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    MPSC 2019 Prelims Paper1 75

    Uploaded by

    KAUSTUBH R JOSHI

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    © All Rights Reserved
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    of 48
    =e Day CIT) WHE - 2.015 seafermis 55-17 Hyagpili 2019 BOOKLET No. : IAAL am ‘ea HF : 100 We:2 (am) 7H TERT YT + 200 agent G) we 100 afar wet rani weit sat fefevare gears avant a weagieatem at Soe See ar arf Ges UA, we Sea 18 In teers A setae THREE = wore] TTT TTT TI sen wer ses eo stati ves ld t % a Raeen ater fre. art vere een aig (0) a orton wegfisen sacs gre sear Pee St smearatta A + Peer aR TAT, (2) (a) avery set wearer 4 waa set gata ve car 1, 2, 3 su 4 a a RAS ot on an sath wala aa satrer soni seafthatia qatar) geen secfitat Ag Beal. star Tah ORR weGRMS mR wa at da eto orate ees after ste are arash earch, trrenftert were Te ATES ators area, Aer a wa Sa rae za. (=) et Fewest re actrees it ext Rrra wee we wert () wd wear aara 7 onts. seve ad weal sat eda, erfas yar Bon ale ah cam Bora war eer EAS Te a SA FR ae eet Eee a wrerfaat Gale mer sore. see wet Hacer ware Tae ae frees aftere asdbor Te ABATE TATHS WAH eGR Ste, © ee eg Whe ERA eH eA eRe He 1) eR babe srcaPhesta eatare anes terete seater ate eciare or FAR ee, were “aireeret wens aqeeteh earearear welt Peeve se sactgeht weak ee Tate Seah AR anes, seme rion atin dafider wis qflen sre us Bain IM aT wT || rita on erate fete etch ae Rawaronlt G serrate tafe ares MT RT PET ST we joret smritmren enturiganhh, wie widen wastage atach ernie ie mart fer & art art Ft et a Cie ee 112 2 ‘caveat wraTaTal air /SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1. 3 TI2 SITET, vietrasee AT aorARARA Sree HyMa SMT St. SREP srrtet Peurnsage siacresdirat wee Sil aa YS Ta. a, siavadh a agree gem Uaares arf ara, a dacradte mr srearé yeria werk orate ara Tel. s. attateht hetéh art wath HR: Q) &, & srr a (2) wh wont a (3) Sapo on (4) wHS An astronaut in the satellite feels weightlessness because ____ the foree exerted by the satellite floor on the astronaut is equal to zero. the astronaut and the satellite floor are attracted towards each other. he is not attracted by any gravitational foree. . None of the above Answer Options: () abande (@) Only aandb (3) Onlyaande (4) Onlyd aes wrgifis gamma varia (fSfieet) siete Hee aan tea da Waa ata. aes (fem) yea! ater Set Sart. avast (Qgart) searegdten sete ascara. Gar ntti fore (art) a ae setae sean rea. asag 1) we oF saftr a 2) wee one 3) 3,4 anf 4) ata ad In electronic communication system, digital signals a. do not provide a continuous set of values, b. represent values as discrete steps. ©. utilize binary system, d. utilize decimal as well as binary systems. Which of the above statements are true ? Answer Options: @) Onlyaandb (2) Only bande (3) a,bande (4) Allofthe above ‘@eeA BAAS! GIT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO. m2 4 A 3. sada sire Ga-aT warRgte se BTN ecaih Sal — 3-4 eV oR, cael fer WH, atta sal fat 2 q@) -151d (2) -84eV (3) -151eV (4) -13-6eV Energy of the electron revolving around the nucleus in second orbit is ~ is its energy in third orbit ? a) 151d @) ~34eV (3) -151leV (4) -136eV 4 wendy a A Gree TOT TAR Serta STP S. WeRRIAY TereReaTe TeaTaT a. Were sradare aearat H. Wermrea oh states gradars meat S| WaT SER rarat wate sat: M aaah se 2) FHS @) wanfis GQ) BRE Optical fibre is based on which of the following principles ? a. Principle of reflection of light b. Principle of refraction of light c. Principle of total internal reflection 4. Principle of dispersion of light Answer Options: @) abande — (2) Onlye (3) banda 4 Only Bade fauna fan ao: a peo after Aer ao BH waka sroor ore red Sea spe. a. Salta (un area ae FRA) Ten Bor