VIVEKANANDA SCHOOL OF LAW AND LEGAL STUDIES

LAW AND EMERGING TECHNOLOGY (LLB 405)

Multiple Choice Questions

Prepared by:
Ms. Upmashree
Ms. Ritika Chauhan
Ms. Ravneet Sandhu

Q.1. Which article of the Constitution of India lays the fundamental duty of the citizen to
develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform?
a. 51A(b)
b. 51A(h)
c. 51A(c)
d. 51A(g)

Q.2. Which phase of Industrial Revolution is also known as Technological Revolution?

a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth

Q.3. In a technological society,

a. the society shapes technology
b. Technology determines its own pace and shapes society
c. both views are false
d. Both are true

Q.4. Full Form of IN-CERT?

a. Indian Computer Emergency Resource Team
b. Indian Cyber Emergency Response Team
c. Indian Computer Emergency Response Team
d. Indian Cyber Emergency Resource Team

Q.5. The harmful effects of the technology cannot be disregarded for the sole reason that it
make our lives easier and comfortable. In the light of the above statement, which of the
following can be termed as the negative impacts of technology on our society?
A. Resource Depletion B. Environmental pollution C. Automation in Industry and Household
D. Effective Communication E. Mental Health issues
a. A, B &D
b. A, B, E & D
c. A,B,C,D,E
d. A,B & E
Q.6. The inter-relation between Law, ethics and technology suggests that the purpose of law
is to ensure safe and peaceful society where the rights of each individual are protected from
the destructive technology or technological developments. This statement is
a. True
b. Somewhat true
c. Not true at all
d. Could be true in certain circumstances

Q.7. The role of a legal system in technological innovation and development is that of a
a. facilitator
b. constraint
c. facilitator as well as constraint
d. there is no relation between the two

Q.8.The central concept of technological society is technique. Who gave this theory?
a. Jürgen Habermas
b. Jacques Ellul
c. Hans Kelson
d. John Wilkinson

Q. 9. "Technology is transforming the legal profession, but it will not make the professional
judgment and expertise of lawyers obsolete. It will enable those who adopt, employ, and
leverage it to provide better and more cost-effective legal services and representation for their
clients." Whether the statement is
a. True
b. false
c. Partly true and Partly False
d. None of the above

Q.10. " Science ignored the ultimate purposes and looked at fact alone. It made the world
jump forward with a leap, built up a glittering civilization, opened up innumerable avenues
for the growth of knowledge, and added to the power of man to such an extent that for the
first time it was possible to conceive that man could triumph over and shape his physical
environment." Who quoted these words?
a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Dr. A.P.J Abdul Kalam
d. Dr. Kailasavadivoo Sivan

Q. 11. Who is the Director General of IN-CERT?

a. Dr. Sanjay Bahl
b. Arvind Kumar
c. Rajiv Jain
d. Peter chalk

Q. 12 According to the World Trade Report 2017, what are the two processes involved in
producing a new technology?
a. Research and Development
b. Invention and Innovation
c. Investment and Man force
d. Demand and Supply

Q. 13 Emerging technologies are the technologies that are

a. New
b. Innovative
c. Still in development and are expected to have a socio-economic impact
d. All of the above

Q. 14. What are the types of approaches to emerging technologies?

a. Generic, Participatory and deliberative ethical approach and Experimental.
b. Generic, Anticipatory, Exploratory and Participatory and deliberative ethical approach
c. Generic, Anticipatory, Ethical risk analysis, Participatory and deliberative ethical
approach, Experimental.
d. Generic, Anticipatory, Ethical risk analysis, Exploratory and Experimental

Q.15 What is the meant by Generic Approach?

a. It include the opinions, viewpoints, and moral intuitions and judgments of different people
in a way that could enrich ethical assessments.
b. It combines ethical analysis with various kinds of foresight, forecasting or futures studies
techniques, such as scenarios, trend analysis, Delphi panels, horizontal scanning, as well as
various methods of technology assessment.
c. It is a process of defining, assessing, analyzing and managing risks.
d. It rest on conceptual analysis and empirical observations of the general features of the
technology.

