SEAT NUMBER: ……….… ROOM:..……………….

FAMILY NAME:………….....………………………….
This question paper must be returned.
OTHER NAMES:……..…….…………………..……..
Candidates are not permitted to remove any
part of it from the examination room.
STUDENT NUMBER:…..…….………..……………..

FORMAL EXAMINATION PERIOD: SESSION 2, NOVEMBER 2016

Unit Code: COGS101

Unit Name: Delusions and Disorders of the Mind and Brain

Duration of Exam 2 hours (plus 10 minutes reading time)
(including reading time if applicable):
Section A: 50 Multiple Choice Questions
Total No. of Questions:
Section B: 3 Essay Questions (2 essay questions to be answered)
Total No. of Pages 11
(including this cover sheet):

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS:

• Students are required to follow directions given by the Final Examination Supervisor and must refrain from communicating in any way with another student once they have entered
the final examination venue.
• Students may not write or mark the exam materials in any way during reading time.
• Students may only access authorised materials during this examination. A list of authorised material is available on this cover sheet.
• All watches must be removed and placed at the top of the exam desk and must remain there for the duration of the exam. All alarms, notifications and alerts must be switched off.
• Students are not permitted to leave a final examination venue during the last 15 minutes of the examination.
• If it is alleged you have breached these rules at any time during the examination, the matter may be reported to a University Discipline Committee for determination.

EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS:

Answer BOTH sections.

Section A: Multiple-choice Questions.

Section A has 50 multiple-choice questions. Please choose only one answer for each question.
Use the Multiple Choice Answer Sheet and mark your answers there.

Total for Section A: 20 marks

Section B: Essay Questions.

Section B has 3 essay questions but please answer only 2 essay questions.

Write down your answers in separate Exam Booklets (Use one Exam Booklet to answer one question).

Total for Section B: 20 marks

Exam total: 40 marks

AIDS AND MATERIALS PERMITTED/NOT PERMITTED:

Dictionaries: No dictionaries permitted
Calculators: No calculators permitted
Other: Closed book – No notes or textbooks permitted
 1
Section A. Multiple-choice questions (50%). Please choose one correct answer for
each question.
1 Which option is true for a child with phonological dyslexia?
a They might have trouble reading made-up words such as thirfint
b They might read the word pirates as parties
c They might read the word dad as bad,
d They might have no trouble reading the word yacht but might not be able to
say what it means
e They might read come as ‘coam’ (same pronunciation as ‘comb’)

2 Which option about treatments for dyslexia is NOT true?

a Treatment programs that involve improving sensorimotor coordination have
been shown to be effective for surface dyslexia
b Phonics training has been shown to be effective in treating children with
phonological dyslexia
c Finger following while reading may help children with letter position dyslexia
d Most children with dyslexia have more than one problem in their reading
processes, hence treatments should target a combination of those problems
e Assessing children with tests of different reading processes should always
be the first step of treatment

3 Which of the following statements about reading and developmental dyslexia is

NOT true?
a There are different types of dyslexia
b Children with dyslexia are the ones who perform at the bottom 10-15% of
the distribution in reading tests
c Reading involves more than one skill and it is easier to observe when
reading fails
d Phonics training has been shown to be effective in treating some children
with dyslexia
e Children with dyslexia all have some kind of attention disorder

4 According to the theories in reading development, children go through three

phases. Which of the following is the correct chronological order?
a 1) orthographic phase; 2) alphabetic phase; 3) logographic phase
b 1) logographic phase; 2) alphabetic phase; 3) orthographic phase
c 1) alphabetic phase; 2) logographic phase; 3) orthographic phase
d 1) alphabetic phase; 2) orthographic phase; 3) logographic phase
e 1) logographic phase; 2) orthographic phase; 3) alphabetic phase

5 If a child reads the pair of words tall walk as "wall" "talk", they may be
displaying symptoms of:
a Surface dyslexia
b Phonological dyslexia
c Letter Position Dyslexia
d Attentional Dyslexia
e Hyperlexia
 2
6 What are the major sources of evidence that are used to determine the nature
of the language impairment in aphasia?
a The error types the person with aphasia makes and the factors that
influence errors
b The tasks the person with aphasia has problems with and the factors that
influence errors
c How fast the person with aphasia responds to questions and whether they
know they are correct.
d How fast the person with aphasia responds to questions, how accurate they
are and whether they know they are correct.
e The tasks the person with aphasia has problems with, the error types they
make and the factors that influence errors