F ter Bote Sted siatie Fea. &. adarerornd seria ariel (ert steer ae lta Tata) siete ahh TST AA. wath sat: (2) 3 satin = faut Bereta ar SATE. 2) a sift a faa ys ones vig & fae ater SHR, (3) & far 8 a ont a ct sehr one, @) & faa 3 a anf a ol weifterc ame, Consider the following statements : fa. Beta particles are negatively charged and are more penetrating than Alpha particles, which are positively charged. b. Gamma particles are neutral and are more penetrating than Beta-particles. c. Ingeneral neutral particles can be eaid to be having very high penetrating power. Answer Options: (2) aand bare universally true. (2) aandb are false but c is true. (3) cis resultant statement of a and b. (4) cis not resultant statement of a and b. ‘ee BATA GMT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK A 5 12 6 ar aedem ayers user cea arcade Hiren aida Gas aida ? (@) Spi ates sat (2) aah atte sat (3) Spt athe sat (4) eke aeqeh at During inelastic collision between two bodies, which of the following quantities always remains conserved ? (1) Total kinetic energy (2) Total mechanical energy (3) Total linear momentum (4) Speed ofeach body 7. Fwen sabe eats Sema sete GHA dart a Aare fain Sond da ays act sea 2 (Q) seam ae (2) wER sare (3) Barta arse 4) ga aiges ‘Name the transgenic crop in which thtee genes for synthesis of vitamin A are introduced through the technique of genetic engineering. (1) Kalyan Sona wheat (2) Sweet sorghum (3) Hybrid bajra (4) Golden rice 8. arate ar faeeeorear ae anf are med feet ect ae srEATA ? () 04 sufi 04 (2) 10 afm 10 (3) 12 onfir 12 (4) 23 sf 24 How many linkage groups are present in the female and male grasshopper insect ? (1) 04 and 04 (2) 10and 10 (3) 12and 12 (4) 28 and 24 9. Sven area Tawa. se CO, wt wR vane gt? @) = (2) ayr (3) age (4) aerer Name the plant having H.S.K. or C, pathway of photosynthesis. (Q) Sugarcane @) Groundnut (3) Sunflower (4) Potato 10. WRRHR SaS ee aa aU Shay (eid) sven wrad Rect wer yah Firoaara ? (Dae gt (2) site gt (3) BB ya (4) after Seteft wa ‘Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. (1) Organic (2) Inorganic (3) _ Synthetic (4) Processed ‘ee! BTATATS GIA / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO. Tz 6 11. Amara abate ere mead gia aeferaren are TeaA HTT ? () fiaeda Relagides, cagee fate soft seciticter (2) Stegner, Tagen fates onftr freradia fisteaidert (3) aegifhean, fectadia fistwatdara ont eager ear (4) tegen fates, freredte afaaider onftr sregifkeeer In the nephron of man, what is the correct sequence of urine formation ? (1) Selective reabsorption, tubular secretion and ultrafiltration (2) Ultrafiltration, tubular secretion and selective reabsorption, (3) Ultrafiltration, selective reabsorption and tubular sceretion (4) Tubular secretion, selective reabsorption and ultrafiltration 12, areteteey aoe ahaa Geman laa) Ona a? ) Rht yey a Raat 8 fore (2) Rh Yee a Rh? oh A fase (3) Rh* 9 a Rh* of 2 fare (4) Rho yey a Rh oh & are Which of the following situations will be fatal to second foetus ? (1) Rh* male marries Rh” woman (2) hr male marries Rh* woman (8) Rh* male marries Rh* woman (4) Rho male marries Rh” woman 18. rata Seal Goat ae t a. feircifer 1 aaferge a. Fetgaiticr TL ysha . ferivia HL fen 3. fester IV. degree waht sat: x a a 3 w a I Vv @ I I m Ww @m vi ot @ Woo I u Match the following : Respiratory Pigment Animal/Animal group a. Haemoglobin I. Annelida b. Chlorocruorin IL. Vertebrates ce. Hemerythrin MII. Lingula d, Haemocyanin IV. Molluses Answer Options : a b © a @ uo pid I Wv @) I mov @) mm 1 vi ot @ Vv om I 0 ‘Bree STARTS SMT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK A 7 v2 14, after a ont ery dpe fergie arad areal faur aera ea: 3. wficgia omate erg daa tone ere wc a. a fagia aaae ont Prec 1 eesiaeh