Q.16 What is the meant by Anticipatory Approach?

a. It include the opinions, viewpoints, and moral intuitions and judgments of different people
in a way that could enrich ethical assessments.
b. It combines ethical analysis with various kinds of foresight, forecasting or futures studies
techniques, such as scenarios, trend analysis, Delphi panels, horizontal scanning, as well as
various methods of technology assessment.
c. It is a process of defining, assessing, analyzing and managing risks.
d. It rest on conceptual analysis and empirical observations of the general features of the
technology.

Q.17 What is Artificial Intelligence?

a. It is the language of the universe and system built to solve universal problems would need
to be proficient in it.
b. It is the study of how people make choices according to their preferred outcomes.
c. It translate all our theories and concepts into a machine-readable language so that it can
make its computations to produce an output that we can understand.
d. It refers to the simulation of human intelligence in machines that are programmed to think
and act like humans.

Q.18 Which of the following is true?

a. Artificial Intelligence (AI) is a branch of Science which deals with helping machines find
solutions to complex problems in a more human-like fashion.
b. This generally involves borrowing characteristics from human intelligence, and applying
them as algorithms in a computer friendly way.
c. Both are true
d. a is false but b is true.

Q.19. Where did the Industrial Revolution start?

a. Britain
b. Australia
c. France
d. America

Q.20. Which phase of industrial revolution is also known as Digital Revolution?

a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth

Q. 21 Who used the phrase "Fourth Industrial Revolution" in 2016?

a. Edward Snowden
b. Elon Musk
c. Klaus Schwab
d. Louise Brown

Q. 22 According to Article 3 of UN Convention on Biodiversity,

a. States do not have the sovereign right to exploit their own resources.
b. Each Contracting Party shall, as far as possible and as appropriate, cooperate with other
Contracting Parties, directly or, where appropriate, through competent international
organizations, in respect of areas beyond national jurisdiction and on other matters of mutual
interest, for the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity.
c. Each Contracting Party shall Integrate, as far as possible and as appropriate, the
conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity into relevant sectoral or cross-
sectoral plans, programmes and policies.
d. States have the sovereign right to exploit their own resources pursuant to their own
environmental policies, and the responsibility to ensure that activities within their jurisdiction
or control do not cause damage to the environment of other States or of areas beyond the
limits of national jurisdiction.

Q.23 What are the major inventions that took place in the Third Industrial Revolution?
a. World wide web
b. Electric telegraph
c. Automobile
d. Textile Machinery

Q.24 What are the major issues faced in digital revolution?

a. Information sharing and Privacy
b. Copyright and Trademark issues
c. Both
d. None
Q. 25 Which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code was inserted by the
Information Technology (Amendment) Act 2008?
a. Section 4(1)
b. Section 4(2)
c. Section 4(3)
d. None of the above

Q.26 Which of the following judgment the apex court recognised a fundamental right to
privacy of every individual guaranteed by the Constitution within Article 21 in particular and
Part III on the whole?
a. Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd) v.Union of India (2017) 10 SCC 1
b. Common Cause v.Union of India AIR 2018 SC 1665
c. Facebook Inc. v. State of W.B. 2018 CriLJ 1575
d. Tehseen S. Poonawalla v. Union of India 2018 (6) SCC 72

Q. 27 Blue whale challenge game case?

a. Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd) v.Union of India (2017) 10 SCC 1
b. Common Cause v.Union of India AIR 2018 SC 1665
c. Facebook Inc. v. State of W.B. 2018 CriLJ 1575
d. Sneha Kalita v. Union of India and Another Writ Petition (Civil) No.943/2017

Q. 28 Information ethics has been defined as "the branch of ethics that focuses on the
relationship between the creation, organization, dissemination, and use of information, and
the ethical standards and moral codes governing human conduct in society". What are the
ethical issues involved in ICT?
a. Privacy
b. Intellectual Freedom
c. Security
d. All of them

Q. 29 Under which statute the Rules for the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of
Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells 1989 were notified?
a. The Biological Diversity Act
b. The Environment (Protection) Act
c. The Protection of Plant Varieties and farmer's right Act
d. None of the above

Q. 30 In which chapter of The Protection of Plant Varieties and farmer's right Act, the
Farmer's Rights are defined?
a. IV
b. V
c. VI
d. VII