7 When a person with aphasia tries naming a picture of a rabbit, which would be
examples of phonological errors?
a Mouse and dog
b Hare and ribbit
c Habit and bagod
d Sabit and rabbig
e Sibock and tunip

8 If a person with aphasia has impaired word meanings:

a They will make phonological errors in naming and have no problems with
comprehension
b They will make phonological errors in naming and have trouble with
comprehension
c They will make semantic errors in picture naming and have no problems
with comprehension
d They will make semantic errors in picture naming and have trouble with
comprehension
e They will make both semantic and phonological errors in picture naming and
have trouble with comprehension

9 Why is it important to find the underlying cause of a language symptom (e.g.

impaired naming) in aphasia using a cognitive model of language?
a Different symptoms require different treatments
b It isn't important, treatment can be planned on the basis of symptoms
c It isn't important for treatment but it is interesting for researchers
d The same symptom can have different causes and different causes require
different treatments
e The same symptom can have different causes

10 If someone with aphasia has difficulty understanding it can be harder:

a When they are tired
b In a crowded place
c If people talk quickly
d If people talk quickly and/or it is a crowded place
e When they are tired and/or if people talk quickly and/or in crowded places
 3
11 What is the placebo effect?
a An improvement resulting from the belief that people should be treated
b An improvement resulting from the belief in being in the right place at the
time
c An improvement resulting from the belief that you are getting worse from a
treatment
d An improvement resulting from the belief that you are not getting a
treatment
e An improvement resulting from the belief in a treatment

12 What is meant by a “distal” treatment of specific language impairment (SLI)?

a A substitute program that trains cognitive processes related to language
b A program that trains an underlying root cause of a language problem
c A program that trains cognitive processes that relate to intelligence
d A program that trains cognitive processes that immediately underpin
language
e A program that trains language comprehension

13 Why is specific language impairment said to be specific?

a It only affects one specific part of a person's language
b It only affects a person's language at specific times in their life
c It only affects a person's written language
d It only affects a person's language and not their ability to learn other skills
e It only affects a person's specific skills and not their language in general

14 What is a systematic review of a cognitive treatment?

a A review of all properly controlled studies of that treatment
b A review of all the most recent studies of that treatment
c A review of all the studies of a treatment in a certain country
d A review of all the biggest studies of that treatment
e A review of all the most popular studies of that treatment

15 Which of the following tasks is NOT related to executive functions

a Planning
b Remembering what happened yesterday
c Inhibiting irrelevant information while doing another task
d Doing a theory of mind task
e Doing a false belief task

16 Which of the following statements is false?

a Autism was first described by Leo Kanner
b All people with autism have social difficulties
c Autism only affects boys
d Epilepsy is common in autism
e Some people with autism have special skills
 4
17 Theory of mind is:
a A scientific theory about how the mind works
b The ability to “theorise” about the mental states that explain someone’s
behaviour
c The scientific theory that everyone has mental states
d The theory that people with autism lack certain mental states
e The ability to read someone’s mind and know exactly what they are thinking

18 False belief tests are used to assess theory of mind because:

a They are much harder than other tests of theory of mind, so people with
autism often fail them
b They can be used to diagnose people with autism
c The only way to pass the test is to think about the other person’s mental
states
d It’s important to understand when people are deceiving you
e They test understanding of different mental states

19 The synaesthetic congruency effect:

a Is that colour naming times on congruent trials are longer than on
incongruent trials
b Is that colour naming is unaffected by the letter identity
c Is a direct subjective measure of synaesthesia
d Is an indirect subjective measure of synaesthesia
e Is that colour naming times are longer on incongruent than congruent trials

20 In visual search experiments, a target defined by a unique feature typically

results in
a Reaction times that increase as the number of distractors increase
b Reaction times that decrease as the number of distractors increase
c Reaction times that are similar regardless of the number of distractors
d Reaction times that show the same pattern as a target defined by a
conjunction of features
e Reaction times that are slower than for a target defined by a conjunction of
features

21 Synaesthesia is all of the following except:

a A disorder
b Involuntary
c Requires awareness of the inducing stimulus
d Stimulus specific
e Consistent