steer, atteteh ard Frarafaet ace ae? catch at: () FS Q) wa (3) waif a geet @) amd Gare Consider the following statements about sliding filament theory of muscle contraction : a. This theory explains the modern concept of muscle contraction. b. This theory was put forward by Huxley and Niedergerke. Which of the above statements is/are true? Answer Options : (1) Onlya (2) Onlyb (3) Both a and b (4 None of the above: 15. ate aR eT. Q) we ertgresieerds ae vet (2) wih Bem ow eR TT (8) (a) Fran (2) @ ergata saci Bet 4) waghe aeads wre sett During calcination process (1) Only CO, is given out (2) Only HO from hydrates is given ovt (3) (aor (2), depending on type of ore (4) HS is given out 16. -efea waned Bret ROT () theye aaa edhe arredta caret wa at (2) Tas afin fren sentra cae act (3) Sfee cesta afin wafer aT (4) fararfaerd go% onthe ret ares TatereonaRER seal TAN TT By green chemistry, we mean @) "Producing chemicals of our daily use from greenhouse gases (2) Performing chemical processes which use green plants (8) Performing only those reactions which are of biological origin. (4) The use of non-toxic reagents and solvents to produce environmentally-friendly products 17, wretch ater gga ame aah? () After atags Bacl,) (2) aR ga aces (BCly) (3) aftettsm acha¥s (BeCl,) @ -aer ga vette (BE) Which of the following is not a Lewis acid ? (1) Barium chloride (BaCl,) (2) Boron trichloride (BCI) (8) Beryllium chloride (BeCla) (4) Boron trifluoride (BF) eee] BAAS! GMT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO. TI 8 18, Grohl ard Hrerrea Steeen fine sea 2 a. ese often a. rafts mt %. Haute fra 3. pasties Fal wate sat: Q saat 2) xanfta 3) a ah 4) wants ‘The following are some of the properties of the colloidal sols : a. Tyndall effect b. Brownian motion c. Maxwell distribution d. van der Waals forces Answer Options: (@) aybande = (2) aandb @) aande (4) bandd 19, aretha fadten Raeraiteht stort fart atta airea 7 4. HF sf 0 & yfea aq sree, CH, anf CO, & yaa aga aie. %. CO, sufin SO. & afr High Te, atch sat: Q) sata 2) 4 anti (3) wont & 4) x, a of ae Which of the following statements are correct ? a. HF and H,0 are polar molecules. b, CHy and C02 are non-polar molecules. ©. COz and SO» are non-polar molecules. Answer Options : @) aandb (@) bande (3) aande (4) abande 20, wretteateht ater oftirarercs smitten cee accarerdl ATCA 7 3. NH,Cl+ Ca(OH), a. Ny +Hy %. CaCNy + H,0 ate ae: @ santa Q) sont se (3) a sf @ 3, a ante Which of the following reactants can be used to prepare ammonia ? a NH,Ol+ Ca(OH), b. No+Hp e. CaCNz + Hz Answer Options: @) aandb (2) bande (8) aande (4) a,bande ‘Greeny BTATATST TPT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 21, 9 m2 wetted , The Constituent Assembly became the first Parliament of free India. c. When the Constituent Assembly met as the Legislative body it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad. d. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly came down to 299 as against 389, Answer Options: (1) Statements a, bande are correct (2) Statements b,c and d are correct (3) Statements a,bandd are correct (4) Statements a,¢ and d are correct 22, 1978 om 44 om aeaTeTe afURangt Usa sehanten seula wetaiA woh aR ‘aah ae? QQ) Sheer seh frorsh Rear aged usa aeteh wifi ae va ae. (2) ‘aierla setae’ aT taht Saar ser? er erequaty avaia sre. (3) age 19 eh See wM AG shen % dae gg aot wh TET SUT Tifa auaia sree sofa Peifia eat ata, aes eerste sree Tift eeata sree sotarofa Refers ec ore area. @ oR deter amend HEM oMfatren drier Fila SORT sea ale ATE, daware Re Bena sera sores Fash a eT TT aM saa aT Aware hen act ores sre. Which one of the following has not been provided by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 relating to National Emergency ? (1) A