Q.31 What type of varieties can be registered under Section 14 of the Protection of Plant
Varieties and farmer's right Act, the Farmer's Rights Act 2001?
a. Such genera and species as notified by Central Government.
b. An extant variety
c. A farmers’ variety.
d. All of the above

Q. 32 On what ground, the Central Government may delete any genera or species from the
list of genera or species specified in a notification issued under sub-section (2) of Section 29?
a. in the public interest
b. species is harmful
c. Both
d. No such power is there

Q.33 Who may apply for registration of plant variety under Section 16 of the Protection of
Plant Varieties and farmer's right Act, the Farmer's Rights Act 2001?
a. any person claiming to be the breeder of the variety
b. Farmer claiming to be the breeder of the variety
c. any successor of the breeder of the variety
d. All of the above

Q.34 The certificate of registration issued under the Plant Variety Act 2001 shall be valid in
case of trees and vines for
a. 9
b. 6
c. 12
d. 10
Q.35 Which section of the Plant Variety Act 2001 deals with compulsory licence?
a. 47
b. 48
c. 49
d. 50

Q. 36 Which authority under The Biological Diversity Act is empowered to advise the
Central Government on matters relating to the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of
its components and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilisation of biological
resources?
a. State Biodiversity Board
b. Biodiversity Management Committee
c. National Biodiversity Authority
d. National Green Tribunal

Q. 37 Which section of the biological diversity Act deals with the determination of equitable
benefit sharing by National Biodiversity Authority?
a. 22
b. 21
c. 23
d. 20

Q.38 Who is not required to seek previous approval of National Biodiversity Authority under
Section 3 of the biological diversity act?
a. Non-Resident Indian
b. Citizen of India
c. Non Citizen
d. Body corporate registered outside India

Q. 39 As per Section 2(c)of the biological diversity act, biological resources include
a. Plants
b. Organisms
c. Micro-organisms
d. All of the above

Q. 40 Genetic Engineering includes

a. Insertion of one cell into another
b. Modification of organism
c. Deletion and removal of parts of heritable material
d. All of the above

Q. 41Which of the following authorities function as a body under the Department of

Environment Forests and Wildlife for approval of activities involving large scale use of
hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the
environmental angle under the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous
Micro-Organisms Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cell Rules, 1989?
a. Review Committee on Genetic Manipulation
b. Institutional Biosafety Committee
c. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
d. Recombinant DNA Advisory Committee

Q. 42 Which of the following authorities function in the Department of Biotechnology to

monitor the safety related aspect in respect of on-going research projects and activities
involving genetically engineered organisms/hazardous microorganisms under the
Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro-Organisms Genetically
Engineered Organisms or Cell Rules, 1989?
a. Review Committee on Genetic Manipulation
b. Institutional Biosafety Committee
c. State Biotechnology Co-ordination Committee
d. Recombinant DNA Advisory Committee

Q. 43 Which rule of the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro-
Organisms Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cell Rules, 1989 establishes that the
production in which genetically engineered organisms or cells or microorganisms are
generated or used shall not be commenced except with the consent of Genetic Engineering
Approval Committee with respect of discharge of genetically engineered organisms or cells
into the environment.
a. 8
b. 9
c. 10
d. 11

Q. 44 Which of the following is the Farmer's Variety?

a. has been traditionally cultivated and evolved by the farmers in their fields
b. is a wild relative or land race of a variety about which the farmers possess common
knowledge.
c. Both
d. only a

Q. 45 Rule 7 of the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro-
Organisms Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cell Rules, 1989 prohibits
a. Import of genetically modified organisms
b. Import of hazardous microorganisms of any organisms
c. Import of any hazardous microorganisms of genetically engineered organisms/substances
or cells
d. All of the above
Q.46 In which of the following case it was held that SBB has got powers to demand ‘Fair and
Equitable Benefit Sharing’ from an Indian Entity?
a. Sharat Babu Digumarti v. Govt. of NCT of Delhi
b. Divya Pharmacy v.Union of India
c. Novartis v. Union of India
d. Monsanto Technology LLC v. Nuziveedu Seeds Ltd.