22 Indirect measures of synaesthesia

a Might tell us about the ‘mechanisms’ underlying synaesthesia
b Show it is more prevalent in males
c Involve verbally asking about people’s experiences
d Are subjective
e Involve verbally asking about people’s experiences and it might tell us about
the ‘mechanisms’ underlying synaesthesia
 5

23 Which agnosias map onto the 3 stage model of object perception?

a Only 2. Apperceptive and Associative
b Only 2. Dorsal and Ventral Simultanagnosia
c Apperceptive, Category-Specific Deficit, and Associative
d Simultanagnosia, Apperceptive and Associative
e None of the agnosias map onto the 3 stage model

24 An individual with apperceptive agnosia would be unable to?

a Pantomine the use of objects
b Select a named object from a group
c Group elements and Recognize or match objects
d Grasp an object
e See colour

25 What are the two forms of simultanagnosia?

a Apperceptive and Associative
b Dorsal and Ventral
c Category specific and Amusia
d Optic and Associative
e None of the mentioned options

26 In what ways is optic aphasia different to associative agnosia?

a Optic aphasics are able to pantomine the use of an object and select a
named object from a group of seen objects
b Associative agnosics are able to pantomine the use of an object and unable
to select a named object from a group of seen objects
c Optic aphasics are unable to pantomine the use of an object and select a
named object from a group of seen objects
d Optic aphasics are unable to group objects
e Both disorders are the same

27 Multiple trace theory:

a Describes hippocampal-independent memories
b Accounts for cases which Standard Consolidation Theory cannot
c Has difficulty accounting for anterograde amnesia
d All of the above
e None of the above

28 Retrieval failure:
a Typically involves the hippocampus
b Is the cause of retrograde amnesia but not anterograde amnesia
c Is the cause of anterograde amnesia but not retrograde amnesia
d Is demonstrated when recognition memory is better than recall
e Is the usual cause of the sense of "living in the present tense"
 6
29 The medial temporal lobe’s role in memory formation:
a Explains retrieval failures
b Can be described in terms of linking co-occurring experiences
c Is independent of the role of the hippocampus
d Becomes apparent in the later stages of Alzheimer's disease
e Became apparent following herpes simplex encephalitis in the case of
Henry Molaison (HM)

30 Oliver Sacks called his patient Jimmie "The Lost Mariner" because:
a He cannot find his way in his environment due to topographical amnesia
b He is lost in time due to his retrograde amnesia
c He is lost in time due to his anterograde amnesia
d He continually loses his train of thought
e He has lost his sense of spirituality

31 De Clerambault syndrome is the belief, in the absence of any evidence, that

a Other people are inserting thoughts into your mind
b Some person of great fame or high social status is in love with you
c Your thoughts can be read by other people
d People you know are intending to persecute you
e You are a very important and powerful person

32 Fregoli delusion is the belief that:

a Other people are out to get you
b Other people can control the movement of your body, against your will
c You have special powers or abilities
d People you know are disguising themselves and following you around in the
street
e You are dead

33 In Capgras delusion, the delusional idea first occurs because:

a The patient has impaired ability to see faces
b The patient has mirror agnosia
c The patient’s autonomic nervous system has become completely
unresponsive to all stimuli
d The patient’s autonomic nervous system no longer responds to familiar
faces
e The patient’s autonomic nervous system now responds to all faces, even
unfamiliar ones

34 Which of the following is NOT a feature of delusions?

a The patients can have brain damage
b The patients can have insight about their delusions
c The deluded patients can act on what they believe
d They all have more than one delusion
e They are not rare
 7
35 According to the two-factor theory of delusion, the first factor:
a Is responsible for the content of the delusional belief
b Is responsible for the inability to reject the delusional belief
c Is the same in every different kind of delusion
d Is always due to damage to the right hemisphere of the brain
e Is a general difficulty in the ability to reason

36 Which of the following is true about the occurrence of schizophrenia?

a Schizophrenia only onsets in people younger than 50 years of age
b Among adolescents, schizophrenia is more common in males than females
c On average, schizophrenia is more common in males than females
d On average, the age of onset of schizophrenia is the same in males and
females
e In people 40 years or older, schizophrenia onsets more often in males

37 Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom of schizophrenia

a Derailing speech
b Somatic hallucinations
c Persecutory delusions
d Apathy
e Loss of boundary delusions