proclamation of National Emergency will not be issued by President unless there is a written recommendation of the Cabinet, (2) The expression ‘internal disturbances’ has been replaced by ‘armed rebellion’, (3) The six fundamental rights under Article 19 can be suspended only when the National Emergency is declared on grounds of war or extemal aggression and not on grounds of armed rebellion. (4) The President: must issue a proclamation of revocation any time if any House of Parliament passes a resolution disapproving of the continuance of the proclamation ‘weer mTaTaTSt SM | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO. THz 10 A wwrehiat Rrart ferenr a: a. See ee ee eee eet 3. 1961 ot Lon Geageed srTgadiem Rade vga aeears anc, Toga fas dhl ersten acs Ralf aeeaien Fagicarngs eh sn’, = Fag Ha (Electoral College) 34of 8a a area SeIgadtan Pashley ae ea ta 1a. watt Ht: () far a, 8 aden, &, 5 ae (2) fur a, &, = aie, 3 ae 3) Rar a, 4, sate, aa 4) furs, & aie, 4, = Consider the following statements : a. The original Constitution provided that the Vice-President would be elected by the two Houses of Parliament assembled at a joint meeting. b. ‘The 112 Constitutional Amendment, 1961 changed the procedure of election of the Vice-President. c. The Vice-President is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the elected members only of both the Houses. 4. The election of the Vice-President cannot be challenged on the grounds that the electoral college was incomplete. Answer Options: (1) Statements a, b are correct, c and d are false (@) Statements b, c,d are correct and a is false () Statements a, b, d are correct and c is false (4) Statements b, ¢ are correct, a and d are false 24. ATTEN THe wreath stra fears Wea se 7 (1) 2 sitet fa anetier are Gere afteter aTafictira we Hema. (2) @ sire dea sonchaetter Pra dare fara var arafaehere ae eA, (3) aa Tsao syR8e 371 (2) eae fata sara weMt Bea aTefh aM. 4) 3 memeeher sess 31 A ure sedi arnt aremer doer HUTT fates usadrent Rrarrd wga 34 sed Are. Which one of the following statements about the Governor of Maharashtra is true ? (2) He can nominate one member to the Legislative Council from the Anglo-Indian community. (2) He can nominate at least two members to the Legislative Assembly from the Anglo-Indian community. (3). He has been given special responsibility under Article 371 (2). (4) He cannot reserve the bill for the consideration of President, dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31 A of the Constitution. ‘reg ararandt GM | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK A 1 112 25, aretterteht store are gest ATA 2 a) 11 fete, 1946 2 Sagara feet steers ata sfesorat aca HIeT, (2) 29 aT, 1947 aga aftrdish erat (3) 26 7eeR, 1949 2 Uda RA den aftea ont oftheir eer eam: a order ch. (® rawr, 1950 2 Stam atten ace sitive: afer eT eT. Which of the following items is wrongly matched ? (1) 11th December, 1946 : Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objective Resolution in. the Constituent Assembly. (2) 29% August, 1947: Drafting committee was set up (8) 26th November, 1949: The people of India adopted, enacted and gave to themselves the Constitution. (4) 24th January, 1950 : Constitution was finally signed by the members of the Constituent Assembly. 