Q. 47 The first genetically modified crop to be commercialised in India

a. Bt cotton
b.Bt Mustard
c. Bt Brinjal
d. Bt Wheat

Q.48 The National Biodiversity Authority is established under

a. Section 5
b. Section 6
c. Section 7
d. Section 8

Q. 49 The State Biodiversity Board is established under

a. Section 21
b. Section 22
c. Section 23
d. Section 24

Q.50 Which case dealt with patentability of genetically modified plants?

a. Sharat Babu Digumarti v. Govt. of NCT of Delhi
b. Divya Pharmacy v.Union of India
c. Novartis v. Union of India
d. Monsanto Technology LLC v. Nuziveedu Seeds Ltd.

51. When the UNCITRAL Model Law on 53. Digital signature are created and
E-Commerce came into force? verified through
a. 1996 a. Programme
b. 2000 b. Cryptography
c. 2001 c. Graphical Coding
d. 2004 d. HTML
52. Public key is used to……?
a. publish the documents 54. Which one of the following is not a
b. make payments jurisdiction test laid down on E-
c. verify sign Commerce?
d. digitally sign a. Long Arm Statute Test
b. Minimum Contact Test
c. Authority test service with respect to that record and
d. Sliding Scale test includes telecom service providers,
network service providers, internet service
55. Which one of the following ia not the providers, web-hosting service providers,
leading case on Jurisdiction of E- search engines, online payment sites,
Commerce? online-auction sites, online-market places
a. Zippo Manufacturer vs Zippo .com, Inc and cyber cafes.
952 F. Supp.1119 1997 a. Originator
b. Burger King Corp vs. Rudzewicz b. Addressee
c. Trimex International FZE Ltd. vs c. Intermediary
Vedanta Aluminium Ltd., AIR 2010 SCC d. None of the above
(Supp.) 455
d. Banyan Tree Holding (P) Ltd. vs Murali 60. Which rule of communication is
Krishna Reddy, 2008 Indlaw Del 2280 applicable to E-mail contract?
a. Postal Rule
56. --------------- is a type of online b. Receipt Rule
contract where all the terms and conditions c. both of the above
are mentioned on a website to which a user d. none of the above
indicates his acceptance by clicking on “I
agree” button on the screen. 61. Which one of the following is not an
a. Shrink Wrap Contract example of B2B mode of E-Commerce?
b. Click Wrap Contract a. India Mart
c. Browse wrap contract b. Boeing
d. None of the above. c. wholesaler places an order from a
company’s website
57. As per section 13 of IT Act when is the d. All of the above
dispatch of electronic record occurs
a. when it enters a computer resource 62. E-bay and Quicker is an example of
outside the control of the originator. which of the following model of E-
b. When it is sent by the orignator commerce?
c. When it reaches the intermediary a. B2B
d. None of the above b.B2C
c.C2B
58. Which one of the following provisions d. C2C
provides validity to contracts formed
through electronic record? 63. ____________ Cryptography involves
a. Section 10 a unique single key for both encrypting
b. Section 10A and decrypting a message.
c. Section 11 a. Asymmetric Cryptography
d. Section 12 b. Symmetric Cryptography
c. Both of the above
59. ________ means any person who on d. None of the above
behalf of another person receives, stores or
transmits that record or provides any
64. What is the hierarchy of India’s PKI
INFRASTRUCTURE?
a. Subscriber < Certifying Authority <
Controller of Certifying Authority
b. Certifying authority < Subscriber <
Controller of Certifying Authority
c. Controller of Certifying Authority <
Subscriber < Certifying Authority
d. Subscriber < Controller of Certifying
Authority < Certifying authority
65. Which Section of IT Act defines a
digital signature?
a. Section 2(1)(p)
b. Section 2 (1)(q)
c. Section 2(1)(ta)
d. Section 2(1)(x)
66. Which one of the following tests of
jurisdiction is for determining the level of
interactivity of the website, for the
purposes of ascertaining jurisdiction of the
forum state?
a. Long arm statute test
b. Sliding Scale test
c. Effect test
d. General Jurisdiction test
67. Which of the following is subsidiary
bodies of PKI system?
a. Root Certifying Authority of India
b. The National Repository of Digital
Certificate
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
68. What are the objective of UNCITRAL
Model Law on E-Commerce?
a. To provide a set of internationally
acceptable rules with an aim to remove
legal obstacles in international trade
caused by inadequacies and divergences in
law affecting trade
b. To establish relevant legislation where
none existed and promotion of
harmonization and unification of
international trade laws.
c. To provide an equal treatment to paper
based and electronic information, thus
enabling the use of paperless
communication.
d. All the above
69. Which of the following are the
fundamental principles of UNCITRAl
Model Law on E-Commerce?
a. Non Discrimination
b. Technological Neutrality
c. Functional Equivalence
d. All the above