38 One approach to studying schizophrenia is the cognitive neuropsychiatric

approach. This means explaining symptoms in terms of:
a Damage to neural pathways
b Interpersonal dynamics
c Disruption to normal information processing
d Childhood trauma
e Poor performance on standard cognitive batteries

39 Deficits in social cognition are common in schizophrenia. Which of the following

is true?
a ‘Theory of mind' impairments in schizophrenia can be thought of as a
problem with mental perspective-taking
b Impairments in social cognition are unrelated to social functioning in
schizophrenia
c People with schizophrenia are 'mind-blind'
d Higher order social cognition such as 'Theory of Mind' is impaired in
schizophrenia, but basic emotion recognition is spared
e Impairments in social cognition are entirely due to impairments in basic
cognition

40 Which of the following is false about risks associated with schizophrenia?

a Suicide is more common in people with schizophrenia compared to the
general population.
b Bad parenting does not cause schizophrenia.
c Stress can trigger the onset of schizophrenia in a vulnerable adolescent.
d If you have an identical twin who develops schizophrenia, your risk of
developing schizophrenia is near 50%.
e Cannabis use is not associated with increased risk of Schizophrenia.
 8

41 Hypnotised subjects typically describe their hypnotic responses as being

surprisingly:
a Easy and real
b Difficult and effortful
c Confusing and tiring
d Amusing and irritating
e None of the above

42 Hypnosis research that explores the nature of hypnosis itself is known as:
a Hypnotisability research
b Intrinsic research
c Magnetism research
d Instrumental research
e None of the mentioned options

43 Hypnotisability scores:
a Are normally distributed in the population
b Increase with age
c Vary according to geographical location
d Correlate positively with extroversion
e Indicate that 70% of the population is low hypnotisable

44 In our hypnotic model of mirrored-self misidentification, we gave high

hypnotisable subjects a suggestion to see a stranger in the mirror and found
that:
a Subjects refused to look in the mirror
b Subjects provided irrational explanations about the “stranger”
c Approximately 90% of subjects could not say the word “mirror”
d Approximately 70% of subjects saw themselves in the mirror
e Subjects claimed that there were physical differences between themselves
and the “stranger”

45 The most successful technique for challenging hypnotic mirrored-self

misidentification is:
a Asking subjects how a close friend would be able to tell them apart from the
stranger in the mirror
b Asking subjects to explain why the stranger is wearing the same clothes as
them
c Giving subjects a small hand-held mirror to look into
d Having the hypnotist appear in the mirror beside subjects
e Asking subjects to touch their nose while looking in the mirror

46 The sense of agency is:

a Always in our awareness
b Available only to our subconscious
c Impossible to recognise
d Only active in clinical disorders
e Most noticeable when it is disrupted in some way
 9

47 Which of the following is not usually associated with a reduced sense of

agency:
a Picking up a cup
b Driving without awareness of actions
c States of flow in sports
d Hypnosis
e Ecstatic religious rituals

48 According to the theory of Apparent Mental Causation, which of these options is

sufficient to generate a sense of agency for a specific action?
a Thoughts that occur prior to the action
b Thoughts that are consistent with the action
c Thoughts that are the exclusive possible cause of the action
d All of the mentioned options
e None of the mentioned options

49 Phantom limb sensations after limb amputation are:

a Feeling that the limb is still attached
b Feeling that the limb still receives sensory sensations
c Feeling that the limb is still moving with the other body parts
d All of the mentioned options
e None of the mentioned options

50 Anorexia Nervosa patients often report body size and shape distortions and:
a Experience their body as fat while objectively being very thin
b Deny ownership of a limb or an entire side of the body
c Suffer from phantom limb pain
d All of the mentioned options
e None of the mentioned options
 10
Section B. Essay Questions (50%): Choose only 2 out of 3 essay questions to

answer.

1. Imagine you are a therapist who specialises in a particular cognitive disorder

(e.g., dyslexia, specific language impairment, autism). And imagine you are
treating a child whose parent wants to her to try a treatment that costs $2000 that
claims to be a perfect cure for that disorder. What steps might you go through to
ensure that the program is evidence-based, so that you can advise the parent if
they should proceed?”

2. Discuss what we have learned about how memory systems work from how they
have broken down in the cases of Henry Molaison and Clive Wearing.

3. Describe the four different types of hypnotic suggestions and give examples of
each type.