case of a rating question like – how satisfied are you with your mobile service provider? Use a
10 point scale –with 1=very satisfied and 10=very dissatisfied. The researcher would need---------
---columns.
a. 1
b. As many as the respondent has rated
c. 10
d. Is the researcher’s discretion
50. The numeral most used for missing values is

a. 1
b. 0
c. 6
d. 9
e. 10
51. The arranging of the data according to some logical pattern is called
a. Data analysis
b. Cumulative frequencies
c. Stem and leaf display
d. Data tabulation
52. Class intervals in which the where the upper limit in one is the lower limt in the other interval is
called
a. Exclusive class interval
b. Inclusive class interval
c. Post coded intervals
d. Recoded class intervals
53. nominal and ordinal data are called-----------------;while interval and ratio scaled data are called--
-----------
a. Metric; non-metric
b. Non-metric; metric
c. Non-scaled; scaled.
d. Parametric; non-parametric
54. Which of the following software are used for business research
a. SPSS
b. SAS
c. LISREL
d. E-views
e. MINITAB
f. All the above software are used

Chapter - 1 Introduction To Business Research: F. Promotion

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Chapter - 1 Introduction To Business Research: F. Promotion

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

CHAPTER – 1

Introduction to Business Research

17. In a typical research problem the is expected to influence the .

24. Which statement about hypotheses is not true?

a. A hypothesis is an assumption or proposition about the topic that is of interest to the

26. Job anxiety leads to lowered performance – this is an example of a

27. Women drivers have fewer road accidents – this is an example of a

1. Which statement is not true about research design?

3. Research designs require

4. Which of the following tasks is not a part of research design?

5. Research designs may be broadly classified as _____ or _____ .

6. Exploratory research does the following:

8. Cross-sectional and longitudinal designs are types of _____

13. The degree of structure is highest in a(n)

14. The unit of analysis in the comprehensive case method is

15. Expert opinion survey is a technique used in

21. Single cross-sectional designs are also called_____.

23. Which of the following statements is true about cohort analysis?

5. The examples of extraneous variable is (are)

6. Test units are also called

7. The relationship between cause and effect is

10. The difference between laboratory experiments and field experiments is

15. In the case of static-group comparison,

18. Which of the following is not a method to control extraneous variables?

20. If no measurement is taken before a test treatment, this is

26. Which of the following is true about field experiment?

1. The most popular categorization of data available for research is

3. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of secondary data?

4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of secondary data?

5. Which of the following situations can make use of secondary data?

6. Secondary data methods have a lot of advantages except

7. While authenticating secondary information one needs to do a methodology check in

8. Financial records are a type of

9. Data warehouses are (a)n

11. Thompson indices are an example of

12. Census of India is a

13. Monthly survey of selected industries is available from

15. Which of following are NOT examples of published data sources

16. Stock exchange directory is a

20. TRP refers to

21. Net ratings inc. is a syndicate source that provides

25. Emerald is a-----------------secondary source available to the researcher.

1. All statements about qualitative research are true except:

3. As a practice in most management research studies _____ research is preceded by appropriate

4. Qualitative methods are usually used in the following research design(s):

7. The Pupilometer, is used to measure:

9. Observation allows for all of the following EXCEPT:

15. In a focus group, the discussion guide is:

16. In a typical focus group the ideal group size is between

18. Which of the following is not a stage in group formation?

20. Which of the following is not a focus group type

22. A technique in which a single respondent is questioned one-on-one by a highly skilled

23. A typical interview might take --------------

24. Which of the following is NOT type of a personal interview

25. Personal interviewing can be of which type?

28. Projective techniques have their origin in

30. Thematic apperception test(TAT) is a type of

31. Cartoon tests are a type of

32. Rorschach inkblot is a type of

33. Sociometric matrices are n x n matrix where n is the

34. ---------------- is a graphical representation of answers to a sociometric question

35. -----------------is the qualitative study of human consumption in history

1. Arithmetic Mean can be calculated on the following type of measurements:

5. Research designs may be broadly classified as _ or _ .