70. Which provision of the UNCITRAL
Model Law deals with legal recognition of
data messages?
a. Art. 5
b. Art 7
c. Art 8
d. Art 9
71. In which of the following
circumstances an Intermediary is exempted
from his liability given under section 79 of
the Act?
a. the intermediary observes due diligence
or any guidelines issued by the Central
Government in this regard
b. the intermediary observes due diligence
or any guidelines issued by the Central
Government in this regard
c. the intermediary merely provides access
to a communication system over which
information made available by third parties
is transmitted or temporarily stored or
hosted
d. All of the above
72. __________ case challenged the
constitutional validity of section 79 of IT,
Act, 2000.
a. Anvar P.V. Basheer, 2014 10 SCC 473
b. Shreya Singhal vs UOI, (2013) 12
S.C.C. 73
c. Sneha Kalita vs UOI, 2018 12 SCC 674
d. Avinash Bajaj vs State od Delhi, 2004
SCCOnline Del 1160
73. In which case it was held that the
compulsorily administration of techniques
such Narco Analysis, Brain mapping and
Polygraph test violates the rights against
self incrimination. This is because the
underlying rationale of the said right is to
ensure the reliability as well as
voluntariness of the statements that are
admitted as evidence”
a. Selvi vs State of Karnataka, AIR 2010
SC 1974
b. Tapasya Umesh Patel vs UOI, AIR 2017
SC 3931
c. Balbir Singh vs Authorization
Committee, AIR 2004 Delhi 413
d. None of the above
74. What is the name of the scientist who
fir the 1st time used DNA profiling in
criminal investigation?
a. Dr. Jeffreys
b. Dr. Alexandar
c. Dr. F.Frey
d. None of the above
75. In which of the following cases DNA
profiling can be used
a. To know the parentage
b. to identify disaster victims
c. identify origin of fluid sample
associated with a crime
d. All of the above
76. Which of the following statement is
not true about the NDPS Act, 1985?
a. It prohibits cultivation, production,
possession, sale, purchase, trade, import,
export, use and consumption of narcotic
drugs and psychotropic substances.
b. it provides adequate penalties for drug
trafficking, strengthen enforcement powers
and enforce controls over psychotropic
substances
c. Central govt. has constituted a fund to
be called as National fund to control drug
abuse
d. Cultivation of opium, poppy and
cannabis plant is not prohibited under the
Act.
77. __________ means a person who has
been granted a license to issue a Digital
Signature Certificate.
a. controller            
b. Certifying Authority            
c. certified issuer            
d. licensed authority
78. What is/are component of IT Act
2000 ?
a. Legal Recognition to Digital Signatures
b. Regulation of Certification Authorities
c. Digital Certificates
d. All the above
79. In which year the Indian IT Act, 2000
got updated?
a. 2006
b. 2008
c. 2010
d. 2012
80. Which section of IT Act was struck
down by Supreme Court of India in Shreya
Singhal case?
a. Section 66A
b. Section 66D
c. Section 66F
d. Section 66B
81. _________ is a set of technology that
directly manipulates on an organism’s
genes, change the genetic makeup of cells
and add one or more new traits that are not
found in that organism.
a. Genetic Technology
b. Narcoanalysis
c. Mitochondria
d. none of the above
82. Which of the following is not true
about “Generic Drugs”?
a. It is a drug that is not branded but is
similar to a branded drug in terms of
dosage, administration and performance.
b. It is generally less expensive
c. It is also called as bioequivalent to the
branded drug
d. Generic drugs are illegal
83. Helsinki Declaration 1964 is related to
which of the following
a. Cloning
b. Experiment on Human beings
c. Genetic technology
d. Handriting
84. Which of the following classes of
substance is being covered under NDPS
Act, 1985?
a. Narcotic Drugs
b. Psychotropic substances
c. Controlled substances
d. all of the above
85. In which of the following case court
held that “the law of patent is a
compromise between the interest of the
inventor and the public. Public interest is
and should always be fundamental in
deciding a lis between the partis while
granting a compulsory licence for
medicines/drugs.”
a. Monsanto Technology vs Nuziweedu
seeds, (2019) 3 SCC 381
b. Novartis Ag vs UOI, (2013) 6 SCC 1
c. Balbir singh vs The Authorisation
Committee, AIR 2004 Delhi 413
d. State of Bonbay vs Kathi Kalu Oghad
86. Which of the following test were being
applied in combination in Banyan tree
holding Ltd. vs Murali Krishna Reddy and
Anr., 2008(38) PTC 288 (Del)
a. Sliding Scale test
b. Effect Test
c. Personal Jurisdiction Test
d. both a and b
87. A digital signature guarantees which of
the following
a. Authenticity
b. Non repudiation
c. Integrity
d. all of the above
88. Which of the following section
prescribes the method of authentication
used by digital signatures
a. Section 3
b. Section 3A
c. Section 4