26, use faftnisor ana See fates terot cendien fared war oq wear, ToT ox, fader ararar Sart oteray MIeaRT gE Bz era. a ue faRuicasn’ qfffered & rae wea req, merATA, &. vegidiag: ta aidtem fataae usa faftnicar dy fear gaffer Sera wie ar ae geet Faas sig a ae Eta ee inch BAL rt wae aaa. 3. Afra qo oneat fae on ase fafinisar ye ag Set ee UT me wer afgeatear areata eine feet fest. atiatchh stort fears ater area ? wate ant: Qa anfira Q) washes (3) wants (4) 9, wants In the case of a bill passed by the State Legislature, Governor can reserve it for the consideration of the President. a. The President may declare or withhold his assent to the bill. b. The President may return the bill for reconsideration to the State Legislature. ©. State Legislature must reconsider the bill within three months and if passed again it is obligatory upon the President to give his assent. d. In case of reconsidered bill which is passed again by State Legislature, President shall declare his assent within a period of six months. Which of the statements given above are correct ? Answer Options: )_aandb (2) a,bande (3) a, bandd 4) _acandd ‘Weed WTAE) GTM | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO. m12 12 A 27, ara ares Gee gaat. QQ) srakt srt erlat aad aenerea eifta sear Tere arf Q) SRtiget toy ena ae ITTY BATT Tae TT Safer BOA syeeraty (3) SRR wen seca ad aria ogee wea frevaarie Gace qeaTet marred saftrar ) areas aygél aar sear fra Sao’ Rede Pela gaaacies area are aifeeer, In India, Judicial Review implies (1) The power of the judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders. (2) The power of the judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the legislatures. (3) The power of the judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President. (4) The power of the judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases. 28, aroha faemieAl ste UTA acta Teta aE FI anlar Tceht owl ? ST Tee FE yaa ond cafes A arta Pardiar sae GAS Tare fare avert RS. 3. area afte Arent ert tered) adhe reread fiw ow Ieee a arctan oraen fe. &. eaten cian after sree ar fac waver sre THES, waht sit: GQ) Fra (2) wd a (3) aberdat wae aT 4) ante Which of the following statements is/are included as provision of the Indian Constitution ? ‘a. The person to be appointed as Governor of a State should be a domicile of some other State of the Indian Union. b. There should be at least one Muslim judge in the Supreme Court so as to ensure its secular character. ¢, ‘The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament should belong to a party in the opposition. Answer Options : () Only a (2) Onlyb (3) None of the above (4) aandb ‘qeeat @raTETst GMT / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK A 13 M12 29, rete faurt frat om: q ware shfeen frees faurt viteg fat excararad aaa HR Be STR. wen ie coset fan ah i, ; Hees ewe onl gor wed er vitae Pinter wards wena arene weifira eI. =. Reem atts 2 cert siege wehucings Fae ae. atteiteht arma Fars ater oe 7 watt ait: Qa, sane (2) a anf as (3) & nfs (4) anf Consider the following statements a. Odisha Legislative Assembly passed resolution for creation of Legislative Council recently. b. Currently, five States have Legislative Councils, ¢. Proposals to create Legislative Councils in Kerala and Gujarat are pending in Parliament. a members of Legislative Council are elected by registered graduates. Which of the above statements are correct ? Answer Options : (1) ajbande (2) bande (3) canada (4) aandd 80, Gretta armavdl faeaa qelte area ? ‘weeq] STINTS TMT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Scat afteara are Soren eroriat orarita oe, Ber BT STA, 3. chews ofivare oma wast wer avarice oadt A cheater fan 198 mea ‘wiftineh one. %, aftara ova Ua) AST MIT at grat sewer dad RrarearTa eer aareT sar swfa Gren ter aia. Feet FA eran date Sale sete ufier St ar se. wah wa: QD Fe Q) oe (3) aorta 4) avanti Which one of the following statements is/are not correct ? a. In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based. b. In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha procedures of admissibility have been laid down in Rule 198 of Lok Sabha. ©. A motion of no-confidence once admitted has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted. d. In Italy, the government requires the support of both houses of Parliament, Answer Options : ()_Onlya (2) Onlye (3)_bande (4)_aandd Tz 31. 