Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Directions: Read and analyze each item. Encircle the letter of the correct answer.
1. Pertains to the policies and procedures that help ensure that management directives
are carried out
A. Control environment B. Rules and regulations
C. Control activities D. Risk assessment
3. Involves assessing the design and operation of controls on a timely basis and taking
corrective action as necessary.
A. Control environment B. Risk assessment
C. Control activities D. Monitoring
5. A process for identifying and responding to business risks and the results thereof.
A. Control environment B. Risk assessment
C. Control activities D. Monitoring
6. Refers to the overall attitude, awareness and actions of directors and management
regarding the intimal control system and its importance in the entity.
A. Control environment B. Control activities
C. Monitoring D. Information system
7. Internal control is designed and implemented to address identified business risks that
threaten the achievement of any of these objectives and these objectives are;
A B C D
Compliance with applicable laws and regulations Yes No Yes No
Reliability of the entity's financial reporting No Yes Yes No
Effectiveness and efficiency of operations Yes No Yes No
9. Consist of all the policies and procedures adopted by the management of an entity to
assist in achieving management's objective of ensuring, as far as practicable, the
orderly and efficient conduct of its business, including adherence to management
policies, the safeguarding of assets, the prevention and detection of fraud and error,
the accuracy and completeness of the accounting records, and the timely preparation
of reliable financial information.
A. Control activities B. Control environment
C. Internal control D. Business control
10. Which of the following factors are included in an entity’s control environment?
A B C D
Organizational Structure Yes Yes Yes No
Assignment of authority and responsibility Yes No Yes Yes
Integrity and ethical values Yes Yes Yes No
Entity’s risk management No No No Yes
11. What is the primary difference between fraud and errors in financial Statement
reporting?
A. The materiality of the misstatement B. The intent to deceive
C. The level of management involved D. The type of transaction
effected
17. A worker sees other employees regularly take inventory for personal use
A. Opportunity B. Pressure C. Rationalization D. None of these
18. No one matches the cash in the register to receipts when shifts end.
A. Opportunity B. Pressure C. Rationalization D. None of these
22. Which of the following is not an internal control weakness related to factory
equipment?
A. Checks issued in payment of acquisitions of equipment are no signed by the
controller.
B. All acquisitions of factory equipment are required to be made by the
department in need of the equipment.
C. Factory equipment replacements are generally made when estimated useful
lives, as indicated in depreciation schedules, have expired.
D. Proceeds from sales of fully depreciated equipment are credited other
income.
23. With respect to an internal control measure that will ensure accountability for fixed
asset retirements, management should implement controls that include
A. Continuous analysis of miscellaneous revenue to locate any cash proceeds
from sale of plant assets.
B. Periodic inquiry of plant executives by internal auditors as whether any plant
assets have been retired.
C. Continuous use of serially numbered retirement work orders.
D. Periodic observation of plant assets by the internal auditor
24. In a company whose materials and supplies include a great number of items, a
fundamental deficiency in control requirements would be indicated if
A. A perpetual inventory master file is not maintained for items of small value.
B. The storekeeping function were to be combined with production and record
keeping.
C. The cycle basis for physical inventory taking was to be used.
D. Minor supply items were to be expensed when acquired.
25. For control purposes, the quantities of materials ordered may be omitted from the
copy of the purchase order that is
A. Forwarded to the accounting department.
B. Retained in the purchasing department's files.
C. Returned to the requisitioner.
D. Forwarded to the receiving department.
26. Which of the following procedures would best detect the theft of valuable items from
an inventory that consists of hundreds of different items selling for P10 to P100 and a
few items selling for hundreds of pesos?
A. Maintain a perpetual inventory master file of only the more valuable items
with frequent periodic verification of the validity of the perpetuals.
B. Have an independent CPA firm prepare an internal control report on the
effectiveness of the administrative and accounting controls over inventory.
C. Have separate warehouse space tor the move valuable items with
Sequentially numbered tags.
D. Require an authorized officer s signature on all requisitions for the more
valuable items.
27. Errors and irregularities involving payroll have been reported to occur frequently and
are largely undetected. The following are the errors that can occur in the payroll and
personnel cycle except
A. Paying employees at the wrong date
B. Keeping terminated employees on the payroll
C. Charging payroll expense to the right account
D. Paying employees for more hours than they worked.
28. Fraudulent financial reporting involving sales typically results in overstated sales or
understated sales return and allowances. The following are the methods that can be
used to increase sales fraudulently, except
A. Recording deposits as sales
B. Recognized revenue that should be deferred
C. Following revenue recognition practices that are in accordance with PFRS
D. Recording in the current period sales that occurred in the succeeding period.
29. This technique is used to withholding cash receipts without recording them
A. Kiting B. Lapping C. Skimming D. Window dressing
30. The following are some practices that will result to fraud in the acquisition and
payment cycle except
A. Paying for fictitious purchases
B. Purchasing goods for personal use
C. Inappropriate assignment of labor cost to inventory
D. Receiving kickbacks
32. Which of the following statements is false regarding fraud risk factors related to long-
lived assets?
A. A potential fraud scheme involves not removing sold assets from the books.
B. Because long-lived assets are typically an audit area of low risk, auditors do
not need to perform brainstorming activities related to long-lived assets.
C. Management might use unreasonably long depreciable lives in an effort to
reduce expenses.
D. None of the above statements is false.
33. Which of the following is not an activity associated with the acquisition and payment
cycle?
A. Receive a customer purchase order.
B. Purchase of goods and services.
C. Receipt of, and accounting tor, gods and services.
D. Approval of items for payment.
36. Identify the possible inventory or cost of goods sold manipulation that might occur
when inventory is sold.
A. Overstate returns
B. Overcount inventory
C. Not record cost of goods sold nor reduce inventory
D. Under-record purchases
37. These are financial instrument that derive their values from other financial
instrument, underlying assets, or indexes.
A. Securities B. Financial assets
C. Equity instrument D. Derivatives
39. It is used to describe short -term obligations arising from the purchase of goods and
services in the ordinary course of business.
A. Notes Payable B. Account Receivable
C. Accounts Payable D. Notes Receivable
40. It is used to describe a short-terms claims against customers arising from the sales
of goods and services in the ordinary course of business
A. Notes Payable B. Account Receivable
C. Accounts Payable D. Notes Receivable
41. Which of the following can be used by organizations for obtaining financing?
A. Notes B. Mortgages C. Bonds D. All of the
above
42. Which of the following accounts would not typically be included in the audit of debt
obligations?
A. Interest income B. Interest expense
C. Bonds payable D. Notes payable
43. Inherent risks related to debt obligations primarily include which of the following'?
A. Debt is not properly authorized.
B. Interest expense is not properly accrued.
C. Debt covenants are not properly disclosed.
D. Debt is not appropriately classified as short or long term.
E. All of the above are inherent risks related to debt obligations.
44. Which of the following is not an inherent risk typically associated with the existence
of dividends?
A. Dividends are recorded before being declared.
B. Dividends are not properly amortized.
C. Dividends have not been approved before being declared.
D. Dividends are recorded in the wrong period.
45. Which of the following would an auditor typically not perform as part of gaining an
understanding of the client's control related to debt obligations?
A. Review the client's documentation of controls.
B. Recalculate interest expense.
C. Inquire of management about the process for reviewing compliance with debt
covenants.
D. Review policies related to approval required for new debt.