d. Section 5
89. What is the punishment prescribed
under section 74 of the IT Act for
publication of electronic signature
certificate for a fraudulent/unlawful
purpose?
a. Imprisonment of one year or fine upto
one lakh rupees or both
b. Imprisonment of two years or fine upto
one lakh rupees or both
c. Imprisonment of three years or fine upto
two lakh rupees or both
d. No imprisonment only fine of two lakh
rupees
90. Under Zippo manufacturing Co vs
Zippo dot com, Inc, which of the following
categories of websites are recognised
a. Passive website
b. Commercial/ Active website
c. Interactive website
d. all of the above
91. Which Article of UNCITRAL Model
Law provides for time and place of
dispatch of data messages?
a. Art. 11
b. Art.12
c. Art. 14
d. Art 15
92. What is the full form of PSS Act,
2000?
a. Payment and Settlement System Act,
2007
b. Payment and Subscriber System Act,
2007
c. Publication and Subscription System
Act 2007
d. None of the above
93. Which of the following provision of IT
Act, 2000 deals with extra-teritorial
jurisdiction of the same?
a. Section 75 of the IT Act
b. Section I(2) read with section 75 of the
IT Act
c. Section 3 of the IT Act
d. Section 5 read with section 75 of the IT
Act
94. which of the following are the potential
issues of E-Commerce?
a. Security Issuea
b. Jurisdiction issue
c. IPR related issues
d. All of the above
95. Which of the following case does not
relate with formation of Electronic
Contract?
a. P. R Transport Agency vs UOI, AIR
2006 ALL. 23
b. Trimex International Ltd. vs Vedanta
Aluminium Ltd, AIR 2010 SCC (supp.)
455
c. World Westling Entertainment Inc. vs
Reshma Collection, 2014 Indlaw Del 2917
d. Banyan Tree Holding Ltd. vs Murali
Keishna Reddy, 2008 Indlaw Del 2280
96. Which of the following is sensitive
personal data or information?
a. password
b. financial information
c. sexual orientation
d. all of the above
97. Which among the following is not an
essential of a valid contract
a. the parties to the contract should be
competent
b. there should be lawful consideration for
the contract
c. the object of the contract should be
lawful
d. consent of parties not required
98. What are the advantages of E-banking?
a. It is time and cost saving
b. Convenient and efficient
c. 24 hour facility is provided
d. All of the above
99. Which of the following is true about E-
Commerce?
a. It is a method of conducting business
through electronic means
b. It does not only include the act of
purchasing goods and availing services
through inline platform but also many
other services such as supply chain
services, delivery, dispute resolution
mechanism etc.
c. B2B, B2C and C2C are some of the
common e-models of e-commerce
d. All of the above
100. Which of the following is the leading
case on genetic engineering?
a. Monsanto Technology LLC vs
Nuziweedu Seeds Ltd. (2019) 3 SCC 381
b. Selvi vs State of Karnataka (2010) 7
SCC 263
c. Swasthya Adhikar Manch vs UOI
(2014) 14 SCC 788
d. None of the above
101. Many Cyber Crimes comes under
Indian Penal Code Which one of the
following is an example?
a. Sending Threatening message by Email
b. Forgery of Electronic Record
c. Bogus Website
d. All of above
102. Assessing Computer without prior
authorization is a cyber crime that comes
under____
a. Section 65
b. Section 66
c. Section 68
d.Section 70
103. Hacker is the one who
a. Intends to engage in criminal activity,
sabotage computers, steal information and
cause disruption to the networks for
political motives.
b. Intends to engage in criminal activity,
sabotage computers, steal information and
cause disruption to the networks for
personal motives.
c. Has no intent to do any criminal activity.
d.Both a & b.
104. Computer source code means
a. Listing of programmes
b. Computer commands
c. Design and layout and programme
analysis in any form
d. All of the above.
105.What is meant by the term 'cyber-
crime'?
a. Any crime that uses computers to
jeopardise or attempt to jeopardise national
security
b. The use of computer networks to
commit financial or identity fraud
c. The theft of digital information
d. Any crime that involves computers and
networks
106. In cyber law terminology ‘DoS’
means:
a. Denial of Service
b. Disc operating System
c. Distant operator Service
d. None of these
107. Section 66F of IT Act deals with
a. Cyber stalking
b. Email bombing
c. Child pornography
d. Cyber terrorism
108. Act of attempting to acquire
information such as usernames, passwords,
and credit card details by masquerading as
a trustworthy entity is called
a. email bombing
b. Spamming
c. Cyber stalking
d. Phishing
109. Use of electronic messaging systems d. Punishment for Identity Theft
to send unsolicited bulk messages are
called 115. Section-66E of IT Act deals with
a. email bombing a. Punishment for violation of Privacy.
b. Spamming b. Spamming
c. Cyber stalking c. Cyber stalking
d. Phishing d. Phishing