14 A ort Pratea artrenaa arettateh aia fours aS a8 7 Q) Sas er fatet apria arora arian) glia om’, wig sen Rater orga ‘ae aetna. Q) Rea fafes srgaata tae sweat asf et ates arererarea arene war aA, (3) Wea Rates sepa 8 dacs carrion wa oe, (4) SC ware sade goa Rated area arf sat Frater seed areaued amie Rafer get ae eat atelier ofa aera aca aT, Which one of the following statements about Election Commission of India is false ? (1) Only the Chief Election Commissioner has a security of tenure but not to the other Blection Commissioners. (2) The Chief Election Commissioner holds the position or status of a judge of the ‘Supreme Court. (3) The Chief Election Commissioner is merely first among equals. (4) In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners, the matter is decided by majority. 32. wef agai faarta ea : a. anda Tete syese 21 FAN seh oafera sifre fear erfeans ear ‘Sormaren ane sfgsiferana’ fearga Bact sion aA. a. onda Terres ayede 20 (2) Fan HT saferat wars Tree) wear afeRseT ween Sree FOE ATE sah Tie siftrancnr reat Feet sire ATA, Meda Te Sees 14 Fan rete es Usa Sen ealsse wraENys war ST SRT HH ALAA ATT, ATE, att store aqg aia ad 2 watt at: aw @ a (3) % (4) ater wae are Consider the following provisions : a. According to Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the ‘due process of Law’. b. According to Article 20 (2) of the Indian Constitution, no person shall be prosecuted und punished for the same offence more than once. c. According to Article 14 of the Iadian Constitution, the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. Which of the provisions given above is not correct ? Answer Options: @ a 2d @ ec (4) None of the above ‘wera STATUTE) TT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK > 15 T12 varete fares Pravda: a area cemeete aqede 2% ure FSI AMT ASH weaTeT aT sera ward aaa csi cere aviaet are. a. ureda Tevaeta aed 3 2 after aracten Sanita weerag Fes Tea EF s. ate iseucttia ages 3 nel aac fates @ dae creates Fisa ag TH. ater wierd fara abe sre 2 ratte sat : GQ) ate at @ xan a 3) sank @) FIs Consider the following statements : a. Article 2 of the Indian Constitution relates to admission or establishment of new States which are not part of the Union of India. b. Article 3 of the Indian Constitution provides for the formation of or changes in the existing States including Union territories. ¢. Bill under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution shall be introduced only in the ‘Lok Sabha. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? Answer Options: (1) All of the above 2) aandb (3) bande (4) Onlye ‘Sire arene ara Greftetteht sind fears aie at 2 (2) er@tk dat siftenm ofifiad (Legal Services Authorities Act) 1987 7am ‘diesrerentin aunts gat Ren ten. (2) tierrarcem ae dade sae danhigqa antes cafadara wards aq ge (3) ciesraear Reet ree feta ar sii rat ont ah Arh watat deca ara. (4) shearer Rater Foam Rah sare Reon Parca aract, ‘Which one of the following statements about ‘Lok Adalat’ is incorrect ? (1) Under the Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987, Lok Adalats have been given a statutory status. (2) Lok Adalats can be constituted of serving or retired judicial persons only. (3) Every award made by the Lok Adalat is final and binding on the parties. (4) The award passed by the Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court, ‘ween orararst OTT / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO. TI 16 A 35.0 tea gaten andy onftr wrt an area refiet fed ferea oT : a oratret Raat Raat 1953 wea eh ah. 3. orien sped sae ah 2 at only aria ary de see cata