110. The practice of making a transmission 116. Information Technology Amendment

appears to come from an authorized user. Act was enacted in the year
a. Hacking a. 2000
b. Spoofing b. 2001
c. Spamming c. 2008
d. spamdexing d. 2009

111. Which section of IT Act covers most 117. Punishment for sending offensive
of the common crimes arising out of messages through communication service
“Unauthorised Access” are given in:
a. Section 66 a. 66A
b. Section 67 b. 65
c. Section 73 c. 66B
d. Section 74 d. 66F

112. The use of the Internet or other 118. What does the process of registering a
electronic means to stalk or harass an domain name that is the trademark of
individual, a group of individuals, or an another company called:
organisation is termed: a. Cybersquatting
a. Cyberspace b. Trademark Violation
b. Cyber stalking c. Patent violation
c. Pornography d. Name stealing
d. None of these
119. A donor can authorise the removal of
113. Programs that multiply like viruses any organ from the body after the death
but spread from computer to computer are under section ______ of the
called as: Transplantation of Human Organs Act,
a. Worms 1994:
b. Virus A. Section 9
c. Boot b. Section 3
d. None of these c. Section 8
d. Section 7
114. Section 66C of IT Act deals with
a. Cyber stalking 120. Near relative” means:
b. Email bombing a. Spouse, son, daughter, father
c. Child pornography b. Mother, brother
c. Spouse, son, daughter, father, mother,
brother or sister
d. Spouse, son, daughter, father, mother
121. Tampering of computer source code
is covered in:
a. Section 43
b. Section 45
c. Section 47
d. Section 49
122. Section 3 of the Medical Termination
of Pregnancy Act provides for the time
period when pregnancy may be
terminated:
a. 8 weeks to 20 weeks
b. 12 weeks to 20 weeks
c. 8 weeks to 12 weeks
d. 8 weeks to 24 weeks
123. In what case does the Court give
directions to the State Government and
Union Territories to educate the people of
the necessity of implementing the
provisions of the PCPNDT Act:
a. Tapasya Umesh Pisal v. UOI
b. Voluntary Health Association of Punjab
v. UOI
c. FOGSI v. UOI
d. Balbir Singh v. The Authorisation
Committee
124. What do you mean by “altruistic
surrogacy”?
a. It is a situation where the surrogate
receives no financial reward for her
pregnancy or the relinquishment of the
child.
b. It is a form of surrogacy in which a
gestational carrier is paid to carry a child
to maturity in her womb.
c. It is a situation where the surrogate is
pregnant with her own biological child, but
this child was conceived with the intention
of relinquishing the child to be raised by
others.
d. It is situation where the surrogate
becomes pregnant via embryo transfer
with a child of which she is not the
biological mother.
125. What was held in Shreya Singhal v.
UOI?
a. Section 66A was struck down
b. Section 118 (d) of the Kerala Police Act
violates article 19 (1) (a) of the
Constitution.
c. Section 79 is valid subject to section 79
(3) (b)
d. All of the above
126. The use of the Internet or other
electronic means to stalk or harass an
individual, a group of individuals, or an
organisation is termed:
a. Cyberspace
b. Cyber stalking
c. Pornography
d. None of these
127. State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Ogad,
the Court held that:
a. giving finger prints leads to violation of
article 20 (3)
b. giving finger prints leads to self
incrimination
c. giving finger prints may amount to
giving evidence but is not included within
the expression ‘to be a witness’
d. all of the above
128. Section 79 of the IT provides:
a. Conditional immunity with respect to
third party information.
b. Holds intermediaries liable in case of
lack of due diligence.
c. That the intermediaries are required to
give notice and take down offensive
material.
d. All of the above.
129. Section 66F deals with:
a. Cyber terrorism
b. Punishment for violation of privacy
c. Punishment for sending offensive
messages
d. Identity theft
130. Human cloning is:
a. Legal in india
b. Illegal in India
c. Governed by ICMR
d. None of the above
131. Whoever knowingly or intentionally -
_________________________used for a
computer, computer programme, computer
system or computer network, when the
computer source code is required to be
kept or maintained by law for the time
being in force, shall be punishable with
imprisonment up to three years, or with
fine which may extend up to two lakh
rupees, or with both.
a. conceals, destroys or alters or
intentionally or knowingly causes another
to conceal, destroy, or alter any computer
source code
b. conceals, alters or intentionally or
knowingly causes another to conceal or
alter any computer source code
c. destroys or alters or intentionally or
knowingly causes another to destroy, or
alter any computer source code
d. none of the above
132. hild pornography is
a. illegal in india
b. storing pornographic material in india is
illegal in india
c. transmitting or storing pornographic
material in any computer or storage device
is illegal and punishable offence in India
d. all of the above
133. Sneha Kalita v. UOI dealt with
a. Taking immediate measures to
ban/block all sites linked with the Blue
Whale Online game and To spread
awareness about the evil impact of Blue
Whale and such other life threatening
games.
b. To spread awareness about the dignity
of life and not to waste it.
c. a&b
d. To spread awareness about the evil
impact of Blue Whale and such other life
threatening games.
134. Section 84 of the Indian Patent Act
provides for
a. Evergreening of patents
b. Compulsory licensing
c. a and b
d. None of the above
135. Section 90 of the Indian Patent act
provides for
a. Royalty to be paid to the patent holder
b. Availability of patented product at
reasonable price to the public
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
136. A living donor cannot donate his/her
organs
a. True
b. False
137. Organs can be donated for
a. Therapeutic purposes
b. Research purposes
c. Both a &b
d. None of the above
138. Surrogacy Regulation Bill, 2020 bans
a. Surrogacy in India
b. Commercial surrogacy in india
c. Altruistic surrogacy in india
d. Gestational surrogacy in india
139. Baby Manji Yamada v. Union Of
India dealt with
a. Organ transplantation
b. Commercial surrogacy
c. ART
d. Designer baby
d. None of the above
142. Computer contaminant means any set
of computer instructions that are designed–
a. to modify, destroy, record, transmit data
or programme residing within a computer,
computer system or computer network; or
b.by any means to usurp the normal
operation of the computer, computer
system, or computer network;
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

140. What was the name of the first cloned

mammal?
A. Dolly-the sheep
b. Dolly-the goat
c. Dolly-the cow
d. None of the above

141. PCPNDT Act, 1994 has its roots in

a. Article 15 (2) of the Constitution of
india
b. Dowry Prohibition Act
c. IPC