on Tfag gy Ha 2 a, arin aren stgaret 30 weet, 1954 Nh are Her, Basa yater ofefeam 31 aire, 1956 deft sia aren. we paten after 1 ertarf, 1957 de seen sre. ated storh fear ar area 2 wate sat GQ) a, aos 2) sass 3) aeons (4) wants gat Consider the following statements about the States Reorganisation Commission and Act? a. The commission was appointed in December, 1953. b. ‘The commission was headed by Fazal Ali and two members of the commission were H.V. Kamath and Govind Ballabh Pant. c. The commission submitted its report on September 30, 1954. d. The States Re-organisation Act was enacted an August 32, 1956. e. The States Re-organisation Act came into effect on January 1, 1957, Which of the statements given above are correct ? Answer Options : (1) abande (2) bycandd = (8)_-bydande — (4). a and donly 86. Water Frese sta (Statue of Unity) acti Hrd frum qe sre 2 Q) 182 Het Fa sate Rae Gon #1 Rah A cards Fater Yrwoaten (Statue of Liberty) stmt ae Ha aa. @) ee ene Se ren ces Rem me dake we ee (3) eee 2018 © fran aren aed weer Bhar 145 a serfeae Tee aa eT ire. (4) hers wah art Which one of the following statements about ‘Statue of Unity’ is false ? (1) The 182-metre-high Statue of Unity is twice the height of New York’s Statue of Liberty. (2) The height of the Statue in metres has been picked to match the total Assembly Constituencies in Gujarat. (8) October 31, 2018 marks the 145th birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. (4) None of the above ‘eeu areTeTS aT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK a 7 12 87. Grete fauna Rrarra ea: a. wd wines ore wa Ee srEaTA, aaa AIUR 2H anh ererarett gare FE A Tie esie (Long bones) ard area. 7%, Stasi zararaTes avafaet & ware esia (Flat bones) FM sre, wae at 2) Re a, 4 ater (2) fara, & ae (3) Pa a, 5 at (4) ad fear ata Consider the following statements : a. There are five types of bones in the skeleton. b. The funetion of the long bones is to support weight and facilitate movement. c. The function of the flat banes is to protect tendons from stress. Answer Options: (A) Statements a and b are correct (2) Statements b and ¢ are correct (8) Statements a and c are correct, (4) All the statements are correct 38. TAT TASER Met (NSG) rat Gretta Fira Faas wa TA? (1) Geareen Te, TASTE ETA are AHR EAT et. (2) 2018 Wa vem, grraret eT 51 ARR EAT BIA (3) 2018-19 Td) THM] GratSTaR rerem steal erefeeen se. A) sop daar Ratagn aavarerd) ret BRIM, TaSER, ere arfiret atq sheer, Which one of the following statements about Nuclear Supplier’s Group (NSG) is not correct ? (1) Initially the NSG had seven participating governments. (2) As of 2018, the NSG has 51 participating governments. (3) The NSG chair for 2018-19 is Latvia, (4) India seeks to join the NSG to become an exporter of nuclear technology. ‘BeRTT HTATATSY GIT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO, m2 18 i‘ 39. ‘farea’ ferae ofeugiaraa sitser erat : a 2014 Lotter fret oft 2015 TL, Brefcan fara ofewe %. 2016 TH. faaria frat yfeug Bs 2017 TV, 390 frat aftag % 2018 Vi Sirerarent fare ster, watt at: a a m z 3 q@ 1 m vot Vv @ Vv I m v @ I m wey ) Vv Vv 0 m 1 Match the pairs about ‘BRIOS summit : a 2014 Goa Summit b. 2015 ti Fortaleza Summit ce. 2016 TIL Xiamen Summit a 2017 IV. Ufa Summit e 2018 V. Johannesburg Summit Answer Options : a b © a e @ 0 m wi or Vv @ I vor m ov @ 1 a m wioyv @ v von m of 40, Weran sfteins (geeh) fates 2018 mada refit aia faa qT ane 2 (2) ar fereaamre ere Ber at are Tat sean are ag Baia sel ak. 2 aw Raat weran sities ofitem, 198g aie fafa aad are oTeT. (3) @ feteerd apm A, ea. Stera aia orcad nef 21 on Refi oan Hae Farpreall ar aT BEAT HT Ie. @) wd aaa ore Gen amie oh afer weren sities arene Ze weIaK fateh ofews

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